Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No.

of Pages : 2
[3765] - 108
M.E. (E & TC) (Microwave)
MULTIPLE ACCESS COMMUNICATION SYSTEMS
(Revised Course 2004) (504206)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of non-programmable electronic calculators is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1653
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the Keplers Laws of orbital motion? and Explain. [8]
b) State and explain the different types of satellite orbits. [8]
Q2) a) Explain the different types of Hand-off mechanisms. [8]
b) What are the major subsystems required on the space craft? Explain the
telemetry, Tracking and Command (TT & C) in detail. [8]
Q3) a) A satellite at a distance of 60,000 km from a pilot on the earths surface
radiates a power of 3 W from an antenna with a gain of 18dB in the
direction of the observer. Find the flux density at the receiving point, and
the power received by antenna with effective area of 10m
2
. The satellite
operates at a frequency of 10GHz. The receiving antenna has a gain of
50dB. Find the received power. [10]
b) Suppose we have a 4 GHz receiver with following gains and noise
temperature a T
in
= 50
o
K, T
RF
= 50
o
K, T
m
= 500
o
K, T
IF
= 1000
o
K,
G
RF
= 23dB, G
m
= 0 dB, G
IF
= 30 dB, calculate the system temperature.
[6]
Q4) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Earth station design.
b) ALOHA channel.
c) Noise Temperature.
d) CDMA systems.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) Explain the significance and function of the following GSM subsystems with
relevant block diagrams [16]
a) Mobile station (MS).
b) Base station sub system (BSS).
c) Operation sub system (OSS).
d) Network and switching sub system (NSS).
Q6) Explain the following parameters with reference to mobile communication
systems : [16]
a) Co channel interference.
b) Frequency reuse.
c) Blocking probability.
d) Cell splitting.
e) Adjacent Channel interference.
Q7) a) Explain with block diagram and suitable code, the operation of a CEDMA
system. [8]
b) Draw the geometry of Cassegrain antenna and explain its operation.
Explain the feeding system for large Cassegrain antennas. [8]
Q8) Write short notes (any three) : [18]
a) Cell Design.
b) Cordless Telephone Systems.
c) ARQ Techniques.
d) Vocoders.

[3765] - 108 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 140
M.E. (Electronics) (Computer)
EMBEDDED SYSTEM AND SOFTWARE
(2002 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) Assume suitable data if required.
3) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
4) Answer any three questions from each section.
5) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
P1657
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain internal RAM and internal ROM of 8051. [8]
b) Assuming crystal frequency to be 12 MHz, find out the count to be loaded
in timer 1 mode 2 to generate a square wave of 100 Hz for 8051. [10]
Q2) a) Explain addressing modes in 8051 with example for each mode. [8]
b) Explain internal interrupts for 8051. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the required features for operating system to function as a real
time system. [8]
b) Explain the hardware and software requirements of an embedded system.
[8]
Q4) a) Draw and explain architecture of ARM processor. [8]
b) Explain the function of different registers in ARM processor. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Describe the features of AVR microcontroller. Draw and explain register
structure in it. [10]
b) Draw and explain the memory structure in AVR microcontroller and
compare it with 8051 microcontroller. [8]
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Explain i2C bus protocol. [8]
b) Explain MODBUS. [8]
Q7) a) Compare features of FPGA and CPLD. [8]
b) Explain how exception handling is done in ARM processor. [8]
Q8) a) Explain IEEE 802.11 protocol for wireless communication. [8]
b) What is JTAG? Explain hardware design on FPGA using Xilinx. [8]

[3765] - 140 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 151
M.E. (Electrical - Power Systems & Control Systems)
MICROCONTROLLER & ITS APPLICATIONS IN CONTROL
SYSTEM
(2002 Course) (503107)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1658
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Compare between [15]
i) 8085 microprocessor and 8051 microcontroller.
ii) CISC and RISC processors.
iii) Har Vard and Von-Neumann Architecture.
b) Draw the pin diagram and explain the features of 8051 microcontroller
in brief. [5]
c) Explain, why is a register different from a memory location? [5]
Q2) a) Discuss the functions of 8051 Boolean processor. [5]
b) Enlist the salient features of 8051 microcontroller. [5]
c) Explain the SFRs associated with the following functions. [10]
d) Assuming the use of Bank O, find at what RAM location each of the
following lines stored the data [5]
i) MOV R
4
, # 32H
ii) MOV R
0
, # 12H
iii) MOV R
7
, # 3FH
iv) MOV R
5
, # 55H
v) MOV R
3
, # 9FH.
Q3) a) Enlist all the instruction that use stack memory. [5]
b) What is the difference between the following operation? [5]
MOV P1, # 1111 0000B and ORL, # 1111 0000B
when would both of these instructions results in the same port 1 outputs?
P.T.O.
c) Write a programme to produce a delay of 2 ms using Timer 1 in mode 1
(11.0592 MHz). [5]
d) Write a program to add the following data and store result in RAM location
30 H. [5]
ORG 2000 H
Data DB - 06, 09, 02, 05, 07
e) Write a program to toggle all the bits of port 1 by sending to it the values
55H and AA continuously. Put a time delay in between each issuing of
data to port 1. [5]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain the following terms [15]
i) Simulator.
ii) Emulator.
iii) Assemblers.
iv) Programmers.
v) Cross Assemblers.
b) Explain the steps of serial interfacing of 8051 with PC and how uploading
and downloading of program is done? [10]
Q5) a) Draw Block diagram and flow chart & write program to control stepper
motor. [13]
b) Draw Block diagram and flow chart & write program to control speed of
DC motor. [12]
Q6) a) Explain the added features of 8096 over 8051. [5]
b) What are salient features of MCS-96 family of microcontroller 2 given
an application of PWM features of this microcontroller. [10]
c) Write a short note on internal memory structure in 8096 family. [10]

[3765] - 151 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 163
M.E. (Electrical) (Power System)
POWER SYSTEM PROTECTION
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1662
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain following relay schemes [9]
i) Electromagnetic relays.
ii) Static relays.
iii) Digital relays.
Compare their advantages and disadvantages.
b) What is meant by fault analysis? What is its importance? [8]
c) Explain static overcurrent relay. [8]
Q2) a) Draw a neat vector diagram of current transformer. Explain ratio & phase
angle errors. What are the limits of these errors? [9]
b) Write a note on Modelling & standards of CTs and PTs. [8]
c) With a diagram explain working of CVT. [8]
Q3) a) Explain PILOT relaying protection scheme. [9]
b) Derive from fundamentals the generalised expression for radius of circle
& co-ordinates of the centre of a dual input phase comparator. [10]
c) Explain the effect of overreach of a relay. [6]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain THREE STEPPED Distance protection scheme of Transmission
line. [10]
b) Explain effect of power swing on protection of transmission line. [7]
c) Explain a protective scheme based on travelling waves for protection of
transmission lines. [8]
Q5) a) Explain digital protection scheme of synchronous generator based on
second harmonic current injection in rotor circuit. [12]
b) Explain Modern bus bar protection scheme. [13]
Q6) Write notes on : [25]
a) Buchholz Relay.
b) Harmonic restrained differential relay.
c) Static quadrilateral distance relay.
d) High impedance differential scheme for bus bar protection.
e) Effect of magnetising inrush current in transformer.

[3765] - 163 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 177
M.E. (Production)
HARD AND SOFT AUTOMATION
(Revised Course 2002)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
7) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
P1667
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw and explain possible layouts of the segmented in-line configuration
of an automated production line. [8]
b) How do you differentiate Dedicated Manufacturing verses Flexible
Manufacturing? [8]
Q2) a) Explain with your own example different steps involved PFA - Product
Flow Analysis. [8]
b) Explain the basic terminology for analysis of transfer line with no internal
storage. [8]
Q3) a) Describe a suitable transverse motion of a table by using limit switches
operated by solenoids. [8]
b) Explain in brief in travel control system used in industrial automation.
[8]
Q4) a) What do you mean by Adaptive Control and how it can be applied to a
machine tool? [8]
b) Explain briefly machine vision system used in robotics. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) Write short notes on (Any Three) : [18]
a) CRAFT.
b) Geneva Mechanism.
c) LVDT.
d) Transfer Line Monitoring System - TLMS.
e) Hard and Soft Automation.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Explain Routh Hurwitz Criterion with its advantages and limitations.[8]
b) With the help of block diagram explain the generalized feed back control
system in brief. [8]
Q7) a) Explain ladder logic diagrams for your own application sequence with
symbols. [8]
b) Explain what are the different guidance technologies used in AGVs. [8]
Q8) a) What are Petri-Nets? Explain uses of Petri-Nets. [8]
b) Draw a analytical hierarchical architecture for a cellular manufacturing
system. Explain essential characteristics of the various items of a cellular
manufacturing system. [8]
Q9) a) Briefly differentiate between FMS, Agile and World Class Manufacturing.
[8]
b) Explain what are the different types of robot grippers with their
applications. [8]
Q10)Write short notes on (Any Three) : [18]
a) Motor type relay.
b) Types of AGVs.
c) CCD Camera.
d) CTMC - Continuous Markov Chain Model.
e) On Line Inspection.

[3765] - 177 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 18
M.E. (Civil - Hydraulic)
COMPUTATIONAL METHODS IN HYDRAULIC ENGINEERING
(2002 Old Course) (501301)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answer any three questions from Section I and three questions from Section II.
3) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
4) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
6) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
7) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
8) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1637
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write about Laplace Equation in detail which is used for the various
Computational Methods. From the view point of Finite Difference Method
discuss about the applicability of FDM in Computational Methods for
Fluid Flow. [9]
b) What do you mean by stagnation points? Can there be more than one
stagnation points? Discuss the flow around a cylinder with all
mathematical details. [9]
Q2) a) Write in detail about the Initial Boundary Value Problems along with
examples. [8]
b) What is the basis of Relaxation Method? When a fluid passage becomes
gradually narrow then the streamlines come closer. Why does it happen?
What is the equation of stream line? Why stream line is an imaginary
line? Do you think that Method of Relaxation is the most convenient
method for drawing the flow net for any Hydraulic Structure? Show the
Application of Relaxation Method in a case; when flow is taking place
within a totally penetrating confined well? [8]
Q3) a) What do you mean by Boundary value problem? State two examples. [8]
b) Derive Kutta-Jukowski Equation for the flow past a cylinder and prove
that = VL. [8]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Write in detail about Markov Chain. [8]
b) What is the role of Simpsons rule in Numerical Integration? What are
the significance of Simpsons rule in Hydraulics? [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Write in detail about Schwartz-Christoffel Transformation. Give one
example along with all the mathematical equations. [9]
b) What do you mean by Regression? What are their applications in the
subject of Computation Methods in Hydraulic Engineering? State two
examples along with their mathematical significances. [9]
Q6) a) What is the basis of FDM? How do you apply to a steady state system of
fluid flow. Can FDM be applied for unsteady flow system? [8]
b) Write in detail about Chi Square Test. How do you correlate Null
Hypothesis and Chi Square test? [8]
Q7) a) Prove the Cauchy - Reimann Equation and show that the first order partial
derivatives of the velocity potential function w.r.t. x and y give the
components of velocities in x and y direction with negative sign. [8]
b) The Velocity potential is expressed as =6xy. Find the component of
velocities in x and y direction and find the stream function . [8]
Q8) Write Short Notes (Any Four): [16]
a) Boundary Value Problem.
b) Poissons Equation.
c) Separation due to sudden enlargement.
d) Oseens Correction.
e) Correction factor

for relaxation method, when one or more than one

arm of a square grid is incomplete.
f) Reliability of Finite Difference Method.

[3765] - 18 -2-
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 189
M.E. (Computer)
EMBEDDED SYSTEM DESIGN
(2002 Course) (Elective - II)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1671
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the different characteristics of embedded systems? Explain.
[8]
b) What are the different design metrics applicable to embedded systems?
[10]
Q2) a) What are the advantages of using ASIC & ASSP in embedded systems?
Explain. [6]
b) Define interrupt latency period. What is minimum and maximum interrupt
latency period for ARM7 processor? [6]
c) What is IDE for Embedded systems? [4]
Q3) a) It is required to design a real time robot control system. For this application
select the appropriate processor / microcontroller based on : [8]
i) Instruction cycle time.
ii) Bus width.
iii) Number of interrupts.
iv) On-chip RAM, ROM/Flash memory.
b) How contact-less smart card gets power up? Give details. [8]
Q4) a) Explain the following RAM types : SDRAM, EDO RAM and DDR.[9]
b) Explain the data transfer mechanism in I2C protocol with the help of
neat timing diagram. [7]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Name and explain topology used to connect devices to host in USB
protocol. Also state the application areas of USB. [8]
b) List and explain salient features of CAN protocol. Give details about its
area of applications. [10]
Q6) a) Compare of ISA and EISA buses based on the features such as data rate,
data size, connector size, applications. [6]
b) Explain the bus arbitration in CAN protocol. [6]
c) What are the important characteristics of I2C protocol? [4]
Q7) a) Explain the architecture of CPLD. How it can be programmed? What are
its limitations? [10]
b) Compare desktop OS and embedded OS. [6]
Q8) a) Define RTOS. [4]
b) Differentiate between soft RTOS and hard RTOS. Also give two examples
for each type. [8]
c) What are the different IPCs implemented in VxWorks? [4]

[3765] - 189 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 2
M.E. (Civil) (C.M.)
CONSTRUCTION EQUIPMENTS & MATERIAL MANAGEMENT
(2002 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Solve any three questions from each section.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams wherever required.
4) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
P1633
SECTION - I
Q1) Draw a detailed sketch of a Full face tunnel boring machine used for tunneling
in rock, showing various parts and explain basic operations involved in
advancement of the Tunnel boring machine. [16]
Q2) Draw a neat labeled sketches and explain the function of following Pile
Hammers in construction of Displacement piles. [16]
a) Single acting Diesel hammer.
b) Pneumatic Hammers.
c) Vibro Hammers.
Q3) a) Explain the function and the type of each Cutter head used in tunneling,
in any two of the following stratas. [8]
i) Soft rock.
ii) Medium hard rock.
iii) Hard rock.
b) Draw a neat sketch of Part face Tunneling Machine and give the
advantages Compared with Full face Tunnel Boring Machine. [8]
Q4) a) Explain in details following blasting techniques used in Drill & Blast
Method [8]
i) Burn Cut Method.
ii) Pyramid Cut Method.
b) Draw a neat sketch of a Tunnel Boring Machine and explain Sequence
of operations involved in one Drill Cycle of T.B.M. [10]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) Write short notes on any four of the following : [16]
a) Drag-line Excavator.
b) Segmental Lining in Tunnels.
c) Tractor Dozer.
d) Equipment Transporters.
e) Segmental Lining in Tunnels.
Q6) a) In a tunneling job, which are the factors, you will consider in Selection
Process for deciding the method of tunneling. [8]
b) Draw a neat labeled sketch of a Single acting Diesel hammer and explain
its function in construction of Displacement piles. [8]
Q7) a) Explain with a labeled sketch function of Ready Mix Concrete Plant.
[9]
b) Expain with a sketch different Stages of Erection of an R.M.C. Plant.
[9]
Q8) Explain in details advantages and precautions you will take in using concrete
pumps in the construction of High Rise Buildings. [16]

[3765] - 2 -2-
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 200
M.E. (Computer)
COMPUTER VISION
(Revised Course 2002) (Theory)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1869
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain four levels of image data representation. [8]
b) Which are important traditional data structures? Explain two hierarchical
data structures. [8]
Q2) a) Explain brightness interpolation. [8]
b) Write histogram equalization algorithm. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the concept of border detection using border location
transformation. [8]
b) Explain region merging via boundary melting. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Median Filtering.
b) Edge relaxation.
c) Hough transform.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the concept of 4-neighbourhood region identification. [8]
b) Define following shape descriptors. [8]
i) Eccentricity.
ii) Compactness.
iii) Rectangularity.
iv) Direction.
Q6) a) Explain main steps of fuzzy system design. [8]
b) Explain Mac. Queen K-means clustering. [8]
Q7) a) Explain the concepts of active and purposive vision. [8]
b) Give an overview of single camera calibration. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on [18]
a) Calibration of one camera from known scene.
b) Chain codes.
c) Unsupervised learning.

[3765] - 200 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 203
M.E. (Petroleum Engineering)
NUMERICAL METHODS AND SIMULATION IN PETROLEUM
ENGINEERING.
(2002 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
2) Answer two questions from each section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Use of a non-programmable calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data if necessary and clearly state it.
P1679
SECTION - I
Q1) For the following system of equations, find x, y, z using SOR, LUdecomposition,
and Gauss Seidel method. w = 1.1.
x + y + z = 8
2x + 3y + z = 17
x y + z = 4 [25]
Q2) a) Solve the following system of equations by Newton Raphson method
x
2
y + cos(xy) = 54
sinh(x
2
y) + xy = cosy
b) Find the roots of the equation by Graeffe method :
x
3
+ 3x
2
+ 5x 4 = 0 [25]
Q3) Solve y = x
2
y + cos(xy) + 4, y(1) = 2, using Euler, RK-4 and Adam Moulton
predictor corrector method. [25]
SECTION - II
Q4) Given a 1D reservoir. Find the pressures in the interior of the reservoir, if the
pressures are at 50 psi for one well and 3000 psi at the other well, both at each
boundary. Length of the reservoir are 400 ft. Assume delx = 100 ft. Solve by
explicit, Cranknicolson and implicit method. Only set up the matrix. [25]
P.T.O.
Q5) Find the finite difference approximations for the following : [25]
a) First derivative forward of order del x squared.
b) Third derivative backward of order del x squared.
c) Second derivative central of order del x fourth.
Q6) Write a detailed Essay on output for Reservoir Simulation. [25]

[3765] - 203 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765] - 221
M.E. (Instrumentation, Process & Biomedical)
ADVANCED MATHEMATICS
(506101) (Revised Course 2002) (Theory)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1681
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With usual notation, prove that (any two) : [6]
i)
1
2

2
+ . 1+

2
4
j
(
,
\
,
(
ii) 1+ ( ) 1 ( ) 1
iii)
y
n+1
h 1+

2
+
5
1
2

2
+......
,

,
]
]
]
y
n
b) Find the missing values in the following table : [10]
x : 45 50 55 60 65
y : 3.0 2.0 2.4
Q2) a) Fit a second degree parabola to the following data : [8]
x = 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3.0 3.5 4.0
y = 1.1 1.3 1.6 2.0 2.7 3.4 4.1
b) Find a real root of 2x log
10
x = 7 correct to four decimal places using
iteration method. [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Apply Runge-Kutta method to find approximate value of y for x = 0.2 in
steps of 0.1, if
dy
dx
x + y
2
, given that y = 1 where x = 0. [8]
b) Solve, by iteration method, the following equations [8]
20x + y 2z = 17
3x + 20y z = 18
2x 3y + 20z = 25.
Q4) a) The population of a certain town is shown in the following table : [9]
Year 1921 1931 1941 1951 1961
Population 19.96 39.65 58.81 77.21 94.61
(in thousands)
Find the rate of growth of population in 1951.
b) Evaluate :
sin
2

5 + 4cos 0

d
by Simpsons
1
3
rd
and
3
8
th
rule taking h=

6
. [8]
Q5) a) Using Lagranges formula, express the function
x
2
+ 6x 1
x
2
1
( )
x 4 ( ) x 6 ( )
as a sum of partial fractions. [6]
b) Using Stirlings formula, compute f(1.22) from the following data : [7]
x : 1.0 1.1 1.2 1.3 1.4
f(x) : 0.841 0.891 0.932 0.963 0.985
c) Obtain the function whose first difference is 2x
3
+ 3x
2
5x + 4. [4]
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Velocity distribution for a fluid flow is given by u = x, v = 2y and
w = 3z. Find the equation of stream line passing through the point
(1, 1, 2). [6]
b) Prove that Eulers dynamical equations of motion is given by
dp

++
1
2

q ( )
2

t
= constant
[3765] - 221 -2-
Where be the density, p the pressure,

the force potential, the

velocity potential and q the velocity of the fluid. [10]
Q7) a) If and
v
are the density and velocity of a moving fluid then derive the
equation of continuity of fluid dynamics namely
. v ( ) +
p
t
0
.
Also show that the above equation of continuity can be rewritten as
. v +v . +
p
t
0. [10]
b) If a fluid is at rest,
dq
dt
0
, show that F
( )
0 and hence
F. curl F=0
.
[6]
Q8) a) The density function of the time to failure of an appliance is
f (t ) =
32
t + 4 ( )
3
, t ( > 0) is in years :
i) Find the reliability function R(t).
ii) Find the failure rate
(t )
.
iii) Find the MTTF. [6]
b) A device has a decreasing failure rate characterized by a two-parameter
weibull distribution with = 180 years and = 0.5. The device is
required to have a design life reliability of 0.90. [6]
i) What is the design life, if there is no wear-in period?
ii) What is the design life, if there is a wear-in period of 1 month in the
beginning?
c) A component has MTBF = 100 hours and MTTR = 20 hours with both
failure and repair distributions exponential. Find the availability and
unavailability of the component after a long time. [4]
Q9) a) A system may be found in one of the three states : [8]
Operating, degraded or failed. When operating, it fails at constant rate of
1 per day and becomes degraded at the rate of 1 per day. If degraded, its,
failure rate increases to 2 per day. Repair occurs only in the failed mode
and restores the system to the operating state with a repair rate of 4 per
day. If the operating and degraded states are considered the available
states, determine the steady-state availability. If 1;
2
2;
3
3 and
10, find the steady-state availability.
[3765] - 221 -3-
b) Six identical components with constant failure rates are connected in
i) High level redundancy with 3 components in each subsystem.
ii) Low level redundancy with 2 components in each subsystem.
Determine the component MTTF in each case, necessary to provide a
system reliability of 0.90 after 100 hours of operation. [8]
Q10)a) Obtain expressions for the reliabilities of [6]
i) Series system and
ii) Parallel system.
Using them find out the reliability of the system give below :
b) The time to repair a power generator is best described by its p.d.f.
m(t )
t
2
333
, 1t 10 hours. [6]
i) What is the MTTR?
ii) Find the repair rate.
iii) Find the probability that a repair will be completed in 6 hours.
c) The time to failure of a piece of equipment (in operating hours) is uniform
from 0 hr. to 1000 hr. [6]
i) Compute the MTTF.
ii) Determine the MTTF if preventive maintenance will restore the
system to as good as new and is performed every 100 operating
hours.

[3765] - 221 -4-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 222
M.E. (Instrumentation) (Process & Bio)
CONTROL SYSTEMS
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
7) All questions carry equal marks.
P1682
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Obtain State space and transfer function representation for the system
shown in fig. 1. [16]
b) Derive the expression to obtain transfer function from state space
representation. Also obtain transfer function if [9]
x
1
x
2

=
1 0
1 1

x
1
x
2

+
1
2

u
y = 8x
1
+ 2x
2
& D = [0].
P.T.O.
Q2) a) For the system shown in fig. 2. Find the output c(k) for r(t) equal to unit
step. Assume sampling T = 1 sec. [16]
b) Check the stability of the system and find eigenvectors if
A=
2 1 3
3 2 1
6 11 6

[9]
Q3) a) Obtain the feedback gain K for the system described by, [16]
x
1
x
2
x
3

=
0 1 0
0 1 1
0 1 10

x
1
x
2
x
3

+
0
0
10

u
to meet the design specification : =0. 5 &
n
=2 rad / sec
b) Explain the role of sampler and hold in digital control system. [9]
SECTION - II
Q4) Design a digital control scheme for the system shown in fig. 3 to meet the
following specifications [25]
a) The velocity error constant should be equal or greater than 10
b) Peak overshoot to step input should be equal or less than 25 percent.
c) Settling time should be less or equal to 2.5 seconds.
[3765] - 222 -2-
Q5) a) Explain the concept of empirical modeling with suitable diagram. What
are the different techniques of system identification, explain each in short.
[16]
b) Design a PI controller for the system
G(s) =
5
2s +1
using the controller synthesis. Select suitable tuning parameter (filter)

. [9]
Q6) Write short note on (Any three) : [25]
a) Concept of Dead beat controller and its design.
b) Concept of Internal model Control.
c) Controllability and observability.
d) Stability analysis methods of digital; systems.

[3765] - 222 -3-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 227
M.E. (Instrumentation)
MICROCONTROLLER APPLICATION IN INSTRUMENTATION
(2002 Course) (506108)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1871
SECTION - I
Q1) Design a 4-digit BCD counter with LED display using 8051 Microcontroller,
for counting objects passing over a conveyor belt. The objects are detected by
using a proximity switch. The proximity switch produces an output pulse of
12V amplitude. Explain with the help of hardware diagram and software
flowchart. [25]
Q2) What are the different constrains for designing a battery powered instrument?
Support your answer with detailed case study. [25]
Q3) Write short notes on : [25]
a) Multiplexing technique for display driver.
b) Key de-bouncing techniques.
SECTION - II
Q4) Explain schemes for input and output signal isolation used in microcontroller
based system. Elaborate with the help of circuit schematics for both input and
output interface. [25]
P.T.O.
Q5) Design a scheme for interfacing ADC 0809 with 8051 Microcontroller. Explain
with the help of circuit diagram and Software flowchart. [25]
Q6) Write short notes with reference to microcontroller 8051 : [25]
a) Interrupt structure.
b) Power-ON reset circuit.

[3765] - 227 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 236
M.E. CSE (Information Technology)
OPERATING SYSTEMS
(Revised Course - 2002)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
4) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
P1684
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe four distributed computing system models with the help of neat
diagrams. [8]
b) Describe how address translation takes place with the help of neat
diagrams in [8]
i) Paging.
ii) Segmentation.
Q2) a) Explain what is meant by absolute ordering, consistent ordering and causal
ordering of messages. Give a mechanism to implement each one. [10]
b) How does the Gifford Quorum based protocol handle the network partition
problem and increase the availability of write operations at the expense
of read operations? [8]
Q3) a) What are the desirable features of a good message passing system? [8]
b) Explain the three cache location policies. Which of these policies can be
preferred to extend scalability and reliability? [8]
Q4) a) Discuss the reasons why distributed computing systems are gaining
popularity? [8]
b) Implement the Dining Philosophers problem using semaphores and
discuss how the critical section requirements are fulfilled. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Discuss the desirable features of a good process migration mechanism.
[8]
b) Describe the implementation of logical clocks using : [8]
i) Counters.
ii) Physical clocks.
Q6) a) Discuss the various data locating mechanisms that are used in a DSM
system that uses the NRMB strategy. [8]
b) Explain the Bully and Ring election algorithms. Discuss the time
complexity for both algorithms. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss the two protocols that are used to ensure sequential consistency
in a DSM system that uses the RMB strategy. [8]
b) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of implementing a
thread package in user space and in the kernel. [8]
Q8) Write short notes (Any three) : [18]
a) Transparency.
b) Wait-wound and Wait-die schemes.
c) Group communication.
d) RPC.

[3765] - 236 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 237
M.E. CSE (IT)
ADVANCED DATABASE SYSTEM
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Question 1 and 8 are compulsory. Answer any other two questions from
each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1685
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Design an ER schema for keeping track of information about the votes
taken in the US house of representatives during the current two year
congressional session. The database needs to keep track of each US states
Name (e.g. Texas, New York) and include the Region of the state (whose
domain is {Northeast, Midwest, Southeast, Southwest, West}). Each
CONGRESSPERSON in the House of Representatives is described by
his or her Name, plus the District represented, the Startdate when the
congressperson was first elected, and the political Party to which he or
she belongs (whose domain is {Republican, Democrat, Independent,
Other}). The database keeps track of each BILL (i.e. proposed law),
including the Billname, the Date Of Vote on the bill, whether the bill
PasedOrFailed (whose domain is {Yes, No}), and the Sponsor (the
congressperson(s) who sponsored-that is, proposed the bill). The database
keeps track of how each congressperson voted on each bill (domain of
vote attribute is {Yes, No, Abstain, Absent}). Draw an ER schema diagram
for this application. State clearly any assumptions you make. [12]
b) What is meant by a recursive relationship type? Give three examples of
recursive relationships types. [6]
Q2) a) Consider the following relations :
BOOKS (Books#, Primary_Author, Topic, Total_Stock, $Price)
BOOKSTORE (Store#, City, State, Zip, Inventory-value)
STOCK (Store#, Book#, Qty)
P.T.O.
i) Give an example of two simple predicates that would be meaningful
for the BOOKSTORE relation for horizontal partitioning.
ii) How would a derived horizontal partitioning of STOCK be defined
based on the partitioning of BOOKSTORE?
iii) Show predicates by which BOOKS may be horizontally partitioned
by topic.
iv) Show how the STOCK may be further partitioned from the partitions
in (ii) by adding the predicates in (iii). [10]
b) What is meant by data allocation in a DDBMS? What typical units of
data are distributed over various sites? [6]
Q3) Discuss the following terms in the context of a DDBMS [16]
a) Degree of Homogeneity.
b) Degree of local autonomy.
c) Distribution transparency.
d) Fragmentation transparency.
e) Location transparency.
f) Issues related to replication.
Q4) a) With suitable examples explain Querying with Complex Types. [6]
b) Explain Reference types in object oriented databases with a suitable
example. [4]
c) Compare Object Oriented and Relational Databases. [6]
SECTION - II
Q5) Write short notes on : [16]
a) Time in Databases.
b) Spatial and Geographic databases.
c) Multimedia databases.
Q6) a) Compare Horizontal fragmentation with Vertical Fragmentation. How
does mixed fragmentation strike a right balance? Give suitable examples.
[8]
b) Describe the locking protocols in Distributed Databases. [8]
[3765] - 237 -2-
Q7) a) Compare Round-robin, Hash partitioning and Range partitioning
techniques with reference to I/O Parallelism. [8]
b) Write a note on Handling of skew. [8]
Q8) Automata Inc produces specialty vehicles by contract. The company operates
several departments, each one of which builds a particular vehicle, such as a
limousine, a truck, a van, or an RV.
When a new vehicle is built, the department places an order with the purchasing
department to request specific components. Automatas purchasing department
is interested in creating a database to keep track of orders and to accelerate the
process of delivering materials.
The order received by the purchasing department can contain several different
items. An inventory is maintained so that the most frequently requested items
are delivered almost immediately. When an order comes in, it is checked to
determine whether the requested item is in inventory. If an item is not in
inventory, it must be ordered from a supplier. Each item may have several
suppliers.
Given this functional description for the processes encountered at Automatas
processing department, do the following : [18]
a) Identify all the main entities.
b) Identify all the relations and connectivities among entities.
c) Identify the type of dependencies in all relations.
d) Give some examples of reports that can be obtained from the database.

[3765] - 237 -3-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 261
M.E. (Chemical)
ADVANCED MOMENTUM & HEAT TRANSFER
(2002 Course) (Theory) (109101)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator and
steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
7) Write the chemical reactions wherever necessary.
P1692
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Derive an expression for velocity profile and average velocity for flow
of falling film of Newtonian fluid. Note that the coordinate x is measured
away from the wall. State assumptions. [10]
b) Write a general expression for mass flow rate of a polymer liquid,
described by Power Law model and show how the expression simplifies
to Hagen - Poiseuille Law. State conditions. [2]
c) Consider tangential laminar flow of an incompressible fluid between two
vertical coaxial cylinders. The outer cone is rotating with an angular
velocity

. Neglect end effects. Show that the velocity distribution V

is given by the following expression.

V

=R kR / r r / kR
[ ]
/ k 1 / k [ ]
The radius of outer cylinder is R and that of inner cylinder is kR. [6]
Q2) a) Draw neat figure and explain construction and working of capillary tube
viscometer. [6]
b) For a flow of Bingham plastic fluid through a smooth circular tube, show
that
Q= PR
4
/ 8
0
L
[ ]
1 4 / 3 ( )
0
/
R
( ) + 1 / 3 ( )
0
/
R
( )
4
[ ]
Assume common notations. [10]
c) Write Rabinowitsch-Mooney equation, explain notations and give
dimensions. [2]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Write Navier - Stokes equation and obtain Bernoulli equation from that.
[4]
b) Derive dimensionless form of the equation of change and explain its
significance. [6]
c) A viscous fluid is in laminar flow in a slit (length L and width W) formed
by two parallel walls, distance 2B apart. Make a differential momentum
balance and show that the distribution of momentum flux is given by

XZ
= p
0
p
L
( ) / L
[ ]
x [6]
Q4) a) i) Define non-Newtonian fluid. [2]
ii) Discuss any three models of non-Newtonian fluid and give
relationship between shear stress and the rate of shear. [6]
b) A power-law biological fluid, banana puree, is flowing at 24
o
C with a
velocity of 1 m/s, through a tube 6 m long having an inside diameter of
0.02 m. The flow properties of fluid are K = 6.0 NS
0.454
/ m
2
. The density
of fluid is 960 kg/m
3
. Calculate the Reynolds Number and the pressure
drop. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Derive a correlation for fully developed heat transfer to a power-law
fluid in laminar flow, under isothermal tube wall condition. [12]
b) Two fluid streams are continuously mixed in an agitated reactor. The
heat generated is removed through a cooling coil at a rate Q, proportional
to the flow rate of exit stream. Show that the Q is directly proportional to
the diameter. [6]
Q6) a) A slab, occupying a space between y = b to +b, is initially at a temperature
T
0
, At time t = 0, the surface temperature is suddenly raised to T
s
and
maintained there. Find the transient temperature profile T(y, t). [8]
b) A slurry is being heated by pumping it through a well stirred heating
tank. The inlet temperature of slurry is T
i
and the temperature of the
outer surface of steam coil is T
s
. Use the following symbols :V = slurry
volume in tank, and c
p
= slurry density and heat capacity, w = slurry
mass flow rate, U = overall heat transfer coefficient of coil, A = coil heat
transfer area. Assume uniform fluid temperature in the tank and same as
outlet fluid temperature. By means of the energy balance, show that the
slurry temperature T is described by the differential equation :
dT/ dt = UA/ c
p
V
( )
T
s
T ( ) w / V ( ) T T
i
( ) [8]
[3765] - 261 -2-
Q7) a) A dilute polymer solution at 303 K flows over a heated plane surface at
310 K (250 mm wide x 500 mm long). The rheological behavior of this
fluid can be approximated by a power law model with K = 1.6 Pa.S
0.43
.
Calculate the thickness of thermal boundary layer at 90 mm from the
leading edge, when free stream velocity is 1.5 m/s. [6]
b) Explain the effect of temperature dependent physical properties on the
heat transfer. [6]
c) Write the equation of change for temperature, explain notations and give
dimensions. Using the equation show that [2]
i) C
p
DT Dt ( ) = k
2
T+ DP Dt ( ) for ideal gas [2]
ii) C
p
DT Dt ( ) = k
2
T for stationary solid. [2]
Q8) Write notes on any four of the following : [16]
a) Agitator scale-up.
b) Momentum transfer in boundary layers.
c) Turbulant flow.
d) Heat transfer augmentation.
e) Concept of tensor.

[3765] - 261 -3-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 31
M.E. (Civil - Structures)
NUMERICAL METHODS AND FINITE ELEMENT STRUCTURAL
ANALYSIS
(2002 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
7) All questions carry equal marks.
P1638
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Solve the initial value problem u = u + t , u(0.4) = 0.41 in the interval
[0.4, 1.0] using classical fourth order Runge Kutta Method (h = 0.2). [15]
b) Determine the largest eigen value and corresponding eigen vector of the
matrix
1 3 1
3 2 4
1 4 10

[10]
Q2) a) Solve the equation

2
u= xy
over the square domain 0 x 3, 0 y3
with u = 0 on the boundary (Assume h = k = 1). [12]
b) Solve the equation on
u
t
= 2

2
u
x
2
0 < t < 1, 0 < x < 2 using Crank Nicolson
method, subject to initial and boundary conditions given by
u(x, 0) = 50(4 x) 0 x 2 & u(0 t) = 0 = u(4 t), 0t 1. [13]
Q3) a) Using Galerkin Technique, solve the following boundary value problem
d
2
y
dx
2
+ y = x
2
, y(0) = y(1) = 0. [13]
P.T.O.
b) Solve the following boundary value problem y + y = t , 0 < t < 1,
y(0) = y(1) = 0 using Rayleigh Ritz method. [12]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Derive strain displacement relationship for axisymmetric problem. [9]
b) List the advantages & disadvantages of finite element method. [8]
c) Explain band width reduction for solution of matrix. [8]
Q5) a) Explain frontal solver with its advantages & disadvantages. [8]
b) Explain Ritz method for solution of unknown adjustable parameters. [9]
c) Derive the stiffness matrix for CST from assumed polynomial function.
[8]
Q6) a) Explain convergence & compatibility requirements by the assumed shape
function. [8]
b)
Dsteel = 100 mm dsteel = 80 mm
D Aluminium = 80 mm; E
st
= 200 Gpa, E
AI
= 70 GPa.
A composite bar is as shown in figure 6.b Find the change in length of
this composite bar. [9]
c) Explain with example plain stress, plane strain Axisymmetric problem.
[8]

[3765] - 31 -2-
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765] - 401
M.E. (Civil) (Const. & Mgmt.)
MATHEMATICS
(Probabilistic Methods, Simulation Applications in Const.)
(2008 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1696
SECTION - I
Q1) What is simulation? When is it used? Which are the various types of simulation?
Explain, with an example, the step-by-step procedure of Monte-Carlo
simulation. [18]
Q2) a) A ready mix concrete plant is delivering concrete to 10 transit miners.
Based on time-motion studies, it is observed that the R.M.C. plant remains
idle for 10% of the time, due to various reasons. If the transit miner
capacity is 4 m
3
, and in a hour, if each miner is expected to make 5 trips,
based on zero idle time, find the probability of achieving
i) 95% productivity per hour.
ii) 25% non-productivity per hour.
iii) 50% productivity per hour.
iv) 90% non-productivity per hour. [10]
b) Explain Binomial distribution and its use in project management, with
an example. [6]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Using the Griffis waiting line model, determine the optimal number of
haul units, based on the following data :-
i) Hourly cost of prime mover = Rs. 6,000/-.
ii) Hourly cost of haul unit = Rs. 800/-.
iii) Mean servicing time of prime moves = 2.0 minutes.
iv) Mean arrival rate of haul unit = 10.0 minutes.
v) Haul unit capacity = 4m
3
.
vi) No of haul units in queue = 6.
Put your computations in a tabular form. Show each sample calculation.
[12]
b) Explain with an example each, SLI and LOR costs. [4]
Q4) Derive the formula for EOQ. Explain graphically, how EOQ balances
procurement and inventory carrying costs. Explain sensitivity analysis on EOQ
with an example. What is the advantage of performing sensitivity analysis?
Explain. [16]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) A construction organisation has observed time growth on 10 of its building
projects as follows :- [12]
Project No. % Time growth
1 24.0
2 5.0
3 39.0
4 21.0
5 68.5
6 12.0
7 43.8
8 8.9
9 29.3
10 72.4
Determine
i) Arithmetic mean.
ii) Standard deviation.
iii) Range.
iv) Co-efficient of variance.
v) Coefficient of Range.
vi) Variance.
[3765] - 401 -2-
If the permissible standard deviation is 5%, identify the various reasons
which might be responsible for the delay. Suggest suitable preventive
measures in order to achieve the permissible limit.
b) Explain Spearmans rank co-relation coefficient and its use, with an
example. [6]
Q6) Determine the multiple linear regression equation relating the concrete strength
with the cement content and the w/c ratio, based on the data observed as given
below.
Sr. No. 28 days Cement W/C
Compressive Content ratio
Strength (MPa) kg/m
3
1 31 257 0.36
2 32 260 0.355
3 30.5 253 0.365
4 29.4 250 0.38
5 36.3 280 0.32
6 30.8 255 0.365
7 28.4 249 0.395
8 33.3 262 0.345
Use the equation thus generated, to predict the 28 days compressive strength
of a particular mix, for which the cement content is 245 kg/m
3
at a W/C ratio
of 0.325. [16]
Q7) a) For a data set generated using any 2 variables, explain graphically the
various possibilities of their co-relation. For each possibility, explain the
meaning of the particular corelation (Make use of a practical example,
for explaination). [8]
b) Write the various formulae required to determine the partial as well as
the total corelation coefficients when the total variables involved are x
1
,
x
2
, x
3
. [8]
Q8) Explain the following :
a) FCP
(ma)
and Vorster - Sears mathematical model. [8]
b) Normal distribution and its applications in project management. [4]
c) Types of risks in construction. [4]
[3765] - 401 -3-
[3765] - 401 -4-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2

[3765]-415
M.E. (Civil Construction and Management)
CONSTRUCTION TECHNOLOGY
(2008 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Question No. 1 and 5 are compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt any two
questions from Section I and two questions from Section II.
3) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
4) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
6) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Moiller charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) A circular cofferdam of 10m diameter was proposed wherein following
options were considered for method of construction. [10]
i) R.C.C. diaphragm wall 60cms. thick.
ii) Interlocking circular piles of 800mm dia.
Select any one of the above giving its advantages over the other.
b) Explain in details with neat sketches the sequence of operations involved
for the method of construction selected by you in (a) above for completing
the pier foundation. [8]
Q2) a) Draw a neat sketch of a Casting yard and explain method of
transportation you will adopt to take Precast prestressed concrete girders
to the launching site for a river bridge. The Casting yard is 1.5km away
from the bridge. Indicate time you will take for each activity. [8]
b) List out safety measures you will take for Efficient functioning of
launching operations at site mentioned in (a) above. [8]
P1703
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Precast segmental construction was adopted in a Flyover Bridge
construction Having 10 segments per span. List out and explain in short
various activities involved, from Clearance of the site till completion
of the work. [8]
b) Explain with sketches Method of launching adopted to complete one
span of 10 segments in 7 days. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on any three of the following: [16]
a) Properties of grout mixes used for structural and geotechnical works.
b) Tunnel form work and Mivan form work.
c) Advantages and disadvantages of Well point system of dewatering.
d) Slip form shuttering in High rise buildings.
SECTION - II
Q5) What are the precautions and items you will look into, in construction of a
twenty-two storied building for following activities to achieve high quality of
workmanship.
a) R.C.C. Footings placed at 3.0m below ground level having water table
at 1.5m below ground level. [9]
b) Each floor slab to be completed in a 12-day cycle. [9]
Q6) a) Give specifications and properties of bentonite slurry used in the
construction of bored piles. [8]
b) Explain with neat sketches the method of construction of bored piles
with Direct Mud Circulation Method. [8]
Q7) List out and explain activities involved in determining the Rate of Advance
in Hard Rock Tunneling. [16]
Q8) A 200 tones capacity 760 mm diameter pile failed in a load test. List out and
explain the Defects in the pile which might have caused the failure. [16]
Y
[3765] - 415 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-416
M.E. (Civil Construction and Management)
INFRASTRUCTURE DEVELOPMENT
(2008 Course) (Elective - III)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Question No. 1 and 5 are compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt any two
questions from Section I and two questions from Section II.
3) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
4) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
6) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) With reference to Central Budget for the year 2010-2011, presented by the
Union Finance Minister of India, explain the following:
a) Formation of a separate finance company for infrastructure projects.[2]
b) Provisions for energy and environment sectors. [6]
c) Taxation policy applied to basic resources, infrastructure projects. [6]
d) Funding for infrastructure development and specially for rural
development. [4]
Q2) Explain the basics of the Public Private Partnerships (PPP) being adopted for
Infrastructure Projects. With respect to the three basic legal rights explain the
following B.O.T. mechanisms: [16]
a) B.T. b) B.O.T.
c) B.O.O. d) B.O.O.S.
Elaborate the problems that may arise in PPP projects.
Q3) Discuss the various mechanisms in which the Highway projects in India are
financed. Give suitable examples for the same. Mention and explain in brief:
[16]
a) JNNURM. b) PMGSY.
P1704
P.T.O.
Q4) Explain the following in brief (any four): [16]
a) Provisions for infrastructure development in the XI
th
5 year plan.
b) Rajiv Gandhi Vidyut Yojana.
c) Mono Rail project in Mumbai.
d) Pune Metro various issues.
e) Nuclear Energy programmes in India.
f) Ports connectivity Project.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What are the different methods of construction used in Metro Railways?
[6]
b) What are the advantages of stabilization of soils by temporary supports
against open excavation? [6]
c) Give advantages of carrying out construction by Ground Anchors,
Diaphragm walls etc. [6]
Q6) a) While planning of BRTS for a city to arrive at a total infrastructure cost,
what are the different areas that will be required to be studied, and work
out their cost implication involved for a particular project? [8]
b) Explain the features of any one area listed in Q.6.a. in detail. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss about the various agencies and authorities involved in the
planning and execution of National Highways, Expressways and Rural
road development at national level. Draw a suitable organisation chart
for the same. [8]
b) Explain in detail the roles and responsibilities of each agency listed above
and areas to be covered to execute the project efficiently. [8]
Q8) a) What are the major activities and clearances required in ULTRA MEGA
Power Project covered under the schemes for the development of Thermal
Power Projects? [8]
b) Explain in detail, any one of the above activity and areas of work where
detailed planning is required? [8]
Y
[3765] - 416 2
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages :2
[3765] - 43
M.E. (Civil) (Structures)
STRUCTURAL STABILITY
(2002 Old Course) (Elective-II)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of a non programmable electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1997
SECTION- I
Q1) Derive an expression for max deflection of Beam- Column for uniformly
varying load. [25]
Q2) Write notes on:
a) Neutral equillibrium.
b) Shanleys theory.
c) Effect of shearing force on critical load.
d) Dynamic buckling.
e) In-elastic bending. [25]
Q3) For a continuous bar, prove
l 16
p
7
2 2
= [25]
P.T.O
SECTION - II
Q4)
0 s
ds
d
: Prove
2 2
1
2
2
= +

[25]
Q5) For a thin plate;
( )
2
2
cr
a
D
K Ny : prove =
[25]
Q6) For a cantilever beam; determine the different values of concentrated load at
free end for different values of . [25]
*****
[3765]-43 -2-
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 445
M.E. (Civil - Hyd.)
OPEN CHANNEL HYDRAULICS
(2008 Course) (501308)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from Section I and three questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1707
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is the basic difference between Open Channel Flow and Closed
Channel Flow? Explain it in detail with a diagram. Can you co-relate
Bernoullis Equation for closed channel flow with Specific Energy
Equation of Open Channel Flow? While solving the equation of Specific
Energy we get three roots of y but consider only two roots. What is
your comment about the third root of y? [9]
b) Differentiate between actual loss and theoretical loss in a Hydraulic Jump
in an open channel. Prove that the loss due to Hydraulic Jump is equal to
(Y
1
Y
2
)
3
/4Y
1
Y
2
. Y
1
& Y
2
are the pre jump and post jump depths in a
Hydraulic Jump. [9]
Q2) a) What do you mean by channel transition? Discuss about formation of
Hydraulic Jump in expanding channel. How Hydraulic jump is formed
on a sloping floor? [8]
b) In Gradually Varied Flow most of the time we focus only on MILD and
STEEP flow profiles. Rarely do we discuss about ADVERSE,
HORIZONTAL and CRITICAL flow profiles. Why is it so? Discuss it in
detail. [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) Discuss in detail about the Standard Step Method of Gradually Varied
Flow. In manual calculation you are supposed to take three to four steps.
If the calculation is done by computer then one can even take one hundred
steps. Comment on the convergence of the error, if the calculation is
done with the help of computer programming. [8]
b) What is the Major Differential Equations involved with Spatially Varied
Flow. Discuss it in detail and give the general solution of the Differential
Equation. [8]
Q4) Write short notes (Any Four) : [16]
a) Draw Down Curve.
b) S-2 Profile.
c) Chows Method.
d) Significance of Froude Number in Hydraulic Jump.
e) Application of Finite Difference Method in Open Channel Hydraulics.
f) Hydraulic Exponent in Open Channel Flow.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What do you mean by Flood Routing? Discuss in detail about
Muskinghum method along with all the governing Mathematical
Equations. [9]
b) Discuss in detail about Variable Stage-Discharge Relations in an Open
Channel. [9]
Q6) a) What do you mean by Surge? Explain it with neat Diagrams. What is the
difference between positive and negative surge? Give one example for
each. [8]
b) A 10 metre wide rectangular channel supplies 35 m
3
/s water at a normal
depth of 2 metre to a turbine installation site. Due to a major reduction in
load, the supply to the turbine is cut down to 5 m
3
/s only. Determine the
velocity of propagation of the surge wave and also the height of the surge.
[8]
Q7) a) A river Flowing toward the sea at a velocity of 5 km/hour and having a
depth of 2 metre encounters an incoming tide which increases the depth to
5 metre and a tidal bore travel travels upstream. Estimate the speed of the
bore and speed and direction of flow after the passage of the bore. [8]
[3765] - 445 -2-
b) A rectangular channel carries a discharge of 10 m
3
/s per metre width
over a bed slope of 0.0004. If the depth of flow at a section is 5m, how
far upstream or downstream the flow depth will be within 8% of the
normal depth. Take Mannings n as 0.016, use direct step method and
take only two steps. Sketch the profile and classify it. [8]
Q8) Write short notes (Any Four) : [16]
a) Exchange Coefficients.
b) Solitary Waves.
c) Relationship between Bulk Modulus and Celerity.
d) Difference between Steady and Strong jump.
e) Theory of Turbulence.
f) Velocity and Momentum Correction Factor.

[3765] - 445 -3-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 454
M.E. (Civil - Structures)
ADVANCED DESIGN OF CONCRETE STRUCTURES
(2008 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of IS 456, IS 1343, IS 3370 & non programmable calculator is allowed.
5) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
6) Assume any other data if necessary.
P1874
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw yield lines for the following : [8]
i) Rectangular slab with simple supports on three adjacent side with
one shorter side fixed.
ii) Rectangular slab fixed at two adjacent side and column at the corner
opposite corner.
b) Explain with sketches the difference between yield line theory and
Hillerborgs strip method for analysis of slab. [7]
c) Design a RCC slab for a circular hall of diameter 5.6 m using Yield Line
Theory. Assume the peripheral fixed support thickness 230 mm. Use M20
Fe 500 take Live load = 5 kN/m
2
& floor finish load = 1.2 kN/m
2
. Draw
details of reinforcement. [10]
Q2) a) Design a flat slab for a hall with column spacing 6.4 m x 6.4 m c/c. The
size of the column is 500 mm x 500 mm each. Use M25 Fe500 take Live
load = 5 kN/m
2
& floor finish load = 1 kN/m
2
. Draw details of
reinforcement. [10]
b) Design a grid slab for a floor of hall 12 x 18 m c/c having square grid of
1.5 m. Use M20 Fe500 take Live load = 5 kN/m
2
& floor finish load =
1.5 kN/m
2
. Apply the required check & draw reinforcement details.[15]
P.T.O.
Q3) Design a staging for circular type ESR for 3 Lakh liters with staging height
12m using M25, Fe500 in earthquake zone III. Safe bearing capacity is
200 kN/m
2
. Design of container is not required. Assume approx dimension of
container, wall, top, bottom slab thickness, beams sizes & number of columns.
Design must include Calculations of vertical loads and horizontal force
calculations. Design the bracings, columns and foundations. Draw the
reinforcement details. [25]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Write detailed note on flanged shear wall. [5]
b) Design deep beam of a hall for flexure and shear for the following
Clear span = 4.5 m, width of support = 500 mm, working UDL on the
beam 1300 kN/m. Take the total depth of beam = 3.2m. Use M35 &
Fe500. Show all Analysis and Design calculations & draw the
reinforcement details. [20]
Q5) Design post tensioned prestressed concrete slab for a floor for the following
Flat interior panel of 5.5 m x 5.5 m, live load on slab 5 kN/m
2
, floor finish load
on slab = 1.5 kN/m
2
, concrete grade M50 HT steel is cables of cross sectional
area 120 mm
2
with fy = 1900 N/mm
2
. Design cables to serve as beams. Assume
3 panels in each direction (floor size 16.5 m x 16.5 m) width of the beam on
periphery of floor 600 mm and column size 600 mm x 600 mm. Design must
include check fiber stresses in concrete and deflection. Draw sketches showing
cable profiles. [25]
Q6) A two span prestressed concrete continuous beam ABC having cross section
200 x 800 mm simply supported at A & C and continuous over B with M45
and multistrand cables 2 Nos 12T13 with fy = 1900 N/mm
2
stressed to 75% of
fy, each span is of 13m, superimposed load on both the spans 15 kN/m, Assume
18% loss of prestress. [25]
a) Determine primary, secondary moment at support at prestress and dead
load.
b) Calculate shift, and stress in extreme fibers at working load.
c) Draw the resultant line of thrust at working load.

[3765] - 454 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 47
M.E. (Mechanical Engg. - Heat Power)
ADVANCED FLUID MECHANICS
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule and non-programmable calculator is
allowed.
4) Assume suitable data, if required.
P1907
SECTION - I
Q1) Consider fully developed flow between two parallel plates, separated by a
distance 2h.
a) Simplify the Navier-Stokes equations for this case. [3]
b) Present the boundary conditions. [3]
c) Solve for the velocity profile. [7]
d) Determine the average velocity, in terms of the maximum velocity. [4]
Q2) a) List any 2 assumptions of the boundary layer theory. [2]
b) Assuming a linear velocity profile within the boundary layer, determine
the boundary layer thickness

as a function of x. [10]
c) Derive the expression for the skin friction coefficient C
f
for the same
linear velocity profile. [5]
Q3) For compressible flows :
a) Derive expressions for
T
0
T
and
p
0
p
, where T
0
and p
0
are the stagnation
temperature and pressure respectively. [4]
b) Derive the variation of Mach number with respect to the Area ratio
A
A

for a converging diverging nozzle. [12]

P.T.O.
Q4) a) What are the first order Forward and Backward difference expressions
for
u
x
? [2]
b) List the steps in solving
u
t
+ au
x
= 0
using the McCormack method, where a is a constant. What is the stability
criterion? [5]
c) Apply the McCormack method to the continuity equation for two
dimensional compressible flow. Show how the density is updated. [9]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Derive the continuity equation in cartesian coordinates for two
dimensional compressible flow. [15]
b) Deduce the equation for 2 dimensional incompressible flow. [2]
Q6) a) Derive the expression for the substantial derivative
Du
Dt
. [8]
b) Using the substantial derivative expression (or otherwise), derive the Euler
(inviscid momentum) equation in the x-direction. [8]
Q7) Let the velocity profile be given as :
u = 2xy,

= x
2
y
2
a) Is this a possible case of incompressible flow? [3]
b) If so, what is the stream function? [4]
c) Is the flow irrotational? [3]
d) If so, what is the velocity potential? [4]
e) Compute the pressure difference between the points (2, 1) and (0, 0).
Assume density = 1. [3]
Q8) A (two-dimensional) body is placed in a uniform flow of velocity U. On the
wake side, the velocity profile is measured (at an x-location) as u = f(y). The
body is in open space. The point where the wake velocity is measured is
sufficiently far from the body, so that the pressure recovery can be assumed.
a) Draw a control volume to indicate the flow of mass and momentum.[3]
b) Perform mass balance across the control volume. [5]
c) Perform momentum balance and thus determine the Drag force. [8]

[3765] - 47 -2-
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-473
M.E. (Mech - Heat Power)
NUMERICAL METHODS IN THERMAL & FLUID ENGINEERING
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Solve the Leonardo equation: [10]
f(x) = x
3
+ 2x
2
+ 10x 20 = 0
by Mullers method. Perform four iterations.
b) What is pivoting? Distinguish between partial pivoting and complete
pivoting. [6]
Q2) a) Given the table of values: [12]
i 0. 1 2 3
x
i
1 2 3 4
f(x
i
) 0.5 0.3333 0.25 0.2
estimate the value of f(2.5) using cubic spline functions.
b) State the conditions for a spline to be cubic. [4]
Q3) a) Given the table of data: [10]
x 1 2 3 4
z 0 1 2 3
y 12 18 24 30
Obtain a regression plane to fit the data. You may assume curve
y = a + bx + cz.
P1919
P.T.O.
b) A 20 MW Kaplan turbine operates under a static head of 16m and is
located at a hillstation 1800m above MSL. The following table gives
specific speed NS and Thomas cavitation factor .
Ns 300 400 500 600 700
0.2 0.35 0.57 0.81 0.95
Find at 350. [8]
Q4) a) Explain the partitioning method of inverting a matrix, and derive the
relevent expressions. When can this method be beneficially used? [8]
b) Use Gauss - Seidel method to solve the following system of equations.
5 1 1
1 8 0. 5
1 1 6





1
]
1
1
1

x
1
x
2
x
3





1
]
1
1
1
=
4
0. 5
7





1
]
1
1
1
carry out 4 iterations. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) If the velocity distribution of a fluid flowing through a circular pipe is
known, the flow rate Q can be computed by
Q = v

dA
Where v = velocity = 3.0
1
r
r
0




_
,


1 7
.
r = radial distance measured from the centre of pipe.
r
0
= radius of the pipe.
A = cross sectional area of pipe = r
2
.
Compute the value of Q for r
0
= 10. Use Gauss legendre three point
formula. [10]
b) What is numerical differentiation? [4]
c) Explain difference between curve fitting and interpolation. [4]
[3765] - 473 2
Q6) Determine the coefficient of the characteristic polynomial of the system
(1 ) x
1
= 0
x
1
+ (2 ) x
2
+ 3x
3
= 0
2x
2
+ (3 ) x
3
= 0
using the Fadeer - Leverrier method. Also calculate the eigen values and their
eigen vectors. [16]
Q7) a) Solve the equation. [10]
2
d
2
y
dx
2
3x
dy
dx
9y + 9
subject to the condition y(0) =1, y 0 ( ) 2
using Eulers method and compute y for x = 0.1 (0.1) 0.3.
b) For the case of water draining out from the bottom of a tank, the water
level in the tank can be given as,
dy
dt
k y
.
Where k = 0.2. m
1/2
/ min.
The initial condition is y = 2.5 m at t = 0.
Integrate this form t = 0 to t = 2 min using forward Eulers method with
t = 0.5 min. [8]
Q8) a) Solve the equation:
2
u
t
2

2
u
x
2
subject to the following conditions
u(0, t) = 0, u(1, t) = 0 t > 0
and
u
t
x, 0 ( ) 0 u(x, 0) = sin
3
(x) for all x in
0 x 1
. [10]
Take h = 0.2, (along x aixs) check the condition for explicite solution.
Take k = 0.2. Find values of u at t = 0.4.
b) Evaluate the integral
I =
dx dy
x + y
x 1
2

y1
1.5

using the Simpsons

1
3
rd
rule with h = 0.5 (along x aixs) and y = 0.25
(along y axis). [6]
Y
[3765] - 473 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 49
M.E. (Mechanical Engg. - Heat Power)
THERMAL AND MECHANICAL DESIGN OF HEAT EXCHANGER
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
6) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, mollier charts, non-programmable
electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
P1946
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the heat exchanger design methodology with flowchart. [8]
b) Show that for counterflow heat exchanger when,
C
min
C
max
=1, effectiveness is given by
=
NTU
1+ NTU
with standard notation.
[8]
Q2) a) At 80 km/h, at inlet temperature of the air to an automobile radiator is
37.8
o
C. Water enters at 98.9
o
C with a flow rate of 1.89 kg/s and leaves
with a temperature of 93.3
o
C. UA for this radiator is 960.6 W/K. Determine
the air flow rate and air outlet temperature for this radiator using both
LMTD and -NTU methods. Assume C
p
for air and water as 1.01 and
4.19 respectively. The radiator is unmixed on air side and mixed on water
side. [8]
b) Write a short note on : Spiral heat exchanger. [8]
Q3) a) What are the various correction (j) factors considered for shell side heat
transfer coefficient in Bell Delaware method? [8]
b) Evaluate the pressure drop for air and water for equal flow rate through a
25 mm ID and 3 m long circular tube. Air and water are at 25
o
C.
P.T.O.
Assume f = 16/Re for laminar flow and f = 0.00128 + 0.1143 Re
0.311
for
turbulent flow. The fluid properties are : [8]
Properties Air Water
Specific heat, C
p
(J/kg.K) 1009 4187
Dynamic viscosity, (Pa.s) 0.184 x 10
4
8.853 x 10
4
Thermal conductivity, k (W/m.K) 0.0261 0.602
Density, (kg/m
3
) 1.183 996.4
Prandtl number, Pr 0.71 6.16
Q4) Write short notes on (any three) : [18]
a) Causes and effects of fouling.
b) Rod baffles in heat exchanger.
c) Flow induced vibrations.
d) Plate and finned tube heat exchangers.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the step by step procedure for design of finned tube heat
exchanger. [8]
b) Enlist and explain the standards used in heat exchanger design. [8]
Q6) a) A double pipe heat exchanger is used to condense steam at a rate of
0.03 kg/s at 50
o
C. Cooling water enters through the tubes at a rate of
0.9 kg/s at 10
o
C. The specific enthalpy of phase change h
fg
of water is
2382.7 kJ/kg and the specific heat of water is 4.18 kJ/kg K. The tube
(M.S. with k = 45 W/m K) OD and ID are 25.4 mm and 22.1 mm
respectively. The heat transfer coefficient on the steam side is
10000 W/m
2
K and that of on the cooling water side is 8000 W/m
2
K.
Inside and outside fouling resistances are 0.176 and 0.088 m
2
K/kW,
respectively.
Determine the outside surface area and length required for the plain tube
for clean and fouled heat exchangers. [12]
b) Explain in brief : Heat pipe heat exchanger. [6]
Q7) Distilled water with a flow rate of 60 kg/s enters a baffled shell-and-tube heat
exchanger at 32
o
C and leaves at 25
o
C. Heat via be transferred to 140 kg/s of
raw water coming from supply at 20
o
C. Design and estimate constructional
parameters of heat exchanger. A single shell and single pass is preferable. The
tube diameter is 19 mm OD and 16 mm ID and tubes are laid out on
[3765] - 49 -2-
25.4 mm sq. pitch. The maximum length of heat exchanger required is of 7 m
because of space limitation. Estimate shell side heat transfer coefficient by
Kern method; assuming constant properties.
The properties of the fluid at average temperature are :
Properties Tube side fluid Shell side fluid
Specific heat, C
p
(J/kg.K) 4182 4179
Dynamic viscosity, (Pa.s) 10.02 x 10
4
8.15 x 10
4
Thermal conductivity, k (W/m.K) 0.598 0.612
Density, (kg/m
3
) 998.2 996
Prandtl number, Pr 7.01 5.75
[16]
Q8) a) Explain the meaning of the following key terms used in mechanical design
of heat exchanger.
Design pressure, Design temperature, Maximum allowable working
pressure, Joint efficiency, and Allowable stress. [8]
b) What are the various components of pressure drop considered while
calculating the total shell side pressure drop in Bell Delaware method?
Explain in details. [8]

[3765] - 49 -3-
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765] - 492
M.E. (Mechanical) (Design Engineering)
MATHEMATICAL MODELLING AND ANALYSIS
(2008 Course) (Part - I) (502201)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary. But mention it clearly.
6) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
P1879
SECTION - I
Q1) Write short notes on any three of the following : [18]
a) Cause variable and Effect variables.
b) System, Environment and Variables.
c) Lumped and Distributed parameter systems.
d) Static and Dynamic Systems.
Q2) a) Figure Q2(a) shows a block diagram. Apply block diagram algebra to
evaluate c/r. [8]
b) Construct signal flow graph for Figure Q2(a) and obtain expression for
c/r using Massons Gain Formula. [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) For state space representation given by [16]
x
1
x
2

=
0 1
25 10

x
1
x
2

Construct signal flow graph for this system. Applying Massons Gain Formula
obtain state transition matrix
X
1
(s)
X
2
(s)

Q4) a) Figure Q4(a) shows an electrical speed control system. The input
potentiometer provides a reference input voltage (E
r
) proportional to
desired speed (N
in
) that is (E
r
- K
r
N
in
). A voltage signal (E
c
) which is
proportional to the controlled output speed (N
o
) is provided by the
tachometer (E
c
= K
c
N
o
). The error (E
r
E
c
) is amplified by an electronic
amplifier whose output is (E
f
= K
a
(E
r
E
c
)). The voltage (E
f
) is applied to
the field of the field controlled dc motor. The torque exerted on the shaft
by the motor torque is proportional to the field current that is
(T
m
= K
m
I
f
). Determine the overall block diagram for the case in which
the load torque consists of an inertial load (JD
2

= JDN
o
) and an external
torque (T
L
). [8]
b) Find f(A) = e
At
for [8]
A= A=
0 2
2 4

[3765] - 492 -2-

=
=
Q5) a) Define Massons Gain formula with suitable block diagram and
corresponding signal flow graph. [8]
b) Discuss Linear Graph Models. [8]
SECTION - II
Q6) a) For the transformed equation [10]
C(s) =
12V(s) 10(s + 6)U(s)
s
2
+ 7s +12
Determine the response when
i) V(s) is unit step and U(s) = 0.
ii) V(s) = 0 and U(s) is unit step.
b) Determine solution of the differential equation using Laplace Transform
Method.
(D
3
+ 4D
2
+ 5D + 2) y(t) = f(t)
Where f(t) = 2e
t
and all initial conditions are zero. [8]
Q7) a) Determine the z transform of f(t) = cos(t ) using Residue method. [8]
b) The z transform of a digital control system is
C(z) = z
z + 2
z 1. 0 ( ) z + 0. 5 ( ) z 0. 2 ( )
Determine the inverse z transform. [8]
[3765] - 492 -3-
Q8) Figure shows a square plate. The temperature of the edges is as shown in
Figure Q7(a). Using Laplace Equation

2
T
x
2
+

2
T
y
2
=0 and Libmanns method
obtain the temperatures of inside nodes. Compute four iterations and tabulate
the result. [16]
Q9) a) Using Fourier Integral Formula prove that [8]
e
x
cos x =
2

2
+ 2
( )
cos x

4
+ 4
d
0

b) Digital and Analogue simulation. [8]

Q10)Write short notes on any two of the following : [16]
a) Successive relaxation in solution of Elliptic Differential Equations.
b) Explain in brief the types of simulation approaches.
c) Crank Nicholson Method.

[3765] - 492 -4-

Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 500
M.E. (Mechanical) (Design Engineering)
VIBRATIONS AND NOISE CONTROL
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of logarithmic table and electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1727
SECTION - I
Q1) For the system shown in Fig. No. 1, determine natural frequencies and mode
shapes using influence coefficient method. Sketch the first mode.
Take k
1
= 2 kN/m, k
2
= 1.5 kN/m, k
3
= 2 kN/m.
m
1
= 100 kg, m
2
= 200 kg, m
3
= 300 kg [16]
Q2) Find first two natural frequencies of transverse vibrations of a cantilever beam
having length l, constant thickness t, height at the fixed end b and at the
free end zero using Rayleigh-Ritz method. [16]
Q3) A uniform beam of length 2600 mm and the cross sectional area 60 mm
2
is
pivoted freeling at one end. A 6 kg mass is attached firmly to the other end of
the beam which rest on the rim of a wheel having radius 250 mm and rotating
at constant speed of 1200 rpm. The coefficient of friction between the beam
and the wheel is (0.3 0.001 v) where v is the relative velocity at the line of
contact between the beam and the wheel. Determine the vibration of the mass
at the end of the beam and comment on it. Take E = 2 * 10
11
N/m
2
for the beam
material. [16]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Differentiate between pulse and impulse force on vibratory system. [6]
b) Find the response equation of an undamped spring mass system subjected
to an isosceles triangular pulse force of height F
0
and duration .[10]
Q5) Write the short notes of the following (Any two) : [18]
a) Tuned Absorber.
b) Influence coefficients.
c) Axial vibrations of bar.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Explain with suitable example experimental modal analysis. [6]
b) State and explain different machine condition monitoring and machine
vibration monitoring techniques. [10]
Q7) a) Explain Wide band and narrow band random vibrations. [6]
b) Give three examples of random input. How will you proceed to find their
Spectral Density?
Calculate the Autocorrelation function corresponding to the ideal white
noise and to the unit step function. [10]
Q8) The motion of mechanical system with nonlinear restoring force is given by
the equation x +w
n
2
x +x
3
=0 with initial conditions x(0) = A and x(0) =0
where w
n
is the natural frequency of linear system.
Using Perturbation method show that
w
2
=w
n
2
+3 4A
2
upto first order
correction. [16]
Q9) a) Define sound pressure level, sound power level and sound intensity. What
is the sound pressure level of a sound source radiating energy at the rate
of 0.4 W? [10]
b) Explain Octave band analysis of sound. [6]
Q10)Write the short notes of the following (Any two) : [18]
a) Phase plane technique.
b) Noise absorber.
c) Auto correlation function.

[3765] - 500 -2-

[3765] - 500 -3-
Total No. of Questions : 12] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 524
M.E. (Electrical) (Control System)
ADVANCED MATHEMATICAL TECHNIQUE FOR CONTROL
SYSTEM
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer Q.No. 1 or Q.No. 2, Q.No. 3 or Q.No. 4, Q.No. 5 or Q.No. 6, Q.No. 7
or Q.No. 8, Q.No. 9 or Q.No. 10, Q.No. 11 or Q.No. 12.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1881
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the concept of convex function. [8]
b) Write the limitations of method of differential calculus. [8]
OR
Q2) a) Explain the method of Lagrange multipliers. [8]
b) Explain the concept of constrained extrema. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the multivariable optimization with no constraints. [9]
b) What do you understand by Hessian matrics, explain how to test the
matrix? [8]
OR
Q4) Use analytical method to investigate for extremium points
f(x) = x
1
3
+ x
2
3
+ x
3
3
+ 2x
1
2
+ 6x
2
2
+ 9x
3
2
. [17]
Q5) Solve the following system of equations by using Pivot operations. [17]
4x
1
+ 3x
2
+ x
3
= 13
3x
1
+ 7x
3
= 24
x
1
+ 2x
2
+ 3x
3
= 14.
OR
P.T.O.
Q6) a) Write the standard form of Linear programming problem. [9]
b) Explain what do you understand by dual simplex method. [8]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the Dichotomous search method. [9]
b) Explain what do you understand by Unimodal function. [8]
OR
Q8) Maximize the fn. f(x) = x/2 for x 2 and this function = x + 3 for the interval
x 2, In the interval (0, 3) by fibonacy search using n = 6 (or within an
accuracy of 10%). [17]
Q9) What is multistage decision process also explain the concept of
suboptimization? [17]
OR
Q10)Explain the method of unconstrained geometric programming problem from
differential calculus point of view. Discuss the degree of difficulty and
sufficiency condition. [17]
Q11)a) Explain the concept of stochastic programming. [8]
b) Explain the Integer non linear programming. [8]
OR
Q12)Explain the stochastic dynamic programming. Discuss optimality criterion
and stochastic nature of the optimum decision in brief. [16]

[3765] - 524 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 12] [Total No. of Pages :3
[3765] - 539
M.E. (Ele.) C.S.
ADVANCED DRIVES AND CONTROL
(2008 Course) (503112) (Elective)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions:
1) Attempt Q.No. 1 or 2, Q.No. 3 or 4, Q.No. 5 or 6, from section - I, Q.No. 7 or 8,
Q.No. 9 or 10, Q.No. 11 or 12 from section - II
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule and electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1968
SECTION - I
Q1) a) A load of constant torque is to driven at variable speed below normal
speed by the induction motor. Suggest a suitable solid state controller.
State and explain the criteria for selection of drive components so as to
match the motor and the load. [8]
b) Explain the term steady - state stability as applied to electric drive system.
State the assumptions made in deriving this criteria of steady state stability.
Why does unstable region exist in the W-T characteristics of induction
motor at low speeds when motor drives constant torque load? Explain
how does same region exhibit stable operation for fan type load. [10]
OR
Q2) a) Write a note on Thermal - model of the motor. [6]
b) State and explain the factors affecting the time and energy during starting
of electric drive system. [6]
c) With reference to multiquadrant operation of electric drive explain plugging
operation. [6]
P.T.O
Q3) A single - phase, fully-controlled, 4-SCR, bridge converter is supplying
armature of a separately excited, lift-motor. Draw the output voltage wave
forms and current wave forms for two cycles of a.c.input supply voltage
when triggering angle is set for
1
=30 degrees and
2
=120 degrees. Assume
sufficient value of inductor added in armature circuit to result continuous
conduction. Calculate the magnitudes of average d.c. voltages in both the
cases. Comment on the magnitudes. [16]
OR
Q4) a) Draw a neat diagram of the system model and derive the transfer function
of the converter fed d.c. motor.
b) In chopper fed d.c.motor, justify the insertion of additional inductance
in series with the armature, to result wide variation of speed, down upto
low values of speed, particularly in time ratio control (TRC) schemes.[16]
Q5) Explain the effect of space harmonics as well as time harmonics present in the
current on the performance of a three phase inverter fed induction motor.
Why do these get generated? Why does current source inverter is preferred to
voltage source to supply variable - speed-induction motor. [16]
Q6) a) The rating of the induction motor is as follows: 400V, four pole, 50Hz,
3-ph, star connected, cage-rotor draws rated fundamental current of 1000
amp. and delivers full load torque, at variable speed, The motor is supplied
by voltage source inverter at variable frequency maintaining
volts/frequency ratio constant. It is decided to run the motor when
delivering full load torque to adjust the speed to 588 rpm, with fundamental
slip of 2 percent. Determine.
i) Output frequency of the inverter.
ii) Magnitude of fundamental r.m.s. voltage of the inverter.
iii) Magnitude of the fundamental current drawn by the motor.
[9]
b) Write a note on P.W.M. Inverter. [7]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the static KRAMER CONTROL DRIVE of induction motor.[8]
b) Write a note on Dynamic d-q model of induction motor. [8]
[3765]-539 -2-
OR
Q8) a) Explain direct and indirect vector - control of induction motor. [8]
b) Write a note on any one of the following as applied to performance and
control of induction motor. [8]
i) Direct Torque Control.
ii) Sensorless Vector Control.
Q9) With reference to control of synchronous motor drive explain the following:
a) Wound field machine-drive. [8]
b) Switched reluctance motor - drive [8]
OR
Q10)Explain in detail the following with reference to permanant magnet synchronous
motor:
a) Trapizoidal SPM drive. [8]
b) Sinusoidal SPM drive. [8]
Q11)a) Explain the proportional and integral controller in the closed loop control
of a drive, from following point of view [10]
i) Necessity.
ii) Generation of signal.
iii) Conditioning of signal for proper application.
iv) Expected action in feed back loop to result better performance.
v) Limitations if any.
b) Explain the application of Phase-Locked-Loop (PLL) in a closed loop
control of an electric drive. [8]
OR
Q12)Write in detail a note on the following.
a) Industrial application of PID controller. [9]
b) Design procedure of current control in closed loop control of electric
drive. [9]
*****
[3765]-539 -3-
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 540
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Systems)
COMPUTER APPLICATIONS IN POWER SYSTEM
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1882
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the optimization problem based on : [12]
i) Nature of design variables.
ii) Nature of equations involved.
b) Explain the multivariable optimization with equality constraints by the
method of Lagrange multiplier. [13]
Q2) a) State the Kuhn Tucker conditions. [5]
b) What are the different Random search methods of unconstrained
minimization? Explain any one. [10]
c) Explain Steepest Descent method along with its flow chart. [10]
Q3) a) Explain the Newton Raphson method of load flow analysis (Rectangular
form). [12]
b) What are the methods of load flow under contingency conditions? Explain
any one in details. [13]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain Optimal Power Flow based on Gradient method. [12]
b) Derive transmission loss formula in terms of transmission loss coefficients.
[13]
Q5) a) Explain : [13]
i) DC load flow.
ii) Power loss in a line and
iii) Generation shift distribution factors with reference to Loss
coefficients using sensitivity factors.
b) Explain three phase load flow method. [12]
Q6) Explain the following :
a) Formulation of sequence impedance matrix in terms of self and mutual
impedances using transformation matrix. [12]
b) A.C. - D.C. load flow analysis. [13]

[3765] - 540 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 548
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Systems)
POWER SYSTEM PLANNING AND RELIABILITY
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1883
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the importance of load forecasting in the power system. [5]
b) Explain classification and characteristics of loads. [10]
c) Explain different approaches to load forecasting. [10]
Q2) a) Explain energy forecasting for the residential, commercial and industrial
class of consumers. [8]
b) Explain long term, medium term and short term planning. [9]
c) Explain the role of power system engineer in short term planning. [8]
Q3) Attempt any two : [25]
a) Explain continuous Markov process.
b) Explain different methods of load forecasting.
c) Describe peak load forecasting and weather load model.
d) Explain two state model of reliability and show that MTTF is reciprocal
of failure rate.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain the concept of Loss of Load Probability (LOLP) with reference
to power system planning. [13]
b) A generating station has four units each of 100 MW capacity and having
FOR of 0.025. Develop capacity outage probability table for this system.
[12]
Q5) a) Write a note on transmission planning. [12]
b) Explain different factors to be considered in distribution system Planning.
[13]
Q6) Write short notes on : (Any three) [25]
a) Integrated resource planning.
b) Multilevel EHV-AC transmission planning.
c) Factors affecting interconnection under emergency assistance.
d) Interruption indices.
e) Effects of transferring loads on distribution system.

[3765] - 548 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-550
M.E. (Electrical) (Power System)
DIGITAL POWER SYSTEM PROTECTION
(2008 Course) (Elective - III)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any TWO questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the consequences if a power system is not protected? [8]
b) Bring out the salient features of Digital power system protection in a
interconnected system. [8]
c) Explain least error squared technique using a suitable illustration. [9]
Q2) a) Name the different relays that are used for protection of transmission
line. State their salient features & limitations. [8]
b) Draw and explain block diagram of a complete hardware system for
digital protection of transmission line. Explain function of each block.[8]
c) Give Mathematical theory and principle of digital protection of
transmission line based on fundamental signal. [9]
Q3) a) Explain various faults in synchronous generator. [5]
b) Explain digital protection of synch. generator based upon second
harmonic current injection. [10]
c) Explain digital protection based on injection of subsynchronous
component. [10]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain digital protection of transformer using magnetising inrush current
principle. [6]
P1743
P.T.O.
b) With a neat diagram explain working of relay which is used to protect
power transformer against incipient faults. [6]
c) In a differential scheme of power transformer explain:
i) Principle of operation.
ii) Reasons for taking high bias factor.
iii) Derivation of Relay characteristics in complex - plane. [13]
Q5) a) Explain : Relay setting & co-ordination is critical and complex. [7]
b) With neat diagrams, explain three - stepped distance protection scheme.
Using a numerical example and necessary diagram explain effect of over-
reach. [12]
c) Explain distance relay three - zone setting. [6]
Q6) a) In ultra high speed protective relays for high voltage long transmission
line, explain travelling wave based relaying scheme. [8]
b) Develop fundamental algorithm for short circuit studies. [8]
c) With reference to (b) above, explain & derive equations for transformation
to symmetrical components. [9]
Y
[3765] - 550 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 561
M.E. (E & T/C) (Microwave)
SPEECH PROCESSING AND APPLICATION
(2008 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1748
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is voiced sound? [2]
b) What is voiceless sound? [2]
c) Explain the different places of articulation with respect to consonants of
American English. [8]
d) Explain the term lip rounding with respect to vowels. [3]
e) Explain what are long and short vowels. [3]
Q2) a) Explain the source filter model of speech with a neat diagram. [8]
b) Explain the acoustic characteristics of speech. [8]
Q3) a) What is speech digitization and why it is essential? [4]
b) Draw the speech quality versus bit rate graph for various coding schemes.
[6]
c) What is phoneme smoothing? [3]
d) What is intonation? [3]
Q4) a) What is multipulse excited LPC? Draw the block diagram of MLPC and
explain the same. [8]
b) Explain the basic steps in the conversion of text to speech. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What are the components of hardware architecture of voice processing
system? Draw the block diagram of voice processing hardware system
and explain. [9]
b) Compare the standalone versus network controller based voice processing
architecture. [6]
c) What is Interactive voice Response function? [3]
Q6) a) How spectral distance measures can be used for speech recognition?[6]
b) Explain what is difference spectrum? [4]
c) Explain what is smoothed group delay spectrum. [6]
Q7) a) Explain what is Ensemble Interval Histogram. Draw the block diagram of
the E
IH
computational model of auditory nerve system and explain. [10]
b) Explain any one dynamic programming approach for speech recognition.
[6]
Q8) a) Draw the LVQ network used for speech recognition task and explain the
same architecture. [6]
b) What are Hidden Markov models? How it is used for speech recognition?
[4]
c) How neural nets and Hidden Markov models can be combined to improve
the speech recognition. [6]

[3765] - 561 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 7] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 563
M.E. (E & TC) (Microwave)
MICROWAVE INTEGRATED CIRCUITS
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Solve any Five questions.
2) Figure to right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data whenever necessary.
P1884
Q1) a) Explain, discuss and compare hybrid and monolithic microwave
integrated circuits. [15]
b) Describe the technological steps involved in the fabrication of hybrid
hydrid ICs. [5]
Q2) a) A 50

microstrip line is to be matched to 100

resistive load. Find the

width and the length of a single section quarter wave transformer. The
design employs a 0.025 inch thick Alumina ( r = 9.70) substrate and
operating frequency is 10 GHz. [10]
b) A four port network has the scattering matrix shown below [10]
S [ ]
0.190
o
0.8 45
o
0.3 45
o
0
0.8 45
o
0 0 0. 445
o
0.3 45
o
0 0 0. 6 45
o
0 0. 445
o
0. 6 45
o
0
,

,
,
,
,
]
]
]
]
]
]
i) Is this network lossless?
ii) Is this network reciprocal?
iii) What is the return loss at port 1 when all other ports are terminated
with a matched load?
Q3) a) Draw the layout diagram and the equivalent circuits of the following
microstrip Components : [10]
i) An equivalent split Wilkinson power divider.
ii) An unequivalent split Wilkinson power divider.
iii) A quadrature (90
o
) hybrid branch line coupler.
iv) A hybrid or Rat-race in microstrip form.
P.T.O.
b) Design a microstrip line for 100 ohm characteristic impedance. The
substrate thickness is 0.158 cm with r = 2.20. What is the guide
wavelength on this X-line, if operating frequency is 4.0 GHz. [10]
Q4) a) Define the terms Power gain (G
0
, Available power gain (G
A
) and
transducer power gain (G
T
) for a two port network. Derive an expression
for the power gain in terms of S-parameters of the two port network and
the reflection coefficients and of the source and load. [10]
b) A Microwave transistor has the following S - parameters at 10 GHz, with
50 reference impedance : S
11
= 0.45 150
o
, S
12
= 0.01 10
o
,
S
21
= 2.05 10
o
, S
22
= 0.4 150
o
.
The source impedance is Z
s
= 20 and load impedance Z
L
= 30

.
Compute the power gain. [10]
Q5) Draw the circuit diagram of a Colpitts oscillator using a common emitter BJT
and show that the necessary condition for oscillation is C
2
/ C
1
= gm/G
i
and
frequency of oscillation is
0

1
L
3
C
1
+ C
2
C
1
. C
2
j
(
,
\
,
(
[20]
Q6) With the help of schematic diagram describe a two-port Test-Fixture for
measurement of MIC-components. What are its advantages Vis--vis probe
solution measurement? [20]
Q7) Write short notes on (Any three) : [20]
a) GaAs-FET digital attenuator.
b) Various types of integrated circuit antennas and their circuit topologies.
c) Application of MICs in satellite communication systems.
d) Feature trends in MICs.

[3765] - 563 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 599
M.E. (Electronics) (Digital Systems)
COMMUNICATION NETWORK AND SECURITY
(2008 Course) (504202)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from Section I and three questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1923
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain IP spoofing. Where it is used? How to defense against spoofing?
[8]
b) Explain the physical layer details of 802.11 wireless protocols. Also
explain the concept of Jamming in wireless network. [8]
Q2) a) Compare SSL Vs SET. [8]
b) Classify the routing protocols in mobile adhoc Network. Explain any
one in detail. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the design vulnerabilities of TCP/IP protocol stack in detail. Also
explain the attacks possible on TCP/IP stack. [8]
b) Explain the concept of data dissemination and data gathering in Wireless
Sensor Network (WSN). [8]
Q4) Write short note on any three : [18]
a) IPSec.
b) Secure Electronic Transaction Process.
c) DDoS attack with reflectors.
d) Bluetooth Security.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the Digital Signature implementation for Non-Repudiation
service Property. [8]
b) What are the different security features offered by PGP? Write down the
various PGP operation steps and explain it briefly. [8]
Q6) a) Explain AES algorithm in detail and compare with DES algo. [8]
b) Explain RSA algorithm in detail and compare with Diffie-Hellman algo.
[8]
Q7) a) Explain the AAA service properties with suitable example. [8]
b) Explain IDEA symmetric key algorithm briefly and list the applications.
[8]
Q8) Write short note on any three : [18]
a) HMAC.
b) Types of Attacks.
c) Asynchronous Transfer Mode architecture.
d) Sensor management in WSN.

[3765] - 599 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-603
M.E. (Electronics - Digital System)
EMBEDDED VIDEO PROCESSING
(2008 Course) (Elective - III)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any THREE questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the different methods to measure the quality of video. Justify
which method is commonly used in practical applications. [8]
b) Explain in brief:
i) HVS Model. ii) Different color spaces. [8]
Q2) a) Explain in detail Huffman coding of quantized DCT coefficients in
baseline JPEG. Also comment on compression efficiency of it. [8]
b) Output of a discrete memory-less source consists of three letters X, Y &
Z with probabilities 0.4, 0.35 & 0.25 respectively. Estimate Huffman
code & coding efficiency for -
i) Single letter is considered for coding.
ii) A pair of letters is considered for coding. Comment on result. [8]
Q3) a) Draw & explain block diagram of H.261 Encoder / Decoder. [8]
b) What are the QoS requirements for coded video? [5]
c) Compare H.261 with H.263. [5]
Q4) a) Discuss the different types of pictures defined in MPEG - 1 standard for
trade off between coding efficiency & random access. [8]
b) With proper expressions, compare the three criteria functions like MAD,
PDC & BPM deployed in motion vector computation. [8]
P1754
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) State the different requirements for motion estimation & compensation.
[5]
b) State & explain the different techniques of prediction. [5]
c) Justify - Fast search algorithms gives poorer compression performance
than full search algorithms. [5]
d) A frame in HDTV has resolution of 1920 x 1152 with typical frame rate
of PAL system. Calculate the computational complexity for motion
estimation when full search & two dimensional logarithm search
algorithms are employed. [3]
Q6) a) What is the need of pre - and post - processing? Also explain how the
noise due to camera movement and camera noise is filtered by pre-
filtering process. [8]
b) With reference to MPEG standard, draw & explain the basic video coder
& decoder showing intra & inter frame coding. [8]
Q7) a) Explain the procedure to test the different blocks of hardware CODEC.[8]
b) What are the advantages of shifting the paradigm from frame in MPEG
- 1/2 to objects in MPEG - 4? Explain the concept of video object, video
object plane & shape / motion / texture coding in the MPEG - 4 standard.
[8]
Q8) Write detailed notes on- [16]
a) Arithmetic coding.
b) JPEG - 2000.
c) Video codec interface.
d) Embedded processor.
Y
[3765] - 603 2
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 61
M.E. (Mechanical - Design Engineering)
DESIGN ENGINEERING
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
6) Use of pocket non programmable electronic calculator is allowed.
P1646
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What do you understand by ramp of cam? How is it taken into account
while designing the cam profile? [6]
b) Discuss methods and various geometric properties to be considered while
machining cams. [6]
c) How elasticity affects accuracy of cam? [6]
Q2) a) What is stress relaxation? What is its importance in engineering field?
Explain it with the help of stress relaxation curve. [6]
b) What is adequate design? State its application. [4]
c) What do you understand by the term sequential analysis, Reliability &
Maintainability. [6]
Q3) a) What are different factors affecting the creep strength? [8]
b) Following creep data is known at certain temperature. [8]
S1 = 12 MPa 1 = 0.01% per 1000 hrs.
S2 = 25 MPa 2 = 0.02% per 1000 hrs.
termine constants of exponential creep law and also the creep rate for
stress 35 MPa.
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain Weibull frequency distribution with the help of plot. [5]
b) What do you understand by total quality control? [5]
c) What is the relation between the probability of survival and factor of
safety? [6]
Q5) Write short notes on (Any Two) : [16]
a) Cylindrical rubber spring.
b) Ergonomics considerations of man-machine system.
c) Multifunctional Optimization.
d) Creep Resistant Alloys.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Explain the term hypothesis testing, Analysis of variance & Confidence
level. [4]
b) Following table gives the data obtained from set of experiments to find
the effect of screwing conditions on the particles produced in a vessel
that is expected to be clean. Carry out an analysis to find if any of the
processes is significantly different from the others. [12]
Lubrications No Lubrication Lubricated
Screwing speed Exp. 1 Exp. 2 Exp. 3 Exp. 4
Normal 145 145 131 113
Slow 83 73 63 111
Q7) a) Write the design considerations of torsion bar spring? Give application
of the spring. [6]
b) A helical compression spring made of No. 4 music wire under fluctuating
load. The spring index is 6 and the factor of safety is 1.5. If the average
load on the spring is 550 N, find the Permissible values for the maximum
and minimum loads. Use the Data
i) No. 4 music wire d = 5.72 mm,
ii) No. 5 music wire d = 5.4 mm,
iii) Ultimate tensile strength 1700 MPa,
iv) Yield strength in shear 680 MPa,
v) Endurance limit to shear = 375 MPa. [10]
[3765] - 61 -2-
Q8) a) Laminated composite material has a fracture toughness of K
1c
= 35 MPam
and tensile strength of 500 MPa. A 25 mm width structural element made
from this material has an edge crack of length of 3 mm. [10]
i) Find the critical stress that would cause unstable propagation of the
crack,
ii) For the geometrics of this specimen stress intensity factor
K
lc
= a f(a/b) where f(a/b) = 1.12 - 0.231(a/b) + 10.55(a/b)
2
.
b) Explain the following terms [6]
i) Stress Intensity Factor.
ii) Fracture Toughness
iii) Critical crack length.
Q9) a) What design criteria are to be used while designing a helical Gear under
fluctuating stress? [8]
b) What is meant by` STUB GEAR? Why stubbing is needed? Explain
with suitable diagram. [8]
Q10)Write short notes on (Any Two) : [18]
a) Applications of Fiber Reinforced Polymers.
b) Constraints minimization techniques.
c) Different methods of optimization.
d) Design for Manufacturing and Assembly.

[3765] - 61 -3-
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 614
M.E. (Production)
ADVANCED ROBOTICS
(Revised Course 2008)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of calculators is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1758
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the term Automation. What are its types? How are robots useful
in automation? [8]
b) Classify robots on the basis of structural configuration. Sketch work
volumes of four basic types of robots. [8]
Q2) a) For a pick and place type of robot, the gripper is initially at location
(70, 40, 60) and the following movements are executed in sequence.[8]
i) Rotation about Z by 45
o
.
ii) Rotation about new X by 90
o
.
iii) Translation along new Z by 30 units.
Find the position of gripper with respect to the original system by using
transformation matrix method.
b) For a pick and place robot the link parameters are [8]
No. iJoint
i 1
a
i1
d
i

i
1 1 0 0 0 30
o
2 2 90
o
0 2 0
3 3 0 7 0 30
o
4 4 90
o
0 0 45
o
Determine location of frame (4) assuming as gripper end with respect to
the base at origin.
P.T.O.
Q3) a) What are the functions of machine vision system used in robots? What is
the number of quantization level in A/D converter if n is the number of
bits? [8]
b) Describe [8]
i) Touch sensors.
ii) Force sensors.
Q4) a) Find the worst spatial resolution of a sperical robot with 500 mm arm
length. The robot is equipped with 3 encoders emitting 1200 pulses per
revolution. The linear axis is actuated with aid of 200 mm pitch lead
screw having the encoder mounted on it. [8]
b) Describe position sensors used for controlling position of the arm. [8]
Q5) Write short notes on any three : [18]
a) Different robot generations.
b) Mechanical grippers.
c) Denavit - Hartanberg conventions.
d) Contour path for cubic fit.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) An 8 x 8 gray level in age with 16 gray level intensity value is given
below : construct histogram of image and obtain threshold value. Convert
image into a binary (black & white) image. [8]
6 4 0 1 2 4 3 5
3 13 13 14 13 11 13 3
4 8 10 13 14 10 11 4
3 4 7 13 14 4 2 2
5 5 3 14 13 5 0 6
5 10 13 15 14 14 12 3
5 12 14 13 11 10 9 2
2 4 5 5 5 4 8 4
b) Describe a typical d.c.servo motor used in robots. How is its torque speed
characteristics? [8]
[3765] - 614 -2-
Q7) a) Explain WAIT, DELAY & SIGNAL commands. [8]
b) Explain the program & its output [8]
SIGNAL 5
SPEED 40, IPS
OPEN 100
APPRO P1, 50
SPEED 10, IPS
MOVE P1
GRASP 10, 100
DEPART P1, 50
SPEED 40, IPS
MOVE P2
BELOW
OPEN 100
STOP.
Q8) a) Define the term Artificial Intelligence. Speculate role of AI techniques
in applications in industry. [8]
b) Describe in details, applications of mobile robots. [8]
Q9) a) Justify the social, economic factors associated with the use of robots. [8]
b) Describe robots that are remotely controlled. Detail on various areas where
such robots can be used. [8]
Q10)Write short notes on any three : [18]
a) Robots in inspection & welding.
b) Robots in space.
c) Interfacing robot with PC.
d) Safety in robots.
e) Robots in assembly.

[3765] - 614 -3-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-619
M.E. (Production)
MANUFACTURING MANAGEMENT
(Revised 2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
7) Your answers will be evaluated as a whole.
P1760
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is the importance of manufacturing excellence in world class
manufacturing? [8]
b) Explain the contributions of Quality gurus towards improvement of
quality in manufacturing. [8]
Q2) a) Explain the relationship of manufacturing function with other functional
departments in an organization. [8]
b) A small project is composed of activities whose time estimates are
listed in the table below. [8]
Activity
Estimated duration (days)
Immediate
Optimistic Most likely Pessimistic
Predecessors
A 3 6 9
B 2 5 8
C 2 4 6 A
D 2 3 10 B
E 1 3 11 B
F 4 6 8 C, D
G 1 5 15 E, F
[3765]-619 - 2 -
i) Draw the project network.
ii) Find the expected duration and variance for each activity. What is
the expected project length?
iii) What is the probability that the project will be completed by 18
weeks? (Z
1.146
= 37.41)
Q3) a) Explain the 7 wastes identified in Toyota Production Systems. [8]
b) World Class manufacturing greatly helps in formulating the desired
future. Comment by relating it to the importance of vision, mission
and goals of the organization. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on Any Three: [18]
a) Lean and agile manufacturing.
b) Value stream mapping.
c) Project management as a tool.
d) Functions in PPC.
e) Manufacturing scheduling.
f) Contributions of Prof. C.K. Pralhad.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What are the contributions of Hawthorne studies in the organizational
behaviour? [8]
b) What are the four major dimentions of the MBTI (Mayers-Briggs-
Type Indicator) that yield the 16 types? How can MBTI be used
effectively? [8]
Q6) a) Explain theory of X and theory of Y. What is its significance? [8]
b) Explain any two theories of Motivation. Still why these theories cannot
motivate more people? [8]
Q7) a) What are the causes of conflicts? What are the tools & stages used to
resolve them? [8]
b) In the team environments, it takes longer to get tasks done. Is this an
important consideration in determining whether or not a team approach
is effective? Why or why not? [8]
Q8) Write short notes on any THREE : [18]
a) The Gallup path.
b) Job satisfaction.
c) Theories of leadership styles.
d) Future of organization behaviour.
e) Contributions of Lilian Gilbreth.
rrr
[3765]-619 - 3 -
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-630
M.E. (Computer)
EMERGING TRENDS IN COMPUTER ARCHITECTURE
(510102) (2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1762
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are advantages and disadvantages of Blade Server? [8]
b) What do you mean by Cluster? What are challenges of Clustering?
Describe COWs and NOWs. [8]
Q2) a) Discuss features of Quadrinet System Interconnection Network. [8]
b) Explain ATM Technology principle and Architecture. Discuss cell
switch design with respect to same. [8]
Q3) a) Draw the Internal Block diagram of IBM Power IV and list its salient
features. [8]
b) What is Basic Concept of Multithreading? Explain Multithreaded
Architectures and its Computational Model for Parallel Processing
System. [8]
Q4) Write Short notes on: [18]
a) Cluster Monitoring and Management Tools.
b) PARAM net (CDAC).
c) TCP/IP Protocol Suit.
[3765]-630 - 2 -
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Discuss advantages and technologies of Network Attached
Storage. [8]
b) Explain the Typical SAN Architecture along with a Suitable
Application. [8]
Q6) a) Discuss ARCC Grid computing model. [8]
b) What advantages of Grid is computing over Cluster Computing? What
are Grid Architecture Considerations? [8]
Q7) a) How P-threads act as a Programming Interfaces for Parallel
Programming? [8]
b) What are Thread Synchronization mechanisms? Compare PVM and
MPI . [8]
Q8) Write Short notes on: [18]
a) Grid Architecture Model.
b) Compilation Phases in Parallel Code Generation.
c) Features of Parallel Programming Languages.
rrr
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 631
M.E. (Computer Engineering and Computer Network)
PRINCIPLES AND PRACTICES FOR IT MANAGEMENT
(2008 Course) (510103)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
P1943
SECTION - I
Q1) Write short notes on any three of the following : [18]
a) Business philosophy and Management Style.
b) Business Ethics.
c) Importance of Formal and Informal Groups.
d) Important provisions of IPR.
e) Logistics Management and Business Growth.
Q2) a) Explain in brief different functions of Management and their importance.
[8]
b) What do you mean by the term Strategic Management? How does it
differ from day to day management. [8]
Q3) a) Discuss the steps involved in preliminary planning of an IT business.[8]
b) Explain in brief the importance of Conflict Management for a business
organization. [8]
Q4) a) Differentiate the Supply Chain Management for FMCG sector and IT
sector. [8]
b) Which factors will you consider for calculating Customer Satisfaction
Index for an IT organization? Mention these according to their importance
with brief description. [8]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Assuming that you are budgeting an IP project, enumerate the important
factors which need to be considered, with brief explanation. [8]
b) How can Risk Management be taken care of in IT project? [8]
SECTION - II
Q6) You are the IT project Manager of a network upgrade project. Your Lab consist
of 256 work station. You have to establish a new WiFi lab. We have three
access points. You have to set up the lab in a glass circular building. (Approx.
5 km rad.) Total new 100 terminals with same configuration with additional
wireless port you have to add. Additionally you required one wired network
with 50 terminal from same gate way.
(Assume additional technical information if needed related to project.)
a) Write SRS report with standard format for above project.
b) Create Work Breakdown structure with prope information. Set suitable
questions to write information. [18]
Q7) a) Scenario : You are the sales Manager. You are working with Mr. Pandit,
an IT project Manager, on new sales automation. Requirements are as
follows :
i) Contact Management features.
ii) Database searchable by property.
iii) Ability to block sales people from viewing records they did not
enter.
iv) Ability for the sales manager to relocate leads to sales reps.
v) Ability to download contact request on the PDA.
vi) Fax and Email ability.
Suggest any four change request (Those can be approved). Document it
in the Proper change request form. [8]
b) What is the definition of Total Quality Management? What is Continuous
Quality Management. [8]
Q8) a) What are attributes of a good project manager in regard to leading a
team? How does she will lead a team when project is consistently going
away. [8]
b) What is a Post - Project Audit what is its significance? [8]
[3765] - 631 -2-
Q9) From the customer survey you are decided to upgrade your Company website,
(company is involved in developing customized software solutions for Life
Insurance Companies. (Main Customers will be Policy Developers. End users
will be Policy holders).
a) Generate and refine Preliminary Project concept and scope statement.
b) Decide business need and feasibility of the project.
c) Write down the project proposal for approval. [16]
Q10)a) What are challenges of planning a short-term project? [4]
b) What methods can a project manager use to inspire a team to perform
under a tight project deadline? [6]
c) What is the difficult part of planning long term project? [6]

[3765] - 631 -3-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 639
M.E. (Computer)
EMBEDDED SYSTEM DESIGN
(2008 Course) (510105)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Questions 1 and 5 are compulsory. Attempt any two questions from questions
2 to 4 in Section I and Attempt any two questions from questions 6 to 8 in
Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1767
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the different classifications of embedded systems? Explain. [8]
b) Explain interrupt handling in ARM7. [8]
Q2) a) Give brief overview of intel Xscale architecture. [8]
b) Name and explain low power management modes of Bluetooth. [8]
Q3) a) What are the different packets used for bus transaction in USB? Also
explain types of data transfers supported by USB protocol. [10]
b) Explain START and STOP conditions of I2C. Also explain how bit transfer
takes place in I2C. [8]
Q4) a) What is PCI? Explain. [6]
b) Given : A microcontroller has 8 channel on chip 10-bit ADC. Three input
channels of ADC, namely AIN0, AIN1 and AIN2 are used for an
application. Write pseudo code to configure and read the digital outputs
from these analog inputs. The digital output is available in ADDR register
and configuration can be done using ADCR register. [10]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Compare Bluetooth protocol, 802.11 and IrDA w.r.t. following features.
i) Technology.
ii) Distance.
iii) Security.
iv) Cost.
v) Data Rate. [10]
b) Differentiate between 802.11 and 802.15. [6]
Q6) a) With the help of neat diagram, explain the structure of FPGA. [8]
b) What are macrocells? Which devices use these as building blocks? Explain
in detail. [8]
Q7) a) What are cross compilers? When do you use them? How they are different
than compilers? [6]
b) What are the disadvantages of using Java for Embedded system
programming? [6]
c) What are the different criteria, based on which RTOS is selected for an
embedded system application? [6]
Q8) a) Which are different scheduling algorithms used in RTOS? [6]
b) What do you mean by pipes, queues and sockets? [6]
c) VxWorks, QNX, WINCE and RTLINUX. Categorize these under soft
RTOS or hard RTOS. [4]

[3765] - 639 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765]-641
M.E. (Computer / Computer Networking)
HIGH PERFORMANCE DATABASE SYSTEMS
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1768
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) How does a TP monitor manage processes, messaging &
communications? [5]
b) Explain in a sentence or two roles of processes like process monitor,
Lock manager, check point & Log writes & database writes. [5]
c) Explain object Transaction Management in detail. [5]
d) Why was the TPC-D benchmark replaced by TPC-H and TPC-R
benchmarks? [3]
Q2) a) Explain in detail distributed Query processing with an example. [8]
b) Describe cost based and Heuristic query optimization techniques. [8]
Q3) a) Draw a wait-for Graph indicating a deadlock. Explain three actions
that need to be taken for recovery from deadlock. Also explain any
one method for dealing with deadlock in a distributed system. [8]
b) Discuss ACID properties and explain in detail flat transaction and Nested
transaction. [8]
[3765]-641 - 2 -
Q4) a) How 3 PC protocol responds to various types of failures. [6]
b) Explain the following terms: [10]
i) Scope of reference, Reference types instead of triggers.
ii) SQL 3, SQL 2006 XML Integration.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Discuss the functionalities of Data Ware housing and List down the
difficulties in implementing it. [6]
b) Explain how OLAP operational characteristics can be divided into
three main modules. [6]
c) Design a Snowflake schema for Clinical Information System. [6]
Q6) a) Following transaction Id Items are given: [8]
T01 {X, Z}
T02 {U, V, W, X, Y, Z}
T03 {U, W, Y}
T04 {V, X, Z}
T05 {U, Y}
T06 {W, X, Y}
T07 {X, Y, Z}
T08 {U, Z}
T09 {V, Y}
T10 {V, W, X}
Using above data, for each of the rules given below compute Support
and Confidence.
V W
X Z
U Y
Z V
W U
Y X
b) Clustering can be performed on nominal data. How does this works?
What are the inputs and outputs? In what way is clustering with nominal
data similar to text mining? [8]
Q7) a) Consider the following Table :
NAME GENDER HEIGHT OUTPUT
Kavita F 1.6 Meter Short
Jayesh M 2 Meter Tall
Mani F 1.9 Meter Medium
Martha F 1.88 Meter Medium
Jayeshri F 1.7 Meter Short
Banu M 1.85 Meter Medium
Karuna F 1.6 Meter Short
Dave M 1.7 Meter Short
Pinto M 2.2 Meter Tall
Babloo M 2.1 Meter Tall
Debbie F 1.8 Meter Medium
Arun M 1.95 Meter Medium
Aishwarya F 1.9 Meter Medium
Eunice F 1.8 Meter Medium
Reva F 1.75 Meter Medium
To facilitate classification, divide the height into six ranges
(0, 1.6), (1.6, 1.7), (1.7, 1.8), (1.8, 1.9), (1.9, 2.0), (2.1, )
Now compute the following: [8]
i) Probability associated with the attributes.
ii) Estimate Prior Probability.
iii) Classify new tuple t = < Ramesh, M, 1.96 Meter > and compute
actual probability of each event.
b) How does warehouse allow the precomputation and fast accessing of
summarized data? [8]
[3765]-641 - 3 -
Q8) Write short notes on: [16]
a) Main-Memory Database Optimizations.
b) ETL process.
c) LDAP.
d) Deductive Databases.
rrr
[3765]-641 - 4 -
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-644
M.E. (Computer)
PATTERN RECOGNITION & MACHINE VISION
(2008 Course) (510111B)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss Maximum Likelihood approach used for parameter estimation.
[8]
b) What is the use of PCA? Explain how PCA can be used for representing
N-dimensional samples by a single vector. [8]
Q2) a) Define Parzen window function and discuss Kernel-based methods for
probability density estimation. [8]
b) Explain in detail Bayesian estimation technique for calculating a
posteriori density and the desired probability density. [10]
Q3) a) Define the LMS rule and discuss the LMS procedure for multi - category
pattern classification. [8]
b) Discuss Fisher Linear Discriminant analysis for the problem of projecting
data samples from d-dimensions onto a line. [8]
Q4) a) Explain the algebraic approach to the problem of estimating projective
shape of a scene. [8]
b) With algorithm discuss the Tomasi - Kanade Factorization algorithm for
affine shape from motion. [8]
P1769
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Write and explain the EM (Expectation Maximization) algorithm for
image segmentation. [10]
b) Explain the use of Fundamental Matrix in projective motion estimation.
[8]
Q6) What is tracking? What are its applications? With algorithm discuss the use
of Kalman Filtering in tracking. [16]
Q7) a) What is stereopsis? Discuss correlation method used for stereo matching.
[8]
b) Discuss stereo data fusion and reconstruction process of stereo vision,
in brief. [8]
Q8) a) What is the use of geometric hashing in object Recognition? Explain
with one example. [8]
b) What is pattern clustering? How it differs from classification? Discuss
in brief, one problem of object Recognition using linear combination of
views. [8]
Y
[3765] - 644 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-646
M.E. (Computer)
ADVANCED INTERNET PROGRAMMING
(2008 Course) (510111D)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer 3 questions from Section I and 3 questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the core concepts of JMS API? What is the point to point
communication model and the publish and subscribe communication
model?
b) Explain the role of the following elements of a JMS API:
i) Connection factories. ii) Connections.
iii) Sessions. iv) Messages.
v) Destinations. vi) Message producers and
vii) Message consumers.
[16]
Q2) a) There are a variety of node types in the DOM that represent different
types of elements within an XML document. Using these key nodes show
how a DOM tree actually maps into a typical XML document.
b) Using a suitable example illustrate how the API for transformation in
JAXP can be used to transform an XML file using an XSL transformation
file.
[16]
Q3) a) Draw a schematic showing the EJB framework and explain the roles of
its major components.
P1770
P.T.O.
b) What are the different types of EJBs and what are their specialities?
c) State in brief the process of developing and deploying EJB components.
[16]
Q4) Write short notes on any TWO of the following: [18]
a) BEA Weblogic server. b) JBOSS.
c) JNDI.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What is the basic objective of the servlet API?
b) Show the life cycle of a servlet explaining the roles of the servlet and
servlet engine.
c) Write suitable code skeleton to illustrate the actions of a mail client to
send new messages, read the messages and search for a message. Make
use of the EJBs.
[16]
Q6) Write short notes on any TWO of the following: [18]
a) RMI in Java.
b) JDBC.
c) Internationalization and localization.
Q7) a) What is the role of the Struts framework in designing Java applications?
b) Give an over view of the IBM servlet API.
c) Explain the MVC design pattern.
[16]
Q8) Write suitable code skeleton for the following: [16]
a) Access LDAP server using JNDI from Java.
b) Populate the LDAP server with suitable data. Highlight important clauses,
interfaces, constructors, methods and packages.
Y
[3765] - 646 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 651
M.E. (Computer)
WIRELESS TECHNOLOGY
(Computer Networking)
(Elective - II) (2008 Course) (510305) (Theory)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from Section I and 3 questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1772
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss different types of communications media being used today. State
the characteristics of these media.
b) Discuss the two categories of communication viz. analog and digital
stating the advantages and disadvantages of each type.
[16]
Q2) With the help of a suitable diagram show various function blocks and their
interconnections in a GSM architecture. State what are the major interfaces and
protocols used and the functions of various elements of the network. [16]
Q3) Write short notes on any TWO of the following : [18]
a) Tunelling and reverse tunneling in mobile node.
b) FTP over Bluetooth.
c) Enterprise Authentication Protocol.
Q4) a) State and explain the various network services provided by 802.11
network.
b) With reference to 802.11 explain the terms :
i) Independent Base Service Set.
ii) Infrastructure BSS. [16]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) State what is the relationship between the transmitted power Pi and the
received power Pr in free space. Assume the following :
i) Gt and Gr are the transmitter and receiver antenna gains respectively
in the direction from the transmitter to the receiver.
ii) d is the distance between the transmitter and the receiver.
iii) lambda = c / f is the wavelength of the carrier. c is the speed of
light in free space and f is the frequency of the radio carrier.
b) i) What is the received power (in dB m) in the free space of a signal
whose transmit power is 1 W and carrier frequency is 2.4 GHz if
the receiver is at a distance of 1 mile (1.6 km) from the transmitter?
Assume that the transmitter and receiver antennas gains are 1.6.
ii) What is the path loss in dB?
iii) What is the transmission delay in milliseconds?
[18]
Q6) Write short notes on any TWO of the following : [16]
a) Frequency translation.
b) CSMA / CA.
c) Wi-Max.
Q7) a) Draw a diagram showing WEP operations which handle confidentiality
and integrity simultaneously. State what is meant by integrity check value.
b) State any four prominent design flaws in WEP. [16]
Q8) a) What are the access mechanisms that support contention and contention-
free access in IEEE 802.11? State the roles of different inter-frame
spacings (IFSs) between the transmission of packets in assigning priority
in MAC?
b) Describe the PCF mechanism in 802.11 MAC sub-layer. [16]

[3765] - 651 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 654
M.E. (Computer Networking)
NETWORK PROGRAMMING
(Elective - III(A)) (2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1775
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write a concurrent server program which uses TCP and show the status
of client and server before call to fork, after fork and after socket closing
by parent and child. [10]
b) How TCP_NODELAY option is used while sending small packet? [6]
Q2) a) Write a program that uses raw sockets for handling ICMP messages. [10]
b) Explain various TCP socket options. [6]
Q3) a) Explain with the help of psudocode, how IPV6 client communicate with
IPV4 server. [10]
b) Explain the following terms with the help of function and parameter
descriptor [6]
i) IPV4 socket address structure.
ii) Listen function.
iii) recv from function.
Q4) a) Draw the argument of clients resolvers & name server in DNS. Explain
the day time client program using gethost by name( ) and get server by
name ( ) function, using suitable psudocode. [10]
b) Explain how, when and why a client that wants to access a site in remote
server would access the DNS? [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Compare and contrast unicasting, broadcasting and multicasting in LAN
and WAN. [10]
b) What are multicast socket options? Explain. [6]
Q6) a) Explain the IPV6 address testing macros with the help of suitable
psudocode. [10]
b) What is SNTP? Explain various primitives with suitable example. [6]
Q7) a) Write a TCP based echo server. Test its functionility with an echo client
to calculate the RTT between the client and server. [10]
b) What is TCPs 3 way handshake? With the help of Scenario explain the
TCP connection establishment and termination connection. [6]
Q8) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Raw socket creation and its uses.
b) TCP preforked server.
c) Sockets in Data link.
d) Web client and simultaneous connections.

[3765] - 654 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 660
M.E. (Chemical)
ADVANCED SEPARATION PROCESSES
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1945
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain cross-flow filtration. What are its advantages over dead-end
filtration? [6]
b) What are the different regimes in surface based solid-liquid separations
involving a second liquid? [6]
c) Explain adsorption at the bubble surface & the factors affecting this
adsorption. [6]
Q2) a) Explain the Thermal Diffusion Column operation. [8]
b) Explain the principles of dielectrophoresis & give its applications. [8]
Q3) a) Describe the process design considerations for adsorption in compound
size beds & compound type beds. [8]
b) Explain the non-isothermal effects in adsorption. [8]
Q4) a) What are counterions in Ion-exchange chromatography? Explain swelling
in resins & its function. [8]
b) Discuss the operation of dual function filter. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) How does fouling occur in membranes? [4]
b) Osmotic pressure is to be calculated for three different solutions at 25
o
C.
i) A salt solution having a concentration of 3.5% by wt. of salt.
Molecular weight of salt 60.5.
ii) A solution of an organic compound (having a molecular weight of
40,000) containing 3.5 wt % of the organic compound?
iii) A suspension containing 35 gms/l of solid with 1 ng as particle
weight. [10]
c) List the various types of driving forces in membrane separations & explain
them briefly. [4]
Q6) a) Explain reverse osmosis in detail & give one application. [8]
b) What are non-porous membranes? Explain gas separation in them. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss the kinetics associated with crystallization. [6]
b) Differentiate between solution & melt crystallization. [6]
c) Discuss the term layer growth & steps involved in it. [4]
Q8) a) Explain dialysis & give its applications & flux equations. [8]
b) What is meant by interaction between solute & membrane? In which
process is it observed? [4]
c) Describe any one membrane module used in practice. [4]

[3765] - 660 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 665
M.E. (Chemical)
INDUSTRIAL POLLUTION CONTROL
(Elective - II) (2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1778
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With a neat sketch explain the relationship of ambient lapse rates to the
dry adiabatic rate. [6]
b) Calculate the effective height of a stack with the help of following data
i) Physical stack is 203 m tall with 1.07 m ID.
ii) Wind velocity is 3.56 m/s.
iii) Air temperature is 13
o
C.
iv) Barometric pressure 1000 millibars.
v) Stack gas velocity is 9.14 m/s and stack gas temperature is 149
o
C.
[6]
c) Write a note on carbon cycle. [6]
Q2) a) With neat sketches explain the mechanism of inertial impaction, direct
interception and diffusion. [6]
b) An air stream with a flowrate of 7 m
3
/s is passed through a cyclone of
standard proportions. The diameter of the cyclone is 2.0 m and the air
temperature is 77
o
C. [10]
i) Determine the relative particle size (d/d50) for a particle density of
1500 kg/m
3
and a diameter of 10 m.
ii) Determine the relative particle size if a bank of 64 cyclones with a
diameters of 24 cm are used instead of the single large unit.
No. of effective turns within a cyclone is 5. At 77
o
C, the viscosity is
2.1 x 10
5
kg/m.s.
P.T.O.
Q3) Explain in brief the pollution caused due to pulp and paper industry and discuss
the various methods and equipments which can be used for controlling the
same. [16]
Q4) a) Explain the elements of conceptual process design for a wastewater
treatment plant. [7]
b) Derive an equation for finding the concentration of microorganisms in
the effluent in a complete mix reactor without recycle. [9]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) A settling analysis performed on a dilute suspension of discrete particles
yields the following data which are recorded for samples collected at the
depth of 1m in a batch sedimentation unit.
Settling time 0.5 1.0 2.0 4.0 6.0 8.0
min
Weight fraction 0.53 0.48 0.39 0.21 0.06 0.02
remaining
Determine the percent removal of suspended solids in an ideal horizontal
flow sedimentation tank operating at (1.2 m
3
/min) / m
3
. [10]
b) Write a note on phases of bacterial growth in a biological treatment plant.
[6]
Q6) An activated sludge system is to be designed for secondary treatment of
10,000 m
3
/d of municipal wastewater. After primary clarification, the BOD is
150 mg/L and it is desired to have not more than 5 mg/L of soluble BOD in the
effluent. A completely mixed reactor is to be used and pilot-plant analysis has
established the following kinetic values - Y = 0.5 kg/kg, k
d
= 0.05 d
1
. Assuming
an MLSS concentration of 3,000 mg/L and an underflow concentration of
10,000 mg/L from the secondary clarifier, determine [16]
a) The volume of the reactor.
b) The mass and volume of solids that must be wasted each day.
c) The recycle ratio.
Q7) a) Explain the phenomena of bulking in activated sludge process. [6]
b) Explain various methods of land filling. [10]
Q8) a) Write a note on waste management hierarchy. [6]
b) What are the physical properties of a solid waste? Explain those in detail.[7]
c) Explain the concept of waste minimisation. [5]

[3765] - 665 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 668
M.E. (Chemical Engineering)
FLUIDIZATION ENGINEERING
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1779
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define fluidization and give the characterization and classification of
Fluidization. [8]
b) Discuss the pressure drop across the fluidized column versus fluid velocity.
Draw a neat sketch. [8]
Q2) a) What are the applications of fluidization system? [8]
b) Discuss the operating models for fluidization system. [8]
Q3) What are the different flow models? Discuss the generalized Wake model and
Davidson model. [18]
Q4) Explain the following in details : [16]
a) Mixing-segregation equilibrium.
b) Generalized fluidization of poly-dispersed systems.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Derive the equation for minimum fluidization velocity. [9]
b) A fluidized bed consisting spherical particles of diameter 1.5 mm and
density 1500 kg/m
3
is fluidized by fluid. The density of fluid is
900 kg/m
3
and viscosity 1 mN-s/m
2
. The fractional voidage is 0.5.
Determine the minimum fluidization velocity of fluid. [9]
P.T.O.
Q6) Discuss the following in details and write all necessary equations; [16]
a) Liquid-solid mass transfer in fluidization.
b) Immersed vertical cylinder-to-bed heat transfer.
Q7) Derive the kinetic model for conversion of shrinking and growing particle in
fluidization. [16]
Q8) Write short notes on : [16]
a) Conical Fluidized bed.
b) Geldarts classification for power assessment.

[3765] - 668 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 1
[3765]-691
M.E. (Petroleum)
ARTIFICIAL LIFT TECHNIQUES
(2008 New Course) (512111) (Elective - III(a))
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
2) Answer two questions from each section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Use of a non-programmable calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary and clearly state it.
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain in detail sand control Operations. [25]
Q2) Draw the IPR, Outflow Performance and Tubing in-take Curves and explain
in detail. [25]
Q3) What is Gas lift? Explain with suitable diagrams the different methods and
the types of valves used. [25]
SECTION - II
Q4) Explain the design of an SRP. [25]
Q5) Explain Acidizing and acid fracturing. [25]
Q6) Explain Nodal analysis. [25]
Y
P1788
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-707
M.E. CSE (IT)
ADVANCED TRENDS IN DATABASE SYSTEM
(514409) (2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
P1793
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the components of a distributed database system? Explain
with a diagram. [8]
b) Explain how replication and fragmentation is used for implementing a
distributed database system? [8]
Q2) a) List all the major activities that are a part of ETL process. Describe the
process. Which of these are most time consuming? [10]
b) What is the star and snow flake schema? Compare the advantages and
disadvantages. [6]
Q3) a) Explain the pattern recognition technique for exploring data in
database. [8]
b) Why is predictive modeling technique the most successful method of
Data mining? List the various assumptions made. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on any three: [18]
a) Neural Network.
b) Disadvantages of Distributed databases.
c) OLTP vrs DSS.
d) The three aspects distributed database system that defines its architecture.
[3765]-707 - 2 -
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the concept of ECA in active Databases. [8]
b) What is a active database. Explain with an example. How is it different
from an passive database? [8]
Q6) a) Explain the OO database concepts of object structure, OID and
ODL. [8]
b) How are the OO concepts incorporated in OO database? [8]
Q7) a) What is meant by web crawler? What are the challenges to web
information retrieval? [8]
b) Explain the web crawler architecture in detail. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on any three: [18]
a) Need of OO database.
b) Temporal and spatial databases.
c) XML database.
d) 2 phase locking.
rrr
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 709
M.E. (Information Technology)
INTERNET AND WEB TECHNOLOGIES
(Elective - III) (Revised Course 2008) (Sem. - II)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) All questions are compulsory.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1794
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain Kerberos system. [10]
b) Explain DHCP protocol. [8]
OR
a) Explain LDAP protocol & its applications. [10]
b) Describe DNS request - reply model. [8]
Q2) a) Explain MIB structure. [8]
b) What is Internet management frame work? [8]
OR
a) How search engine works? [8]
b) Compare perl and PHP. [8]
Q3) a) What are the features of web 2.0? [8]
b) Describe RSS feeds. [8]
OR
a) Explain SOAP protocol. [8]
b) Explain Ajax design basics. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain MVC design pattern. [10]
b) Explain J
2
EE Architecture. [8]
OR
a) Compare various Web browsers. [10]
b) Illustrate VRML. [8]
Q5) a) Describe Applet & Servlets Architecture. [8]
b) Explain JAVA bean. [8]
OR
a) Describe CORBA standard. [8]
b) State various C# features. [8]
Q6) a) Explain JNDI system. [8]
b) Explain JMS application usage. [8]
OR
a) Describe steps to develope JSR168 portlet. [8]
b) What is internationalization & localization? [8]

[3765] - 709 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-712
M.E. (Information Technology)
MOBILE COMPUTING AND M-COMMERCE
(Elective - III) (2008 Course) (514411 C)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the term interference in the space, time, frequency and code
domain. What are the countermeasures in SDMA, TDMA, FDMA and
CDMA systems? [8]
b) Explain how interconnected mobile services switching centers enable a
mobile station to communicate to another over long distances. How does
the network subsystem change when the communication is to a PSTN
terminal? [8]
Q2) a) Discuss the tunneling and encapsulation in Mobile IP. [8]
b) Discuss the spread spectrum techniques. [8]
Q3) a) Describe the various cryptographic algorithms. What is the difference
between a digital signature and digital certificate? Why do you need a
third party in digital certification? [8]
b) Describe the GPRS architecture and protocols? How many of them
already exist in GSM. [8]
Q4) a) What is MMS? How is it different from Short Message Service and
Extended Message Service? Explain the MMS architecture with diagram?
[8]
P1795
P.T.O.
b) How localization of a subscriber is carried out in GSM? What is
handover in mobile system? How it is effected in GSM? [8]
Q5) Write a short note on: [18]
a) Wireless Broadband.
b) PKI.
c) EDGE.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Describe mobile IP protocol. Explain with diagram, how a correspondent
mobile node on a visit sends and receives IP packets to and from another
mobile node and also on a visit at another foreign network. How does
the packet delivery mechanism in the mobile IP protocol differ from that
in the IP protocol? [10]
b) Explain the concept of wireless markup language. [8]
Q7) a) Explain the function of the components of the WAP architecture. [8]
b) Show master-slave architecture in piconet of Bluetooth devices. What
are the states in which a Bluetooth device can be found? [8]
Q8) a) Differentiate between the functions of labels, tags and cards. How do
smart cards, smart labels, smart tokens and RFID tags work, if they have
no internal battery? [8]
b) What is Wi-Max? How it is different than Wi-Fi? [8]
Q9) a) Explain the implementation challenges in M-commerce. [8]
b) Define m-commerce and explain how an e-government could use it to
increase its efficiency and effectiveness. [8]
Q10)a) Describe m-business along with its benefits and challenges. [8]
b) What are the emerging issues in mobile commerce? [8]
Y
[3765] - 712 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-730
M.E. (Environmental Engineering)
SOLID WASTE MANAGEMENT
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1805
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the objectives of solid waste management and discuss the
environmental impact of mismanagement. [8]
b) Explain the hierarchy of integrated solid waste management. [8]
Q2) a) Discuss the guidelines for sorting of solid waste and material
recovery. [8]
b) What are the means and methods for transportation of solid waste? [8]
Q3) Discuss the following in details; [18]
a) Fundamentals of Thermal processing for composting of solid waste.
b) Performance characteristics of size reduction equipments used for solid
waste.
Q4) Explain the principle, construction and working of the following with
neat diagrams; [16]
a) Waste Heat Boilers.
b) Incineration.
[3765]-730 - 2 -
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What are the types of landfills? Explain the essentials components of
landfilling. [8]
b) Discuss the site selection and various methods of landfilling. [8]
Q6) What are the various elements of financial management plan for solid waste
system? [16]
Q7) For solid waste disposal site, the avg.-speed data obtained is;
Distance
5 10 15 20 25 30
X, km/trip
Avg. Haul speed,
12 18 22 28 32 36
Y, km/hr
Total Time, hr. 0.41 0.55 0.68 0.71 0.78 0.83
Find the haul speed constants a and b and the total time for site located
at 18 km away. [16]
Q8) Write short notes on: [18]
a) Fluidized bed combustion.
b) Waste heat recovery and co-generation.
c) Pyrolysis.
rrr
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-746
M.E. (Instru. & Control) (Process & Biomedical)
ADVANCED SIGNAL PROCESSING
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1812
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) Define the term multirate signal processing. Explain decimation by factor
D and obtain an expression for decimated signal at the output. [16]
Q2) What is mean by WSS process? Explain the different models of stochastic
process. [16]
Q3) Explain the efficient implementation of sampling rate conversion system
using Polyphase filter structure. What are the noble identities in sampling
rate conversion system? [16]
Q4) a) What is the necessity of Time-Frequency analysis of the signal? Define
STFT and explain the signal analysis using STFT. State the
disadvantages of STFT. [10]
b) Explain the term Cepstrum and the properties of the Cepstrum. [8]
[3765]-746 - 2 -
SECTION - II
Q5) What do you mean by adaptive filtering? Describe the LMS algorithm for
adaptive filtering. Explain one application of adaptive filtering. [18]
Q6) Define Wavelet Transform. Explain the signal analysis and synthesis using
wavelet transform. [16]
Q7) Explain any two Nonparametric methods of power spectrum estimation.
State the disadvantages of Nonparametric methods over the parametric
methods of power spectrum estimation. [16]
Q8) a) What is Orthogonal Transform? Explain Sine and Cosine
transforms. [8]
b) Explain in detail anyone application of Homomorphic deconvolution.
[8]
rrr
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765]-748
M.E. (Instrumentation & Control)
MODERN CONTROL THEORY
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) Solve following:
a) Obtain Transfer Function from given plant model: [10]

x t ( ) = x t ( ) + u t ( )
y(t) = Cx(t) where
=
0 1 0
0 1 1
0 1 10










B =
0
1
10










C =
1 0 0
[ ]
b) Consider the system with state equation: [10]
x
1

x
2

x
3

=
0 1 0
0 0 1
6 11 6











x
1
x
2
x
3










+
0
0
1










u
Estimate the state controllability by:
i) Kalmans test and
ii) Gilberts test.
c) Apply Jury stability for characteristics polynomial: [5]
F(z) = 2z
4
+ 7z
3
+ 10z
2
+ 4z + 1
P1813
P.T.O.
Q2) Solve following:
a) For a given transfer function of system. [10]
G(s) =
s +3
s
3
+ 9s
2
+ 24s + 20
Obtain:
i) First companion form.
ii) Second companion form and
iii) Jordan canonical form.
b) For a LTI system find x(t) for u(t) = 1 for t 1. [10]
x
1

x
2

=
0 1
2 3






x
1
x
2






+
0
1






u
c) Explain significance of zero order hold in digital control system and
also draw it frequency response. [5]
Q3) Solve following:
a) A closed loop control system is described in figure below. Determine
the output c(z) when a unit step is applied to the input. [10]
[3765] - 748 2
b) Find the stability of system with the help of Bilinear transformation.[10]
c) Determine pulse transfer function for PID controller. [5]
SECTION - II
Q4) Solve following:
a) Obtain the discrete time state and output equations and the pulse transfer
function (T = 1) of the following continuous time system. [10]
G(s) =
1
s s + 2 ( )
b) Obtain the state transition matrix of the following discrete time system.
x(k + 1) = Gx(k) + Hu(k)
y(k) = Cx(k) where
G =
0 1
0.16 1





H =
1
1





C = [1 0] [10]
c) Write short note on Smith McMillan form. [5]
Q5) Solve following:
a) Consider a multiple input multiple output system having the transfer
function. [10]
G(s) =
4
s +1 ( ) s +2 ( )
0 . 5
s +1 ( )
1
s + 2 ( )
2
s +1 ( ) s + 2 ( )














.
i) Find the Smith McMillan form by performing elementary row and
column operations.
ii) Find poles and zeros. iii) Build a RMFD for the model.
[3765] - 748 3
b) For a nominal plant model: [10]
Go(s) =
s 4
s 1 ( ) s + 4 ( )
Consider all closed loop poles to lie to the left of 0.5 in the complex
plane also controller include integral action.
i) Find a particular controller satisfying these conditions.
ii) Parameterize all controllers satisfying this condition.
c) Solve the following difference equation by use of the z transform. [5]
x(k +1) + 3x(k +1) + 2x(k) = 0, x(0) = 0, x(1) = 1
Q6) Solve following:
a) A diagonal controller C(s) is proposed to control a MIMO plant with
nominal model Go(s). If C(s) and Go(s) are given by [10]
Go(s) =
2
s +1 ( )
1
s +1 ( ) s + 2 ( )
1
s +1 ( ) s +2 ( )
2
s + 2 ( )














C(s) =
2
s
0
0
1
s












Determine whether the closed loop is stable.
b) Obtain the block diagrams for the following pulse transfer function system
by i) Direct, ii) Standard and iii) Ladder programming. [10]
G(z) =
2 0 . 6z
1
1+ 0 . 5z
1
c) Explain Liapunov theorem on stability. [5]
Y
[3765] - 748 4
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-751
M.E. (Instrumentation and Control) (Biomedical Instrumentation)
BIO-SIGNAL PROCESSING
(5061204-A) (2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Calculate the cross-correlation using the formula of the sequences,
x
1
(n) = {2, 1, 2, 1}
x
2
(n) = {1, 3, 2, 1} [8]
b) Calculate the linear convolution using the formula of the sequences,
x(n) = {1, 2, 1, 1}
h(n) = {1, 2, 2, 1}. [8]
Q2) a) Determine the response of the system described by,
y n ( )
5
6
y n 1 ( )
1
6
y n 2 ( ) + x n ( )
to the input, x n ( ) n ( )
1
3
n1 ( ). [8]
b) Explain the properties of Z-transform (any eight). [8]
Q3) a) Find the 8-point DFT of
x n ( ) 1+cos
2 n
4



_
,

. [8]
b) Sketch the signal flow graph of 8-point decimation-in-time algorithm.[8]
P1814
P.T.O.
Q4) Design the causal linear phase FIR filter for following specifications:
H
d
e
j
( )

e
j
,
c1

c2
0, otherwise

'



c1
= 1 rad/sec,
c2
= 2 rad/sec and M = 7.
Use the window functions:
a) Rectangular window.
b) Bartlett window.
c) Hanning window.
d) Hamming window. [18]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) A filter operating at a sampling frequency of 1000 samples / sec has a
pole at z = 1 and a zero at z = 2. What is the magnitude of its amplitude
response at 500 Hz? [4]
b) A filter has the difference equation,
y(n) = y(n 1) y(n 2) + x(n) + x(n 1)
What is its transfer function? [4]
c) A Butterworth analog filter has the cut-off frequency
c
0. 707 rad/
sec and order N = 3.
i) Plot the poles on the Butterworth circle. [2]
ii) Obtain the transfer function of this analog filter i.e. H(s). [3]
iii) Using the impulse invariance method, transform this an analog filter
H(s) to a digital filter H(z).Write the transfer function H(z) and
state whether this transfer function H(z) and state whether this is a
stable filter or otherwise.
Assume T = 1 sec. [5]
Q6) a) What are the main advantages of adaptive filters over fixed filters? [4]
b) Discuss the LMS algorithm in adaptive filtering. [8]
c) Explain in brief any three medical applications of adaptive filtering.[6]
[3765] - 751 2
Q7) a) Describe the advantages and disadvantages of modified Huffman coding.
[8]
b) What are the various finite word length register effects? Describe the
quantization error in detail. [8]
Q8) a) List out the common capabilities of commercial Digital Signal Processor
Software. [8]
b) Compare the functional advantages of floating point and fixed point
registers. [8]
Y
[3765] - 751 3
Total No. of Questions : 12] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-759
M.E. (Polymer Engg.)
POLYMER PROCESSING AND TESTING
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer Q1 or Q2, Q3 or Q4 and Q5 or Q6 from Section-I. Answer Q7 or Q8,
Q9 or Q10 and Q11 or Q12 from Section-II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Use of pocket calculator, log paper, log-log paper is allowed.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
5) Draw neat sketches wherever required.
P1816
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw and explain in short interaction diagram for reactive extrusion
for chain growth reactions. [8]
b) Discuss the use of compounding and compatibilization using reactive
extrusion technique. Discuss mechanisms and extruder parameters
affecting the process. [8]
Q2) a) Explain the use of gear or melt pump in extrusion and discuss generation
of high frequency pressure pulses. Discuss in general performance of
gear pumps. [8]
b) Discuss screw geometry and other design considerations for
devolatilization extruders. [8]
Q3) a) Derive an expression for mean effective pressure across cavity for
calculation of clamping tonnage in injection moulding. Derive
expression for both isothermal and non-isothermal situation. Discuss
the effect of injection rate on cavity pressure. [12]
[3765]-759 - 2 -
b) Bring out difference between injection moulding of amorphous material
and crystalline material. [4]
Q4) a) Discuss contiguous melting model and dispersed solids melting model.
Give importance of melt film thickness, melt film temperature and
wiping action of the screw. [10]
b) Draw a neat sketch of any one type of pipe die and explain the
functioning. [6]
Q5) a) Draw a neat sketch of accumulator based die head assembly with parison
control and explain the assembly. [8]
b) Discuss in short effect of plug on wall thickness in thermoforming
process. [4]
c) Draw a neat sketch of extrusion sheet or pipe line. Explain in short all
the down stream equipment. [6]
Q6) a) With neat sketch explain reaction injection moulding with reference to
application and process control. [6]
b) With neat sketches explain the significance of upper and lower forming
temperature. Explain also difference in thermoforming of amorphous
and crystalline material. [6]
c) A small flower pot is to be thermoformed using negative forming.
Plastic sheet initial thickness is 2.5 mm. Estimate the thickness of the
pot at a point 40 mm from the top. Calculate also draw ratio of
thermoforming. [6]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain stress relaxation and its significance. Explain the test methods
and relevant standards to measure this data for polymeric material. [8]
b) Write in short about fatigue of plastics. Explain the test methods and
relevant standards. [8]
Q8) a) Explain different types of impact tests in short. [8]
b) Discuss generalised creep curve for plastics. Explain test arrangement
for measurement of tensile and flexural creep. [8]
Q9) a) What is dielectric strength? Discuss the factors on which dielectric
strength depends. Explain the test procedure with a neat sketch. [8]
b) Differentiate between volume and surface resistivity. Explain the test
procedure and relevant standards. [10]
Q10) a) Explain different accelerated weathering tests using artificial light
sources to simulate the natural sunlight. [9]
b) Explain flammability and list different flammability tests and explain
any one in detail. [9]
Q11) a) Explain the test method and apparatus for measurement of thermal
conductivity of plastics. [6]
b) Explain quartz-tube dilatometer used for measurement of coefficient
of linear thermal expansion of polymers. [4]
c) Explain any one basic ultrasonic measurement technique used for non-
destructive inspection of plastics. [6]
Q12) a) Discuss any one optical test method used for non-destructive inspection
of plastics. [8]
b) Explain the test methods for measurement of gas permeability and
water vapour permeability of polymers used in food packaging. [8]
rrr
[3765]-759 - 3 -
Total No. of Questions : 12] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765]-767
M.E. (Polymer)
POLYMER STRUCTURE PROPERTY & RELATIONSHIPS
(509123) (2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer 3 questions from Section-I and 3 questions from Section-II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1820
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define hindrances potential or potential rotation barrier and how it
related with internal rotational in molecules with examples? [6]
b) Differentiate between configuration and conformation & explain why
stereoisomerism is not possible in case of saturated compound having
different substitutes at same carbon atom. [6]
c) Why PP has higher melting point than PE? [4]
OR
Q2) a) What is chain flexibility? State various types of chain flexibility? Explain
importance of chain flexibility. [6]
b) List the factor affecting kinetic flexibility and discuss any two with
examples. [6]
c) What are short range and long rang interaction? Discuss it significances
related with polymer molecules. [4]
[3765]-767 - 2 -
Q3) a) Discuss single crystals. Draw lamellar single-crystals with neat sketch.[6]
b) Discuss mechanism of spherulite formation morphology in polymer.
Discuss morphology related to transference and strength of film, fiber
product. [6]
c) Differentiate between fibrillar crystals and globular crystals. [4]
OR
Q4) a) State different methods for investigation of polymer structure and
explain x- ray diffraction method. [6]
b) Explain with neat sketch peterlin model of the structure of oriented
polymer. [6]
c) Discuss bundle(cluster) model of amorphous material. [4]
Q5) a) State different methods of determining modules of multicomponent
polymeric material and explain any two in detail. [7]
b) Discuss the method to determine the glass transition temperature of
polymer composites. [7]
c) Write a short note on morphology of multi phase polymeric material.[4]
OR
Q6) a) With any two examples how low molecular weight is required before
processing and later high modules is obtained? [8]
b) What are molecular weight requirement for process? [6]
i) paper coating by PE.
ii) injection molding.
iii) extrusion.
iv) blow molding.
Justify your answer.
c) Which one of following is easy to process? [4]
i) thermoplastic A sample with narrow molecular weight distribution.
ii) thermoplastic B sample with broad molecular weight distribution.
(polymer sample A and polymer sample B has same average
molecular weight and chemical composition) why?
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Explain the effect of length of side chain on the flexibility of the
polymer citing suitable examples. [8]
b) If a monomer is substituted by different functional groups, how does
it affect the glass transition temperature? [8]
OR
Q8) a) What is the effect of polar group on the properties such as glass transition
temperature, solution viscosity melt viscosity and adhesion? Discuss
with suitable examples. [8]
b) Melt viscosity of PVC (unplasticised) is more than that of polyethylene
of the same MW, MWD. Explain it on the basis of molecular
interactions. [8]
Q9) a) Correlate mechanical failure with the molecular mobility of varying
polymers. [8]
b) Discuss the effect of molecular flexibility on any two of the
following: [8]
i) the electrical resistance,
ii) Dielectric properties.
OR
Q10) a) What are the molecular factors that influence the crystallinity of polymer?
Explain with suitable examples. [8]
b) How do the processing conditions affect the crystallinity? Discuss it at
fast and slow heating and cooling rates. [8]
Q11) a) How does Tm affect processing condition? Describe the change in
orientation with reference to (i) injection molding, (ii) extrusion of
film, (iii) thermoforming and heat sealing. [6]
b) Discuss the effect of crystallinity on the (i) modulus, (ii) stiffness,
(iii) hardness. [6]
c) Presence of polar group affects HDT, decomposition temperature and
combustibility of the polymer. Discuss. [6]
[3765]-767 - 3 -
OR
Q12) a) Explain the role of crystallinity on the following processes: [6]
i) injection molding,
ii) extrusion of film,
iii) thermoforming.
b) Explain the non uniform microstructures such as spherulite and micelles
in the chemically similar polymer samples. [6]
c) Describe the use of introducing the temporary microstructure
heterogeneity in the polymeric pastes, emulsion and powders. [6]
rrr
[3765]-767 - 4 -
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-775
M.E. (Printing Engineering & Graphic Communication)
Printing Technology Management
(508102) (2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each sections.
2) Answer to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
4) Figures in right indicates marks.
P1824
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) Answer the following:
a) Explain functions of Production Planning department in a Flexo
Printing Company. [9]
b) The following data is about the sales of a domestic water pump
manufactured by ABC Company. Forecast demand for the pumps for
the next 3 years. Determine the regression equation. [9]
Year 1986 1987 1988 1989 1990 1991 1992 1993 1994 1995
Sales 30 33 37 39 42 46 48 50 55 58
Deviation -2.5 -2.0 -1.5 -1.0 -0.5 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5
c) Explain objectives of production management. [7]
Q2) Answer the following:
a) Explain different stages of product design [10]
b) Explain different stages in product life cycle with suitable examples.[15]
[3765]-775 - 2 -
Q3) Answer the following.
a) Explain different types of forecast errors and reasons causing them. [9]
b) The data in the table represents the annual sale of Plate containers as
follows-
Year 1 2 3 4 5 6 7
Sales (in 00) 80 90 92 83 94 99 92
i) Determine the best line of fit.
ii) Forecast the demand for 8
th
, 9
th
and 12
th
year. [16]
SECTION - II
Q4) Answer the following.
a) Compare the following Inventory Analysis methods. [8]
i) ABC and VED.
ii) ABC and HML.
b) Derive The Deterministic Economic Order Quantity model for Inventory
Shortage. [8]
c) The rate of use of particular raw material from store is 40 units per
year, the cost of placing and receiving an order is Rs. 80, the cost of
each unit is Rs. 200, the cost of carrying inventory in percent per year
is 0.16 and it depends upon average stock. Determine the economic
order quantity. If the lead time is 4 months, then calculate the reorder
point. [9]
Q5) Answer the following:
a) Explain the implementation of a six sigma concept in printing
industry. [10]
b) Explain fundamental concepts of quality. [8]
c) Design specifications call for a target value of 16 0.2 and observed
process output mean is 15.9 and standard deviation is 0.1.
Calculate Process Capability and Centeredness of process. [7]
Q6) Answer the following.
a) Explain different types of control charts and their utility in printing
industry. [8]
b) A double sampling plan is as follows:
N = 5000, n
1
= 100, c
1
= 0, n
2
= 100 and c
2
= 1
i) Use Poissons table to compute the probability of acceptance of a
1% defective lot.
ii) Assume that a lot rejected by this sampling plan will be 100%
inspected. What will be the AOQ if the submitted product is 1%
defected? Considering both the inspection of rejected lots will be
the average number of articles inspected per lot if the submitted
product is 1% defective? [10]
c) Six consecutive lots of gear were inspected by sampling process at the
final inspection. The number of defectives observed in different samples,
each sample consisting of 100 pieces, is given below: [7]
Sample No. 1 2 3 4 5 6
No. of Defectives 2 5 4 3 6 4
Draw a control chart for the fraction defectives.
rrr
[3765]-775 - 3 -
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 776
M.E. (Printing Engineering and Graphic Communication)
MODERN TRENDS IN PRINTING
(2008 Course) (508103)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1899
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw a neat sketch and explain various components of offset press. [15]
b) What is the difference between offset inks used for publication, packaging
and production printing? [10]
Q2) a) Explain applications of flexography in label printing. [10]
b) With reference to plate making discuss :- [8]
i) Conventional plate making.
ii) Digital plate making.
c) Discuss the importance of anitox roller used in flexoprinting. [7]
Q3) a) Discuss the process of chemical etched gravure cylinders. [15]
b) Discuss various types of doctor blades used in gravure printing. Explain
purpose of using these blades. [10]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain difference between elastomer and rubber. [10]
b) Enlist share hardnesser used for impression rollers in offset, flexography
and gravure. [8]
c) What is the effect of hardness in print quality? [7]
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Describe the operation of electronic line shaft drive system. [10]
b) Draw a neat sketch and explain operation of pneumatic system used for
nip roll on press. [8]
c) Discuss various limitations of common shaft drive. [7]
Q6) a) Describe step by step procedure used for handling printing shop during
four presses are in operation. [9]
b) Explain the purpose of curing room used in press-shop. [8]
c) Write a short note on - Preventive Maintenance planned for press. [8]

[3765] - 776 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-786
M.E. (Printing Engineering and Graphic Communication)
MULTIMEDIA SYSTEMS AND COMMUNICATION
(2008 Course) (508111A)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any TWO questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are different video formats and systems used for TV? Give
advantages of them over the other. [15]
b) Explain technical advances in digital video editing techniques. What is
the workflow for digital video generation? [10]
Q2) a) What is object oriented programming system. Explain the concept.[10]
b) How image editing is done digitally? [7]
c) Write notes on light pen and touch screen monitor? [8]
Q3) a) Explain streaming media, its standards and requirements. [10]
b) Elaborate the term interactive multimedia. Where is the application?[7]
c) Which compression techniques are used for multimedia? [8]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Write short notes on Internet radio, Internet chat and online shopping.[15]
b) What are software agents? Elaborate the concept. [10]
P1828
P.T.O.
Q5) a) Write short notes on HTML and XML. [15]
b) What are different IP address systems? [10]
Q6) a) Describe the sensors used for digital camera? What are different sensor
sizes and resolutions? [15]
b) How the digital image processing is done with camera raw? What are
different facilities provided by camera raw for image adjustment? [10]
Y
[3765] - 786 2
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-788
M.E. (Printing Engineering & Graphic Communication)
PRESS FINGERPRINTING
(2008 Course) (508111(C))
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
5) Figures on right indicate marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain need of standardization in fingerprinting? [10]
b) Explain design consideration for prepress requirements? [15]
Q2) a) What are variables considered on press optimization? [10]
b) Give short notes on dot gain. [8]
c) What is grey balance and color deviation? [7]
Q3) a) Explain spectrophotometer working. [15]
b) Write short notes on: [10]
i) Tracker line. ii) Vignette.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) What is ICC profiling? [15]
b) Explain plan and run standardization. [10]
Q5) a) Explain analysis of results in fingerprinting. [10]
b) What is profile editing? [8]
c) Give workflow setup for fingerprinting? [7]
P1830
P.T.O.
Q6) a) How control charts are used for fingerprinting? [10]
b) Explain statistical techniques used for sample and analysis. [8]
c) Explain process stability and process capability. [7]
Y
[3765] - 788 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 793
M.E. (E & TC) (Signal Processing)
DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING
(Elective - I) (2008 Pattern)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1903
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain brightness adaptation and discrimination property of human eye.
[8]
b) Explain the following terms : [8]
i) Spatial resolution.
ii) Gray level resolution.
What is the effect of changing spatial and gray level resolution on image
quality.
Q2) a) What is Pseudocoloring? Give its applications. [8]
b) Explain HSI color model. Give its advantage over RGB color model. [8]
Q3) a) What is separable transform? Whether two dimensional DCT is separable
transform? Justify your answer. What are the advantages of separable
transform? [8]
b) Explain Hommorphic filter. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on : [18]
a) LOG filter.
b) Hough Transform.
c) High boost filter.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the difference between image enhancement and Image restoration.
[8]
b) Explain technique of image restoration in presence of noise. [8]
Q6) a) Explain the following with respect to compression [8]
i) Compression ratio.
ii) Coding redundancy.
iii) Interpixel redundancy.
iv) Psycho-visual redundancy.
b) Explain transform coding. [8]
Q7) a) Explain how chain code can be used for boundary representation. [8]
b) Explain morphological Hit and Miss Transform. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on [18]
a) Bit plane coding.
b) Application of image processing for fingerprint identification.
c) JPEG standard.

[3765] - 793 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 797
M.E. (E & TC) (Signal Processing)
WIRELESS AND MOBILE COMMUNICATION
(Elective - II) (2008) (504504)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1834
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What do you mean by cell sectorization? What are its advantages and
disadvantages? [6]
b) Explain the GSM interfaces in detail. [6]
c) Why does minimizing the reuse distance maximize the spectral efficiency
of a cellular system? [4]
Q2) a) Explain free space loss model. What is the importance of free space loss
factor? [8]
b) The S/I ratio of 15dB is required for satisfactory performance of a cellular
system. What is the reuse factor and cluster size that should be used for
maximum capacity, if path loss exponent is 4. Assume there are 6 co-
channel cells in the 1
st
tier. [5]
c) Explain the concept of diffraction, scattering and reflection with respect
to wireless transmission. [5]
Q3) a) Define and explain Earlang B and Earlang C formula for blocking
probability. List the assumptions made in this context. [8]
b) During a busy hour the no. of calls per hour of 10 cells is 2000, 1500,
3000, 500, 1000, 1200, 1800, 2500, 2800, 900 respectively. Assume 60%
of ear phones are used in this period and 1 call is made per ear phone.
Calculate the number of customers in the system. [4]
P.T.O.
c) Let maximum calls per hour in a cell be 4000 and average calling time be
1.5 min. If blocking probability is 3%, calculate the offered load. [4]
Q4) a) Along with necessary equations, explain the working of Adaptive
equalizer in a communication receiver. [10]
b) Consider a digital cellular equalizer operating at a frequency of 950 MHz.
If the mobile velocity is 60 km/hr, determine [6]
i) Doppler shift.
ii) Coherence time of the channel.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Draw a flow diagram for call origination. [6]
b) What do you mean by frequency reuse factor? Explain with reference to
CDMA system. [6]
c) Describe the flow diagram for a process of granting a traffic channel in
CDMA system. [6]
Q6) a) What are the different call processing states in a CDMA system? Explain
any one in detail. [6]
b) Given 2 codes, which are C
1
= 01010101 and C
2
= 01100110. Prove that
they are orthogonal to each other. [6]
c) Write a short note on CDMA 2000. [4]
Q7) a) Write a short note on Microstrip antenna. [6]
b) Prove that the input impedance of a half wave dipole is 73. [8]
c) Explain Ping-Pong effect in GSM. [2]
Q8) a) Explain Turbo Coding. [6]
b) A short antenna with a uniform current distribution in free space has
I
dL
= 3 x 10
4
A.m. Calculate E

for

= 90
o
and = 0
o
, if

= 10 cm
and = 200 cm. Assume far-field components. [6]
c) Explain soft and softer hand off mechanism in a CDMA system. [4]

[3765] - 797 -2-

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-804
M.E. (E & TC) (Signal Processing)
MULTIMEDIA TECHNIQUES
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer 3 questions from Section I and 3 questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With the appropriate block diagram, explain JPEG compression standard
for video. [8]
b) Discuss the .wav format & .bmp format for storing audio & image in a
file, respectively. [8]
Q2) a) Compare the features of NTSC, PAL & SECAM. [8]
b) Explain the working of NTSC encoder & decoder. Draw suitable
diagrams. [8]
Q3) a) Compare lossless compression with lossy compression technique. [8]
b) With respect to video display, explain the following terms: [8]
i) Resolution.
ii) Aspect ratio.
iii) Vector scan.
iv) Raster scan.
P1838
P.T.O.
Q4) a) An NTSC encoded video clip has a frame size of 720 x 480 pixels & is
digitising using a bit - depth of 8 - bits for each Y, Cb & Cr & a chroma
sub-sampling scheme of 4 : 2 : 2.
Calculate the file size of 2 minutes video clip & total time taken for it to
be transmitted over a 2 Mbps transmission line. [10]
b) Explain different types of animation. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the steps in creating 3D animation. [8]
b) Explain the salient features of a typical audio editing software. [8]
Q6) a) What is GOP? Explain in detail encoding of various pictures in a GOP
in MPEG-1. [8]
b) With the help of block diagram, explain the MPEG-1 audio encoder.
Comment on bit rates of compressed audio. [8]
Q7) a) Explain in detail, the MIDI messages. [8]
b) What is a multimedia authoring tool? List different functions of
multimedia authoring software. [8]
Q8) Explain in short: [18]
a) Psycho-acoustic model for voice.
b) Audio file formats.
c) Properties of a multimedia presentation.
Y
[3765] - 804 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 87
M.E. (E & TC) (INSTRUMENTATION) (DIGITAL SYSTEMS)
EMBEDDED SYSTEM DESIGN
(2004 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1650
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss ARM9 architecture. [8]
b) With suitable instructions, explain the barrel shifter operation for boosting
execution performance of ARM processor. [8]
Q2) a) What are different categories of embedded systems? [6]
b) Design Surveillance system to monitor and control different sensors and
devices. These sensors and devices include fire sensors, sprinklers and
alarms, door sensors and alarms etc. The system capability must include
diagnostics, automated local monitoring and remote monitoring over
internet, alarm condition report over PSTN line. [10]
Q3) a) Explain the common design metric for Embedded Systems. [8]
b) Suggest real time OS and justify for Handheld Embedded system with
following functionality :
i) VoIP. ii) LCD display.
iii) Touch screen. iv) Wireless connectivity. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on (any three) : [18]
a) Wireless Protocols.
b) Watchdog timer.
c) Internal RAM architecture of 8051.
d) PIC microcontroller architecture.
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What are differences between following development tools. Illustrate with
examples.
i) Simulator and Emulator.
ii) Compiler and Cross compiler.
iii) Debugger and IDE. [8]
b) Explain Round Robin architecture used in programming of the Embedded
System Design. What are its disadvantages? [8]
Q6) a) Discuss tools with examples used for development of glue logic using
devices such as ASICs, PLDs, FPGAs. [8]
b) Describe the architecture of typical FPGA. [8]
Q7) a) Compare architecture of Intel 8051 and TI DSP TMS320C54x. [8]
b) With suitable example explain Inter Process Communication (IPC) using
mailbox in RTOS. [8]
Q8) Write Short Notes on (Any three): [18]
a) Serial Protocols.
b) Features of COS-II.
c) ISA and PCI bus Protocols.
d) Task states w.r.t. RTOS.

[3765] - 87 -2-
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 5
M.E. (Civil) (Construction & Management)
CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS AND MATERIALS
MANAGEMENT
(2002 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain the properties required for the materials to be used in nuclear power
plants for radiation attenuation. Explain the experimental procedure for using
serpentine as an aggregate. Discuss advantages of this methodology. [18]
Q2) Explain the process by which silica-fume is produced. Which are different
products of silica-fume? Explain in detail any 2 major applications involving
use of the silica-fume. [16]
Q3) What is self compacting concrete? Which tests are carried out on SCC?
Explain what are its various advantages? Which are the various problems
associated with use of SCC? [16]
P.T.O.
P1634
Q4) Explain in brief : [16]
a) Smart materials.
b) Fly-ash use in road construction.
c) Nano-technology in construction chemicals.
d) GFRC.
SECTION - II
Q5) Discuss primary and secondary objectives of materials management. Explain
with examples, balancing of materials objectives. Discuss role of a materials
manager on a major construction project. [18]
Q6) Explain with sketches and with the relevant mathematical formulae : [16]
a) Fixed Period Inventory Model.
b) Re-order level Inventory Model.
Q7) With a practical example, discuss importance of lead time in materials
management. Explain with examples, elements of lead time. What efforts
need to be taken to reduce the lead time? Discuss. [16]
Q8) Explain in brief : [16]
a) JIT.
b) MUSIC-3D analysis.
c) EOQ.
d) Various Materials Indices.
vvvv
[3765]-5 2
Total No. of Questions :8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-8
M.E. (Civil) (Const. & Mgmt.)
PROFESSIONAL PRACTICES IN CONSTRUCTION
(2002 Course)
Time :4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables,slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1635
SECTION - I
Q1) Discuss the mode of operation, application areas, advantages, limitations of
any 6 types of construction contracts. [18]
Q2) Prepare a weighted score point system for prequalifications of tenderers for
enecuting the construction work of tunnelling in soft soil, an estimated cost of
Rs. 3,000 crores to be completed on a fast track in 24 calendar months. [16]
Q3) Discuss the factors affecting value of a property consisting of land and buildings.
Explain with examples any 4 methods of valuation. [16]
Q4) With reference to the MOS & PI contract conditions, explain the following
clauses. [16]
a) Various advances and their recovery.
b) Escalation.
c) Dispute resolution.
d) R.A.bills and final payment.
SECTION - II
Q5) With respect to ICA (1872) explain with examples. [18]
a) Valid, voidable, void contracts.
b) Valid excuses for non-performance of contract.
c) Revocation of an offer and proposal.
d) Consequences of breach.
P.T.O.
[3765]-8 2
Q6) With respect to the arbitration system, explain. [16]
a) Major differences between the Arbitration Act (1940) and the
arbitration and conciliation Act (1996).
b) Intervention of the courts and their limitations.
c) Speaking and non-speaking awards.
d) Grounds for challenge as per 1996 Act.
Q7) With a detailed case study, explain the entire process of the DRB, clearly
stating the advantages of the system. [16]
Q8) Explain the following : [16]
a) FIDIC documents.
b) Causes of construction claims.
c) Two stage tendering.
d) Particular conditions of contract.
# # # #
Total No. of Questions :8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-17
M.E. (Civil) (Const. & Mgmt.)
TQM & MIS IN CONSTRUCTION
(2002 Course) (Elective)
Time :4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables,slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1636
SECTION - I
Q1) Discuss the various drawbacks existing in the Indian construction Industry,
and with examples explain how TQM approach can provide an all
encompassing solution. [18]
Q2) Explain with examples the various principles and components of TQM
programs. [16]
Q3) On a construction project, the following defects were noted : [16]
a) Reinforcement in beams is exposed and rusted.
b) Door frames are faulty and hence door shutters are not fitting in them.
c) Even after polishing, the tiles are not showing any glazing, texture, lustre.
d) Toilet slabs are leaking.
Suggest
i) Preventive measures to avoid each defect.
ii) Remedial measures to rectify each defect.
iii) Methodology adopted for working out the cost of poor quality for
each defect.
iv) Areas in which human resources need to be trained, for implementing
a good quality in construction.
P.T.O.
[3765]-17 2
Q4) Explain the following : [16]
a) Demings PDCA cycle.
b) PRRT software.
c) Benchmarking for tolerances.
d) Statistical methods for quality control.
SECTION - II
Q5) What is a MIS? What data is necessary to prepare a MIS for a contractors
organisation bidding with MSRDC? Discuss advantages of an MIS to the
top management. [18]
Q6) With a flow diagram explain the components and their inter-relationships
for preparing any MIS in general. Make suitable assumptions. [16]
Q7) You are the Managing Director of a construction company operating in the
real estate sector, doing global business. Prepare an MIS related to [16]
a) Customer Relationship Management. (CRM)
b) Human Resource Management. (HRM)
c) Financial Management. (FM)
Q8) Explain the various capabilities of : [16]
a) MS Excel.
b) MS Project.
c) Prima Vera.
d) ERP software.
# # # #
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Analyse the Vierendeel frame as shown in Figure 1.a. [12]
b) Find the horizontal force resisted by each of the shear walls (1, 2) in a
single storey building as shown in plan in Fig. 1.b. All walls are fixed
at base. Consider shear deformation but ignore warping. Assume
E = 2.4G. All walls are 2.5 m high and 0.25 m thick. [13]
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-33
M.E. (Civil) (Structures)
ADV. STRUCTURAL MECHANICS
(501502) (2002 Old Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any two questions from Section I & two questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
5) Use of non programmable pocket calculator is permitted.
6) Assume suitable data, if required.
P1639
P.T.O.
[3765]-33 - 2 -
Q2) Analyse the rigid jointed plane frame loaded as shown in Fig. 2. [25]
Q3) a) Using finite difference method formulate equations relating y
1
, y
2
and
y
3
and loading on the beam for the beam shown in Figure 3a.
Given that
( ) ( ) ( )
i i i i
i i i i i i i i i i i
E
W Y I Y
I I 2 Y I I 4 I Y I I 2 Y I
]
[
2 1 1
1 1 1 1 1 2 1
4
+
+ + + + +
+ + +
+ +

[10]
b) A simply supported plate a a is loaded with load q
0
per unit area.
Using finite difference method obtain the relation for bending moment
at the centre of the plate. Assume v = 0.15 [15]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Analyse the thick cylinder using its usual notations. [13]
b) Determine the principle stresses & direction from the state of stress at a
point as given by MPa
9 10 15
10 15 5
15 5 30

. [12]
Q5) a) Obtain expression for displacement of a finite beam on elastic foundation
loaded symmetrically at ends. [12]
b) Give step by step Rayleigh-Ritz technique to obtain buckling load of a
column hinged at two ends. Assume suitable data. [13]
Q6) a) Derive the strain compatibility equations in general state of strain. Obtain
the equations in case of plain stress problem. [10]
b) A rigid jointed frame is as shown in Figure 6.b. Find the collapse load
for the frame. [15]
rrrr
[3765]-33 - 3 -
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 35
M.E. (Civil Structures)
REINFORCED & PRESTRESSED CONCRETE STRUCTURE
(2002 Course) (501502)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Enumerate characteristic features of yield lines. [4]
b) Draw yield lines for the following slabs : [9]
i) Rectangular slab supported on 2 adjacent edges only.
ii) Right angled triangle slab supported on all three sides.
iii) Trapezoidal slab fixed on all sides.
c) Design a grid slab for the floor of a hall 7.5m 6m centre to centre
having square grids, 1.5m centre to centre. Use M20 and Fe415. Live
load = 3.5kN/m
2
show all the checks for the grid floor system. Draw
neat sketches showing reinforcement details. [12]
P.T.O.
P1640
Q2) Design an underground circular water tank of internal diameter 6m and
height of water 3m. The tank is having roof slab monolithic with walls at
ground level. Other data is as given below : [25]
Angle of repose = 30
Ground water table upto ground level.
SBC = 200 kN/m
2
Use M25 and Fe415
Permissible stresses in steel are 150 MPa and 190 MPa for near water face
and away from water face respectively. Show neat sketches showing details
of reinforcement.
Q3) a) Explain the structural design criteria of foundation to rotary machines.
[7]
b) Explain the design aspects of shear walls. [8]
c) Describe the various loading condition and also the critical loading
combinations to be considered in the design of a box culvert. [10]
SECTION - II
Q4) Write short notes on : [25]
a) C and P line and concordant cable profile.
b) Bursting tension evaluation in end block design.
c) Deflection of prestressed concrete beam.
d) Shear design in prestressed concrete beam.
Q5) A prestressed post tensioned beam is to be designed to carry an imposed
load of 15kN/m over the full span of 25m. It is simply supported at the
ends and has an unsymmetrical I section. Design the beam adopting M50
concrete and permissible stresses as per IS : 1343. Take 18% losses in
prestress. Reinforcing cables have a characteristic strength of 1800MPa.
check the section for stresses at transfer and under working condition. Specify
the cable profile. Assume any other data required. [25]
[3765]-35 2
Q6) A prestressed concrete flat slab of overall size (23 20)m is supported by
sixteen columns arranged in four rows. The columns are spaced 7m and 6m
in the direction of long and short span of slab with a cantilever of 1m all
around. The 200mm thick slab continuous over three bays in transverse
directions, supports a live load of 4 kN/m
2
. Design the slab. Assume 12/7
cables stressed to 1000N/mm
2
; tensile stresses in slab to be zero under full
live load. Assume other relevant data. [25]
vvvv
[3765]-35 3
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 40
M.E. (Civil) (Structures)
NON-LINEAR ANALYSIS OF STRUCTURE
(2002 Course) (Elective - I)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Assume suitable data if required.
4) Use of non programmable calculator is permitted.
5) Use of stability coefficient table is permitted.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Derive moment curvature non linearity equation for a beam. [5]
b) Discuss types of non linearities in a structure & give its examples. [8]
c) Find approximate solution for the moment curvature non linear analysis
of cantilever beam subjected to point load at end. [12]
Q2) a) Using Hamiltons principle derive. Equations for strain energies due
to stretching & bending in a orthotropic plate. [18]
b) Obtain the load-deflection relation for non linear analysis of isotropic
rectangular plate. [7]
Q3) a) Explain Newton-Raphson method for solution of non linear problem.
[6]
b) Explain steps in non linear analysis of structure. [6]
c) Obtain collapse mechanism for cantilever beam to added with
distributed load through span & prop supported at free end. [13]
P.T.O.
P1642
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Derive non linear stiffness matrix for plane frame member. [18]
b) Develop stiffness matrix in global X-Y co-ordinates for the member
AB of the plane frame as shown in fig. 4. b. [7]
Q5) a) Write steps involved in elastic-plastic analysis of frame. [7]
b) Develop the stiffness matrix for the nonlinear analysis of the plane
frame as shown 5.b.
c/s of AB & BC is 125mm 125mm E = 200 GPa. Perform two
iterations. [18]
Q6) a) Explain; non-linear representation of stress-strain behaviour in plain
stress problem. [7]
b) Perform elasto-plastic analysis of cantilever beam as shown in Fig. 6.b.
The beam has c/s. 100mm 100mm, & E = 200 GPa. [18]
vvvv
[3765]-40 2
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Obtain overall transfer function on system shown in Fig. 1. [10]
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-48
M.E. (Mech.) (Design Engg. & Heat Power Engg.)
INSTRUMENTATION & AUTOMATIC CONTROL
(502102) (2002 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, eletronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1643
P.T.O.
[3765]-48 - 2 -
b) Find the transfer function of block diagram shown in Fig. 2. [8]
Q2) a) Discuss different sources of error in measurement. [6]
b) Find frequency specifications for
) 8 (
16
) ( G
+
=
s s
s
for unity feedback
system. [10]
Q3) a) Explain the criteria for stability of system. [8]
b) For the following type of system
2
) 4 . 0 1 )( 1 (
) 2 1 ( K
) ( G
s s s
s
s
+ +
+
= find value
of K to limit steady state error to 10% for an input t. [8]
Q4) a) Explain architecture of a PLC system. [10]
b) Draw a ladder diagram for batch water heating system. The control
system has two push buttons. The start push button is .NO type and
NC contacts are provided for sensing high level and low level of water.
[6]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain Pneumatic P + I + D controller. [8]
b) Explain with one example of each system. [8]
i) Feed forward system.
ii) Feedback system.
Q6) a) Explain the construction and working of ultrasonic flowmeter. [8]
b) Explain with a neat sketch the working of thermal conductivity
gauges. [8]
Q7) a) Compare Step-Input response of first order and second order system.[10]
b) Explain various elements of signal conditioning system. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on any 4 of the following : [16]
a) Hot wire anemometer.
b) Piezoelectric accelerometer.
c) Resistance thermometer.
d) Electronic controllers.
e) Instrumentation amplifiers.
rrrr
[3765]-48 - 3 -
Total No. of Questions :8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-55
M.E. (Mechanical) (Heat Power)
ADVANCED REFRIGERATION & CRYOGENICS
(Revised Course 2002)
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1644
SECTION - I
Q1) What do you understand by Thermodynamic Irreversibility? Discuss the
effect of irreversibility on the performance of vapour compression cycle with
the help of T-s diagram. [16]
Q2) a) Two-stage cascade refrigeration system operating between the pressure limits
of 0.8 and 0.14 MPa. Each stage operates on an ideal vapor-compression
refrigeration cycle with refrigerant R 134a as working fluid. Heat rejection
from the lower cycle to the upper cycle takes place in an adiabatic counter-
flow heat exchanger where both streams enter at about 0.32 MPa. If the
mass flow rate of the refrigerant through the topping cycle is 0.05 kg/s.
Determine (i) the mass flow rate of refrigerant through the bottoming cycle,
(ii) the rate of heat removal from the refrigerated space and power input to the
compressor, and (iii) coefficient of performance of this cascade refrigerator.
State assumptions if any. Show the cycle on T-s and p-h diagram. [12]
b) Explain eutectic point & typical applications for secondary refrigerants. [4]
Q3) a) Explain in brief, the guidelines for refrigerant piping design. [6]
b) Explain selection of motors. [5]
c) Explain difference between flooded and DX Evaporators. [5]
P.T.O.
[3765]-55 2
Q4) Write short notes on (any Three) (with the help of neat sketches) : [18]
a) Evaporative Condenser.
b) Immersion freezing.
c) Volute pump.
d) Thermostatic Expansion valve.
e) Working of Scroll compressor and its applications.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Derive expression for COP of an ideal vapour absorption system.
Discuss the important Commercial applications of absorption systems.
[10]
b) Explain with neat sketch, the working of an Electrolux refrigerator.[6]
Q6) Explain the working principle with a schematic diagram and applications
of the following refrigeration systems- [18]
a) Vortex Tube.
b) Thermoelectric.
c) Steam Jet.
Q7) Define Cryogenics. What is the difference between cryogenic engineering
and low temperature physics? What is a cryogenic engine? Explain the Linde
system with help of schematic diagram and T-s chart. How this system defers
from Linde-Precooled system. [16]
Q8) Write short notes on (Any Four) : [16]
a) Adiabatic demagnetization.
b) Superconducting devices.
c) Cryogenic Insulations.
d) Gas Separation and purification.
e) Applications of cryogenics in Medicine.
# # # #
Total No. of Questions : 9] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765] - 59
M.E. (Mech.) (Heat Power)
ADVANCED AIR CONDITIONING HEATING AND
VENTILATION
(2002 Old Course) (502110) (Elective - II)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of psychrometric charts and tables, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss with definition all the terms used in Psychrometry related to
humidity. [6]
b) Define human comfort and discuss the factors affecting it. [6]
c) What is Industrial Air Conditioning? Explain any one application in
detail. [6]
Q2) Write notes on (any four) : [16]
a) Solar heat gain through out side walls & roofs.
b) Solar heat gain through Glass Areas.
c) Heat gain from occupants.
d) Heat gain from Appliances.
e) Heat gain due to Ventilation & Infiltration.
P.T.O.
P1645
Q3) a) Explain the terms : RSHF, GSHF and ERSHF. [6]
b) An air conditioned space is to be maintained at 25C D.B.T and 50%
RH. The other data given is as follows :
i) Out door conditions : 40C DBT & 50% RH.
ii) RSH = 25 kW, RLH = 5 kW 20% of fresh air is introduced and
80% of supply air is recirculated on mass basis. The bypass factor
of cooling coil is 0.15.
Determine (1) Supply air flow rate (2) Outside air sensible heat
(3) Out side air latent heat (4) ERSHF.
Give schematic layout and show the process on psychrometric chart. [10]
Q4) Explain any three : [18]
a) Sources of noise in air conditioning plant.
b) Design of duct by velocity reduction method.
c) Types of grills, diffusers and wall registers.
d) Enthalpy deviation curves.
SECTION - II
Q5) Explain with neat layout of A/c systems used for : [18]
a) Automobiles.
b) Railway Coach.
c) Air Craft.
Mention their typical spectifications.
Q6) Write notes on (any three) of the followings : [18]
a) Conventional and Laminar flow clean rooms.
b) Air locks, Air curtains and Air showers.
c) Air cleaning and Air filtering devices.
[3765]-59 2
Q7) a) Explain the typical layout of hot water system. [8]
b) Compare costs of heating for a conference room for which 50,000 kJ/hr
of heating is required using the following systems : [8]
i) Vapour compression heat pump system , COP = 3 & Electricity
charges Rs. 5/kW-h.
ii) Direct heating using fuel. Fuel charges Rs. 30/lit. sp. gravity of
oil = 0.87, Heating value = 42000 kJ/kg and combustion
efficiency = 0.8.
iii) Using Electric heating, charges Rs. 5/kW-h.
Q8) a) Explain the thermodynamics of evaporative cooling. Discuss the
different types of evaporative coolers used in practice. [10]
b) Explain the working of a humidostat with a neat sketch. [6]
Q9)Explain the following : [16]
a) Series and parallel operation of fans.
b) Sources of infiltration air.
c) Need of ventilation air.
[3765]-59 3
vvvv
[3765]-59 4
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 63
M.E. (Mech) (Design Engineering)
MACHINE STRESS ANALYSIS
(2002 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Investigate the validity of stress function [8]
2 cos
r
c
c r c r c
2
4
3
2
2
4
1

+ + + =
Where r and are polar co-ordinates.
b) How do you differentiate between plane stress and plane strain problems.
Give examples of each. [8]
Q2) a) A cantilever beam of uniform cross-section is loaded by a concentrated
force at its tip. Determine the deflection under the point of application
of the force by using Castiglignos theorem. [8]
b) Explain Rayleigh Ritz method for determining deflection of beam.[4]
c) State the theorem of virtual work and least work. [4]
P.T.O.
P1647
Q3) a) Determine the location of the shear center O of a beam of uniform
thickness of 5 mm having the cross section as shown in the fig. 0.1.[12]
b) Explain the term shear centre and its importance. [4]
Q4) a) The mean dimensions of the two cells of a thin walled twin celled
sections are 60 30 mm and 30 mm square. Thickness are t
1
= 3 mm,
t
2
= 6 mm and t
3
= 4 mm. For an applied torque of 540 N-m determine
the Shear stress in each section and the angle of twist per meter length
(take G = 80 GPa). [10]
(Refer fig no. 2)
b) Give the procedure to analyse a thin rectangular member subjected to a
torque t. [6]
[3765]-63 2
Q5) Write short note on : [18]
a) Stresses in rotating disc with varying thickness.
b) Saint Venants principle.
c) Airys stress function and its significance in stress analysis.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Derive from fundamentals the expression for contact stresses between
two rollers with parallel axis under compressive loads. [10]
b) What are the different methods of analysing the contact stress problems?
[6]
Q7) a) What are the different parameters that influences the output of strain
gauge. [4]
b) What is brittle coating method? Explain. [6]
c) How strain gauges are arranged to obtain various strain rossettes? [6]
Q8) Derive the expression for the bursting pressure of tube in terms of inner and
outer radii and properties of tube materials. List the assumptions made in
derivation. [16]
Q9) a) Obtain shape factor for circular cross section of radius R. [6]
b) Derive fundamental differential equation for cylindrical bending of
rectangular plate with uniform leading damped at edges with usual
notations. [10]
Q10)Write short notes on : [18]
a) Isoclinics and Isocromatics.
b) Spring back effect.
c) Stress intensity factor and stress concentration factor.
vvvv
[3765]-63 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 95
M.E. (E&T/C) (Instrumentation)
HIGH PERFORMANCE NETWORK
(2004 Revised Course) (504109) (Elective - I)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain various networks topologies and with the help of examples
explain how topologies can be decided based on the network node
size and placement. [8]
b) Compare Distributed and Centralized data networks. [8]
Q2) a) Explain the system architecture of VoIP. [8]
b) Describe H.323 protocol stack and protocol interworking Architecture.
[8]
Q3) a) Explain the following terms in reference to storage networks : Backup
and Mirroring. [8]
b) Compare Fiber channel attached storage and IP based storage Network.
[8]
P.T.O.
P1651
Q4) Write short notes on any three : [18]
a) PSTN-IP Network Architecture.
b) IP telephoney.
c) SAN.
d) Routing resources and algorithms.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What is Quality of Service? What are the requirement for QoS? Explain
what the techniques employed to ensure QoS. [8]
b) Explain the layered architecture of CDMA 2000. [8]
Q6) a) What is Spread Spectrum System? Explain DS-SS scheme in detail.[8]
b) Explain with an example the LZ77 compression and decompression
algorithm. [8]
Q7) a) What are the requirements of Public key Cryptography? Explain any
one Public Key Encryption algorithm. [8]
b) Describe the various categories of security attacks with an example for
each. [8]
Q8) Write short notes any three : [18]
a) RAID.
b) Circuit switching and Packet switching.
c) Network security.
d) Broadband access physical media.
vvvv
[3765]-95 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-131
M.E. (Elex - Digital System)
MULTIMEDIA TECHNIQUES
(2002 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1654
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the hardware and software components of a multimedia
platform? With suitable block diagram explain the functions of
multimedia development system. [8]
b) What is MM authoring tool? List different functions of MM authoring
software. [5]
c) Discuss the benefits and problems using kiosks. [5]
Q2) a) Discuss the factors which determine the size of file and quality of sound
for audio capture and playback. What are the different chunks present
in a sound file stored as WAV format? [8]
b) What is the MIDI standard? Discuss in brief the two components of
MIDI interface which must be satisfied by a musical instrument so that
it can be called as MIDI device. [8]
Q3) a) State the different objectives of MPEG-2. Also explain the term bit
stream scalability. [8]
b) Discuss six layered syntax video coding model suggested in MPEG-1.
In case data corruption due to channel, what care has been taken for
errorless recovery in the MPEG decoder? What is the role of macroblock
stuffing in encoder? [8]
Q4) a) Explain the following terms in context with motion compensation in
MPEG standard. [8]
i) Search region.
ii) Cost function.
iii) Local smoothness constraint.
iv) Motion vector.
P.T.O.
[3765]-131 2
b) Explain the various processing operations in MPEG-1 encoder to accept
video scene from NTSC/PAL/SECAM based video camera. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Define the following terms wrt to color signal : [5]
i) Hue
ii) Saturation
iii) Brightness
iv) Primary and secondary colors
v) Color temperature
b) With the help of block diagram explain the HDTV encoder in detail.[10]
c) Justify - G - Y signal is not chosen as one of the chroma signals for the
color TV transmission. [3]
Q6) a) Describe the categories of commonly used tags in an SGML document.
[8]
b) State the important features of digital camera. Draw a neat block
schematic of digital camera and explain function of each block. [8]
Q7) a) Give the detailed classification of scanner. Explain operation of scanner
using neat block diagram. [8]
b) Explain hierarchical motion estimation limited to three levels. [4]
c) For the broadcast TV with 720 480 resolution frames at 25 frames per
second, if the motion estimation is to be used with 16 16 macro-block
and P = 15 calculate number of operations per second at all levels and
no. of operations per second. Assume suitable block matching algorithm
and criterion at the levels. [4]
Q8) Write detailed notes on : [16]
a) JPEG - 2000.
b) OS support to MM.
c) HTML.
d) Motion estimation and compensation.
xxxx
Total No. of Questions :8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-139
M.E. (Electronics) (Digital System)
NETWORK SECURITY SYSTEMS
(Revised 2002 Course )
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1656
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Give the classification of Security Services. Explain model of conventional
cryptosystem. [9]
b) What is the purpose of the S-Boxes in DES? Explain the S-Box design
criteria. Explain the strengths of DES in brief. [9]
Q2) a) What properties a hash function H must have for message authentication?
Explain simple hash function. [8]
b) What requirements should a Digital Signature scheme satisfy? What are
the properties a digital signature should have? What are some threats
associated with a direct digital signature scheme. [8]
Q3) a) What are three broad categories of applications of Public-Key
Cryptosystems? What requirements must a Public-Key Cryptosystem
fulfill to be a secure algorithm? [8]
b) Perform Encryption and Decryption using the RSA algorithm for the
following. [8]
i) p=3, q=11, e=7, M=5
ii) p=5, q=11, e=3, M=9
Q4) a) What problem was Kerberos designed to address? In the context of
Kerberos, what is a realm . What are the principal differences between
version 4 and version 5 of Kerberos? [8]
b) Explain X.509 authentication procedures in brief. [8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-139 2
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Describe in brief the principal services provided by PGP. [8]
b) Explain S/MIME in brief. [8]
Q6) a) What services are provided by IPSec? What parameters identify an
SA and what parameters characterize the nature of a particular SA?[8]
b) Describe Secure Electronic Transaction (SET) in brief. [8]
Q7) a) Explain the types of firewalls. [8]
b) What protocols comprise SSL? List and briefly define the parameters
that define SSL Session state and SSL Connection state? [8]
Q8) Write short notes (Any Three) : [18]
a) Virus Countermeasures.
b) Password Selection Strategies.
c) Encapsulating Security Payload. (ESP)
d) Network Management Security.
# # # #
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 155
M.E. (Electrical) (Control System)
NONLINEAR CONTROL SYSTEM
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) All questions carry equal marks.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) How are the nonlinearities classified? Give examples of each type of
nonlinearity. [8]
b) Explain the peculiar characteristics which are present in nonlinear control
system. [9]
c) Give advantages and disadvantages of describing function method and
isocline method to plot phase plane trajectory. [8]
Q2) a) Classify various singular points and discuss their significance. [8]
b) Explain delta method of constructing phase plane trajectory for a given
control system. [9]
c) The system is given by
d
2
x/dt
2
+ 0.5 dx/dt 2x = 0
Draw phase plane trajectory for starting point
dt
dx
= 0, x = 1. [8]
P.T.O.
P1659
Q3) a) Derive describing function for saturation. [8]
b) In a unity feed back control system ON-OFF relay is connected in
cascade with forward path transfer function
) 1 ( ) 2 (
50
) (
+ +
=
s s s
s G
[17]
i) Derive describing function for the system.
ii) Determine the frequency and limit cycle if it exists.
iii) Comment on stability.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Define terms in the sense of Liapunov [8]
i) Stability.
ii) Asymptotic stability.
iii) Global Asymptotic stability.
iv) Instability.
b) Test the following function for positive definiteness
2x
1
2
+ 4x
2
2
+ 5x
3
2
+ x
1
x
2
2x
2
x
3
. [8]
c) Explain briefly : [9]
i) Positive definite scalar function.
ii) Negative definite scalar function.
iii) Positive semi definite scalar function.
iv) Negative semi definite scalar function.
Q5) a) Explain : [16]
i) Popov method.
ii) Circle criteria.
b) Explain krasovski method to assess the stability of equilibrium point.
[9]
[3765]-155 2
Q6) a) An autonomous system is given below [9]

2
1
2
1
3 2
1 0
x
x
x
x

Examine stability using Liapunov theorem.

b) What is adaptive control system? Discuss different types of adaptive
control system. [8]
c) For linear time invariant system dx/dt = Ax, derive the expression
A
T
P + PA = Q
Where P & Q are square symmetric positive definite matrices. [8]
vvvv
[3765]-155 3
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 164
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Systems)
POWER SYSTEM MODELLING
(2002 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss need for modelling a power system. [12]
b) Discuss role played by different components used for power system
modelling. [13]
Q2) With reference to modelling of non-electrical components, discuss :
a) Modelling of boiler. [8]
b) Modelling of steam and hydro turbines. [9]
c) Governor system. [8]
Q3) Write short notes on :
a) Transformer modelling. [8]
b) Transmission line modelling. [9]
c) Load modelling. [8]
P.T.O.
P1663
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Discuss development of synchronous machine model required for
dynamic studies. [12]
b) Explain current and flux linkage models using parks transformation.[13]
Q5) a) Discuss simplified view of excitation control. [13]
b) Explain primitive system used for excitation system modelling. [12]
Q6) Write short notes on :
a) Excitation control system with alternator. [8]
b) Excitation configuration. [8]
c) Simple model required for steady state analysis of synchronous machine.
[9]
vvvv
[3765]-164 2
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-166
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Systems)
COMPUTER APPLICATIONS IN POWER SYSTEMS
(2002 Course) (503202)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1664
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Write a note on classification of optimization problems. Explain any one
in details. [12]
b) Explain multivariable optimization with inequality constraints. [13]
Q2) a) Explain the multivariable optimization with equality constraints by the
method of constrained variation. [13]
b) Explain random walk method for unconstrained minimization. Draw
flowchart. [12]
Q3) Explain the following :
a) Explain Steepest Descent method along with its flow chart. [12]
b) Unrestricted search elimination method with a limited step size. [13]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain the Newton Raphson method of load flow analysis (Rectangular
form). [13]
b) Explain the decoupled method. State the assumptions. [12]
P.T.O.
[3765]-166 2
Q5) a) Write a note on A.C. - D.C. load flow. [12]
b) Derivation of sequence impedance matrix by using transformation matrix.
[13]
Q6) Explain the following :
a) Three phase load flow analysis. [13]
b) Zbus building algorithm for addition of a branch to already existing bus.
[12]

Total No. of Questions :6] [Total No. of Pages : 2

[3765]-169
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Systems)
POWER SYSTEM DYNAMICS
(Revised Course 2002) (503207)
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written on separate answer books.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of pocket electronic calculator is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary and state clearly the same.
P1666
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define steady state power limit of a power system. Discuss the different
measures employed to improve this limit. [10]
b) An alternator is delivering 55% of P
max
to an infinite bus through a
transmission line. A fault occurs such that the new maximum power is
40% of the original subsequent to the clearance of fault, the maximum
power that can be delivered is 85% of the original maximum value.
i) Determine the critical clearing angle; [8]
ii) If the fault is cleared at

= 75, find the maximum value of

for
which the machine swings around its equilibrium position. [7]
Q2) a) Discuss the effects of saliency and saturation on steady state stability of
a salient pole alternator. [8]
b) An alternator with E
1
= 1.35 pu and x
1
= 0.68 pu feeds power to another
synchronous machine with x
2
= 0.5 pu and E
2
= 1 pu through a
transmission line whose

- equivalent circuit parameters are x

e
= j 1.1 pu
and x
s
= x
r
= j 5.2 p.u. Estimate the steady state power limit for the
system. [12]
c) Discuss the conditions and reasons for voltage instability in a power system.[5]
Q3) Write short notes on the following :
a) Pre-calculated swing curves; [8]
b) Equal Area criterion and its applications. [9]
c) Islanding in power system. [8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-169 2
SECTION - II
Q4) a) A synchronous generator is capable of developing a maximum power of
400MW/phase. It is operating at a load angle of 10 in steady state. By
how much can the input shaft power be increased suddenly without loss
of stability. Assume that P
emax
will remain constant. [10]
b) Discuss the dynamic stability of SMIB system where the finite machine is
unregulated and is subjected to small impact. How is the same affected,
if damper windings are provided in the machine. [15]
Q5) a) Explain Eulers modified method. [10]
b) The kinetic energy stored in the rotor of a 50 MVA, 50 Hz alternator
is 200 MJ. The generator has an internal voltage of 1.18 pu and is
connected to an infinite bus through a reactor of 0.25 pu. The voltage
of the infinite bus 1.0 p.u. The generator is supplying rated power
when a 3-phase short-circuit occurs on the line. Subsequently the
CBS operate and the reactance between the generate and bus becomes
0.45 p.u. Using the Eulers modified method, determine the swing
curve for the machine for a time of 0.3 seconds before the fault is
cleared. Take h = 0.1 second. [15]
Q6) Write short notes on the following :
a) Power system stabilisers; [8]
b) Classical multimachine model for dynamic studies and its drawbacks.
[8]
c) Methods to improve transient stability of a power system. [9]
# # # #
Total No. of Questions : 9] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-182
M.E. (Production)
CAD - CAM - FMS
(Old & Revised 2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Attempt not more than five questions of which at least two questions must be from
each Section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) All questions carry equal marks.
6) You are advised to attempt not more than five questions.
7) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
8) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1668
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is mean by half-band width? What is its significance in FEA
computation? [10]
b) For a plane stress problem, derive element stiffness matrix using principle
of virtual work. [10]
Q2) a) A triangle PQR with vertices P(1, 1), Q(7, 1), R(1, 6) is to be reflected
about the line 3x + 2y + 4 = 0. Determine the co-ordinates of vertices for
a reflected triangle. [10]
b) Compare various solid modelling approaches available in CAD. [10]
Q3) a) Given B(1, 1), C(2, 3), D(4, 3), E(3, 1) the vertices of a bezier polygon,
determine seven points on the bezier curve. [10]
b) Explain various methods used for hidden line removal. [10]
Q4) a) What is mean by group technology? Explain any one method of group
technology. [10]
b) Show with block diagram, cellular manufacturing with hierarchical control
system at all possible stages. [10]
P.T.O.
[3765]-182 2
Q5) Write short notes on any four : [20]
a) Serial and parallel communications.
b) Programming with Auto LISP.
c) Data base management in CAD/CAM.
d) Role of expert system in manufacturing.
e) Tool monitoring & sensing.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Describe the various methods of work and tool probing in flexible
manufacturing systems. What are its benefits? [10]
b) Classify flexible manufacturing systems commonly used in industries.[10]
Q7) a) Organise the cells for manufacturing based on Kings Rank order
clustering in the table shown. [10]
Parts

Machines
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
1 1 1 1 1
2 1 1 1 1 1
3 1 1
4 1
5 1 1
6 1
7 1 1 1
8 1
b) Use the method of similarity coefficient to identify the part families and
machine group for similarity coefficient 0.75 for the above problem.[10]
Q8) a) Classify various types of A.G.V.S used in F.M.S. Explain the measures
taken for over loading. [10]
b) With a block diagram, show the various decisions to be taken for carrying
out design for quality. [10]
Q9) Write short notes on any four : [20]
a) Automated storage & retrieval system.
b) Features of Auto CAD as a productivity tool.
c) Control architecture of computer aided manufacturing.
d) Stand alone C.N.C machines.
e) Rapid prototyping.

Total No. of Questions :08] [Total No. of Pages : 2

[3765]-184
M.E. (Production)
HUMAN FACTORS IN DESIGN & MANUFACTURING
(Elective - I) (Revised Course 2002)
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables,slide rule Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1669
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain Analytical Hierachy Process (AHP) for deciding the weightages
of different alternatives with suitable illustration. [10]
b) Explain ERP system. [8]
Q2) a) Explain Digraph theory and state its uses. [8]
b) Explain MRPI operating system with inputs. [8]
Q3) a) Explain product data architecture [8]
b) Explain the product design and development stage of PLC. Explain
concurrent engineering. [8]
Q4) Explain the following terms in relation to supply chain management.
a) Procurement cycle. [5]
b) Manufacturing support cycle. [6]
c) Physical distribution cycle. [5]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the principles of motion economy related with :
i) Use of human body. [6]
ii) Design of tool and equipment. [4]
b) Explain MMH. [8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-184 2
Q6) Explain various factors that affect visual discriminations. [16]
Q7) a) Explain the design of work surfaces height in
i) Seated position. [6]
ii) Standing position. [6]
b) Explain work and rest cycle. [4]
Q8) Write short notes on :
a) Design of cranks and hand wheels. [6]
b) Design of knobs for producing torque. [5]
c) Design of automobile brake and accelerator pedals. [5]
# # # #
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe the basic NFS architecture for UNIX systems with the help of
a neat diagram. [8]
b) Describe the system architecture of Amoeba. State in brief the design
goals of Amoeba. [8]
Q2) a) Describe the general architecture of a DSM system with the help of a
neat diagram. State in brief the design issues of a DSM. [8]
b) Describe the Chandy-Misra-Haas algorithm for deadlock detection. State
the advantages of this algorithm. [8]
Q3) a) Describe how threads of a process are synchronized in Mach. [8]
b) Prove that the existence of a cycle in a general resource allocation
graph is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for the existence of a
deadlock. [8]
Q4) a) Discuss in detail the major issues in designing a distributed operating
system. [10]
b) Discuss the reasons why distributed computing systems are gaining
popularity. [8]
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-191
M.E. (Computer Engineering)
DISTRIBUTED OPERATING SYSTEMS
(510102) (Revised Course 2002)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections must be written on separate answer books.
3) Draw sketches wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1672
P.T.O.
[3765]-191 - 2 -
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Describe Ricart-Agrawalas algorithm for implementing mutual
exclusion in a distributed environment. Discuss the advantages and
drawbacks of this algorithm. [8]
b) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of the various data
locating mechanisms that may be used in a DSM system that uses the
NRMB strategy. [8]
Q6) a) Describe the Kerberos system architecture with a help of a neat diagram.
State the details of the Kerberos authentication protocol. [8]
b) Discuss the relative advantages and disadvantages of implementing a
thread package in user space and in the kernel. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss the desirable features of a good distributed file system. [8]
b) How is group communication implemented in Chorus? [8]
Q8) Write short notes (any three) : [18]
a) Distributed Object Model.
b) Consistency Models.
c) Remote Method Invocation.
d) Bully Algorithm.
rrrr
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-192
M.E. (Computer)
MOBILE COMPUTING
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer three questions from Section I and three questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1673
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the different kinds of bursts used in a GSM system. Describe
the functions of any two of them.
b) State the function of the Operation and Maintenance Centre (OMC) of
the GSM system.
[16]
Q2) Explain the following items : [16]
a) Mobile IP.
b) FTP over Blue Tooth.
c) Design Flaws of WEP.
Q3) a) Draw a diagram showing the expanse of frame, multi-frame, super-frame
and hyper-frame for a GSM network. Show the links expanding one unit
of a bigger frame into constituents of the next smaller frame in the hierarchy
of frames.
b) State what are the following different types of logical control channels
are used for :
i) BCCH.
ii) CCCH and
iii) DCCH.
[16]
P.T.O.
[3765]-192 2
Q4) a) State the reasons for frequency hopping in GSM system.
b) Describe an appropriate frequency hopping algorithm.
[18]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Describe the step by step encryption and decryption process in GSM
mobile system using suitable sequence diagram.
b) State what information is stored in the AUC data base and what is its
purpose.
[16]
Q6) a) Narrate the difference between the following service areas :
GSM, PLNM, MSC, LA and CELLS.
b) Write a short note on cell layout and frequency planning.
[16]
Q7) With reference to the basic call setup scenario describe the process of mobile
unit originating a call to a PSTN/ISDN subscriber. Using a suitable diagram
show the various stages of call setup starting from RIL-RR channel request
until RIL-CC channel connect acknowledge when the conversation starts.[16]
Q8) Write short notes on the following : [18]
a) Pico net-masters and slaves.
b) Functions of MSC.
c) SMS Gateway.

Total No. of Questions :8] [Total No. of Pages : 2

[3765]-196
M.E. (Computer Engg)
NETWORK SECURITY
(2002 Course ) (Elective - I)
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1676
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain various types of passive and active attacks and security threats.
[8]
b) How the security services i.e. confidentiality, integrity and availability are
sufficient to deal with the threats of disclosure, disruption, deception
and usurpation. [10]
Q2) a) Discuss in brief any method for key management in public key encryption.
[8]
b) What are the roles of the Oakley key determination protocol and ISAKMP
in IPSec? Explain. [8]
Q3) a) Explain the format of the X. 509 certificate. [8]
b) Explain the fundamental idea of HMAC. What are the objectives of
HMAC? [8]
Q4) a) Comment on the difference between SHA and MD5 algorithms. Why is
SHA more secure than MD5. [8]
b) Explain RSA crypto system. What is one way function and trapdoors in
the system. [8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-196 2
SECTION - II
Q5) Explain the security implications of the following group policy settings.
Mention atleast one attack vector per setting. Also mention recommended
parameters. [16]
a) Accounts : Rename administrator account.
b) Audit : Audit the use of Backup & Restore privilege.
c) Devices : Prevent users from installing printer drivers.
d) Deny access to this computer from the network.
Q6) a) Describe in detail how an executable infecting computer virus might
oppend itself to an executable. What changes must it make to the
executable and why. [8]
b) Explain how digital signature works. Why are hash functions used in
digital signatures? Can they be attacked? How? [10]
Q7) a) How Trajan Horse collects the information from network? How does
worm-propagate? Explain. [8]
b) Enlist the services provided by secure socket layer SSL. Also explain
protocols defined in SSL. [8]
Q8) a) Describe packet filtering routes in detail. What are positive and
negative effects of firewall. [8]
b) Explain how Elliptic curve system works. Using ECS, explain how
secrete keys are exchanged and messaged one encrypted. [8]
# # # #
Total No. of Questions :8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-202
M.E. (Computer Engg)
APPLIED ALGORITHMS
(2002 Course )
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer - books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1678
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Give an algorithm to detect whether a given undirected graph contains a
cycle, if the graph contains a cycle, then your algorithm should output
one. The running complexity of your algorithm should be (m+n) for the
graph with n nodes and m edges. [10]
b) A Binary tree is rooted tree in which each node has at most two children.
Show by induction that in any binary tree the number of nodes with two
children is exactly one less than the number of leaves. [6]
Q2) a) Explain the Merge sort using divide and conquer approach. [4]
b) Write an algorithm for Quick sort using divide and conquer approach.
What is the best case, average case and worst case complexity? On
what input data does Quick sort exhibit its worst case behavior? show
with example for each best, Average and worst case. [12]
Q3) The input is a set of jobs j
1
, j
2
, .......j
N
each of which takes one time unit to
complete. Each job j
i
earns d
i
Rs if it is completed by time limit t
i
, but no
money if completed after the time limit. [16]
a) Give an O(N
2
) greedy algorithm to solve the problem.
b) Modify your algorithm to obtain an O (N log N) time bound.
Q4) a) By considering the complete graph with n vertices, show that the number
of spanning trees in an n vertex graph can be greater than 2
n-1
-2 . [8]
b) Suppose you are given a connected graph G, with edge costs that are all
distinct. Prove that G has a unique minimum spanning tree using Greedy
approach. [10]
P.T.O.
[3765]-202 2
SECTION - II
Q5) a) The longest common subsequence problem is as follows : Given two
sequences A = a
1
, a
2
, ....... a
M
and B = b
1
, b
2
, ........ b
N
, find the
length k of the longest sequence C = c
1
, c
2
, ...... c
k
such that C is a
subsequence of both A and B an example. [12]
A = dynamic.
and
B = programming.
Then longest common subsequence am and has length 2.
Write an algorithm using dynamic programming for the same above
given problem,and algorithm should have the complexity O (MN).
b) What is principle of optimality? Which algorithmic strategy use this
principle? Explain with suitable example. [6]
Q6) Consider the problem of placing eight queens on an (eight by eight) chess
board. Two queens are said to attack each other if they are on same row,
column or (not necessarily main) diagonal. [16]
a) Give randomize algorithm to place eight non attacking queens on the
board.
b) Give backtracking algorithm to solve the problem.
c) Compare the running time of both the algorithms design in (a) and (b).
Q7) One form of the Knapsack problem is as follows : Given a set of
integer A = a
1
, a
2
, ...... a
N
and an integer k, is there a subset of A
whose sum is exactly k? [16]
a) Give an algorithm that solves the Knapsack problem in O(NK) time.
b) Why does this not show that p = NP?
Q8) a) Write an algorithm for Breadth First Search algorithm in Graph using
suitable data structure. What is the complexity of the algorithm? If we
have not use this data structure can still we implement the same
algorithm, if yes what is its complexity? [8]
b) Explain the branch and bound algorithmic strategy for solving the
problem, take an example of traveling salesman problem using branch
and bound. [8]
# # # #
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 1
[3765]-215
M.E. (Petroleum Engineering)
WELL TESTING AND ANALYSIS
(Revised 2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
2) Answer two questions from each section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Use of a non-programmable calculator, log-log, semi-log paper is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data if necessary and clearly state it.
P1680
SECTION - I
Q1) Derive the diffusivity equation in radial coordinate system. [25]
Q2) Write short notes on : [25]
a) Late time region.
b) Wellbore storage.
c) Derivative curves.
d) Early time region.
e) Type curve matching.
Q3) Derive the line source solution to the diffusivity equation. [25]
SECTION - II
Q4) State the complete methodology in analysis of a Drill Stem Test. [25]
Q5) State the complete methodology in analysis of horizontal wells. [25]
Q6) Explain theoretical and empirical methods of Gas well testing with reference
to Isochronal and modified isochronal tests. [25]

SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is RAD model? Explain the need for it in current industry scenario.
What are major issues with this model? [8]
b) Describe a process framework in your own word. When we say that
framework activities are applicable to all projects, does this mean that
same work tasks are applied for all projects, regardless of size and
complexity? [8]
Q2) a) What is prototyping in software development? Provide example of
software development project that would be amenable to prototyping.
And provide example of software development project that would be
more difficult to prototype. [8]
b) What is software architecture? Enlist important characteristics of the
model of your choice with a suitable diagram. [8]
Q3) a) What are the advantages and disadvantages of developing software in
which quality is good enough? That is, what happens when we
emphasize development speed over product quality? [8]
b) Explain the meaning of reliability or technical metrics and discuss any
two metrics in detail that help in the assessment of system performance.
[8]
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-238
M.E. (Information Technology)
SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
(510121) (Course 2002)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1686
P.T.O.
[3765]-238 - 2 -
Q4) a) Are there characteristics of system that cannot be established during
system engineering activities? Describe the characteristics, if any and
explain why a consideration of them must be delayed until later
engineering steps. [8]
b) Explain in detail function point metric. List all the values adjustment
factor. What are the metrics for specification quality? [8]
Q5) a) What questions need to be answered in order to develop a project plan
according to W5HH principles? [10]
b) What is PERT / CPM technique? How is this technique useful in
software project planning? Explain it with suitable example. [8]
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Define dependability of a Computer System. What are the four principle
dimensions of dependability? [8]
b) An important communication principle states prepare before you
communicate. How should this preparation manifest itself in the early
work that you do? What work products might result as a consequence
of early preparation? [8]
Q7) a) What are design Patterns? What are different elements of design
pattern? [8]
b) What is feasibility study? Develop a checklist for attributes to be
considered when the feasibility of a system or product is to be
evaluated. Discuss the interplay among attributes and attempt to provide
a method for grading each so that a quantitative feasibility number
may be developed. [8]
Q8) a) Describe Object Oriented Software life cycle model with the help of
diagram. State the advantages and disadvantages. [8]
b) An analysis rule of thumb is that the model should focus on
requirements that are visible within the problem or business domain.
What types of requirements are not visible in these domains? Provide
few examples? [8]
Q9) a) Explain why an object oriented approach to software development
may not be suitable for real time systems. [8]
b) Suggest why it is important to make a distinction between developing
the user requirements and developing system requirements in the
requirements engineering process. [8]
Q10)Write a short note on : [18]
a) Buy decision tree.
b) Reference Architecture.
c) Outsourcing.
rrrr
[3765]-238 - 3 -
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 240
M.E. CSE (Information Technology)
NET CENTRIC COMPUTING
(Revised Course 2002) (510122)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Attempt any Three questions from section - I and Three questions
from Section - II.
2) Answers to the both sections should be written in separate answer
sheets.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
P1687
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is the need of Cyclic Redundancy Check? How it is useful in error
control? Data link protocols almost always put the CRC in a trailer rather
than in a header. Why? [8]
b) Compare between distributed data networks and centralized data network.
[8]
Q2) a) Explain the working of single mode and multimode fiber cable with suitable
diagrams. How step index fiber is different from graded index fiber. [8]
b) Explain the importance of data design parameters from network design
point of view. [8]
Q3) a) Suppose we have a single server in a shop and customers arrive in the
shop with a Poisson arrival distribution at a mean rate of lambda=0.5
customers per minute. This implies that the interarrival times have an
exponential distribution with an average interarrival time of 2 minutes.
The server has an exponential service time distribution with a mean service
rate of 4 customers per minute. Considering a M/M/1 queuing system
calculate. [8]
i) Average service time.
ii) Arrival rate.
iii) Service rate.
P.T.O.
iv) Utilization of server.
v) Probability of 2 customers in the system.
vi) Average number of customers in the queue.
vii) Average waiting time.
viii) Average time in the system.
b) How network administrator can assure an optimize network capacity,
growth, architect network resiliency and survivability? [8]
Q4) Write short notes on (Any Three) [18]
a) Fault diagnosis and recovery in network.
b) Stochastic processes.
c) Working of Bridge.
d) Bin packing algorithm.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Why ATM technology is used as a backbone for Internet? How ATM
technology provides constant bit rate even if different technologies have
different frames sizes? [8]
b) Compare between DAFS and CIFS. [8]
Q6) a) What do you mean by signaling protocol? Explain any one signaling
protocol used in VOIP. [8]
b) Describe the various Frame Relay Congestion Control techniques. [8]
Q7) a) Draw and explain the architecture of ADSL. [8]
b) Compare between backup and mirroring. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on (Any Three) [18]
a) Sharmas algorithm.
b) PSTN Gateways.
c) Security applications in banking and commerce.
d) Wavelet Compression.
EEE
[3765]-240 2
Total No. of Questions :8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-245
M.E. CSE (IT)
OBJECT ORIENTED SYSTEM
(Elective - I) (2002 Course)
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Question 1 and 5 are compulsory. Answer any other two questions from each
section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1689
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Draw a class diagram for the following system: PARKING LOT
for your college is multistoreyed with two wheeler parking on the
floor one, visitor parking and VIP parking at ground floor. Cark
parking is on upper floors. Employees can pay quarterly or yearly.
Visitors pay on a daily basis. System has a GUI to show floorwise
plan, show free slots, cars location. Members use swipe card to
enter/exit the parking lot. System can help locate free slots, can reserve
cars for VIP members, generate space utilization reports too. [10]
b) With examples of your choice illustrate the following concepts.
i) Sequential substates.
ii) Object flow in an activity diagram. [8]
Q2) a) Draw a sequence diagram for the usecase described below :
Consider the usecase Buy an insurance policy. Key steps of the
use case could be to get customer details, get customer needs, offer
policy list and detail of various policies available. Based on customer
choice of the policy, he is made a policy member and first premium is
paid by customer by credit card (validation needed). State whatever
assumptions you make in this use case Buy an insurance policy.[8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-245 2
b) From the above insurance system example, with additional assumptions
if needed, show the following concepts in context of a collaboration
diagram. Concepts : Message nesting, link, iteration, guard condition,
creation of object and actor. You could draw a collaboration diagram to
show all concepts in the same diagram or show small collaboration
diagram parts to show the above concepts. [8]
Q3) An organization has employees working at various departments. The
organization plans to have an employee record maintenance system. The
employees are assigned unique employee-number based on which the details
of every employee are recorded. The employees are working at various
positions in the departments and accordingly the salary would be computed.
The employee receives awards/increments/promotions based on their
performance appraisal.
The performance appraisal of an employee can be done by Senior or Junior
colleagues. The feedback should be collected on a monthly/yearly basis. The
management receives this progress report about every employee. The
management introduces certain training programs, workshops to improve quality
of the employees.
Trace the possible queries and reports regarding the above problem. Clearly
state scope, problem partitions and Analyze the problem and develop. Use
case diagrams for all scenarios, Collaboration diagrams for any three scenarios
and class diagram for the target system. [16]
Q4) a) Draw a package diagram for the hypothetical Railway Reservation
System. [8]
b) With examples of your choice illustrate the following concepts. [8]
i) Sequential substates.
ii) Object flow in an activity diagram.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) A window in a window management system can be displayed in one
of the three states : maximized, where it takes up the entire screen;
normal, where it is displayed as a bordered window with a given size
and position on the screen; and iconized where it is displayed as a
small icon. When a window is opened, it will be displayed as a normal
window, unless minimize on use has been selected, in which case it
will be displayed as an icon. A normal window and an icon can be
maximized; a maximized window and a normal window can be
minimized, or reduced to an icon. Maximized windows can be restored
to their normal size, and icons can be restored to the size they had
before they were minimized. Icons and normal windows can be moved,
and normal windows can also be resized. No matter how it is displayed,
a window can always be closed. Draw a state diagram expressing these
facts about the display of windows. [12]
b) Explain the significance of stereotypes, tagged value and constraints
and how they are represented in UML. [6]
Q6) An information system is to be designed for a car rental company. Potential
customers phone up the company for advice and information. The booking
clerks field all calls. Many interested parties remain anonymous, because
their personal data is not registered. Customers reserve cars. Reservation
and customer data are accepted by the booking clerks and entered into the
reservation system. The customer is given a reservation number. Drivers
collect reserved cars at the branch office. Some customers are companiers
and therefore they will send a particular driver to pick up a car. The
customer service clerk takes the agreement from the customer file, checks
the details and amends the agreement if necessary. The vehicle documents
and keys are hander over to the driver. On return the cars are parked in the
return car park and the keys and vehicle documents are received back
from the driver. Before the driver is permitted to leave, the car is checked
over for any damage.
a) Develop a use case model for this example.
b) Think about whether the actors you have identified are beneficiaries
of the use cases. Think about including uses and extends relationships;
are they necessary at this stage?
c) Model one of the interactions with either a collaboration diagram or a
sequence diagram. [16]
Q7) a) How Objects are identified? What are the categories of Objects? How
Object behaviour is determined? [8]
b) What is the significance of Incremental and Evolutionary approach? How
it supports Component building? [8]
Q8) a) What is the importance of Workflows in a development process? What
activities are performed in Elaboration and Construction phases of
unified Process? What is meant by Major and Minor milestone? [10]
b) Explain Life of Unified Process. [6]
# # # #
[3765]-245 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-248
M.E. (CSE) (IT)
DATA WAREHOUSING AND DATA MINING
(2002 Course) (Elective - II)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Q.1 and Q.5 are compulsory. Of the remaining solve any two in section I and any
two in Section II.
2) Draw labeled diagrams if necessary.
3) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1690
SECTION - I
Q1) Design of star schema for Olympic events. [18]
Consider particular example of attendance at Olympic events. Facts are
numbers attending, value of ticket sales. Dimensions include Olympiad (year
of Olympic), venue, sport, type (common match, semifinal, final), mens/
womans. Venues are classified by location and type of building into central
enclosed, central open, remote. Sports are subdivided into events.
Assume a report representing attendance at various events. State your
assumed report before you solve the following :
a) Construct a fact table for this Olympic event.
b) What is the key of the fact table?
c) Design a star schema by using the fact table designed in a) and using
dimension tables.
Q2) a) Explain in detail Projection Index and Bit Map Index with suitable
examples, figures. [10]
b) Discuss issues in problems in storage and retrieval of data from DSS.[6]
Q3) a) Which Indexing technique is best suitable for Data Warehouse? [8]
b) Write a short note on dimensional modeling. Explain the concept of
aggregation hierarchies. [8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-248 2
Q4) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Write a short note on indexing. Distinguish between bitmap indices and
join indices.
b) Information filtering techniques for exploring data in databases.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) List all the major activities that are part of the ETL process. Which of
these is time consuming? Explain in detail any four of them? [12]
b) Write a note on Text Data Mining. [6]
Q6) a) Distinguish between OLTP and Data Warehousing system. [8]
b) Explain an algorithm to find association rules. [8]
Q7) As the project manager for the development of the data warehouse for a
domestic soft drinks manufacturer, your assignment is to write a proposal
for providing meta-data. Consider the options and come up with what you
think is needed and how you plan to implement a metadata strategy. [16]
Q8) Write short notes on : [16]
a) Online Analytical processing system.
b) Information filtering techniques for exploring data in databases.

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2

[3765]-249
M.E. CSE (IT)
ENTERPRISE RESOURCE PLANNING (ERP)
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections must be written on separate answer books.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
4) Draw sketches wherever necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1691
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define ERP. What are the facilities, which form multi-facility
environment of ERP? [8]
b) What are various resources that ERP needs to manage? Enlist the
resources that ERP in telecom sector, has to deal with. [8]
Q2) a) What is the role of consultants, vendors, customers and users in
implementation of ERP? [8]
b) What is Business Process Re-engineering (BPR)? Explain role of IT in
implementation of it. [8]
Q3) a) What are different core processes in banking sector? Explain their
importance in accordance with ERP for financial services management.
[8]
b) How is ERP implemented? Describe a step-wise implementation process
for ERP. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Marketing management.
b) Scope of ERP.
c) Tangible and intangible benefits with ERP systems.
P.T.O.
[3765]-249 2
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What is gap analysis? What are post-implementation options? [8]
b) What are the key issues that can lead to failure of ERP implementation?
[8]
Q6) a) Describe the Indian market for ERP products. [8]
b) Why is there a need to understand the markets to implement ERP
solution? [8]
Q7) a) Explain what are order-winners and qualifiers in details with suitable
examples. [8]
b) How is ERP package evaluated? Discuss with suitable examples. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on : [18]
a) SAP products.
b) Operational Research (OR) management.
c) Inventory management.
xxxx
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-264
M.E. (Chemical)
ADVANCED CHEMICAL REACTION ENGINEERING
(2002 Course) (109107)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1693
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss various types of heterogeneous catalytic reactions with examples.
[6]
b) Cumene is getting decomposed on a catalyst surface by following
reaction.
C
6
H
5
CH(CH
3
)
2
C
6
H
6
+ C
3
H
6
Write the mechanism and derive rate expression for the case of adsorption
as rate controlling mechanism. [12]
Q2) Following data on liquid phase catalytic co-hydrogenation of p-xylene (A)
and tetralin (B) were given below. Mixture of A and B was hydrogenated
giving experimental data as below.
Rate : 8.5 9.4 10.4 11.3
C
A
610 462 334 159
C
B
280 139 57 10
A
= 12.9 order zero w.r.t. A
B
= 6.7 order zero w.r.t. B.
K
A
/K
B
= 0.18
B is more strongly adsorbed. Prepare mechanism for the same. [16]
Q3) a) Describe method used for pore volume and diameter determination of
catalyst. [8]
b) Discuss Wheelers semi-empirical pone model. [8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-264 2
Q4) a) What is the effect of external transport on feasibility of parallel isothermal
and non isothermal reactions. [6]
b) Derive expression for Thieles modulus for cylindrical pellet with 1
st
order kinetics. [10]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What is exit age distribution? How do you can use it in modelling. [6]
b) The radioactive tracer concentration measured in experimental reactor.
Following is the exit age distribution. Determine internal age distribution
curves, variance and comment on the reactor. [12]
Time ( 0 0.5 1.0 1.5 2.0 2.5 3 3.5 4 5 5.5 7.0
min
Counts/min 0 5 22 27 26 22 19 15 10 4 3 0
10
3
Q6) a) Explain tanks in series model. What happens in case n

[8]
b) Explain graph of J
D
V/S N
Re
for mass transfer between fluid and a bed of
particles with comments. [8]
Q7) a) A tube of length 2.5 m and internal diameter 0.025 m is packed with
alumina cylinders with a diameter and height 0.003 m and void fraction

= 0.38. Air flows through the bed at 372C with a superficial mass
velocity of 1.3 kg/m
2
s. Calculate the pressure drop in bed.
Viscosity of air = 0.031 cps & mass velocity = 0.1116 kg/m
2
hr
9
= 0.9487 kg/m
3
, u
s
= 1.37 m
3
/m
2
s [10]
b) Explain models used for fluidized bed reactor. [6]
Q8) a) Explain run away criteria with respect to packed bed reactor. [8]
b) Model fixed bed reactor with heat exchange between feed and effluent.[8]

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 02

[3765] - 265
M.E. (Chemical)
PROCESS MODELLING AND SIMULATION (109103)
(2002 Course )
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 question from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of algorithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator and
steam tables is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1694
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Compare lumped parameter and distributed parameter model. [5]
b) Desire mathematical model and give inter connections of equations
required to be solved to find the height of fluid in a close tank when flow
in is F
1
and out F
2
and the tank is closed tank. [8]
c) In a closed vessel gas enters at molar flow rate of F
1
and moves out at
molar flow rate as F
2
. Give sequense of equations need to be solved and
inter dependance in order to find pressure w.r.t. time in the closed vessel.
[5]
Q2) a) For multi component non ideal mixture give flow chart to find the dew
point of the mixture. [8]
b) Develope a dynamic model and component continuity equations for
tubular reactor with can conseative reaction occuring. [8]

C B A
k k

2 1
Q3) Develop the model and obtain expression for the extraction of solute in a
steady-state operation with two stage counter-current flow. State the input
required and give the solution procedure. [16]
P.T.O.
Q4) Two cenceutric matallic cylindrical shalls are separated by a solid material. A
constant flux of heat of (in W/m
3
) is generated within the cylinder while the
boundary surfaces =
1
and =
0
are maintained at different temperatures.
Determine the steady-state temperature distribution and the radial heat flow
rate within the separating material. [16]
SECTION - II
Q5) For the ideal vapour-liquid mixture of four coponents; Calculate the correct
temperature and vapour composition for liquid at 75 ps/a with composition
x
1
=0.1, x
2
=0.54, x
3
=0.30 and x
4
=0.06. [16]
Data: Pur component vap. pressures in Psi
Component 1 2 3 4
150
0
F 25 14.7 4 0.5
200
0
F 200 60 14.7 5
Q6) Explain generalized model and solution procedure for ideal CSTR for following
scheme of reaction. [16]
A+B C+D
C+A E
E+B F
Q7) A non isothermal batch reactor can be described by the following equations:
Q8) Write short notes. [16]
a) Wi-Fi.
b) MODBUS RTU.
EEE
[3764]-738 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-269
M.E. (Chemical Engineering)
FLUIDIZATION ENGINEERING
(2002 Course) (109110) (Elective - II)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1695
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define fluidization and compare the fixed bed and fluidized bed and
give the classification of fluidization. [8]
b) What are the industrial applications of fluidization? [8]
Q2) Discuss the particle size distribution on entrainment characteristics. [16]
Q3) Explain the Davidson Model for gas flow and write all corresponding
equations needed for the model. [16]
Q4) a) Derive the equation for minimum fluidization velocity. [9]
b) A fluidized bed consisting spherical particles is fluidized by water of
density 1000 kg/m
3
and viscosity 1mN-s/m
2
. The diameter of particles
is 1.8 mm and density of particle is 2600 kg/m
3
. Determine the minimum
fluidization velocity for laminar flow. [9]
SECTION - II
Q5) Derive the kinetic model for conversion of shrinking and growing particle
in fluidization. [16]
Q6) Explain the trends of Heat and Mass transfer effects in fluidized bed. [18]
Q7) Discuss the following in details : [16]
a) Mechanism of bubble formation.
b) Three phase fluidization and Inverse fluidization.
P.T.O.
[3765]-269 2
Q8) Write short notes on : [16]
a) Fluid bed Nuclear Reactor.
b) Fluidized bed dryer.
c) Modeling by bed collapsing.
d) Fluid catalytic cracking.
xxxx
SECTION - I
Q1) The following table gives the cost-duration data for a small construction
project. [18]
Normal Crash
Duration Cost Duration Cost
in days in Rs. in days in Rs.
12 18 6000 13 8500
13 23 11000 18 16000
14 9 15000 9 15000
23 11 11000 11 11000
24 16 41000 12 42000
35 13 9000 8 13500
56
26 7 3000 7 3000
67 13 11000 8 21000
47 13 9000 11 13000
78 9 16000 9 16000
58 9 21000 9 21000
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-402
M.E. (Civil) (Construction and Management)
MANAGEMENT AND PROJECT PLANNING IN CONSTRUCTION
(2008 Course & 2002 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer 3 questions from Section I and 3 questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1697
P.T.O.
Activity
iJ
[3765]-402 - 2 -
a) Draw the network and identify the critical path.
b) Find the normal duration and the corresponding direct, indirect costs
and total project cost. Indirect cost is Rs. 1000/- per day.
c) Carryout stage by stage compression and find the optimum duration
and the corresponding costs.
d) Find the all crash solution.
e) Plot a graph of costs verses time.
Q2) a) Explain the Repetitive project modelling and LOB technique, with
examples. [8]
b) How will you mobilize the site for the construction of a domestic
airport? [8]
Q3) a) Explain the procedure for carrying out resource levelling and
smoothing. [8]
b) What are the applications of MIS to construction? [8]
Q4) a) Explain the work breakdown structure for the construction of a
commercial building. [8]
b) What is the importance of training construction managers? [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) Discuss the various types of feasibilities that are needed to be conducted,
before finalising any project, with the help of any case study. [18]
Q6) Which are the various mechanical electrical, plumbing and
telecommunication services needed on a major project? Indicate the details
of the co-ordination necessary between these services and also with the civil
works. [16]
Q7) With examples, highlight the importance of assigning project management
consultants on a major project. Detail out their role and responsibilities
during pre-tender and post-tender stage on a highway project. [16]
Q8) a) Explain utility of time-motion studies with an example. [8]
b) Discuss the various points to be considered in designing a financial
scheme for workers. [8]
rrrr
Total No. of Questions : 08] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-405
M.E. (Civil Construction and Management)
DISASTER MANAGEMENT
(2008 Course) (Elective - I)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Question No. 1 and 5 are compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt any two questions
from section-I and two questions from section-II.
3) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
4) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
6) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Moiller charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
P1698
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the relation between Development and Disasters with suitable
examples. [6]
b) With suitable examples explain how engineering and technology can
be used to save life and property against adverse effects of any two
natural disasters. [6]
c) Elaborate on causes, effects and management aspects of Natural and
Man Made Disasters. [6]
Q2) a) Explain the mitigation and management issues in case of Flood Disasters.
[6]
b) Some of the Natural Disasters can be an outcome of Manual Errors.
Explain this statement with suitable examples. [5]
c) What do you mean by Early Warning Systems? Explain their roles in
case of natural disasters. How do they work. [5]
Q3) a) Explain how an induced earthquake occurs. How disastrous is it as
compared to natural earthquakes? [6]
b) One of the main reasons for frequent occurrences of Natural Disasters
is uncontrolled urbanization. Justify. [5]
c) Explain the causes and effects of changing weather patterns. [5]
Q4) Write short notes on (any four) : [16]
a) Global warming - Causes and effects.
b) Disaster Mitigation aspects in case of Droughts.
P.T.O.
[3765]-405 2
c) Volcanoes.
d) Land reclamation and its effect on marine ecosystem.
e) Cloud burst.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) List out various government agencies that are involved in disaster
response. Explain the roles and responsibilities of them in detail. [6]
b) Disasters know no boundaries. In case of a natural disaster affecting
more than one country discuss how will the emergency response
programme be designed and managed. [6]
c) Discuss the principles and importance of Ecosystem Based Disaster
Management. [6]
Q6) a) Explain the relation between Disaster and Vulnerability with respect to
river encroachment and its impact on flood discharge. [6]
b) Discuss the technical assessments to be undertaken for selection of an
appropriate site for setting up a relief camp for displaced people. [4]
c) Discuss about the minimum standards for provision of clean potable
drinking water in relief camps. [6]
Q7) a) Discuss the Civil Engineering interventions to be considered in providing
sanitation facilities for a relief camp. [6]
b) The city of XYZ has suffered a massive earthquake with magnitude on
Richter scale 7.5. There has been a substantial loss of life and property.
You are appointed as a Team coordinator for Engineering interventions
to be provided. Explain :
i) How will you organize your team and list out various experts that
you will include in your team.
ii) Coordination with other relief teams.
iii) Disaster assessment and design of relief measures.
iv) Short term and long term management issues. [10]
Q8) Write short notes on (any four) : [16]
a) Chlorine Comparator.
b) Source selection norms for water supply in relief camps.
c) Gender issues in Emergency response.
d) Roles and responsibilities of International Relief Organisations.
e) Sphere standards.
xxxx
Total No. of Questions : 08] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-407
M.E. (Civil) (Construction Management)
CONSTRUCTION SAFETY HEALTH & WELFARE
(2008 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Solve any three questions from each section.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Draw neat diagrams wherever required.
4) Answers to the two sections should be written in two separate answer books.
P1699
SECTION - I
Q1) List out the topics you will cover in conducting a Safety Training Program
and discuss the responsibilities of Supervisors, Project Managers and Safety
Professionals, in carrying out Safety Inspection on a project site. [16]
Q2) During concreting , a R.C.C. slab collapsed on a multistoried building site.
Explain as a Safety Officer which are the Reactive Measures you will take
on this site. [16]
Q3) List out the responsibilities of a Safety Officer on a project site and prepare
a Check List for any two of the following: [18]
a) Storage of Bottled Gases.
b) Electric Supply on a project site.
c) Movement of Vehicles and Dumpers on a project site.
Q4) Explain the Pro-active measures you will take in any two of the following
cases. [16]
a) Caisson foundations in the river for a Railway bridge.
b) Rock drilling with a Tunnel Boring Machine on a Tunnel site.
c) Diversion for 500 meter length of road under repairs on a National High
way.
SECTION - II
Q5) In case of cranes, what are the accessories necessary to prevent accidents?
Also, give some common tips while handling cranes. [16]
P.T.O.
[3765]-407 2
Q6) a) Write the format of monthly safety report of supervisor. [8]
b) What are the safety precautions to be taken while compression and
decompression when working in pneumatic caisson. Also explain the
necessity of medical lock from safety point of view. [8]
Q7) a) Which are the different acts and rules for safety & Welfare applicable to
construction industry? [9]
b) What is the normal schedule of compensation paid to injured worker
under Insurance provisions in construction industry? [9]
Q8) Write short notes on any four of the following. [16]
a) Safety Monitoring.
b) Safety Committee.
c) Fire safety in a high-rise building.
d) Occupational hazards in Asphalt workers.
e) Injury Frequency rate.
f) Nil Accident policy of a company.
zzzz
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-408
M.E. (Civil Construction & Management)
RESOURCES MANAGEMENT
(2008 Course) (Elective - II)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Question No. 1 and 5 are compulsory. Out of the remaining attempt any two questions
from section-I and two questions from section-II.
3) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
4) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
6) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Moiller charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data wherever necessary.
P1700
SECTION - I
(Materials Management)
Q1) a) Discuss in detail various functions of Materials Management. Also
elaborate on various costs involved in Materials Management. [8]
b) Discuss in detail the functions of Materials Purchase department and
Stores Department. [5]
c) Discuss the importance and relevance of stores accounting in Materials
Management. Write a brief note on stock verification. [5]
Q2) a) Explain the relation between efficient Materials Management System
and Construction Planning and Design Process with suitable example.[6]
b) Write a detailed note on various stages involved in selection of various
sources of construction materials. [6]
c) Explain what do you understand by Vendor Development and Vendor
Networking with suitable examples. [4]
Q3) a) What do you mean by Make or Buy Decisions? Explain the concept
with suitable example from Construction Industry. [6]
b) What do you mean by Inventory? Explain in detail various types of
inventory that have to be managed in a construction project. [6]
c) Enlist the procedural requirements in case of international procurement
of materials. [4]
P.T.O.
[3765]-408 2
Q4) a) Discuss the applications and advantages of MIS in Materials
Management. [5]
b) Distinguish between A-B-C materials. [5]
c) Discuss how the structure and layout of store warehouse affects the
efficiency of Materials Management. [6]
SECTION - II
(HR Management and Equipment Management)
Q5) a) You are selected as Head HR for M/s PQR Construction Company. The
company is entering into a Joint Venture with a leading international
construction company for a Rs.750 crore SEZ Project. List out your
roles and responsibilities as far as organisation and management of HR
is concerned in this joint venture. [10]
b) You are a HR Manager of a leading construction company expert in
metro rail construction. You are asked to design an orientation and
exposure training programme for 75 young trainee engineers recruited
by your organisation from various engineering colleges in India. Design
and contents and various modules involved in this training programme.
[8]
Q6) a) You are an Equipment Manager of a leading road construction company.
Your organisation intends to purchase latest infra red sensor based paver
for NH construction. Your organisation is in dilemma of whether to
purchase, hire or lease the equipment. Help your organisation in arriving
at a suitable decision. Justify with logical reasons why you recommend
a particular option. [8]
b) Your organisation intends to purchase a RMC Plant. However it is not
sure as to whether purchase an Indian Brand or an International Brand.
Help your organisation in arriving at an appropriate decision. Also list
out the standard procurement procedure to be adopted in either of the
cases. [8]
Q7) a) Equipment Down time has significant influence on project schedules.
Explain this statement with suitable example. [6]
b) For a 6m
3
dumper following data was available : [10]
Equipment cost Rs.9 lakhs, Useful Life 12 years, average lead distance
3km, average haul time 10 minutes, operators charges per day Rs.600,
daily fuel consumption 75 litres, rate of fuel Rs.38.50/litre, cost of one
tyre and tube set Rs.11,750, additional maintenance charge per month
inclusive of labour charges Rs.10,000. Assuming 10% additional cost
for LAD calculate the ownership and operating costs for the dumper.
Assume 200 working days.
Q8) Write short notes on (any four) : [16]
a) HRD Systems.
b) Depreciation and methods to compute depreciation.
c) Job Evaluation and Performance Appraisal.
d) Equipment Log Book.
e) Types of HR in Construction.
f) Equipment Lack of Availability and Downtime.
xxxx
[3765]-408 3
Total No. of Questions :6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-409
M.E. (Civil) (Const. & Mgmt.)
TQM IN CONSTRUCTION
( 2008 Course) (Elective)
Time :4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
6) All questions are compulsory.
P1701
SECTION - I
Q1) With examples, explain why TQM is necessary in the Indian construction
sector. Explain the major aspects of TQM philosophy. [18]
Q2) With a case study, explain how the costs of defects are worked out for a
concrete pavement construction involving PQC, DLC and other components.
[16]
Q3) What is six sigma? How are the sigma levels indicated? Which are the various
certification levels associated with six sigma and how are they achieved? What
are advantages of six sigma technique? [16]
SECTION - II
Q4) As a quality incharge of a major construction project, you have decided to
observe the existing quality of bored, cast in situ pile constructions as
regards the concreting activity, including the steel reinforcement, and suggest
improvements for the same. Explain : [18]
a) Methodology devised by you to generate data as regards assessing
the existing status of the piling quality.
b) Benchmarks you have set for various parameters related to RCC including
for the works, tolerances allowed. [Make relevant assumptions as regards
mix, reinforcement type, etc]
c) Preventive and remedial measures suggested, for improvement in future.
P.T.O.
[3765]-409 2
Q5) Explain with examples the eight principles involved in ISO (9001) : 2000 as
applied to a contractors organisation, executing bridge projects. [16]
Q6) Explain in brief the following : [16]
a) Role of top management in TQM.
b) Quality function deployment (QFD) and how to achieve it.
c) Categories of quality costs.
d) Application of PDCA in quality assurance.
DDDD
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages :4
P1702
[3765] - 414
M.E. (Civil) (Construction & Management)
OPERATIONS RESEARCH
(2008 Course & 2002 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer 3 questions from Section I and 3 questions from Section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Solve using Big M method or Two Phase method [12]
Minimize Z = 7x
1
+ 9x
2
Subject to
5x
1
+ 2x
2
> 15
6x
1
+ 5x
2
< 30
x
2
> 2
x
1
, x
2
> 0
b) Solve the problem in Q1 (a) above, graphically. [4]
Q2) The unit cost of transporting construction material from three sources to four
construction sites is given, alongwith the availability at each source and the
requirement at each site. [16]
Find the initial feasible solution by
a) NW corner method.
b) Least cost method.
c) VAM.
d) Using the solution obtained by VAM, find the distribution policy which
will minimize the cost of transportation.
[3765]-414 2
Sources
Sites
Supply
1 2 3 4
A 10 10 18 24 80
B 22 16 26 26 60
C 30 36 32 42 60
Demand 10 30 70 90
Q3) a) Five engineers have applied for four jobs. Each job will be assigned to
one engineer only. The profits in lakh rupees expected from each engineer
on each job are given below.
Find the assignment which will result in maximum profits. Which one of
the engineers does not get a job? [9]
Engineers Jobs
1 2 3 4
A 11 19 21 19
B 18 22 24 21
C 15 19 23 20
D 19 20 10 19
E 18 17 24 22
b) Five jobs are to be processed on 3 machines A, B & C in the sequence
ABC. The processing times in minutes of these jobs are given below.[9]
i) Determine the sequence of processing for the 5 jobs so as to minimize
the total elapsed time.
ii) Find the total elapsed time and idle times of machines B and C
Jobs Processing times in minutes
A B C
1 15 9 7
2 19 11 17
3 11 3 15
4 13 5 11
5 21 7 9
Q4) a) Use Fibonacci method to maximize Z = 18x 3x
2
in the range (0 to 10)
to an accuracy of 1%. Carry out first four iterations only. [10]
b) Explain the algorithm of Newtons method. What are its advantages over
steepest gradient method. [6]
SECTION - II
Q5) An investor has Rs. 60 lakh to invest in three projects. Each project requires
investments in units of Rs. 10 lakh. The expected returns for each level of
investment are tabulated below. Use Dynamic programming to determine an
optimum policy for investment to obtain maximum total returns. [16]
Investment Returns from project
A B C
0 0 0 0
10 20 60 48
20 40 80 96
30 120 88 100
40 124 92 104
50 128 96 108
60 132 100 112
Q6) a) Use Lagrange Multiplier Technique to [8]
optimize
2
2 2 1
2
1
3 5 4 Z x x x x + + =
subject to
x
1
+ x
2
= 10
b) The payoff matrix in a game between A & B is as given below. Determine
the strategies of each player and the value of the game. The payoffs are
for player A. [8]
B
1
B
2
B
3
B
4
A
1
12 8 20 2
A
2
14 16 18 4
A
3
18 16 32 4
A
4
8 10 0 8
Q7) The interarrival and the service time in a waiting line problem have the following
frequency distribution, based on 100 such arrivals. [18]
Interarrival
4 7 10 13 16 19
time in minutes
Frequency 8 7 23 39 14 9
Service time
5 7 9 11 12
in minutes
Frequency 2 8 20 46 24
[3765]-414 3
Calculate
a) The average waiting time and percentage waiting time of an arrival.
b) The average idle time and percentage idle time of the server.
Simulate 10 arrivals and use the following random numbers
Arrivals 10 14 66 52 61 78 83 92 34 25
Service 11 9 98 67 36 22 48 71 89 57
Q8) a) What are direct costs and indirect costs in a construction project? [4]
b) What are the various parameters which influence the choice of a project?
[6]
c) What are the situations under which replacement of equipment / items
become necessary? What are the different types of replacement models?
[6]
kbkb
[3765]-414 4
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 439
M.E. Civil (Hydraulic Engineering)
REMOTE SENSING AND G.I.S. IN WATER
RESOURCES ENGG.
(2008 Course) (501304)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With the help of sketches, explain any four types of aerial photographs.
[8]
b) Explain the phenomenon of energy interactions with earth features.
Also, state any two types of reflectors. [8]
Q2) a) Explain passive system of data acquisition. State any three equipments
used in passive system. [8]
b) Explain the interaction of multispectral imagery in remote sensing. [8]
Q3) a) Describe active system of data acquisition and explain any two basic
types of radar. [8]
b) Differentiate between analog and digital system of remote sensing.[8]
P.T.O.
P1705
Q4) Write short notes (any three) : [18]
a) Image classification.
b) Indian remote sensing satellites.
c) Spectral response of natural earth surface features.
d) Interpretation of radar imagery.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain concept of G.I.S. and state any four components of G.I.S.[8]
b) With help of sketch, explain classification & types of input data for
G.I.S. [8]
Q6) a) Differentiate between spatial data and non spatial data. [8]
b) State any four data sources for G.I.S. [8]
Q7) Write applications of remote sensing & G.I.S. in :
a) Crop yield and land use management. [8]
b) Watershed management. [8]
Q8) Write short notes (any three) : [18]
a) Georeferencing of GIS data.
b) Spatial data errors.
c) Raster Analysis.
d) Data quality in G.I.S.
vvvv
[3765]-439 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-443
M.E. (Civil - Hyd)
HYDROINFORMATICS AND SIMULATION
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer booklet.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data if necessary.
P1706
SECTION - I
Q1) Define Hydroinformatics. What are the techniques used in Hydroinformatics?
Explain scope of web based modeling in water resources engineering. [16]
Q2) What is decision support system? Discuss design of decision support system
for Hydroelectric power plant. [16]
Q3) Discuss various methods of simulations. Discuss possible simulation model
for predicting stream flow in a river. [16]
Q4) Write short notes on (any two) : [18]
a) Any practical simulation model.
b) Decision support system for reservoir operation.
c) Any practical Hydroinformatics tool.
SECTION - II
Q5) What are Artificial Neural Networks? Explain in detail standard back
propagation algorithm. Compare back propagation algorithm and conjugate
gradient algorithm. [16]
Q6) Explain the concept of mutation, crossover and reproduction as used in
Genetic Algorithm. [16]
P.T.O.
[3765]-443 2
Q7) a) What is the necessity of cross validation in ANN modeling? Explain
any method of cross validation in detail. [8]
b) GA works on the Darwinian Principle of survival of the fittest. Explain.
[8]
Q8) Write short notes on (any two) : [18]
a) Cascade correlation algorithm.
b) Applications of GA in Water resources Engineering.
c) Stopping criteria in ANN.
xxxx
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-446
M.E. (Civil-Hyd)
HYDROLOGY
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer booklet.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data if necessary.
P1708
SECTION - I
Q1) a) In a ten hours storm the following depths occurred over a catchment
area. It is presented in tabular form.
Hour 01 02 03 04 05 06 07 08 09 10
Depth of
1.2 1.4 5.2 6.6 10.3 8.4 9.0 7.2 1.5 1.2
rainfall (cm)
The surface runoff resulting from the storm is equal to 20cm over the
catchment. Find the maximum average infiltration. [8]
b) What is Unit Hydrograph? Define the various parts of a Unit Hydrograph.
The catchment area is 64 square kilometers. For the unit hydrograph
what will be the volume of rainfall over this catchment area in million
metre cube. [8]
Q2) a) Differentiate between the accuracy level in rainfall measurement by
Theissen Polygon Method and Isohyetal Method. [6]
b) There is a hydrograph triangular in shape. The base is equal to 72 hours.
The highest ordinate is obtained at 30 hours after the starting of the
storm. The value of the highest ordinate is 60 cumec. It increases and
reduces linearly from the start to end of the storm. The catchment area
is 80 square kilometres. What will be the average depth of the rainfall
over the total catchment? [6]
P.T.O.
[3765]-446 2
c) A one day rainfall in Pune city was found to have a return period of 100
years. Calculate the probability that a one day rainfall of this magnitude
or larger.
i) Will not occur at Pune during the next 65 years.
ii) Will occur in the next year. [6]
Q3) a) What do you mean by Flood Routing? Write in brief about Flood Routing
along with all-important equations. Discuss Muskinghams Method in
brief. [8]
b) Discuss about determination of discharges for different frequency floods
by using statistical or probability methods. [8]
Q4) a) What is the mathematical expression of Darcys Law. How it is corelated
with Thiems formula for finding the yield of a confined aquifer? [8]
b) A storm with a 15cm precipitation produced a direct runoff of 8.7cm.
The time distribution of the storm is given below. [8]
Time from
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 start in
hour
Incremental
0.6 1.35 2.25 3.45 2.7 2.4 1.5 0.75 rainfall in
each hour
in cm
Estimate the j index.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) In a confined aquifer the coefficient of permeability is 0.001m/sec. It
rests over the impervious base of fully penetrating well of diameter 0.4
metre and draws a steady discharge of 160m
3
/hr. Due to pumping the
water table is lowered by 1.7m at a point 13m from the centre of the
well. If the water table was 16m above the impervious base before the
starting of the pumping, compute the drawdown at 32m from the central
line of the well. [8]
b) Discuss in detail about the Aquifers and their types along with sketches.
[8]
Q6) a) Discuss about partial penetration of an Aquifer by a well along with
sketches. [6]
b) Discuss about Interference among wells along with mathematical
expressions and required sketches. [6]
c) What do mean by spherical flow in a well. Derive the expression of
discharge for spherical flow. [6]
Q7) a) Design an open well in coarse sand for a yield of 0.004 cumec when
operated under a depression head of 3 metres. [6]
b) What do you mean by Conformal Mapping? What are its application
to the field of Surface and Ground water Hydrology. [6]
c) What do you mean by Recuperating Test. Describe it in brief. [4]
Q8) Write short notes (any four) : [16]
a) Forecasting of floods.
b) Major differential equation for confined and unconfined aquifers.
c) Method of image.
d) Design flood for various Hydraulic Structures.
e) Empirical formulae for Ground Water velocity distribution.
f) Perched Aquifer.
xxxx
[3765]-446 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages :3
P1709
[3765] - 447
M.E. (Civil - Hydraulics)
SEDIMENT TRANSPORT & RIVER MECHANICS
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer booklet.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data if necessary.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Differentiate between bed load and suspended load. During winter the
suspended loads are converted to bed load. Is this statement correct?
[8]
b) Discuss in detail about Shields Analysis. When the fluid drag on the
particle overcomes the particle resistance then the grain starts rolling.
Justify this statement. Why velocity of flow at the top of the particle is
considered in Shields Analysis. [8]
Q2) a) Water flows at a depth of 0.333 meter in a wide rectangular channel
having a bed slope of 0.001. The average diameter of the sand grain in
the channel bed is 1 mm. Determine whether the grains are stationary or
moving. [8]
b) In a wide stream, a suspended load sample taken to a depth of 0.6 metre
from the bed indicated a concentration of 1400 ppm of sediment by
weight. The stream is 5m deep and has a bed slop of 1: 2500. Estimate
the concentration of the suspended load at the mid depth?
Consider the fall velocity of uniform size bed material as 0.15 m/s and
the shear friction velocity as 0.10 m/s. Take Von-Karman constant as
0.4. [8]
[3765]-447 2
Q3) a) What do you mean by regimes of flow? Define ripples, dunes, transition
and antidunes with proper sketches. [8]
b) Determine quantity of bed load transported through a trapezoidal channel,
by using MP-M equation with the following data. [8]
i) Depth of flow = 2.2m
ii) Width of channel = 2.8m
iii) Bed Slope = 1 : 4000
iv) Uniform size of the bed material = 0.33mm
v) Side Slope = 0.5 (H): 1.0 (V)
vi) Mannings n = 0.0211
Q4) Write Short Notes (Any Three) : [18]
a) Dubuoys methods.
b) Initial Regime.
c) Silt deposition in meandering.
d) Critical Tractive Stress.
e) Aggradation and Degradation.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What is the difference between Laceys Theory and Kennedys Theory?[8]
b) Discuss in detail about resistance to flow in alluvial channels.
For channels having rough boundaries [U/u
*
= 5.75 log (R/k
s
) + 6.25 ]
discuss this at length. What is the expression for channels having smooth
boundary. In smooth boundary channel R/k
s
is replaced by u
*
R/v. Why
does it happen? [8]
Q6) a) What do you mean by River Training Works? What is the difference
between low water training, and high water training. Give two examples
for each case. [8]
b) A lined canal laid at a slope of 1 in 1800 is required to carry a discharge
of 28 m
3
/s. The side slope of the canal are to be kept at 1.25 (H) : 1 (V).
Determine the depth of flow. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss about the forces causing movement of a particle on a channel
bank for alluvial channels carrying clear water. Assume a trapezoidal
channel section.
Prove that
sl
/
bl
= Cos [ 1 - {tan
2
/ tan
2
}]
0.5
The symbols carry their standard meanings. [8]
b) Describe Laceys method in brief. There is a discharge of 120 m
3
/s and
the minimum grain size diameter is 0.6 mm. Side slope of the channel is
0.6 (H): 1.0 (V). Design the channel and find all the geometric elements
and find the bed slope of the channel. Design it by Laceys silt theory.[8]
Q8) Write Short Notes (Any Three) : [18]
a) Lindleys Method.
b) Silt Factor.
c) River Morphology.
d) Sediment Load as Variable.
e) Channel Characteristics.
kbkb
[3765]-447 3
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-458
M.E. (Civil) (Structures)
ADVANCED DESIGN OF METAL STRUCTURE
(2008 Course) (501405) (Elective - II)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to each section should be written in two separate answer books.
3) Use of I.S. 800, 801, 875, 802, 806, 4014, 3908 is permitted.
4) Neat, black sketches should be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
P1711
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Design I.S. aluminium beam to carry distributed load of 7kN/m. The
span of beam is 4m. Beam is laterally constrained against buckling.[14]
b) Give step by step design procedure for design of column using aluminium
section. [11]
Q2) a) State advantages and disadvantages of tubular sections in steel structure.
[8]
b) Write design considerations as per I.S. code for design of scaffolding
using structural tubes. [8]
c) Design the tubes to be used as support for a beam of 5m span; supporting
load of 9kN/m. Draw the sketch showing arrangement of tubes and
design details. [9]
Q3) A hoarding board 20m 12m is to be installed at road side; on open ground.
The bottom level of hoarding is at level 20m from ground level. The place
of erection of hoarding is Pune city. Suggest suitable backup structure for
hoarding. Draw sketch to show schematic arrangement and design details.
[25]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain castillated beam, how they are fabricated. [6]
b) Explain with example where castillated beams are used. [6]
c) Explain analysis of castillated beam subjected to transeverse loads, use
usual notations. Draw neat sketches to illustrate analysis procedure.[13]
P.T.O.
[3765]-458 2
Q5) a) Draw various structural systems used for transmission tower as per the
different height requirements of transmission tower. [6]
b) Explain analysis and design of radio transmission tower. [19]
Q6) a) Differentiate between failure of hot rolled section and light gauge steel
section in compression. Using Von Karman theory and G.Winter theory
explain the concept of effective width of a stiffened compression element.
[10]
b) Compute the allowable load on a light gauge steel beam with a box
section 100mm 150mm 2mm thickness take fy = 235 N/mm
2
. Span
of beam is 4m. [15]
xxxx
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-463
M.E. (Civil / Structures)
FINITE ELEMENT METHOD
(2008 Course) (501409) (Sem. - II)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each sections.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
P1712
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain direct and variational approach in formulating element stiffeness
matrix in FEM. [8]
b) Using proper displacement function in polynomial form for prismatic
beam element of length l and extensibility AE, obtain inverse of
coordinate matrix and hence shape functions. [17]
Q2) a) Using shape functions of CST element in area coordinates, obtain
strain-displacement matrix using following numeric data of nodal
coordinates.
Node 1 (5,5)
Node 2 (10,5)
Node 3 (5,11) [15]
b) Explain nodal and interelement compatibility draw neat sketches for
effective explaination. [10]
Q3) a) Eight noded isoparametric quadrilateral is used as element for plane
stress condition. It has four corner nodes and four midside nodes.
i) Obtain shape functions for any one corner and any one midside
node. [8]
ii) State elasticity matrix. [3]
iii) Write Jacobian matrix. [4]
b) Explain properties of element sitffness matrix with physical significance.
[10]
P.T.O.
[3765]-463 2
SECTION - II
Q4) Write with neat sketches following :
a) Necessity of three dimensional elements. [5]
b) Strain - displacement relations for tetrahydron element [10]
c) Shape functions in case of hyxahydron element in natural coordinates.
[10]
Q5) Write polynomial displacement function for w in case of plate bending
element developed by ACM. Why this element is non conforming?
If [B] = z [Q] [A
1
] {}, write [Q] [25]
Q6) a) Explain membrane and bending actions in shell element. How these
two states of stresses are considered in formulating [K] for shell element.
[15]
b) Show by means of following elements finite element mesh for cylindrical
shell.
i) Four noded flat rectangular element.
ii) Eight noded curved shell element. [10]
xxxx
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages :2
P1713
[3765] - 464
M.E. (Civil) (Structures)
MANAGEMENT IN STRUCTURAL ENGINEERING
(2008 Course)
Time : 4 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Why the classification of construction material is essential? State the
factors affecting it. And classify the construction material. [7]
b) Explain time monitoring methodology. [8]
c) State and explain the factors affecting production efficiency. [10]
Q2) a) List different methods used to give fire protection. Explain working of
fire extinguisher. [7]
b) Write a short note on creep in concrete with following points [8]
i) Definition ii) Factors affecting creep
iii) Effect of creep iv) Strain Vs time graph.
c) Write short note on (any two) : [10]
i) Effect of leakage.
ii) Advantage of structural Health monitoring.
iii) List of the measures used for prevention of corrosion of steel in
concrete and prevention of corrosion by design and detailing.
Q3) a) Explain schmidts rebound hammer test. [7]
b) List out the information required to be collected after visual inspection
of destressed structure. [8]
c) Compare health monitoring and structural audit. [5]
d) Write a short note on interviews and statements. [5]
[3765]-464 2
SECTION - II
Q4) a) What is the difference between repair, restoration and retrolitting and
strengthening. [7]
b) Define : [8]
i) Polymerisation.
ii) Latex.
iii) Adhesives.
iv) Catalyst.
c) Explain in details the specifications for sealing of honey - combed and
segregation areas with cement grouting with following points. [10]
i) Material ii) Excution
iii) Field quality iv) Performance requirements.
Q5) a) Explain the structural aspects for form work in building. [7]
b) Write short note on : [8]
i) Safety signs.
ii) Safety precautions working at hight.
c) Write short note on : [10]
i) Modular formwork.
ii) Accident preventation in construction Industry.
Q6) a) Write a short note on recycling of demolished material. [7]
b) List the methods of demolutions and state which methods are suitable
for following : [8]
i) Precast reinforced concrete.
ii) Independent cantilevers.
iii) Masonry arches.
iv) Pylons and mast.
c) Write short note on : [10]
i) Wire saw technique of demolution.
ii) Planning and executing demolution.
kbkb
Total No. of Questions :6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-469
M.E. (Civil - Structures)
BIOMATERIALS & BIOMECHANICS
( 2008 Course) (Elective - IV)
Time :4 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Slove any Two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Draw neat sketches be drawn if necessary.
P1714
SECTION - I
Q1) Solve any three :
a) Write the composition of bone. [6]
b) What are the mechanical properties of bone. [9]
c) Write note on tendon and ligament. [6]
d) What is an articular cartilage. Explain various tests to be carried out on
cartilages. [10]
Q2) a) Explain various criteria needed to compare the behaviour of elastic and
viscoelastic material. [9]
b) Explain various types of reinforcements used in polymer composites
used as biomaterial. [9]
c) Write a note on Polyamides and Particulate composite. [7]
Q3) a) Draw the sketch of elbow joint showing bone assembley. [7]
b) Explain the mechanism of the elbow joint. [8]
c) Write a note on Bio inert and bio active ceramics. [5]
d) Bio degradation and Bio-resorption differentiate clearly. [5]
SECTION - II
Q4) Answer any three :
a) Explain evaluation of elastic modulus in parallel loading for polymer matrix
composite; two phase continous fiber PCM and its strength evaluation.[8]
b) Explain the properties and characteristics of silicon rubber, polyethylene and
ultra high molecular weight polyethylene; with reference to biomedical
application. [9]
P.T.O.
[3765]-469 2
c) Explain the deterioration of polymer when used as bio material. [8]
d) Explain the structure of adult human cortical bone with reference to its
mechanical properties. [8]
e) Explain elastic behaviour of cortical bone. [8]
Q5) Answer any three :
a) Sketch tibio - femoral contact area as a function of knee flexion angle.[8]
b) Explain synovial joint. [8]
c) Explain the types and technologies used for force measurement due
to body motion. [8]
d) Derive joint force equation from free body diagram of hip joint and all
forces acting on joint. [9]
e) Explain current status of Gait analysis. [8]
Q6) Answer any three :
a) What are fundamental considerations in engineering design of
prosthesis. [8]
b) What are the classes of prosthetic devices. Explain in short each.[8]
c) Explain clinical trials, clinical protocol, investigational device exemption
and relese for bio material. [9]
d) Explain mechanical failure of fixation device with reference to hip or
knee joint. [8]
# # # #
Total No. of Questions : 12] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765] - 475
M.E. Mechanical (Common to Heat power, Mechatronics, Design)
TECHNOLOGY AND FINANCIAL MANAGEMENT
(2008 Course ) (502803)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any one question from each unit.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1715
SECTION - I
Unit - I
Q1) a) Distinguish between Flexible budget and Fixed Budget? What are the
main features of a budgetary control system? [10]
b) Prepare a materials budget of XY Co. Ltd. for estimated production of
10,000 units and 8,000 units of products C and D, respectively. The
production orders of the products show the following consumption for
a batch of 1,000 units: [6]
Materials Price/kg Product C (kg) Product D (kg)
01 50 40 50
02 40 -- 10
03 10 5 20
04 30 3 5
05 20 2 --
Total (kg) 50 85
OR
Q2) Write short notes on the following: [16]
a) Flexible budgets.
b) Forces driving global economy.
P.T.O.
c) Sources of long term finance.
d) Functions of finance.
Unit - II
Q3) a) Explain the technique of marginal costing and state its importance in
decision making? [8]
b) Two manufacturing companies which have the following operating details
decide to merge:
Company No.1 Company No.2
Capacity utilization % 90 60
Sales (Rs.in Lakhs) 540 300
Variable costs (Rs. in lakhs) 396 225
Fixed costs (Rs. in lakhs) 80 50
Assuming that the proposal is implemented, calculate
i) Break even sales of the merged plant. [8]
ii) The capacity utilization at that stage. [2]
OR
Q4) a) Explain the different methods of computing profits on contracts, where
work is not completed at the close of the accounting year? [8]
b) XYZ Co.Ltd. process a product through two distinct processes - process A
and process B. 20,000 units were introduced in process A, at a cost of
Rs. 40,000. After processing 18,500 units were transferred to process
B, which produced final output of 18,000 units. Other particulars are
given below:
Process A Process B
Materials cost Rs. 40,000 Rs. 4,000
Labour cost 12,000 10,000
Overheads 8,000 9,553
Normal loss% 5 4
Sales value of scrap units Rs.1 Rs.2
There was no opening or closing work in progress. Prepare process
accounts for process A and process B. [10]
Unit - III
Q5) a) Distinguish between micro economics and macro economics? [6]
b) Explain the theory of consumers demand with the help of indifference
curve analysis? Also explain Income effect and substitution effect? [10]
[3765]-475 2
OR
Q6) Explain the following in brief: [16]
a) Monopolistic competition.
b) Fixed and flexible exchange rates.
c) Importance of foreign trade.
d) Types of unemployment.
SECTION - II
Unit - IV
Q7) a) Define Total Quality Management (TQM)? What are the elements and
principles of TQM? [10]
b) Explain in brief the concept of Kaizen? [6]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the Demings 14 point approach to Quality Management? [8]
b) Discuss the ISO 9000 system standards in brief? [8]
Unit - V
Q9) A small engineering project consists of set of activities whose three time
estimates in days are given below:
Activity Optimistic time Most likely time Pessimistic time
1-2 2 5 14
1-6 2 5 8
2-3 5 11 28
2-4 1 4 7
3-5 5 11 17
4-5 3 5 14
6-7 3 9 27
5-8 2 2 8
7-8 7 13 23
a) Draw the PERT network diagram and identify the critical path and critical
path duration. [7]
b) Calculate the standard deviation, variance, EST, LST, total slack for
each activity. [8]
c) Calculate the variance of critical path. [3]
[3765]-475 3
OR
Q10)a) Explain the stages involved in project life cycle with a neat line diagram?
[6]
b) Explain the concept of BOT in brief? [6]
c) Distinguish between PERT and CPM? [6]
Unit - VI
Q11)a) Define personnel management? State the objectives and principles of
personnel management? [10]
b) Distinguish between autocratic and supportive models of organizational
behavior? [6]
OR
Q12)a) Define merit rating? State and describe any three methods of merit rating?
[10]
b) Explain the process of Management by Objectives? [6]
EEE
[3765]-475 4
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-482
M.E. (Mech.) (Heat Power)
CONVENTIONAL POWER PLANTS
(2008 Course) (502105)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator and
steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1716
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the necessity of compounding of steam turbines. List and explain
the methods of compounding. [6]
b) In a single heater regenerative cycle steam enters the turbine at 30 bar,
400
o
C and the exhaust pressure is 0.1 bar. The feedwater heater is a
direct contact type which operates at 5 bar. Find : [10]
i) The efficiency and steam rate of the cycle.
ii) Increase in mean temperature of heat addition, efficiency and steam
rate as compared to Rankine cycle (without regeneration). Neglect
pump work. Draw schmatic and T-S diagram.
Q2) a) List the energy losses in steam turbines. [6]
b) What are the advantages of fluidised bed combustion? Explain the
working of circulating fluidised bed boiler with neat sketch. [10]
Q3) a) Write comparison between jet and surface condensers. Explain the
reasons for inefficiency in surface condensers. [10]
b) Explain the working of Schmidt-Hartmann boiler. List out its advantages.
[6]
Q4) a) Explain the functions of cladding? What are the criteria for selecting a
suitable cladding? [6]
b) What is a CANDU type reactor? Explain with a sketch its main features.
[10]
P.T.O.
[3765]-482 2
Q5) a) What are the advantages of combined cycle power generation? Explain.
[6]
b) A gas turbine power plant consists of a two stage compressor with
intercooling and a single stage turbine with a regenerator. Air enters the
compressor at 1 bar, 20
o
C. The maximum temperature of the cycle is
limited to 900
o
C and the maximum pressure ratio is 6. The effectiveness
of the regenerator is 0.7. The rate of air flow through the plant is
210kg/s and the calorific value of the fuel used is 40.8 MJ/kg. The
isentropic efficiency of both the compressors is 0.82, the isentropic
efficiency of the turbine is 0.92, combustion efficiency is 0.95,
mechanical efficiency is 0.96 and generator efficiency is 0.95. Take
(C
p
) air = 1.005 kJ/kg K, = 1.4 and for gases C
p
= 1.08 kJ/kg K;
= 1.33. Assuming perfect intercooling, and neglecting pressure and
heat losses, determine : [12]
i) Air fuel ratio.
ii) Cycle efficiency.
iii) Power supplied by the plant.
iv) Specific fuel consumption of the plant and fuel consumption per
hour.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Discuss the present status and future scope of development of Hydro
power in India. Explain the role of NHPC in the development. Give
some quantitative information. [10]
b) What are the social and environmental impacts of hydropower
development. [6]
Q7) Write detailed notes on (any three) : [18]
a) Fuel cells-working, types and applications.
b) Clean energy technology.
c) Microhydel plants.
d) Latent heat storage systems.
Q8) a) Discuss the planning and development strategy of Thermal and Nuclear
power in India. Why the development is slow? [8]
b) Explain the various instruments used in Thermal Power Plants. [8]
Q9) a) Briefly explain the different components of tariff structure of Electricity
Billing. [6]
b) What is the need for Electric Load Management? Explain the step by
step approach for maximum demand control. [10]
Q10) Explain the following : [16]
a) Safety in power plants.
b) Hydrogen energy systems.
c) Fuel substitutions.
xxxx
[3765]-482 3
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-485
M.E. (Mech.) (Heat-Power Engg.)
MEASUREMENT TECHNIQUES AND DATA ANALYSIS
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer three questions from section-I and three questions from section-II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1717
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the difference between regression analysis and correlation. [6]
b) Find arithmetic mean of following data by step deviation method. [10]
Marks 0 - 10 10 - 20 20 - 30 30 - 40 40 - 50 50 - 60
No. of students 5 10 25 30 20 10
Q2) a) Compute median from following data : [8]
Wt. in gms. 410 - 419 420 - 429 430 - 439 440 - 449 450 - 459 460 - 469 470 - 479
No. of
14 20 42 54 45 18 7
apples
b) Find the lower and upper quartile, third decile and 20
th
percentile from
the following data : [10]
Centre value 2.5 7.5 12.5 17.5 22.5
Frequency 7 18 25 30 20
P.T.O.
[3765]-485 2
Q3) a) Compute Spearmans co-efficient of correlation between marks assigned
to ten students by judges X and Y in a certain competitive test as shown
below : [8]
Marks by judge X 52 53 42 60 45 41 37 38 25 27
Marks by judge Y 65 68 43 38 77 48 35 30 25 50
b) Calculate Karl Pearsons co-efficient of correlation between age and
playing habits from data given below. Also calculate probable error and
comment on value. [8]
Age 20 21 22 23 24 25
No.of students 500 400 300 240 200 160
Regular player 400 300 180 96 60 24
Q4) a) Explain with a neat sketch the working of vertex shedding flow meter.
[10]
b) A miniature pitot tube is used to measure velocity of blood flow and
differential pressure gauge, records a pressure of 1 Torr. Take density of
blood as 1020 kg/m
3
, compute the blood velocity. [6]
Q5) a) Explain the construction, working, advantages and limitations of
resistance temperature detectors. [10]
b) For a certain NTC thermistor chip, the values of resistance for ice point
and steam point are 10, 000 and 250 respectively. Determine the value
of constant for thermistor material. [6]
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Explain Beer-Lambarts law. [6]
b) Explain working of double beam ultra violet spectrophotometer. [8]
c) Enumerate applications of visible spectroscopy. [4]
Q7) a) Explain one method of measuring ultra low pressure. [10]
b) For a Mcleod gauge, with a capillary of 1mm diameter and effective
bulb volume of 82cm
2
, find the reading indicated by mercury column
due to pressure of 12.5 Pa. [6]
Q8) a) Explain with a neat sketch the working of hair hygrometer. [8]
b) Explain the working of ultrasonic flow meter stating its merits and
demerits. [8]
Q9) a) Explain with a neat sketch the working of pneumatic controller in a
machine tool. [8]
b) Explain with examples P + I + D controller. [8]
Q10) Write short notes on any three : [18]
a) Applications of chromatography.
b) Noise meter.
c) Radiation pyrometer.
d) Capacitance level gauge.
xxxx
[3765]-485 3
Total No. of Questions : 5] [Total No. of Pages : 8
[3765]-490
M.E. (Mech.) (Heat Power)
HEAT EXCHANGER SYSTEM DESIGN AND PERFORMANCE
(2008 Course) (502112)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer 1 & 3 questions in Section I and 2, 4 & 5 questions in Section II.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed, property tables.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
6) All questions are compulsory.
P1722
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Establish one-to-one correspondence between design considerations
identified within the scope of the heat exchanger design methodology
and the process stages within the life-cycle design process. [6]
b) A multiple circular tube exchanger is constructed from 150, 1.5 m long,
8 mm OD, 0.5 mm wall thickness tubes in a square arrey, with a pitch of
10 mm. The frontal area of the exchanger is 0.0080 m
2
. The tube walls
are maintained at 400 K by condensing steam, while 5.5 10
3
kg/s of
helium enters the tubes at 45 K and 18 kPa pressure. Determine the
pressure drop of the helium flow. Assume average bulk temperature of
helium as 250 K. Take R
He
= 8314, kJ/kg-k. [12]
Q3) Determine heat transfer rate, outlet fluid temperatures and pressure drops on
each side for a TEMA E shell-and-tube heat exchanger with a fixed tube
sheet and one shell and two tube passes. The tubes are in a square pitch. The
fouling factors for oil and water sides are 1.76 10
4
and 8.81 10
5
m
2
-k/w,
respectively. The geometric dimensions and operating properties are as under.
Assume mean fluid temperatures to be 63C and 35C for oil and water
respectively. Shell side heat transfer coefficient to be calculated by
Bell-Delaware method. [28]
Given Geometric dimensions Given Geometric conditions :
Shell side I.D. = 0.336 m No. of sealing strip pairs N
ss
= 1
Tube o.d. = 19.0 mm Total No. of tubes N
t
= 102
P.T.O.
[3765]-490 2
Tube i.d. = 16.6 mm Tube length = 4.3 m
Tube pitch = 25.0 mm Width of bypass lane W
p
= 19.0 mm
Central Baffle spacing = 0.279 m No. of tube passes n
p
= 2
Inlet Baffle spacing = 0.318 m Dia. of outer tube limit
Baffle out = 25% D
otl
= 0.321 m
Tube to baffle hole diametral
Clearance
tb
= 0.794 mm
Shell to baffle diametral clearance
sb
= 2.946 mm.
Thermal conductivity of tube wall K
w
= 111 W/m-k
Operating conditions :
Oil flow rate = 36.3 kg/s Water flow rate = 18.1 kg/s
Oil inlet temperature = 65.6C Water inlet temperature = 32.2C
Properties :
Fluid C
p
K P
r
kg/m
3
J/kg-k Pa.s W/m
2
-k
Oil at 849 2094 64.6 10
3
0.140 966
63C
Water 993 4187 0.723 10
3
0.634 4.77
35C
Use following correlations - Suffix s for shell and t for tube.
For heat transfer coeff. For friction factor
N
u
= 0.024 R
e
0.8
. P
r
0.4
476 . 0
R , 33 . 1 5 . 3

=
s e
b
t
s
p
do
f
(for tube side)
) side shell for (
R 14 . 0 1
59 . 6
52 . 0
s e
b
+
=
) side shell For (
P
P
P . R 04 . 1 N
25 . 0
36 . 0 4 . 0

rw
rs
r e u
f
t
= 0.046 R
et
0.2
(tube side)
Given :
A
o
, cr = 0.0327 m
2
, F
c
= 0.65, A
o
,sb = 0.00102 m
2
, A
o
, tb = 0.00199 m
2
A
o
, bp = 0.00949 m
2
, N
r
, cc = 9, N
b
= 14, A
o
, w = 0.01308 m
2
J
c
= 0.55 + 0.72 F
c
, C
rb
= 1.25
SECTION - II
Q2) a) Explain with a neat sketch the shell side flow distributions due to varying
flow resistances. Mention their influence on thermal effectiveness. [6]
b) Water at the rate of 3.8 kg/s is heated from 38 to 55C in a shell and tube
heat exchanger. On the shell side one pass is used with water as heating
fluid, 1.9 kg/s entering the exchanger at 93C. The over all heat-transfer
coefficient is 1419 w/m
2
-k, and the average water velocity in the 1.9 cm
diameter tubes is 0.366 m/s. Because of space limitations, the tube length
must not be longer than 2.5 m. Calculate the number of tube passes, the
number of tubes per pass, and the length of the tubes with this restriction
Take
w
= 1000 kg/m
3
. [12]
Q4) a) A recuperator is required for an air-heating system that processes 30 kg/
min of air. The hot air enters at 295 K and cold air enters at 270 K and is
to be heated to 287 K. The inlet pressure for the hot air is 986 mbar.
Determine the dimensions of a Balanced cross-flow exchanger, with the
loured fin surface (3/8-11.1), that will give a pressure drop of 330 Pa on
the hot side. Take R = 8314 kJ/kg-k. [13]
b) Write a note on heat exchangers designed to handle fouling. [5]
Q5) a) Explain the selection criterias of heat exchangers based on following
operating parameters (any two) : [8]
i) Pressures and Temperatures.
ii) Fluid leakage and contamination.
iii) Material and fluids compatibility.
b) A gas turbine rotary regenerator has compact triangular flow passages
and operate at R
e
= 1000. The pressure drop on high pressure side is 10
kPa. Determine the change in heat transfer and pressure drop if this
regenerator is operated at R
e
= 500. Use the following data for analysis.
Assume flow is fully developed ,
R
14
,
R
3
e e
f j = = P
r
= 0.7, (hA)
h
= (hA)
c
,
flow split = 50 : 50. Ignore the effect of flow area blockage by the hub
and radial seals. Assume that mass flow rates of air & gas does not
change with reduced R
e
. How would you achieve the reduction in R
e
when L and D
h
values of regenerator surface are being kept constant?[10]
[3765]-490 3
[3765]-490 4
[3765]-490 5
[3765]-490 6
[3765]-490 7

[3765]-490 8
SECTION - I
Q1) The stress function
Cos log
3

+ + + = r Dr Cr
r
B
Ar
represents the stress
distribution in semi circular ring with inner radius r
i
= 75 mm and outer
radius r
0
= 100 mm with d as thickness. The constants A, B, C and D
involved in the stress function are to be evaluated for following boundary
conditions. [16]
a) The inner and outer surface of the ring is free from the radial stresses as
well as shear stresses.
b) At horizontal cross section total tangential force i.e. 0 at P
0
= =

dr d
r
r
i
where r
i
and r
0
are inner and outer radius of the ring and P is vertical
load supported by the ring. Also investigate the stress distribution along
the cross section of the ring. If the ring is used to support load P = 25 kN
determine the maximum shear stress developed in the ring and its location.
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765]-493
M.E. (Mechanical Engg.) (Design Engg.)
ADVANCED STRESS ANALYSIS
(502202) (2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any THREE questions from Section - I and THREE questions from
Section - II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule and non-programmable electronic
pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1723
P.T.O.
[3765]-493 - 2 -
Q2) Show that

+ = 1
2
2
2
2
b
y
a
x
m solves the torsional problem for the solid
elliptical shaft. Determine m in terms of G, where G is modulus of
torsional rigidity of shaft and is angle of twist. Find the maximum shearing
stress and the wrapping function. [16]
Q3) A thin solid circular disc of uniform thickness t has an outside diameter of
300 mm. Calculate the rotational speed for initial plastic yielding, if yield
stress is 300 MPa and material density is 7800 kg/m
3
. Take Poissons ratio
as 0.3. Use maximum shear stress theory of failure. [16]
Q4) Derive an expression for contact stresses when two unequal cylinders in
contact under load radial load P. Using this formulation derive the formula
for wear strength of straight spur gear pair having unequal modulus of
elasticity. What is effect of the hardness on the wear strength? [16]
Q5) Write short notes on any three : [18]
a) Mohrs circle for three dimensional stresses.
b) Theorem of virtual work.
c) Membrane analogy.
d) Two dimensional problems in Polar coordinates.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Explain the terms isoclinics and isochromatics in photoelasticity. What
is there physical significance in measurement of stresses? [8]
b) A 120 Ohm metallic strain gage having gage factor of 2.0 is mounted
on steel member having yield strength 200 MPa and modulus of
elasticity 2.1 10
5
MPa. What maximum change of resistance of strain
gage do you expect? How the Poissons ratio and transverse sensitivity
affect this change? [8]
Q7) Explain the importance of bending axis and shear centre for thin walled
section elements. Derive an expression for shear centre for channel section
as shown in Fig. Q. 7. [16]
Q8) a) Explain the fracture mechanics approach for estimation of residual life
of a component. What is critical stress intensity factor? How it is useful
in design of cracked components? [6]
b) An edged cracked plate loaded in tension made of material has fracture
toughness of 50 MPa m

and tensile strength of 550 MPa. Width of

plate is 60 mm and crack length 5 mm. Find the ultimate tensile strength
that would cause unstable propagation of the crack. For this geometry
of the specimen the stress intensity factor is
a g f K ) (
1
=
where
( ) ( ) ( ) ( )
4 3 2
39 . 30 72 . 21 55 . 10 231 . 0 12 . 1 ) (
b
a
b
a
b
a
b
a
g f + + =
.
a = crack length and b = plate width. [10]
Q9) a) Derive an equation for stress distribution in shrink fitted compound
cylinders with usual notations. [8]
[3765]-493 - 3 -
b) A cylinder of 150 mm internal diameter is subjected to an internal
pressure of 50 MPa. The material for the cylinder has permissible stress
of 120 MPa in simple tension with modulus of elasticity 200 GPa and
Poissons ratio is 0.3. Neglecting the longitudinal stress, calculate
required thickness of the cylinder on the basis of
i) Maximum Principal Stress.
ii) Maximum Principal Strain.
[8]
Q10)Write short notes on any three : [18]
a) Bending of long uniformly loaded rectangular plate.
b) Strain gage rosette.
c) Plastic action in thick walled cylinders.
d) Brittle coating method.
e) Disk with uniform strength.
rrrr
[3765]-493 - 4 -
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 498
M.E. (Mechanical) (Design Engineering)
PROCESS EQUIPMENT DESIGN
(2008 Revised Course) (Elective - II) (Theory)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answer will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rules, Mollier charts, electronic steam table
and electronic pocket calculator and steam table is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary giving reasons.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain significance of following preliminaries in process equipment
design. (any four) [8]
i) Design stress. ii) Weld joint efficiency.
iii) Corrosin allowance. iv) Dilation of pressure vessel.
v) Factor of safety.
b) A storage tank 6m in diameter and 7.5m in height has to be provided
with self supported conical roof. The slope of self supported conical
roof is 1 in 5. Roof is subjected to a superimposed load of 125 kg/m
2
.
Density of plate material is 8000 kg/m
3
. E = 2 10
6
kg/cm
2
.
Calculate minimum thickness required for fabrication of self supported
conical roof. [6]
c) What are Hortonspheres? [2]
P.T.O.
P1726
Q2) a) What is intragranular corrosion and stress corrosion? Explain the ways
to avoid or reduce these types of corrosion. [4]
b) Explain the method for calculating thickness of torispherical head
subjected to i. internal and external pressure. [8]
c) List the theories of failure and explain any one of them. [4]
Q3) a) Explain skirt supports and design aspect related to them. [8]
b) What are entrainment separators? Explain their applications. [4]
c) What is gasket factor? Explain gasket selection and classification. [4]
Q4) a) A pressure vessel is to be designed for an internal pressure of 0.6N/mm
2
.
The vessel has nominal diameter of 1.2m. The material used for vessel
has permissible stress of 120N/mm
2
. If the weight of vessel and its
content is 3000kg and torque due to offset piping is 450 N.m. Find
stresses due to combined loading. [10]
b) Explain reinforcement of nozzles. [6]
Q5) Write short notes on any three : [18]
a) Expansion joint used in process piping systems.
b) Floating roof type storage tank.
c) Design of saddle support.
d) Protective coatings and their applications.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Explain design considerations for shell and tube heat exchanger. [8]
b) Differentiate between vacuum filters and centrifugal filters. Explain
either rotary disc filter or leaf filter. [8]
Q7) a) What are the types of baffles used in heat exchanger? [4]
b) Explain effect of wind load and seismic load on tall vessels. [6]
c) What is an entrainment separator? [2]
d) What types of loses are possible in storage of volatile liquids. [4]
[3765]-498 2
Q8) a) Explain important features of packed or plate columns. [8]
b) With neat sketches explain construction, working and main design
considerations of rotary drier. Give its applications. [8]
Q9) a) Explain determination of power requirements of agitator. [4]
b) Give classification of vacuum pumps or explain any one metering
pump. [4]
c) What are integral, fabricated and formed nozzles? [6]
d) Suggest a suitable material with justification for Handling of any two
of following : [2]
i) Acetic acid.
ii) Chlorine.
iii) Milk and milk products.
Q10)Write short note on any three of following : [18]
a) Types of agitators.
b) Vacuum Crystallizer.
c) Inspection of pressure vessels.
d) Process flow diagrams.
vvvv
[3765]-498 3
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-501
M.E. (Mechanical) (Design Engineering)
ADVANCED MACHINE DESIGN
(2008 Revised Course) (502209)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1728
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the procedure to estimate the life of the member subjected to
creep. [6]
b) For an alloy steel the following creep rate is observed at 700
o
C.
Stress
1
= 21 MPa, creep rate = 0.128% per 1000 hr.
Stress
2
= 28 MPa; creep rate = 0.64% per 100 hr.
Determine the creep rate per 1000 hours for stress value of 15 MPa by
using both exponential and hyperbolic laws of creep. Which of the two
methods a designer will prefer? [10]
Q2) a) Explain the characteristics of belleville spring. State its applications.
What is the effect of residual stresses in these springs. [6]
b) Give the design procedure of helical spring for minimum weight. [6]
c) Explain rubber spring. [4]
Q3) a) What is the cumulative fatigue damage? How the life of component
subjected to different values of fluctuating stresses in cycle is estimated.
[6]
b) A transmission shaft carries a pulley midway between the two bearings.
The bending moment at the pulley varies from 200 N-m to 700 N-m, as
the torsional moment in the shaft varies from 90 N-m to 220 N-m. The
frequencies of variation of bending and torsional moments are equal to
the shaft speed. The shaft is made of steel FeE400 (sut = 540 N/mm
2
and syt = 400 N/mm
2
). The corrected endurance limit of the shaft is 220
N/mm
2
. Determine the diameter of the shaft using a factor of safety of 2.
[10]
P.T.O.
[3765]-501 2
Q4) a) Explain the use of composite materials in mechanical engineering, giving
examples of such use, state reasons for a preference in favour of such
materials. [6]
b) A composite material is reinforced by continuous fibres. How would
one estimate the strength, knowing strength of fibres and matrix, against
off axis loading? Properties of such a composite along the axis (1) and
across it (2) are as under.
E
11
= 76 GPa ; E
22
= 5.5 GPa G
12
= 2.35 GPa

1
, tension = 1250 MPa
1
, compression = 1000 MPa

2
, tension = 30 MPa
2
, compression = 100 MPa
12
= 50 MPa
Find the permissible load/mm
2
when loaded at 5
o
to the axis (1). What
type of failure limits the permissible load? [10]
Q5) Write short note on the following : [18]
a) Vibration and surging of helical springs.
b) Design for different machining process.
c) ANOVA.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) How do you identify the optimum solution in the simplex method. [6]
b) A shaft is to be used to transmit a torque of 1500 N-m. The required
torsional stiffness of the shaft is 100 N-m/degree, while the factor of
safety based on yield strength in shear is 2. Using maximum shear stress
theory, design the shaft with the objective of minimizing the weight out
of the following materials. [10]
Material Weight Tensile yield Modulus of
Density W, strength syt, Rigidity G,
N/m
3
N/mm
2
N/mm
2
Chromium steel 77 10
3
420 84 10
3
Plain carbon steel 76.5 10
3
230 84 10
3
Titanium alloy 44 10
3
900 42 10
3
Magnesium alloy 17.5 10
3
225 15 10
3
Q7) a) Why I section is selected for connecting rod of high speed I.C. Engine.
[6]
b) Design an aluminium alloy piston for a single acting four stroke engine
with following specifications. [10]
Cylinder bore = 0.30 m
Stroke = 0.375 m
Max. gas pressure = 8 MPa
Brake mean effective pressure = 1.15 MPa
Fuel consumption = 0.22 kg/kw/hr
Speed = 500 rpm
Q8) a) Explain fault tree analysis with suitable example. [8]
b) Prove that reliability with respect to time t is
R (t) = Exp
[

t
dt t h
0
) (
]
[8]
Q9) a) What is need of profile modication of gears. Explain how it is carried
out? [6]
b) Two 10 teeth gears are to mesh without under cutting. The gears are
generated using standard hob with 20
o
pressure angle. Module is 4 mm.
The clearance is 0.2 mm. Using extended centre distance method find
out,
i) Hob shift
ii) Blank diameter and depth of cutter setting
iii) Actual pressure angle
Take usual notations ;
= inv
=
5 3
175
3
15
2
v v v +
where
3
3 = v
and are in radians. [10]
Q10) Write short note on the following : [18]
a) Hybrid materials and applications.
b) Design for safety.
c) Multivariable search method.
xxxx
[3765]-501 3
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 4
[3765]-504
M.E. (Mechanical Design Engg.)
ENGINEERING FRACTURE MECHANICS (Elective - III)
(2008 Course) (502211)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data if necessary.
P1729
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What constitutes failure in structural members? Explain the influence
of material behavior on fracture properties? [10]
b) Explain the following terms used in fracture mechanics : [6]
i) Crack opening displacement.
ii) Flow stress.
iii) Dynamic yield strength.
Q2) a) Explain the concept of Griffith energy balance approach to fracture
criteria? [8]
b) Calculate the critical stress level, elastic strain energy, energy required
to form the crack surface and the total energy for a brittle material object
having a central crack with the following properties. Assume thickness
of the object as unity and ignore all other energies.
Crack length 2.a = 5 m
Free surface energy per unit area = 1 J/m
2
Modulus of elasticity = 100 GPa [8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-504 2
Q3) a) A thin steel plate of width b = 100 mm contains an edge crack of length
a = 20 mm and is subjected to a stress of = 400 MPa normal to the
crack plane. Compute the length of the plastic zone and plot the yield
stress distribution directly ahead of the crack according to Irwin model.
The yield stress of the material is 2000 MPa. The value for K
1
in single
edged crack plate is given by the following equation : [8]

=
4 3 2
1
39 . 30 72 . 21 55 . 10 23 . 0 12 . 1
b
a
b
a
b
a
b
a
a K
b) Explain in brief the plastic zone shape according to Von-Mises criterion?
[8]
Q4) a) Explain in brief the finite element method and the boundary integral
equation method for evaluating fracture toughness. [10]
b) What is stress intensity factor? Explain in brief the Inglis theory of stress?
[6]
Q5) Write a short note on any three of the following : [18]
a) Plastic constraint factor.
b) Three modes of loading a cracked body.
c) Compliance method.
d) Microscopic fracture mechanisms.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) What do you understand by the following terms : [8]
i) Strain energy release rate.
ii) Elastic-plastic and Fully plastic cracked bodies.
b) Explain the significance of J-integral being path-independent? [8]
Q7) a) A thin cylindrical pressure vessel with closed ends has a radius R = 1m
and thickness t = 40 mm and is subjected to internal pressure p. The
vessel must be designed safely against failure by yielding (according to
von Mises criterion) and fracture. Three steels with the following values
of yield stress
y
and fracture toughness K
1c
are available for
constructing the vessel.
Steel
y
(MPa) K
1c
( ) m MPa
A : 4340 860 100
B : 4335 1300 70
C : 350 Maraging 1550 55
Fracture of the vessel is caused by a long axial surface crack of depth a.
The vessel should be designed with a factor of safety S = 2 against
yielding and fracture. For each steel :
i) Calculate the maximum permissible crack depth a
c
for an operating
pressure p = 12 MPa. [7]
ii) Calculate the failure pressure p
c
for a minimum detectable crack
depth a = 1 mm. [3]
b) Describe the principal types of load-displacement plots obtained during
plane strain fracture toughness testing? [6]
Q8) a) A large plane contains a center crack of length 2. a
o
and is subjected to
a constant amplitude tensile cyclic stress normal to the crack which
varies between 100 MPa and 200 MPa. The following data were
obtained: for 2. a
o
= 2 mm it was found that N = 20000 cycles were
required to grow the crack to 2. a
f
= 2.2 mm, while for 2.a = 20 mm it
was found that N = 1000 cycles were required to grow the crack to
2.a
f
= 22 mm. The critical stress intensity factor is K
c
= 60 MPa m.
Determine the constants in the Paris equation
( )
m
K C
dN
da
= .
. [10]
b) Describe the characteristics of fatigue crack growth rate curve? [6]
[3765]-504 3
Q9) a) Explain in brief the following types of creep-fatigue interaction : [10]
i) Linear damage accumulation rule.
ii) Strain range partitioning.
b) Describe the creep curve showing the steps of a creep. [6]
Q10) Write short note on any three of the following : [18]
a) Creep deformation mechanisms.
b) S - N diagram.
c) Fatigue crack propagation laws.
d) Multiple specimen method for J - integral determination.
xxxx
[3765]-504 4
Total No. of Questions :10] [Total No. of Pages :3
[3765]-506
M.E. (Mechanical Engineering) (Design Engineering)
VEHICLE DYNAMICS
(502212) (2008 Course ) (Elective - IV)
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Square bracketed figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule and non-programmable electronic pocket
calculator is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1731
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are frequency weightings? Explain most commonly used frequency
weightings for whole-body vibration? [8]
b) The sprung parts of a passenger car weigh 5 kN and the unsprung parts
weigh 500 N. The combined stiffness of the suspension springs is 33 kN/m
and that of the tires is 350 kN/m. Determine the frequency ratio. [8]
OR
Q2) What is coupling coefficient for bounce and pitch motion? A vehicle is treated
as two degree freedom system in bounce and pitch mode. The mass of the
vehicle is 1150 kg and its radius of gyration is 1.3 m. The stiffness of the front
suspension is 38 kN/m and that of rear suspension is 41 kN/m. Center of
gravity of the vehicle is 1.3 m from front and 1.5 m from rear wheel. Find the
natural frequencies and mode shapes. Also find the location of CG of the
vehicle which will uncouple bounce and pitch motion. [16]
Q3) a) Derive an expression for the steer angle
f
in terms of understeer coefficient
required to negotiate a given turn with usual notations. [8]
b) A passenger car has weight of 25 kN. The weight distribution on the
front axle is 55% and that on rear axle is 45% under static condition. If
cornering stiffness each of the front tires is 38.93 kN/rad and that of rear
P.T.O.
[3765]-506 2
tires is 38 kN/rad determine the steady state handling behavior of the
vehicle. If the vehicle is to be designed for characteristic speed of 120
km/hr find the value of wheel base. [8]
OR
Q4) What are the tests carried out for determining handling characteristics of
vehicle? Explain each test in detail. [16]
Q5) Write short notes : [18]
a) Human response to vibrations.
b) Roll center.
c) Effect of tractive forces on cornering.
SECTION - II
Q6) Following data is obtained after constant speed test of a vehicle at 100 km/hr
to determine handling characteristics.
Steering Angle (deg) Lateral Acceleration (g)
8 0.1
16 0.2
19 0.3
23 0.4
32 0.5
40 0.6
44 0.7
55 0.8
Assuming the linear response estimate vehicle response if wheel base of the
vehicle is 3.2 m. Comment on the result. [16]
OR
Q7) Explain braking characteristic of two axle vehicle. [16]
Q8) A vehicle has a weight of 21 kN and a wheelbase of 2.65 m. The ratio of
the distance between the center of gravity of the vehicle and the front axle
to the wheelbase is 0.475. The cornering stiffness of each of the front
tires is 38.93 kN/rad and that of the rear tires is 38 kN/rad. The average
steering gear ratio is 25. Determine the yaw velocity gain and the lateral
acceleration gain of the vehicle with respect to the steering wheel angle for
speed upto 100 km/hr. [16]
OR
Q9) Consider a vehicle as a mass of 650 kg supported on a spring has a natural
frequency of 1.3 Hz. The damping ratio is 0.28. The vehicle moves over
a speed breaker at 15 km/hr. Speed breaker has length 600 mm and has a
shape of half sine curve of amplitude 150 mm. Find the response of the
vehicle when it is on the speed breaker and after just crossing speed breaker.
[16]
Q10)Write short notes : [18]
a) Moment of turning resistance.
b) Steering of vehicles with more than two axles.
c) Rolling resistance.
# # # #
[3765]-506 3
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-510
M.E. (Mechanical-Mechatronics)
DESIGN OF MACHINE ELEMENTS
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
6) Use of pocket non programmable electronic calculator is allowed.
P1734
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the steps involved in the processes of machine design with
suitable example. [6]
b) What do you understand by preferred numbers? [6]
c) Explain the role of different aspects used in the aesthetic design. [6]
Q2) a) List out the important factors that influence the magnitude of factor of
safety. [5]
b) A rectangular plate made of mild steel and of cross section 100 10 mm
is having a hole of diameter d, the plate is subjected to a tensile force
of 40 kN. The plate material properties are ultimate strength and yield
strengths are 320 MPa and 250 MPa respectively. Choose the FOS 3.5.
Determine the diameter of the hole. [6]
c) A steel rod of 100 mm length and 20 mm diameter is acted upon by a
compressive load of 150 kN. The rod is made of carbon steel. Find
compressive stresses and deformation in the rod, if E = 200 GPa. [5]
P.T.O.
[3765]-510 2
Q3) a) A shaft is supported on two bearings placed 0.6 m apart. The shaft
supports pulley at B and D as shown in figure. The coefficient of friction
for the belt drive is 0.3 angle of contact may be taken 180 degree. The
maximum tension in the belt on the pulley D is 4 kN. Assuming the
permissible shear stress for the shaft material is 50 MPa. Determine the
shaft diameter. [10]
b) A shaft transmitting 97.5kW at 180 rpm. If the allowable shear stress in
the material is 60 MPa, find the suitable diameter for the shaft. If the
shaft is not twist more than 1
o
in a length of 3000 mm. take C = 80 GPa.
[6]
Q4) a) What is the difference between Gerber curve, Soderberg and Goodman
lines. [4]
b) A machine component made of steel (ultimate tensile strength = 630
MPa) has a rectangular cross section 50 mm 10 mm. It is subjected to
a completely reversed axial force of P N. Expected reliability is 90%
and corresponding factors is 0.89%. Factor of safety is 2. Following
factors can be assumed: surface finish factor = 0.8 Notch sensitivity
= 0.8, Size factor = 0.085, Theoretical stress concentration factor = 2.25.
Find the force P corresponding to infinite life expectation, what will
be the maximum force if the expected life is only 50000 cycles? [12]
Q5) a) Draw the neat labeled sketch of a protected type flange coupling.[4]
b) Design a knuckle joint to transmit 200kN. The ultimate strength of
material of rod against tearing is 420 MPa the ultimate tensile and
shearing strength of the pin material are 510 MPa and 400 MPa
respectively. Determine the dimensions taking factor of safety 6. Take
allowable shearing stress and compression stress for rod as 50 MPa and
100 MPa.
[12]
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Derive stress and deflection equation of helical springs. [6]
b) State desired properties of spring material and give at least two examples
of spring materials with compositions. [6]
c) State and explain laws of gearing. [6]
Q7) a) State different types of springs and its applications. [4]
b) A helical compression spring is used to absorb the shock. The initial
compression of spring is 30 mm and it is further compressed by 50 mm
while absorbing the shock. The spring is to absorb 250 J energy during
the process. Spring index is 6. The spring is made up of patented and
cold drawn steel wire with ultimate tensile strength of 1500 N/mm
2
and
modulus of rigidity is 81370 N/mm
2
. The permissible shear stress for
the spring wire should be 30% of ultimate tensile strength. Design the
spring and calculate : [12]
i) Wire diameter.
ii) Mean coil diameter.
iii) No.of active turns.
iv) Free length and
v) Pitch.
Q8) a) Explain important physical characteristics of good bearing material.[6]
b) What is the scope of ergonomics in product design? [6]
c) How do you express the life of bearing? [4]
Q9) a) Discuss merits and demerits of roller contact bearings. [4]
b) Design a journal bearing for a centrifugal pump from the following data
load on the journal = 20 kN; speed of the journal = 900 rpm. Type of oil
is SAE 10 for which absolute viscosity at 55
o
C = 0.01 kg/m-s. Ambient
temperature of oil = 22
o
C. Maximum bearing pressure for the pump
= 1.5 N/mm
2
. [12]
Q10) a) What are the merits and demerits of involutes and cycloidal gear tooth
forms. [4]
b) A spur pinion rotation at 560 rpm drives a gear. The transmission ratio
is 4.0 the pinion has 18 teeth with 20
o
full depth involutes profile the
module begin 5 mm. The face width of the gearing is 25 mm. Determine
the power that can be transmitted based on strength. Static strength of
pinion 80 MPa and for gear is 100 MPa, Y
p
= 0.154 0.912/n
p
. [12]
xxxx
[3765]-510 3
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 5
[3765] - 514
M.E. (Mechatronics)
THEORY OF MACHINES & MECHANISMS
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With the help of neat sketches explain the terms Kinematic Link,
Mechanism Kinematic pair, Structure and Degrees of freedom of a
mechanism. [5]
b) Explain with the help of neat sketches inversions of four-bar chain?
Give their practical applications. [5]
c) Explain the mathematical conditions for getting an exact straight line
mechanism? With the help of a neat sketch explain the working of any
one approximate straight line mechanism. [6]
Q2) a) Write short notes on fixed and moving centrodes. [6]
OR
In a slider crank mechanism, the crank 200 mm long and connecting
rod 800 mm long. Find analytically the velocity and acceleration of
piston and angular velocity and angular acceleration of connecting rod
when the crank is turned through 30 from the inner dead centre. The
angular velocity of the crank is 20 rad/s.
P.T.O.
P1735
b) In the mechanism shown in the figure no. 1, the Driving crank O
1
A
rotates in anticlock wise direction at a constant angular velocity of 100
rad./sec. The rod AB drives the slider block B which moves in the
horizontal guides. Block D is pinned to the slider B about P. The Block
D has a hole in which the rod O
2
C can slide. The pivot O
2
is 80 mm
above the line of stroke of slider B. The rod O
2
C is vertical when the
driving crank O
1
A is horizontal. Determine for the position shown,[10]
i) the velocity of B.
ii) the angular velocity rod O
2
C.
Q3) a) Write short note on Bobillier construction. [6]
b) The Figure no.2 shows the configuration of a withworth quick return
mechanism. Lengths of the fixed link OA and the crank OP are
200 and 350 mm respectively. Other lengths are AR = 200 mm
and RS = 400 mm. Find the velocity and acceleration of the Ram
using polygon method when the crank makes an angle of 120
with the fixed link and rotates at 10 rad/sec. [12]
[3765]-514 2
OR
Using Chase Solution, find for the mechanism shown in the figure
no.3 the velocity and acceleration of sliding and the angular velocity
and angular acceleration of link QB for the given position. Given that
OA = 200 and angular velocity of crank OA = 12.566 rad/sec.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain the following terms related to kinematic synthesis : [6]
i) Function Generation.
ii) Path Generation.
iii) Body Guidance.
[3765]-514 3
b) Design a four bar mechanism by using three precision points to generate
y = x
1.6
for the range 1 x 5. Assume
s
= 315, = 90,
s
= 20,
= 70. Take length of fixed link AD as 1 unit. [12]
Q5) a) Define the following terms : [6]
i) Longitudinal vibrations,
ii) Transverse vibrations,
iii) Torsional vibrations.
b) Calculate the natural frequency of vibration of a torsional pendulum as
shown in fig with the following dimensions. [10]
Length of the rod L = 1 m
Diameter of the rod d = 5 mm
Diameter of the rotor D = 0.2 m
Mass of the rotor M = 6 kg
The modulus of rigidity for the material of the rod may be assumed to
be 0.80 10
11
N/m
2
.
[3765]-514 4
OR
The disc of a torsional pendulum has a moment of inertia of 700 kg-cm
2
and is immersed in a viscous fluid. The brass shaft attached to it is of
12 cm diameter and 50 mm long. When the pendulum is vibrating,
the observed amplitudes on the same side of the rest position for
successive cycles are 9, 6 and 4. Determine
i) Logarithmic Decrement.
ii) Damping torque at unit velocity and
iii) The periodic time of vibration.
Assume for the brass shaft G = 4.4 10
10
N/m
2
. What would the
frequency be if the disc is removed from the viscous fluid?
Q6) a) Write short notes on Jump phenomenon in cam system. [4]
b) The following data relate to a cam operating an oscillating roller follower :
Minimum radius of cam = 30 mm.
Radius of roller = 12 mm.
Length of follower arm = 45 mm
Distance of fulcrum centre from cam center = 55 mm
Angle of ascent = 80
Angle of descent = 100
Angle of dwell between ascent and descent = 50
Angle of oscillation of follower = 30
Draw the profile of cam if the follower moves outward with S.H.M.
and returns with uniform acceleration and retardation. [12]
OR
Derive expressions for displacement, velocity and acceleration for a
tangent cam operating on a radial translating roller follower :
i) When the contact is on the straight flank and
ii) When the contact is on the circular nose.
vvvv
[3765]-514 5
Total No. of Questions : 12] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 526
M.E. (Electrical) (Control Systems)
NONLINEAR CONTROL SYSTEMS
(2008 Course )
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any one question from each pair of questions Q1 or Q2; Q3 or Q4; Q5
or Q6; Q7 or Q8; Q9 or Q10; Q11 or Q12.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1736
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Classify different types of singular points for non autonomous system
and discuss their significance. [8]
b) Discuss the unusual characteristics of nonlinear systems which cannot
be explained on the basis of linear theory. [9]
OR
Q2) a) How are the nonlinearities classified? Give examples of each type of
nonlinearities. [9]
b) Compare advantages and disadvantages of the phase plane method and
describing function method for the analysis of nonlinear control system.
[8]
Q3) a) Describe isoclines phase plane trajectory method. [8]
b) Using Delta method draw phase plane trajectory of second order equation
d
2
x/dt
2
+2 dx /dt+3 x =0 take starting point as dx/dt =1.0, x= 0. [9]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) A unity feedback control system has the forward path transfer function G(s)
= 2/3s(s+2) in cascade with relay whose output equal to + 1. For unit step
input using isoclines method, construct the phase plane trajectory. Also
comment on stability. [17]
Q5) a) Derive the describing function for saturation. [8]
b) Determine the frequency and amplitude of the limit cycle if it exist &
Comment on stability of the system for a unity feedback control system
an ideal relay with output equal to + 2 is connected in cascade with the
forward path transfer function G(s) = 10/s(s+5). [8]
OR
Q6) Explain the following for the absolute stability [16]
a) Popov Criterion.
b) Circle Criterion.
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Test the following function for positive definiteness. [8]
2x
1
2
+ 4x
2
2
+ 2x
3
2
+ 2x
1
x
2
5x
1
x
3
+ 2x
2
x
3
b) An autonomous system is given below: [8]

2
1
2
1
3 1
1 0
x
x
x
x
Examine the stability using Lyapunov theorem.
OR
Q8) a) Explain the terms in the sense of Lyapunov: [8]
i) Stability.
ii) Asymptotic stability.
iii) Global Asymptotic stability.
iv) Instability.
b) Select: i) V = x
1
2
+x
2
2
[8]
ii) V = 2x
1
4
+ 2x
2
2
as Lyapunov function and investigate the stability for each case for the
system Given by:

x
1
= x
2

x
2
= x
1
+ x
2
[3765]-526 2

Q9) a) Explain Krasovskiis method for determination of Lyapunov function.[9]

b) Explain briefly-positive definite and semi definite function, Negative
definite and semi definite function. [8]
OR
Q10) A nonlinear system is represented by the state equations: [17]

x
1
= x
1
x
1
2
x
1
x
2

x
2
=
4
3
x
2
x
2
2

2
1
x
1
x
2
Obtain all the equilibrium points of the system. Using linearization at
each equilibrium point, determine the type of equilibrium point and hence
behaviour of the phase portrait near each equilibrium point.
Q11) Explain clearly steps involved in Input-Output Linearization and Input
state linearization. [17]

x
1
= x
2
+ x
1
3
+ u

x
2
= u
Is I/O linearization possible for the system with y = h(x) = x
1
?
OR
Q12) Write short notes on: [17]
a) Notion of sliding mode control.
b) State Feedback Linearization.
EEE
[3765]-526 3
Total No. of Questions : 12] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 538
M.E. (Electrical) (Control System)
INTELLIGENT CONTROL
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1739
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is Artificial Intelligence. Also explain The Turing Test. [8]
b) Compare the following AI techniques. [8]
i) Artificial Neural N/W.
ii) Fuzzy logic.
iii) Genetic Algorithm.
iv) Expert system.
OR
Q2) a) What is Neural network? How the ANN is inspired from biological neuron.
Give four reasons to use neural networks. [10]
b) Sketch Multiple input neuron model and derive its activation function.[6]
Q3) a) Draw Recurrent network and Explain supervised, unsupervised, Rain
forced and Hebbian learning. [8]
b) What is Widrow and Hoffs Delta rule. Write its equation. Explain learning
rate parameter. Give the behaviour of error gradient. [10]
OR
P.T.O.
Q4) Write short note on: [18]
a) Stochastic learning.
b) Toxonomy of NN architecture.
c) Steepest Descent Method.
Q5) a) Explain perceptron and its linearly separable tasks. Draw sketches if
required. [5]
b) Draw a perceptron model with XOR inputs X
1
and X
2
and explain its
function with a decision boundary. [5]
c) What is back propagation learning. Draw and Explain a Multilayer feed
forward back propagation network. [6]
OR
Q6) a) What is BAM? Explain energy function for BAM. [7]
b) Explain classical ART Network and discuss on stability and plasticity.[6]
c) Give the comparison of ART 1 and ART 2. [3]
SECTION - II
Q7) a) Compare between Fuzzy sets and crisp sets. [6]
b) What is membership function. Explain with proper fuzzy set. [6]
c) Write properties of crisp sets: Commutativity, Associativity, Distributivity,
Idempotence. [4]
OR
Q8) a) Explain the following Fuzzy set operation with a neat sketch. [8]
i) Union.
ii) Intersection.
iii) Complement.
b) The task given is to recognize English alphabetical characters (F, E, X, Y, I, T)
in an Image processing system for which two fuzzy sets are A & B
where, [8]

=
T
0.8
I
0.9
Y
0.1
X
0.1
E
0.3
F
0.4
A

=
T
0.5
I
0.5
Y
0.2
X
0.1
E
0.8
F
0.99
B
Find the following
i) B A
ii) B A
iii) B A
[3765]-538 2
Q9) a) Explain max-min composition with an example. Give the importance of
relation matrix. [6]
b) Give interpretation of predicate logic formula. [4]
c) What is fuzzy quantifier. Explain its two classes. [5]
d) Define Defuzzification. [3]
OR
Q10)(a) Consider the Fuzzy sets A and B defined on the interval X = [0, 5] of real
numbers by the membership grade functions. [12]
x
B A
x
x
x
x

=
+
= 2 ) ( ;
1
) (
Determine the mathematical formulae and graphs of the membership grade
functions of each of the following sets.
i) A, B
ii) A B
iii) A B
iv) (A

B)
(b) Explain IF THEN rule of Rule base system in Fuzzy logic. [6]
Q11)Explain in detail Fuzzy logic model for Greg Viots Fuzzy Cruise Controller.
[16]
OR
Q12)Explain with example the application of Artificial Neural Network to load
shedding problem. [16]
EEE
[3765]-538 3
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 541
M.E. (Electrical) (Power Systems)
POWER SECTOR ECONOMICS MANAGEMENT &
RESTRUCTURING
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) State various indices for assessment of quality of supply, service,
performance and environment. [9]
b) Explain various methods employed for transmission cost allocation.[8]
c) What is market power? How it is exercised? State mechanism to
overcome it. [8]
Q2) a) Discuss various models considered for energy trading. [8]
b) Explain electricity reforms and main features of a system in UK &
Nordic pool. [8]
c) What is congestion? How it can be overcome? Does congestion affects
pricing? Explain it in detail. [9]
P.T.O.
P1740
Q3) a) Explain following terms : [8]
i) Market clearing price.
ii) Marginal Pricing.
iii) Spot pricing.
iv) Real time pricing.
b) What is ancillary service? Explain market mechanism of buying or
selling ancillary services. [8]
c) What is arbitrage? State its usefulness. Discuss arbitrage in power
market. [9]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain role of central electricity authority and state features of national
electricity policy. [8]
b) How performance based regulation and price cap regulation is empolyed
for tariff setting. [8]
c) Discuss following tariff structures : [9]
i) Time of day tariff.
ii) Telescopic tariff.
iii) Interruptible tariff.
Q5) a) Determine the simple payback period of the investment for two
transformers for following load. [9]
Option A Option B
Capacity 315 kVA 315 kVA
Efficiency at rated capacity 98% 99%
Capital cost Rs. 2.2 lakhs Rs. 3.0 lakhs
Operating PF 0.9 lag 0.9 lag
No load loss Same for both units
Energy changes Rs. 4.5/kwh. for analysis consider following cases
i) 10 hours/day & 250 days/year of operation.
ii) 16 hours/day & 300 days/year of operation.
[3765]-541 2
b) Explain various tariff setting principles. [8]
c) Give salient features of electricity act 2003. [8]
Q6) a) What is regulation & deregulation? Explain the motivation for
deregulation. [9]
b) Explain typical cost components and cost structure of the power sector.
[8]
c) Discuss effect of renewable energy sources and captive power plants
on tariff structure. [8]
vvvv
[3765]-541 3
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 547
M.E. (Electrical) (Power System)
POWER SYSTEM DYNAMICS
(2008 Course) (503208)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) An ideal generator is supplying load through a transmission line.
Explain with the help of suitable phasor diagram, effect of increse in
load at constant power factor upon its terminal voltage for [13]
i) Lagging power factor.
ii) Unity power factor.
iii) Leading power factor.
b) A 50 Hz, synchronous generator having inertia constant H = 5.2 MJ/
MVA and x'
d
= 0.3 pu is connected to an infinite bus through a double
circuit line. The reactance of the connecting HT transformer is 0.2 pu
and reactance of each line is 0.4 pu. | Eg | = 1.2 pu and | V | = 1.0 pu
and P
e
= 0.8 pu. Determine critical clearing angle critical cleaning time
and post fault steady state operating angle for the following : [12]
P.T.O.
P1742
i) A three phase fault occurs at the HT terminals of the transformer
and is cleared with both lines intact.
ii) A three phase fault occurs at the middle of one of the transmission
line and is cleared without line outage.
Q2) Derive the stator and rotor equation of synchronous generator represented
by model 1.1 (i.e. simplified model). [25]
Q3) a) Explain voltage instability and voltage collapse with factors affecting
it. Also explain how to achieve control of voltage instability. [13]
b) Discuss islanding methods and utility in preventing power system
blackouts. [12]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain in brief using block diagram system states of operation and
system security. [10]
b) A generator is supplying power to a load centre through a transmission
line as shown in figure. The power output of the generator is incresed
slowly while maintaining the magnetudes of the voltages V
1
and V
2
constant at 1.0 pu by mannual control (of both generator excitation
and infinite bus voltage). Find E
g
, E
b
and steady state stability limit of
power that can be transmitted [15]
Assume x
1
= 0.3, x = 0.5, x
2
= 0.1.
[3765]-547 2
Q5) a) Using Swing equation comment on stability of : [10]
i) Two coherent machines &
ii) Two non coherent machines.
b) Derive an expression for the purpose of small signal analysis of stator
of single machine represented by model 1.0 connected to infinite bus
through line resistance R
e
and reactance x
e
. [15]
Q6) a) Draw the block diagram using transfer function of a regulated
synchronous machine and write its third order characteristic equation.
What are the conditions of stability using Rouths Criterion. [10]
b) Explain power system stabilizer (PSS) with the help of suitable block
diagram. [15]
vvvv
[3765]-547 3
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 554
M.E. (E&TC) Microwave
ELECTROMAGNETICS & ANTENNA THEORY
(2008 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Using method of moments, derive expression for field distribution
using integral form of potential equation. [15]
b) Write note on Yees FD Algorithm. [10]
Q2) a) Write coefficient matrix A to determine the potential distribution in the
geometry shown in the figure using finite difference method. [15]
b) Compare the strengths and weaknesses of method of moments and
FDTD. [10]
P.T.O.
P1744
Q3) a) Derive the expression for Greens function G corresponding to PDE,
for free space. [10]
b) Define following terms related to antenna : [15]
i) Antenna efficiency.
ii) Beam width.
iii) Directivity.
iv) Radiation resistance.
v) Gain.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) The radiation intensity of an antenna is given by U(, ) = cos
4
sin
2
For 0 /2 and 0 2 (in upper half space). It is zero in the
lower half space [15]
Find - i) Exact directivity
ii) Elevation plane half power beam width (in degrees).
b) Explain construction and working of helical antenna. Derive expression
for axial ratio and circumference. [10]
Q5) a) Derive expression for effective length, resonant frequency, effective
width, conductance and input impedance of microstrip antenna. [15]
b) A microstrip antenna with overall dimensions of L = 0.906 cm,
W = 1.186 cm, substrate with height h = 0.1588 cm and dielectric
constant
r
= 2.2, is operating at 10 GHz. Find : [10]
i) The input impedance.
ii) The position of the feed point where input impedance is 50.
[3765]-554 2
Q6) a) Derive expressions for radiation resistance and directivity of loop
antenna. [10]
b) Find the radiation efficiency of a single turn and 4 turn circular loop
each of radius /10 and operating at 10 MHz. The radius of wire is
10
3
and the turns are spaced 3 10
3
apart. Assume the wire is
copper with a conductivity of 5.7 10
7
s/m and the antenna is radiating
into free space. [15]
vvvv
[3765]-554 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages :2
P1745
[3765] - 555
M.E. (E & TC / VLSI and Embedded Systems / Electronics (Common))
PRINCIPLES & PRACTICES FOR IT MANAGEMENT
(2008 Course) (504182)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is business ethics? What is required to be done to develop an
ethical environment. [8]
b) State and explain different management principles. [8]
Q2) a) Differentiate program and project. Explain role of project manager. [8]
b) What is project life cycle and explain core project phases in brief. [8]
Q3) a) Explain mistakes related to people, process, technology and product in
a project. [9]
b) What is conflict management? Discuss different types of conflict. How
do you avoid conflicts? [9]
Q4) a) Differentiate work group & work team. Discuss various types of groups.
[8]
b) Define stress. Discuss different sources of stress. What are long term
effects of stress? [8]
[3765]-555 2
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain application of IT management in supply chain management. [8]
b) Discuss different kinds of intellectual property & explain each in brief.[8]
Q6) Write short notes on any three : [18]
a) Six Sigma.
b) CMM.
c) Energy Audit.
d) Quality Management System.
Q7) a) Explain the significance of cyber law in reference to convergence of
technology. [8]
b) Explain the application of IT for product design & development. [8]
Q8) a) Explain change management and Technology management. [8]
b) State and explain various project and process quality standards. [8]
kbkb
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 556
M.E. (E & TC) (Microwave)
RF AND MICROWAVE CIRCUIT DESIGN
(2008 Course )
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Solve any TWO questions from each section.
2) Figures to the right indicates full marks.
3) Assume suitable data, whenever necessary.
P1746
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What does the 1 db compression point represent? For which measure
can it be used? What happens with the signal power when the saturation
increases? [10]
b) Derive F and NF. [8]
c) What does Linearity or non-Linearity mean? [7]
Q2) a) Which kind of definition is used for SFDR? Why is the definition
reasonable? Calculate the SDFR for a receiver with NF = 6 dB.IIP = -10 dBm,
f = 200 KHz and SNR min = 10 dB. [15]
b) Write in short about sensitivity of receiver. [10]
Q3) a) For a GaAs BJT, the maximum junction temperature is 420 C. The
supplied power is 90 W. The thermal resistance between the BJT and the
heat sink is found to be 1.5 C/W Estimate:
i) The maximum thermal resistance between the heat sink if the ambient
operating temperature does not exceed 50
o
C.
ii) A heat convection coefficient of 100 W/
o
Cm
2
. Find the required
surface area. [18]
b) Write note on Smith chart. [7]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Explain in detail PIN diode. [10]
b) An abrupt p-n junction made of Si has the acceptor and donor
concentration of N
A
= 10
18
cm
-3
and N
D
= 5x10
15
cm
-3
respectively.
Assuming that device operates at the room temperature, determine:
i) The barrier voltage.
ii) The space charge width.
iii) The peak electric field across the junction.
iv) The junction capacitance for a cross sectional area 10
-4
cm
2
.[15]
Q5) a) Write steps to design high power amplifier. [5]
b) A MESFET operated at 9 GHz under appropriate bias conditions has
the following S parameters: S
11
= 0.6 35 S
12
= 0,02 0 S
21
= 6.5 115
and S
22
= 0.6 35, Design an amplifier that stays Within 80% OF G
TU

max
and insure that VSWR out = 1. [20]
Q6) a) What are the general design goals for oscillator? An oscillator is used to
feed mixer. Consequencely, how much output power/voltage swing should
an oscillator provide? [7]
b) Design an 8 GHz oscillator in C-B BJT configuration. The S parameters
at V
CE
= 5.0 V and IC = 20 mA are as: S
11
= 0.8740, S
12
= 0.25 32
S
21
= 0.6100 and S
22
= 1.21 165. Sketch circuit, including DC biasing
network. [18]
EEE
[3765]-556 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-558
M.E. (E & TC) (Microwave)
DIGITAL IMAGE PROCESSING AND ANALYSIS
(2008 Course) (Elective - I) (504224)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Q.4 and Q.8 are compulsory.
2) Solve any two questions from the remaining in each section.
3) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
4) Use of calculators is allowed.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1747
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the ways in which the connectivity between two pixels can be
defined. Discuss any one application where connectivity needs to be
found out. [8]
b) Explain DCT and write equations for forward and reverse 2D DCT of a
signal f(m, n). [8]
Q2) a) What is a colour space? Mention various types of colour spaces. Explain
any one in detail. [8]
b) Explain any two point processing techniques for enhancing image with
their applications. [8]
Q3) a) Write a note on high boost filtering and unsharp masking. Mention their
applications. [8]
b) What is meant by pseudo-colouring? Explain its algorithm. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Enhancing image in frequency domain.
b) Image smoothing.
c) JPEG encoding.
P.T.O.
[3765]-558 2
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Considering a binary image I and structuring element J as given below -
0 0 0 0 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 1 1 1 0 0
0 0 1 1 1 0 0 1 0
0 0 1 1 1 0 1 1 1
0 0 0 0 0 0 0 1 0
I J
Perform image dilation and erosion. [8]
b) Explain the process of point detection, line detection and edge detection
with the help of the respective masks. [8]
Q6) a) Considering a binary image, generate its chain code using 4 connectivity
as well as 8 connectivity. [8]
b) Explain any one technique for image restoration. [8]
Q7) a) Explain any 2 regional descriptors. [8]
b) Write Template matching with its advantages & disadvantages. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Redundancies in an image.
b) Standard activation functions in ANN.
c) Fingerprint recognition system.

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages :2

P1749
[3765] - 564
M.E. (E & T / C) (Microwave)
SIGNAL PROCESSING FOR WIRELESS COMMUNICATION
(2008 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rules, Molier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define the following terms : [6]
i) Joint probability
ii) Conditional probability.
iii) Total probability.
b) Explain Gauss Markov model. [6]
c) Define the term cumulative probability distribution function. Mention any
five properties of distribution function. [6]
Q2) a) Explain any four distribution function along with their graphs. [10]
b) Define random Variable. [2]
c) Explain the term likelihood and sufficiency. [4]
Q3) a) Explain what is matched filter. [4]
b) What is correlation receiver? [4]
c) Explain how to implement matched filter as a correlator. [8]
[3765]-564 2
Q4) a) Explain the operation of adaptive filter with the help of neat diagram.[6]
b) Explain the LMs algorithm. [4]
c) What is adaptive noise cancellation? [6]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What is colored noise? [2]
b) Explain the correlation receiver for binary decision problem. [8]
c) Draw the receiver structure for colored noise. [6]
Q6) a) What is power spectrum estimation? [3]
b) What is non parametric method of power spectrum estimation? [3]
c) Explain the Bartlett method of power spectrum estimation. [6]
d) Explain the performance characteristics of power spectrum estimators.[4]
Q7) a) What is parametric method of power spectrum estimation? [3]
b) Explain MA model for power spectrum estimation. [7]
c) Explain receiver structure for baseband binary digital communication
system with equal energy signals. [6]
Q8) Write short notes on (any three) : [18]
a) Optimum receiver for PSK.
b) Intersymbol interference in digital communication.
c) Spread spectrum communication.
d) Radar target models.
kbkb
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 572
M.E. (E & TC) (Microwave)
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
(Elective - IV) (Open) (2008 Course ) (504232)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any Three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams flow chart must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1751
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is a Project Risk? Give a suitable example. [2]
b) What is Risk Management? Give a suitable example. [2]
c) A Retail Mall is considering a computer based system to administer
billing and stock. For this project explain Risk analysis and Risk Planning.
[12]
Q2) a) Define [4]
i) Software Metric.
ii) Function Point.
iii) Program.
iv) Software Product.
b) A share-broker is considering a computer based price estimation project.
For this project explain cost and quality planning. [12]
Q3) a) Explain exploratory program development style and State drawbacks of
the this style. [4]
b) A Hospital is considering a computer based patient monitoring system.
For this project explain Requirements Analysis and Specifications. [12]
P.T.O.
Q4) The owner of a large multi-stored building wants to have a computerized fire
alarm system for his building. For this system,
a) Explain Object-Oriented Application Development. [9]
b) Explain Function Oriented Development. [9]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain phase reviews and project outcomes. Give suitable examples.[8]
b) Explain different types of stake holders and how they are managed. Give
suitable examples. [8]
Q6) a) Explain the Phases of a Project and their characteristics. [8]
b) Explain different types of Project Management Skills. [8]
Q7) a) Explain impact of Organizational Issues on Project Management. [8]
b) Explain Trade-off Triangle with the help of a web-based ticketing example.
[8]
Q8) Write short notes on any THREE [18]
a) Software Quality Assurance.
b) Software Development Life Cycle and Models.
c) Improving Project Performance through Qualitative Analysis.
d) Procuring Products and Services.
EEE
[3765]-572 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages :2
P1752
[3765] - 582
M.E. (E & TC) (VLSI & Embedded Systems)
EMBEDDED SIGNAL PROCESSING
(2008 Course) (504189)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Compute DFT of the sequence
( )
2
cos
n
n x =
Where N = 4 using DIF -
FFT algorithm. [10]
b) Compute cross correlation of sequence
h (n) = a
n
u(n)
x (n) = rect
N
(n) Where N = 10 & a = 0.5. [6]
Q2) a) Explain the characteristics of linear filters. [6]
b) A digital 10 W pass IIR filter is to be disigned with butter worth
approximation using bilinear transformation technique. Find the order of
the filter to meet the following specifications.
i) Passband magnitude is constant to within 1 dB for frequencies
below 0.2 .
ii) Stopband attenuation is greater than 15 dB for frequencies between
0.3 to . [10]
Q3) a) Taking an example of your choice explain PIPELINING. [8]
b) What are the requirement of DSP processor? Describe important blocks
& parallelism in built in the DSP processor. [8]
[3765]-582 2
Q4) Write short notes on (Any three) : [18]
a) Addressing modes in DSP.
b) STFT.
c) Algorithms for computing iteration Bound.
d) Adaptive filters.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Define Retiming? What are different retiming techniques? Explain various
properties of retiming. [8]
b) Define unfolding? Explain any one application of unfolding with example.
[8]
Q6) a) Draw & explain the architecture of Blackfin processor. [8]
b) Explain wavelet transform & its application. [8]
Q7) a) What are important features of TMS 320 C 67 XX DSP processor?
Draw & Explain the block diagram of TMS 320 C 67 XX. [8]
b) Explain in Detail finite word length effect in DSP system. [8]
Q8) a) Explain how IIR filter can be employed in generation & detection of
DTMF signal used by a touchtone phone. [9]
b) Compare DSP processor with conventional microprocessors. State
applications of TMS 320 C 54 XX, TMS 320 C 67 XX DSP processors.
[9]
kbkb
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-594
M.E. (Electronics) (Digital Systems)
WIRELESS & MOBILE TECHNOLOGIES
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1753
SECTION - I
Q1) Why, typically, is digital modulation not enough for radio transmission? What
are general goals for digital modulation? What are typical schemes? [17]
Q2) a) What are the means to mitigate narrowband interference? What is the
complexity of different solutions? [8]
b) Why is the international availability of the same ISM bands important?[8]
Q3) What are the main problems when transmitting data using wireless systems
that wire made for voice transmission? What are the possible steps to mitigate
the problems and to raise efficiency? How can this be supported by billing?
[17]
Q4) a) Explain the relative between the receiver buffer size and packet error rate
in voice-over IP applications. [8]
b) Which type of different services does GSM offer? Give some examples
and reasons why these services have been separated. [8]
Q5) Why is mobility restricted using WLANS? What additional elements are
needed for roaming between networks, how and where can WLANS support
roaming? In your answer, think of the capabilities of layer 2 where WLANS
reside. [17]
P.T.O.
[3765]-594 2
SECTION - II
Q6) a) What are the basic differences between Wireless WANS and WLANS,
and what are the common features? Consider mode of operative,
administrative, frequencies, capabilities of nodes, services, national/
international regulations. [8]
b) How does GSM convert 456 bits of the speech, data or control signal
into a normal burst of 156.25 bits. [8]
Q7) a) Why is routing in multi-hop ad-hoc networks complicated? What are the
special challenges? [8]
b) List the entities of mobile IP and describe data transfer from a mobile
node to a fixed node and vice versa. Why and where is encapsulative
needed? [8]
Q8) a) Think of ad-hoc networks with fast moving nodes, e.g. cars in a city.
What problems arise even for the routing algorithms adapted to ad-hoc
networks? What is the situative on highways? [9]
b) Differentiate between remote and self-positioning systems. [8]
Q9) What is the reactive of standard TCP in case of packet loss? In what situative
does this reactive make sense and why is it quite often problematic in the
case of wireless networks and mobility? [17]
Q10) What is the difference between WAP service indication and service loading?
What applications could use these services? What is a push good for anyway?
[17]

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2

[3765] - 606
M.E. (Electronics) Digital System
DIGITAL SIGNAL COMPRESSION
(Elective - IV) (Revised 2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
2) Use of scientific calculator is allowed.
3) Assume suitable data, if required.
4) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
5) Solve any three questions from each section.
P1755
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Consider a source emitting 5 letters with probabilities given as P(a
1
) =
P(a
2
) = 0.1 P(a
3
) = 0.4 P(a
4
) = P(a
5
) = 0.2. Find the Huffman code for
each alphabet and find average value of the code length. Also find
minimum variance Huffman code for the same source. [10]
b) Explain audio compression using LPC and DCT. Why unvoiced segment
of speech is to be properly coded? [8]
Q2) a) Consider a source with symbol probabilities P (a
1
) = 0.8 P (a
2
) = 0.02 &
P(a
3
) = 0.18. Find the tag using arithmatic coding for a sequence a
1
,a
3
a
2
a
1
. Assume that we are using the mid point of the interval as the tag.[10]
b) Explain subband coding of speech signal. What is the advantage of
subband coding? [6]
Q3) a) Explain the effect of variance mismatch on the performance of a uniform
quantizer. Plot SNR Vs ratio of input to design variance. [8]
b) What is adaptive quantizer? Explain working of forward adaptive quantizer.
[8]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Consider that the input is uniformly distributed in the interval {-Xmax,
Xmax} into M equally sized intervals. Find SNR and show that for every
additional bit in the quantizer, we get increase in SNR of 6.02 dB. [8]
b) Explain A-law and -law companding. How to realize these companding
curves in practice? [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain scanning sequence for DCT. How to achieve compression by
appropriately quantizing transform coefficients. How to judge the
performance of compression method? [8]
b) Explain Jayant quantizer. [8]
Q6) a) What is streaming audio? How to decide buffer size? [8]
b) Consider output of the wavelet decomposition as a 4x4 matrix with 4 rows
specified as [26, 6, 13, 10], [-7, 7, 6, 4], [4, -4, 4, -3] and [2, -2, -2, 0]. Find the
EZW code. [10]
Q7) a) Explain image coding for video compression? How a motion vector is
detected? [8]
b) Explain how to generate SPIHT charts. [8]
Q8) a) Explain how to decide the transmission rate if the tolerable distorsion is
given. [8]
b) Explain how MIDI is used for interfacing musical instruments. [8]
EEE
[3765]-606 2
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages :4
P1756
[3765] - 607
M.E. (Production)
MATHEMATICS & STATISTICS
(Old & Revised) (Common)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of Non programmable electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) If
( ) ( ) 0 , sin
1
, V = r
r
r r then find an analytic function f(z) = u + iv.
[5]
b) Determine constant b such that u = e
bx
cos 5y is harmonic. [5]
c) Find the Taylors series expansion of
( )
( )
3
1 2
1
+
=
z
z f
about [6]
i) z = 0 ii) z = 2
Determine the range of convergence.
Q2) a) Evaluate

C
2
z dz around the square with vertices at (0, 0), (1, 0) (1, 1),
(0, 1). [6]
b) Evaluate dz
z z
z

+ +

C
2
5 2
3
where C is
i) |z| = 1 ii) |z + 1 i| = 2 iii) |z + 1 + i| = 2. [6]
c) Find the bilinear transformation that maps 1, 0, 1 of the z-plane onto 0,
1, of the w-plane respectively. [5]
[3765]-607 2
Q3) a) Solve the equation
2
2
x
u
t
u

subject to the conditions u(x, 0) = sin x

0 < x < 1 u (0, t) = u (1, t) = 0 carry out computations for two levels,
taking
36
1
,
3
1
= = k h . [8]
b) Evaluate the pivotal values of the equation
2
2
2
2
16
x
u
t
u

taking h = 1
upto t = 1.25 the boundary conditions are u(0 ,t) = u(5, t) = 0 u(x, 0) = 0
and u(x, 0) = x
2
(5 x). [8]
Q4) a) Find the curve passing through the points (x
1
, y
1
) and (x
2
, y
2
) which
when rotated about the x-axis gives a minimum surface area. [8]
b) Solve the boundary value problem, defined by y'' x = 0 and y(0) = 0,
y'(1) =
2
1
by the Rayleigh - Ritz method. [8]
Q5) a) Determine and graph the image of |z a| = a under w = z
2
. [5]
b) Evaluate

+
2
0
sin
4
5
d
. [5]
c) Solve 0
2
= u under the conditions (h = 1, k = 1)
u(0, y) = 0, u(4, y) = 12 + y for 0 < y < 4.
u(x, 0) = 3x, u(x, 4) = x
2
for 0 < x < 4. [7]
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Find the general solution of
0
4
1
1
1
2
=

+ + y
x
y
x
y
. [5]
b) Express the polynomial f(x) = 1 3x + 3x
2
interms of Legendre polynomial.[5]
c) Show that
i) P
n
(x) = (1)
n
P
n
(x).
ii)
( ) { } ( ) x J x x J x
dx
d
p
p
p
p
1
=
. [6]
Q7) a) Prove that
( ) ( )
( )
( ) ( ) dx x x f
n
dx x P x f
n
n
n
n
n
1
! . 2
1
2
1
1
1
1

=


. [6]
b) Show that
( )
2
1
) 1 (
1
+
=
n n
P
n
. [4]
c) Show that ( ) ( ) ( ) x J
x
x J
x
x J
0 1
2
1
2
2 4
1 +

= . [6]
Q8) a) An urn A contains 5 red, 3 white & 8 green marbles while urn B contain
3 red and 5 white marbles. A fair die is tossed if 3 or 6 appears a marble
is chosen from B otherwise from A. Find the probability that. [9]
i) A red marble is chosen.
ii) A white marble is chosen.
iii) A green marble is chosen.
(Use finite stochastic process)
b) A sales mans territory consists of 3 cities A, B and C. He never sells in
the same city on successive days. If he sells in city A, then the next day
he sells in city B. However if he sells in either B or C, then the next day
he is twice as likely to sell in city A as in other city. In the long run how
often does he sell in each of the cities. [8]
Q9) a) Test for goodness of fit of a poisson distribution at 0.01 level of
significance to the following observed data of e-mails received. [8]
No. of e-mails 0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13
observed
3 15 47 76 68 74 46 39 15 9 5 2 0 1
frequency
b) An I. Q. test was administered to 5 persons before and after they were
trained the results are given below. [8]
Candidates 1 2 3 4 5
I.Q. before Training 110 120 123 132 125
I.Q. after Training 120 118 125 136 121
Test whether there is any change in I.Q. after the training programme.
[3765]-607 3
Q10) a) The following data refers to visual defects found during the inspection
of the first 10 samples of size 50 each from a lot of two-wheelers
manufactured by an automobile company.
Sample No. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
No. of defectives 4 3 2 3 4 4 4 1 3 2
Draw the p-chart to show that the fraction defectives are under control.[8]
b) For a Markov chain, the transition matrix

=
4
1
4
3
2
1
2
1
P with initial
distribution
( )
( )
4
3
,
4
1
P
0
= find
i)
( ) 2
21
P
ii)
( ) 2
12
P
iii)
( ) 2
P
iv)
( ) 2
1
P
. [9]
kbkb
[3765]-607 4
Total No. of Questions : 7] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 608
M.E. (Production)
CAD/CAM/CIM
(2008 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Attempt not more than five questions of which at least two questions must be
from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) All questions carry equal marks.
6) You are advised to attempt not more than five questions.
7) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
8) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
9) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) Solve any two of the following : [20]
a) Consider PQR having co-ordinates P(5, 5), Q(8, 5), R(5, 10).
Determine the vertex positions if
i) PQR is rotated by 55 anticlockwise about point P.
ii) PQR is seated by 3 times in X-direction and 4 times in Y-direction
about vertex point P.
b) Explain the parametric transformation of a parabola.
c) A PQR with vertices P(1, 1), Q(7, 1), R(1, 6) is to be reflected about
the line 3x + 2y + 4 = 0. Determine the co-ordinates of vertices for a
reflected triangle.
P.T.O.
P1757
Q2) Solve any two of the following : [20]
a) Given B(1, 1), C(2, 3), D(4, 3) and E(3, 1) as the vertices of a bezier
polygon. Determine seven points on the curve.
b) Explain various methods for hidden line removal.
c) Compare various solid modelling approaches in CAD.
Q3) Solve any two of the following : [20]
a) What is rapid prototyping and what are its benefits? Explain any one
method in detail.
b) Write the various G and M codes usually used in CNC programing on
CNC machining centre.
c) With a neat sketch, explain FMS, FMC and FMM.
Q4) Solve any two of the following : [20]
a) By using FEA for a bar shown in fig. 1. Determine nodal displacement,
element stresses & reactions forces. With A
1
= A
2
= 300 cm
2
, A
3
= 450
cm
2
and E = 200 10
5
MPa.
b) A tapered bar of length 150 mm is fixed at one end having area 120 mm
2
and on the other end a force of 50kN is applied axially. The area at the
other end is 50 mm
2
. Determine the nodal deflections and stresses in
bar using three elements.
[3765]-608 2
c) Write in detail the steps followed in FEM analysis. Explain the
following with sketch.
i) Node. ii) Member.
iii) Local axis. iv) Global axis.
v) Degree of freedom.
SECTION - II
Q5) Solve any two of the following : [20]
a) Explain the shop floor control module in CIM.
b) With a neat sketch, explain different layouts used in FMS.
c) What is concurrent engineering? How it differs from sequential
engineering? Explain with block diagram.
Q6) Solve any two of the following : [20]
a) What is group technology? Explain the benefits of group technology.
b) What is production flow analysis? How it helps in manufacturing cell
formation?
c) Explain in brief different methods of manufacturing cell formation.
Q7) a) Explain with neat diagram : [10]
i) Computer aided material requirement planning.
ii) Computer aided quality control.
b) Discuss the specific considerations, type of fields of applications and
various information and data files needed for executing a specific expert
system. [10]
vvvv
[3765]-608 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 618
M.E. (Production)
MATERIAL TECHNOLOGY
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is dislocation? Explain its role in plastic deformation. [6]
b) Why solid solution is harder than the parent metal? Explain also, on
what factors hardening of solid solution depends. [6]
c) What is a perfect crystal? How strength of perfect crystal & real crystal
be compared? [4]
Q2) a) Explain ductile-brittle transition in steel. [5]
b) Explain Age hardening in detail with atleast 2 examples. [6]
c) Establish relationship between stress required to propagate a crack in a
brittle material & size of crack.
A relatively large plate of a glass is subjected to a tensile stress of 40
MPa. If the specific surface energy & modulus of elasticity for the
glass are 0.3 J/m
2
& 69 GPa respectively. Determine the maximum
length of a surface flow that is possible without fracture. [7]
P.T.O.
P1759
Q3) Answer the following : [16]
a) Explain what is Fracture Toughness.
b) What is Low Cycle Fatigue? Draw typical S-N curves for steel &
Aluminium. Explain the difference between these two curves if any.
c) Explain typical Fatigue fracture & various stages of fatigue process.
Q4) Write short notes on (any 4) : [16]
a) Problems of high temperature materials.
b) Strengthening due to Grain boundary.
c) Procedure for failure analysis.
d) Work hardening.
e) Super plasticity & Homologus temperature.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Which factors would you consider for material selection? [6]
b) What are shape memory alloys? Give 2 examples & 2 applications of
shape memory alloys. [5]
c) What are Dual phase steels? Why are they used for car bumpers? [5]
Q6) a) Discuss advantages & disadvantages of advanced ceramics if used in
automobile I.C. engine.
b) Explain any one method of processing of ceramics with its
application.
c) What is Metallic Glass? How it is produced?
d) Explain the various measures which you would take to avoid failure
due to corrosion. [16]
Q7) a) What is Maraging steel? Explain with typical composition, properties,
strengthening mechanism & applications. [6]
b) What are the problems of high temperature materials? Give 2 examples
of component which operate at high temperature & suitable material
for those components. [6]
c) What are cemented carbides? How they are produced? [4]
[3765]-618 2
Q8) a) Explain how Boron fibers are produced. With a suitable graph, explain,
how fibers orientation influence strength of fiber reinforced composite.
Also explain aspect ratio. [5]
b) Explain with suitable example [9]
i) Cladding.
ii) Bimetallics.
iii) Metal-matrix composite.
c) Boron fibers E
f
= 380 GPa are made into a unidirectional composite
with Aluminium matrix E
m
= 60 GPa. What is the modulus parallel to
the fibers for 10 & 60 vol.%. [4]
vvvv
[3765]-618 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 625
M.E. (Production)
OPTIMISATION TECHNIQUES
(Sem.- II) (2008 Course ) (511112) (Elective - IV)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any Three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1761
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain with neat sketch - objective function surface. [6]
b) Define the following terms (Any five): [10]
i) Mathematical programming problems.
ii) Trajectory optimisation problem.
iii) Behaviour constraint.
iv) Quadratic programming problem.
v) Posynomial.
vi) Geometric programming problem.
Q2) Write a computer program in the form of sub-routine to implement.
a) Fibonacci method. [8]
b) Golden section method. [8]
Q3) Write a computer program in the form of sub-routine to implement.
a) Newton - Raphson method. [8]
b) Secant method. [8]
P.T.O.
Q4) a) Explain graphically the basic idea of Powells method along with its
flow chart. [10]
b) Write a computer program to implement steepest descent method for
one dimensional search. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Discuss characteristics of a constrained problem. [6]
b) Discuss generalised reduced gradient method. [10]
Q6) a) Explain BALAs algorithm & explain why this method is called as Pseudo
dual simplex method. [9]
b) Discuss the method of solving an unconstrained GP problem using
differential calculus. [9]
Q7) a) Draw the flow chart for simulated annealing procedure. [8]
b) Write atleast 4 fundamental differences of GA with most traditional search
& optimisation methods. [8]
Q8) a) Represent design variables, objective function & constraints for GA
problems. [9]
b) What are difficulties with classical optimisation algorithms? [7]
EEE
[3765]-625 2
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-633
M.E. (Computer)
INTELLIGENT SYSTEM
(2008 Course) (510104 B)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1764
SECTION - I
Q1) a) With neat diagram explain goal based agent and compare with utility
based agent. [8]
b) Explain any 4 properties of task environment. [8]
Q2) a) What is problem formulation? State the 4 components which defines a
problem. [8]
b) Define an uninformed search strategy. Explain breadth first search strategy
in detail. [8]
Q3) a) What is the problem of repeated states? Explain general graph search
algorithm and state how it eliminates the repeated states. [8]
b) Define and explain CSP (Constraint Satisfaction Problem). How it can
be given an incremental formulation as a standard search problem? [8]
Q4) a) Define Heuristic search strategy. Discuss A* search algorithm in detail.
How it minimizes the total estimated solution cost? [10]
b) Explain the Hill climbing search algorithm. What are the problems
associated with it? [8]
Q5) a) What is planning? Explain how states, goals and actions are represented
w.r.t. planning. [8]
b) Compare and explain in brief forward state space search and backward
state-space search for planning. [8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-633 2
SECTION - II
Q6) a) With example explain how POP (Partial Order Planning) can be used for
solving a problem. [8]
b) Discuss Blocks World planning domain. Describe the actions and initial
state in STRIPS notation. [8]
Q7) a) What is HTN (Hierarchical Task Network) planning? Explain how to
modify POP to incorporate HTN planning. [10]
b) Illustrate the concept of action decomposition for the house building
problem. Write the action descriptions for the same. [8]
Q8) a) What is conditional planning? Compare between execution monitoring
and replanning agents. [8]
b) Discuss the job shop scheduling problem for assembling two cars with
resource constraints. [8]
Q9) a) Explain aggregation and coercion w.r.t. planning. [8]
b) Explain the various planning methods used for handling indeterminacy.[8]
Q10) a) With example explain Baysian network used for representing knowledge
in an uncertain domain. [8]
b) What is probabilistic inference system? Discuss one algorithm for
answering queries on Baysian network. [8]

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2

[3765]-634
M.E. (Computer Engineering)
INTERNET ROUTING DESIGN
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1765
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain Classful IP addressing scheme for the IPV4. Comment on the
Special IP addresses. [8]
b) For the network example presented in Figure 1.1, use Dijkstras algorithm
to compute the shortest paths from node 6 to the other nodes. [8]
Figure 1.1 A six-node network (the entry shown next to a link is the cost
of the link).
Q2) a) Explain k-shortest paths algorithm of routing. [8]
b) Differentiate between : [8]
i) Shortest path routing and widest path routing.
ii) Minimum hop routing and shortest path routing.
P.T.O.
[3765]-634 2
Q3) a) Consider a fully-connected N-router OSPF network. Suppose one of
the routers goes down. Estimate how many total link state messages
would be generated before the network converges. [8]
b) Identify issues faced in a distance vector routing protocol and suggest
the suitable solution to overcome these issues. [8]
Q4) Write short note on any THREE : [18]
a) LSAs in OSPF.
b) Border Gateway Protocol.
c) Policy based routing.
d) Network Algorithms.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What are the basic functions of a router? Explain any one router
architecture. [8]
b) Explain how the originating host 192.168.40.49 will send the packets to
the destination host 192.168.40.76 under following scenario [8]
i) Both the hosts are under same subnet.
ii) Both the hosts are under same network but not under same subnet.
Q6) a) Explain the working of the MPLS with suitable example. [8]
b) Explain different routing protocols for QoS routing. [8]
Q7) a) What is traffic engineering? How does the buffer size of a router impact
traffic engineering? [8]
b) Explain IP/MPLS traffic management by taking a 4-node example with
different link capacity. [8]
Q8) Write short note on any THREE : [18]
a) PNNI.
b) Voice Over MPLS.
c) IP Packet Classification Algorithms.
d) QoS Attributes of routing.

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2

[3765]-635
M.E. (Computer Engg.)
MOBILE COMPUTING
(2008 Course) (Theory) (510104 - D)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer three questions from section-I and three questions from section-II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1766
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the steps in the establishment of a Mobile Station (MS) to MS
call within the same Base Station Controller (BSC) area. Explain the
call set up drawing a suitable sequence diagram for signals and responses.
b) Define the functions performed within the following procedures :
i) IMSI Attach and IMSI Detach.
ii) Location update.
[16]
Q2) a) State the functions of the following categories of components in a GSM
system :
i) Base Station System (BSS) and
ii) Base Transceiver Station (BTS).
b) Show diagrammatically how several groups of omni-directional as well
as sectored BTSs may be tied into a common remote BSC via a
combination of star, chain and multi-drop configuration. [16]
Q3) Write short notes on the following : [18]
a) IMSI, MS-ISDN and TMSI.
b) Echo Canceller.
c) Time organization of Control Channels.
P.T.O.
[3765]-635 2
Q4) a) State the functions of an SMS Gateway.
b) Describe how a wireless PCI adopter is installed in a system (Either
Linux or Windows). [16]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) State the particulars of a mobile which are kept in the VLR database.
b) Which are the logical channels in GSM?
c) Narrate the distinction between the following service areas :
i) GSM.
ii) PLNM.
iii) MSC.
iv) LA and
v) CELLS. [16]
Q6) With reference to the Blue Tooth air interface, explain the functions of the
following : [16]
a) Pico Net - Masters and Slaves.
b) Synchronous connection oriented link and Asynchronous connection
less link.
c) Channel, device and enquiry access codes.
d) Connection establishment - enquiry and paging.
Q7) State what are the functions of the following : [18]
a) WAP protocol stack.
b) Nokia Internet Toolkit.
c) Access Router.
Q8) a) Define the spectral efficiency (modulation efficiency) of the GSM
system. Show that the spectral efficiency is independent of the total
bandwidth available to the systems.
b) Show that the relative spectral efficiency of system X with respect to
system Y decreases according to the increase in the square root of C / I
(Carrier to channel interference ratio) but directional proportional to
the reduction in channel bandwidth Bx. [16]
xxxx
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 647
M.E. (Comp.)
SOFTWARE PROJECT MANAGEMENT
(Elective - IV) (2008 Course ) (501112(A)) (Theory)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer Three questions from section I and Three questions from section II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1771
SECTION - I
Q1) a) State the characteristics of group reviews. How do the reviews differ
from testing? Are group reviews cost effective for defect detection? What
are the advantages of group reviews to an organization?
b) Describe the review process with emphasis on.
i) Planning.
ii) Overview and preparation.
iii) Group review meeting.
iv) Rework and follow up.
v) Roles and responsibilities.
vi) Guidelines for selection of work product for review.
vii) Data collection (logs).
viii) Monitoring and control.
ix) Review capability baseline.
[18]
Q2) a) State what is meant by risk in a project. What are the key elements of
risk? What are the activities in risk management? What is risk assessment.
b) State what is meant by risk prioritization and state its basic steps.
c) Give examples of top ten risks (any) in a software project and the
associated risk mitigation steps.
[16]
Q3) a) State what are the various types of company organization frameworks
and illustrate them with suitable diagrams.
P.T.O.
b) State the characteristics of each type of organization structure.
c) What are the advantages and disadvantages of the various types of
organization with respect to the work of a project manager or coordinator
in the respective organization.
[16]
Q4) a) State what is meant by requirements management life cycle.
b) What are the key deliverables at the various stages of requirement analysis.
[16]
SECTION - II
Q5) With respect to the activity table below draw the network diagram and answer
the following questions. [18]
Activity Estimate in weeks
Start - A 8
Start - B 2
A - C Dummy
B - C 4
A - F 5
C - F 6
C - E 7
E - End 5
F - End 7
a) What is the critical path?
b) What is the near critical path and what does knowing this information
about the project tell you?
c) If the duration activity Start B changes to 4, what is the effect on the
project?
Q6) a) State six primary quality characteristics and clarify their meaning.
b) What is the de-facto industry standard for measurement of quality?
c) How are the quality control activities planned and properly executed?
Describe the quantitative approach to quality management of software.
[16]
Q7) Write short notes on the following: [16]
a) Configuration Management.
b) Client management issues.
Q8) Assuming suitable data explain the deliverables of the requirements phase of a
software project. Answer should include the application of a suitable tool to
articulate the requirements. [16]
EEE
[3765]-647 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages :2
P1773
[3765] - 652
M.E. Computer (Computer Networks)
OPERATING SYSTEM DESIGN
(2008) (510308)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Assume suitable data if necessary.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the Five state process model and need of context switch. [8]
b) Explain the need of memory management. Define the terms logical and
physical address. How logical address is mapped to physical address
using paging. [8]
Q2) a) Explain the different classification of multiprocessor system. Discuss
different design issues involved in multiprocessor scheduling. [8]
b) Explain Preemptive and Non-Preemptive process migration. Explain the
steps involved in process migration. Discuss the desirable features of a
good Migration Mechanism. [10]
Q3) a) What are the different methods of Information sharing. Discuss the
different features of a good message passing system. [8]
b) What is need of Consistency model? Discuss the different types of
consistency models. [8]
Q4) a) What is the Principal of concurrency? Discuss different Degrees of
Awareness and its consequences for process interaction. [8]
b) Explain Message passing and Discuss the producer-consumer problem
for bounded buffer using messages. [8]
[3765]-652 2
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Discuss the different ways and issues for recovery from deadlock. [8]
b) What is WFG? Discuss the construction of WFG for distributed system
and centralized approach for deadlock detection. [10]
Q6) a) Discuss the different features for a good distributed file system. [8]
b) Discuss the different file models and file accessing models of Distributed
file system. [8]
Q7) a) Discuss the implementation of Access Matrix using the method
capabilities. [8]
b) Differentiate between passive and active attacks. Which of the two is
more harmful and why? [8]
Q8) a) What is Semaphore? Explain the APIs used in Unix to handle semaphore.
[8]
b) Write and discuss the pseudo code for Chat Application using pipes in
Unix. [8]
kbkb
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 653
M.E. (Computer Engineering)
ADVANCED SOFTWARE ENGINEERING
(Computer Networking)
(2008 Course) (510310) (Sem. - II)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is a prototype model? Under what circumstances it is beneficial
to construct a prototype model? Does the construction of a prototype
model always increase the overall cost of software development. [6]
b) Suppose a program for solving a problem costs C and a software for
solving that problem costs 9C. Where do you think this extra 8C cost
is spent? Suggest a possible breakdown of this extra cost. [6]
c) What are the advantages of using formal specification? [4]
Q2) a) Giving reasons for your answer, suggest an appropriate control model
for the following systems [6]
i) A set of software tools which are produced by different vendors
but must work together.
ii) A television controller which responds to signals from a remote
control unit.
P.T.O.
P1774
b) Justify the statement given below : [4]
A design approach based on information hiding lead to a design which
may be readily modified.
c) Draw state machine model and thread diagram for the following
system : [6]
The software which controls a compact disc player.
Q3) a) Explain component based software development and problems
associated with it. [8]
b) Explain why inheritance is a potentially error-prone construct? Why
its use should be minimized when developing critical systems in an
object-oriented language? [8]
Q4) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Distributed systems architecture.
b) Design patterns.
c) MVC framework for GUI design.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain why regression testing is necessary and how automated testing
tools can asist with this type of testing. [4]
b) Explain with suitable example the intermediate COCOMO model. [6]
c) Explain any one design metric. Why design metrics are, by themselves,
an inadequate method of predicting design quality? [6]
Q6) a) Explain fundamental characteristics of rapid software development
processes. Discuss problems associated with it. [6]
b) Explain how the principles underlying agile methods lead to the
accelerated development and deployment of software. [6]
c) Write short note on : [6]
Extreme Programming.
[3765]-653 2
Q7) a) What do you mean by process improvement? With the help of neat
labelled diagram explain the process improvement process. [8]
b) Explain the principal technical and non-technical factors which affect
maintenance. [8]
Q8) a) Explain clean room process with suitable diagram. [8]
b) Explain in detail risk management. [8]
vvvv
[3765]-653 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 657
M.E. (Computer Networks)
CONVERGENCE TECHNOLOGY
(Elective - IV) (2008 Course )
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any Three questions from each section.
2) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1776
SECTION - I
Q1) a) In D channel contention resolution it was stated that a station remains at
lower priority until all other terminals has had a chance to transmit. In the
standard (1.430) it is states that the value of the lower level of priority is
hanged back to the value of the higher level of priority when the TE
observe a string of 1 bit on the echo stream of length equal to the value
of the lower level of priority. Does this in fact guarantee that all other
terminals have had a chance to transmit? Explain contention resolution
algorithm also. [8]
b) What is a Technological Convergence? Explain media, messaging. Multi-
play & Fixed-Mobile convergence in details [8]
Q2) a) With reference to the Fig1. write down the values of SAPI, TEI, C/R.[8]
0 1 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1
Fig1: LAPD Address Field
With reference to the Fig2. write down the values of DLCI, SAPI, FECN,
BECN, DE.
1 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
1 0 0 0 0 1 0 1
Fig2: LAPF Address Field
b) Explain the relationship between CIR, Bc & Be. Also explain FR
Congestion Control-Techniques. [8]
P.T.O.
Q3) a) What is the need for different AALs in ATM? On what basis are the
different AALs categorised? Explain the different AALs in brief. [8]
b) What are the factors affecting the QoS Parameters in ATM? Derive the
formula
BT= ((MBS-1) / (1/SCR) - (1/PCR)) [8]
Q4) Write a short notes on (ANY THREE) [18]
a) Functions of Terminal Adaption.
b) Call establishment process using VCs & VPs in ATM.
c) Cell Delineation state diagram.
d) Difference between AAL1 & AAL2.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What is Circuit Emulation Services? What are its drawbacks? How are
these removed in DBCES? [8]
b) List five important Information Elements (IEs) used in ATM signalling
and explain the role they play. [8]
Q6) a) Why couldnt ATM signalling be extended to support AAL2 signalling?
What are the benefits of decoupling the two? [8]
b) Explain a call setup based on SIP signalling? [8]
Q7) a) Explain functional architecture of MEGACO/H.GCP. [8]
b) Explain various types of media gateways that are controlled by MGCP.
Also explain in brief the interconnection of MGCP with PSTN, H.323 &
SIP. [8]
Q8) Write a short notes on (ANY THREE) [18]
a) Benefits of IP Telephony.
b) Comparison H.323 vs. SIP.
c) CAC Algorithm for ATM Service Category.
d) ATM Signaling Protocol Stack.
EEE
[3765]-657 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 662
M.E. (Chemical)
PROCESS DESIGN AND SYNTHESIS
(2008 Course) (Elective - I)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss with neat diagram, the procedure for product design. [10]
b) What is green engineering? Explain with example. [8]
Q2) a) Discuss in detail, the various health and safety consideration involved
in chemical process design. [10]
b) Explain the life cycle of product. [6]
Q3) a) Explain how various commercial process design softwares are used
for new process design. [10]
b) Explain Grassroot design. [6]
Q4) Explain the following terms : [16]
a) Onion Model.
b) Hierarchy for chemical process design.
P.T.O.
P1777
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain with suitable example, types of reaction systems. [8]
b) Discuss the effect of temperature and pressure variation on selection of
ideal reactor. [8]
Q6) a) Discuss the procedure for deciding the attainable region for given
reaction system. [12]
b) Explain Heat Exchange Network. [4]
Q7) a) Explain the construction of residue curve maps. [8]
b) Discuss distillation sequencing using thermal coupling. [8]
Q8) Explain the following terms : [18]
a) Problem Table Algorithm.
b) Reactive Separation.
c) Heat & Power Integration.
vvvv
[3765]-662 2
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765] - 669
M.E. (Chemical)
PROCESS MODELING & SIMULATION
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is a process model? Discuss its applications. [8]
b) What are the fundamental laws used for formulation of a process model?
[8]
Q2) a) What are the various smoothing techniques? Explain spline
interpolation. [8]
b) Develop a mathematical model for a CSTR operated isothermally in
liquid phase with irreversible exothermic reaction.
A + B
k
C
Where k is rate constant. The reaction is first order with respect to
reactant A. Write all the assumptions made. [8]
P.T.O.
P1780
Q3) a) 3 CSTRs are connected in series. Reaction A + B
k
C+D is taking
place in each reactor. Each reactor is maintained at different temperatures
and rate constant in each reactor is k
1
, k
2
& k
3
. Volume of each reactor
is V
1
, V
2
, V
3
respectively. Reactant A is fed at a flow rate of F
o
&
concentration C
Ao
in 1
st
reactor. Derive a mathematical model for the
system with assumptions. [12]
b) Explain a process model for a two stage liquid-liquid extraction process.
[6]
Q4) a) Develop a model for an ideal binary mixture of components A & B to
be separated using distillation column. Write all assumptions. [12]
b) Explain basic types of experimental design. [4]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Derive a mathematical model for gas-liquid absorption column with
out chemical reaction. [8]
b) Develop a process model for two stage feedback evaporator system.
Give all assumptions. [8]
Q6) a) Explain least square method for linear regression. [4]
b) Fit the given data in a linear model and get the unknown values using
factorial design method. [12]
Y 20.5 60.0 59.0 68.1 79.0
x
1
1 1 1 1 0
x
2
1 1 1 1 0
[3765]-669 2
Q7) a) Define optimization and give its applications. [6]
b) Explain the terms : [4]
i) Stationery points.
ii) Convex function.
c) Minimise the function f(x) = x
3
6x 2 in the range 0 x 10 to
20% of x. [8]
Q8) a) Derive an equation for optimal pipe diameter for a fluid flowing with
velocity , density , viscosity and mass flow rate m. Write
assumptions. [8]
b) Derive the necessary & sufficient conditions for optimization. [8]
vvvv
[3765]-669 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-670
M.E. (Chemical)
ADVANCED TRANSPORT PHENOMENA
(2008 Course) (Sem. - II)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator and
steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1781
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Stating clearly all assumptions, derive equation of continuity in three
dimensional co-ordinate, for a flow of fluid through isothermal systems.
[9]
b) Discuss friction factor for packed column. [9]
Q2) a) Show that the velocity of a fluid at any point is a contravarient tensor of
rank, one. [8]
b) Show that [u [v w]] = v (u.w) w (u.v) [8]
Q3) Derive the equation for steady state laminar flow inside the annulus between
two concentric horizontal pipes. This type of flow occurs in concentric pipe
exchangers. [16]
Q4) Develop equations for the relationship of local pressure density to density
or temperature in the stream of ideal gas in which the momentum flux and
the heat flux q are negligible. [16]
P.T.O.
[3765]-670 2
SECTION - II
Q5) Develop expressions for the mole fraction profile x
A
(y) and the temperature
profile T (y) for the system shown in figure, given the mole fractions and
temperatures at both film boundries (y = 0 and y = ) . Here a hot condensable
vapour, A is diffusing at steady state through a stagnant film of
noncondensable gas, B to a cold surface at y = 0, where A condenses. Assume
ideal gas behavior and uniform pressure.
Assume the physical properties to be constant, evaluated at some mean
temperature and composition. Neglect radiative neat transfer. [16]
Q6) Determine the ratio
(t)
/ at = R|2 for water flowing at a steady rate in a
long smooth round tube under the following conditions :
R = tube radius = 3 in
0
= wall shear stress = 2.36 10
5
lbf inch
2
= density = 62.4 lbm f t
3
= kinematic viscosity = 1.1 10
5
f t
2
sec
1
[16]
Q7) Estimate the rate of heat loss by free convection from a unit length of a long
horizontal pipe, 6 in in outside diameter, if the outer surface temperature is
100
o
F and the surrounding air is at 1 atm and 80
o
F
Data : - The properties of air at 1 atm and a film temperature T
1
= 90
o
F
= 0.0190 Cp = 0.0460 lbm|ft.hr
= 0.0723 lbm|ft
3

p
C = 0.241 Btu|lbm.R
K = 0.0152 Btu|hr.ft.R
= 1 / T
f
= (1/550) R
1
g = 4.17 10
8
ft / hr
2
[16]
Q8) Write short note on : [18]
a) Macroscopic and Microscopic balance.
b) Boundry layer separation and formation of wakes.
c) Diffusion in laminar falling film.
xxxx
[3765]-670 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages :2
P1782
[3765] - 672
M.E. (Chemical)
CATALYSIS AND SURFACE PHENOMENON
(2008 Course) (Elective - III)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain volcano plots. [6]
b) Enlist the factors that govern the selection of support material for solid
catalysts. [6]
c) Write a note on dual functional catalysts. [6]
Q2) Explain in detail the following methods of catalyst characterisation : [16]
a) XRD method.
b) Mossbauar spectroscopy.
Q3) When nitrogen was employed to determine the surface area of a 0.5g sample
of silica gel, the following results were obtained.
Equilibrium 0.8 3.3 5.0 6.3 7.5 9.0 11.2 18.7 30.7
pressure P, kPa
Volume adsorbed 3.4 6.4 6.7 7.0 7.2 7.4 7.7 8.5 9.9
(STP) V10
6
(m
3
)
The sample of silica gel was maintained at the normal boiling point of liquid
nitrogen (77k). The area of plane surface which a single molecule of nitrogen
would occupy is 16.2 10
-20
m
2
. Calculate the specific surface area of silica
gel. [16]
[3765]-672 2
a) By linearising the Langmuir equation.
b) By the BET method.
Q4) a) Derive the equation for a rate of a chemical reaction when surface reaction
is the rate determining step and Eley-Rideal model is applicable. [10]
b) What are Bronsted and Lewis acids? [6]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the dynamic model of catalyst deactivation and derive the
necessary equations. [12]
b) Write a note on catalyst regeneration. [6]
Q6) a) As an industrial application discuss Fischer-Tropsch synthesis
incorporating reactions and surface mechanisms on catalysts. [10]
b) Write a note on effectiveness factor and Thiele modulus. [6]
Q7) a) Explain different types of poisons for catalysts. [8]
b) Explain Heat transfer and mass transfer in fluidized bed reactors. [8]
Q8) a) Derive an expression for the effectiveness factor of a spherical catalyst
pellet in which first order isothermal reaction occurs. [12]
b) Explain catalytic reforming. [4]
kbkb
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 676
M.E. (Chemical)
CATALYSIS AND SURFACE PHENOMENON
(2008 Course ) (Open Elective)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any Three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1784
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Derive equation for rate of a chemical reaction when langmuir-
Hinshelwood model is applicable and adsorption of reactant is the rate
controlling step. [10]
b) Write a note on BET isotherm. [6]
Q2) Explain the following methods of catalyst characterisation. [16]
a) XPS.
b) NMR.
c) FTIR.
Q3) a) Give stepwise procedure for determination of pore size distribution in a
porous catalyst. [10]
b) Write a note on dual function catalysts. [8]
Q4) a) Discuss the preparation of alumina and silica as catalyst supports and
compare them. [8]
b) Explain the volumetric method of surface area measurement. [8]
P.T.O.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain steady state model of catalyst deactivation. [8]
b) Write a note on various types of poisons. [8]
Q6) a) Explain catalyst regeneration and methods of regeneration. [8]
b) Derive the equation for effectiveness factor for isothermal first order chemical
reaction occurring within a rectangular slab of porous catalyst. [10]
Q7) a) Discuss the classification of heterogeneous catalysts based on structure.
[8]
b) Explain Bronsted and Lewis acids. [8]
Q8) a) Distinguish between intraphase and interphase transport processes in
solid porous catalyst and derive expression for generalized external non
isothermal interphase effectiveness in terms of Lewis number. [10]
b) Write a note on water-gas shift reaction. [6]
EEE
[3765]-676 2
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages :2
P1785
[3765] - 677
M.E. (Petroleum Engineering)
NUMERICAL METHODS AND SIMULATION IN
PETROLEUM ENGINEERING
(New Course 2008) (512101)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
2) Answer two questions from each section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Use of a non-programmable calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary and clearly state it.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) For the following system of equations, find x,y,z using SOR, LUD
decomposition and Gauss Jordon method. w=1.1
x+y+z=6
2x+3y+z=13
x-y+z=2 [25]
Q2) a) Solve the following system of equations by Newton Raphson method :
x
2
y+sin(x
2
y)=54
sin(x
2
y)+xy=cosy
b) Find the roots of the equation by Graeffe method :
x
3
+3x
2
+5x-4=0 [25]
Q3) Solve y'=xy+cos(x)+4, y(1)=2, using Heun, RK-4 and Adam Bashforth
predictor corrector method. [25]
[3765]-677 2
SECTION - II
Q4) Given a 1 D reservoir. Find the pressures in the interior of the reservoir, if the
pressures are at 50 psi for one well and 5000 psi at the other well, both at each
boundary. Length of the reservoir are 400 ft. Assume delx=100 ft. Pi=5000psi.
Solve by explicit, crank-nicolson and implicit method. Only set up the matrix
[25]
Q5) Find the finite difference approximations for the following : [25]
a) First derivative forward of order del x squared.
b) Second derivative backward of order del x squared.
c) Second derivative central of order del x squared.
Q6) Write a detailed Essay on Reservoir Simulation. [25]
kbkb
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 1
[3765]-682
M.E. (Petroleum Engineering)
OIL AND GAS FIELD DEVELOPMENT
Elective Ic: (New 2008 Course) (512104)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
2) Answer two questions from each section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Use of a non-programmable calculator is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data if necessary and clearly state it.
P1786
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain the various stages in the life of the reservoir? How do these affect
planning of the field? [25]
Q2) What field data is required for an oil field for development assuming one
exploratory well is drilled and it is dry? [25]
Q3) What core data is required for an oil field development assuming one well
is drilled where gas has been found? [25]
SECTION - II
Q4) What is EOR? Explain in brief any one method. At what stage is planning
done for this in Field development? [25]
Q5) Explain the special development of Offshore Marginal Oil fields. [25]
Q6) What is Reservoir Simulation? How can it influence Field Development?[25]
zzzz
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 1
[3765]-686
M.E. (Petroleum Engineering)
WELL TESTING AND ANALYSIS
(New Course 2008)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answers to the two sections must be written in separate answer books.
2) Answer two questions from each section.
3) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
4) Neat diagrams should be drawn wherever necessary.
5) Use of a non-programmable calculator, log-log, semi-log paper is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data if necessary and clearly state it.
P1787
SECTION - I
Q1) Derive the diffusivity equation in cartesian coordinate system. [25]
Q2) Write short notes on : [25]
a) Late time region.
b) After flow.
c) Derivative curves.
d) Middle time region.
e) Type curve matching.
Q3) Derive the Bessels solution to the diffusivity equation. [25]
SECTION - II
Q4) State the complete methodology in analysis of a Pressure Drawdown Test.[25]
Q5) State the complete methodology in analysis of horizontal wells. [25]
Q6) Explain Pressure Build up test for gas wells using pseudo pressure, pressure
squared and pressure analysis. Which is the best and why? [25]

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 4

[3765] - 697
M.E. CSE (IT)
APPLIED ALGORITHMS
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Question 1 is compulsory.
2) Answer any three questions from each section.
3) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
4) Neat diagrams must be drawn whenever necessary.
5) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) Youre consulting for a small computation-intensive investment company
and they have the following problem to solve: [18]
They are doing simulation in which they look at n consecutive days of a
given stock, at some point in the past. Lets number the days i = 1,2,....,n;
for each day i, they have a price p(i) per share for the stock on that day.
(Well assume for simplicity that the price was fixed during each day.)
Suppose during this time period, they wanted to buy 1000 shares on some
day and sell all these shares on some later day. They want to know: when
should they have bought and when should they have sold in order to have
made as much money as possible. (If there was no way to make money
during the n days, you should report this instead.)
For example, suppose n = 3, p(1) = 9, p(2) = 1, p(3) = 5. Then you should
return buy on 2, sell on 3 (buying on day 2 and selling on day 3 means
they would have made Rs. 4 for a share the maximum possible for that
period).
P.T.O.
P1789
Clearly, theres a simple algorithm that takes time O(n
2
) : try all possible
pairs of buy/sell days and see which makes them the most money. Your
investment friends were hoping for something a little better.
Show how to find the correct numbers i and j in time O(nlogn).
Q2) a) Suppose you are given a connected graph G, with edge costs that you
may assume are all distinct. G has n vertices and m edges. A particular
edge e of G is specified. Give an algorithm with running time O (m + n)
to decide whether e is contained in a minimum spanning tree of G.[8]
b) Let G be a directed graph with n vertices. Let length (u, v) be the
length of the edge (u, v). A path starting at a given vertex v
0
going
through every other vertex exactly once and finally returning to v
0
is
called as a tour. The length of the tour is the sum of the lengths of the
edges on the path defining the tour. We are concerned with finding a
tour of minimum length. A greedy way to construct such a tour is : Let
(P, v) represent the path so far constructed; it starts at v
0
and ends at v.
Initially P is empty and v = v
0
, if all vertices in G are on P, then include
the edge <v, v
0
> and stop; otherwise include an edge <v,w> of
minimum length among all edges from v to a vertex w not on P. Prove
whether this greedy method necessarily generates a minimum-length
tour. [8]
Q3) a) Define O (Big-Oh), Omega and Theta notations used to specify time
complexity. Using an example of [8]
f(n) = 16n
9
+ 22n
4
+ 42, specify the g(n) for the above notations along
with suitable constants.
What is the idea of tight bound?
b) Define P, NP, NP-C and NP-H. [8]
Show the relation between these classes of problems and give 2
examples of problems in each of these classes.
[3765]-697 2
Q4) a) Give a Brute Force solution to the TSP. What is the efficiency of the
algorithm. [8]
b) Give an approximation algorithm for solving the Vertex Cover problem
in polynomial time. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Solve the following linear program using SIMPLEX ALGORITHM
Maximize - 5x
1
3x
2
Subject to :
x
1
x
2
1
2x
1
+ x
2
2
x
1
, x
2
0 [10]
b) Write a linear program corresponding to find maximum flow in the
following fig. [8]
Q6) a) Write a algorithm for determining whether any two line segment in a
set of segments intersect and calculate its time complexity. Also prove
the correctness of algorithm. [10]
b) Describe and drew PRAM (Parallel Random Access M/C) Architecture.
[6]
[3765]-697 3
Q7) a) State and prove the Max-flow min-cut theorem. [8]
b) Give a brute-force method (which might require time proportional
to N
2
) for computing the Veronoi diagram. [8]
Q8) a) Prove that for any pair of vertices u & v and any capacity & flow
function c & f where
c
f
(u, v) + c
f
(v, u) = c(u, v) + c(v, u). [8]
b) Write Basic Ford-Fulkerson algorithm and what is the efficiency of
the algorithm. [8]
vvvv
[3765]-697 4
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 699
M.E. (Information Technology)
ADVANCED OPERATING SYSTEMS
(2008 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
3) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
4) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the factors influencing block size selection in a DSM system?
What are the advantages of using the page size as the block size in a
DSM system? [8]
b) What are the main causes of thrashing in a DSM system? What are the
commonly used methods to solve the thrashing problem in a DSM
system? [8]
Q2) a) Explain in detail the major issues in designing a distributed operating
system. [10]
b) Discuss the reasons why distributed computing systems are gaining
popularity. [8]
Q3) a) What is client server binding? Explain the handling of five different
issues involved in the client server binding process. [8]
b) Describe the three types of communication protocols used in RPCs.[8]
P.T.O.
P1790
Q4) a) Describe the Chandy-Misra-Haas algorithm for deadlock detection. State
the advantages of this algorithm. [8]
b) Prove that the existence of a cycle in a general resource allocation
graph is a necessary but not a sufficient condition for the existence of a
deadlock. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the different issues involved in designing a load sharing
algorithm. [8]
b) State the desirable features of a good global scheduling algorithm. [8]
Q6) a) Explain the desirable features of a good message passing system. [8]
b) What are the differences between replication and caching? What are
the advantages of replication of data in a distributed file system? [8]
Q7) a) How does the Gifford Quorum based protocol handle the network
partition problem and increase the availability of write operations at
the expense of read operations? [8]
b) Explain in brief the design goals of Amoeba. [8]
Q8) Write short notes (any three) : [18]
a) UNIX emulation in Mach.
b) Fault tolerance.
c) Process Migration.
d) LRPC.
vvvv
[3765]-699 2
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-703
M.E. (Information Technology)
INFORMATION ASSURANCE AND SECURITY
(2008 Course) (Elective - II) (514405A)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1791
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the DES design criteria. [8]
b) What is Counter mode (CTR)? Explain the advantages of CTR mode.[8]
Q2) a) Explain the requirements for public key cryptography. [8]
b) What metrics are useful for Profile Based Intrusion Detection? [8]
Q3) a) What are the different techniques used for distribution of public keys?[8]
b) Explain the RSA algorithm. List the disadvantages of RSA algorithm.[8]
Q4) a) What is a passive and active attack? Explain the different types of passive
and active attacks. [8]
b) How will you protect following services from attacks? [8]
i) NFS.
ii) Finger.
iii) FTP.
iv) Send mail.
Q5) a) What is a Digital Immune System? Explain. [8]
b) What is firewall? List the characteristics of a good firewall implementation.
What are the limitations of firewall? [10]
P.T.O.
[3765]-703 2
SECTION - II
Q6) a) What is IP security? Explain the application of IP security. [10]
b) Which are the system security levels defined in Orange Book? Which
are the primary requirements of B1 standard? [8]
Q7) a) Explain in brief following hackers tools : [8]
i) Port Scanners.
ii) Vulnerability Scanners.
iii) Rootkits.
iv) Sniffers.
b) Define Biometrics and distinguish between two broad categories of the
techniques. [8]
Q8) a) Comment on the differences between MD4 and MD5 specifically to
what extend do you think that MD5 is stronger than MD4 and why? [8]
b) Define Cyber-law terms. Integrate concepts of Cyber-law into everyday
business practices by reviewing Cyber-law Internet security issues. [8]
Q9) a) Draw and explain in brief field of IPSec ESP format. [8]
b) What is difference between warm and virus? Explain micro virus. List
three names of system threat and program threat. [8]
Q10) a) Draw and explain the architecture for distributed Intrusion Detection.[8]
b) How do you establish an e-mail and Web Surfing Policy? [8]

Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages :2

P1792
[3765] - 706
M.E. CSE (Information Technology)
NET- CENTRIC COMPUTING
(2008 Course ) (514426)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Attempt any Three questions from Section - I and Three questions from Section - II.
2) Answers to the both sections should be written in separate answer sheets.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data if necessary.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) How is the TCP/IP network stack used in the Internet different from
SPX/IPX network stack? [8]
b) Compare between distributed data networks and centralized data network.
How integrated network is formed with the help of distributed data
networks and centralized data network. [8]
Q2) a) A system has an n layer protocol hierarchy. Applications generate
messages of length M bytes. At each of the layers, an h byte header is
added. What fraction of network bandwidth is filled with headers? [8]
b) List the function and responsibilities of network administrator from
network performance point of view. [8]
Q3) a) List the data design parameters and explain the importance of each from
network design point of view. [8]
b) Explain the meaning of following terms with respect to queuing system.[8]
i) Arrival Process.
ii) Service Mechanisms.
iii) Queuing Characteristics.
iv) Measures of System Performance.
[3765]-706 2
Q4) a) What do you mean by the DSL? How it is different from the ADSL?
Explain the criteria for upstream and downstream in DSL lines. [8]
b) In Ethernet networks the length of network segment decreases when
DTR increases. Does minimum frame size remain same in this case?
Justify your answer with calculations. [10]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What are the advantages of having fixed cell size in ATM? How small
and fixed cell size affects the performance of the network? [8]
b) Give the control and address field frame format for LAPD protocol.
Explain the need of each field in it. [8]
Q6) a) Explain the Sharmas algorithm with suitable example for optimal network
design. [8]
b) Explain man-in-middle attack in Kerberos 4. What different parameters
to be considered while setting validity period for ticket granting ticket
and service granting ticket. [8]
Q7) a) Give the system architecture of VoIP. How quality of service is maintained
in VoIP? Is it the cheaper service in term of cost as compared to other
available services? [8]
b) Describe wavelet compression with suitable example. [8]
Q8) a) What is network attached storage? How does it provide better
performance? [10]
b) Compare between NFS and CIFS. [8]
kbkb
Total No. of Questions :8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-715
M.E. (IT) (CSE)
HIGH PERFORMANCE COMPUTER NETWORK
(514412) (Elective - IV) (2008 Course )
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1797
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain SRP protocol and authentication.
b) Explain the use of multiple servers and multiple queries in HPCN.
[16]
Q2) a) Draw and explain the architecture of broad band Network.
b) Elaborate the need and use of Gigabit ethernet with the help of architecture.
[16]
Q3) a) Explain how ATM can made compatible with IP cloud to convey the data.
b) Compare X.25, frame relay and ATM. [16]
Q4) Solve any three :
a) Protocol Architecture of ISDN N/W.
b) ATM service categories.
c) Compare circuit switching, packet switching and message switching.
d) B-ISDN. [18]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain DMT with block diagram.
b) How different DMT techniques will differ with one another, explain.
[16]
P.T.O.
[3765]-715 2
Q6) a) Explain DWDM in detail.
b) With the help of neat blocks, explain SONET architecture.
[16]
Q7) a) Explain the significance of mobile IP.
b) Explain CDMA in detail. [16]
Q8) Solve any three :
a) Fibre channel protocol architecture.
b) UMTS.
c) GSM.
d) Design issues in wired and wireless LAN. [18]
# # # #
Total No. of Questions :6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-716
M.E. (Information Technology)
SERVICE ORIENTED ARCHITECTURE
( Rev. 2008) (Elective - IV) (Sem. - II)
Time :3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Attempt all questions.
2) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
P1798
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Model the Airline reservation system with SOA. [10]
b) Explain concept of service in SOA. [8]
OR
a) Model the banking system with SOA. [10]
b) Describe misperceptions about SOA. [8]
Q2) a) What is the IBMs on demand operating environment. [8]
b) Explain SOA characteristics. [8]
OR
a) Describe SOA delivery strategies. [8]
b) Explain enterprise service BUS. [8]
Q3) a) What is business centric SOA and its advantages. [8]
b) Explain SOA life cycle. [8]
OR
a) Describe enterprise solution Assets. [8]
b) What are various non-functional requirements in SOA. [8]
P.T.O.
[3765]-716 2
SECTION - II
Q4) a) Describe application integration and enterprise integration. [10]
b) Explain service oriented design process. [8]
OR
a) Describe various tools available to implement SOA. [10]
b) What is the importance about SOA Governance. [8]
Q5) a) Explain SOA standards. [8]
b) Describe security arrangements in SOA solution. [8]
OR
a) What is service enablement. [8]
b) Explain SOA quality assurance. [8]
Q6) a) Explain operational management challenges. [8]
b) What do you understand by service level agreements. [8]
OR
a) What is the role of ESB in SOA Governance. [8]
b) What is an impact of changes to services. [8]
# # # #
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages :3
P1799
[3765] - 717
M.E. (Environmental Engg.)
APPLIED STATISTICS FOR ENVIRONMENTAL ENGINEERS
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks:100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator
and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P.T.O.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Discuss spearmans Rank correlation coefficient. [8]
b) The mean weight loss of n = 16 grinding balls after a certain length of
time in mill slurry is 3.42 grams with a standard deviation of 0.68 grams.
Construct a 99% confidence interval for the true mean weight loss of
such grinding balls under the stated condition. [8]
Q2) Show that
( )

+
+ +
+
=
2
2 1
2 1
2 1
2
2 2
2
1 1
2
2
1
x x
n n
n n
n n
n n

If n
1
& n
2
are the sizes,
1
x ,
2
x are the means, and
1
,
2
, the standard deviations
of the two series.
Where x x d x x d = = , , ,
2 2 1 1
and
2 1
2 2 1 1
n n
x n x n
x
+
+
= is the mean of
combined series. [18]
[3765]-717 2
Q3) a) Explain convexity of the frequency curve related to kurtosis. [8]
b) Discuss relation between moments about mean in terms of moments
about any point. [8]
Q4) An experiment was designed to study the performance of 4 different detergents
for cleaning fuel injectors. The following Cleanness readings were obtained
with specially designed equipment for 12 tanks of gas distributed over 3
different models of engines :
Engine 1 Engine 2 Engine3 Totals
Detergent A 45 43 51 139
Detergent B 47 46 52 145
Detergent C 48 50 55 153
Detergent D 42 37 49 128
Totals 182 176 207 565
Considering the detergents as treatments and the engines as a blocks, obtain
the appropriate analysis of variance table and test at the 0.01 level of significance
whether there are differences in the detergents or in the engines. [16]
SECTION - II
Q5) Explain purposive sampling, Random sampling, stratified sampling and
systematic sampling. [16]
Q6) The following are the average weekly losses of workerhours due to accidents
in a 10 industrial plants before and after a certain safety program was put into
operation.
Before : 45 73 46 124 33 57 83 34 26 17
After : 36 60 44 119 35 51 77 29 24 11
Use the 0.05 level of significance to test whether the safety programe is effective.
[16]
Q7) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Degeneracy in transportation problem.
b) The steppingstone Method.
c) Optimality Test.
Q8) a) What are the three basic steps in constructing a linear programming model.
[6]
b) Minimize : Z = 40 x
1
+ 36 x
2
Subject to x
1
< 8
x
2
< 10
5x
1
+ 3x
2

45
x
1

0, x
2

0
Use graphical method. [10]
kbkb
[3765]-717 3
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765] - 719
M.E. (Environmental Engineering)
ENVIRONMENTAL CHEMISTRY
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
SECTION - I
Q1) Explain the concept, scope and segments of environmental chemistry. Explain
the various terms associated with environmental chemistry. [16]
Q2) Discuss the following in detail : [16]
a) Chemistry of water.
b) Biosynthesis of DNA & RNA.
Q3) Give the classification of pesticides and focus on degradation, analysis and
pollution due to pesticides. [18]
Q4) Write short notes on : [16]
a) Chemistry of Hydrocarbons.
b) Soil chemistry.
P.T.O.
P1800
SECTION - II
Q5) Draw a neat sketch and explain the construction, principle and working of :
a) GLC.
b) Isotope dilution analysis. [16]
Q6) Define adsorption and explain the design steps for designing a adsorption
column. Discuss the various adsorption isotherms with neat diagrams and
write all necessary equations. [18]
Q7) Define the following terms and explain the method of determination of :[16]
a) Surface Tension.
b) Conductivity.
c) BOD.
d) COD.
Q8) Write short notes on : [16]
a) Green House Effect and Global warming.
b) Ion Exchange Chromatography.
vvvv
[3765]-719 2
1
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-71
M.E. (Mech.) (Design Engg.)
TRIBOLOGY
(2002 Revised Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Define Tribology With reference to 'Jost Report" give the importance
of Tribology in industry. [8]
b) What role does the apparent area of contact, real area of contact and
contact area play in field of Tribology? [8]
Q2) a) Classify and enumerate different minor and major types of wear. [8]
b) State the role of various factors affecting the wear. [8]
Q3) a) Considering two identical cylinders under the condition of plain strain,
show that
E
R P 4
2

= a in Hertzian contact. Clarify the terms E R and .

With help of sketch show the case of R as infinity, negative and positive
for above. [12]
b) State and explain classical laws of wear. [4]
Q4) a) Explain the mechanism of rolling friction. [6]
b) Derive the equation for coefficient of rolling resistance in case of cylinder
on plane. [10]
P1649
P.T.O.
2
[3765]-71 - 2 -
Q5) Write short notes on (any three): [18]
a) Auto correlation in surface texture measurement.
b) Theory of ploughing.
c) Junction growth.
d) Modified adhesion theory.
e) Lubrication Regimes.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) State the assumptions in deriving the Reynold's equation. [6]
b) Using the basic Reynold's equation derive Reynold's equation for gas
bearings. [10]
Q7) a) Explain phenomenon of squeeze film lubrication. [6]
b) State and explain any five practical examples of squeeze film
applications. [10]
Q8) a) Derive the equation for flow rate through rectangular slot. [8]
b) State advantages and limitations of hydrostatic bearings. Also state
applications of hydrostatic bearings. [8]
Q9) a) Explain phenomenon of elastohydrodynamic lubrication. [6]
b) Using Modified Reynold's equation for EHL derive Ertel-Grubin
equation. [10]
Q10)Write short notes on (any three): [18]
a) Rayleigh step bearing.
b) Basic requirements of gas bearings.
c) Assumptions in infinitely long and short bearings.
d) Energy losses in hydrodynamic journal bearings.
e) Lubrication in metal working.

SECTION - I
Q1) a) Plot the refractive-index profiles as a function of radial distance r a
for graded index fibers that have values of :
i) = 1 ii) = 2
iii) = 8 iv) = .
Assume that the fibers have a 25m core radius, n
1
= 1.48 and = 0.01.
What value of is the best choice for graded index fibers and state the
reason for it? [8]
b) Explain Polarization-Mode dispersion in detail. [8]
Q2) a) A GaAs optical source with a refractive index of 3.6 is coupled to a
silica fiber that has a refractive index of 1.48. If the fiber end and the
source are in close physical contact, then calculate:
i) Fresnels reflection at the interface &
ii) Power loss at the interface.
Suggest methods to reduce this interface loss. [8]
b) Explain the various lensing schemes with neat diagrams. [8]
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-100
M.E. (E & TC) (Instrumentation)
OPTICAL COMMUNICATION
(504102) (Old)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates :
1) Answer any three questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
P1652
P.T.O.
Q3) a) A single mode fiber has following specifications :
V = 2.40; n
1
= 1.47; n
2
= 1.465 & core diameter Za = 9 m.
Calculate the insertion losses of a fiber joint having a lateral offset of
1m. [8]
b) Explain : [8]
i) Chromatic dispersion penalty.
ii) PMD Penalty &
iii) Extinction ratio penalty.
Q4) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Modal noise in Laser diodes & Best policies to avoid it.
b) LED drive circuits.
c) Digital modulation techniques.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) An engineer decides to set up an optical link to work at a data rate of 20
Mb/s & a BER of 10
9
. He chooses the following components : [10]
Silicon pin photodiode : 42 dBm
(at 850 nm)
Ga A/As LED couples : 50 w average
Optical power into a fiber flylead with a 50 m core diameter.
Flylead loss : 1 dB
Connector loss : 1 dB
(at detector interface)
Assume suitable system margin and estimate the possible transmission
distance for a cable with attenuation of 3 dB/km.
Graphically represent the link-loss budget.
b) An EDFA is pumped at 980 nm with a 30 mw pump power. If the
gain at 1550 nm is 20 dB, calculate the
i) maximum input power &
ii) the maximum output power of the amplifier in dB.
[6]
[3765]-100 - 2 -
Q6) a) Explain the concept of photonic switching. [8]
b) Explain Angular Division Multiplexing. [8]
Q7) a) Explain the selection criteria for the key components in an optical
communication link. [8]
b) Explain Homodyne & Hetrodyne detection concept. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on : [18]
a) Synchronous transfer mode.
b) Optical networks.
c) Multiplexing techniques.
rrrr
[3765]-100 - 3 -
1
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-195
M.E. (Computer)
ADVANCED COMPUTER NETWORK
(2002 Course) (Theory)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer 3 questions from Section-I and 3 questions from Section-II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) Consider an M/G/1 queue.
a) State what is the average waiting time for such a system.
b) Assume a line speed of 56 kbps and utilization of 50%. The average
message length is 1400 bits. The message lengths are exponentially
distributed. For this system,
i) What is the arrival rate?
ii) What is the mean service time?
iii) What is the average waiting time?
[16]
Q2) J. Eiv and A. Lempel described a string matching algorithm which is referred
to as LZ 77.
Describe the working of this algorithm for compression of data using a
sequence of characters by way of example. [16]
Q3) a) Describe the various facilities and devices used to construct a network.
b) With respect network components, discuss the following characteristics:
i) Capacity. ii) Cost.
iii) Reliability. iv) Availability.
v) Compatibility.
[18]
P1675
P.T.O.
2
[3765]-195 - 2 -
Q4) a) State formally the problem addressed by Constrained MST algorithm.
b) Present a suitable implementation of the CMST algorithm.
[16]
SECTION - II
Q5) Write short notes on the following: [16]
a) Erlang_B function.
b) ESAU-William algorithm.
Q6) State the significance of the following issues a network designer must
consider: [18]
a) Justifying a network.
b) Scope.
c) Manageability.
d) Architecture.
e) Switching mode.
f) Placement and sizing.
g) Line topology
h) Routing.
Q7) Write short notes on the following: [16]
a) RAID.
b) Network Attached Storage.
c) Facsimile compression.
Q8) H.323 is the pioneering umbrella specification recommended by ITU-T for
implementing multimedia conferencing. [16]
a) What are the various H.323 Network Elements and their functions?
b) What is the H.323 protocol stack and protocol inter-working
architecture?
c) State and explain the various phases of call modes of H.323.

1
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-234
M.E. (Instrumentation & Control) (Process & Bio)
ADVANCED TECHNIQUES IN MODELING AND
OPTIMIZATION
(2002 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) All questions carry equal marks.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) Obtain the linearized model of the quadruple tank process shown in Fig. 1.
Assume suitable parameters/terms if required. [25]
Q2) After simulation or real experimentation of the quadruple tank process shown
in Fig.1, the different aspects of multivariable control systems can be studied.
Explain your own judgments/facts with respect to following points. [25]
a) The influence of the valve settings on the location of the process zeros.
b) Recognize when a process is easy or not to control.
c) The influence of the locations of the zeros on the system response for
different input directions.
d) Design and evaluation of decentralized control.
e) Design and evaluation of decoupling controllers.
f) The controllability and observability aspects of the system.
P1683
P.T.O.
Fig. 1
Where
A
i
cross-section of Tank.
a
i
cross-section of the outlet hole.
b
i
water level.
2
[3765]-234 - 2 -
Q3) Explain in details the steps used to solve a minimization problem (with
reference to any suitable method of minimization), and
Find the minimum value of w = 3x
1
+ 2x
2
Subject to the constraints
2x
1
+ x
2
6
x
1
+ x
2

4
Where x
1

0 and x
2

0. [25]
SECTION - II
Q4) Write short note on: [25]
a) Newton-Rapson method.
b) Runga-Kutta method.
c) Adom Bashforth method.
Q5) A steel company has two Mills. Mill 1 costs $70,000 per day to operate and
it can produce 400 tons of high-grade steel, 500 tons of medium-grade steel
and 450 tons of low-grade steel each day. Mill 2 costs $60,000 per day to
operate and it can produce 350 tons of high-grade steel, 600 tons of medium-
grade steel and 400 tons of low-grade steel each day. The company has
orders totaling 100,000 tons of high-grade steel, 150,000 tons of medium-
grade steel and 124,500 tons of low-grade steel. How many days should
the company run each mill to minimize its costs and still fill the orders?[25]
Q6) How to carry-out the modeling of the CSTH as shown in Fig. 2. What are
different fundamental laws required to model? Explain the different steps/
procedure involved in the modeling. [25]

Fig. 2
}
1
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-242
M.E. CSE (Information Technology)
ADVANCED INTERNET TECHNOLOGY
(Revised Course 2002) (510127)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from Section-I and 3 questions from Section-II.
2) Answers to the two sections must be written on separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is the difference between Trojan Hoarse and Spy? What are the
mechanisms to control Trojan Hoarse and Spy? [8]
b) Give block diagram of X.800 security model and explain the function
of each block in detail. [8]
Q2) a) What is the need of COMSEC and TRANSEC algorithms? How they
differ from each other? Give the time and space complexity of both the
algorithms. [8]
b) What is the purpose of S-boxes in DES? Explain the procedure for
key generation in DES algorithm. [8]
Q3) a) How efficiency of RSA algorithm lies in the power of exponentiation?
[8]
b) Prepare the document for security guidelines for the different
authentication policies that must be taken into account by the network
administrator. [8]
Q4) Write short notes on (Any 3): [18]
a) Multilevel Security
b) DDOS SYN Flood Attack
c) ICMP Overrun
d) Cyber Policy.
P1688
P.T.O.
2
[3765]-242 - 2 -
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Explain the 6-bit encoding in PEM. [8]
b) What are the proprieties a digital signature should have? In what order
should the signature function and the confidentiality function be applied
to a message, and why? [8]
Q6) a) What is the difference between firewall and IDS? Explain the basic
working of firewall and IDS. [8]
b) How virtual networks can be made more secured? [8]
Q7) a) List and explain the security weaknesses in SMTP and Telnet services
which are merely helpful to the hackers. Suggest a solution to secure
each one. [8]
b) What problem was Kerberos designed to address? How are the addressed
by Kerberos? [8]
Q8) Write short notes on (Any 3): [18]
a) Session Key Management
b) PKI.
c) Time Stamping.
d) NTP.

1
Total No. of Questions : 6] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-448
M.E. (Civil) (Hyd. Engg.)
IRRIGATION & DRAINAGE
(2008 Course) (501310)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any two questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) All questions carry equal marks.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Describe with the help of a sketch various forms of soil moisture.
Which of these soil moisture is mainly available for utilization by plants?
[6+2]
b) Find Field capacity of a soil from given data.
i) Water applied to the soil = 600 m
3
,
ii) Area of land irrigated = 1100 m
2
,
iii) Losses due to evaporation and deep percalation = 12%,
iv) Dry density of the soil = 1500 kg/m
3
,
v) Depth of root zone = 2 m,
vi) Existing water content = 7%. [8]
c) Explain the terms: [3+3+3]
i) Frequency of irrigation.
ii) Soil moisture tension.
iii) Kor watering.
Q2) a) Classify soils based on their soluble salt concentration and exchangable
sodium content. State the characteristics of these soils. Briefly explain
the methods to reclaim each of these class of soils. [4+4+4]
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[3765]-448 - 2 -
b) What is soil errosion? List the factors responsible for soil errosion.
How can we estimate soil errosion for its conservation planning? State
different ways to control the soil errosion. [2+3+4+4]
Q3) a) Draw a schematic sketch of drip irrigation system labelling all basic
parts. State design considerations of all parts of the system. [4+8]
b) What are the advantages of drip irrigation system as compared to
sprinkler irrigation system. [6]
c) Write a short note on consumptive use and its estimation. [7]
SECTION - II
Q4) a) (i) Draw a typical sketch of a Lift irrigation scheme indicating various
components in it. [5]
(ii) Specify design considerations for the following components of
Lift Irrigation scheme : Jack Well, Rising Well. [6]
b) Discuss the causes and effects of waterlogging of irrigated land. What
are the remedial measures to be undertaken to avoid waterlogging of
irrigated lands. [8]
c) Discuss the points you will consider while selecting the location of
intake well of Lift irrigation scheme? Specify the design criteria for
Intake Well and Jack Well pumps. [6]
Q5) a) (i) Derive an expression for spacing of a closed Irrigation Drains.[5]
(ii) Determine the location of closed tile drain below ground level for
the following data:
Root Zone Depth = 1.5 m.
Capillary rise in soil = 0.3 m.
Coefficient of permeability of Soil = 1.5 10
4
m/s.
Drainage capacity = 0.11 cumecs/km
2
.
Spacing of Drains = 200 m.
Depth of Impervious floor below ground = 10.0 m. [6]
b) What are the objectives of Command Area Development? How are
these achieved through Command Area Development programmes.[8]
c) Discuss Flexibility and Sensitivity as a parameter describing behaviour
of canal outlets. Derive the expression for the Flexibility and Sensitivity.
[6]
3
Q6) a) Discuss Sprinkler Irrigation System as a water conservation measure.[5]
b) Draw a typical sketch explaining various components of Sprinkler
Irrigation System. [5]
c) Design a Sprinkler Irrigation System for a field having '4' 'ha' area,
with 100 percent cropping intensity in Karif and Rabi and 50 percent
in Summer with 2 ha area each for Sorghum and Pearl millet crop in
Kharif, '2' ha each for Wheat and Sunflower in Rabi and '2' 'ha' of
groundnut in Summer. The peak water use rate was 5 mm/day for
Kharif, while 4 mm/day and 7 mm/day for Rabi and Summer
respectively. Soil type is Sandy loam having water holding capacity
of 190 mm/m and basic infiltration rate of 12 mm/hr. The effective
root zone depth is 50 cm and the management allowable deficit is 50
percent. Source of water is a well in one corner of the field having
electric supply availiability for 12 hr a day for 6 days a week. Assume
(i) Field irrigation efficiency of 80 percent.
(ii) Medium capacity heavy-duty sprinkler having twin nozzle of
5.0 2.5 mm size and of 0.44 lit/Sec with 12m 12m spacing,
11 mm/hr application rate. (Assume any other data required,
suitably). [15]

[3765]-448 - 3 -
1
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-487
M.E. (Mechanical - Heat Power)
INTERNAL COMBUSTION ENGINES - FUELS
(2008 Course) (502111)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain in detail how an S.I. engine is rated. What do you mean by
ON 90? [8]
b) Petrol cannot be used in diesel engines and diesel cannot be used in
Petrol engines, why? Explain. [10]
Q2) a) List the additives used for petrol to improve the antiknock properties
and explain how it helps in achieving this. [8]
b) List the various liquid and gaseous fuels that can be used in petrol and
diesel engines. What are their required qualities? [8]
Q3) a) What precautions are to be taken when hydrogen is to used as a fuel in
engines? Explain. [8]
b) Explain how biodiesel is produced from oils. What are its advantages?
[8]
Q4) a) Write in brief the developments taken in S.I. combustion chambers.
(Draw sketches). [8]
b) Explain the phenomenon of detonation in S.I. engines. What are factors
that control it? [8]
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[3765]-487 - 2 -
Q5) Write notes on: [18]
a) HUCR
b) Aviation Turbine Fuel.
c) Stages of Combustion in S.I. engines.
SECTION - II
Q6) a) Explain the various types combustion chambers used for C.I. engines
(with sketches). [8]
b) List the factors affecting delay period in C.I.engines. Explain. [8]
Q7) a) Differentiate between supercharging and turbocharging (with sketch).
[8]
b) Explain the various methods of generating Swirl in C.I. engine
combustion chambers. [8]
Q8) a) What are the limits of super charging for S.I. and C.I.engines? Explain.
[8]
b) List the various methods of turbocharging. Explain pulse (Buchi)
method of turbo charging. What are its merits and demerits? [8]
Q9) a) What are the various circuits in a modern carburettor? Explain with
neat sketch. [8]
b) With sketch explain the mixture requirements of a petrol driven vehicle.
[8]
Q10)Write notes on: [18]
a) CRDI for diesel engines.
b) Mixture requirement for C.I. engines.
c) Multi port fuel injection (MPFI) system.

1
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-488
M.E. (Mechanical) (Heat Power)
CRYOGENIC ENGINEERING
(2008 Course) (502111) (Elective - III) (Sem. - II)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables, Mollier charts, electronic pocket calculator is
allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain the working of Gifford McMahon Cryorefrigerator with neat
diagram. [8]
b) Explain in detail, what is meant by J-T effect and Inversion Curve.[8]
Q2) Draw a schematic diagram of Claude Cycle. Explain its operation using
T-s diagram. Develop expressions for yield, work and efficiency. What is
the condition of smallest work requirement per unit mass liquefied? [16]
Q3) a) Develop an expression for work requirement per unit mass for an ideal
liquefaction system. [8]
b) Determine the ideal work requirement for the liquefaction of nitrogen
beginning at 1 atm. and 300 K. The properties of nitrogen are as follows -
Properties of Nitrogen
Pressure (atm) Temperature Enthalpy Entropy
(K) (J/g) (J/g.K)
1.00 300 462 4.42
1.00 Sat. Liquid 29 0.42
[8]
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2
[3765]-488 - 2 -
Q4) Write short notes on (any Three): [18]
a) Collins Heat Exchanger.
b) Magnetic Cooling.
c) Thermal properties of solids at cryogenic temperatures.
d) Regenerators used in Cryogenic systems.
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Define high performance and low performance Cryogenic storage
vessels. Explain with neat sketch the basic storage vessel. Briefly explain
the inner and outer vessel design procedure. [8]
b) Write notes on (any two): [8]
i) Cryogenic valves.
ii) Cryogenic fluid transfer lines.
iii) Multilayer insulation.
Q6) Discuss in details the different types of instruments used for measurement
of - [16]
a) Strain
b) Liquid level
c) Flow
d) Temperatures in Cryogenic Environment.
Q7) Explain in detail any two of the following - [16]
a) Vapour shielded vessels.
b) Cryogenic compressors and expanders.
c) Diffusion Pumps.
Q8) Write notes on (any three): [18]
a) Superconducting devices.
b) Cryogenics in space technology.
c) Cryogenic applications in Medicine.
d) Dilution Refrigerator.

1
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-489
M.E. (Mechanical) (Heat Power)
NON-CONVENTIONAL POWER PLANTS
(2008 Course) (502111)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
6) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What is the potential of renewable energy sources in India? Which is
the most commonly used sources? [8]
b) What do you understand by CO
2
reduction potential of renewable
energy? Explain. [8]
Q2) a) List various ways by which solar energy can be used to generate power.
With sketch explain the working of any one type. [8]
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of Photovoltaic solar energy
conversion? [8]
Q3) a) Write down the steps to be followed in the design of a photovoltaic
system. Explain. [10]
b) List the various thermal energy storage methods and explain each one
of them. [8]
Q4) a) With neat sketch explain horizontal axis and vertical axis with machines.
Write down the problems in operating large wind power generators.[8]
b) A horizontal shaft propeller type wind turbine is located in area having
following wind characteristics. Speed of wind = 10 m/s at 1 atm. and
15
o
C. Calculate [8]
i) Air density
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[3765]-489 - 2 -
ii) Total power density in wind stream, W/m
2
iii) Maximum possible obtainable power density, W/m
2
.
iv) Actual obtainable power density, W/m
2
.
v) Total power from a wind turbine of 60 m diameter.
vi) Torque and axial thrust on the wind turbine operating at 40 rpm
and at maximum efficiency of 42%.
Q5) Write notes on:
a) Distributed power supply strategy. [4]
b) Energy wheeling and banking. [4]
c) Economic analysis of a solar thermal system. [8]
SECTION - II
Q6) a) List the various sources for production of biogas. Explain how to
accelerate gas generation. [8]
b) With the help of a neat sketch explain the working of a Hydrogen-
Oxygen fuel cell. Write the advantages and disadvantages of fuel cells.[8]
Q7) a) What are the main components of tidal power plants? Explain with
sketch working of a double basin operation. [8]
b) What are the advantages and disadvantages of Geothermal energy over
other energy forms. [8]
Q8) a) Explain financing mechanisms for non-conventional power plants.[8]
b) Potential of wind, tidal and biogas energy in India. [8]
Q9) a) Explain the working of a closed cycle OTEC power plant with a neat
sketch. [8]
b) Write in brief the environmental impacts of conventional power plants.
[8]
Q10)Write notes on: [18]
a) Clean Development Mechanisms (CDM).
b) Flash steam Geothermal power plant.

1
Total No. of Questions : 10] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-505
M.E. (Mechanical - Design Engineering)
COMPUTER AIDED ENGINEERING
(2008 Course) (502211) (Elective - III)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
6) Use of pocket non programmable electronic calculator is allowed.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain modeling and simulation as a design procedure. [8]
b) Enlist data exchange issue related to analysis and simulation. [8]
Q2) a) Enlist different features available in commercial modeling software's
and explain any one in detail. [8]
b) Explain procedure for modeling and simulation of assembly. [8]
Q3) a) Discuss advantages of feature based modeling over traditional solid
modeling techniques. [8]
b) Discuss the set of issues that need to be addressed during development
of conceptual model for simulation. [8]
Q4) a) Explain briefly different types of material model available in FEA
software's. [8]
b) Explain stress tensor, deviotric stress tensor and their invariant in contest
to von-misses stress. [8]
Q5) Write short notes on: [18]
a) Topology optimization in FEA Software.
b) Assembly modeling approaches.
c) Analytical techniques for structural systems.
P1730
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2
[3765]-505 - 2 -
SECTION - II
Q6) a) What is mesh refinement? Explain mesh refinement methods with
suitable example. [8]
b) Enlist different types of elements used in FEA and explain how to
decide element type. [8]
Q7) a) Explain some of the meshing rules to be followed during meshing.[8]
b) Classify 3D meshing techniques of FEA and explain any one in detail.
[8]
Q8) a) Explain general procedure for non linear static analysis. [8]
b) Difference between dynamic and static analysis. [8]
Q9) a) Explain finite volume method used in CFD and how it is different
from FEM. [8]
b) Explain different types of grids used in CFD. [8]
Q10)Write short notes on: [18]
a) Basic fluid motions in CFD.
b) Methods to improve quality of poor elements in FEA.
c) Types of analysis carried out in CAE.

1
Total No. of Questions : 9] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-507
M.E. (Mech.) (Design)
INDUSTRIAL TRIBOLOGY
(2008 Course) (Elective - IV)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from Section-I and 3 questions from Section-II.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Use of electronic pocket calculator is allowed.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Derive the expression for coefficient of friction using theory proposed
by Bowden and Tabor and compare it with expression obtained by
modified adhesion theory. [10]
b) Discuss characteristics of frictional vibration. [6]
Q2) a) State and discuss various factors affecting wear. [8]
b) Show that the total wear volume in abrasive wear is dependent on
normal load and hardness of material using the relationship for abrasive
wear equation. [8]
Q3) What is a short bearing? Write down the basic equation for pressure
distribution in case of a short bearing and deduce the load rating equation
in the form
( )
( ) [ ]
2
1
2 2 2
2
2 2
3
16 1
1 4
L . U .
+

=
c
W

.
Where W total load, U shaft surface speed,
viscosity, c radial clearance,
L bearing length (total axial) and

eccentricity ratio. [16]

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[3765]-507 - 2 -
Q4) State all the assumptions and drive the full - Reynolds equation. [16]
Q5) Write notes on: [18]
a) Bearing materials.
b) Electrical analogy method for journal bearings.
c) Stick-slip vibration resulting from frictional relaxation - its causes and
remedies.
SECTION - II
Q6) Using modified Reynold's equation for elasto-hydrodynamic lubrication
derive Ertel-Grubin equation. State the limitations of this equation. [16]
Q7) a) Explain Gas lubricated bearings and state advantages and disadvantages
of gas bearings. [8]
b) Why gas lubricated bearings are called aerodynamic or self acting
bearings? [8]
Q8) a) Distinguish between Squeez film lubrication and hydrodynamic
lubrication. Give their practical applications. [8]
b) A rectangular plate having length to width ratio of 0.25 is approaching
towards a fixed plane with an initial oil-film thickness between the
plate and plane as 0.05 mm. Load supported by plate is 12 kN for 4
seconds. The viscosity of oil is 35 cP.
Calculate :- [8]
i) Length and width for final oil-film thickness as 0.01 mm.
ii) Maximum pressure value.
Q9) Explain tribological aspects in case of:- [18]
a) Metal rolling.
b) Drawing operation.
c) Extrusion.

1
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 3
[3765]-674
M.E. (Chemical)
MATHEMATICAL METHODS IN CHEMICAL
ENGG.
(2008 Course) (Theory)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Use the Gauss Seidal method to obtain the solution of following system
of eq
n
s. Solve for two iterations. If true value of variables is x
1
= 3,
x
2
= -2.5 and x
3
= 7. Determine % error in the answers determined by
Gauss Seidal method.
3x
1
- 0.1x
2
- 0.2x
3
= 7.85
0.1x
1
+ 7x
2
- 0.3x
3
= -19.3
0.3x
1
- 0.2x
2
+ 10x
3
= 71.4 [12]
b) Use the multiple eq
n
Newton-Raphson method to determine roots of
following eq
n
s. Note that correct pair of roots is x = 2 and y = 3. Initiate
computations with guesses of x = 1.5 and y = 3.5.
x
2
+ xy - 10 = 0
y + 3xy
2
- 57 = 0 [6]
Q2) Solve following system of non homogenous differential eq
n
s by using eigen
values and eigen vectors. Where I
1
and I
2
are zero at t = 0.
I
1
'

= - 4I
1
+ 4I
2
+ 12
I
2
'

= - 1.6I
1
+ 1.2I
2
+ 4.8 [16]
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[3765]-674 - 2 -
Q3) Determine the type and stability of the critical point. [16]
a)
2 2
1 1
2y y
y y
=
=
b)
2 1 2
2 1 1
2 5
2
y y y
y y y
=
+ =
c)
2 1 2
2 1 1
2
2
y y y
y y y
+ =
+ =
d)
2 1 2
2 1 1
6 9
6
y y y
y y y
=
=
Q4) a) Determine eigen values and eigen vectors of the following matrix.

=
02 . 0 02 . 0
02 . 0 02 . 0
A
[4]
b) What various five types of critical points dependent on the geometrical
shape of trajectories near them. Explain each in brief. [6]
c) Write short note on qualitative methods used for nonlinear systems.[3]
d) Determine eigen values of the foll. matrix.

=
3 1
1 3
A
. [3]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) Use Liebmann method and laplacian difference eq
n
to solve for temp.
distribution of the heated plate shown in following figure. Employ
overrelaxation with a value of 1.5 for weighing factor. Do it for two
iterations.
100
o
C
(1, 3) (2, 3) (3, 3)
75
o
C (1, 2) (2, 2) (3, 2) 50
o
C
(1, 1) (2, 1) (3, 1)
0
o
C [12]
b) Write short note on derivative boundry conditions and fixed boundry
conditions. [4]
. . .
. . .
. . .
3
Q6) a) Use the explicit method to solve for temp. distribution of a long, thin
rod with length of 10 cm and foll. values
. 1 . 0 and cm 2 , / 49 . 0 s t x C cm s cal k
o
= = = At t = 0 the temp of the
rod is zero and boundry conditions fixed for all times at T(0) = 100
o
C
and T(10) = 50
o
C. Note that rod is of aluminium with
C = 0.2174 Cal/g
o
C and = 2.7 g/cm
3
.
Therefore k = 0.49 / 2.7 0.2174 = 0.835 cm
2
/s and
= (0.835 0.1) / (2)
2
= 0.020875.
Do it for 3 iterations. [12]
b) What are various properties of tensor? [4]
Q7) Derive one dimensional finite element eq
n
by method of weighed residuals
and by using Poisson's eq
n
given below
) (
2
2
x f
dx
T d
=
[16]
Q8) a) Write short note on singular perturbation and regular perturbation.[4]
b) Differentiate bet
n
(i) implicit method (ii) explicit method and Crank
Nicolson method. [6]
c) Differentiate bet
n
finite difference and finite element method. [4]
d) Give classification of linear, second order partial differential equation
in two variables with suitable examples. [4]

[3765]-674 - 3 -
1
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-713
M.E. CSE (IT)
INTERNET ROUTING DESIGN
(2008 Course) (Elective - IV)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate answer books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) What are the functions of Routing Protocols? List out the Routing
protocols and explain their execution places in Protocol layering
architecture with the help of labeled diagram. [8]
b) Explain Router architecture in terms of functional view with the help
of labeled diagram. [8]
Q2) a) List out the difference between: [8]
i) The Bellman-Ford and distance vector algorithm.
ii) The Shortest path routing and widest path routing algorithms.
b) Consider the network topology in Figure 1. Assume now that the
links have the following bandwidth: 1-2:1, 1-4:1, 2-3:2, 2-4:2, 3-4:1,
3-5:1, 3-6: 4-5:2, 4-6:3, 5-6:2. Determine the widest paths from node
6 to all the other nodes. [8]
Q3) a) List three differences between a distance vector protocol and a link
state protocol. How is split horizon with poisoned reverse different
from split horizon? [9]
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2
[3765]-713 - 2 -
b) Implement a distance vector protocol using socket programming where
the different "nodes" may be identified using port numbers. For this
implementation project, define your own protocol format and the fields
it must constitute. [9]
Q4) a) Explain the Interconnection of ISPs of different tiers: a representative
view. How session flows in the typical architecture, explain with well
labeled diagram? [8]
b) What are the basic functions of a router? Discuss the strengths and
weaknesses of various router architectures. [8]
SECTION - II
Q5) a) What are the main differences between classful addressing scheme and
CIDR? What is the maximum time allowed for a lookup in a router to
sustain a data rate of Gbps with an average packet size of 100 bytes?
Assume that the router requires 5 ns per packet for other operations in
the packet. [8]
b) Define The packet classification problem. A router performs a route
lookup followed by classification. If the route lookup operation takes
15 nanosec, how much time is available for packet classification to
sustain a data rate of 40 Gbps with an average packet size of 100
bytes? [8]
Q6) a) How is QoS routing different from best-effort routing? Explain
constrained shortest path routing and its variations when you consider
different attributes. [8]
b) How does bandwidth guarantee required by services affect the
performance it receives in a heterogeneous bandwidth environment?[8]
Q7) a) Discuss where and how MPLS-based IP/MPLS traffic engineering is
different from "pure" IP traffic engineering. [8]
b) Describe the IP-PSTN-IP call routing scenario, along with the different
protocol messaging involved in call routing setup. [8]
Q8) Write short notes on: any three. [18]
a) Network Management Architecture.
b) Policy based Routing.
c) Routing Protocols for QoS Routing.
d) VPN Traffic Engineering.

1
Total No. of Questions : 8] [Total No. of Pages : 2
[3765]-733
M.E. (Environmental Engineering)
WATER QUALITY MODELING
(2008 Course)
Time : 3 Hours] [Max. Marks : 100
Instructions to the candidates:
1) Answer any 3 questions from each section.
2) Answers to the two sections should be written in separate books.
3) Neat diagrams must be drawn wherever necessary.
4) Figures to the right indicate full marks.
5) Your answers will be valued as a whole.
6) Use of logarithmic tables slide rule, Mollier charts, electronic pocket
calculator and steam tables is allowed.
7) Assume suitable data, if necessary.
SECTION - I
Q1) a) Explain various steps involved in model building. [6]
b) State and explain curve number hydrology in water quality modeling.
[6]
c) Write the sources of water pollution. [6]
Q2) State and explain low frequency analysis by PPCC test. [16]
Q3) a) Explain point and non point source with suitable example. [8]
b) What are the limitations of mathematical model, explain with example.
[8]
Q4) a) Discuss Hierarchy of water resource scheme (WRS) model. [8]
b) What is model validation? [8]
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[3765]-733 - 2 -
SECTION - II
Q5) Formulate a mathematical model for transport of a constituent resulting
from the flow of the water in which the constituent is dissolved or suspended.
[18]
Q6) Assuming that second order kinetics apply (rc = -Kc
2
), compute the required
volume of complete - mix reactor to the volume of a plug-flow reactor to
achieve a 90 percent reduction in concentration (Co = 1, Ce = 0.1). [16]
Q7) A small community water supply agency furnishes water to 147 customers
from a well supply. Water records are kept showing the amount of water
pumped to the system. The agency recently installed meters for all customers
and total water sales records are also kept. The following data were obtained:
Month Production gal/mo Sales, gal/mo
May 1414100 1033600
June 1421000 1104300
July 1407600 1086300
Total 4242700 3224200
Average, gal/d 46116 35046
From the water supply data, determine the amount of water consumed (gal/
capita.d) and the amount of water that is unaccounted system loss (as a
percent of production). The average household size as determined by the
local planning agency is 2.43 persons per service. [16]
Q8) Explain modeling treatment process kinetics for [16]
a) Ideal plug - Flow reactor with reaction.
b) Nonideal plug flow reactor.