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Application Questions Nx8jam

This document contains 3 application-style questions about biology topics. Question 1 asks about protein digestion in rabbits and the effect of dietary protein levels. Question 2 is about DNA replication and asks about the scientists who proposed models of DNA structure and the enzyme involved in replicating DNA in a test tube. Question 3 concerns antivenom production, asking about how antivenom works, why a mixture of snake venoms is used, and which animal (horses or rabbits) would be better for antivenom production based on a blood collection calculation.

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0% found this document useful (0 votes)

130 views22 pages

Application Questions Nx8jam

Uploaded by

dovid

We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.

Available Formats

Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

You are on page 1/ 22

Application Questions

(Not every part of each question is application, but each question does include an application component.)

57 marks 72 minutes

Q1.
(a) Describe the role of enzymes in the digestion of proteins in a mammal.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(4)

Scientists investigated how the diet of rabbits affected their digestion and absorption of
protein. The scientists fed rabbits an identical mass of food but varied the percentage of
protein in the food.

The scientists measured the mean mass of protein fed to the rabbits that was absorbed,
which they then expressed as a percentage value.

The scientists’ results are shown in Figure 1.

The error bars show ± 2 standard deviations.

± 2 standard deviations cover 95% of the data.

Figure 1

Page 1 of 22
(b) What can you conclude about the absorption of the products of protein digestion as
the percentage of protein increased in the rabbits’ food?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

The digestive system of a rabbit is shown in Figure 2.

Figure 2

Page 2 of 22
(b) The food eaten by a rabbit is digested mainly by microorganisms in its caecum. The
caecum is a section of intestine attached between the ileum and the large intestine.
The resulting semi-digested material leaves the anus of a rabbit as soft, caecal
droppings. The rabbit then eats these caecal droppings.

Use this information and Figure 2 to suggest how eating its own caecal droppings
helps a rabbit’s digestion and absorption of dietary protein.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

Page 3 of 22
(Total 10 marks)

Q2.
(a) Name the two scientists who proposed models of the chemical structure of DNA
and of DNA replication.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

A scientist replicated DNA in a test tube. To do this, he mixed an enzyme with identical
single-stranded DNA fragments and a solution containing DNA nucleotides.

(b) Name the enzyme used in this DNA replication.

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(c) Use your knowledge of semi-conservative replication of DNA to suggest:

1. the role of the single-stranded DNA fragments ____________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2. the role of the DNA nucleotides. _______________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 5 marks)

Q3.
(a) When a person is bitten by a venomous snake, the snake injects a toxin into the
person. Antivenom is injected as treatment. Antivenom contains antibodies against
the snake toxin. This treatment is an example of passive immunity.

Explain how the treatment with antivenom works and why it is essential to use
passive immunity, rather than active immunity.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 4 of 22
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

The chart shows a procedure used to produce antivenom.

(b) A mixture of venoms from several snakes of the same species is used.

Suggest why.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 5 of 22
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) Horses or rabbits can be used to produce antivenoms.

When taking blood to extract antibody, 13 cm3 of blood is collected per kg of the
animal’s body mass.
The mean mass of the horses used is 350 kg and the mean mass of the rabbits
used is 2 kg

Using only this information, suggest which animal would be better for the production
of antivenoms.
Use a calculation to support your answer.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(d) During the procedure shown in the chart the animals are under ongoing observation
by a vet.

Suggest one reason why.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

(e) During vaccination, each animal is initially injected with a small volume of venom.
Two weeks later, it is injected with a larger volume of venom.

Page 6 of 22
Use your knowledge of the humoral immune response to explain this vaccination
programme.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 10 marks)

Q4.
(a) Describe and explain the effect of increasing carbon dioxide concentration on the
dissociation of oxyhaemoglobin.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

Seals are diving mammals. They fill their lungs with air before they dive and hold their
breath during the dive.

The graph shows the dissociation curves for seal oxyhaemoglobin and seal myoglobin.
Myoglobin is an oxygen-carrying protein found in muscles.

Page 7 of 22
(b) Use information in the graph to explain how the seal’s myoglobin dissociation curve
shows the seal is adapted for diving.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(c) Scientists measured the oxygen carrying capacity of seal blood.

They found the haemoglobin in a 190 kg seal contained 1.07 × 104 cm3 oxygen.
When the seal dived, it used 5.2 cm3 oxygen per minute per kg of body mass.

Use this information to calculate the maximum number of minutes the seal can
remain under water. Assume that all of the oxygen attached to the haemoglobin is
released during the dive.

Page 8 of 22
Answer = __________________________ minutes
(2)
(Total 6 marks)

Q5.
(a) What is a DNA probe?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

DNA probes are used to detect specific base sequences of DNA.

The process is shown in Figure 1.

Figure 1

(b) Describe how the DNA is broken down into smaller fragments.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 9 of 22
(2)

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(1)

A scientist used DNA probes and electrophoresis to screen four volunteers for five
different viral DNA fragments.

Figure 2 shows the results the scientist obtained. The lanes numbered 2 to 5 represent
the four volunteers.

Figure 2

(d) Lane 1 of Figure 2 enabled the size of the different viral fragments to be
determined.

Suggest and explain how.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

The lengths of the viral DNA fragments were:

• 600 base pairs

• 250 base pairs

Page 10 of 22
• 535 base pairs
• 300 base pairs
• 500 base pairs.

(e) Which volunteers had at least one of the viral DNA fragments with 250 base pairs or
535 base pairs?

___________________________________________________________________
(1)
(Total 8 marks)

Q6.
A scientist crossed a strain of the fungus Neurospora producing pink spores with a strain
of Neurospora producing white spores.

To cross these strains, he used aseptic techniques. He moved a small agar cube
containing one strain of the fungus onto a new agar plate. Then he placed a second agar
cube containing the other strain of fungus next to the first agar cube.

(a) Describe and explain three ways in which the scientist would ensure he used
aseptic techniques to move each cube of agar onto a new agar plate.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

3 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)

In the life cycle of Neurospora most stages are haploid. Fusion of two haploid strains of
this fungus produces diploid zygotes. Nuclear division in these zygotes occurs by meiosis.

(b) Give two differences between mitosis and meiosis.

1 _________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

2 _________________________________________________________________

Page 11 of 22
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

At the end of meiosis, this fungus produces cells called spores.

The spores are produced in narrow tubes that restrict their movement. As a result, each
tube contains a single line of spores. The spores are coloured either pink or white.

The spore colour gene is located on a pair of homologous chromosomes. Each zygote
produced in this cross has one chromosome with a pink allele (p) and one chromosome
with a white allele (w).

This is shown in the diagram.

(c) There are seven chromosomes in a spore nucleus.

Place a tick (✓) in the box next to the number that represents the number of
chromatids present in the zygote shown in the diagram above.

Page 12 of 22
28

(1)

The scientist recorded the arrangement of coloured spores inside many narrow tubes. His
results are shown in the table.

Type of Arrangement of Number of

spore tube coloured spores narrow tubes

1 81

2 78

3 10

(d) Using all the information in this question, what can you conclude from the scientist’s
results about the movement of chromosomes in meiosis in this fungus?

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 9 marks)

Q7.
(a) Describe the role of glucagon in gluconeogenesis.

Do not include in your answer details on the second messenger model of glucagon
action.

___________________________________________________________________

Page 13 of 22
___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

(b) The gene that codes for glucagon is 9.531 kilobases in length. The DNA helix makes
one complete turn every 10 base pairs. Every complete turn is 3.4 nm in length.

Use this information to calculate the length in micrometres (µm) of the gene for
glucagon. Give your answer to 3 significant figures.

Answer = _____________________________________ µm
(2)

Metformin is a drug commonly used to treat type II diabetes. Metformin’s ability to lower
the blood glucose concentration involves a number of mechanisms including:

• increasing a cell’s sensitivity to insulin

• inhibiting adenylate cyclase.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(2)

Page 14 of 22
(d) Explain how inhibiting adenylate cyclase may help to lower the blood glucose
concentration.

___________________________________________________________________

___________________________________________________________________
(3)
(Total 9 marks)

Page 15 of 22
Mark schemes

Q1.
(a) 1. (Reference to) hydrolysis of peptide bonds;
2. Endopeptidase act in the middle of protein/polypeptide
OR
Endopeptidase produces short(er) polypeptides/ increase number of ends;
3. Exopeptidases act at end of protein/polypeptide
OR
Exopeptidase produces dipeptides/amino acids;
4. Dipeptidase acts on dipeptide/between two amino acids
OR
Dipeptidase produces (single) amino acids;
Accept chain/chain of amino acids/peptide for polypeptide
Accept digest/breakdown/ break for ‘act’
Mark points 2, 3 and 4 reject answers where substrate or product
is incorrect eg ‘Endopeptidase produces dipeptides’
Ignore references to source and location of enzymes
4

(b)
Ignore reference to ‘significance’ unless qualified, eg ‘difference’

1. No significant difference (in protein absorption);

2. (because ± 2) SDs overlap;
Accept error bar for SD
3. (So mean) percentage absorbed not affected by percentage in diet;
4. Amount of protein (in diet) is not a limiting fact
OR
Something else is limiting factor eg amount of protease;
5. (But) small range of protein in diet
OR
(Should) Investigate wider range;
3 max

(c) 1. More/remaining/undigested (protein) broken down;

Accept all (protein) broken down
2. (So more) amino acids absorbed;
3. (Because) protein/food passes again through stomach/ileum;
3
[10]

Q2.
(a) Watson and Crick
OR
Crick and Watson;
Correct spelling
Ignore first/given/fore names
1

(b) DNA polymerase;

Correct spelling

Page 16 of 22
1

(c) Role of single-stranded DNA fragments

1. Template;
2. Determines order of nucleotides/bases;

Role of DNA nucleotides

3. Forms complementary pairs / A – T, G - C

OR
Forms complementary (DNA) strand;
Ignore forms complementary bases
Accept sequence/ chain for strand
3
[5]

Q3.
(a) 1. (Antivenom/Passive immunity) antibodies bind to the toxin/venom/antigen and
(causes) its destruction;
For ‘bind’ accept ‘attach’, ignore ‘attack’.
For ‘destruction of toxin’ accept agglutination or
phagocytosis.
Ignore reference to antibodies ‘neutralising toxin/stopping
damage’
Reject reference to ‘killing’ toxin/venom.

2. Active immunity would be too slow/slower;

Accept ‘passive immunity is faster’, not simply ‘passive
immunity is fast’.
2

(b) 1. May be different form of antigen/toxin (within one species)

OR
Snakes (within one species) may have different mutations/alleles;

2. Different antibodies (needed in the antivenom)

OR
(Several) antibodies complementary (to several antigens);
No mark points are available for answers related to collecting
venom from different species of snake.
2 max

(c) 1. Horses because more antivenom/antibodies could be collected (as more

blood collected);

2. 4550 (cm3) v 26 (cm3) (blood collected);

Accept 175 rabbits needed to (collect the volume of blood
from) one horse.
2

(d) 1. (So) the animal does not suffer from the venom/vaccine/toxin;

2. (So) the animal does not suffer anaemia/does not suffer as a result of blood
collection;

Page 17 of 22
3. (So) the animal does not have pathogen that could be transferred to humans;
Accept ‘To fulfil licence/legal requirements’.
Accept ‘(So) the animal does not have pathogen that could
result in it producing other antibodies (not wanted in the
antivenom)’.
For ‘pathogen’ accept correct form of pathogen.
1 max

(e) 1. B cells specific to the venom reproduce by mitosis;

Accept in context of primary or secondary immune response.
Credit idea of specificity if given once in relation to T or B
cell.
Accept a description for specificity.
Accept ‘clone’ for ‘reproduce by mitosis’.
‘Clonal selection of B cells’ = MP1.

2. (B cells produce) plasma cells and memory cells;

3. The second dose produces antibodies (in secondary immune response) in

higher concentration and quickly
OR
The first dose must be small so the animal is not killed;
Accept ‘a lot of antibody’ for ‘higher concentration of
antibody’.
3
[10]

Q4.
(a) 1. Increases/more oxygen dissociation/unloading
OR
Deceases haemoglobin’s affinity for O2;
Accept more readily
Accept releases more O2

2. (By) decreasing (blood) pH/increasing acidity;

Reject if reference made to active site
2

(b) 1. High(er) affinity for O2 (than haemoglobin)

OR
Dissociates oxygen less readily
OR
Associates more readily;
Accept holds O2 at lower ppO2

2. Allows (aerobic) respiration when diving/at low(er) pO2

OR
Provides oxygen when haemoglobin unloaded
OR
Delays anaerobic respiration/lactate production;
Accept acts as an oxygen store
2

Page 18 of 22
(c) Correct answer for 2 marks

10.8 to 11 (mins)
OR
10 minutes and 48 seconds = 2 marks;;

Accept for 1 mark, 10.48 minutes

OR
Reference to 2057.7 to 2058 (10 700 ÷ 5.2, time oxygen
would last if its mass was 1 kg)
OR
Reference to 56 to 56.3 (10700 ÷ 190, oxygen in 1 kg of seal)
OR
Reference to 988 (5.2 × 190, oxygen used min–1 by the seal)
OR
Incorrect answer with correct answer shown in working
2
[6]

Q5.
(a) 1. (Short) single strand of DNA;

2. Bases complementary (with DNA/allele/gene);

(b) 1. Restriction endonuclease/enzyme;

2. (Cuts DNA at specific) base sequence

OR
(Breaks) phosphodiester bonds
OR
(Cuts DNA) at recognition/restriction site;
Accept palindromic sequence.
2

(c) (So DNA) probe binds/attaches/anneals;

(d) 1. (Lane 1 has DNA fragments) of known sizes/lengths;

2. Compare (position of viral fragment/s);

(e) 3, 4, 5 with these numbers in any sequence;

All three numbers required.
Reject if more than three numbers given.
1
[8]

Q6.
(a)
Each must include an explanation

1. Wash hands to remove/kill microbes

Page 19 of 22
Wear gloves/apron to prevent contamination;

2. Burning Bunsen close by to create upward current of air;

3. Disinfect bench/work on disinfected cloth to kill microbes/prevent

contamination;
Accept use sterile/ antiseptic/bleach for ‘disinfect’

4. Flame instrument/equipment to sterilise/kill

microbes/prevent contamination;
Accept autoclave/ use alcohol/steam/boil for flame
Accept scalpel/ inoculating loop/wire loop/loop/forceps/ spreader
for instrument

5. Lift lid slightly to prevent entry of microbes;

1. 3. 4. & 5. Accept microorganisms/
spores/bacteria/fungi/contaminants for ‘microbes’
3 max

(b) Mitosis given first

Differences must be given as comparisons
Ignore references to asexual / sexual
reproduction, growth, repair & replacement

1. One division, two divisions in meiosis;

2. (Daughter) cells genetically identical, daughter cells

genetically different in meiosis;
Reference to ‘genetically’ needed once

3. Two cells produced, (usually) four cells produced in meiosis;

4. Diploid to diploid/haploid to haploid, diploid to haploid in meiosis;

Accept same number chromosomes in mitosis,
but half the number in meiosis

5. Separation of homologous chromosomes only in meiosis;

6. Crossing over only in meiosis;

7. Independent segregation only in meiosis;

2 max

(d) 1. Separation of homologous chromosomes (occurred)

OR
(Independent) segregation (occurred);
Accept description of homologous chromosome movement for
‘separation’
Accept alleles for ‘chromosomes’
Accept as a labelled diagram of chromosomes, eg

Page 20 of 22
2. (Arrangement/separation/segregation of chromosomes is) random/
(almost) equally frequent (in tubes 1 and 2);

3. Crossing over occurred in tube 3/10 tubes;

Accept as labelled diagram of crossing over

4. (Crossing over) is rare/infrequent/in only 10 tubes;

3. and 4. "Crossing over occurred in only 10 tubes" = 2 marks
3 max
[9]

Q7.
(a) 1. (Attaches to receptors on target cells and) activates/stimulates enzymes;
Reject ‘produces enzymes’.

2. Glycerol/amino acids/fatty acids into glucose;

Reject ‘glucagon converts’ as context suggests enzyme action.
Ignore lipids/fats/proteins but reject glycogen.
Reject occurs in pancreas.
2

(b) 1. Correct answer of 3.24 = 2 marks;;

2. Incorrect but multiplies by 34 (with decimal point in any position) =

1 mark
OR
Incorrect but shows sequence 324 = 1 mark
OR
3.2 = 1 mark;
2

(c) 1. (More) insulin binds to receptors;

2. (Stimulates) uptake of glucose by channel/transport proteins

OR
Activates enzymes which convert glucose to glycogen;
Accept activates enzymes for glycogenesis.
Reject active transport.
Accept carrier proteins or GLUT 4 for channel proteins.
Accept insulin stimulates addition of channel proteins in
membranes.
2

(d) 1. Less/no ATP is converted to cyclic AMP/cAMP;

2. Less/no kinase is activated;

3. Less/no glycogen is converted to glucose

OR
Less/no glycogenolysis;
If no indication of less/no for any of the mark points award

Page 21 of 22
max 2 marks.
Accept all marks in context of adrenaline.
Ignore gluconeogenesis.
3
[9]

Page 22 of 22

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Application Questions Nx8jam

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Application Questions Nx8jam

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Application Questions

The scientists’ results are shown in Figure 1.

The error bars show ± 2 standard deviations.

± 2 standard deviations cover 95% of the data.

The digestive system of a rabbit is shown in Figure 2.

(b) Name the enzyme used in this DNA replication.

(c) Use your knowledge of semi-conservative replication of DNA to suggest:

1. the role of the single-stranded DNA fragments ____________________________

2. the role of the DNA nucleotides. _______________________________________

The chart shows a procedure used to produce antivenom.

(c) Horses or rabbits can be used to produce antivenoms.

Suggest one reason why.

(c) Scientists measured the oxygen carrying capacity of seal blood.

DNA probes are used to detect specific base sequences of DNA.

The process is shown in Figure 1.

Suggest and explain how.

The lengths of the viral DNA fragments were:

• 600 base pairs

(b) Give two differences between mitosis and meiosis.

At the end of meiosis, this fungus produces cells called spores.

This is shown in the diagram.

(c) There are seven chromosomes in a spore nucleus.

Type of Arrangement of Number of

• increasing a cell’s sensitivity to insulin

1. No significant difference (in protein absorption);

(c) 1. More/remaining/undigested (protein) broken down;

(b) DNA polymerase;

(c) Role of single-stranded DNA fragments

Role of DNA nucleotides

3. Forms complementary pairs / A – T, G - C

2. Active immunity would be too slow/slower;

(b) 1. May be different form of antigen/toxin (within one species)

2. Different antibodies (needed in the antivenom)

(c) 1. Horses because more antivenom/antibodies could be collected (as more

2. 4550 (cm3) v 26 (cm3) (blood collected);

(e) 1. B cells specific to the venom reproduce by mitosis;

2. (B cells produce) plasma cells and memory cells;

3. The second dose produces antibodies (in secondary immune response) in

2. (By) decreasing (blood) pH/increasing acidity;

(b) 1. High(er) affinity for O2 (than haemoglobin)

2. Allows (aerobic) respiration when diving/at low(er) pO2

Accept for 1 mark, 10.48 minutes

2. Bases complementary (with DNA/allele/gene);

(b) 1. Restriction endonuclease/enzyme;

2. (Cuts DNA at specific) base sequence

(c) (So DNA) probe binds/attaches/anneals;

(d) 1. (Lane 1 has DNA fragments) of known sizes/lengths;

2. Compare (position of viral fragment/s);

(e) 3, 4, 5 with these numbers in any sequence;

1. Wash hands to remove/kill microbes

2. Burning Bunsen close by to create upward current of air;

3. Disinfect bench/work on disinfected cloth to kill microbes/prevent

4. Flame instrument/equipment to sterilise/kill

5. Lift lid slightly to prevent entry of microbes;

(b) Mitosis given first

1. One division, two divisions in meiosis;

2. (Daughter) cells genetically identical, daughter cells

3. Two cells produced, (usually) four cells produced in meiosis;

4. Diploid to diploid/haploid to haploid, diploid to haploid in meiosis;

5. Separation of homologous chromosomes only in meiosis;

6. Crossing over only in meiosis;

7. Independent segregation only in meiosis;

(d) 1. Separation of homologous chromosomes (occurred)

3. Crossing over occurred in tube 3/10 tubes;

4. (Crossing over) is rare/infrequent/in only 10 tubes;

2. Glycerol/amino acids/fatty acids into glucose;

(b) 1. Correct answer of 3.24 = 2 marks;;

2. Incorrect but multiplies by 34 (with decimal point in any position) =

(c) 1. (More) insulin binds to receptors;

2. (Stimulates) uptake of glucose by channel/transport proteins

(d) 1. Less/no ATP is converted to cyclic AMP/cAMP;

2. Less/no kinase is activated;

3. Less/no glycogen is converted to glucose

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