Delivery Room - Post Test

Name:
Group:
Area of Assignment:
1.For the client who is using oral contraceptives, the nurse informs the client about the need to take the pill at the
same time each day to accomplish which of the following?
A. Decrease the incidence of nausea

B. Maintain hormonal levels
C. Reduce side effects
D. Prevent drug interactions
2. The client tells the nurse that her last menstrual period started on January 14 and ended on January 20. Using
Nagele’s rule, the nurse determines her EDD to be which of the following?
A. September 27
B. October 21
C. November 7
D. December 27
3.Before assessing the postpartum client’s uterus for firmness and position in relation to the umbilicus and midline,
which of the following should the nurse do first?
A. Assess the vital signs

B. Administer analgesia
C. Ambulate her in the hall
D. Assist her to urinate
4. Which of the following should the nurse do when a primipara who is lactating tells the nurse that she has sore
nipples?
A. Tell her to breast feed more frequently

B. Administer a narcotic before breast feeding
C. Encourage her to wear a nursing brassiere
D. Use soap and water to clean the nipples
5. The nurse assesses the postpartum vaginal discharge (lochia) on four clients. Which of the following assessments
would warrant notification of the physician?
A. A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client

B. A pink to brownish discharge on a client who is 5 days postpartum
C. Almost colorless to creamy discharge on a client 2 weeks after delivery
D. A bright red discharge 5 days after delivery
6. Which of the following is the priority focus of nursing practice with the current early postpartum discharge?
A. Promoting comfort and restoration of health

B. Exploring the emotional status of the family
C. Facilitating safe and effective self-and newborn care
D. Teaching about the importance of family planning
7. Which of the following actions would be least effective in maintaining a neutral thermal environment for the
newborn?
A. Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing

B. Covering the scale with a warmed blanket prior to weighing
C. Placing crib close to nursery window for family viewing
D. Covering the infant’s head with a knit stockinette
8. Immediately after birth the nurse notes the following on a male newborn: respirations 78; apical hearth rate 160
BPM, nostril flaring; mild intercostal retractions; and grunting at the end of expiration. Which of the
following should the nurse do?
A. Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention

B. Start oxygen per nasal cannula at 2 L/min.
C. Suction the infant’s mouth and nares
D. Recognize this as normal first period of reactivity
9. When measuring a client’s fundal height, which of the following techniques denotes the correct method of
measurement used by the nurse?
A. From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus

B. From the symphysis pubis to the xiphoid process
C. From the symphysis pubis to the fundus
D. From the fundus to the umbilicus
10. A client with severe preeclampsia is admitted with of BP 160/110, proteinuria, and severe pitting edema. Which
of the following would be most important to include in the client’s plan of care?
A. Daily weights
B. Seizure precautions
C. Right lateral positioning
D. Stress reduction
11. A postpartum primipara asks the nurse, “When can we have sexual intercourse again?” Which of the following
would be the nurse’s best response?
A. “Anytime you both want to.”

B. “As soon as choose a contraceptive method.”
C. “When the discharge has stopped and the incision is healed.”
D. “After your 6 weeks examination.”
12. When preparing to administer the vitamin K injection to a neonate, the nurse would select which of the
following sites as appropriate for the injection?
A. Deltoid muscle
B. Anterior femoris muscle
C. Vastus lateralis muscle
D.Gluteus maximus muscle
13. After 4 hours of active labor, the nurse notes that the contractions of a primigravida client are not strong enough
to dilate the cervix. Which of the following would the nurse anticipate doing?
A. Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion

B. Administering a light sedative to allow the patient to rest for several hour
C. Preparing for a cesarean section for failure to progress
D. Increasing the encouragement to the patient when pushing begins
14. A multigravida at 38 weeks’ gestation is admitted with painless, bright red bleeding and mild contractions every
7 to 10 minutes. Which of the following assessments should be avoided?
A. Maternal vital sign

B. Fetal heart rate
C. Contraction monitoring
D. Cervical dilation
15. Which of the following would be the nurse’s most appropriate response to a client who asks why she must have
a cesarean delivery if she has a complete placenta previa?
A. “You will have to ask your physician when he returns.”

B. “You need a cesarean to prevent hemorrhage.”
C. “The placenta is covering most of your cervix.”
D. “The placenta is covering the opening of the uterus and blocking your baby.”
16. The amniotic fluid of a client has a greenish tint. The nurse interprets this to be the result of which of the
following?
A. Lanugo
B. Hydramnio
C. Meconium
D. Vernix
17. A patient is in labor and has just been told she has a breech presentation. The nurse should be particularly alert
for which of the following?
A. Quickening
B. Ophthalmia neonatorum
C. Pica
D. Prolapsed umbilical cord
18. Maureen in her third trimester arrives at the emergency room with painless vaginal bleeding. Which of the
following conditions is suspected?
a. Placenta previa
b. Abruptio placentae
c. Premature labor
d. Sexually transmitted disease
19. Nurse Ron is aware that the gestational age of a conceptus that is considered viable (able to live
outside the womb) is:
a. 8 weeks
b. 12 weeks
c. 24 weeks
d. 32 weeks
20. Which symptom would indicate the Baby Alexandra was adapting appropriately to extrauterine life
without difficulty?
a. Nasal flaring
b. Light audible grunting
c. Respiratory rate 40 to 60 breaths/minute
d. Respiratory rate 60 to 80 breaths/minute
21. Dr. Esteves decides to artificially rupture the membranes of a mother who is on labor. Following this
procedure, the nurse Hazel checks the fetal heart tones for which the following reasons?
a. To determine fetal well-being.
b. To assess for prolapsed cord
c. To assess fetal position
d. To prepare for an imminent delivery.
22. A pregnant woman accompanied by her husband, seeks admission to the labor and delivery area.
She states that she's in labor and says she attended the facility clinic for prenatal care. Which question
should the nurse Oliver ask her first?
a. “Do you have any chronic illnesses?”
b. “Do you have any allergies?”
c. “What is your expected due date?”
d. “Who will be with you during labor?”
23.

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Name:

A. Decrease the incidence of nausea

A. Assess the vital signs

A. Tell her to breast feed more frequently

A. A dark red discharge on a 2-day postpartum client

A. Promoting comfort and restoration of health

A. Placing infant under radiant warmer after bathing

A. Call the assessment data to the physician’s attention

A. From the xiphoid process to the umbilicus

A. “Anytime you both want to.”

A. Obtaining an order to begin IV oxytocin infusion

A. Maternal vital sign

A. “You will have to ask your physician when he returns.”

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