Faculty of Medicine Fourth Academic year exam in

Public Health Dept. Public Health & Community Medicine

May, 2015 Number of Questions: 60 Time Allowed: 60 minutes
The exam in 7 pages Total: 30 Marks All questions should be answered

End round exam

Give one best answer
1. Which of the following is NOT a fibrotic occupational lung disease:
a. Silicosis
b. Byssinosis
c. Asbestosis
d. Anthracosis
2. Causes of death in silicosis include
a. Cor-pulmonal
b. Tuberculosis
c. Lung cancer
d. All of the above
3. Anthracosis occurs due to exposure to
a. Anthrax bacilli
b. Coal dust
c. Asbestos fibers
d. Silica dust
4. Caisson’s disease is an occupational disease die to exposure to :
a. High temperature
b. High atmospheric pressure
c. Ionizing radiation
d. None of the above
5. The range of energy supply from carbohydrate in a balanced diet is:
a. 20 –30%.
b. 40-50%
c. 50 –60%.
d. 70 –80%.
6. Bagassosis is an occupational disease due to exposure to:
a. Cotton dust
b. Wool dust
c. Sugar cane dust
d. Coal dust.
7. Which of the following vitamins act as antioxidants :
a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin C.
c. Vitamin E
d. All of them.
1
8. High fiber diet is recommended in treatment of case of :
a. Diverticulosis
b. Irritable colon.
c. Constipation
d. All of the above
9. The most serious and handicapping complication of diabetes mellitus is:
a. Peripheral poly neuropathy
b. Repeated infections
c. Atherosclerosis
d. Diabetic foot
10. Which of the following cancers can be prevented by vaccination?
a. Lung cancer
b. Hepatocellular carcinoma
c. Breast cancer
d. Kapposi sarcoma
11. The most likely risk factor for Rheumatic fever is:
a. Upper respiratory viral infections
b. Repeated attacks of streptococcal throat infection
c. Tobacco smoking
d. Lowered immunity
12. The terminology of food poisoning refer to :
a) Poisoning by the toxins of the micro-organism.
b) Poisoning by the organism and or its toxins.
c) Poisoning by a chemical product,
d) Poisoning by a chemical or biological organism or its toxins.
13. Direct hand to mouth infection is rare to occur in:
a) Staphylococcal food poisoning
b) E-Coli infection.
c) Salmonella food poisoning
d) Poliomyelitis.
14. One of the following food borne micro-organisms has the shortest incubation period:
a) Cholera
b) Salmonella food poisoning
c) Typhoid fever
d) Viral hepatitis type A
15- The most effective and life saving control measure in acute infantile diarrhea is :
a) Chemotherapy
b) Rehydration solution
c) Antiparasitic therapy
d) Sanitary environment

2
16- The most difficult mode of transmission to prevent is:
a. Ingestion infection
b. Contact infection
c. Sexual transmission
d. Airborne infection.
17- The most common method of transmission of HIV infection in Egypt is:
a. Blood transfusion
b. Injecting drug use
c. Heterosexual relations
d. Infection in renal dialysis units.
18- The presence of excess number of cases of a specific disease in more than one country is
considered:
a. Pandemic
b. Epidemic
c. Epizootic
d. Outbreak
19- One of the following infections is NOT zoonotic disease
a. Brucellosis
b. Typhoid fever
c. Anthrax
d. Rabies
20- Disadvantages of chemoprophylaxis include:
a. Temporary protection
b. Highly expensive
c. Cannot be applied on large scale
d. All of the above
21. Epidemiology can be defined as the study of:
a. The frequency and causes of death in humans.
b. Organization and financing of health care.
c. The distribution and determinants of frequency of disease in humans.
d. The etiology of disease in humans.
22. The frequency of a disease per 1000 population exposed at a specific point of time is
referred to as:
a) Rate. b) Ratio. c) Incidence. d) Prevalence.

23. The general fertility rate refers to:

a) Number of live births per 1000 population.
b) Number of live births per 1000 female population.
c) Number of live births per 1000 female in the reproductive age group.
d) Number of live births per 1000 pregnancies.

3
24. The most accurate diagnostic tool for diagnosis of tuberculosis is:
a) Tuberculin test. b) Direct smear stained by Zeil Neelson stain.
c) X-ray picture d) None of the above
25. BCG vaccine is best given:
a) Intramuscular. b) Intradermal. c) Subcutaneous. d) Intravenous.

26. Outbreak of measles can be explained by:

a) Capability of the virus to attack the remaining susceptible not vaccinated
b) Capability of the virus to attack the immunized individuals.
c) Capability of the virus to attack the malnourished children.
d) None of the above
27. All are true about the clinical characteristic of German measles EXCEPT:
a) Enlargement of suboccipital and post auricular lymph nodes.
b) Rash may appear by the end of the first day.
c) Presence of Koplick’s spots.
d) Prodromal symptoms are usually mild
28. . The most frequent outcome of exposure to polio-virus is:
a) Unapparent infection without symptoms. b) Minor illness.
c) Non-paralytic poliomyelitis. d) Paralytic poliomyelitis.
29. Carriers of (HBV) is possibly diagnosed by positivity of :
a) HB surface Antigen b) HBe antibodies
c) Anti-HB core antibodies d) None of the above.
30. Which of the following is considered a risk factor for HCV infection:
a) Intravenous drug abusers. b) Repeated blood transfusions.
c) Renal dialysis patients. d) All of the above.
31. Food-poisoning caused by ingestion of canned food is due to:
a) Staph toxins. b) Salmonella contamination.
c) Clostridium boutelinium toxins. d) All of the above.

32. Which of the following statement is the most accurate definition of AIDS:
a. A syndrome characterized by opportunistic infection.
b. Proven HIV infection and the level of T-lymphocyte is below 200.
c. A syndrome characterized by prolonged fever, weight loss and chronic diarrhoea.
d. None of the above.
33. Which of the following diseases causes a curable ulcer mostly on the genitalia:
a. Syphilis
b. Herpes simplex type II
c. HIV/AIDS
d. Gonorrhea

4
 34. Which of the following cancers can be caused by an infectious agent;
a. Cancer head of pancreas
b. Kaposi sarcoma
c. Breast cancer
d. Lung cancer
35. The most common organisms used as indicator of faecal contamination of water is:
a) E coli. b) Faecal streptococci.
c) Clostridium. perfiringens. d) Shiegella group of organisms.
36. -The recommended dietary allowance for protein for healthy adults is:
a. 1 gm/kg/day.
b. 0.8 gm/kg/day.
c. 1.5 gm/kg/day.
37. Normal body mass index is:
a. 16-17
b. >20
c. >30
d. 18.5-24.9
38. The drug of choice used in primary prevention of rheumatic fever is:
a) Benzathine penicillin G. b) Erythromycin. c) Garamycin. d) Cidomycin.

39. Which is the most common site of nosocomial infection:

a) Surgical ward. b) Chest and Pediatric clinic. c) Blood bank.
d) Urological ward.
40. Among the strategies that can prevent breast cancer is:
a) The use of contraceptive pills. b) Encourage late first pregnancy.
c) Encourage breast feeding. d) Encourage hormonal replacement therapy.
41. The most important risk factor for most cancers is:
a) Marital status. b) Occupation. c) Age. d) Gender .
42. Perinatal period means the period:
a) From the 28th weeks of pregnancy plus 1 week after delivery.
b) 4 weeks before delivery plus 4 weeks after delivery.
c) From 30th weeks of pregnancy plus 4 weeks after delivery.
d) 4 weeks before delivery plus 2 days after delivery.
43. DOTS strategy for tuberculosis control include:
a. Screening of tuberculosis contacts.
b. Providing chemoprophylaxis for contacts
c. Directly observed treatment
d. None of the above
44. The neonatal mortality rate is :
a. Number of deaths among infants during the first week of life per 1000 live births
b. Number of deaths in the first 11 months of life per 1000 live births.
c. Number of deaths in the first month of life per 1000 live births.
d. Number of deaths from 28 weeks of gestation to end of first week per 1000 live births
5
 45. Major risk factors for coronary artery disease include all the following Except
a) Hypertension
b) Obesity.
c) Elevated level of low density lipoprotein.
d) Elevated level of High density lipoprotein.
46. The most important cause of post neonatal mortality is:
a. Infections
b. Congenital anomalies
c. Birth trauma
d. None of the above.
47. An example of secondary prevention is :
a) Treatment of diabetic nephropathy.
b) Vaccination against hepatitis B.
c) Detection and treatment of rheumatic fever.
d) Hormone replacement therapy at menopause.
48. The following sexually transmitted infection has a vaccine:
a- Human papilloma virus (genital warts)
b- Herpes simplex type II (genital herpes).
c- Candidiasis
d- Syphilis
49. One of the following is not used for prevention of Typhoid fever :
a- Seroprophylaxis
b- TAB vaccine
c- Proper waste and sewage disposal.
d- Food sanitation
50. One of the following occupations are not at risk to be infected with typhoid fever :
a- Workers in silica dust industries
b- Workers in sewage and waste disposal
c- Nurses
d- Laboratory workers
51. Out breaks of cholera may occur as a result of all those except:
a- A common source contamination as water.
b- Infected animal pets.
c- Index cholera cases that can disseminate infection
d- A drop in food, milk or water sanitation.
52. Cholera is characterized by only:
a- Bloody diarrhea
b- Minimal diarrhea
c- Rice water stool
d- Bulky loose stool

6
53. Typhoid vaccines are indicated for :
a- Infants in their first year of life.
b- Food handlers
c- Sewage workers
d- Both [b and c]
54. Typhoid fever is characterized by:
a- Stepwise fever
b- Chronic carriers
c- Relapses
d- All the previous
55. Tumors in the gastrointestinal tract can cause :
a- Acute diarrhea
b- Chronic diarrhea
c- Dysentery
d- Neither of the above
56. Botulism is manifested by:
a. Neurological manifestations
b. Systemic manifestations
c. Diarrhea and vomiting
d. None of the above
57. The most common type of accidents in geriatric age is:
a. Poisoning
b. Scalds by hot fluids
c. Falls that may lead to fractures
d. Road traffic accidents
58. Pregnancy is categorized as high risk if:
a. The age of the mother is above 35 years
b. The mother did not receive tetanus vaccines in any pregnancy
c. The mother had a handicapped child
d. The mother’s height is less than 150 cm and had body mass index of 32.5.
59. The mandatory vaccine(s) of all people going for Hajj include:
a. Seasonal Influenza vaccine
b. Meningococcal meningitis polysaccharide vaccine
c. Hepatitis B vaccine
d. All of the above
60. The most contagious type of plague than can be transmitted from person to person is:
a. Bubonic plague
b. Pneumonic plague
c. Septicemic plague
d. None of the above

Best wishes to you all

7