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PHYSICS
 PAPER - 1
Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) The specific heat of a gas

(A) is proportional to the square root of its absolute temperature
(B) has two values Cp and Cv
(C) has only one value
(D) can have any value between 0 and infinity

(ii) Two capillary tubes of radii 0.3 cm and 0.6 cm are dipped in the same liquid. The ratio of heights
through which the liquid will rise in the tubes is
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:4 (D) 4:1

(iii) Which of the following does not use the application of eddy current?
(A) Electric power meters (B) Induction furnace
(C) LED lights (D) Magnetic brakes in trains

(iv) If the frequency of the output voltage for a full wave rectifier is 100 Hz, then the frequency of the
input voltage is
(A) 50 Hz (B) 60 Hz (C) 100 Hz (D) 110 Hz

(v) A steam engine boiler is maintained at 250°C and water is converted into steam. This steam is used
to do work and heat is ejected to the surrounding air at temperature 300K. The maximum efficiency it
can have is
(A) 13% (B) 23% (C) 33% (D) 43%

(vi) At extreme position, the maximum value of acceleration is

(A) ωA (B) ωA (C) ω²A (D) ω²A

(vii) Which of the following statement is true for a series LCR circuit when inductive and capacitive
reactance’s are equal?
(A) The voltage and current are in phase. (B) The voltage leads current by 90°.
(C) The voltage lags current by 90°. (D) The voltage leads current by 180°.

(viii) The mag. field due to a current carrying circular Loop of radius 3 cm at a point on the axis at a
distance of 4 cm from the centre is 54µT what will be its value at the centre of the LOOP.
(A) 250µT (B) 150 µT (C) 125µT (D) 75µT

1
 (ix) A magnet makes 40 oscillations per minute at a place having magnetic field intensity of 0.1 x 10ˉ⁵
T. At another place, it takes 2.55 sec to complete one vibration. The value of earth’s horizontal at that
place is,
(A) 0.25 x 10ˉ⁶ T (B) 0.36 x 10ˉ⁶ T (C) 0.66 x 10ˉ⁶ T (D) 1.2 x 10ˉ⁶ T

(x) For an LED the n-region

(A) is heavily doped than the p-region of the p-n junction.
(B) is lightly doped than the p-region of the p-n junction
(C) is doped with the same concentration as that of the p-region of the p-n junction
(D) is very lightly doped than the p-region of the p-n junction

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) State the Pascal’s law.

(ii) How can one increase the sensitivity of a photodiode?

(iii) Define the thermometer.

(iv) On which factors does the wavelength of light emitted by a LED depend?

(v) What is the unit of mutual inductance?

(vi) The reverse current in a photodiode depends on which factor? Assume that the diode is illuminated.

(vii) Define the peak value of an alternating current?

(viii) Is the density of a nucleus different for different nuclei?

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Explain, on the basis of kinetic theory, how the pressure of gas changes if its volume is reduced at
constant temperature.

Q.4 A cyclic process ABCA is shown in V-T diagram figure.

It is performed with a constant mass of ideal gas. How will this transform to a p-V diagram?

Q.5 A parallel beam of green light of wavelength 546 nm passes through a slit of width 0.4 mm. The
intensity pattern of the transmitted light is seen on a screen which is 40 cm away. What is the distance
between the two first order minima?

Q.6 How much amount of work is done in forming a soap bubble of radius r?

2
Q.7 Magnetic field at a distance 2.4 cm from a long straight wire is 16 µT. What must be current through
the wire?

Q.8 On what factors does the internal resistance of a cell depend?

Q.9 For very high frequency AC supply, a capacitor behaves like a pure conductor. Why?

Q.10 What do you understand by the term wave-particle duality? Where does it apply?

Q.11 A 100Ω resistor is connected to a 220V, 50Hz supply

(i) What is the rms value current in the circuit?
(ii) What is the net power consumed over a full cycle?

Q.12 Write a short note on nuclear fusion taking place in the stars.

Q.13 An aircraft of wing span of 50 m flies horizontally in earth’s magnetic field of 6×10ˉ⁵ T at a speed
of 400 m/s. Calculate the emf generated between the tips of the wings of the aircraft.

Q.14 What are primary and secondary sources of light?

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Show that larger the value of radius of gyration, farther is the mass from the axis of rotation.

Q.16 A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen is enclosed in a rigid insulting cylinder. It is ignited by a spark.
The temperature and the pressure both increase considerably. Assume that the energy supplied by the
spark is negligible, what conclusions may be drawn by application of the first law of
thermodynamics?

Q.17 Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and series
combination of two capacitors C₁ and C₂ with their capacitances in the ratio 1:2, so that the energy
stored in these two cases becomes the same.

Q.18 A set of 8 tuning forks is arranged in a series of increasing order of frequencies. Each fork gives 4
beats per second with the next one and the frequency of last fork is twice that of the first. Calculate
the frequencies of the first and the last fork.

Q.19 Current of equal magnitude flows through two long parallel wires having separation of 1.35 cm. If
the force per unit length on each of the wires in 4.76 × 10ˉ² N, what must be I ?

Q.20 Obtain a relation between the wavelength and kinetic energy of a moving particle. Also show that the
wavelength of an electron moving through a potential difference of V volts is inversely proportional
to the square root of V?

Q.21 A capillary tube of radius 5 × 10ˉ⁴ m is immersed in a beaker filled with mercury. The mercury level
inside the tube is found to be 8 × 10ˉ³ m below the level of reservoir. Determine the angle of contact
between mercury and glass. Surface tension of mercury is 0.465 N/m and its density is 13.6 × 10³
kg/m³. (g = 9.8 m/s²)

Q.22 Derive an expression for the self-inductance of a toroid of circular cross-section of radius r and major
radius R. Calculate the self inductance (L) of toroid for major radius (R) = 15 cm, cross-section of
toroid having radius (r) =2.0 cm and the number of turns (n) =1200.

3
Q.23 Monochromatic electromagnetic radiation from a distant source passes through a slit. The diffraction
pattern is observed on a screen 2.50 m from the slit. If the width of the central maximum is 6.00 mm,
what is the slit width if the wavelength is (a) 500 nm (visible light); (b) 50 μ m (infrared radiation);
(c) 0.500 nm (X-rays)?

Q.24 State the postulates of Bohr’s atomic model.

Q.25 What are harmonics and overtones?

Q.26 A spherical shell of radius b with charge Q is expanded to a radius a. Find the work done by the
electrical forces in the process.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) Define or describe a Potentiometer.

(ii) A wooden block of mass m is kept on a piston that can perform vertical vibrations of adjustable
frequency and amplitude. During vibrations, we don’t want the block to leave the contact with the
piston. How much maximum frequency is possible if the amplitude of vibrations is restricted to 25
cm? In this case, how much is the energy per unit mass of the block? (g ≈ π² ≈ 10 m sˉ²)

Q.28 For a conical pendulum, show that the frequency of oscillation id inversely proportional to the square
root of the length of the pendulum.

Q.29 (i) A uniform disc and a hollow right circular cone have the same formula for their M.I., when rotating
about their central axes. Why is it so?

(ii) Calculate the ratio of mean square speeds of molecules of a gas at 30 K and 120 K.

Q.30 What do you understand by radiation? Explain in detail.

Q.31 (i) Derive an expression for the time period of angular oscillation bar magnet.

(ii) A galvanometer has a resistance of 100 Ω and its full scale deflection current is 100 µ A. What shunt
resistance should be added so that the ammeter can have a range of 0 to 10 mA ?

-------- All the Best --------

4
 PAPER 1
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (D)

(ii) Ans. (B)

(iii) Ans. (C)

(iv) Ans. (A)

(v) Ans. (D)

(vi) Ans. (C)

(vii) Ans. (A)

(viii) Ans. (A)

(ix) Ans. (B)

(x) Ans. (A)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. Pascal’s law states that the pressure applied at any point of an enclosed fluid at rest is transmitted
equally and undiminished to every point of the fluid and also on the walls of the container, provided
the effect of gravity is neglected.

5
 (ii) Ans. The sensitivity of the photodiode can be increased by minimizing the dark current.

(iii) Ans. The science of measuring temperatures is called Thermometry.

(iv) Ans. The wavelength of light emitted by LED depends on the proportions of semiconductor used in the
fabrication of the LED.

(v) Ans. The unit of mutual inductance is Henry.

(vi) Ans. The reverse current of a photodiode depends on the intensity of the incident light.

(vii) Ans. The peak value of an alternating current is the maximum value of the current in either direction.

(viii) Ans. The density of a nucleus does not depend on the atomic number of the nucleus and this is the
reason why the density of the nucleus is the same for all nuclei.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. i) For isothermal condition we have

PV = Constant
ii) Hence pressure of gas increases by the same factor
When volume is reduced.

Q.4 Ans. Straight line form A to B on the V-T diagram means

V ∞ T, i.e., 'p' is constant. V is constant and temperature decreases.
Along B - C i.e., p should also decrease.
Temperature is constant along CA. That means it is an isothermal process. The p-V curve would
look as shown in the Fig (b).

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans. A bubble has two surfaces in contact with air, so the total surface area of the bubble = 2 × (4πR²)
= 8πR²
Now, work done = Surface tension × Increase in surface area
= T × (8πR² − 0)
= 8πR²T

6
Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans. Internal resistance of a cell depends upon following factors:

1. Nature of electrolyte
2. Nature of electrodes
3. Distance between the electrodes
4. The area of electrodes dipping in the electrolyte.

Q.9 Ans.

Q.10 Ans. Electromagnetic wave shows phenomena which establishes both particle and wave nature. The
phenomena like interference and diffraction proves the wave nature whereas phenomena like
photoelectric effect shows particle nature
Mathematically
P = h/ƛ
The behavior of electromagnetic wave is called wave particle duality.
This is applicable in electromagnetic waves.

Q.11 Ans.

Q.12 Ans. 1. Nuclear fusion is taking place in the universe all the time.
2. It mostly takes place at the centres of stars where the temperatures are high enough for nuclear
reactions to take place.
3. There, light nuclei fuse into heavier nuclei generating energy in the process.
4. Nuclear fusion is in fact the source of energy for stars.
5. Most of the elements heavier than boron till iron, that we see around us today have been produced
through nuclear fusion inside stars.

Q.13 Ans. Wing span of air craft L = 50 m

Earth’s magnetic field B = 6 × 10 ˉ⁵ T
speed V = 400 m/s
Emf generated between the tips of the wings of the aircraft ε = BLV = 6 × 10ˉ⁵ × 50 × 400 = 1.2V

7
Q.14 Ans. Primary sources are sources that emit light of their own, because of
(i) their high temperature (examples: the Sun)
(ii) the effect of current being passed through them (examples: tube light)
(iii) chemical or nuclear reactions (examples: firecrackers). Light originates in these sources.
Secondary sources are those sources which do not produce light of their own but receive light from
some other source and either reflect or scatter it around. Example; the moon, the planets

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans. i. The moment of inertia of a body depends upon the mass of the object and how the mass is
distributed from or around the given axis of rotation.
ii. The calculation of moment of inertia is possible only for mathematically integrable geometrical
shapes.
iii. But, one can determine the moment of inertia of any object experimentally as well.
iv. If one is interested in knowing only the mass distribution around the axis of rotation, one can
express moment of inertia of the object as I = MK², where M is mass of that object.
v. It means that the mass of that object is effectively at a distance K from the given axis of rotation.
vi. In this case, K is defined as the radius of gyration of the object about the given axis of rotation.
vii. In other words, if K is radius of gyration for an object, as I = MK² is the moment of inertia of
that object.
viii. Form the relation it is clear that larger the value of K, farther is the mass from the axis.

Q.16 Ans. 1. Consider the mixture of hydrogen and oxygen to be a system.

2. As the system is insulated from surroundings, the process by which the temperature and pressure
increase is adiabatic.
3. For adiabatic change, Q = 0.
∴ From first law of thermodynamics,
ΔU = -W ……….(1)
4. From equation (1), it can be concluded that as temperature is increased, then ΔU is positive. This
implies, work done is negative.
5. Negative work done corresponds to compression of the gas. Hence, the system undergoes
adiabatic compression.

Q.17 Ans.

8
Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans.

Q.20 Ans.

9
Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans.

Q.23 Ans.

10
Q.24 Ans. 1. In a hydrogen atom, the electron revolves round the nucleus in a fixed circular orbit with constant
speed.
2. The radius of the orbit of an electron can only take certain fixed values such that the angular
momentum of the electron in these orbits is an integral multiple of h/2π, h being the Planck's
constant.
3. An electron can make a transition from onr of its orbits to another orbit having lower energy. In
doing so, it emits a photon of electron of energy equal to the difference in its energies in the two
orbits.

Q.25 Ans. A harmonic is any of the integral multiplication of the fundamental frequency. The fundamental
frequency f is called the first harmonic. 2f is known as the second harmonic, and so on.
Let's imagine two identical waves traveling in opposite direction. Let these waves meet each other.
The resulting wave obtained by superimposing one onto the other is called Standing wave.
For this system, fundamental frequency f is its property. At this frequency the two ends, which are
called nodes, do not oscillate. Whereas center of the system oscillates with maximum amplitude and
is called antinode.
An overtone is defined as any frequency produced by an instrument which is greater than the
fundamental frequency. These along with the fundamental are also called partials. Overtones can
take any value of the fundamental frequency. 1st overtone is called second harmonic and so on.
Those overtones which are integral multiple of fundamental frequency are harmonics as already
explained above.
In a resonant system such as a stringed instrument, plucking of string produces a number of
overtones along with the fundamental tone. These give the distinct sound of the instrument. If the
instruments produced only the harmonics and no overtones, all instruments will sound exactly the
same.
All harmonics are stationary waves. In case of overtones all overtones are not stationary waves. Only
those overtones which match the frequencies of the harmonics act as stationary waves.

Q.26 Ans. As the shell expands, the electrical charges move radially.
The electric field in this case is conservative, therefore total work done by field force is,

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) Ans. A Potentiometer is a device which is used for measuring potential difference between two points in
a circuit.
It is An ideal voltmeter which does not change the potential difference to be measured, should have
infinite resistance so that it does not draw any current. Practically, a voltmeter cannot be designed to
have an infinite resistance. Potentiometer is one such device which does not draw any current from
the circuit. It acts as an ideal voltmeter. It is used for accurate measurement of potential difference.

11
 (ii) Ans.

Q.28 Ans.

From the figure shown above it can be seen that the forces acting on the bob are
(i) its weight mg directed vertically downwards and
(ii) the force T₀ due to the tension in the string, directed along the string, towards the support A.
The resultant force must be horizontal and directed towards C because the motion of the bob is in a
horizontal circle. Therefore, all the vertical forces must cancel. Hence, we resolve the force T₀ due
to the tension.
If Ɵ is the angle made by the string with the vertical, at any position (semi-vertical angle of the cone),
the vertical component T₀ cos Ɵ balances the weight mg. The horizontal component T₀ sin Ɵ
become the resultant centripetal force.

12
Q.29 (i) Ans. 1. A uniform disc and a hollow right circular cone have same formula for their moment of inertia.
2. MI = mr²/2
3. This is because when a hollow right circular cone is cut along its slanting side and the metal is
stretched out, you will find that the surface of the cone will form a circle.
4. This shape is the same as the shape of a disc, which is also a circle. Hence they both have the same
formula for MI.

(ii) Ans.

Q.30 Ans. 1. ‘Radiation’ refers to one mode of transfer of heat.

2. The term ‘radiation’ also refers to continuous emission of energy from the surface of anybody
because of its thermal energy.
3. This emitted energy is termed as radiant energy and is in the form of electromagnetic waves.
4. Radiation is therefore the fastest mode of transfer of heat.
5. The process of transfer of heat by radiation does not require any material medium since
electromagnetic waves travel through vacuum.
6. Heat transfer by radiation is therefore possible through vacuum as well as through a material
medium transparent to this radiation.
7. Physical contact of the bodies that are exchanging heat is also not required.
8. When the radiation falls on a body that is not transparent to it, e.g., on the floor or on our hands, it
is absorbed and the body gets heated up.
9. The electromagnetic radiation emitted by the bodies, which are at higher temperature with respect
to the surroundings, is known as thermal radiation.

Q.31 (i) Ans.

(ii) Ans.

13
 PAPER - 2
Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) A wheel comprises of ring with three spokes as shown in the figure. The radius of ring is R and mass
M, the mass of each spoke is M. Which of the following option shows the moment of inertia about its
axis?

(ii) Observe the image and Answer.

The area under the curve represents the

(A) total energy emitted per unit area by the blackbody at all wavelengths
(B) total energy emitted per unit time by the blackbody at all wavelengths
(C) total energy emitted per unit volume by the blackbody at all wavelengths
(D) total energy emitted per unit time per unit area by the blackbody at all wavelengths

(iii) Potentiometer is preferred over a voltmeter for measuring emf of a cell because it is a
(A) null method device
(B) it does not measure P.D in open circuit
(C) it is high resistance instrument
(D) it draws less current

14
 (iv) In young’s doubles slit experiment the ratio of maximum and minimum intensity in the fringes is 9:1.
The ratio of amplitude of coherent sources is
(A) 1:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 3:1 (D) 9:1

(v) Electromagnetic induction is a phenomenon of converting

(A) Mechanical energy into heat energy (B) heat energy into Mechanical energy
(C) electrical energy into mechanical energy (D) Mechanical energy into electrical energy

(vi) From the results of the Geiger-Marsden’s experiment, Rutherford concluded that
(A) positively charged particle in the atom must be very small in size
(B) the entire negative charge of an atom is concentrated in the central nucleus capacitor
(C) the protons revolve around it in circular orbits
(D) The revolution of the protons was necessary

(vii) A charged particle is moving on circular path with velocity v in a uniform magnetic eld B, if the
velocity of the charged particle is doubled and strength of magnetic eld is halved, then radius
becomes
(A) 8 times (B) 4 times (C) 2 times (D) 16 times

(viii) Which of the following is NOT true for a full wave rectifier?
(A) A full wave rectifier uses two diodes.
(B) A full wave rectifier is more efficient than half wave rectifier.
(C) The current flows in the same direction for both the half cycles.
(D) Both the diodes conduct during positive and negative cycles.

(ix) In a series LCR AC circuit, the current is maximum when the impedance is equal to
(A) The reactance (B) The resistance (C) twice the reactance (D) twice the resistance

(x) The I-V characteristic of solar cell is drawn in the _____quadrant.

(A) first (B) second (C) third (D) fourth

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) The forces acting on a particle in vertical circular motion is shown in the figure given below. What is
the relation between the minimum velocities of the particle at point C and D?

(ii) What happens when a gas molecule in Brownian motion approaches another gas molecule?

(iii) What is wattles current?

(iv) Express the masses of the subatomic particles in eV/c².

15
 (v) What is a thermodynamic process?

(vi) Define Lorentz Force.

(vii) What is the path difference between the interfering waves for constructive interference?

(viii) The magnetic flux linked with a coil changes to 12 wb to 10 wb in 0.02 sec. calculate the emf
induced.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Derive an expression that relates angular momentum with the angular velocity of a rigid body.

Q.4 The difference between the two molar specific heats of a gas is 8000 J kgˉ¹ Kˉ¹. If the ratio of the two
specific heats is 1.65, calculate the two molar specific heats.

Q.5 A bar magnet of moment of inertia of 500 g cm₂ makes 10 oscillations per minute in a horizontal
plane. What is its magnetic moment, if the horizontal component of earth's magnetic field is 0.36
gauss?
Given: Moment of Inertia I = 500 g cm₂ Frequency n = 10 oscillation per minute = 10/60 oscillations
per second
Time period T = 6 sec
BH = 0.36 gauss

Q.6 Three charges -q, +Q and -q are placed at equal distance on straight line. If the potential energy of the
system of the three charges is zero, then what is the ratio of Q:q?

Q.7 A conducting loop of area 1 m² is placed normal to uniform magnetic field 3Wb/m². If the magnetic
field is uniformly reduced to 1 Wb/m² in a time of 0.5 s, calculate the induced emf produced in the
loop.

Q.8 Define linear simple harmonic motion.

Q.9 What are primary and secondary sources of light?

Q.10 Explain what do you understand by the de Broglie wavelength of an electron. Will an electron at rest
have an associated de Broglie wavelength? Justify your answer.

Q.11 The common-base DC current gain of a transistor is 0.967. If the emitter current is 10mA. What is
the value of base current.

Q.12 State the important conclusions drawn from the given graph.

16
Q.13 Find the distance between two successive nodes in a stationary wave on a string vibrating with
frequency 64 Hz. The velocity of progressive wave that resulted in the stationary wave is 48 m sˉ¹.

Q.14 Why is potentiometer preferred over a voltmeter for measuring emf?

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 What is a perfect blackbody ? How can it be realized in practice?

Q.16 Derive an expression for capillary rise for a liquid having a concave meniscus.

Q.17 The total work done in the cyclic process shown in the Fig. 4.19 is -1000 J. (a) What does the
negative sign mean? (b) What is the change in internal energy and the heat transferred during this
process. (c) What will happen when the direction of the cycle is changed?

Q.18

Q.19

Q.20 Show that larger the value of radius of gyration, farther is the mass from the axis of rotation.

Q.21 A Galvanometer has a resistance of 40 Ω and a current of 4 mA is needed for a full scale deflection .
What is the resistance and how is it to be connected to convert the galvanometer (a) into an ammeter
of 0.4 A range and (b) into a voltmeter of 0.5 V range?

Q.22 Why net magnetic dipole moment is opposite to the direction of applied external magnetic field in
case of diamagnetism?

Q.23 Consider a uniformly wound solenoid having N turns and length L. The core of the solenoid is air.
Find the inductance of the solenoid of N=200, L=20 cm and cross-sectional area, A= 5 cm². Calculate
the induced emf eL, if the current flowing through the solenoid decreases at a rate of 60 A/s.

Q.24 What do you mean by polarization of light?

How will you distinguish between polarized and non-polarized light?

Q.25 Obtain a relation between the wavelength and kinetic energy of a moving particle. Also show that the
wavelength of an electron moving through a potential difference of V volts is inversely proportional
to the square root of V?

Q.26 Explain the thermodynamic state variables and equation of state in detail.

17
 Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) Draw a neat labelled diagram of construction of cyclotron.

(ii) Calculate the value of capacity in picofarad, which will make 101.4 micro henry inductance to
oscillate with frequency of one megahertz.

Q.28 Derive an expression for equation of stationary wave on a stretched string.

Q.29 (i) A string is fixed at the two ends and is vibrating in its fundamental mode. It is known that the two
ends will be at rest. Apart from these, is there any position on the string which can be touched so as
not to disturb the motion of the string? What will be the answer to this question if the string is
vibrating in its first and second overtones?

(ii) A rectangular wire frame of size 2 cm × 2 cm, is dipped in a soap solution and taken out. A soap film
is formed, if the size of the film is changed to 3 cm × 3 cm, calculate the work done in the process.
The surface tension of soap film is 3 × 10ˉ² N/m.

Q.30 Surface tension is also equal to the surface energy per unit area. Mathematically prove this.

Q.31 (i) A capacitor has some dielectric between its plates and the capacitor is connected to a DC source. The
battery is now disconnected and then the dielectric is removed. State whether the capacitance, the
energy stored in it, the electric field, charge stored and voltage will increase, decrease or remain
constant.

(ii) Calculate the value of magnetic field at a distance of 2 cm from a very long straight wire carrying a
current of 5 A (Given: µ₀ = 4π × 10ˉ7 Wb/Am).

-------- All the Best --------

18
 PAPER 2
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (B)

(ii) Ans. (D)

(iii) Ans. (A)

(iv) Ans. (B)

(v) Ans. (D)

(vi) Ans. (A)

(vii) Ans. (B)

(viii) Ans. (D)

(ix) Ans. (D)

(x) Ans. (D)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. The minimum velocities of the particle at point C and D are equal.

(ii) Ans. -When a molecule approaches another molecule, there is a repulsive force between them, due to
which the molecules behave as small hard spherical particles.
-This leads to elastic collisions between the molecules. Therefore, both the speed and the direction of
motion of the molecules change abruptly.

(iii) Ans. Current through pure inductor or ideal capacitor which consumes no power for its maintenances, in
the circuit is called idle current or wattless current.

19
 (iv) Ans. The masses of the three particles in this unit are:
i. me = 0.511 MeV/c²
ii. mp = 938.28 MeV/c²
iii. mn = 939.57 MeV/c²

(v) Ans. A process in which the thermodynamic state of a system is changed is known as a thermodynamic
process.

(vi) Ans. It is the total force acting on a charged particle moving in the combined effect of electric and
magnetic fields. It is given by

(vii) Ans. Path difference between two waves undergoing constructive interference is nλ. Λ is the wave length
of the interfering waves.

(viii) Ans.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. 1. For a rigid body, the angular momentum (L) is the product of the moment of inertia and the
angular velocity: L = Iω.
2. For a point of mass, angular momentum can be expressed as the product of linear momentum and
the radius (r): L = mvr

Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans.

20
Q.6 Ans.

Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans. The simple harmonic motion in which every particle of the oscillating body moves to and fro, about
its mean position, along a straight line, the motion is called linear simple harmonic motion.

Q.9 Ans. Primary sources are sources that emit light of their own, because of
(i) their high temperature (examples: the Sun)
(ii) the effect of current being passed through them (examples: tube light)
(iii) chemical or nuclear reactions (examples: firecrackers). Light originates in these sources.
Secondary sources are those sources which do not produce light of their own but receive light from
some other source and either reflect or scatter it around. Example; the moon, the planets

Q.10 Ans. De Broglie proposed the theory of matter wave

P = h/ƛ
Where ƛ denotes matter wavelength
For electrons

21
Q.11 Ans.

Q.12 Ans. The important conclusions drawn from the given graph are:
1. Deuterium nucleus has the minimum value of E /A and is therefore, the least stable nucleus.
2. The value of EB/A increases with increase in atomic number and reaches a plateau for A between
50 to 80. Thus, the nuclei of these elements are the most stable among all the species.
3. The peak occurs around A = 56 corresponding to iron, which is thus one of the most stable nuclei.
The value of EB/A decreases gradually for values of A greater than 80, making the nuclei of those
elements slightly less stable.
4. The binding energy of hydrogen nucleus having a single proton is zero.

Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans. i) Potentiometer is more sensitive than a voltmeter.

ii) A potentiometer can be used to measure a potential difference as well as an emf of a cell. A
voltmeter always measures terminal potential difference, and as it draws some current, it cannot be
used to measure an emf of a cell.
iii) Measurement of potential difference or emf is very accurate in the case of a potentiometer. A
very small potential difference of the order 10ˉ⁶ volt can be measured with it. Least count of a
potentiometer is much better compared to that of a voltmeter.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

22
Q.15 Ans. i) A body, which absorbs the entire radiant energy incident on it, is called an ideal or perfect
blackbody. Thus, for a perfect blackbody, coefficient of absorption, a = 1.
ii) Ferry’s blackbody is an example in which a perfect blackbody is realized in practice.
iii) It consists of a double walled hollow sphere having tiny hole or aperture, through which radiant
heat can enter (refer figure shown below).
iv) The space between the walls is evacuated and outer surface of the sphere is silvered. The inner
surface of sphere is coated with lamp- black.
v) There is a conical projection on the inner surface of sphere opposite the aperture. The projection
ensures that a ray travelling along the axis of the aperture is not incident normally on the surface and
is therefore not reflected back along the same path.
vi) Radiation entering through the small hole has negligible chance of escaping back through the
small hole. A heat ray entering the sphere through the aperture suffers multiple reflections and is
almost completely absorbed inside. Thus, the aperture behaves like a perfect blackbody.

Q.16 Ans.

(v) The above equation gives the expression for capillary rise (or fall) for a liquid.
(vi) Narrower the tube, the greater is the height to which the liquid rises (or falls).
(vii) If the capillary tube is held vertical in a liquid that has a convex meniscus,
then the angle of contact Ɵ is obtuse.
(viii) Therefore, cos Ɵ is negative and so is h.
(ix) This means that the liquid will suffer capillary fall or depression.

23
Q.17 Ans. (a) Work done in the process from A to B along path 2 is given by the area under this curve. In this
process, volume is increasing therefore the work done is positive.
Work done in the process from B to A along path 1 is given by the area under this curve. In this
process volume is decreasing therefore the work done is negative.
The total work done during the complete cycle, from A to B along path 2 and form B to A along path
1 is the area enclosed by the closed loop. This is the difference between the area under the curve 1
and that under the curve 2. Since the area under curve 1 is negative and larger than the area under the
curve 2, the area of the loop is also negative. That means the work is done by the system is negative.
(b) This is a cyclic process which means the initial and the final state of the system is the same. For a
cyclic process ΔU = 0, so Q = W = - 1000 J. That is,
1000 joules of heat must be rejected by the system.
(c) If the direction of the cycle is changed the work done will be positive. The system will do work.
Form this example we conclude that: The total work done in a cyclic process is positive if the
process is goes around the cycle in a clockwise direction. The total work done in a cyclic process is
negative if the process goes around the cycle in a counter clockwise direction.

Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans.

24
Q.20 Ans. i. The moment of inertia of a body depends upon the mass of the object and how the mass is
distributed from or around the given axis of rotation.
ii. The calculation of moment of inertia is possible only for mathematically integrable geometrical
shapes.
iii. But, one can determine the moment of inertia of any object experimentally as well.
iv. If one is interested in knowing only the mass distribution around the axis of rotation, one can
express moment of inertia of the object as I = MK², where M is mass of that object.
v. It means that the mass of that object is effectively at a distance K from the given axis of rotation.
vi. In this case, K is defined as the radius of gyration of the object about the given axis of rotation.
vii. In other words, if K is radius of gyration for an object, as I = MK² is the moment of inertia of
that object.
viii. Form the relation it is clear that larger the value of K, farther is the mass from the axis.

Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans. (i) When the orbiting electron or current loop is brought in external magnetic field, the field induces
a current as per Lenz law.
(ii) The direction of induced current Ii is such that the direction of magnetic field created by the
current is opposite to the direction of the external magnetic field.
(iii) Out of the pair of orbits, for one loop where the direction of induced current is the same as that
of loop current will find increase in current I, resulting in increase of magnetic dipole moment.
(iv) For the current loop where the direction of induced current is opposite to the direction of loop
current, the net current is reduced, effectively reducing the magnetic dipole moment.
(v) This results in net magnetic dipole moment opposite to the direction of applied external magnetic
field.

25
Q.23 Ans.

Q.24 Ans. 1. Polarization of light:

The phenomenon of restriction of the vibrations of light waves in a particular plane perpendicular to
the direction of wave motion is called polarization of light waves.
2. Unpolarised light:
A light in which electric vibrations are in all possible directions (in all planes), which are
perpendicular to the directions of propagation, is called as unpolarised light
(a) Intensity of unpolarised light transmitted by
Polaroid cannot change when Polaroid is rotated about its axis.
(b) An unpolarised light is represented by both dots and arrows as shown in figure. Doubled head
arrows shows the vibrations in the plane of the figure and dots represent vibration of electric vector
perpendicular to the plane of the figure.

26
Q.25 Ans.

Q.26 Ans. Every equilibrium state of a thermodynamic system is completely described by specific values of
some macroscopic variables, also called state variables.
For example, an equilibrium state of a gas is completely described by the values of its pressure p,
volume V, temperature T, and mass m.
Consider a mixture of gases or vapours as in case of the fuel in an automobile engine. Its state can be
described by the state variables but we also need its composition to describe its state.
A thermodynamic system is not always in equilibrium.
1. In simple words, thermodynamic state variables describe the equilibrium states of a system.
2. The various state variables are not always independent.
3. They can be mathematically related.
4. The mathematical relation between the state variables is called the equation of state.
5. For example, for an ideal gas, the equation of state is the ideal gas equation,
pV = nRT --- (i)
Where, p, V and T are the pressure, the volume and the temperature of the gas, n is the number of
moles of the gas and R is the gas constant.
6. For a fixed amount of the gas, i.e., for given n, there are thus, only two independent variables. It
could be p and V, or p and T, or V and T.

27
 7. The graphical representation of equation of state of a system (of a gas) is called the p - V diagram,
or the p - V curve (the pressure-volume curve), or the indicator diagram of the system.
8. Figure 4.10 shows a typical p-V diagram for an ideal gas at some constant temperature. The
pressure-volume curve for a constant temperature is called an isotherm.
9. Real gases may have more complicated equations of state and therefore, a complicated p-V
diagram. (The Van-der–Wall’s equation with various corrections for example, is complicated for a
real gas and is equally interesting).
10. The equation of state of a system (usually a gas confined to a cylinder with a movable,
frictionless and massless piston) and its p - V diagram are very useful in studying its behavior.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) Ans.

(ii) Ans.

28
Q.28 Ans.

It is a periodic function of x i.e., the amplitude is varying periodically in space. The amplitudes are
different for different particles but each point on the string oscillates with the same frequency (same
as that of the individual progressive wave). All the particles of the string pass through their mean
positions simultaneously twice during each vibration. The string as a whole is vibrating with
frequency with different amplitudes at different points. The wave is not moving either to the left or to
the right. We therefore call such a wave a stationary wave or a standing wave. Particles move so fast
that the visual effect is formation of loops.
It is therefore customary to represent stationary waves as loops. In case of a string tied at both the
ends, loops are seen when a stationary wave is formed because each progressive wave on a string is a
traverse wave. When two identical waves travelling along the same path in opposite directions
interfere with each other, resultant wave is called stationary wave.

29
Q.29 (i) Ans. 1. When string vibrates in its fundamental mode, then there isn't any position on the string which
can be touched so as to not disturb the motion of the string.
2. When string vibrates in first overtone, then there is one point at centre of the string which can be
touched so as not to disturb the motion of the string.
3. When string vibrates in second overtone, then there are two points which can be touched so as not
to disturb the motion of the string.

(ii) Ans.

Q.30 Ans. Consider a rectangular frame of wire P’PSS’. It is fitted with a movable arm QR as shown in figure
below. This frame is dipped in a soap solution and then taken out. A film of soap solution will be
formed within the boundaries PQRS of the frame.

1. Each arm of the frame experiences an inward force due to the film. Under the action of this force,
the movable arm QR moves towards side PS so as to decrease the area of the film.
2. If the length of QR is L, then this inward force F acting on it is given by F = T ×
2L………………..(i)
3. Since the film has two surfaces, the upper surface and the lower surface, the total length over
which surface tension acts on QR is 2L.
4. Imagine an external force F’ (equal and opposite to F) applied isothermally (gradually and at
constant temperature), to the arm QR, so that it pulls the arm away and tries to increase the surface
area of the film.
5. The arm QR moves to Q’R’ through a distance dx. Therefore, the work done against F, the force
due to surface tension, is given by dw = F ‘dx
6. Using Eq. (i),
dw = T (2Ldx)
7. But, 2Ldx = dA, increase in area of the two surfaces of the film.
Therefore, dw = T(dA).
8. This work done in stretching the film is stored in the area dA of the film as its potential energy.
This energy is called surface energy.
9. Therefore, surface energy = T (dA)
10. Thus, surface tension is also equal to the surface energy per unit area.

30
Q.31 (i) Ans.

(ii) Ans.

31
 PAPER - 3
Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) The most basic logic gate is the

(A) AND gate (B) OR gate (C) NOT gate (D) NOR gate

(ii) The dimensionless quantity, out of the following is,

(iii) Direction of rotation of a coil in electric motor is determined by

(A) Fleming’s right hand rule (B) Fleming’s left hand rule
(C) faraday law of electromagnetic inductors (D) None of above

(iv) Identify the SI unit of inductive reactance.

(A) Volt (B) Ohm (C) Joule (D) Hertz

(v) The angular acceleration of an angular SHM does not depend on the
(A) restoring torque per unit angular displacement
(B) angular displacement
(C) moment of inertia of the body
(D) acceleration due to gravity

(vi) The internal energy of argon is

(a) ½ KT (B) 3/2 KT (C) 5/2 KT (D) 7/2 KT

(vii) A series resistance is connected in the Zener diode circuit to

(A) Properly reverse bias the Zener (B) Protect the Zener
(C) roperly forward bias the Zener (D) Protect the load resistance

(viii) Magnetic flux (ф) related to area (A) of the coil as

(A) ф ∝ A¯¹ (B) ф ∝ A (C) ф ∝ A² (D) ф ∝ A³

(ix) An aero plane takes off when the dynamic lift becomes _______the weight of aero plane.
(A) less than (B) greater than (C) equal to (D) less than equal to

(x) At absolute temperature T, the mean kinetic energy of one gram-mole of a perfect gas is

32
Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Observe the diagram and state the principle on which it is based?

(ii) Why GaAs is most commonly used in making of a solar cell?

(iii) Give a few examples of intensive variables.

(iv) How can one increase the sensitivity of a photodiode?

(v) Define mutual inductance.

(vi) On which factors does the wavelength of light emitted by a LED depend?

(vii) What is inductive reactance?

(viii) Define ionization energy.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 What is meant by coherent sources? What are the two methods for obtaining coherent sources in the
laboratory?

Q.4 The mutual inductance (M) of the two coils is given as 1.5 H. The self inductances of the coils are:
L₁ = 5 H, L₂ = 4 H. Find the coefficient of coupling between the coils.

Q.5 Calculate the energy released in the alpha decay of ²³⁸ Pu to ²³⁴ U, the masses involved being mPu =
238.04955 u, mU = 234.04095 u and mHe = 4.002603 u.

Q.6 For very high frequency AC supply, a capacitor behaves like a pure conductor. Why?

Q.7 The wavelength and intensity of the incident light is 4000 Å and 0.1 W respectively. What is the
minimum change in the light energy? What is the number of incident photons?

Q.8 In a series LR circuit XL = R and power factor of the circuit is P₁ . When capacitor with capacitance
C such that XL = XC is put in series, the power factor becomes P₂ . Calculate P₁ / P₂ .

Q.9 What will be the effect on the position of zero deflection if only the current flowing through the
potentiometer wire is (i) increased (ii) decreased.

Q.10 Draw a neat labelled diagram of construction of cyclotron.

Q.11 In a hydraulic lift, the input piston had surface area 30 cm² and the output piston has surface area of
1500 cm². If a force of 25 N is applied to the input piston, calculate weight on output piston.

33
Q.12 What is a wavefront? How is it related to rays of light? What is the shape of the wavefront at a point
far away from the source of light?

Q.13 A gas contained in a cylinder fitted with a frictionless piston expands against a constant external
pressure of 1 atm from a volume of 5 litres to a volume of 10 litres. In doing so it absorbs 400 J of
thermal energy from its surroundings.
Determine the change in internal energy of system.

Q.14 Write ideal gas equation for a mass of 7 g of nitrogen gas.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Two charges of magnitudes -4Q and +2Q are located at points (2a, 0) and (5a, 0) respectively. What
is the electric flux due to these charges through a sphere of radius 4a with its centre at the origin?

Q.16 State the characteristics of progressive waves.

Q.17 Determine the maximum angular speed of an electron moving in a stable orbit around the nucleus of
hydrogen atom.

Q.18 A double-slit arrangement produces interference fringes for sodium light (λ = 589 nm) that are 0.20°
apart. What is the angular fringe separation if the entire arrangement is immersed in water (n = 1.33)?

Q.19 A long solenoid s, as shown in the figure has 200 turns/cm and carries a current i of 1.4 A. The
diameter D of the solenoid is 3 cm. A coil C, having 100 turns and a diameter d of 2 cm is kept at the
centre of the solenoid. The current in the solenoid is decreased steadily to zero in 20 ms. Calculate the
magnitude of emf induced in the coil C when the current in the solenoid is changing.

Q.20 Explain the capillary action.

Q.21 Photocurrent recorded in the micro ammeter in an experimental set-up of photoelectric effect
vanishes when the retarding potential is more than 0.8 V if the wavelength of incident radiation is
4950 Å. If the source of incident radiation is changed, the stopping potential turns out to be 1.2 V.
Find the work function of the cathode material and the wavelength of the second source.

Q.22 Derive an expression for the force per unit length between two long straight parallel conductors.

Q.23 Two wires of the same material and the same cross section are stretched on a sonometer in
succession. Length of one wire is 60 cm and that of the other is 30 cm. An unknown load is applied to
the first wire and second wire is loaded with 1.5 kg. If both the wires vibrate with the same
fundamental frequencies, calculate the unknown load.

34
Q.24 A spherical shell of radius b with charge Q is expanded to a radius a. Find the work done by the
electrical forces in the process.

Q.25 The total work done in the cyclic process shown in the Fig. 4.19 is -1000 J. (a) What does the
negative sign mean? (b) What is the change in internal energy and the heat transferred during this
process. (c) What will happen when the direction of the cycle is changed?

Q.26 Show that larger the value of radius of gyration, farther is the mass from the axis of rotation.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) Prove that under certain conditions a magnet vibrating in uniform magnetic field performs angular
S.H.M.

(ii) A paramagnetic gas has 2.0 × 10²⁶ atoms/m with atomic magnetic dipole moment of 1.5 × 10ˉ²³ A
m² each. The gas is at 27°C. (a) Find the maximum magnetization intensity of this sample. (b) If the
gas in this problem is kept in a uniform magnetic field of 3 T, is it possible to achieve saturation
magnetization? Why?

Q.28 When a gas is heated its temperature increases. Explain this phenomenon based on kinetic theory of
gases.

Q.29 (i) Define athermanous substances and diathermanous substances.

(ii) A merry-go-round usually consists of a central vertical pillar. At the top of it there are horizontal rods
which can rotate about vertical axis. At the end of this horizontal rod there is a vertical rod fitted like
an elbow joint. At the lower end of each vertical rod, there is a horse on which the rider can sit. As the
merry-go-round is set into rotation, these vertical rods move away from the axle by making some
angle with the vertical.

The figure above shows vertical section of a merry-go-round in which the ‘initially vertical’ rods are
inclined with the vertical at 37°, during rotation. Calculate the frequency of revolution of the merry-
go-round. (Use g = π² m/s² and sin 37° = 0.6)

Q.30 Show that the minimum safe speed for a vehicle in the well of death is inversely proportional to the
square root of coefficient of friction.

Q.31 (i) Distinguish between a potentiometer and a voltmeter.

(ii)

-------- All the Best --------

35
36
 PAPER 3
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (C)

(ii) Ans. (D)

(iii) Ans. (B)

(iv) Ans. (B)

(v) Ans. (D)

(vi) Ans. (B)

(vii) Ans. (B)

(viii) Ans. (B)

(ix) Ans. (B)

(x) Ans. (A)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. The shape of cross section of wings of an aero plane is as shown in figure. The dynamic lift of the
aero plane is based on the Bernoulli’s principle.

(ii) Ans. The absorption coefficient of GaAs is very high, that is why it is most commonly used in making of
a solar cell.

(iii) Ans. Pressure, temperature and density are intensive variables.

(iv) Ans. The sensitivity of the photodiode can be increased by minimizing the dark current.

(v) Ans. Mutual inductance is defined as the magnetic flux linked through one oil dueto the flow of one
amere current in the neighbouring coil.

(vi) Ans. The wavelength of light emitted by LED depends on the proportions of semiconductor used in the
fabrication of the LED.

37
 (vii) Ans. The opposing nature of inductor to the alternating current is called inductive reactance.

(viii) Ans. The ionization energy of an atom is the minimum amount of energy required to be given to an
electron in the ground state of that atom to set the electron free.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. The two sources are said to be coherent if they emit light waves of equal frequency or wavelength
and waves emitted from them are always in same phase or have constant phase difference. It is
necessary that the two sources should be derived from same original source. The changes in the
phase of the original source are simultaneously produced in the secondary or virtual sources and
hence a constant phase difference is maintained. This condition must be satisfied to obtain steady
interference pattern
There are two methods for obtaining coherent source
(i)Division of wave front
(ii)Division of amplitude
(i)Division of wave front
In this method, the wave front is divided into two or more parts by use of mirrors, lenses or prisms.
Example: Young's double slit experiment. Fresnel's Biprism and Lloyd's single mirror method.
(ii)Division of amplitude
The amplitude of incoming beam is divided into two or more parts by partial reflection or refraction.
These divided parts travel different paths and are finally brought together to produce interference.
Example : The brilliant colour seen in a thin film of transparent material like soap film, oil film.

Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans.

38
Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans.

Q.9 Ans. i) If the current in potentiometer is increased then voltage across it also increases. Potential gradient
increases but the value of emf is constant. So balancing length decreases
ii) If the current in the wire of potentiometer is decreased, the potential gradient will decrease and
hence the position of zero deflection will occur at longer length.

Q.10 Ans.

39
Q.11 Ans.

Q.12 Ans. A continuous locus of particles of medium vibrating in the same phase at any instant is known as
wave front. The ray of light is perpendicular to the wave front. The shape of the wave front at a point
far away from the source of light is a plane

Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans. The Ideal gas equation is;

PV = nRT
where n is mole of gas.
Therefore, for 7 g of nitrogen gas;

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

40
Q.15 Ans.

Given:
d(OX₁ ) = 2a
d(OX₂ ) = 5a
Radius, r = 4a
A Gaussian surface is of radius 4a and contains charge –4Q inside.
The flux depends only upon the charge enclosed by Gaussian surface, therefore the required flux
according to Gauss’ law will be,
ϕ = q/ε₀ = –4Q/ε₀

Q.16 Ans. 1) Each particle in a medium executes the same type of vibration. Particles vibrate about their mean
positions performing simple harmonic motion.
2) All vibrating particles of the medium have the same amplitude, period and frequency.
3) The phase, (i.e., state of vibration of a particle), changes from one particle to another.
4) No particle remains permanently at rest. Each particle comes to rest momentarily while at the
extreme positions of vibration.
5) The particles attain maximum velocity when they pass through their mean positions.
6) During the propagation of wave, energy is transferred along the wave. There is no transfer of
matter.
7) The wave propagates through the medium with a certain velocity. This velocity depends upon
properties of the medium.
8) Progressive waves are of two types - transverse waves and longitudinal waves.
9) In a transverse wave, vibrations of particles are perpendicular to the direction of propagation of
wave and produce crests and troughs in their medium of travel. In longitudinal wave, vibrations of
particles produce compressions and rarefactions along the direction of propagation of the wave.
10) Both, the transverse as well as the longitudinal, mechanical waves can propagate through solids
but only longitudinal waves can propagate through fluids.

41
Q.17 Ans.

Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans.

42
Q.20 Ans. (i) A tube having a very fine bore (~ 1 mm) and open at both ends is called a capillary tube.
(ii) If one end of a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid which partially or completely wets the surface
of the capillary (like water in glass) the level of liquid in the capillary rises.
(iii) On the other hand, if the capillary tube is dipped in a liquid which does not wet its surface (like
mercury in glass) the level of liquid in the capillary drops.
(iv) The phenomenon of rise or fall of a liquid inside a capillary tube when it is dipped in the liquid
is called capillarity.
(v) Capillarity is in action when,
(vi) Oil rises up the wick of a lamp.
(vii) Cloth rag sucks water.
(viii) Water rises up the crevices in rocks.
(ix) Sap and water rise up to the top most leaves Π in a tree.
(x) Blotting paper absorbs ink.

43
Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans.

Nature of force
i) If the currents are in the same direction, the force is attractive.
ii) If the currents are in the opposite directions, the force is repulsive.
44
Q.23 Ans.

Q.24 Ans. As the shell expands, the electrical charges move radially.
The electric field in this case is conservative, therefore total work done by field force is,

Q.25 Ans. (a) Work done in the process from A to B along path 2 is given by the area under this curve. In this
process, volume is increasing therefore the work done is positive.
Work done in the process from B to A along path 1 is given by the area under this curve. In this
process volume is decreasing therefore the work done is negative.
The total work done during the complete cycle, from A to B along path 2 and form B to A along path
1 is the area enclosed by the closed loop. This is the difference between the area under the curve 1
and that under the curve 2. Since the area under curve 1 is negative and larger than the area under the
curve 2, the area of the loop is also negative. That means the work is done by the system is negative.
(b) This is a cyclic process which means the initial and the final state of the system is the same. For a
cyclic process ΔU = 0, so Q = W = - 1000 J. That is,
1000 joules of heat must be rejected by the system.
(c) If the direction of the cycle is changed the work done will be positive. The system will do work.
Form this example we conclude that: The total work done in a cyclic process is positive if the
process is goes around the cycle in a clockwise direction. The total work done in a cyclic process is
negative if the process goes around the cycle in a counter clockwise direction.

45
Q.26 Ans. i. The moment of inertia of a body depends upon the mass of the object and how the mass is
distributed from or around the given axis of rotation.
ii. The calculation of moment of inertia is possible only for mathematically integrable geometrical
shapes.
iii. But, one can determine the moment of inertia of any object experimentally as well.
iv. If one is interested in knowing only the mass distribution around the axis of rotation, one can
express moment of inertia of the object as I = MK², where M is mass of that object.
v. It means that the mass of that object is effectively at a distance K from the given axis of rotation.
vi. In this case, K is defined as the radius of gyration of the object about the given axis of rotation.
vii. In other words, if K is radius of gyration for an object, as I = MK² is the moment of inertia of
that object.
viii. Form the relation it is clear that larger the value of K, farther is the mass from the axis.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) Ans. If a bar magnet is freely suspended in the plane of a uniform magnetic field, it remains in
equilibrium with its axis parallel to the direction of the field. If it is given a small angular
displacement Ɵ (about an axis passing through its centre, perpendicular to itself and to the field) and
released, it performs angular oscillations figure below.

(ii) Ans.

Thus, on comparing kinetic energy and potential energy. It seems that kinetic energy is greater than
potential energy. Hence, it is not possible to achieve saturation magnetization.

46
Q.28 Ans.

This means that the average energy per molecule is proportional to the absolute temperature T of the
gas. This equation relates the macroscopic parameter of the gas, T, to the kinetic energy of a
molecule.
This is the reason why when a gas is heated, it’s temperature in turn the average kinetic energy
increases.

Q.29 (i) Ans. Substances which do not transmit heat radiations incident on them, are known as athermanous
substances.
Water, wood, iron, copper, moist air, benzene etc. are examples of athermanous substances.
A substance through which heat radiations can pass is known as a diathermanous substance. For a
diathermanous body, tr ≠ 0.
A diathermanous body is neither a good absorber nor a good reflector.
Examples of diathermanous substances are glass, quartz, sodium chloride, hydrogen, oxygen, dry air
etc.

(ii) Ans.

47
Q.30 Ans.

Q.31 (i) Ans. (i) The potentiometer is used to measure the e.m.f. of cell, while the voltmeter is used to measure
terminal p.d.
(ii) The accuracy of potentiometer can be increased by increasing the length of wire. Accuracy of
voltmeter cannot be increased beyond certain limit
iii) A small p.d. can be measured accurately with the help of potentiometer. A voltmeter cannot
measure small p.d. as the resistance of voltmeter is high.
(iv) Internal resistance of a cell can be measured with the help of potentiometer as it does not draw
current from the cell. Voltmeter cannot measure internal resistance of a cell as it draws current from
the cell.

(ii) Ans.

48
49
 PAPER - 4
Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Identify the condition for an object to become a perfect reflector. The symbols have their usual
meaning.
(A) tr = 0, a = 0 and r = 1 (B) tr = 1, a = 0 and r = 0
(C) tr = 0, a = 1 and r = 0 (D) tr = 0, a = 0 and r = 0

(ii) The net cohesive force acting on a molecule deep inside the liquid is
(A) zero
(B) infinite
(C) proportional to the height of the liquid column
(D) proportional to the density of the liquid

(iii) The magnetic flux linked with a coil is expressed as function ф = 3t² + 2t + 5.the value of emf
developed in the coil after 3 seconds is
(A) 20 V (B) 40 V (C) 10 V (D) 80 V

(iv) Which of the following is the correct relation for ripple factor?

(v) Thermos flask is an example of

(A) Closed system (B) Open system (C) Isolated system (D) Open and closed system

(vi) The total energy of a particle of mass 400 g, performing S.H.M. is 10¯² J. If the amplitude of
oscillation is 2 cm then the time period of oscillation is
(A) 0.35 s (B) 0.57 (C) 0.95 s (D) 1.35 s

(vii) The maximum charge on the capacitor in an oscillating LC circuit is Q. The charge on capacitor
when the energy is stored equally between electric and magnetic field is :
(A) Q/4 (B) Q/√3 (C) Q/√2 (D) Q/2

50
 (viii) Two a-particles have the ratio of their velocities as 3 : 2 on entering the eld. If they move in different
circular paths, then the ratio of the radii of their paths is
(A) 2 : 3 (B) 3 : 2 (C) 9 : 4 (D) 4 : 9

(ix) Among the following option, which is the correct option of magnetism in a bar magnet?
(A) Spinning of electrons (B) Spinning of atoms (C) Spinning of protons (D) Irregular
domain

(x) Dark resistance of a photodiode (RD) is defined as the ________of the maximum reverse voltage and
its dark current.
(A) sum (B) difference (C) product (D) ratio

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Find the terminal speed of an uncharged drop of radius 1.0 × 10ˉ⁵ m and density 1.2 × 10³ kg mˉ³ in
Millikan’s oil drop experiment? (Take viscosity of air = 1.8 × 10ˉ⁵ Pas and do not consider the
buoyancy on the drop because of air).

(ii) What are Boolean expressions?

(iii) Give the mathematical statement of the first law of thermodynamics.

(iv) How can one increase the sensitivity of a photodiode?

(v) What is electromagnetic induction?

(vi) What happens during regulation action of a Zener diode?

(vii) The current through a wire changes with time according to the equation I = t. What is the correct
value of the rms current within the time interval t = 2 s to t = 4 s?

(viii) What is atomic mass unit?

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Define athermanous substances and diathermanous substances.

Q.4 Efficiency of a Carnot cycle is 75%. If temperature of the hot reservoir is 727º C, calculate the
temperature of the cold reservoir.

Q.5 For what angle of incidence will light incident on a bucket filled with liquid having refractive index
1.5 be completely polarized after reflection?

Q.6 What is the basis of the Bernoulli’s principle?

Q.7 A solenoid of length π m and 5 cm in diameter has winding of 1000 turns and carries a current of 5
A. Calculate the magnetic field at its centre along the axis.

Q.8 State the uses of a potentiometer.

Q.9 For very high frequency AC supply, a capacitor behaves like a pure conductor. Why?

51
Q.10 What do you understand by the term wave-particle duality? Where does it apply?

Q.11 A 10 µF capacitor is charged to a 25 volt of potential. The battery is disconnected and a pure 100 m
H coil is connected across the capacitor so that LC oscillations are set up. Calculate the maximum
current in the coil.

Q.12 State the important properties of nuclear forces.

Q.13 A uniform magnetic field B(t), pointing upward fills a circular region of radius, s in horizontal plane.
If B is changing with time, find the induced electric field.

Q.14 What is meant by coherent sources? What are the two methods for obtaining coherent sources in the
laboratory?

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Derive the mathematical form of theorem of perpendicular axes.

Q.16 A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen is enclosed in a rigid insulting cylinder. It is ignited by a spark.
The temperature and the pressure both increase considerably. Assume that the energy supplied by the
spark is negligible, what conclusions may be drawn by application of the first law of
thermodynamics?

Q.17 A spherical shell of radius b with charge Q is expanded to a radius a. Find the work done by the
electrical forces in the process.

Q.18 A set of 8 tuning forks is arranged in a series of increasing order of frequencies. Each fork gives 4
beats per second with the next one and the frequency of last fork is twice that of the first. Calculate
the frequencies of the first and the last fork.

Q.19 The magnetic field at the centre of a circular current carrying loop of radius 12.3 cm is 6.4 × 10ˉ⁶ T.
What will be the magnetic moment of the loop?

Q.20 Give the summary of analysis of observations from experiments on photoelectric effect based on
wave theory.

Q.21 With what terminal velocity will an air bubble 0.4 mm in diameter rise in a liquid of viscosity 0.1
Ns/m² and specific gravity 0.9? Density of air is 1.29 kg/m³.

Q.22 Derive an expression for the self-inductance of a toroid of circular cross-section of radius r and major
radius R. Calculate the self inductance (L) of toroid for major radius (R) = 15 cm, cross-section of
toroid having radius (r) =2.0 cm and the number of turns (n) =1200.

Q.23 What must be the thickness of a thin film which, when kept near one of the slits shifts the central
fringe by 5 mm for incident light of wavelength 5400 Å in Young’s double slit interference
experiment? The refractive index of the material of the film is 1.1 and the distance between the slits is
0.5 mm.

Q.24 Define excitation energy, binding energy and ionization energy of an electron in an atom.

Q.25 Find the amplitude of the resultant wave produced due to interference of two waves given as y₁ =
A₁ sin ωt y₂ = A₂ sin (ωt + φ)

52
Q.26 Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and series
combination of two capacitors C₁ and C₂ with their capacitances in the ratio 1:2, so that the energy
stored in these two cases becomes the same.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) What are the disadvantages of a potentiometer?

(ii) A simple pendulum of length 100 cm performs S.H.M. Find the restoring force acting on its bob of
mass 50 g when the displacement from the mean position is 3 cm.

Q.28 Show that the moment of inertia of a uniform disc is directly proportional to the square of the radius
of the disc.

Q.29 (i) Derive an expression that relates angular momentum with the angular velocity of a rigid body.

(ii) The emissive power of a sphere of area 0.02 m² is 0.5 kcal sˉ¹ mˉ². What is the amount of heat
radiated by the spherical surface in 20 second?

Q.30 Explain the Stefan – Boltzman law of radiation in details.

Q.31 (i) Describe the diamagnetism in short.

(ii) A Galvanometer has a resistance of 25 Ω and its full scale deflection current is 25 µA. What
resistance should be added to it to have a range of 0 -10 V?

-------- All the Best --------

53
 PAPER 4
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (A)

(ii) Ans. (A)

(iii) Ans. (A)

(iv) Ans. (C)

(v) Ans. (C)

(vi) Ans. (B)

(vii) Ans. (C)

(viii) Ans. (B)

(ix) Ans. (A)

(x) Ans. (D)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

54
 (i) Ans.

(ii) Ans. The mathematical statement that provides the relationship between the input and the output of a
logic gate is called a Boolean expression.

(iii) Ans. ∆U = Q -W
This is the mathematical statement of the first law of thermodynamics.

(iv) Ans. The sensitivity of the photodiode can be increased by minimizing the dark current.

(v) Ans. The phenomenon of producing an induced e.m.f in a conductor or conducting coil due to changing
magnetic flux is called electromagnetic induction.

(vi) Ans. During regulation action of a Zener diode, the current through the series resistance (Rs) changes as
well as the resistance offered by the Zener changes.

(vii) Ans.

(viii) Ans. One atomic mass unit is equal to 1/12th of the mass of a neutral carbon atom having atomic number
12, in its lowest electronic state. 1 u = 1.6605402 × 10ˉ²⁷ kg.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

55
Q.3 Ans. Substances which do not transmit heat radiations incident on them, are known as athermanous
substances.
Water, wood, iron, copper, moist air, benzene etc. are examples of athermanous substances.
A substance through which heat radiations can pass is known as a diathermanous substance. For a
diathermanous body, tr ≠ 0.
A diathermanous body is neither a good absorber nor a good reflector.
Examples of diathermanous substances are glass, quartz, sodium chloride, hydrogen, oxygen, dry air
etc.

Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans. Bernoulli’s principle is based on work energy theorem. Work done by all the forces acting on fluids
is equal to change in kinetic energy of fluid.

Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans. A potentiometer is used

i) to find the internal resistance of a cell
ii) to determine the emf of a cell
iii) to compare the emf of two cells
iv) to find an the resistance of an unknown resistor

56
Q.9 Ans.

Q.10 Ans. Electromagnetic wave shows phenomena which establishes both particle and wave nature. The
phenomena like interference and diffraction proves the wave nature whereas phenomena like
photoelectric effect shows particle nature
Mathematically
P = h/ƛ
The behavior of electromagnetic wave is called wave particle duality.
This is applicable in electromagnetic waves.

Q.11 Ans.

Q.12 Ans. The properties of nuclear forces can be summarized as follows:

i. It is the strongest force among subatomic particles.
ii. Its strength is about 50-60 times larger than that of the electrostatic force.
iii. Unlike the electromagnetic and gravitational forces which act over large distances (their range is
infinity), the nuclear force has a range of about a few fm and the force is negligible when two
nucleons are separated by larger distances.
iv. The nuclear force is independent of the charge of the nucleons, i.e., the nuclear force between two
neutrons with a given separation is the same as that between two protons or between a neutron and a
proton at the same separation.

Q.13 Ans.

57
Q.14 Ans. The two sources are said to be coherent if they emit light waves of equal frequency or wavelength
and waves emitted from them are always in same phase or have constant phase difference. It is
necessary that the two sources should be derived from same original source. The changes in the
phase of the original source are simultaneously produced in the secondary or virtual sources and
hence a constant phase difference is maintained. This condition must be satisfied to obtain steady
interference pattern
There are two methods for obtaining coherent source
(i)Division of wave front
(ii)Division of amplitude
(i)Division of wave front
In this method, the wave front is divided into two or more parts by use of mirrors, lenses or prisms.
Example: Young's double slit experiment. Fresnel's Biprism and Lloyd's single mirror method.
(ii)Division of amplitude
The amplitude of incoming beam is divided into two or more parts by partial reflection or refraction.
These divided parts travel different paths and are finally brought together to produce interference.
Example : The brilliant colour seen in a thin film of transparent material like soap film, oil film.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans. The theorem of perpendicular axes relates the moment of inertias of a laminar object about three
mutually perpendicular and concurrent axes, two of them in the plane of the object and the third
perpendicular to the object.

58
Q.16 Ans. 1. Consider the mixture of hydrogen and oxygen to be a system.
2. As the system is insulated from surroundings, the process by which the temperature and pressure
increase is adiabatic.
3. For adiabatic change, Q = 0.
∴ From first law of thermodynamics,
ΔU = -W ……….(1)
4. From equation (1), it can be concluded that as temperature is increased, then ΔU is positive. This
implies, work done is negative.
5. Negative work done corresponds to compression of the gas. Hence, the system undergoes
adiabatic compression.

Q.17 Ans. As the shell expands, the electrical charges move radially.
The electric field in this case is conservative, therefore total work done by field force is,

Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans.

59
Q.20 Ans.

Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans.

60
Q.23 Ans. Given λ = 5400 Å, the refractive index of the material of the film = 1.1 and the shift of the central
bright fringe = 5 mm.
Let t be the thickness of the film and P be the point on the screen where the central fringe has shifted.
Due to the film kept in front of slit S₁ say, the optical path travelled by the light passing through it
increases by t (1.1-1)= 0.1t. Thus, the optical paths between the two beams passing through the two
slits are not equal at the midpoint of the screen but are equal at the point P, 5 mm away from the
centre. At this point the distance travelled by light from the other slit S₂ to the screen is larger than
that from S₁ by 0.1t.
The difference in distances S₂ P – S₁ P = yλ/d, where y is the distance along the screen = 5 mm =
0.005 m and d is given to be 0.5 mm = 0.0005 m.
This has to be equal to the difference in optical paths introduced by the film. Thus, 0.1t = 0.005 x
5400 x 10ˉ¹⁰ /0.0005. t = 5.4 x 10ˉ⁵ m = 0.054 mm

Q.24 Ans. 1. The energy required to take an electron from the ground state to an excited state is called the
excitation energy of the electron in that state.
2. Binding energy of an electron is the minimum energy required to make it free from the nucleus.
3. The ionization energy of an atom is the minimum amount of energy required to be given to an
electron in the ground state of that atom to set the electron free.

Q.25 Ans.

Q.26 Ans.

61
 Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) Ans. The disadvantages of potentiometer are

i) it is not convenient to use due to its large size.
ii) it cannot be used to measure the potential difference directly.
iii) during experiment the temperature should remain constant .this is not possible due to flow of
current.
iv) it is costly

(ii) Ans.

Q.28 Ans.

62
Q.29 (i) Ans. 1. For a rigid body, the angular momentum (L) is the product of the moment of inertia and the
angular velocity: L = Iω.
2. For a point of mass, angular momentum can be expressed as the product of linear momentum and
the radius (r): L = mvr

(ii) Ans.

Q.30 Ans. 1. In 1879, Josef Stefan proposed an empirical relation between the rate at which heat is radiated
(the radiant power R) from unit area of a perfect blackbody and its temperature T, based on the
experimental observations.
2. Five years later, Boltzmann derived the relation using thermodynamics.
3. Hence it is known as Stefan-Boltzmann law.
4. According to this law, “The rate of emission of radiant energy per unit area or the power radiated
per unit area of a perfect blackbody is directly proportional to the fourth power of its absolute
temperature”.
R ∝ T⁴
or, R = σ T⁴
where σ is Stefan’s constant and is equal to 5.67 × 10ˉ⁸ J mˉ² s ˉ¹ Kˉ⁴ or W mˉ² Kˉ⁴ and
dimensions of σ are [L⁰ M¹Tˉ³Kˉ⁴ ].
5. Thus, the power radiated by a perfect blackbody depends only on its temperature and not on any
other characteristics such as color, materials, nature of surface etc.
6. If Q is the amount of radiant energy emitted in time t by a perfect blackbody of surface area

63
Q.31 (i) Ans. (i) The atoms/molecules with completely filled electron orbit possess no net magnetic dipole
moment.
(ii) When these materials are placed in external magnetic field they move from stronger part of
magnetic field to the weaker part of the magnetic field.
(iii) Unlike, magnets attract magnetic materials; these materials are repelled by a magnet.
(iv) The net magnetic moment of such material is zero.
(v) Such materials behave as diamagnetic materials.

(ii) Ans.

64
 PAPER - 5
Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) What are the factors affecting the maximum possible speed of vehicle moving along a horizontal
circular track?
(A) Coefficient of static friction and the radius of the track.
(B) Coefficient of static friction and the mass of the vehicle.
(C) Coefficient of static friction, mass of the vehicle and the radius of the track.
(D) Coefficient of static friction, acceleration due to gravity and the radius of the track.

(ii) The kinetic energy of a single molecule is given as

(iii) A cell of emf ‘E’ is connected across a resistance ‘R’. The potential difference between the terminals
of the cell is V. The internal resistance of the cell is

(iv) The idea of secondary wavelets for the. Propagation of a wave was first given by
(A) Newton (B) Huygens (C) Maxwell (D) Fresnel

(v) Input power at 11000 V is fed to a step-down transformer which has 4000 turns in it’s primary
winding. In order to get output power at 220 V, the number of turns in the secondary must be
(A) 20 (B) 80 (C) 400 (D) 800

(vi) The limiting value of the wavelength for the Balmer series is
(A) 912 Å (B) 365 Å (C) 820 Å (D) 1458 Å

(vii) At the centre of which of the following four circular rings the magnetic field is the strongest for
equal magnitude of current?

(A) Figure A (B) Figure B (C) Figure C (D) Figure D

65
 (viii) In a BJT, largest current flow occurs
(A) in the emitter (B) in the collector (C) in the base (D) through CB junction

(ix) __________ current is found by dividing the area enclosed by the half cycle by the length of the base
of the half cycle.
(A) RMS current (B) Average current (C) Instantaneous current (D) Total current

(x) A logic gate is an electronic circuit which:

(A) makes logical decisions
(B) allows electron flow only in one direction
(C) works using binary algebra
(D) alternates between 0 and 1 value

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) A small stone of negligible mass is tied to an inextensible string and rotated in a circle of radius 2 m
in a vertical plane. Find the speed at a horizontal point on the circle.

(ii) Under what condition can a real gas be considered as an ideal gas?

(iii) What is the phase relation between current and voltage in a purely resistive circuit?

(iv) Express the masses of the subatomic particles in eV/c².

(v) 50 J of work is done on a gas and the gas looses 150 J of heat to the surrounding. What is the change
in the internal energy?

(vi) A long straight wire carries a current of 35A. What is the field B at a point 20cm from the wire?

(vii) State the condition of coherence.

(viii) A rectangular coil of area 50cm² and 100 turns is placed perpendicular to a magnetic field of 10ˉ²
Wbmˉ². Find the flux kinked with the coil.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 A uniform disc and a hollow right circular cone have the same formula for their M.I., when rotating
about their central axes. Why is it so?

Q.4 Calculate the energy radiated in one minute by a blackbody of surface area 200 cm² at 127°C (σ = 5.7
× 10ˉ⁸ J mˉ² sˉ¹ Kˉ⁴ ).

Q.5 A magnetic needle placed in uniform magnetic field has magnetic moment of 2 × 10ˉ² A m², and
moment of inertia of 7.2 × 10ˉ⁷ kg m². It performs 10 complete oscillations in 6 s. What is the
magnitude of the magnetic field ?

Q.6 A dipole with its charges, -q and +q located at the points (0, -b, 0) and (0 +b, 0) is present in a
uniform electric field E. The equipotential surfaces of this field are planes parallel to the YZ planes.
(a) What is the direction of the electric field E? (b) How much torque would the dipole experience in
this field?

66
Q.7 An emf of 96.0 mV is induced in the windings of a coil when the current in a nearby coil is
increasing at the rate of 1.20 A/s. What is the mutual inductance (M) of the two coils?

Q.8 State the laws of simple pendulum.

Q.9 What are primary and secondary sources of light?

Q.10 It is observed in an experiment on photoelectric effect that an increase in the intensity of the incident
radiation does not change the maximum kinetic energy of the electrons. Where does the extra energy
of the incident radiation go? Is it lost? State your answer with explanatory reasoning.

Q.11 If the frequency of the input voltage50 Hz is applied to a (a) half wave rectifier and (b) full wave
rectifier, what is the output frequency in both cases?

Q.12 What is the relation between size of the nuclei and the atomic mass?

Q.13 The velocity of a transverse wave on a string of length 0.5 m is 225 m/s.
(a) What is the fundamental frequency of a standing wave on this string if both ends are kept fixed?
(b) While this string is vibrating in the fundamental harmonic, what is the wavelength of sound
produced in air if the velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s?

Q.14 Are Kirchhoff’s laws applicable for both AC and DC currents?

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Explain spectral distribution of blackbody radiation.

Q.16 Derive an expression of excess pressure inside a liquid drop.

Q.17 A mixture of hydrogen and oxygen is enclosed in a rigid insulting cylinder. It is ignited by a spark.
The temperature and the pressure both increase considerably. Assume that the energy supplied by the
spark is negligible, what conclusions may be drawn by application of the first law of
thermodynamics?

Q.18 How much mass of ²³⁵ U is required to undergo fission each day to provide 3000 MW of thermal
power? Average energy per fission is 202.79 MeV

Q.19 A 20 cm wide thin circular disc of mass 200 g is suspended to a rigid support from a thin metallic
string. By holding the rim of the disc, the string is twisted through 60° and released. It now performs
angular oscillations of period 1 second. Calculate the maximum restoring torque generated in the
string under undamped conditions. (π³ ≈ 31)

Q.20 Sam whirls a stone in a vertical circle. The necessary forces acting on the stone are shown in the
diagram given below.

67
 Find the relation between tension at the highest at lowest point of the circle.

Q.21 Two resistances 2 ohm and 3 ohm are connected across the two gaps of the metre bridge as shown in
figure. Calculate the current through the cell when the bridge is balanced and the specific resistance of
the material of the metre bridge wire. Given the resistance of the bridge wire is 1.49 ohm and its
diameter is 0.12 cm.

Q.22 Explain the current I associated with this orbiting electron of charge e.

Q.23 A long solenoid s, as shown in the figure has 200 turns/cm and carries a current i of 1.4 A. The
diameter D of the solenoid is 3 cm. A coil C, having 100 turns and a diameter d of 2 cm is kept at the
centre of the solenoid. The current in the solenoid is decreased steadily to zero in 20 ms. Calculate the
magnitude of emf induced in the coil C when the current in the solenoid is changing.

Q.24 Explain the resolving power of a telescope with the help of a neat diagram. On what factors does it
depend?

Q.25 State the important conclusions drawn from Compton scattering.

68
Q.26 The first law of thermodynamics states that:
∆U = Q –W
The symbols have their usual meaning.
Schematically explain the various cases of the change in internal energy of the system.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) State the expression of magnetic force acting on a straight conductor carrying current I placed in a
uniform magnetic field. What is its maximum and minimum value?

(ii) An AC circuit consists of only an inductor of inductance 2 H. If the current is represented by a sine
wave of amplitude 0.25 A and frequency 60 Hz, calculate the effective potential difference across the
inductor (π = 3.142)

Q.28 Show that only odd harmonics are present in the vibrations of air column in a pipe closed at one end.

Q.29 (i) A string is fixed at the two ends and is vibrating in its fundamental mode. It is known that the two
ends will be at rest. Apart from these, is there any position on the string which can be touched so as
not to disturb the motion of the string? What will be the answer to this question if the string is
vibrating in its first and second overtones?

(ii) A swimmer is swimming in a swimming pool at 6 m below the surface of the water. Calculate the
pressure on the swimmer due to water above. (Density of water = 1000 kg/m³, g = 9.8 m/s²)

Q.30 Explain why liquid drops take different shapes on solid surfaces.

Q.31 (i) The safest way to protect yourself from lightening is to be inside a car. Justify.

(ii)

-------- All the Best --------

69
 PAPER 5
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Physics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (D)

(ii) Ans. (D)

(iii) Ans. (C)

(iv) Ans. (B)

(v) Ans. (A)

(vi) Ans. (B)

(vii) Ans. (A)

(viii) Ans. (A)

(ix) Ans. (B)

(x) Ans. (C)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans.

(ii) Ans. If the atoms/ molecules of a real gas are so far apart that there is practically no interatomic/
intermolecular interaction, the real gas is said to be in the ideal state.

(iii) Ans. There is no phase difference between voltage and current in a purely resistive circuit.

(iv) Ans. The masses of the three particles in this unit are:
i. me = 0.511 MeV/c²
ii. mp = 938.28 MeV/c²
iii. mn = 939.57 MeV/c²

70
 (v) Ans. Using the First Law of Thermodynamics:
∆U = -150 J + 50 J = - 100 J

(vi) Ans.

(vii) Ans. Two waves are said to be coherent if they have no phase difference or have a constant phase
difference.

(viii) Ans. The magnetic flux lined with the coil is given by ф = NBA = 100 × 50 × 10ˉ⁴ = 50 Weber.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. 1. A uniform disc and a hollow right circular cone have same formula for their moment of inertia.
2. MI = mr²/2
3. This is because when a hollow right circular cone is cut along its slanting side and the metal is
stretched out, you will find that the surface of the cone will form a circle.
4. This shape is the same as the shape of a disc, which is also a circle. Hence they both have the same
formula for MI.

Q.4 Ans. Given

A = 200 cm² = 200 × 10¯⁴ m²,
T = 127° C = (127 + 273) K = 400 K,
t = 1 min = 60 s
We know that energy radiated is given by
Q = σAtT⁴
= 5.7 × 10ˉ⁸ × 200 × 10ˉ⁴ × 60 × (400)⁴
= 5.7 x 1.2 x 256
= 1751.04 J

Q.5 Ans.

71
Q.6 Ans.

Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans. The laws of simple pendulum are:

1. The period of a simple pendulum is directly proportional to the square root of its length.
2. The period of a simple pendulum is inversely proportional to the square root of acceleration due to
gravity.
3. The period of a simple pendulum does not depend on its mass.
4. The period of a simple pendulum does not depend on its amplitude (for small amplitude).

Q.9 Ans. Primary sources are sources that emit light of their own, because of
(i) their high temperature (examples: the Sun)
(ii) the effect of current being passed through them (examples: tube light)
(iii) chemical or nuclear reactions (examples: firecrackers). Light originates in these sources.
Secondary sources are those sources which do not produce light of their own but receive light from
some other source and either reflect or scatter it around. Example; the moon, the planets

Q.10 Ans. As per the photon theory

E = Hƒ = KE + Ø
Maximum kinetic energy of ejected electron is impendent of intensity of light
Energy of photon depends on frequency of light.
Increasing the intensity only increases the number of ejected electrons having same kinetic energy.
Energy of photon depends on frequency not on intensity.

Q.11 Ans. (a) The output frequency is 50 Hz because for one AC input pulsating we get one cycle of DC.
(b) The output frequency is 100Hz because for one input ac cycle we get two cycles of pulsating DC.

Q.12 Ans. 1. The size of an atom is decided by the sizes of the orbits of the electrons in the atom.
2. Larger the number of electrons in an atom, higher are the orbits occupied by them and larger is the
size of the atom.
3. Similarly, all nuclei do not have the same size.
4. Obviously, the size of a nucleus depends on the number of nucleons present in it, i.e., on its
atomic number A.
5. From experimental observations it has been found that the radius Rx of a nucleus X is related to A
as Rx = R₀ A(1/3), where R₀ = 1.2 × 10ˉ¹⁵ m.

72
Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans. Kirchhoff’s laws are applicable for both AC and DC currents as the laws are based on the laws of
conservation of charge and conservation of energy. But we have to consider phase angle of current
and voltage while dealing capacitors and inductors in an AC circuit.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans. i. The rate of emission per unit area or power per unit area of a surface is defined as a function of the
wavelength λ of the emitted radiation.
ii. Scientists studied the energy distribution of black body radiation as a function of wavelength.
iii. By keeping the source of radiation (such as a cavity radiator) at different temperature they
measured the radiant power corresponding to different wavelengths. The measurements were
represented graphically in the form of curves showing variation of radiant power per unit area as a
function of wavelength λ at different constant temperatures.

Q.16 Ans.

73
Q.17 Ans. 1. Consider the mixture of hydrogen and oxygen to be a system.
2. As the system is insulated from surroundings, the process by which the temperature and pressure
increase is adiabatic.
3. For adiabatic change, Q = 0.
∴ From first law of thermodynamics,
ΔU = -W ……….(1)
4. From equation (1), it can be concluded that as temperature is increased, then ΔU is positive. This
implies, work done is negative.
5. Negative work done corresponds to compression of the gas. Hence, the system undergoes
adiabatic compression.

74
Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans.

75
Q.20 Ans.

Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans. Consider an electron moving with constant speed v in a circular orbit of radius r about the nucleus
as shown in the figure below:

76
Q.23 Ans.

77
Q.24 Ans. Telescopes are normally used to see distant stars. For us, these stars are like luminous point objects,
and are far off. Thus, their diffraction patterns are Airy discs. Also, as the objects to be seen are far
off, only the angular separation between the two is of importance and not the linear separation
between them.

78
Q.25 Ans. Conclusions drawn from the Compton scattering experiment are as follows:
1. A photon has an associated momentum along with the energy it carries.
2. All photons of electromagnetic radiation of a particular frequency have the same energy and
momentum.
3. Photons are electrically neutral and are not deflected by electric or magnetic fields. Photons can
have particle-like collisions with other particles such as electrons.
4. In photon – particle collision, energy and momentum of the system are conserved but the number
of photons is not conserved.
5. Photons can be absorbed or new photons can be created. Photons can transfer their energy and
momentum during collisions with particles and disappear.
6. When we turn on light, they are created.
7. Photon always moves with the speed of light, it is never at rest.
8. Mass of a photon is not defined as we do for a particle in Newtonian mechanics. Its rest mass is
zero (in all frames of reference).

Q.26 Ans.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 (i) Ans. When a conductor of length l carrying current I is placed in a uniform magnetic field of induction B,
the magnetic force acting on it is

79
 (ii) Ans.

Q.28 Ans. Let’s consider an organ pipe closed at one end and open at the other end. If a vibrating of tuning
fork of frequency held near its open end, it sends longitudinal waves in the pipe, they are reflected
from closed end, here the incident and reflected waves interfere and formed stationary wave.
Let length of closed organ pipe is L
wave length of Longitudinal wave is

now, frequency of first overtone = 3v/4L

e.g., 1st overtones = 3rd harmonic
similarly, we get 2nd overtone = 5th harmonic
so, nth overtone = (2n + 1)th harmonic
hence, it is clear that only odd harmonics are present as overtones in the case of an air column
vibrating in a pipe closed at one end.
similarly, we get 2nd overtone = 5th harmonic so, nth overtone = (2n + 1)th harmonic
hence, it is clear that only odd harmonics are present as overtones in the case of an air column
vibrating in a pipe closed at one end.

Q.29 (i) Ans. 1. When string vibrates in its fundamental mode, then there isn't any position on the string which
can be touched so as to not disturb the motion of the string.
2. When string vibrates in first overtone, then there is one point at centre of the string which can be
touched so as not to disturb the motion of the string.
3. When string vibrates in second overtone, then there are two points which can be touched so as not
to disturb the motion of the string.

80
 (ii) Ans. Given,
h = 6 m, ρ = 1000 kg/m³, g = 9.8 m/s³
p = hρg = 6 x 1000 x 9.8 = 5.88 x 10⁵ N/m² (Which is nearly 6 times the atmospheric pressure)

Q.30 Ans. 1. When a small amount of a liquid is dropped on a plane solid surface, the liquid will either spread
on the surface or will form droplets on the surface.
2. Which phenomenon will occur depends on the surface tension of the liquid and the angle of
contact between the liquid and the solid surface.
3. The surface tension between the liquid and air as well as that between solid and air will also have
to be taken in to account.
4. Let Ɵ be the angle of contact for the given solid-liquid pair.
T₁ = Force due to surface tension at the liquid- solid interface,
T₂ = Force due to surface tension at the air- solid interface,
T₃ = Force due to surface tension at the air- liquid interface.
5. As the force due to surface tension is tangential to the surfaces in contact, directions of T₁ , T₂
and T₃ are as shown in the figure below.
6. For equilibrium of the drop

Q.31 (i) Ans. The body of the car is metallic. It provides electrostatic shielding to the person in the car because
electric field inside the car is zero. The discharging due to lightning passes to the ground through the
metallic body of the car thereby keeping person sitting inside safe.

(ii) Ans.

81
CHEMISTRY
 PAPER - 1
Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) If Z is the number of atoms in the unit cell that represents the closed packing sequence ABCABC…,
the number of tetrahedral voids in the unit cell is equal to
a. Z b. 2Z c. Z/2 d. Z/4

(ii) If the standard enthalpy of formation of methanol is -238.9 kJ mol¯¹ then entropy change of the
surroundings will be
a. -801.7 J K¯¹ b. 801.7 J K¯¹ c. 0.8017 J K¯¹ d. -0.8017 J K¯¹

(iii) A first order reaction is 75% complete after 32 minutes and 50% completed in
a. 4 minutes b. 8 minutes c. 16 minutes d. 32 minutes

(iv) A perfectly semipermeable membrane when used to separate s solution from its solvent permits
through it a passage of
a. Solute only b. Solvent only c. Both a and b d. None of these

(v) Ozone layer is depleted by

a. NO b. NO₂ c. NO₃ d. N₂ O₅

(vi) Ethanol is prepared industrially by-

a. Hydration of ethylene b. Fermentation of sugars c. Both of these d. None of these

(vii) Which of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with their catalytic
activity.
a. Paramagnetic behaviour b. High enthalpy of atomization
c. Variable oxidation state d. Colour of hydrated ions

(viii) Name the reaction in which acid amide is converted into primary amine.
a. Mendius reaction b. Gabriel phthalimide reaction
c. Carbyl amine reaction d. Hofmann bromamide reaction

(ix) Reaction of C₆ H₅ CH₂ Br with aqueous sodium hydroxide follows _________.

a. SN1 mechanism
b. SN2 mechanism
c. Any of the above two depending upon the temperature of reaction
d. Saytzeff rule

(x) Components of Nichrome alloy are

a. Ni, Cr, Fe b. Ni, Cr, Fe, C c. Ni, Cr d. Cu, Fe

82
Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Give an example of a solution containing a liquid solute in a solid solvent.

(ii) What is the rate determining step?

(iii) Define a solid.

(iv) Racemic mixture is optically inactive. Explain.

(v) Why are ethers insoluble in water?

(vi) Define the term: Synthetic fibres

(vii)

(viii) Write the chemical formula of thermocol.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 The rate of the reaction,

A + B → P is 3.6 × 10¯² mol dm¯³ s¯¹ when [A] = 0.2 moles dm¯³ and [B] = 0.1 moles dm¯³.
Calculate the rate constant if the reaction is first order in A and second order in B.

Q.4 Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of divalent cation of a transition metal with atomic number
25.

Q.5 Write structural formulae for: Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol

Q.6 Derive the relationship between standard cell potential and equilibrium constant of cell reaction.

Q.7 Name and draw structure of the repeating unit in natural rubber.

Q.8 Write reaction showing conversion of p- bromoisopropyl benzene into p-Isopropyl benzoic acid (3
steps).

Q.9 Define the term: Nanotechnology

Q.10 The molar conductivity of 0.05 M BaCl₂ solution at 25 °C is 223 Ω¯¹ cm² mol¯¹. What is its
conductivity ?

Q.11 Write two points of difference between properties of phenol and ethyl alcohol.

Q.12 How nanotechnology plays a greater role in medical field?

Q.13 Give reasons: Reactions involving Grignard reagent must be carried out under anhydrous condition.

Q.14 How will you represent zeroth order reaction graphically?

83
 Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 What are anode and cathode for Leclanche' dry cell ? Write electrode reactions and overall cell
reaction when it generates electricity.

Q.16 The unit cell of metallic silver is fcc. If radius of Ag atom is 144.4 pm, calculate (a) edge length of
unit cell (b) volume of Ag atom, (c) the percent of the volume of a unit cell, that is occupied by Ag
atoms, (d) the percent of empty space.

Q.17 How are xenon fluorides XeF₂ , XeF₄ and XeF₆ obtained ? Give suitable reactions.

Q.18 What are acids and bases according to Arrhenius theory ?

Q.19 State Hess’s law of constant heat summation. Illustrate with an example. State its applications.

Q.20 Give the similarities and differences in elements of 3d, 4d and 5d series.

Q.21 How stability of the coordination compounds can be explained in terms of equilibrium constants ?

Q.22 Write reaction showing the action of the following reagent on propanenitrile-
a) Dilute NaOH?
b) Dilute HCl?

Q.23 Write reactions to prepare ethanamine from

a. Acetonitrile b. Nitroethane c. Propionamide

Q.24 Ksp for a base M(OH)₃ is 2.7 × 10⁻ ¹¹. Calculate concentration of [OH⁻ ].

Q.25 Write reaction showing conversion of Acetaldehyde into acetaldehyde dimethyl acetal.

Q.26 Match the column:

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Describe the manufacturing of H₂ SO₄ by contact process.

Q.28 Explain the chemical composition of Nucleotides.

Q.29 15.0 g of an unknown molecular material was dissolved in 450 g of water. The resulting solution was
found to freeze at –0.34 °C. What is the molar mass of this material? (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol⁻ )
84
 What will happen to the boiling point of a solution if the weight of the solute dissolved is doubled but
the weight of solvent taken is halved?

Q.30 Given : N₂ (g) + 3H₂ (g) → 2NH₃ (g); ∆rH° = –92.40 kJ. What is the standard enthalpy of
formation of NH₃ gas?

Find out the internal energy change for the reaction A(l) → A(g) at 373 K. Heat of vaporization is
40.66 kJ/mol and R = 8.3 J mol⁻ ¹ K⁻ ¹.

Q.31

-------- All the Best --------

85
 Paper 1
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. b

(ii) Ans. a

(iii) Ans. c

(iv) Ans. b

(v) Ans. a

(vi) Ans. c

(vii) Ans. c

(viii) Ans. d

(ix) Ans. a

(x) Ans. c

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. Hydrated salts, i.e., contain water of crystallization CuSO₄ .5H₂ O.

(ii) Ans. The slowest step of a complex reaction is termed as rate determining step.

(iii) Ans. Solids are substances which have fixed shape and volume. They are characterised by rigidity,
incompressibility, slow diffusion and mechanical strength.

(iv) Ans. Racemic mixture contains equal amount of d and l forms, hence, rotation due to one enantiomers is
cancelled by another.

(v) Ans. Ethers are insoluble in water because they are not able to form hydrogen bonds with water
molecules, as their polarity is very low.

(vi) Ans. Synthetic fibres:-The manmade fibres which are prepared by polymerization of one monomer or
polymerization of two or more monomers artificially are called synthetic fibres.

86
 (vii) Ans. Since, Sc⁺ ³, Ti⁺ ⁴ , V⁺ ⁵ have no unpaired electrons. That’s why, these are colourless.

(viii) Ans.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans.

Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans.

Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans.

87
Q.9 Ans. It is the design, characterization, production and application of structures, device and system by
controlling shape and size at nanometer scale.

Q.10 Ans.

Q.11 Ans.

Q.12 Ans. It is used in manufacturing of smart drugs, helps cure faster and without side effects. Curing of life
threatening disease like cancer and diabetes.

Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

88
 Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans.

Q.16 Ans.

89
Q.17 Ans. Xenon fluorides are prepared by direct reaction of xenon and fluorine in different ratios and
conditions, such as temperature, electric discharge and photochemical reaction.

Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans. The enthalpy change in a chemical or physical process is same whether the process carried out in
one step or in several steps.
1st method
C(s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂ (g) →ΔH
2nd method
C(s) + ½O₂ (g) → CO(g) → ΔH₁
CO(g) + ½O₂ (g) → CO₂ (g) → ΔH₂ According to Hess's law ΔH = ΔH₁ + ΔH₂
Application of Hess's Law
Calculation of enthalpy of formation : Hess's law is useful to calculate the enthalpy changes for
reaction which are experimentally not possible.

Q.20 Ans. Similarities-

(i) They all are lustrous and shining.
(ii) They have high melting point
(iii) They are good reducing agents
(iv) They all are electropositive in nature.
Differences
(i) +2 and +3 oxidation states are quite stable for 3d series only
(ii) The first ionization enthalpies of 5d series is higher than 3d and 4d series.

Q.21 Ans. The stability of coordination compounds can be explained by knowing their stability constants. The
stability is governed by metal- ligand interactions. In this the metal serves as electron-pair acceptor
while the ligand as Lewis base (since it is electron donor). The metal-ligand interaction can be
realised as the Lewis acid-Lewis base interaction. Stronger the interaction greater is stability of the
complex.
Consider the equilibrium for the metal ligand interaction:

90
Q.22 Ans. When propane nitrile is boiled with aqueous sodium hydroxide, sodium propionate is obtained,
which on treating with dilute HCl gives propionic acid.

Q.23 Ans.

Q.24 Ans.

91
Q.25 Ans.

Q.26 Ans. a – ii; b – iii; c – i

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Ans. Sulfuric acid is manufactured by contact process, which involves the following three steps.
Sulfur or sulfide ore such as iron pyrites on burning or roasting in air produces sulfur dioxide.

The reaction is exothermic and reversible and the forward reaction leads to decrease in volume.
Therefore, low temperature (720K) and high pressure (2 bar) are favourable conditions for maximum
yield of SO₃ .
Sulfur trioxide gas (from the catalytic converter) is absorbed in concentrated H₂ SO₄ to produce
oleum.
Dilution of oleum with water gives sulfuricacid of desired concentration.
SO₃ (g) + H₂ SO₄ → H₂ S₂ O₇
H₂ S₂ O₇ + H₂ O → 2H₂ SO₄
The sulphuric acid obtained by contact process is 96 - 98 % pure.

Q.28 Ans. Nucleic acid are unbranched Polymers of repeating monomers are called Nucleotides. In other
words nucleic acids have a polynucleotide structure. DNA molecules contains several million
nucleotides while RNA molecules contain a few thousand nucleotides. The nucleotides monomers
consist of three components: a monosaccharide, a nitrogen- containing base and a phosphate group.
Nucleotides of both RNA and DNA contain five-membered ring monosaccharide (furanose), often
called simply sugar components. In RNA, the sugar component of nucleotide unit is D- ribose, while
in DNA, it is 2- deoxy D- ribose. Total 5 nitrogen containing bases are present in nucleic acids.
Three bases with one ring(cytosine, uracil and thymine) are derived from the parent compound
pyrimidine. Two bases with rings are derived from the parent compound purine. Each base is
designated by one letter symbol uracil occurs only in RNA while thymine occurs only in DNA.

92
Q.29 Ans.

Ans.

Q.30 Ans. Reaction for the enthalpy of formation of NH₃ (g) is

½ N₂ (g) + (3/2)H₂ (g) → NH₃ (g)
∆fH° = –92.4 / 2 = – 46.2 kJ mol⁻ ¹.

Ans. ∆H = ∆U + ∆ng RT
∆H = 40.66 kJ/mol
∆ng = 1 – 0 = 1
∆U = ∆H − ∆ng RT
= 40660 – [1 × 8.3 × 373]
= 37564.1 J
= 37.56 KJ

93
Q.31 Ans.

94
 PAPER - 2
Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Which one is an example of amorphous solid:

a. Calcium fluoride b. Salt c. Cesium chloride d. Glass

(ii) The state of a gas can be described by quoting the relationship between
a. pressure, volume, temperature
b. temperature, amount, pressure
c. amount, volume, temperature
d. pressure, volume, temperature, amount

(iii) The first ionization energies of the elements of the first transition series (Ti → Cu)
a. Increase as the atomic number increase
b. Decrease as the atomic number increase
c. Do not show any change as the addition of electrons takes place in the inner (n–1)d orbitals
d. Increase from Ti to Mn and then decrease from Mn to Cu

(iv) According to VBT, which type of bond is present between the ligand and the central metal atom?
a. Covalent bond b. Ionic bond
c. Co-ordinate bond d. Hydrogen bonds

(v) Each pair forms ideal solution except

a. C₂ H₅ Br and C₂ H₅ I
b. C₆ H₅ Cl and C₆ H₅ Cl
c. C₆ H₆ and C₆ H₅ CH₃
d. C₂ H₅ I and C₂ H₅ OH

(vi) Which property of lotus plant make it an example of self-cleaning materials?

a. Superhydrophobic b. Super hydrophilic
c. Nano fibers d. Plates and networks

(vii) Which statement is incorrect?

a. Phenol is a weak acid
b. Phenol is an aromatic compound
c. Phenol liberates CO₂ from NaHCO₃ solution
d. Phenol is soluble in NaOH

(viii) Which of the following can form zwitter ion?

a. Acetanilide b. Benzamide
c. Sulphanilic acid d. Benzene diazonium chloride.

95
 (ix) ∆U of combustion of methane is – X kJ/mol. The value of ∆H is
a. = ∆U b. > ∆U c. < ∆U d. 0

(x) Which of the following acid present in lemons?

a. Acetic acid b. Citric acid
c. Oxalic acid d. Succinic acid

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) What types of membranes are used in reverse osmosis? Name one such membrane.

(ii) If the enthalpy change of a reaction is ∆H how will you calculate entropy
of surroundings?

(iii) Consider the complexes [Cu(NH₃ )₄ ][PtCl₄ ] and [Pt(NH₃ )₄ ] [CuCl₄ ]. What type of isomerism
these two complexes exhibit?

(iv) Write the reactions involved in the sol-gel process.

(v) What is freon? How is it prepared?

(vi) Explain the term homopolymers.

(vii) What is the full form of DNA?

(viii) Ammonia serves as a Lewis base whereas AlCl₃ is Lewis acid. Explain.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 The vapour pressure of pure benzene (molar mass 78 g/mol) at a certain temperature is 640 mm Hg.
A non-volatile solute of mass 2.315 g is added to 49 g of benzene. The vapour pressure of the solution
is 600 mm Hg. What is the molar mass of solute?

Q.4 Estimate the standard enthalpy of combustion of CH₄ (g) if ∆fH° (CH₄ ) = -74.8 kJ mol¯¹, ∆fH°
(CO₂ ) = -393.5 kJ mol¯¹ and ∆fH° (H₂ O) = -285.8 kJ mol¯¹

Q.5 A reaction takes place in two steps,

1. NO(g) + Cl₂ (g) → NOCl₂ (g)
2. NOCl₂ (g) + NO(g) → 2 NOCl(g)
a. Write the overall reaction. b. Identify reaction intermediate. c. What is the molecularity of each
step?

Q.6 Give two uses of chlorine.

Q.7 Explain the relation between ionic product and solubility product to predict whether a precipitate will
form when two solutions are mixed?

Q.8 Name the product obtained by reacting toluene with carbon monoxide and hydrogen chloride in
presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride.

Q.9 Write structural formulae for: 1-Ethylcyclohexanol

96
Q.10 One mole of a purple coloured complex CoCl₃ and NH₃ on treatment with excess AgNO₃
produces two moles AgCl. Write the formula of the complex if the coordination number of Co is 6.

Q.11 Complete the following statements

a. Caprolactam is used to prepare--------
b. Novolak is a copolymer of -------- and ---------
c. Terylene is ----------polymer of terephthalic acid and ethylene glycol.
d. Benzoyl peroxide used in addition polymerisation acts as ----------
e. Polyethene consists of polymerised ------------

Q.12 Define the term: Nano chemistry

Q.13 Convert the following: 2-Chloropropane to propan-1-ol

Q.14 Calculate the pH of 0.01 M sulphuric acid.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Arrange the following carboxylic acids with increasing order of their acidic strength and justify your
answer.

Q.16 Calculate the emf of the following cell at 25°C.

Q.17 Explain the trend in following atomic properties of group 16 elements.

i. Atomic radii ii. Ionisation enthalpy iii. Electronegativity.

Q.18 Give the similarities and differences in elements of 3d, 4d and 5d series.

Q.19 An organic compound gives hydrogen on reaction with sodium metal. It forms an aldehyde having
molecular formula C₂ H₄ O on oxidation with pyridinium chlorochromate Name the compounds and
give equations of these reactions.

Q.20 Derive the expression for the maximum work.

Q.21 Write reaction showing conversion of Acetaldehyde into acetaldehyde dimethyl acetal.

Q.22 Draw geometric isomers and enantiomers of the following complexes.

Q.23 What is the action of acetic anhydride on ethylamine, diethylamine and triethylamine ?

97
Q.24 3.795 g of sulphur is dissolved in 100 g of carbon disulfide. This solution boils at 319.81 K. What is
the molecular formula of sulphur in solution? The boiling point of the solvent is 319.45 K. (Given that
Kb for CS₂ = 2.42 K kg molˉ¹ and atomic mass of S = 32 u

Q.25 Draw a neat diagram for the following: One purine base from nucleic acid

Q.26 Bond dissociation enthalpy of F₂ (158.8 KJ mol¯¹) is lower than that of Cl₂ (242.6 KJ mol¯¹) Why
?

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Explain graphically the effect of catalyst on the rate of reaction.

Q.29 Aluminium crystallizes in cubic close packed structure with unit cell edge length of 353.6 pm. What
is the radius of Al atom? How many unit cells are there in 1.00 cm³ of Al? (125 pm, 2.26×10²²)

If NaCl is doped with 10⁻ ³ mol of SrCl₂ , what is the concentration of cation vacancies?

Q.30

The emf of Zn – Cu cell is 1.1 V at 298 K. Calculate equilibrium constant of the reaction.

Q.31 Primary allylic and primary benzylic halides show higher reactivity by S N1 mechanism than other
primary alkyl halides. Explain.

-------- All the Best --------

98
 Paper 2
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. d

(ii) Ans. d

(iii) Ans. d

(iv) Ans. c

(v) Ans. d

(vi) Ans. a

(vii) Ans. c

(viii) Ans. c

(ix) Ans. c

(x) Ans. b

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. The pressures required for reverse osmosis are quite high. Hence, membranes which can withstand
high pressures are used. Semipermeable membrane like animal skin.

(ii) Ans. If ∆H is the enthalpy change accompanying a reaction the enthalpy

change of the surroundings is −∆H.
∆Ssurr = − ∆H/T

(iii) Ans. Coordination isomerism.

(iv) Ans. MOR + H₂ O → MOH + ROH (Hydrolysis)

MOH + ROM → M-O-M + ROH (Condensation)

(v) Ans. The organic compound, CCl₂ F₂ , is known as freon. It is non-toxic, non-flammable, highly stable
easily liquefiable, volatile liquid. It is widely used in refrigeration and air conditioning. It can be
prepared by action of antimony fluoride on carbon tetrachloride.

99
 (vi) Ans. The Polymers which have only one type of repeating unit are called homopolymers.

(vii) Ans. Deoxyribonucleic acid

(viii) Ans. Ammonia is electron pair donor as it contains one lone pair on it. So it serves as a Lewis base
whereas in AlCl₃ , Al contains incomplete octet, which is electron pair acceptor. So serves as
Lewis acid.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans.

Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 An (a) The overall reaction is as follows.

s.2NO (g) + Cl₂ (g) → 2NOCl (g)
(b) NOCl₂ is the intermediate in this reaction.
(c) The molecularity of both steps is 2.

Q.6 An Chlorine is use in the purification or sterilization of drinking water.

s.It is also used for bleaching wood pulp required for manufacture of paper and
rayon, bleaching cotton and textiles.

Q.7 An Ionic condition of an electrolyte is defined in the same way as solubility product
s.(Ksp). The only differences that the ionic product expression contains
concentration of ions under any condition whereas expression of Ksp contains
only equilibrium concentrations. If
a. IP = Ksp; The solution is saturated and solubility equilibrium exists.
b. IP > Ksp; The solution is supersaturated and precipitation of the compound will
occur.
b. IP < Ksp; The solution is unsaturated and precipitation of the compound will
not occur.

100
Q.8 An
s.

Q.9 An
s.

Q.1 An
0 s.

Q.1 An a. Nylon 6.
1 s.b. Phenol , formaldehyde.
c. Condensation.
d. An initiator
e. ethylene units.

Q.1 An It is the combination of chemistry and nanoscience. It deals with designing and
2 s.synthesis of materials of nanoscale with different size shape, structure and
composition and their organization into functional architectures.

Q.1 An
3 s.

Q.1 An [H⊕] = 2 × 0.01 M = 0.02 = 2 × 10⁻² M (it is a dibasic acid).

4 s.pH = −log10 [H⊕]
pH = −log10 [2 × 10⁻²]
pH = 2 – 0.3010 = 1.699
pH of 0.01 M sulphuric acid is 1.7.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.1 An
5 s.

101
Q.1 An
6 s.

Q.1 An i. Atomic radii-Atomic radius increases while moving from oxygen to polonium.
7 s.This is due to the addition of one new shell at each element down the group.
O < S < Se < Te < Po
ii. Ionisation enthalpy- The ionisation energy of group-16 elements are quite high.
Due to their high ionisation enthalpies, it is extremely difficult to remove
electrons from the atoms of these elements. This is due to the elements of group-
16 are smaller in size and have effective nuclear charge.
iii. Electronegativity of group-16 elements decreases gradually from oxygen (3.5)
to polonium (2.0). This is due to the increase of the atomic radii in going down the
group from O to Po.
O > S > Se > Te > Po

Q.1 An Similarities-
8 s.(i) They all are lustrous and shining.
(ii) They have high melting point
(iii) They are good reducing agents
(iv) They all are electropositive in nature.
Differences
(i) +2 and +3 oxidation states are quite stable for 3d series only
(ii) The first ionization enthalpies of 5d series is higher than 3d and 4d series.

Q.1 An
9 s.

102
Q.2 An
0 s.

Q.2 An
1 s.

103
Q.2 An
2 s.

Q.2 An
3 s.

Q.2 An
4 s.

104
Q.2 An
5 s.

Q.2 An Fluorine has small atomic size than chlorine. The lone pairs on each F atoms in
6 s.F₂ molecule are so close together that they strongly repel each other, and make
the F - F bond weak (figure) Thus it requires less amount of energy to break the F
- F bond. In Cl₂ molecule the lone pairs on each Cl atom are at a larger distance
and the repulsion is negligible. Thus Cl - Cl bond is comparitively stronger.
Therefore bond dissociation enthalpy of F₂ is lower than that of Cl₂ .

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

105
Q.2 An
7 s.

Q.2 An In ccp lattice,

9 s.r = √2 a/4 = 0.3535 a
= 124.99 pm = 1.25 × 10⁻ ⁸ cm
Volume = (4 π/3) (1.25 × 10⁻ ⁸ )³
= 8.177 × 10⁻ ²⁴
Number of unit cell = 1/(8.177 × 10⁻ ²⁴ )
= 1.22 × 10²³

An Doping of NaCl with 10⁻ ³ mol of SrCl₂ means that 100 moles of NaCl are
s.doped with 10⁻ ³ mol of SrCl₂ .
∴ 1 mole of NaCl is doped with SrCl₂ = 10⁻³/100 mole = 10⁻⁵
mole
Each Sr²⁺ introduces one cation vacancy,
Therefore, concentration of cation vacancies = 10⁵ mole/mole of NaCl
= 10⁻ ⁵ × 6⋅ 023 × 10²³ mol⁻ ¹
= 6⋅023 × 10¹⁸ mol.

106
Q.3 An
0 s.

An
s.

Q.3 An
1 s.

107
 PAPER - 3
Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) The coordination number of atoms in bcc crystal lattice is

a. 2 b. 4 c. 6 d. 8

(ii) The relation between ΔU and ΔH is

a. ΔH = ΔU − ΔPV b. ΔH = ΔU + ΔPV c. ΔU = ΔH + ΔV d. ΔU = ΔH + ΔPV

(iii) Select the one which is not a characteristic of rate constant.

a. Higher the value of rate constant faster will be the reaction.
b. The value of rate constant is different for different reactions.
c. The value of rate constant for the same reaction changes with temperature.
d. The value of rate constant depends on the concentrations of reactants.

(iv) Which of the following statement is NOT correct for 0.1 M urea solution and 0.05 M sucrose
solution?
a. osmotic pressure exhibited by urea solution is higher than that exhibited by sucrose solution
b. urea solution is hypertonic to sucrose solution
c. they are isotonic solutions
d. sucrose solution is hypotonic to urea solution

(v) Which of the following has one lone pair of electrons ?

a. IF₃ b. ICl c. IF₅ d. ClF₃

(vi) Which of the following is dihydric alcohol?

a. Glycerol b. Catechol c. Ethylene glycol d. All the above

(vii) In which of the following series all the elements are radioactive in nature
a. Lanthanides b. Actinides c. d-block elements d. s-block elements

(viii) Acetylcholine is a
a. Primary amine b. Secondary amine c. Tertiary amine d. quaternary ammonium salt

(ix) R−OH + HX → R−X + H₂O

a. Tertiary < secondary > primary b. Tertiary < seconadry < primary
c. Tertiary > secondary > primary d. Secondary < tertiary < primary

(x) Which metal is used to make alloy steel for armor plates, safes, and helmets
a. Al b. Cr c. Mn d. Pb

108
Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Is the formation of a non-ideal solution showing positive deviation from Raoult’s Law endothermic
or exothermic?

(ii) A reaction is 50% complete in 3hrs and 75% complete in 6 hrs. What is the order of reaction?

(iii) What is meant by the term ‘coordination number’?

(iv) Arrange the following in order of increasing boiling point: C₂ H₅ Br, C₂ H₅ I, C₂ H₅ Cl.

(v) Write name of the electrophile used in Kolbe’s Reaction.

(vi) Classify the following polymers as straight chain, branched chain and cross linked polymers.

(vii) Cerium and Terbium behaves as good oxidising agents in +4 oxidation state. Explain.

(viii) Name the monomer units of terylene.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Consider, A + B → P. If the concentration of A is doubled with [B] being constant, the rate of the
reaction doubles. If the concentration of A is tripled and that of B is doubled, the rate increases by a
factor 6. What is order of the reaction with respect to each reactant ? Determine the overall order of
the reaction.

Q.4 Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of divalent cation of a transition metal with atomic number
25.

Q.5 Write two points of difference between properties of phenol and ethyl alcohol.

109
Q.6 Explain the effect of dilution of solution on conductivity?

Q.7 Match the following pairs.

Name of polymer Monomer
1. Teflon a. CH₂ = CH₂
2. PVC b. CF₂ = CF₂
3. Polyester c. CH₂ = CHCl
4. Polythene d. C₆ H₅ OH and HCHO
5. Bakelite e. Dicarboxylic acid and polyhydoxyglycol

Q.8 What is the action of hydrazine on cyclopentanone in presence of ----. KOH in ethylene glycol?

Q.9 Give the full form (long form) of the names for following instruments.
a. XRD b. TEM. c. STM d. FTIR e. SEM

Q.10

Q.11 Give the reagents and conditions necessary to prepare phenol from
a. Chlorobenzene
b. Benzene sulfonic acid.

Q.12 Describe thermal properties of nanoparticles in detail.

Q.13 Convert the following: Aniline to chlorobenzene

Q.14 A reaction takes place in two steps,

1. NO(g) + Cl₂ (g) → NOCl₂ (g)
2. NOCl₂ (g) + NO(g) → 2 NOCl(g)
a. Write the overall reaction. b. Identify reaction intermediate. c. What is the molecularity of each
step?

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 What are anode and cathode for Leclanche' dry cell ? Write electrode reactions and overall cell
reaction when it generates electricity.

Q.16 The unit cell of metallic silver is fcc. If radius of Ag atom is 144.4 pm, calculate (a) edge length of
unit cell (b) volume of Ag atom, (c) the percent of the volume of a unit cell, that is occupied by Ag
atoms, (d) the percent of empty space.

Q.17 Explain the trend in following atomic properties of group 16 elements.

i. Atomic radii ii. Ionisation enthalpy iii. Electronegativity.

Q.18 Sulfides of cation of group II are precipitated in acidic solution (H₂ S + HCl) whereas sulfides of
cations of group IIIB are precipitated in ammoniacal solution of H₂ S. Comment on the relative
values of solubility product of sulfides of these.

Q.19 Obtain the relation between ∆G and ∆Stotal. Comment on spontaneity of the reaction.

110
Q.20 Give the similarities and differences in elements of 3d, 4d and 5d series.

Q.21 What are cationic, anionic and neutral complexes? Give one example of each.

Q.22 Arrange the following carboxylic acids with increasing order of their acidic strength and justify your
answer.

Q.23 What is the action of acetic anhydride on ethylamine, diethylamine and triethylamine ?

Q.24 Ksp of Mg(OH)₂ is 10⁻ ¹¹. At what pH precipitation of Mg(OH)₂ will begin from 0.1M Mg⁺ ²
solution?

Q.25 Write reaction showing conversion of Acetaldehyde into acetaldehyde dimethyl acetal.

Q.26 Distinguish between - SN1 and SN2 mechanism of substitution reaction ?

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Draw structures of XeF₆ , XeO₃ , XeOF₄ , XeF₂ .

Q.28 Write a short note on Sucrose.

Q.29 A decimolar solution of K₄ [Fe(CN)₆ ] is 50% dissociated at 300 K. Calculate the osmotic pressure
of solution. [R = 0⋅0821 L atm K⁻ ¹ mol⁻ ¹]

What will happen to the boiling point of a solution if the weight of the solute dissolved is doubled but
the weight of solvent taken is halved?

Q.30 Enthalpy of combustion of carbon to CO₂ is – 393•5 kJ mol⁻ ¹. Calculate the heat released upon
formation of 35.2 g of CO₂ from carbon and dioxygen gas.

2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂ , ∆H = –560 kJ

Two moles of CO and one mole of O₂ are taken in a container of volume 1L. They completely react
to form two moles of CO₂ . If the pressure in the vessel changes from 70 to 40 atm, find out the
magnitude of ∆U at 500K.

Q.31

-------- All the Best --------

111
 Paper 3
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. d

(ii) Ans. b

(iii) Ans. d

(iv) Ans. c

(v) Ans. c

(vi) Ans. c

(vii) Ans. b

(viii) Ans. d

(ix) Ans. c

(x) Ans. c

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. The formation of a non-ideal solution showing positive deviation from Raoult’s Law is
endothermic, i.e., heat is absorbed.

(ii) Ans. t(1/2) = 3 hrs

∵ 75% completion takes place in 6 hrs i.e., 3 half lives. Hence, t (1/2) is independent of initial
concentration. It is a first order reaction.

(iii) Ans. The number of nearest neighbors of an atom, ion or a molecule is called its coordination number. In
ionic crystals, the coordination number may be defined as the number of oppositely charged ions
surrounding a particular ion.

(iv) Ans. C₂ H₅ Cl < C₂ H₅ Br < C₂ H₅ I

(v) Ans. sodium phenoxide

112
 (vi) Ans. a. Branched chain polymers
b. Branched chain polymers
c. Cross linked polymers.

(vii) Ans. In aqueous solution, Ce⁺ ⁴ coverts to Ce⁺ ³ by gaining one electron. Hence, it behave like
oxidizing agents.

(viii) Ans. Ethylene glycol and Terephthalic acid

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans.

Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans. On dilution, degree of dissociation increases due to which total number of ions also increase. This
increase in total number of ions is not in proportion of dilution. Therefore, the number of ions per
unit volume of solution decreases. This results in decrease of conductivity with dilution of solution.

Q.7 Ans. 1. Teflon - b.CF₂ = CF₂

2. PVC - c. CH₂ = CHCl
3. Polyester - e. Dicarboxylic acid and Polyhydroxyglycol
4. Polythene - a. CH₂ = CH₂
5. Bakelite - d. C₆ H₅ OH and HCHO

113
Q.8 Ans. Cyclopentanone react with hydrazine to form its hydrazone, then this hydrazone reacts with KOH
and ethylene glycol to form cyclopentane. Conversion of hydrazine to alkane is known as Wolf
Kishner reduction.

Q.9 Ans. a. Xray diffraction

b. Transmission electron microscope
c. Scanning tunneling microscope
d. Fourier transform infrared spectroscopy
e. Scanning electron microscope

Q.10 Ans. As the electrode with more negative Eᵒ should be placed at anode & with more positive Eᵒ at
cathode for a working cell. So
Mn | Mn²⁺ || Co³⁺ | Co
Anode Cathode
EᵒCell = Eᵒcathode – Eᵒanode = 1.82 – (–1.18)
= +3.0 V

Q.11 Ans. a. aq. NaOH at 623 K temperature and 300 atm pressure
b. (i) NaOH at 523 K
(ii) dil.HCl

Q.12 Ans. The thermal properties i.e., melting point of nanomaterial changes drastically and depends on size.
Ex- Sodium clusters (Nan) of 1000 atoms appeared to melt at 288 K while cluster of 10000 atoms
melt at 303 K and bulk sodium melts at 371 K.

Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans. (a) The overall reaction is as follows.

2NO (g) + Cl₂ (g) → 2NOCl (g)
(b) NOCl₂ is the intermediate in this reaction.
(c) The molecularity of both steps is 2.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

114
Q.15 Ans.

Q.16 Ans.

115
Q.17 Ans. i. Atomic radii-Atomic radius increases while moving from oxygen to polonium. This is due to the
addition of one new shell at each element down the group.
O < S < Se < Te < Po
ii. Ionisation enthalpy- The ionisation energy of group-16 elements are quite high. Due to their high
ionisation enthalpies, it is extremely difficult to remove electrons from the atoms of these elements.
This is due to the elements of group-16 are smaller in size and have effective nuclear charge.
iii. Electronegativity of group-16 elements decreases gradually from oxygen (3.5) to polonium (2.0).
This is due to the increase of the atomic radii in going down the group from O to Po.
O > S > Se > Te > Po

Q.18 Ans. In qualitative analysis of cations of second group, H₂ S is passed in presence of HCl. Due to
common ion effect, ionisation of H₂ S decreases and less sulphide ions are obtained. These sulphide
ions are sufficient for the precipitation of second group cations in form of their sulphides due to
lower value of their solubility product (Ksp.). Here, III B group cations are not precipitated because
they required for exceeding their ionic product to their solubility products and higher sulphide ions
concentration due to their higher (Ksp.) which is not obtained here due to common ion effect. So
sulfides of cations of group III b are precipitated in ammonical solution of H₂ S.

Q.19 Ans.

Q.20 Ans. Similarities-

(i) They all are lustrous and shining.
(ii) They have high melting point
(iii) They are good reducing agents
(iv) They all are electropositive in nature.
Differences
(i) +2 and +3 oxidation states are quite stable for 3d series only
(ii) The first ionization enthalpies of 5d series is higher than 3d and 4d series.

116
Q.21 Ans. Cationic complexes:
A positively charged coordination sphere or a coordination compound having a positively charged
coordination sphere is called cationic sphere complex. For example: The cation [Zn(NH₃ )₄ ]²⁺ and
[Co(NH₃ )₅ Cl]SO₄ are cationic complexes.
Anionic sphere complexes:
A negatively charged coordination sphere or a coordination compound having negatively charged
coordination sphere is called anionic sphere complex. For example [Ni(CN)₄ ]²⁻ and K₃ [Fe(CN)₆ ]
have negatively charged coordination sphere.
Neutral sphere complexes:
A neutral coordination complex does not possess cationic and anionic sphere. [Pt(NH₃ )₂ Cl₂ ] have
neither cation not anion but are neutral sphere complexes.

Q.22 Ans.

Q.23 Ans.

Q.24 Ans. Mg(OH)₂ (s) ⇌ Mg⁺ ² (aq) + 2OH⁻ (aq)

Ksp = [Mg⁺ ²] [OH⁻ ]²
10⁻ ¹¹ = 0.1 × [OH⁻ ]²
[OH⁻ ]² = 10⁻ ¹⁰
[OH⁻ ] = 10⁻ ⁵
pOH = 5
pH = 14 − pOH = 14 – 5 = 9.

Q.25 Ans.

117
Q.26 Ans.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Ans.

Q.28 Ans. Sucrose is dextrorotatory (+66.5°). On hydrolysis with dilute acid for an enzyme called invertase
sucrose gives equimolar mixture of D-(+) glucose and D-(-) fructose.
Since the laevorotation of fructose is larger than the dextrorotation of glucose, the hydrolysis product
has net laevorotation. Hence hydrolysis of sucrose is also called inversion of sucrose, and the
product is called invert sugar. Structure of sucrose contains glycosidic linkage between C-1 of α-
glucose and C-2 β- fructose.

118
 Since the potential aldehyde and ketone groups of both the monosaccharide units are involved in
formation of the glycosidic bond. Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.

Q.29 Ans.

Ans.

119
Q.30 Ans. C(s) + O₂ (g) → CO₂ (g), ∆H = –393.5 kJ/mol
For CO₂ , 1 mol = 44 g
Heat released when 44 g CO₂ is formed = 393.5 kJ
Heat released when 35.2 g CO₂ is formed = [393.5/44] × 35.2
= 314.8 kJ

Ans. H = U + PV
∆U = ∆H – V∆P
= –560 + [1 × (70-40) × 0.1]
= –557 KJ
Absolute value = 557 KJ.

Q.31 Ans.

120
 PAPER - 4
Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) The simple cubic structure has which type of layering.

a. ABAB… type b. AAAA…. Type
c. ABCABC… type d. None of these

(ii) The enthalpy of formation for C₂ H₄ (g),

CO₂ (g) and H₂ O (l) at 25°C and 1 atm. Pressureare 52, –394 and –286 kJ mol⁻ ¹ respectively. The
enthalpy of combustion of C₂ H₄ (g) will be
a. +1412kJmol⁻ ¹ b. – 1412 kJ mol⁻ ¹ c. –1392kJmol⁻ ¹ d. + 1392 kJ mol⁻ ¹

(iii) Most stable oxidation state of Titanium is

a. +2 b. +3 c. +4 d. +5

(iv) Formula for the compound sodium hexacynoferrate (III) is

a. [NaFe(CN)₆ ] b. Na₂ [Fe(CN)₆ ] c. Na[Fe(CN)₆ ] d. Na₃ [Fe(CN)₆ ]

(v) Arrange
(i) NaNO₃ (ii) BaCl₂ (iii) K₃ [Fe(CN)₆ ] (iv) C₆ H₁ ₂ O₆
In increasing order of van’thoff factor
a. iv < ii < i < iii b. iv > i > ii > iii c. iv < iii < ii < i d. iv < I < ii < iii

(vi) The first listed of the 12 principles of green chemistry is ?

a. Prevent waste b. Catalysis c. Atom economy d. Benign solvents

(vii) Ethers are kept in air tight brown bottles because

a. Ethers absorb moisture b. Ethers evaporate readily
c. Ethers oxidise to explosive peroxide d. Ethers are inert

(viii) In the acetylation reaction the H- atom of an amine is replaced by

a. Acetyl group b. Alkyl group c. Amino group d. Carbonyl group

(ix) A sample of gas is compressed by an average pressure of 0.50 atmosphere so as to decrease its
volume from 400cm3 to 200cm3. During the process 8.00 J of heat flows out to surroundings.
Calculate the change in internal energy of the system.
a. 2.13 J b. 4.17 J c. 1.13 J d. 3.52 J

121
 (x) Example of basic buffer solution is
a. Sodium acetate and acetic acid
b. Ammonium chloride and ammonium hydroxide
c. Sulphuric acid and sodium sulphate
d. Sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Give an example of a solution that contains a gas dissolved in a liquid.

(ii) Is entropy an extensive or intensive property?

(iii) Name any one hexadentate ligand.

(iv) Give one example of bottom-up approach in synthesis of nanomaterials.

(v) Arrange the following in the increase order of boiling points

a. 1-Bromopropane
b. 2- Bromopropane
c. 1- Bromobutane
d. 1-Bromo-2-methylpropane

(vi) Name the polymer type in which following linkage is present.

-C-O-
||
O

(vii) Write a terms used for carbohydrates.

(viii) Name the acid present in vinegar.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 The solubility of N₂ gas in water at 25 °C and 1 bar is 6.85 × 10ˉ⁴ mol Lˉ¹. Calculate (a) Henry’s
law constant (b) molarity of N₂ gas dissolved in water under atmospheric conditions when partial
pressure of N₂ in atmosphere is 0.75 bar.

Q.4 Calculate ∆Stotal and state whether the reaction is spontaneous or nonspontaneous at 25 °C.
HgS(s) + O₂ (g) → Hg(l) + SO₂ (g),
∆H° = -238.6 kJ, ∆S° = +36.7 J K¯¹

Q.5 Distinguish between order and molecularity of a reaction.

Q.6 Fluorine shows only -1 oxidation state while other halogens show -1, +1, +3, +5 and +7 oxidation
states. Explain.

Q.7 Dissociation of HCN is suppressed by the addition of HCl. Explain.

Q.8 Write reaction showing conversion of ethanenitrile into ethanol.

Q.9 Write structural formulae for: Pentane-1,4-diol

122
Q.10 One mole of a purple coloured complex CoCl₃ and NH₃ on treatment with excess AgNO₃
produces two moles AgCl. Write the formula of the complex if the coordination number of Co is 6.

Q.11 Write main specialities of Buna-S, Neoprene rubber?

Q.12 Which nanomaterial is used in sunscreen lotion? Write its use.

Q.13 Give reasons: Reactions involving Grignard reagent must be carried out under anhydrous condition.

Q.14 Why is it necessary to add H₂ SO₄ while preparing the solution of CuSO₄ ?

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Write reaction showing the action of the following reagent on propanenitrile-
a) Dilute NaOH?
b) Dilute HCl?

Q.16 A conductivity cell containing 0.01M KCl gives at 25 °C the resistance of 604 ohms. The same cell
containing 0.001M AgNO₃ gives resistance of 6530 ohms. Calculate the molar conductivity of
0.001M AgNO₃ . [Conductivity of 0.01M KCl at 25 °C is 0.00141 Ω¯¹ cm¯¹]

Q.17 Why is there a large difference between the melting and boiling points of oxygen and sulfur?

Q.18 Give the similarities and differences in elements of 3d, 4d and 5d series.

Q.19 Ethyl isopropyl ether does not form on reaction of sodium ethoxide and isopropyl chloride.

i. What would be the main product of this reaction ?

ii. Write another reaction suitable for the preparation of ethyl isopropyl ether.

Q.20 Obtain the relation between ∆G and ∆Stotal. Comment on spontaneity of the reaction.

Q.21 Arrange the following carboxylic acids with increasing order of their acidic strength and justify your
answer.

Q.22 Draw geometric isomers and enantiomers of the following complexes.

123
Q.23 Explain Ammonolysis of alkyl halides.

Q.24 Which of following solutions will have maximum boiling point elevation and which have minimum
freezing point depression assuming the complete dissociation? (a) 0.1 m KCl (b) 0.05 m NaCl (c) 1m
AlPO₄ (d) 0.1 m MgSO₄

Q.25 Write the names and schematic representations of all the possible dipeptides formed from alanine,
glycine and tyrosine.

Q.26 Bond dissociation enthalpy of F₂ (158.8 KJ mol¯¹) is lower than that of Cl₂ (242.6 KJ mol¯¹) Why
?

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Explain graphically the effect of catalyst on the rate of reaction.

Q.29 An element has a bcc structure with unit cell edge length of 288 pm. How many unit cells and
number of atoms are present in 200 g of the element? (1.16×10²⁴ , 2.32×10²⁴ )

A metallic element has BCC structure and constituted atoms has radius of 250 pm. Calculate the edge
of unit cell.

Q.30 What current strength in amperes will be required to produce 2.4 g of Cu from CuSO₄ solution in 1
hour ? Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol¯¹.

Calculate mass of copper deposited when a current of 0.3 ampere is passed in aq solution of copper
sulphate for two hour.

Q.31 Primary allylic and primary benzylic halides show higher reactivity by S N1 mechanism than other
primary alkyl halides. Explain.

-------- All the Best --------

124
 Paper 4
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. b

(ii) Ans. c

(iii) Ans. c

(iv) Ans. d

(v) Ans. d

(vi) Ans. a

(vii) Ans. c

(viii) Ans. a

(ix) Ans. a

(x) Ans. b

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. Aerated water

(ii) Ans. Extensive.

(iii) Ans. EDTA

(iv) Ans. Synthesis of nanoparticles by colloidal dispersion.

(v) Ans. 2-bromopropane < 1-bromopropane < 1-bromo-2-mehtlypropane < 1-bromobutane

(vi) Ans. That polymer type is polyester.

(vii) Ans. Saccharides term used for carbohydrates.

(viii) Ans. Acetic acid.

125
 Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans.

Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans. Fluorine does not possess d-orbital in its valence shell, therefore, it cannot expand its octet as other
halogens do. Moreover, it has maximum electronegativity among all atoms. Therefore it shows only
negative oxidation states.

126
Q.7 Ans. The degree of dissociation of an electrolyte (weak) is suppressed by the addition of another
electrolyte
(strong) containing a common ion. This is termed as common ion effect. HCN is a weak electrolyte
and its ionization is suppressed in presence of a strong acid (HCl) (H⁺ ion as common ion).

Q.8 Ans.

Q.9 Ans.

Q.10 Ans.

Q.11 Ans. Buna –S :- It has high mechanical strength and has abrasion resistance.
Neoprene rubber :- Neoprene is particularly resistant to petroleum, vegetable oils, light as well as
heat.

Q.12 Ans. Sunscreen contains nanoparticles of Zinc oxide, ZnO and titanium dioxide, TiO₂ . These chemicals
protect the skin against harmful UV rays by absorbing or reflecting the light and prevent the skin
from damage.

Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans. While preparing the solution of CuSO₄ , it becomes turbid due to Cu(OH)₂ formation. When we
add H₂ SO₄ in it, it becomes clear due to shift of hydrolytic equilibrium to the left.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans. When propane nitrile is boiled with aqueous sodium hydroxide, sodium propionate is obtained,
which on treating with dilute HCl gives propionic acid.

127
Q.16 Ans.

Q.17 Ans. Oxygen exists as diatomic molecule (O₂ ) where as sulfur exists as polyatomic molecule (S₈ ).
The van der Waals forces of attraction between O₂ molecules are relatively weak owing to its much
smaller size.
The large van der Waals attractive forces in the S₈ molecules can be noticed because of large
molecular size. Therefore oxygen has low m.p. and b.p. as compared to sulfur.

Q.18 Ans. Similarities-

(i) They all are lustrous and shining.
(ii) They have high melting point
(iii) They are good reducing agents
(iv) They all are electropositive in nature.
Differences
(i) +2 and +3 oxidation states are quite stable for 3d series only
(ii) The first ionization enthalpies of 5d series is higher than 3d and 4d series.

Q.19 Ans.

128
Q.20 Ans.

Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans.

Q.23 Ans. When alkyl halide is heated with alcoholic solution of excess ammonia it undergoes nucleophilic
substitution reaction in which the halogen atom is replaced by an amino (-NH2) group to form
primary amine. This process of breaking of C-X bond by ammonia is known as ammonolysis. The
reaction is also known as alkylation of ammonia. The reaction is carried out in a sealed tube at 373K.
It may be noted that the primary amine obtained in the 1st step is stronger nucleophile than
ammonia. Hence, it further reacts with alkyl halide to form secondary and tertiary amines are finally
quaternary ammonium salt if NH3 is not used in large excess.

129
Q.24 Ans.

Q.25 Ans.

130
Q.26 Ans. Fluorine has small atomic size than chlorine. The lone pairs on each F atoms in F₂ molecule are so
close together that they strongly repel each other, and make the F - F bond weak (figure) Thus it
requires less amount of energy to break the F - F bond. In Cl₂ molecule the lone pairs on each Cl
atom are at a larger distance and the repulsion is negligible. Thus Cl - Cl bond is comparitively
stronger. Therefore bond dissociation enthalpy of F₂ is lower than that of Cl₂ .

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

131
Q.27 Ans.

Ans. In BCC structure of a metallic element, atoms touch each other along
the cross diagonal of cubic unit cell. If ‘a’ is the edge length, then
length of cross diagonal is a√3
Therefore, a√3 = 4r
a = (4/√3) r
= 577.37 pm

Q.30 Ans.

132
 Ans. Equivalent wt. of Cu = At.Wt./ Valency
= 63.5 / 2 = 31.75
Z for Cu = 31.75/96500
= 3.29 ×10⁻ ⁴ gC⁻ ¹
We know that,
W=ZIt
= 3.29 × 10⁻ ⁴ × 0.3 × 2× 3600
= 0.7106 g

Q.31 Ans.

133
 PAPER - 5
Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Which arrangement of electron describes ferrimagnetism

a. All electrons aligned in one direction
b. Equal electrons aligned in opposite direction
c. Unequal electrons aligned in opposite direction
d. None of the above

(ii) A gas absorbs 200J of heat and expands against the external pressure of 1.5 atm from a volume of 0.5
litre to 1.0 litre, Calculate the change in internal energy-
a. 124.25 J b. 224 J c. 114 J d. 154 J

(iii) Identify the correct order and unit of rate constant for the following reaction.
CH₃ COOC₂ H₅ + NaOH → CH₃ COONa + C₂ H₅ OH
a. Order = first, unit = s⁻ ¹
b. Order = Second, unit = L² mol⁻ ² s⁻ ²
c. Order = Second, unit = L mol⁻ ¹ s⁻ ¹
d. Order = third, unit = atm s⁻ ¹

(iv) For a solution of nonelectrolyte in water, the van’thoff factor is

a. always equal to 0 b. less than or equal to 1
c. always equal to 1 d. > 1 but < 2

(v) In pyrosulfurous acid oxidation state of sulfur is

a. Only +2 b. Only +4 c. +2 and +6 d. Only +6

(vi) For phenol, which of the following statement is correct?

a. It has higher boiling point than toluene
b. It has lower boiling point as compared to aromatic hydrocarbons of comparable molar mass
c. It is insoluble in water
d. It does not show acidic property

(vii) Transition elements exhibits variable valencies because they release electrons from the following
orbits
a. ns orbits
b. ns and np orbits
c. (n – 1)d orbit
d. (n – 1)d and ns orbits

134
 (viii) Azo-coupling is useful to make _________.
a. Dyes b. Fats c. Vitamins d. Proteins

(ix) Which of the following is used in fire extinguishers

a. CCl₄ b. CH₃ Cl c. CH₂ Cl₂ d. CH₄

(x) The important ore of iron is

a. Siderite b. Haematite c. Pyrites d. Bauxite

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Define colligative property of a solution.

(ii) For a reaction, Ea = 0 and k = 3.7 × 10⁵ s⁻ ¹ at 310K, what would be the value of k at 320K?

(iii) Why do solids have definite volume?

(iv) Arrange the following in the order of decreasing polarity: CH₃ Br , CH₃ I , CH₃ Cl.

(v) How is the C — OH bond in phenol stabilised?

(vi) Write examples of Addition polymers and condensation polymers.

(vii) Europium and xtterbium behave as good reducing agents in +2 oxidation state explain.

(viii) Give one example each of copolymer and homopolymer.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 What is the energy of activation of a reaction whose rate constant doubles when the temperature
changes from 303 K to 313 K?

Q.4 Calculate the spin only magnetic moment of divalent cation of a transition metal with atomic number
25.

Q.5 Write structural formulae for: Cyclohex-2-en-1-ol

Q.6 Write electrode reactions for the electrolysis of aqueous NaCl.

Q.7 Name and draw structure of the repeating unit in natural rubber.

Q.8 Write reaction showing conversion of Benzonitrile into benzoic acid.

Q.9 How will you illustrate the principle, minimization of steps?

Q.10 The standard potential of the electrode, Zn2⊕ (0.02 M) |Zn (s) is - 0.76 V. Calculate its potential.

Q.11 Write the reaction showing major and minor products formed on heating butan-2-ol with
concentrated sulfuric acid.

Q.12 What is nano pollution ?

135
Q.13 Give reasons: Reactions involving Grignard reagent must be carried out under anhydrous condition.

Q.14 Distinguish between order and molecularity of a reaction.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Write the electrode reactions and net cell reaction in NICAD battery.

Q.16 Niobium forms bcc structure. The density of niobium is 8.55 g/cm³ and length of unit cell edge is
330.6 pm. How many atoms and unit cells are present in 0.5 g of niobium?

Q.17 How are xenon fluorides XeF₂ , XeF₄ and XeF₆ obtained ? Give suitable reactions.

Q.18 Derive the relation pH + pOH = 14.

Q.19 Obtain the relationship between ∆G° of a reaction and the equilibrium
constant.

Q.20 What are the differences between cast iron, wrought iron and steel.

Q.21 Draw isomers in each of the following

Q.22 Write reaction showing the action of the following reagent on propanenitrile-
a) Dilute NaOH?
b) Dilute HCl?

Q.23 What is diazotisation ? Write diazotisation reaction of aniline.

Q.24 A weak mono acidic base is 10% dissociated in 0.05 M solution. Evaluate the percent dissociation in
0.10M solution.

Q.25 What is the action of the following reagents on toluene ?

a. Alkaline KMnO₄ , dil. HCl and heat
b. CrO₂ Cl₂ in CS₂
c. Acetyl chloride in presence of anhydrous AlCl₃ .

Q.26 Explain - Optical isomerism racemic mixture of 2-chlorobutane

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Describe the structure of Ozone. Give two uses of ozone.

Q.28 Explain the secondary structure of protein.

136
Q.29 15.0 g of an unknown molecular material was dissolved in 450 g of water. The resulting solution was
found to freeze at –0.34 °C. What is the molar mass of this material? (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol⁻ )

(a) A solution containing 15 g urea (M.M. = 60 g/mol) per litre of solution in water has the same
osmotic pressure (isotonic) as a solution of glucose (M.M. = 180 g/mol) in water. Calculate the mass
of glucose present in one litre of its solution.
(b) Blood cells are isotonic are 0.9% sodium chloride solution. What happens when we place blood
cells in a solution containing
(i) 1.2% sodium chloride solution?
(ii) 0.4% sodium chloride solution?

Q.30 Calculate ∆H for the transformation of one gram atom of rhombic

sulphur into monoclinic sulphur.
(a) S(rhombic) + O₂ (g) → SO₂ (g), ∆H= –297.5 kJ/mol
(b) S(monoclinic) + O₂ (g) → SO₂ (g), ∆H = –300 kJ/mol

2CO + O₂ → 2CO₂ , ∆H = –560 kJ

Two moles of CO and one mole of O₂ are taken in a container of volume 1L. They completely react
to form two moles of CO₂ . If the pressure in the vessel changes from 70 to 40 atm, find out the
magnitude of ∆U at 500K.

Q.31

-------- All the Best --------

137
 Paper 5
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Chemistry Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. c

(ii) Ans. d

(iii) Ans. c

(iv) Ans. c

(v) Ans. d

(vi) Ans. a

(vii) Ans. d

(viii) Ans. a

(ix) Ans. a

(x) Ans. b

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. A colligative property of a solution is that property which depends only on the number of particles
of solute dissolved in the solvent and not on the nature of solute.

(ii) Ans. As Ea = 0, the reaction is very fast in nature and thus, the value of k remains almost constant, i.e.,
3.7 × 10⁵ s⁻ ¹.

(iii) Ans. In solids intermolecular forces between the constituent particles are very strong. Therefore, they are
strongly held at fixed positions and particles cannot separate from one another. Hence solids have
definite volume.

(iv) Ans. CH₃ Cl is most polar and CH₃ I is least polar as Cl is most electronegative and iodine is least
electronegative. CH₃ Cl > CH₃ Br > CH₃ I.

(v) Ans. The C — OH bond in phenol stabilised due to resonance in phenol molecule, C — O bond acquires
double bond character and gets stabilised.

138
 (vi) Ans. Addition polymers :- PVC, Polythene.
Condensation polymers :- Terylene, Nylon

(vii) Ans. In aqueous solution, Eu⁺ ² readily changes to Eu⁺ ³, which makes it a good reducing agents.

(viii) Ans. Copolymer – Buna-N, Buna –S

Homo polymer – PVC, Orlon

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans.

Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans.

Q.7 Ans.

139
Q.8 Ans.

Q.9 Ans. In organic synthesis, we need very often protection of some functional groups. Finally, we again
need their deprotection. Obliviously, in such cases, atom economy is also less. The green chemistry
principle aims to develop the methodology where unnecessary steps should be avoided, if practicable
biocatalytic reactions very often need no protection of selective group.

Q.10 Ans.

Q.11 Ans.

Q.12 Ans. Nanotechnology has raised the standard of living but at the same time, it has increased the pollution
which includes air pollution. The pollution caused by nanotechnology is known as nano pollution.
This kind of pollution is very dangerous for living organism.

Q.13 Ans.

140
Q.14 Ans.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans.

Q.16 Ans.

Q.17 Ans. Xenon fluorides are prepared by direct reaction of xenon and fluorine in different ratios and
conditions, such as temperature, electric discharge and photochemical reaction.

141
Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans.

142
Q.20 Ans.

Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans. When propane nitrile is boiled with aqueous sodium hydroxide, sodium propionate is obtained,
which on treating with dilute HCl gives propionic acid.

143
Q.23 Ans. Diazotisation :- Aromatic amines react with nitrous acid in cold condition (273- 278K) forms
arenediazonium salts. The conversion of primary aromatic amines into diazonium salts is called as
diazotization.

Q.24 Ans.

Q.25 Ans.

144
Q.26 Ans. Individual molecule of 2-chlorobutane is optically active. It exits in two enantiomeric forms which
are non-superimposable mirror images of each other. In racemic mixture, both the isomers are
present in equal amounts. Therefore, it does not rotate the plane of polarized light and is optically
inactive.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Ans. Ozone (O₃ ) is an angular molecule in which two O–O bond lengths in the ozone molecule are
identical, 128 pm and the O–O–O bond angle of about 117°. It is a resonance hybrid of two
canonical forms.

145
 Ozone is used for air purification at crowded places like cinema halls, tunnels, railways, etc.
It is used in bleaching of delicate fabrics such as silk.

Q.28 Ans. The three-dimensional arrangement of localised regions of a protein

chain is called the secondary structure of protein. Hydrogen bonding
between N−H proton of one amide linkage and C=O oxygen of another
gives rise to secondary structure. Two types of secondary structures
commonly found in proteins are alpha helix and beta pleated sheet.
α-helix:- The α- helix is formed when a polypeptide chain twists into a right handed or clockwise
spiral. Myosin in muscle and α- keratin in hair are proteins with almost entire α- helical secondary
structure.

146
Q.29 Ans.

Ans. (a) for an isotonic solution,

π₁ = π₂
n₁ /v = n₂ /v
n₁ = n₂
15/60 = x/180
¼ = x/180
x = 45 g
(b) (i) shrink
(ii) swells

Q.30 Ans. On subtracting equation (i)−(ii)

∆H = 2.5 kJ/mol

147
 Ans. H = U + PV
∆U = ∆H – V∆P
= –560 + [1 × (70-40) × 0.1]
= –557 KJ
Absolute value = 557 KJ.

Q.31 Ans.

148
MATHEMATICS
 PAPER - 1
Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v) The angle between a line and a plane is given by the formula:

(vi) Find the slopes of the lines represented by 2x² + xy - y² + 2x - y = 0.

A) 2, 1 B) 1, -1 C) 2, -1 D) -2, 1

(vii)

(viii) What is the Symbol for existential quantifier.

A) ≡ B) ∃ C) ∀ D) ∈

149
Q.2 Answer the following: 4

(i) Glass care manufactures eyeglasses for different retailers. In April 2015, they tested to see how many
defective lenses they made, and there were 14% defective lenses due to scratches. Suppose Glass care
examined twenty eyeglasses.
Find A) Mean B) Variance C) Standard Deviation

(ii)

(iii) Urine culture test is being conducted in the pathology lab from the sample of a patient to prescribe a
suitable drug based on bacterial growth. There were 1000 bacteria in the initial sample and it had
increased to 1400 in the sample collected after one hour. Based on the exponential growth how long
will it take for the bacterial population to reach 5000.

(iv)

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3

Q.4 Find the perpendicular distance of the origin from the plane x – 3y + 4z – 6 = 0.

Q.5 Show that lines represented by x² + 4xy + 4y² = 0 are coincident.

Q.6 Find the general solution of the following equation: tan θ = - 1

Q.7 Integrate the following functions w. r. t. x.:

Q.8 Write the negations of the following: 3 + 3 < 5 or 5 + 5 = 9

Q.9 Find the adjoint of the following matrices:

Q.10 Using rules in logic, prove the following: p ↔ q ≡ ~ (p Λ ~ q) ∨ ~ (q Λ ~ p)

Q.11 Find the separate equation of lines represented by: x² – 4y² = 0

Q.12 Find the general solution of the following equation: tan³ θ = 3tan θ

Q.13 Write the negations of the following: 7 > 3 and 4 > 11

150
Q.14 Find the general solution of:

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Find the probability distribution of (i) number of heads in two tosses of a coin. (ii) Number of tails in
the simultaneous tosses of three coins. (iii) Number of heads in four tosses of a coin.

Q.16 Find the equation of tangents and normals to the curve at the point on it:

Q.17 Integrate the following function w. r. t. x.:

Q.18 Differentiate the following w. r. t. x.:

Q.19 Find the particular solution of the following differential equation:

Q.20 Find the distance of the point (1, 1, -1) from the plane 3x + 4y – 12z + 20 = 0.

Q.21

Q.22 Prove that tan¯¹ 1 + tan¯¹ 2 + tan¯¹ 3 = π

Q.23

Q.24

151
Q.25 Evaluate the following:

Q.26

Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

Q.27 Find the area of the region lying between the parabola: 4y² = 9x and 3x² = 16y

Q.28 Find the probability of throwing at most 2 sixes in 6 throws of a single die.

Q.29 The profit function P (x) of a firm, selling x items per day is given by P (x) = (150 − x)x − 1625. Find
the number of items the firm should manufacture to get maximum profit. Find the maximum profit.

Q.30 Evaluate:

Q.31 A firm manufacturing two types of electrical items A and B, can make a profit of Rs.20/- per unit of
A and Rs.30/- per unit of B. Both A and B make use of two essential components a motor and a
transformer. Each unit of A requires 3 motors and 2 transformers and each units of B requires 2
motors and 4 transformers. The total supply of components per month is restricted to 210 motors and
300 transformers. How many units of A and B should the manufacture per month to maximize profit?
How much is the maximum profit?

Q.32 Solve the following differential equation: dr + (2r cot θ + sin 2θ) dθ = 0

Q.33

Q.34

-------- All the Best --------

152
 PAPER 1
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i) Ans. D)

(ii) Ans. C)

(iii) Ans. B)

(iv) Ans. B)

(v) Ans. A)

(vi) Ans. C)

(vii) Ans. A)

(viii) Ans. B)

Q.2 Answer the following: 4

(i) Ans.

(ii) Ans.

153
 (iii) Ans.

(iv) Ans.

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans.

Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans. Comparing given equation with ax² + 2hxy + by² = 0, we get a = 1, h = 2 and b = 4. As, h² - ab =
(2)² - (1)(4)
=4-4=0
∴ lines represented by x² + 4xy + 4y² = 0 are coincident.

154
Q.6 Ans.

Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans.

Q.9 Ans.

Q.10 Ans. Consider,

RHS = ∼(p ∧∼q) ∧∼(q ∧∼p)
≡∼[(p ∧∼q) ∨ (q ∧∼p)] ....[Negation of disjunction]
≡∼[∼(p ↔ q)] ....[Negation of double implication]
≡ p ↔ q ....[Negation of negation] = LHS.
∴ p ↔ q ≡∼(p ∧∼q) ∧∼(q ∧∼p)

Q.11 Ans. x² – 4y² = 0

∴ (x – 2y)(x + 2y) = 0
Required separate equations are
x – 2y = 0 and x + 2y = 0

Q.12 Ans.

155
Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans.

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans.

156
157
Q.16 Ans.

Q.17 Ans.

158
Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans.

159
Q.20 Ans.

160
Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans.

161
Q.23 Ans.

Q.24 Ans.

162
Q.25 Ans.

Q.26 Ans.

Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

163
Q.27 Ans.

164
Q.28 Ans.

Q.29 Ans.

165
Q.30 Ans.

Q.31 Ans. Let, x be the numbers of A items and y be the numbers of y items.
Numbers of item cannot be negative.
So,
x, y ≥ 0
From the given,
x number of A items makes profit of 20x and y number of B items makes profit of 30y .
So, Total profit is given by,
z = 20x + 30y
Total supply of components per month is restricted to 210 motors and 300 transformers.
Each unit of A requires 3 motors and each unit of B requires 2 Motors.
So, In-equation for motors is written as,
3x + 2y ≤ 210
Each unit of A requires 2 transformers and each unit of B requires 4 transformers.
So, In-equation for Transformers is written as,
2x + 4y ≤ 300
So, L.P.P. to maximize the profit is formulated as,
z = 20x + 30y
3x + 2y ≤ 210
2x + 4y ≤ 300
x, y ≥ 0

166
167
Q.32 Ans.

Q.33 Ans.

168
Q.34 Ans.

169
 PAPER - 2
Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i) A box has 5 Red and 3 Blue shirts. One shirt is picked randomly and put in another box. The second
box has 3 Red and 5 Blue shirts. Now a shirt is picked from second box. What is the probability of it
being a Red shirt?

(ii)

(iii)

(iv) If two lines are non-parallel, the shortest distance between them is
A) Zero B) Perpendicular distance between them C) Can’t be obtained D) None of the above

(v)

(vi)

A) 0 B) –1 C) 1 D) 3

(vii)

A) 2 cosec² θ B) sec²θ C) cosec²θ D) 2 sec²⁡θ

170
 (viii)

Q.2 Answer the following: 4

(i) A constant electromotive force E volt is applied to a circuit containing a constant resistance R ohm in
series with a constant inductance L hernias. If the initial current is zero. What is the current in the
circuit at any time t?

(ii)
Evaluate:

(iii) What is Binomial Distribution?

(iv) What is the non-origin side of the line for a given inequation?

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Find the area of the region bounded by the following curve, the X−axis
and the given line: y = x² , x = 1, x = 2

Q.4 Construct the truth table for following statement pattern: (p Λ q) ↔ (q ∨ r)

Q.5

Q.6 In ∆ABC if a = 13, b = 14, c = 15 then find the values of: cos A

Q.7 Without using truth table prove that: ~ (p ∨ q) ∨ (~ p Λ q) ≡ ~ p

Q.8 Differentiate the following w. r. t. x.:

Q.9 Construct the truth table for following statement pattern: (q → p) ∨ (~ p ↔ q)

Q.10 In ∆ABC prove that a (b cos C – c cos B) = b² – c²

Q.11

171
Q.12 Write the truth values of the following statement: Milk is white if and only if the Sun rises in the
West.

Q.13 Find the general solution of the following equation:

Q.14

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Solve the following differential equation:

Q.16 Find the approximate value of given function, at required points:

Q.17 Evaluate the following:

Q.18

Q.19 Evaluate the following function:

Q.20 Solve the following L.P.P.: Maximize z = 2x + 3y subject to x - y ≥ 3, x ≥ 0,

y≥0

Q.21 Verify Lagrange's mean value theorem for the following function: f (x) =
2x − x², x ∈ [0, 1]

Q.22 Show that equation x² - 6xy + 5y² + 10x - 14y + 9 = 0 represents a pair of lines. Find the acute angle
between them. Also find the point of their intersection.

172
Q.23

Q.24 Find the combined equation of lines passing through the origin and each of which making angle 60°
with the Y- axis.

Q.25 Find the approximate value of: log₁ ₀ (1016) given that log₁ ₀ e = 0.4343

Q.26 Evaluate:

Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

Q.27 Differentiate the following w. r. t. x.:

Q.28 By computing the shortest distances determine whether following line intersect each other:

Q.29 Water is being poured into a vessel in the form of an inverted right circular cone of semi vertical
angle 45°c in such a way that the rate of change of volume at any moment is proportional to the area
of the curved surfaces which is wet at that moment. Initially, the vessel is full to a height of 2 cms.
And after 2 seconds the height becomes 10 cm. Show that after 3.5 seconds from that start, the height
of water will be 16 cms.

Q.30 Evaluate:

Q.31

Q.32 In a large school, 80% of the pupils like mathematics. A visitor to the school asks each of 4 pupils,
chosen at random, whether they like mathematics.
(i) Calculate the probabilities of obtaining an answer yes from 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 of the pupils
(ii) Find the probability that the visitor obtains the answer yes from at least 2 pupils:
(a) when the number of pupils questioned remains at 4
(b) when the number of pupils questioned is increased to 8.

Q.33 Find the adjoint of the following matrices:

173
Q.34

-------- All the Best --------

174
 PAPER 2
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i) Ans. C)

(ii) Ans. A)

(iii) Ans. D)

(iv) Ans. A)

(v) Ans. B)

(vi) Ans. C)

(vii) Ans. A)

(viii) Ans. B)

Q.2 Answer the following: 4

175
 (i) Ans.

(ii) Ans.

(iii) Ans. A binomial random variable is the number of successes x in n repeated trials of a binomial
experiment. The probability distribution of a binomial random variable is called a binomial
distribution.

(iv) Ans. A line divides a plane into two halves. The half-plane that doesn’t contain the origin (0,0) is called
the non-origin side of the line.

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans.

176
Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans.

Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans.

Q.9 Ans.

177
Q.10 Ans.

Q.11 Ans.

Q.12 Ans. Let p : Milk is white; q : Sun rises in the West.

Truth values of p and q are T and F respectively.
The given statement in symbolic form is p ↔ q
∴ p ↔ q ≡ T ↔ F is F
∴ Truth value of given statement is F

Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans.

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

178
Q.15 Ans.

Q.16 Ans.

179
Q.17 Ans.

Q.18 Ans.

180
Q.19 Ans.

Q.20 Ans.

181
 The shaded region from first quadrant is feasible region.
Z = 2x + 3y
Infinite number of optimum solution on line. x - y ≥ 3

Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans.

182
Q.23 Ans.

Q.24 Ans.

183
Q.25 Ans.

Q.26 Ans.

184
 Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

Q.27 Ans.

Q.28 Ans.

185
Q.29 Ans.

186
Q.30 Ans.

187
Q.31 Ans.

Q.32 Ans.

188
Q.33 Ans.

Q.34 Ans.

189
 PAPER - 3
Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i) Is the following sentence a statement in logic “The square of an even number is an odd number.”
A) It is a statement which is false, hence its truth value is F.
B) It is a statement which is true, hence its truth value is T.
C) It is a request hence it is not a statement.
D) It is an open sentence hence it is not a statement.

(ii) The line joining the points (–2, 1, –8) and (a, b, c) is parallel to the line whose direction ratios are 6,
2, 3. The value of a, b, c are

(iii)

(iv)

A) (1, 2, 3) B) (2, 3, 4) C) (1, 1, 1) D) (0, 0, 1)

(v)

(vi)

190
 (vii)

(viii)

Q.2 Answer the following: 4

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv) A binomial random variable with n = 15 and p = 0.4 and q = 0.6. Find mean, Variance and Standard
deviation.

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3

Find the principal value of the following:

Q.4 Find the general solution of: tan²θ = 1

Q.5 Without using truth table prove that: p ↔ q ≡ ~ (p Λ ~ q) Λ ~ (q Λ ~ p)

191
Q.6 Show that the following equation represents a pair of lines: x² +7xy - 2y² = 0

Q.7 Construct the truth table for following statement pattern: p → [~ (q Λ r)]

Q.8

Q.9 Write the truth values of the following statement: 3 is a prime number and 4 is a rational number.

Q.10 Integrate the following functions w. r. t. x:

Q.11
Find the principal value of the following:

Q.12 Find the value of k if the following equation represent a pair of line: kxy + 10x + 6y + 4 = 0

Q.13

Q.14 Let X represent the difference between number of heads and number of tails obtained when a coin is
tossed 6 times. What are possible values of X ?

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15

Q.16 Evaluate the following:

Q.17

Q.18 Using derivative prove:

Q.19 Find the general solution of the following equation:

192
Q.20

Q.21

Q.22 Water at 100°c cools in 10 minutes to 88°c in a room temperature of 25°c. Find the temperature of
water after 20 minutes.

Q.23 Differentiate the following w. r. t. x.:

Q.24 Evaluate:

Q.25 Show that f (x) = x − cos x is increasing for all x.

Q.26 Find the mean and variance of the number randomly selected from 1 to 15.

Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

Q.27

Q.28 Find the angle between the lines whose direction cosines are given by the equation 6mn – 2nl + 5lm
= 0, 3l + m + 5n = 0

Q.29 For the following differential equation find the particular solution satisfying the given condition:

Q.30 Formulate and solve the following Linear Programming Problem using graphical method: A
company manufactures bicycles and tricycles, each of which must be processed through two
machines A and B. Maximum availability of Machine A and B is respectively 120 and 180 hours.
Manufacturing a bicycle requires 6 hours on Machine A and 3 hours on Machine B. Manufacturing a
tricycles requires 4 hours on Machine A and 10 hours on Machine B. If profits are Rs.180/- for a
bicycle and Rs.220/- for a tricycle. Determine the number of bicycles and tricycles that should be
manufactured in order to maximize the profit.

Q.31

Evaluate:

193
Q.32 If water is poured into an inverted hollow cone whose semi-vertical angle is 30°, so that its depth
(measured along the axis) increases at the rate of 1 cm/ sec. Find the rate at which the volume of
water increasing when the depth is 2 cm.

Q.33 In a box of floppy discs it is known that 95% will work. A sample of three of the discs is selected at
random. Find the probability that
(i) none (ii) 1 (iii) 2 (iv) all 3 of the sample will work.

Q.34 Find the area of the region bounded by the straight line 2y = 5x + 7,
X−axis and x = 2, x = 5.

-------- All the Best --------

194
 PAPER 3
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i) Ans. A)

(ii) Ans. A)

(iii) Ans. A)

(iv) Ans. A)

(v) Ans. B)

(vi) Ans. A)

195
 (vii) Ans. A)

(viii) Ans. B)

Q.2 Answer the following: 4

(i) Ans.

(ii) Ans.

(iii) Ans.

(iv) Ans.

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans.

196
Q.4 Ans.

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans.

Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans.

197
Q.9 Ans. Let p : 3 is a prime number
q : 4 is a rational number.
Truth values of p and q are T and T respectively. The given statement in symbolic form is p Λ q.
The truth value of given statement is T.

Q.10 Ans.

Q.11 Ans.

Q.12 Ans.

Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans. When a coin is tossed up, possible outcomes are

S={6 tails and 0 heads, 5 tails and 1 heads, 4 tails and 2 heads, 3 tails and 3 heads, 2 tails and 4
heads, 1 tails and 5 heads, 0 tails and 6 heads}

198
 X = {0,2,4,6}

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans.

Q.16 Ans.

199
Q.17 Ans.

Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans.

Q.20 Ans.

200
Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans.

201
Q.23 Ans.

Q.24 Ans.

Q.25 Ans.

202
Q.26 Ans.

Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

Q.27 Ans.

203
Q.28 Ans.

204
Q.29 Ans.

205
Q.30 Ans. Company manufactures two types of vehicles, Bicycles and tricycles.
Let, x be the number of Bicycle and y be the number of tricycle.
x and y cannot be negative, x, y ≥ 0
z be the profit function.
Profit by x number of bicycle is 180x and profit by y number of tricycle is 220y.
Therefore, Total profit,
Z = 180x + 220y
By using Machine A,
Manufacturing a bicycles requires 6 hours and manufacturing tricycles requires 4 hours.
Maximum availability of machine A is120 hours.
6x + 4y ≤ 120
By using Machine B,
Manufacturing a bicycles requires 3 hours and manufacturing tricycles requires 10 hours.
Maximum availability of machine B is180 hours.
3x + 10y ≤ 180

206
Q.31 Ans.

Q.32 Ans.

207
Q.33 Ans.

208
Q.34 Ans.

209
 PAPER - 4
Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

(v)

(vi)

210
 (vii)

A) 9p² = 4q² B) 4p² = 9q² C) 9p = 4q D) 4p = 9q

(viii) What type of sentence is this, “Physics is an interesting subject.”

A) Interrogative B) Exclamatory C) Open sentence D) Suggestion

Q.2 Answer the following: 4

(i) What are the conditions for using Binomial distributions.

(ii)

(iii) Find order and degree of the following differential equation:

(iv) Find the general solutions of the following equation: tan² θ = 3

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Verify if the following function is p.d.f. of a continuous r.v. X.

Q.4 Find the vector equation of the plane which makes intercepts 1, 1, 1 on the co-ordinates axes.

Q.5 Find k if: The sum of slopes of the lines given by x² + kxy - 3y² = 0 is equal to their product.

Q.6 If cos¯¹ x + cos¯¹ y + cos¯¹ z = 3π then show that x² + y² + z² + 2xyz = 1

Q.7 Evaluate:

Q.8 Without using truth table prove that: ~ p Λ q ≡ (p ∨ q) Λ ~ p

Q.9 Solve the following equation by inversion method: 2x + 6y = 8, x + 3y = 5

211
Q.10 Rewrite the following statement without using if...... then: If it is cold, then we wear woollen clothes.

Q.11 Show that lines represented by 3x² - 4xy - 3y² = 0 are perpendicular to each other.

Q.12 In ∆ABC, if a = 18, b = 24, c = 30 then find the value of: sin A

Q.13 Using rules of negation write the negations of the following with justification: p ∨ ~ q

Q.14

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Two cards are drawn simultaneously (or successively without replacement) from a well shuffled pack
of 52 cards. Find the mean, variance and standard deviation of the number of kings drawn.

Q.16 Find the equation of tangents & normals to the curve at the point on it:

Q.17
Integrate the following functions w. r. t. x.:

Q.18 Differentiate the following w. r. t. x.:

Q.19 Form the differential equation of family of circles above the X-axis and touching the X-axis at the
origin.

Q.20

Q.21

Q.22

Q.23 Differentiate the following w. r. t. x.:

Q.24 Prove by vector method that the angle subtended on semicircle is a right angle.

Q.25 Evaluate:

212
Q.26

Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

Q.27 Find the area of the region lying between the parabola: y² = 4x and x² = 4y

Q.28 The probability that a bulb produced by a factory will fuse after 150 days of use is 0.05. Find the
probability that out of 5 such bulbs
(i) none (ii) not more than one (iii) more than one (iv) at least one will fuse after 150 days
of use.

Q.29 The perimeter of a triangle is 10 cm. If one of the side is 4 cm. What are the other two sides of the
triangle for its maximum area ?

Q.30 Evaluate:

Q.31 Solve graphically: x + y ≥ 6 and x + 2y ≤ 10

Q.32 Solve the following differential equation:

Q.33 If the three points A(3, 2, p), B(q, 8, -10), C(-2, -3, 1) are collinear then find
(i) the ratio in which the point C divides the line segment AB, (ii) the vales of p and q.

Q.34 Find the inverse of the following matrices by the adjoint method:

-------- All the Best --------

213
 PAPER 4
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i) Ans. A)

(ii) Ans. B)

(iii) Ans. A)

(iv) Ans. C)

(v) Ans. B)

(vi) Ans. B)

214
 (vii) Ans. A)

(viii) Ans. C)

Q.2 Answer the following: 4

(i) Ans. 1. Fixed number of trials

2. Independent trials
3. Two different classifications
4. The probability of success stays the same for all trials

(ii) Ans.

(iii) Ans.

(iv) Ans.

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans.

Q.4 Ans.

215
Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans. 0 ≤ cos⁻¹x ≤ π and

cos⁻ ¹x + cos⁻ ¹y + cos⁻ ¹z = 3π
∴ cos⁻ ¹x = π, cos⁻ ¹y = π and cos⁻ ¹z = π
∴ x = y = z = cosπ = - 1
∴ x² + y² + z² + 2xyz
= (-1)² + (-1)² + (-1)² + 2(-1) (-1) (-1)
=1+1+1–2
= 3 – 2 = 1.

Q.7 Ans.

Q.8 Ans.

216
Q.9 Ans.

Q.10 Ans. Let p : It is cold, q : We wear woollen clothes.

The given statement is p → q
but p → q ≡ ~ p ∨ q
The given statement can be written as
It is not cold or we wear woollen clothes.

Q.11 Ans. Comparing given equation with ax² + 2hxy + by² = 0 we get a = 3, h = -2 and b = -3. As a + b = 3 +
(-3) = 0, lines represented by 3x² - 4xy - 3y² = 0 are perpendicular to each other.

Q.12 Ans.

Q.13 Ans. p∨ ~ q
≡ [~p ∧~ (~q)] (Negation of disjunction)
≡ (~ p ∧ q) (Negation of negation)

Q.14 Ans.

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

217
Q.15 Ans.

Q.16 Ans.

Q.17 Ans.

218
Q.18 Ans.

219
Q.19 Ans.

220
Q.20 Ans.

Q.21 Ans.

221
Q.22 Ans.

Q.23 Ans.

222
Q.24 Ans.

Q.25 Ans.

223
Q.26 Ans.

Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

Q.27 Ans.

224
Q.28 Ans.

Q.29 Ans.

225
Q.30 Ans.

Q.31 Ans. To draw the line, x + y ≥ 6

Draw line x + y = 6
When x = 0,
0+y=6
y=6
When y = 0,
x+0=6
x=6

226
227
Q.32 Ans.

228
Q.33 Ans.

229
Q.34 Ans.

230
 PAPER - 5
Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours
Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv) The point(s) through which the line x – 1 = y – 1 = z - 3 passes

A) (1, 1, 3) B) (2, 2, 4) C) (2, 2, 2) D) A) and B)

(v)

(vi)

(vii)

(viii)

231
 A) 25 B) 20 C) 30 D) 35

Q.2 Answer the following: 4

(i) Find order and degree of the following differential equation:

(ii)

(iii) If X~B (8 ,0.8) then find E (X) and Var (X).

(iv) Give a pictorial representation of a convex set.

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Find the area of the region bounded by the following curve, the X-axis and the given line: 0 ≤ x ≤ 5,
0≤y≤2

Q.4 If A = {1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7}, determine the truth value of the following: ∀ x ∈ A, 8 – x ≤ 7

Q.5 If G(a, 2, -1) is the centroid of the triangle with vertices P(1, 2, 3), Q(3, b, -4) and R(5, 1, c) then find
the values of a, b and c.

Q.6 Prove the following:

Q.7 Construct switching circuit of the following: (p Λ q Λ r) ∨ [p ∨ (q Λ ~ r)]

Q.8

Q.9 Using rules in logic, prove the following: ~ (p ∨ q) ∨ (~ p Λ q) ≡ ~ p

Q.10 Find the principal value of the following:

Q.11

Q.12 Using rules of negation write the negations of the following with justification: (p ∨ ~ q) Λ r

232
Q.13 Find the value of the following:

Q.14 Find the magnitude of following vector: a vector with initial point : (1, – 3, 4); terminal point : (1, 0,
– 1).

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 For the following differential equation find the particular solution
satisfying the given condition: (x − y²x).dx − (y + x²y).dy = 0, when x = 2, y
= 0.

Q.16 Verify Rolle's theorem for the following function:

Q.17 Evaluate the following:

Q.18 Differentiate the following w. r. t. x.:

Q.19 Evaluate the following:

Q.20 Solve the following L.P.P.: Maximize z = 6x + 10y subject to 3x + 5y ≤ 10, 5x

+ 3y ≤ 15, x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0

Q.21 A man of height 180 cm is moving away from a lamp post at the rate of 1.2 meters per second. If the
height of the lamp post is 4.5 meters, find the rate at which (i) his shadow is lengthening. (ii) the tip of
the shadow is moving.

Q.22 Find p and q if the equation 2x² + 8xy + py² + qx + 2y – 15 = 0 represents a pair of parallel lines.

Q.23 Find k if the following function represent p.d.f. of r.v. X.

233
Q.24 Find the combined equation of a pair of lines passing through the origin and perpendicular to the
lines represented by following equation: xy + y² = 0

Q.25 Find the values of x for which the following function is strictly
increasing: f (x) = 3 + 3x − 3x² + x³

Q.26 Evaluate the following integral as limit of sum:

Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

Q.27

Q.28

Q.29 Find the population of a city at any time t, given that the rate of increase of population is proportional
to the population at the instant and that in a period of 40 years the population increased from 30,000
to 40,000.

Q.30 Integrate the following:

Q.31 If A(3, 2, -1), B(-2, 2, -3), C(3, 5, -2), D(-2, 5, -4) then (i) verify that the points are the vertices of a
parallelogram and (ii) find its area.

Q.32 In a box of floppy discs it is known that 95% will work. A sample of three of the discs is selected at
random. Find the probability that
(i) none (ii) 1 (iii) 2 (iv) all 3 of the sample will work.

Q.33

Q.34

-------- All the Best --------

234
 PAPER 5
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Mathematics Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 80

Section A (MCQ & VSA Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 16

(i) Ans. D)

(ii) Ans. B)

(iii) Ans. A)

(iv) Ans. D)

(v) Ans. A)

235
 (vi) Ans. B)

(vii) Ans. B)

(viii) Ans. C)

Q.2 Answer the following: 4

(i) Ans.

(ii) Ans.

(iii) Ans. n = 8 , p = 0.8 q = 1 - p = 0.2

E(X) = n. p = 8 × 0.8 = 6.4
Var(X) = n. p. q = 8 × 0.8 × 0.2 = 1.28

(iv) Ans. The pictorial representation of a pictorial set is given as:

Section B (2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. Area of the region bounded by x = 0, x = 5, y = 0, y = 2 is a rectangle with dimensions 5× 2.

Area of rectangle = l × B
= 5× (2-0)
=5×2
= 10 sq. units.

236
Q.4 Ans. For each x ∈ A 8 – x ≤ 7
∴ The given statement is true.
∴ Its truth value is T.

Q.5 Ans.

Q.6 Ans.

Q.7 Ans.

237
Q.8 Ans.

Q.9 Ans. Consider, LHS = ∼(p ∨ q) ∨ (∼p ∧ q)

≡ (∼p ∧∼q) ∨ (∼p ∧ q) .... (Negation of disjunction)
≡∼p ∧ (∼q ∨ q) ....(Distributive law)
≡∼p ∧ T ....(Complement law) ≡∼ p ....(Identity law)
= RHS.
∴∼(p ∨ q) ∨ (∼p ∧ q) ≡∼p

Q.10 Ans.

Q.11 Ans.

Q.12 Ans. ~ [(p ∨ ~ q) ∧ r ]

≡ ~ (p ∨ ~ q) ∨(~ r) (Negation of conjunction)
≡~ p∧ ~(~ q) ∨(~ r) (Negation of disjunction)
≡(~ p ∧ q) ∨(~ r) (Negation of negation)

238
Q.13 Ans.

Q.14 Ans.

Section C (3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans.

239
Q.16 Ans.

240
Q.17 Ans.

241
Q.18 Ans.

Q.19 Ans.

Q.20 Ans.

242
243
Q.21 Ans.

Q.22 Ans.

244
Q.23 Ans.

Q.24 Ans.

245
Q.25 Ans.

Q.26 Ans.

Section D (4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Five: 20

246
Q.27 Ans.

Q.28 Ans.

247
Q.29 Ans.

248
Q.30 Ans.

Q.31 Ans.

249
Q.32 Ans.

250
Q.33 Ans.

251
Q.34 Ans.

252
BIOLOGY
 PAPER - 1
Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Hair like projections called----------- which guide the pollen tube towards the egg.
(a) Funicle (b) embryo sac
(c) egg apparatus (d) filiform apparatus

(ii) During expiration ________ contracts.

(a) Thorax (b) Ribs
(c) Lungs (d) Sternum

(iii) Which condition is NOT helpful when the sperms moving towards oviducts through the uterus.
(a) Contraction of uterine wall
(b) The slimy secretion of oviduct wall
(c) The vestibular secretion of female inhibits sperm motility.
(d) contraction of vagina passage

(iv) _______ include carbon sequestration, predation, waste decomposition and detoxification.
(a) Provisioning services
(b) Cultural services
(c) Regulating services
(d) Supporting services

(v) Mineral ion concentration which reduces the dry weight of tissues by________.
(a) 50% (b) 100% (c) 25% (d) 10%

(vi) The term “terror of Bengal’ is used for ___________.

(a) algal bloom (b) water hyacinth
(c) increased BOD (d) eutrophication

(vii) An assembladge of individuals of different species living in the same habitat and having functional
interactions is ________.
(a) Biotic community (b) Ecological Niche
(c) Population (d) ecosystem

(viii) The second trophic level in a lake is ________________

(a) Phytoplankton (b) Zooplankton
(c) Benthos (d) Fishes

253
 (ix) Generally there may be one or many____ in a region.
(a) Biodiversity
(b) Ecosystem
(c) Genetic diversity
(d) Species diversity

(x) Parasites that feed on the external surface of the host organism are called______.
(a) Brood parasites. (b) Ectoparasites
(c) Endoparasites (d) Prey

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) What is Nebula?

(ii) Discuss the importance of genetic engineering in modern biotechnology.

(iii) Lower organisms such as Yeast, Chlamydomonas carry out reproduction by asexual and sexual
methods. Which is the more common method followed by them?

(iv) Odd one out based on respiratory organ

Salamanders, Spiders, Fish, Limulus

(v) Fill in the blanks:

The hormone produced by the testis is ………………..

(vi) Define : Commensalism

(vii) Calcitonin is secreted by ________.

(viii) Give the advantages of unleaded petrol in automobile as fuel.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Write short note on DNA packaging in eukaryotic cell.

Q.4 Give the name of causal organism of syphilis and write on its symptoms.

Q.5 Give scientific reason: Human heart is called as myogenic and autorhythmic.

Q.6 Give reason - Injury to medulla oblongata may prove fatal.

Q.7 Would you consider wings of butterfly and bat as homologous or analogous and why?

Q.8 In the process of rDNA technology, if two separate restriction enzymes are used to cut vector and
donor DNA then which problem will arise in the formation of rDNA or chimeric DNA? Explain.

Q.9 Identify and Labelled the diagram.

254
Q.10 Study the figure of stratification of plants in forest and label the marked portion (A,B,C and D)

Q.11 Define and explain term: Biopiracy

Q.12 Krishna was going to school and on the way he saw a major bus accident. His heart beat increased
and hands and feet become cold. Name the part of the nervous system that had a role to play in this
reaction.

Q.13 Tropical regions exhibit species richness as compared to polar regions. Justify.

Q.14 Explain the properties of a good or ideal cloning vector for rDNA technology.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 What is adaptive radiation? Explain with suitable example.

Q.16 What is biogas? Write in brief about the production process.

Q.17 Explain the stages involved in the maturation of microspore into male gametophyte.

Q.18 How is blood kept moving in the large veins of the legs?

Q.19 Explain the chromosomal theory of inheritance.

Q.20 What will be the effect of thyroid gland atrophy on the human body?

255
Q.21 Give an account of mutation breeding with examples.

Q.22 Root tip showing root hair zone

Q.23 Describe three devices by which cross pollination is encouraged in Angiosperms by avoiding self
pollination.

Q.24 Why is it advantageous to breathe through the nose than through the mouth?

Q.25 Describe in brief an account of disorders of the thyroid.

Q.26 Write note on –PKU

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Describe the phases of menstrual cycle and their hormonal control.

Q.28 Which pathways involved in water absorption?

Q.29 Describe the process of translation in protein synthesis.

Q.30 In your view, what motivates the youngsters to take to alcohol or drugs and how can this be avoided?

Q.31 Explain in detail about mineral absorption.

-------- All the Best --------

256
 PAPER 1
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (d)

(ii) Ans. (a)

(iii) Ans. (c)

(iv) Ans. (c)

(v) Ans. (d)

(vi) Ans. (b)

(vii) Ans. (a)

(viii) Ans. (b)

(ix) Ans. (b)

(x) Ans. (b)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. When Earth originated, it was a rotating cloud of hot gases and cosmic dust called Nebula.

(ii) Ans. Genetic engineering deals with alteration of genetic material (DNA and RNA).

(iii) Ans. Asexual method by formation of spores, is the common method followed by them.

(iv) Ans. Spiders: because it respires by book lungs while others by Gills.

(v) Ans. testosterone

(vi) Ans. It is a type of interaction where one species is benefited while the other remains unaffected.

(vii) Ans. Thyroid

(viii) Ans. Unleaded petrol does not compose of the lead compound which produces harmful gases. So it does
not emit harmful gases into the environment and helps in preventing health diseases like bronchitis,
asthma and lung diseases.

257
 Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. 1. DNA packaging is the process of tightly packing of the DNA molecule to adjust into the nucleus
of a cell
2. In Eukaryotes, well organised nucleus has DNA associated with Histone and Non-histone
proteins.
3. The histone proteins organise themselves to make histone octamer.

Q.4 Ans. 1. Syphilis is a sexually transmitted disease.

2. It is caused by one kind of bacteria called Treponema pallidum.
3. The main symptoms are:
primary lesion called chancre at the site of infection.
Chancre is formed on external genitalia, skin rashes and mild fever.
Inflamed joints, loss of hair paralysis, Degenerative changes occur in the heart and brain.

Q.5 Ans. 1. The heart is able to generate cardiac concentration independent of nervous input.
2. So, the human heart is called as myogenic.
3. The human heart can generate its own rhythm with the help of specialized muscles.
4. A specialised cardiac musculature is called as nodal tissue.
5. The human heart is also called as autorhythmic.

Q.6 Ans. 1. The medulla oblongata connects our brain and our spinal cord with most of our sensory and
motor fibres either crossing into the brain or finishing at this level.
2. Injury to the medulla oblongata may stop important activities such as heartbeat, respiration which
results in death.
3. It controls involuntary functions such as heartbeat, rate of respiration secretion of saliva and
peristalsis.

Q.7 Ans. Wings of butterfly and bat are analogous but not homologous.
Wings of butterfly (insects) and of birds look superficially alike but they are not anatomically similar
structures though they perform similar functions.

Q.8 Ans. In the process of rDNA technology if two separate restriction enzymes are used to cut vector and
donor DNA, then there is a problem that both host and vector DNA will cut at different sites. As
every restriction enzyme have specific restriction site. If same RE are used then both host and vector
DNA will have same cohesive, sticky, staggered ends, or blunt ends.

258
Q.9 Ans.

Q.10 Ans. A- Emergent layer

B- Canopy
C- understorey
D- shrub layer

Q.11 Ans. Biopiracy is defined as ‘theft of various natural products and then selling them by getting patent
without giving any benefits or compensation back to the host country’.
In short, it is unauthorized misappropriation of any biological resource and indigenous knowledge.

Q.12 Ans. Sympathetic nervous system controls body activities during fight, fright situations. It activates the
release of hormones adrenaline and nor-adrenaline due to which the heart beat increased, hands and
feet become cold.

Q.13 Ans. 1. The first factor is the constant temperature and climate.
2. The polar regions have a severe climate which makes it extremely hard for animals to survive in
such extreme climatic conditions.
3. The tropical forest has a stable ecosystem as well as suitable climatic condition.
4. The tropical region has a favourable reproductive and environment for animal and species to
thrive.

Q.14 Ans. Different properties of a vector are:

1. A vector should have the ability of independent replication so that as the vector replicates, a
large number of copies of the DNA insert will be formed.
2. A vector should be able to easily introduce into host cells.
3. A vector should have marker genes for antibiotic resistance.
4. It must contain unique cleavage site in one of the marker genes for restriction enzyme.
5. It should have at least suitable control elements like promoter, operator, ribosomal binding
sites, etc.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

259
Q.15 Ans. 1. The process of evolution which results in transformation of original species to many different
varieties is called Adaptative Radiation.
2. Best example is Darwin's Finches. He noticed during his visit to Cralpagos Islands, the American
main land species of bird was the original one from which they mirated to different islands of
Cralpagos.
3. These adapted to different environmental condition of these islands.
4. From original seed eating feature to many forms with altered beak evolved into insectivorous
ones.
5. Another example is Australian Marsupials. In Australia, many Marsupial mammals evolved from
common ancestor.

Q.16 Ans. 1. Biogas is a mixture of methane-CH₄ (50-60%), carbon dioxide-CO₂ (30-40%), Hydrogen
sulphide-H₂ S(0-3%) and other gases (CO, N₂ , H₂ ) in traces. Biogas is highly inflammable and is
used as a source of energy.
2. Most used models of biogas plants are KVIC and IARI. The digester used for biogas production is
called Biogas Plant.
3.Biogas plant using cattle dung as a raw material, and it consists of digester and gas holder. Biogas
is produced by anaerobic digestion process which involve three steps:
• Hydrolysis/Solubilization: In this primary stage cattle dung is mixed with water in equal
proportion to make slurry which is then fed into the digester. Here anaerobic hydrolytic bacteria (e.g.
Clostridium, Pseudomonas) hydrolyze carbohydrates into simple sugars, proteins into amino acids
and lipids into fatty acids.
• Acidogenesis: In this stage, facultative anaerobic, acidogenic bacteria and obligate anaerobic
organisms, convert simple organic material into acids like formic acid, acetic acid, H₂ and CO₂ .
• Methanogenesis: This is last stage in which anaerobic Methanogenic bacteria like
Methanobacterium, Methanococcusconvert acetate, H₂ and CO₂ into CH₄ , CO₂ and H₂ O and
other products.

Q.17 Ans. 1. The nucleus of each microspore mother cell undergoes meiosis or reduction division to develop
four haploid nuclei, this process is called microsporogenesis.
2. The four nuclei are arranged tetrahedrally and soon get enclosed with cell walls, these are called
micro spores or pollen grains.
3. Pollen grains are non-motile, haploid, unicellular body with single nucleus.
4. Pollen grains marks the beginning of male gametophyte.
5. It undergoes first mitotic division to produce bigger naked vegetative cell and small thin walled
generative cell.
6. The second mitotic division is concerned with generative cell only and gives rise to two non-
motile male gametes
7. The pollen grains are shed from the anther at these two celled stages.

Q.18 Ans. 1. Veins are thin walled, mostly superficial vessels which carries blood from the organs towards the
heart.
2. Except for the pulmonary veins or other veins of the body carries deoxygenated blood towards the
heart.
3. As per nature’s rule each and everything has an attraction towards gravity. So the blood also
travels from the upper side of the body towards the lower side.
4. The pumping force of the ventricles moves blood through the arteries.
5. The breathing movements exert pressure on the chest veins, the valves in the larger veins keep the
blood from flowing backward, and the skeletal muscles' contraction all help the blood in veins to
move.
6. The muscles in your legs help transport blood back to your heart.
7. It carries a deoxygenated blood
8. The veins in your legs also have valves to help this process and prevent blood from flowing back
down towards your feet.

260
Q.19 Ans. Walter Sutton along with Theodor Boveri proposed Chromosome Theory of inheritance. This theory
identifies chromosomes as the carries of genetic material.
Postulates of Chromosomal Theory of Inheritance :
1. Chromosomes are present in pairs in somatic cells.
2. During gametes formation homologous chromosomes pair, segregate and assort independently
during meiosis. Thus each gamete contains only one chromosome from a pair.
3. Nucleus of gamets contains chromosomes, which carry all hereditary traits.
4. Male and Female gametes (sperms and eggs) carry all the heredity traits. They are link between
parents and offsprings.
5. The fusion of haploid male gamete and haploid female gamete, restores the diploid number of
chromosomes of the species.

Q.20 Ans. 1. Thyroid gland dysfunction can result in hyper or hypo activity of the thyroid.
2. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland is functionally inadequate.
3. symptoms of hypothyroidism include brittle fingernails, thinning of hair, puffy eyes, weakness,
and Constipation.
4. Hyperthyroidism is caused by increase in the levels of thyroid hormones.
5. This increases metabolic rate, sensitivity, sweating, flushing, rapid respiration, bulging of eyeballs
and effects various physiological activities.
6. Atrophic thyroids may be viewed as the later stages of autoimmune hypothyroidism in which there
is minimal residual thyroid tissue.
7. The effects are fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, depression, and dry skin.

Q.21 Ans. Mutation is sudden heritable change in the genotype. In mutation breeding, desirable mutation are
induced in crop plants with the use of physical or chemical mutagens.
1. Natural (physical) mutagen are :
High temperature, high concentration of CO₂ , X rays, UV rays.
2. Chemical mutagens are :
i. Nitrous acid, EMS (Ethyl-Methyl-Sulphonate), Mustard gas, Colchicine, etc.
ii. Seedlings or seeds are irradiated by CO-60, exposed to UV bulbs, X-ray machines, etc.
iii. Mutagens cause gene mutations and chromosomal abbrations.
iv. The treated seeding are then screened for resistance to disease/pests, high yield, etc. e.g.
Jagannath variety of rice, NP 836 variety of wheat (rust resistant), Indore -2 variety of cotton
(resistant to bollworm), Regina-II variety of cabbage (resistant to bacterial rot), etc.

Q.22 Ans.

261
Q.23 Ans. 1. Three outbreeding devices that flowering plants have developed are self- incompatibility
production of unisexual flowers and dichogamy.
2. Self- incompatibility - it is a genetic method to prevent pollen from fertilizing ovules of the same
flower by inhibiting their germination on stigma or pistil.
3. Production of unisexual flower- in this case the female and male parts will be present on different
plants, so, self-pollination is not possible to occur.
4. Dichogamy- In this device, anthers and stigmas mature at different times in a bisexual flower. So,
self-pollination is not possible to occur.

Q.24 Ans. 1. Breathe through the nose is always adventitious because the nose contains three regions namely
Vestibule, Respiratory part, and Olfactory or sensory chamber each region has its unique features.
2. The nose has a pair of slit like openings called external nares or nostrils for entry of air into the
nasal cavity.
3. The nasal cavity is divisible into right and left nasal chambers by mesethmoid cartilage.
4. The vestibule has hair for filtering the air and trapping the dust and suspended particles in the
inhaled air.
5. The respiratory part is a thin walled highly vascular part for warming and moistening the inhaled
air.
6. The Olfactory or sensory chamber uppermost part is lined by olfactory epithelium for the
detection of smell.

Q.25 Ans. Disorder of thyroid gland are caused due to hypersecretion and hyposecretion of thyroid hormones.
1. Hyperthyroidism : Hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. It is caused by increases in the levels of
thyroid hormones. This increases metabolic rate, sensitivity, sweating, flushing, rapid respiration,
bulging of eye balls, and affects various physiological activities.
Graves disease (Exopthalmic goiter) : Hyperthyroidism in adults , is characterized by protruding
eyeballs, increased BMR and weight loss. Increased BMR produces a range of effect like increased
heartbeat, increased BP, higher body temperature, nervousness, irritability, tremor of figure and
bulging eyeballs.
2. Hypothyroidism : It is caused by deficiency of thyroid hormones or removal of thyroid gland.
(Thyroidectomy).
a. Cretinism : Hyposecretion in infants leads to cretinism. A cretin has reduced BMR and low
oxidation. They are short saturated because the skeleton fails to grow. They are mentally retarded.
They show dry skin, thick tongue, prolonged neonatal jaundice, lethargy and constipation. This can
be treated by early administration of thyroid hormones. The certin shows stunted physical growth
delayed puberty and mental retardation.
b. Myxoedema : It is the deficiency of thyroid hormones in adults. It is characterized by a peculiar
thickening and puffiness of skin and subcutaneous tissue particularly of the face and extremities.
Patient lacks alertness, intelligence. The patients suffers from slow heart rate, low BP always feeling
cold, low body temperature and retarded sexual development.
c. Simple goiter : (Iodine deficiency goiter) Iodine is needed for synthesis of thyroid hormone. If
there is deficiency of Iodine in the diet, it cause enlargement of thyroid gland leading to simple
goiter. This disease is common in hilly areas. Addition of iodine to table salt prevents this disease.
Size of the thyroid gland is increased but total output of thyroxine is decreased.

262
Q.26 Ans. 1. Phenylketonuria is an inborn metabolic disorder caused due to deficiency of phenylalanine
hydroxylase enzyme.
2. Phenylketonuria is caused due to recessive autosomal genes.
3. When recessive genes are present in homozygous condition, phenylalanine hydroxylase enzyme is
not produced.
4. This enzyme is essential for conversion of amino acid phenylalanine into tyrosine.
5. Due to absence of this enzyme, phenylalanine is not converted into tyrosine.
6. Hence, phenylalanine and its derivatives are accumulated in blood and cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
7. It affects development of brain and causes mental retardation.
8. Excess phenylalanine is excreted in urine, hence this disease is called phenylketonuria.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

263
Q.27 Ans. The menstrual cycle is divided into four phases, namely:
1. Menstrual phase: The beginning of each cycle is taken as the first day when menses or loss of
blood takes place. It lasts for approximately 5 days.
The blood in the menstrual discharge does not clot due to presence of fibrinolysin.
Menstrual phase occurs when an ovulated egg does not get fertilized and it is thereby shedout along
with the menstruum.
Endometrium of uterus breaks down under the effect of prostaglandins released due to decreased
level of progesterone and estrogen.
During menses, the blood, tissue fluid, mucus, endometrial lining and the unfertilized oocytes is
discharged through vagina. Also, the endometrial lining becomes very thin i.e. about 1 mm.
During these five days, many primordial follicles develop into primary and few of them into
secondary follicles under the effect FSH.

2) Proliferative phase/ Follicular phase/ Post menstrual phase : This phase is the duration between
the end of menstruation and release of ovum (ovulation).
Duration of this phase is more variable than other phases. Generally, it extends from 5th and 13th
day of menstrual cycle.
Generally, out of 6 to 12 secondary follicles that proceed to develop, only one develops into a
Graafian follicle (mature follicle), while the rest of the follicles degenerate (atresia).
The stimulation for proliferation of new follicles is influenced by GnRH which stimulates release of
FSH.
The developing secondary follicles secrete the hormone estrogen.
Endometrium begins to regenerate under the effect of estrogen. Regeneration also involves formation
of endothelial cells, endometrial or uterine glands and network of blood vessels.In this phase
thickness of endometrium reaches 3-5 mm.
3) Ovulatory phase : It is the shortest phase of menstrual cycle.
It involves rupturing of the mature Graafian follicle and release of ovum (secondary oocyte) into the
pelvic cavity; usually on 14th day of menstrual cycle.
Rapid secretion of LH by positive feedback mechanism causes the mature follicle to rupture.
Ovulation may be accompanied by mild or severe pains in lower abdomen.

4) Secretory phase/Luteal phase : It is the phase between ovulation and beginning of the next
menses.
This phase is the longest phase. It lasts for 14 days i.e. from 15th to 28th day of the cycle.
After release of secondary oocyte, remaining tissue of Graafian follicle transforms into corpus
luteum under the effect of LH.
The corpus luteum releases hormone such asprogesterone, estrogen and inhibin.
The ovulated egg may get fertilized within 24 hours.
In the absence of fertilization : Corpus luteum can survive for only two weeks and then degenerates
into a white scar called corpus albicans.
In case of fertilization : The embryo is implanted, there is secretion of human chronic gonadotropin
(hCG), which extends the life of corpus luteum and stimulates its secretory activity. Presence of hCG
in blood and urine is an indicator of pregnancy. In absence of fertilization, next menstrual cycle
begins.
Under the influence of progesterone and estrogen, the endometrial glands grow, become coiled and
start uterine secretions.
Endometrium becomes more vascularized and thickens up to 8-10 mm. Inhibin stops secretion of
FSH.
These changes are necessary for fertilization and subsequent implantation.

264
Q.28 Ans. 1. There are two pathways involved in water absorption namely the apoplast pathway, and the
symplast pathway.
2. Water is absorbed sequentially by root hair cells through imbibition, diffusion, osmosis.
Consequently, the cell becomes turgid.
3. The turgor pressure of cells increases with a decrease in DPD value. However, the immediately
adjacent cortical cell inner to it, has more DPD value, because its Osmotic pressure is more.
4. The cortical cell will suck water from the turgid root hair cell, and becomes turgid. Now the
flaccid root hair cells absorb water from the soil.
5. Water from the turgid cortical cell is sucked by the inner cortical cell, and the process goes on. A
gradient of suction pressure (DPD) is developed from cells of epiblema to the cortex of the root.
Immediately the moment of water across the root is occurring through loosely assembled cortex cells
which is further followed by endodermis, and finally by pericycle.
6. Absorption of water is a continuous process; a sort of hydrostatic pressure is developed in living
cells of the root. This is called root pressure.
7. Due to root pressure, water from pericycle is not only forced into the xylem, but also conducted
upwards against the gravity.
8. Apoplast pathway: When some amount of water passes across the root through the cell wall, and
the intercellular spaces of cortical cells of the root, it is then called the apoplast pathway. This
pathway occurs up to endodermis.
9. Symplast pathway/ transmembrane pathway: When water passes across from one living cell to
other living cells through plasmodesmata, then it is called the symplast pathway.

265
266
Q.29 Ans. 1. Translation is the mechanism in which codon of mRNA are translated and specific amino acids in
a sequence from a polypeptide on ribosomes.
2. Process of translation requires amino acids, mRNA, tRNA, ribosomes, ATP, Mg⁺ ⁺ ions, enzyme
elongation, translocation and release factors.
3. About 20 different types of amino acid available in the cytoplasm are known to form proteins.
4. DNA controls synthesis of proteins having amino acids in specific sequence. This control is
possible through transcription of mRNA. Genetic code is specific for particular amino acid.
5. RNAs serve as intermediate molecules between DNA and protein.
6. Ribosomes serve as site for protein synthesis. Each ribosome consist of large and small subunits.
These subunits occur separately in cytoplasm. Only during protein synthesis, in presence of Mg⁺ ⁺
ions these two subunits get associated together.
Mechanism of translation (Synthesis of polypeptide chain) :
It involves three steps initiation, elongation and termination :
A. initiation :
i. Activation of amino acids is essential before translation initiates.
ii. Amino acid is activated by utilizing energy from ATP molecule. Then it binds with amino acid
binding site of tRNA and forms of tRNA – amino acid complex.
iii. Small subunit of ribosome attaches to the mRNA at 5’ end.
iv. Initiator codon, AUG is present on mRNA which initiates the process of protein synthesis.
v. Initiator charged tRNA (with activated amino acid methionine) binds with initiation codon (AUG)
by its anticodon (UAC) through hydrogen bonds.
vi. It carries activated amino acid methionine (in eukaryotes) or formyl methionine (in prokaryotes).
vii. It occupies the P site of ribosome and the A-site is vacant.
viii. Now the large subunit of ribosome joints with the smaller subunit that requires Mg⁺ ⁺ ions.

B. Elongations :
i. During this process activated amino acids are added one by one to first amino acid (methionine).
ii. Addition of Amino acid occurs in 3 steps cycle –
iii. Codon recognition – Amino acyl tRNA molecule enters the ribosome at A-site. Anticodonbinds
with the codon by hydrogen bonds.
iv. Amino acid on the first initiator tRNA at P-site and amino acid on tRNA at A-site join by peptide
bond. Here enzyme Ribozyme acts as a catalyst. At this time first tRNA at ‘P’ site is kicked off.
v. Translocation- The t-RNA at A-site carrying a dipeptide at A-site moves to the P-site. In
translocation, both the subunits of ribosome move along in relation to tRNA and mRNA. Hence
tRNA carrying dipeptide now gets positioned at ‘P’ site of ribosome, making ‘A’ site vacant. Then
next charged tRNA molecule carrying amino acid will received. During this process, first uncharged
tRNA is discharged from E-site.
D. Termination and release of polypeptide :
i. Towards the 3’ end of mRNA, there is a stop codon (UAA/UAG/UGA). It is exposed at the A-site.
ii. It is not read and joined by anticodon of any tRNA.
iii. The release factor binds to the stop codon, thereby terminating the translation process.
iv. The polypeptide is now released in the cytoplasm.
v. Two subunits of ribosome dissociate and last tRNA is set free in the cytoplasm.
vi. mRNA also has some additional sequences that are not translated and are referred as untranslated
regions (UTR).
vii. The UTRs are present at both 5’-end (before start codon) and at 3’-end (after stop codon). They
are required for efficient translation process.
viii. Finally, mRNA is also released in the cytoplasm. It gets denatured by nucleases immediately.
Hence mRNA is short – lived.

267
Q.30 Ans. 1. The habits such as smoking, taking drug or alcohol are more likely to be taken up at a young age,
more during adolescence.
2. Curiosity, need for adventure and excitement, experimentation is the initial causes of motivation.
3. Some youngsters start taking alcohol and drug to overcome some negative emotions such as
stress, to accept disappointments and failures as a part of life, Depression, frustration, etc.
4. Depending upon the relationship with parents or to other conditions the adult gets influenced by
their parents or their friends. Because of the same age group, the chances of following their friends
are more.
5. The most common warning signs of drug and alcohol abuse among youth include drop in
academic performance, unexplained absence from school/college, lack of interest in personal
hygiene, withdrawal, isolation, depression, fatigue, aggressive and rebellious behavior, deteriorating
relationships with family and friends, loss of interest in hobbies, change I sleeping and eating habits,
fluctuations in weight, appetite, etc.
6. Treatment such disorders are always preferred by a non-pharmacological approach with due
respect to the rights of children.
7. WHO has recommended evidence based guidelines under the mental health Gap Action
Programme (mhGAP).
8. One can protect them without forcing them beyond his /her capacities in studies, sports and other
activities.
9. Education and Counselling of child to face problems, and stress, to accept disappointments and
failures as a part of life.
10. Channelize the energy of child in sports, studies and other constructive activities so that we will
try to engross them in those activities.
11. By identify the situations that push an adolescent towards use of drugs or alcohol, and to take
remedial measures well in time.
12. In this regard, the parents and the teachers have a special responsibility.

268
Q.31 Ans. 1. It can be defined as uptake of mineral by the plant body.
2. Many of minerals found in the soil are charged particles which cannot pass across the cell, while
absorbed actively with the expenditure energy.
3. Minerals can also be absorbed passively without expenditure of energy.
4. It is independent of water absorption.
5. It can research by active, passive and Donnan equilibrium method.
Passive Absorption
1. Movement of mineral ions into the root occurs by diffusion.
2. Molecules or ions diffuse from a region of their higher concentration to a region of their lower
concentration.
3. The movement of mineral ions into root cells as a result of diffusion is without expenditure of
energy is called passive absorption.
4. Passive absorption can take place by direct ion-exchange, in direct ion-exchange mass flow and
Donnan equilibrium.
Donnan equilibrium
1. This absorption does not require any energy.
2. The Donnan equilibrium is based on assumption that certain negatively charged ions, after their
entry into the cell, become fixed on the inner side of the cell membrane and cannot diffuse outside
through the cell membrane.
3. It requires additional mobile cations are to balance these fixed anions. The concentration of
cations becomes more due to accumulation.
4. The passive absorption of anions/ cations from cell exterior against their own concentration
gradient in order to neutralize the effect of cations/ anions is called Donnan equilibrium.
Active Absorption
1. In active absorption the uptake of minerals is takes place against gradient.
2. It is energy dependent i.e. it requires expenditure of energy by the absorbing cell. The energy is
derived from respiration and is supplied through ATP.
3. When the roots are deprived of oxygen, they show a sudden drop in active absorption of minerals.

269
 PAPER - 2
Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Match the reproductive part in column 1 with their Function in column 2

(a) i-d, ii-a, iii- c, iv-b (b) i-d, ii-a, iii- b, iv-c
(c) i-d, ii-a, iii- c, iv-b (d) i-c, ii-d, iii- a, iv-b

(ii) Water movement between the cells is due to .............

(a) T.P. (b) W.P. (c) DPD (d) Incipient plasmolysis.

(iii) Colostrum involved in ___________

(a) Artificially Acquired Passive immunity (b) Artificial Acquired Active immunity
(c) Natural Acquired Passive immunity (d) Natural Acquired Active immunity

(iv) _____ is a peptide hormone produced by cells of islets of Langerhans of pancreas.

(a) Relaxin (b) insulin (c) adrenaline (d) thyroxine

(v) Which of the following types require pollinator but result is genetically similar to autogamy?
(a) Geitonogamy (b) Xenogamy (c) Apogamy (d) Cleistogamy

(vi) ______ is a parasitic plant.

(a) Bamboo (b) Coconut (c) Mango (d) Cuscuta

(vii) ____ is the outermost tough, nonvascular, and fibrous in nature.

(a) Pia mater (b) Dura mater (c) CSF (d) Cerebral cortex

(viii) Which of the following is most often a limiting factor of the primary productivity in any ecosystem.
(a) Carbon (b) Nitrogen (c) Phosphorus (d) Sulphur

270
 (ix) Growth of bacteria in a newly inoculated agar plate shows ................
(a) Exponential growth (b) Logistic growth
(c) Verhulst-Pearl logistic growth (d) Zero growth

(x) _______ are used to clean air and it can remove gases like SO₂ .
(a) Exhaust gas scrubbers (b) Electrostatic precipitator
(c) Catalytic converters (d) Thermal plant

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Fill in the blanks:

The primary sex organ in human male is ______.

(ii) Give an equation of Arithmetic growth.

(iii) List the two patterns of biodiversity.

(iv) What is aestivation?

(v) Define : Pericardium

(vi) List the natural reasons which cause damage to biodiversity.

(vii) What is demography?

(viii) How many types of extinction are visible in biodiversity.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Observe the given pedigree chart and answer the following questions.

a. Identify whether the trait is sex linked or autosomal.

b. Give an example of a trait in human beings which shows such a pattern of inheritance.

Q.4 Give the significance of fossils.

Q.5 What are antibiotics?

Q.6 Define and explain term: Bioethus

Q.7 Describe valves of human heart.

Q.8 Fill in the blanks and complete the chart.

271
Q.9 Labelled the Diagram.

Q.10 Distinguish between: Artery and vein.

Q.11 Define and explain term: Biopatent

Q.12 What is role of papillary muscles and chordae tendinae in human heart?

Q.13 Write a short note on: differentiation.

Q.14 Milk start to coagulate when Lactic Acid Bacteria (LAB) is added to warm milk as a starter. Mention
any two other benefits of LAB.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Explain the histological structure of testis.

Q.16 Describe in brief an account of disorders of the thyroid.

Q.17 Explain the role of lactose in ‘Lac Operon’.

Q.18 Based on sources of pollination, it can be divided into how many types.

Q.19 Give scientific reason: Arteries are thicker than veins.

Q.20 What measure would you take to prevent water-borne diseases?

Q.21 List the functional aspects of ecosystem and mention their role in ecosystem.

Q.22 L. S. of sieve tube

272
Q.23 What will be the effect of thyroid gland atrophy on the human body?

Q.24 Write a note on Human genome project (HGP).

Q.25 Describe the structure of blastula.

Q.26 Diffusion of water into plant cell across the plasma membrane

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Fill in the blanks: The ................ collects the pollen grains.
The male whorl, called the ................. produces .............
The pollen grains represent the ........................The ................. contains the egg or ovum.
.................... takes place when one male gamete and the egg fuse together. The fertilised egg grows
into seed from which the new plants can grow.
The ..................... is the base of the flower to which other floral parts are attached.
......................... is the transfer of pollen grains from anther of the flower to the stigma of the same or a
different flower
Once the pollen reaches the stigma, pollen tube traverses down the ................... to the ovary where
fertilisation occurs.
The .......................... are coloured to attract the insects that carry the pollen. Some flowers also
produce ............. or .............. that attracts insects.
The whorl ...................... is green that protects the flower until it opens.

Q.28 What is dihybrid cross? Explain with suitable example and checker board method.

Q.29 What is Isolation? Describe the different types of reproductive Isolatons.

Q.30 Discuss in detail about the role of growth regulator.

Q.31 Answer the questions after observing the diagram given below.

273
 a. What do the synaptic vesicles contain?
b. What process is used to release the neurotransmitter?
c. What should be the reason for the next impulse to be conducted?
d. Will the impulse be carried by post-synaptic membrane carried even if one pre-synaptic neuron is
there?
e. Can you name the channel responsible for their transmission?

-------- All the Best --------

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 PAPER 2
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (d)

(ii) Ans. (c)

(iii) Ans. (c)

(iv) Ans. (b)

(v) Ans. (a)

(vi) Ans. (d)

(vii) Ans. (b)

(viii) Ans. (a)

(ix) Ans. (a)

(x) Ans. (a)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. Testies

(ii) Ans. The equation of arithmetic growth is

Lt = Lo+ rt

(iii) Ans. The two patterns are:

a) latitudinal and altitudinal gradients
b) Species area relationship

(iv) Ans. To avoid extreme climatic condition and heat in the summer, some organisms switch to a
behavioural adjustment which causes them to slow down their metabolic activities, it is known as
aestivation or the summer sleep.

(v) Ans. Heart is enclosed by a membranous sac called pericardium.

275
 (vi) Ans. Natural reasons include forest fires, earthquakes, volcanic eruptions etc which cause damage to
biodiversity.

(vii) Ans. Demography studies the statistics of human population such as study of the size, structure and
distribution of population and the changes in this population due to births, death, migration, and
immigration.

(viii) Ans. There are 3 types of extinction i.e. natural extinction, mass extinction and man- made extinction.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. a) The trait represented in given pedigree is sex linked trait.
B) Colour Blindness, Haemophilia are the examples of sex linked traits in humans.

Q.4 Ans. 1. Fossils are the dead remains of plants and animals that lived in past in various geological layers.
2. The study of fossils provides the most convincing and direct evidence of rvolution.
3. Study of fossils is an important aspect of evolution since it can be used in paleontology and
anthropology for determining age of the fossils and deducing information about their ancestors.

Q.5 Ans. 1. Antibiotics are secondary metabolites that have therapeutic importance and are used in medical
treatment.
2. These are produced in small amounts by certain microbes (like bacteria, fungi and few algae),
which inhibit growth of other microbial pathogens.
3. Therefore, they are used in medicine. The antibiotics are antibacterial, antifungal, etc.

Q.6 Ans. Bioethics helps to study moral vision, decision and policies of human behavior in relation to
biological phenomena or events. Ethics deals with ‘Life’ e.g. in vitro fertilization, sperm bank, gene
therapy, cloning, gene manipulations, euthanasia, death, maintaining those who are in comatose
state, prenatal genetic selection, etc.

Q.7 Ans. 1. The heart has four valves - one for each chamber of the heart.
2. The tricuspid valve and bicuspid valve are located between the atria and ventricles.
3. The opening of the postcaval is guarded by a Eustachian valve while the Thebesian valve guards
the opening of the coronary sinus into the right atrium.
4. All these heart valves help in maintaining a unidirectional flow of blood. They also avoid the back
flow of blood.

Q.8 Ans. i. Insect resisting property

ii. FlavrSavr Tomato
iii. For reduction in vitamin A deficiency
iv. 6,000 liters milk on average and up to 8,000 – 10,000 for the best ones.

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Q.9 Ans.

Q.10 Ans. Artery :

1. It provides oxygenated blood to all parts of the body.
2. Blood carries from the heart to different parts of the body.
3. The artery is thick.
4. Artery shows three different layers.
5. Blood flows in high pressure.

Vein :
1. Blood carries from different parts of the body to the heart.
2. All parts of the body carry deoxygenated blood to the heart.
3. The vein is thin.
4. Veins do not show different layers except the portal veins.
5. Blood flows in low pressure.

Q.11 Ans. 1. Bio patent is a biological patent. Biopatents are awarded for strains of microorganisms, cell
lines, genetically modified strains, DNA sequences, biotechnological processes, product
processes, product and product applications.
2. Biopatent allows the patent holderto exclude others from making, using, selling, or importing
protected invention for a limited period of time. Duration of biopatents is five years from the
date of the grant or seven years from the date of filing the patent application.

Q.12 Ans. 1. The chordae tendinae are the inelastic fibers located in the lumen of ventricles.
2. The papillary muscles are attaching the bicuspid and tricuspid valves to the ventricular wall.
3. The papillary muscles pull the chordae tendineae taut during ventricular contraction.
4. They control the opening and closing of bicuspid and tricuspid valves.

Q.13 Ans. Differentiation

1. There are three cellular differentiations namely differentiation, dedifferentiation, redifferentiation.
2. Differentiation is maturation of cells derived from apical meristem of root and shoot.
3. Differentiation can be defined a permanent change in structure and function of cells leading to
maturation.
4. In differentiation cell undergoes few to major anatomical and physiological changes during cell
differentiation.

Q.14 Ans. LAB (Lactic Acid Bacteria) is used for making cheese and curd with the help of fermentation
process which in turn increases nutritive value of the milk.
It acts as probiotics and helps to control intestinal infection in human body.

277
 Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans. 1. Testis are oval shaped organs located at the scrotum. It is the male reproductive organ of human.
2. The testis is externally covered by a collagenous connective tissue layer called tunica albuginea.
3. Outer to tunica albuginea an incomplete peritoneal covering called tunica vaginalis and inner to it
is tunica vasculosa.
4. Fibres from tunica albuginea divide each testis into about 200 -300 testicular lobules, each lobule
containing 1-4 highly coiled seminiferous tubules.
5. Each seminiferous tubule is internally lined by cuboidal germinal epithelium cells and few large
pyramidal cells card Sertoli cells.
6. The interstitial or Leydig cells lie in between the seminiferous tubules the Leydig’s cells secret the
male hormone androgen or testosterone.

Q.16 Ans. Disorder of thyroid gland are caused due to hypersecretion and hyposecretion of thyroid hormones.
1. Hyperthyroidism : Hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. It is caused by increases in the levels of
thyroid hormones. This increases metabolic rate, sensitivity, sweating, flushing, rapid respiration,
bulging of eye balls, and affects various physiological activities.
Graves disease (Exopthalmic goiter) : Hyperthyroidism in adults , is characterized by protruding
eyeballs, increased BMR and weight loss. Increased BMR produces a range of effect like increased
heartbeat, increased BP, higher body temperature, nervousness, irritability, tremor of figure and
bulging eyeballs.
2. Hypothyroidism : It is caused by deficiency of thyroid hormones or removal of thyroid gland.
(Thyroidectomy).
a. Cretinism : Hyposecretion in infants leads to cretinism. A cretin has reduced BMR and low
oxidation. They are short saturated because the skeleton fails to grow. They are mentally retarded.
They show dry skin, thick tongue, prolonged neonatal jaundice, lethargy and constipation. This can
be treated by early administration of thyroid hormones. The certin shows stunted physical growth
delayed puberty and mental retardation.
b. Myxoedema : It is the deficiency of thyroid hormones in adults. It is characterized by a peculiar
thickening and puffiness of skin and subcutaneous tissue particularly of the face and extremities.
Patient lacks alertness, intelligence. The patients suffers from slow heart rate, low BP always feeling
cold, low body temperature and retarded sexual development.
c. Simple goiter : (Iodine deficiency goiter) Iodine is needed for synthesis of thyroid hormone. If
there is deficiency of Iodine in the diet, it cause enlargement of thyroid gland leading to simple
goiter. This disease is common in hilly areas. Addition of iodine to table salt prevents this disease.
Size of the thyroid gland is increased but total output of thyroxine is decreased.

278
Q.17 Ans. 1.A few molecule of lactose enter into the cell by an enzyme permease.
2. A small amount of this enzyme is present even when operon is switched off.
3. A few molecules of lactose, act as inducer and bind to repressor.
4. This repressor – inducer complex fails to join with the operator gene, which is then turned on.
5. Structural genes produce all enzymes. Thus, lactose acts as an inducer of its own break down.
6. When the inducer level falls, the operator is blocked again by repressor. So structural genes are
repressed/inactivated again. This is negative feedback.

Q.18 Ans. 1. Based on source of pollination, it can be divided into 3 types

2. Autogamy - it is a type of pollination in which bisexual flower is pollinated by its own pollen
grains
3. Geitonogamy - it is a type of pollination in which pollen grain are transferred to a stigma of a
different flower produced on the same plant.
4. Xenogamy- it is a type of cross pollination when pollen grain of one flower is deposited on the
stigma of a flower of different plant but belonging to same species.

Q.19 Ans. 1. T. S. artery shows three layers. Such as tunica externa or tunica adventitia, tunica media and
tunica interna or intima.
2. Tunica externa is the outermost layer with a thick, tough layer of collagen fibers.
3. Tunica media is the middle layer that has smooth muscles and elastic fibers.
4. In arteries, blood flows in higher pressure.
5. Veins are thin walled and it carries blood from different organs to the heart.
6. In veins, blood flows in lower pressure. So, arteries are thicker than veins.

Q.20 Ans. 1. The diseases like Amoebiasis, typhoid, and Ascaris are water-borne diseases.
2. Amoebiasis caused by protist parasite- Entamoeba histolytica. It’s a common infection of human
gastro-intestinal tract, which affects 15% population of India.
3. Ascariasis is an infectious disease of human intestinal tract, caused by roundworm- Ascaris
lumbricoides. Ascaris lumbricoides is an endoparasitic round worm or nematode.
4. The swater-borne diseases can be prevented by washing hands with hot water and soap after using
toilets and changing baby’s diaper.
5. Also can be controlled by drinking boiled or chlorinated water, avoiding eating unhygienic food,
eating of cooked food and proper sewage disposal.
6. Avoiding defaecation in open space prevents the spread of Ascaris.
7. Personal hygienic habits like washing hands with water and soap after using the toilet.
8. Washing vegetables thoroughly before cooking and avoiding raw vegetables is important for the
prevention of water-borne diseases.

Q.21 Ans. 1. The functional aspects of ecosystem are productivity, decomposition, nutrient cycling and energy
flow.
2. Productivity involves conversion of inorganic chemicals into organic material with the help of the
energy of sun light by the plants and consumption of the plants by animals.
3. Decomposition is the breakdown of dead organic material and mineralization of the dead matter.
4. Nutrient cycling is the storage and transport of nutrient.
5. Energy flow is the flow of energy from producers to consumers.
6. Functional aspect of ecosystem also includes ecological succession, food chain, ecological
pyramid and food web.

279
Q.22 Ans.

Q.23 Ans. 1. Thyroid gland dysfunction can result in hyper or hypo activity of the thyroid.
2. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland is functionally inadequate.
3. symptoms of hypothyroidism include brittle fingernails, thinning of hair, puffy eyes, weakness,
and Constipation.
4. Hyperthyroidism is caused by increase in the levels of thyroid hormones.
5. This increases metabolic rate, sensitivity, sweating, flushing, rapid respiration, bulging of eyeballs
and effects various physiological activities.
6. Atrophic thyroids may be viewed as the later stages of autoimmune hypothyroidism in which there
is minimal residual thyroid tissue.
7. The effects are fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, depression, and dry skin.

Q.24 Ans. 1. The Human Genome project was initiated in 1990 under the International administration of the
Human Genome Organization (HUGO). This was coordinated by the US department of Energy and
Natural institute of health. Also have International partners in UK, France, Germany, Japan, India
and China.
2. The Human Genome project began in 1990 and completed in 2003.It is multinational research
project to determine the genomic structure of Human.
3. The main aims of the project are :
i) Mapping the entire human genome at the of nucleotide sequences.
ii) To store the information collected from the project in databases.
iii) To develop tools and techniques for analysis of the data.
iv) Transfer of the related technologies to the private sectors, such as industries.
v) Taking care of the legal, ethical and social issues which may arise from the project.
4. Human Genome Project was to provide a complete and accurate sequence of the 3 billion DNA
base pairs that make up the human genome and to find out the estimate number of human genes.
5. The project was also aimed to sequence the genomes of several other organisms such as bacteria,
yeast, Drosophila, plants, Mus musculus etc.

Q.25 Ans. 1. Blastula is a hollow ball of cells of in the early stages of development in an animal embryo.
2. The outer layer of cells seen in the morula now form the layer called tropoblast.
3. Cells from the tropoblast begin to absorb the glycogen rich uterine milk.
4. The blastocyst doubles in size from 0.15 mm to 0.30 mm.
4. With the mpre fluid entering inside the blastocyst cavity is formed. These outer cells become flat
and are called tropoblast cells.
5. The inner larger cells form inner cells mass or embryoblast The embryo proper develop from this
cells.
6. These remain attached to the tropoblast on only one side.
7. The tropoblast cells in contact with the embryonal knob are called cells of Rauber.

280
Q.26 Ans.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Ans. Fill in the blanks: The stigma collects the pollen grains.
The male whorl, called the Androecium produces pollen grains
The pollen grains represent the male gametophyte.
The embryo sac contains the egg or ovum.
Syngamy (fertilization) takes place when one male gamete and the egg fuse together. The fertilised
egg grows into seed from which the new plants can grow.
The thalamus is the base of the flower to which other floral parts are attached.
Pollination is the transfer of pollen grains from anther of the flower to the stigma of the same or a
different flower.
Once the pollen reaches the stigma, pollen tube traverses down the style to the ovary where
fertilisation occurs.
The Petals are coloured to attract the insects that carry the pollen. Some flowers also produce nectar
or sweet smell that attracts insects.
The whorl Calyx is green that protects the flower until it opens.

281
Q.28 Ans. A cross between parents differing in two heritable traits is called dihybrid cross. Eg. cross of pure
tall, round seed plant with dwarf, wrinkle seeded plant.
In dihybrid cross F2 phenotype ratio 9 : 3 : 3 : 1indicates that the two pairs of characters behave
independent of each other.
For Example : The dihybrid cross between pea plants that differed in two pairs of contrasting
characters.
The cross a yellow round seed pea plant with a green wrinkled seed pea plant., we get 9 yellow
round, 3 yellow wrinkled, 3 green round and 1 green wrinkled plants in the F2 generation.

282
Q.29 Ans. 1. Isolation is the separation of the population of a particular species into smaller units which
prevents interbreeding between them. Some barrier which prevents gene flow or exchange of genes
between isolated populations, is called isolating mechanism.
2. There are two types of isolation mechanism i) Geographical mechanism ii) Reproductive Isolation
The types of reproductive isolation :
A. Pre-mating or pre-zygotic isolating mechanism : This mechanism prevent fertilization and zygot
formation.
i) Habitat isolation or (Ecological isolation) : Membrane of a population living in the same
geographic region but occupy separate habitats so that potential mates do not meet.
ii) Seasonal or temporal isolation : Members of a population living in the same geographic region but
are sexually mature at different years of different times of the year.
iii) Ethological isolation : Due to specific mating behaviour the members of population do not mate.
iv) Mechanical Isolation : Members of two population have difference in the structure of
reproductive organs.

Q.30 Ans. 1. The term ‘hormone’ was coined first by Starling (1906) in animal physiology.
2. The internal factors that influence growth are called growth hormones or growth regulators as they
inhibit, promote or modify the growth.
3. Growth promoters are auxins, gibberellins (GA) and cytokinins (CK).
4. Growth inhibitors in plants are ethylene and abscissic acid (ABA).
5. All Phytohormones are growth regulators.
6. Plant hormones are organic substances produced naturally in higher plants affecting growth or
other physiological functions at a site remote from its place of production and active in very minute
(optimum) amount”.
7. Hormones are transported through phloem parenchyma.
8. Auxin is responsible for formation of lateral and adventitious roots.
9. Gibberellins overcome the requirement of vernalization and it causes production of male flowers
on female plant.
10. Cytokinin promotes shooting, reverses apical dominance effect.
11. Ethylene is effective in fruit ripening.
12. Abscissic acid act as an antitranspirant i.e. close stomata by efflux of K+ ion.

Q.31 Ans. a. Synaptic vesicles contain many neurotransmitters that are essential for helping the neuron relay.
b. Calcium enters the axon terminal during an action potential causing release the neurotransmitter.
c. Neurotransmitters travel across the synapse between the axon and the dendrites of the next neuron.
The binding allows the nerve impulse to travel through the receiving neuron.
d. In this the pre and post synaptic neurons lie near each other. Hence the impulse can move directly
from one neuron to other. This is a slower method of impulse transmission.

283
 PAPER - 3
Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) The factor necessary for decreasing the density of a population in each habitat.
(a) Biotic potential (b) Extinction and immigration
(c) Mortality and Natality (d) Mortality and emigration

(ii) Which of the following statements is not related to habitat loss and fragmentation?
(a) Loss of local habitat due to human activities (b) Tropical rainforest is being lost
(c) Extinction of species due to overexploitation (d) Not creating crisis for the living being.

(iii) ______ is a graphic representation of the relationship between the organisms of various successive
trophic levels with respect to energy biomass and number.
(a) Food chain (b) Food web (c) Ecological pyramid (d) Nutrient cycles

(iv) ________ shows the distribution of various age groups in a population.

(a) Mortality (b) Age pyramid (c) Growth rate (d) Crude birth rate.

(v) ________ leads to lesser variation in biomass production over a period.

(a) Ecosystem (b) Productivity (c) Rich diversity (d) Species diversity

(vi) Which of the following is required for stimulation of flowering in the plants?
(a) Adequate oxygen (b) Definite photoperiod (c) Adequate water (d) Water and minerals

(vii) Give the term used to express a community in its final stage of succession?
(a) End community (b) Final community (c) Climax community (d) Dark community

(viii) The blank portion in the structure of gastrula represent___.

(a) Coelom (b) Blastula (c) Placenta (d) Embryo

284
 (ix) ______is called also known as atherosclerosis.
(a) Coronary artery disease (b) Angina pectoris (c) Hypertension (d) Heart transplant

(x) Which type of reproduction does the given figure indicate?

(a) Budding (b) Cutting (c) Grafting (d) Fragmentation

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) What are Halophytes, give an example?

(ii) What does saltatory conduction in repolarization of nerve impulse describe?

(iii) Suggest any two ways to reduce vehicular pollution.

(iv) Define the term amphimixis.

(v) Define : Double circulation

(vi) How many haploid cells are present in a mature embryo sac ?

(vii) Exonuclease cannot be used while producing a recombinant DNA molecule, give reason.

(viii) If the variation occur in population by chance alone and not by natural selection and bring change in
frequencies of an allele. What is it called?

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 How are the transgenic mice used in cancer research?

Q.4 How does CO cause giddiness and exhaustion?

Q.5 Distinguish between the sympathetic and parasympathetic nervous system on the basis of the effect
they have on:
a. Heart beat b. Urinary Bladder

Q.6 Define and explain term: Bioethus

Q.7 Study the diagram and name the interconnection.

285
Q.8 Define and explain term: Biopatent

Q.9 Identify and Labelled the diagram.

Q.10 What is disruptive selection? Give example.

Q.11 How does tongue detect the sensation of taste?

Q.12 Give scientific reason: Left ventricle is thick than all other chambers of heart.

Q.13 Comment on any two mechanical contraceptive methods.

Q.14 Why are Okazaki fragments formed on lagging strand only?

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Describe the different types of chromosomes.

Q.16 Explain the role of hypothalamus and pituitary as a coordinated unit in maintaining homeostasis?

Q.17 How is blood kept moving in the large veins of the legs?

Q.18 Describe three devices by which cross pollination is encouraged in Angiosperms by avoiding self
pollination.

Q.19 Write a note on biocontrol agents.

286
Q.20 What will be the effect of thyroid gland atrophy on the human body?

Q.21 Compare - X-chromosome and Y-chromosome.

Q.22 Root tip showing root hair zone

Q.23 If the duration of the atrial systole is 0.1 sec and that of complete diastole is 0.4 sec, then how does
one cardiac cycle complete in 0.8 sec?

Q.24 Explain the stages involved in the maturation of microspore into male gametophyte.

Q.25 Give an account of poultry diseases.

Q.26 By talking industrial melanism as one example. Explain the concept of natural selection.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Explain structure of the root and root hair with neat diagram.

Q.28 What is cancer? Differentiate between bening tumor and malignant tumor. Name the main five types
of cancer.

Q.29 Describe the ‘Lac-operon’.

Q.30 Give a pictorial representation of roles of microelement elements in plants.

Q.31 Describe the process of fertilization.

-------- All the Best --------

287
 PAPER 3
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (d)

(ii) Ans. (d)

(iii) Ans. (c)

(iv) Ans. (b)

(v) Ans. (c)

(vi) Ans. (b)

(vii) Ans. (b)

(viii) Ans. (a)

(ix) Ans. (a)

(x) Ans. (c)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. Halophytes are plants which can sustain the salinities of the sea.
Example of halophytes -sea lavender.

(ii) Ans. It describes the way an electrical impulse jump from node to node.

(iii) Ans. Avoid excessive use of automobiles and use zero emission electric car.

(iv) Ans. It is the process which involves the production up offspring by the formation and Fusion of
gametes.

(v) Ans. In double circulation blood passes through heart twice during each cycle. it occurs mainly in boards
and mammals.

(vi) Ans. There are usually 8 haploid cells in the female gametophyte of a flowering plant.

288
 (vii) Ans. Exonuclease cannot be used while producing recombinant DNA it degrades the DNA and cannot
produce DNA fragments with sticky ends.

(viii) Ans. If the variation occur in population by chance alone and not by natural selection and bring change
in frequencies of an allele, it is called as genetic drift.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. 1. The transgenic mouse being the model of choice to mimic the conditions that occur during
human tumor initiation and progression.
2. These transgenic mice models provide valuable information and somewhat greater predictability
than cell/tissue cultures in vitro.
3. Genetically engineered mouse models (GEMM) of cancer are becoming useful systems for
understanding the molecular and cellular determinants of tumorigenesis and for refining anticancer
agents targeted to various facets of carcinogenesis in vivo.
4. In the laboratory of Philip Leder in Harvard (USA) the transgenic mouse model for the
investigation of the breast cancer was developed. The oncogenes mycand raswere analyzed to find
out if they lead to breast cancerin mice transformed with these genes.

Q.4 Ans. 1. The most common symptoms of CO poisoning are headache, giddiness, weakness, upset stomach
vomiting, chest pain etc.
2. When too much carbon monoxide is in the air you are breathing your body replaces the oxygen in
your red blood cells with carbon monoxide.
3. When this happens, the blood is no longer able to carry oxygen and this lack of oxygen causes the
body cells and tissue to feel exhaustion and giddiness.
4. Smoke inhalation during a fire also can cause carbon monoxide poisoning.

Q.5 An a) The sympathetic nervous system releases hormones to accelerate the heart rate.
s.The parasympathetic nervous system releases the hormone to slow the heart rate.
b) The sympathetic nervous system stimulates the bladder to increase its capacity
The parasympathetic nervous system activity leading to bladder contraction.

Q.6 An Bioethics helps to study moral vision, decision and policies of human behavior in
s.relation to biological phenomena or events. Ethics deals with ‘Life’ e.g. in vitro
fertilization, sperm bank, gene therapy, cloning, gene manipulations,
euthanasia, death, maintaining those who are in comatose state, prenatal genetic
selection, etc.

Q.7 An The mentioned figure represents food web.

s.Food web shows how plants and animals are connected in many ways and is the
natural interconnection of food chains.

Q.8 An 1. Bio patent is a biological patent. Biopatents are awarded for strains of
s.microorganisms, cell lines, genetically modified strains, DNA sequences,
biotechnological processes, product processes, product and product applications.
2. Biopatent allows the patent holderto exclude others from making, using, selling,
or importing protected invention for a limited period of time. Duration of
biopatents is five years from the date of the grant or seven years from the date of
filing the patent application.

289
Q.9 An
s.

Q.1 An 1. In Disruptive Natural Selection, a greater number of individuals acquire

0 s.peripheral character value at both end of the distribution curve.
2. Nature select extreme phenotypes and eliminate intermediate. Hence, two peaks
are formed in distribution of traits.
3. This kind of selection is rare. It effects entire gene pool of a population.
4. Example – It was observed in the different beaks size of African seed cracker
finches. The birds have different size of beak and they feed on seeds. There were
small and large sized seeds. Large beak sized birds feed on large seeds while
small beak sized birds feed on small seeds and their number was increased.
Intermediate beak sized birds are unable to feed on either type of seeds so their
population was decreased gradually and then eliminated by Natural Selection.

Q.1 An 1. The sensation of taste is detected by the receptor cells called taste buds.
1 s.2. Photoreceptors are clustered in taste buds and scattered in other areas of the
body.
3. Each taste bud has a pore that opens out to the surface of the tongue enabling
molecules and ions taken into the mouth to reach the receptor cells inside.
4. Taste buds have overly sensitive microscopic microvilli which send messages
to the brain about the taste of food, so that we can taste the things as sweet, sour,
bitter or salty.

Q.1 An 1. The left ventricle is more muscular than the right ventricle.
2 s.2. The left ventricle is three times thicker than the right ventricle.
3. The left ventricle has to pump all over body blood.
4. The right ventricle has to pump blood only to the lungs.
5. So, left ventricle is thick than all other chambers of the heart.

290
Q.1 An 1. Contraceptive methods are devices that provide a physical barrier between the
3 s.sperm and egg.
2. Condom-The condom is the one kind of contraceptive method that helps
prevent sexually transmitted infection. It is a thin rubber sheath that is used to
cover the penis of the male during copulation.
3. It prevents the entry of ejaculated semen into the female reproductive tract.
4. spermicides - in this method chemicals like foam, tablets, jellies and creams are
used by the female partner at the time of sexual intercourse.
5. This chemical is introduced into the vagina, they adhere to the mucous
membrane, kill the sperms.

Q.1 An 1. The template strand of lagging strand has 5’ to 3’ direction.

4 s.2. So, it cannot be created in a continuous fashion.
3. Enzyme polymerase acts backward from the replicating fork.
4. This leads to breaks in the process of creating lagging strand.
5. Hence, Okazaki Fragments are formed.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.1 An A typical chromosome consists of two chromatids joined together at centromere.

5 s.Depending on the position of centromere there are four types (shapes) of
chromosomes.
1. Acrocentric – In this type of chromosome the position of the centromere is near
one end of the chromosome. Its J shaped.
2. Telocentric – It is I Shaped chromosome. The position of the centromere is at
one end.
3. Submetacentric – In this type of chromosome the position of the centromere is
some distance away from centre of chromosomes.
4. Metacentric – It is V shaped chromosome. The position of the centromere is
Middle of the chromosome.

291
Q.1 An 1.Anterior pituitary and intermediate lobes are connected to the hypothalamus
6 s.through hypophyseal portal system. Various hormones secreted by hypothalamus
reach the pituitary gland through the hypophyseal portal system.
2. The portal vein collects blood from various parts of hypothalamus and opens
into anterior lobe of pituitary. From the pituitary, the vein finally carries the blood
into the superior vena cava. It helps in feedback mechanism for hormonal control.
3. Also, negative feedback mechanism takes place in the form of hormones
released by the target glands decrease the secretion of pituitary gland.
4. In such negative feedback mechanism, the secretion of ACTH, TSH and
gonadotropins (FSH and LH) decreases when their target gland hormones levels
rise.
5. eg. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulate the cortex of the adrenal
gland to secrete glucocorticoids, mainly cortisol. In turn, an elevated blood level
of cortisol decreases secretion of both corticotripin and corticotropin-releasing
hormone (CRH) by suppressing the activity of the anterior pituitary corticotrophs
and neurosecretory cells.

Q.1 An 1. Veins are thin walled, mostly superficial vessels which carries blood from the
7 s.organs towards the heart.
2. Except for the pulmonary veins or other veins of the body carries deoxygenated
blood towards the heart.
3. As per nature’s rule each and everything has an attraction towards gravity. So
the blood also travels from the upper side of the body towards the lower side.
4. The pumping force of the ventricles moves blood through the arteries.
5. The breathing movements exert pressure on the chest veins, the valves in the
larger veins keep the blood from flowing backward, and the skeletal muscles'
contraction all help the blood in veins to move.
6. The muscles in your legs help transport blood back to your heart.
7. It carries a deoxygenated blood
8. The veins in your legs also have valves to help this process and prevent blood
from flowing back down towards your feet.

Q.1 An 1. Three outbreeding devices that flowering plants have developed are self-
8 s.incompatibility production of unisexual flowers and dichogamy.
2. Self- incompatibility - it is a genetic method to prevent pollen from fertilizing
ovules of the same flower by inhibiting their germination on stigma or pistil.
3. Production of unisexual flower- in this case the female and male parts will be
present on different plants, so, self-pollination is not possible to occur.
4. Dichogamy- In this device, anthers and stigmas mature at different times in a
bisexual flower. So, self-pollination is not possible to occur.

292
Q.1 An 1. The term biocontrol refers to the use of biological methods to control
9 s.diseases and pests, by using their natural biological enemies.
2. The agents which are employed for this are called biocontrol agents.
3. Microbes are one of the biocontrol agents rapidly used. These microbes include
bacteria, fungi, viruses, and protozoans.
4. Microbes as biocontrol agents act in three ways, either they cause the disease
to the pest or compete or kill them.
5. Example: Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) is used to get rid of butterfly. Spores of
Bacillus thuringiensisare mixed with water and sprayed onto vulnerable plants
such as Brassicas and fruit trees. These spores are then eaten by the insect, in the
gut of the larvae, the toxin (cry protein) is released and the larvae get killed
eventually.
6. Trichodermaspecies are free-living fungi found in the root ecosystem
(rhizosphere). These are effective as biocontrol agents of several soil borne fungal
plant pathogens. The fungus produces substances like viridin, gliotoxin, gliovirin,
etc that inhibit the other soil borne pathogens attacking root, rhizomes, etc causing
rot disease.

Q.2 An 1. Thyroid gland dysfunction can result in hyper or hypo activity of the thyroid.
0 s.2. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland is functionally
inadequate.
3. symptoms of hypothyroidism include brittle fingernails, thinning of hair, puffy
eyes, weakness, and Constipation.
4. Hyperthyroidism is caused by increase in the levels of thyroid hormones.
5. This increases metabolic rate, sensitivity, sweating, flushing, rapid respiration,
bulging of eyeballs and effects various physiological activities.
6. Atrophic thyroids may be viewed as the later stages of autoimmune
hypothyroidism in which there is minimal residual thyroid tissue.
7. The effects are fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, depression, and dry skin.

Q.2 An X-Chromosome :
1 s.1) It is metacentric, hence appears X shaped.
2) It is longer than ‘Y’ chromosomes.
3) It contains large amount of euchromatin and small amount of heterochromatin.
4) It is found in both male and female.
5) Non-homologous part of X chromosome shows more genes than Y
chromosome.
6) X- linked genes are present on X chromosome.
7) Genes present on X chromosome show criss-cross inheritance.

Y Chromosome :
1) It is acrocentric, hence appears Y shaped.
2) It is shorter than ‘X’ chromosomes.
3) It contains large amount of heterochromatin and small amount of euchromatin.
4) It is found only in males.
5) Non-homologous part of Y chromosome contains few genes as compared to X
chromosome.
6) Y- Linked genes (Holandric genes) are present on y chromosome.
7) Genes present on Y chromosome show straight inheritance.

293
Q.2 An
2 s.

Q.2 An 1. When all the chambers of the heart are in diastole, this condition is called joint
3 s.diastole or complete diastole.
2. In normal conditions, the joint diastole takes 0.4 sec.
3. In joint diastole flow of blood does not cause the contraction of any part of the
heart but simply by the fact that the pressure in the heart is less than that in great
veins and the AV valves are open.
4. In normal conditions, atrial systole is for 0.1 sec.
5. During the period of atrial systole the atria contract and expel their contents into
the respective ventricles. The left atrium, being further away from the S.A node,
contracts a little after the right atrium.
6. In normal conditions, ventricular systole lasts for 0.3 sec.
7. In the ventricle systole, the impulse originating at the S.A node will certainly
overtake the atrium first, and then it will travel down the junctional tissues, enter
the ventricles and stimulate their contraction. Naturally then, ventricular systole
will always come after atrial systole.
So for the completion of one cardiac cycle takes 0.8 sec.

Q.2 An 1. The nucleus of each microspore mother cell undergoes meiosis or reduction
4 s.division to develop four haploid nuclei, this process is called microsporogenesis.
2. The four nuclei are arranged tetrahedrally and soon get enclosed with cell walls,
these are called micro spores or pollen grains.
3. Pollen grains are non-motile, haploid, unicellular body with single nucleus.
4. Pollen grains marks the beginning of male gametophyte.
5. It undergoes first mitotic division to produce bigger naked vegetative cell and
small thin walled generative cell.
6. The second mitotic division is concerned with generative cell only and gives
rise to two non-motile male gametes
7. The pollen grains are shed from the anther at these two celled stages.

Q.2 An Different types of poultry diseases are mentioned below:

5 s.1.Viral diseases like Ranikhet, Bronchitis, Avian influenza (bird flu), etc. Few
years back, bird flu have seriously influenced poultry farming and human
infection too.
2. Bacterial diseases mainly include Pullorum, Cholera, Typhoid, TB, CRD
(chronic respiratory disease), Enteritis, etc.
3. Fungal diseases are Aspergillosis, Favus and Thrush.
4. Parasitic diseases include lice infection, round worm, caecal worm infections,
etc.
5. Protozoan diseases e.g. Coccidiosis is a protozoan disease.

294
Q.2 An 1. Natural selection encourages those genes or traits that assure highest degree of
6 s.adaptive efficiency between population and its environment.
2. Industrial melanism is one of the best example for natural selection.
3. In Great Britain, before industrialization (1845) grey white winged moths
(Bistonbetularia) were more in number than black winged moth
(Bistoncarbonaria).
4. These moths are nocturnal and during day time they rest on tree trunk.
5. White-winged moths were camouflaged (hide in the background) well with the
lichen convert trees that helped them to escape from the predatory birds.
6. However, the black-winged moth resting on lichen covered tree trunks were
easy victims for the predatory birds and their number was reduced.
7. During industrial revolution, large number of industries came up in Great
Britain.
8. The industries released black sooty smoke that covered and killed the lichens
growing on tree and turn the tree black due to pollution.
9. This change became an advantage to the black-winged moths that camouflaged
well with the black tree trunks and their number increased.
10 The white-winged moths however became victims to predatory birds due to
which their number reduced. Thus, natural selection has resulted in the
establishment of a phenotypic trait in the changing environmental condition.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.2 An 1. Root: Root is the main organ of water, and mineral absorption.
7 s.2. In terrestrial plants, plants absorb the water in the form of liquid from the soil.
3. However, epiphytic plants like orchids absorb water vapors from air with the
help of epiphytic roots having special tissue called Velamen.
4. Typical root is divisible into four different regions.
5. In the zone of absorption, epidermal cells (epiblema cells) form unicellular hair
like extensions called root hairs.
6. Structure of root hair: Root hair is cytoplasmic extension (prolongation) of the
epiblema cell.
7. Each root hair may be approximately 1 to 10mm long, and tube like structure.
8. It is colorless, unbranched, short-lived (ephemeral), and very delicate.
9. It has a large central vacuole surrounded by thin film of cytoplasm, plasma
membrane, and thin cell wall, which is two layered.
10. The outer layer is composed of pectin, and inner layer is made up of cellulose.
11. The cell wall is freely permeable but plasma membrane is selectively
permeable.

295
Q.2 An 1. Cancer is an abnormal, uncontrolled and purposeless division of cells may lead
8 s.to the formation/development of mass of undifferentiated cells is called cancer.

296
 3. There are five main types of cancers according to the type of tissue affected
namely carcinoma, sarcoma, lymphoma, leukemia, and adenocarcinoma.
4. Cancers are named according to the tissue from which they arise.
Carcinoma:
a. Cancer that arises from epithelial tissue covering or lining the body organs is
known as carcinoma.
B. It includes breast cancer, lung cancer, cancer of stomach, skin cancer. Etc.
Sarcoma:
a. Cancer that arises from connective tissue is called sarcoma.
B. It includes bone tumors (osteosarcoma), muscle tumors (myosarcoma), cancer
of cartilage (chondrosarcoma), and cancer of adipose tissue (liposarcoma).
Lymphoma:
a. Cancer that arises from lymphatic tissue is called lymphoma.
B. It occurs in the lymphatic nodes, spleen, and tissues of the immune system.
Leukemia:
a. It is a type of blood cancer in which there is excessive formation of white blood
cells (WBCs) or leukocytes in the bone marrow.
B. People suffering from leukemia have very high leucocyte count.
C. The blood contains millions of abnormal immature WBCs or leucocytes that
are incapable of fighting infections.
D. There are various types of leukemia such as monocytic leukemia,
lymphoblastic leukemia et.)
Adenocarcinoma: Adenocarcinoma cancer arises in the thyroid, pituitary adrenal,
and other glandular tissues.
5. The carcinogenic substances are the compounds that cause cancer.
6. Cancer can be caused by chemicals, radiation, viruses, oncogenes and
addiction.
7. Cancer can be treated by using therapies such as chemotherapy, radiotherapy,
surgery, immunotherapy, and supportive therapy.

Q.2 An 1. Lactose or lac operon of E. coli is inducible operon. The operon is switched on
9 s.when a chemical inducer lactose is present in the medium.
2. Jacob and Monad proposed the classical model of Lac operon.
3. The Lac operon consists of promoter site (P), regulatory site (i) and operator
site (O)
4. It also has three structural genes, namely z, y and a each producing an enzyme.
5. The following three enzymes are required for the metabolism of lactose in the
cell.

297
 7. If glucose is not available for cells, they will require another source of energy
such as lactose.
8. If lactose is not available, the repressor protein produced by repressor gene will
attach to the operator and block RNA polymerase.
9. Lactose acts as an inducer. If lactose is available, it will prevent the repressor
from binding the operator, by forming inducer-repressor complex and allow RNA
polymerase to transcribe mRNA.
10. RNA polymerase will attach to promoter and will begin transcribing mRNA.
11. RNA polymerase first transcribes the lac z gene which is responsible for
synthesizing β – galactosidase.
12. RNA polymerase moves on to the next gene, lac y that synthesizes the enzyme
permease.
13. RNA polymerase finally moves to the lac a gene which is responsible for
synthesizing transacetylase.
14. β – galactosidase, permease and transacetylase are enzymes in the metabolic
pathway used to get energy from lactose.
15. After lactose is used up and levels decrease, the repressor will attach to the
operator blocking the production of β – galactosidase, permease and
transacetylase, so that lactose levels increase.

Q.3 An 1. Plant absorbs water, gases, mineral, nutrients, etc. from surroundings.
0 s.2. Green plants for the synthesis of their organic food need inorganic substances
(elements) which are obtained from soil in the form of minerals.
3. Minerals constitute most commonly occurring solid, inorganic materials
obtained from the earth’s crust.
4. Chemical analysis of plant ash clearly indicates that plant absorbs mineral
elements from surroundings (soil, air and water) for its use.
5. About 36 to 40 different elements of periodic table are used as minerals by the
plants.
6. These are absorbed in ionic (dissolved) form as PO₄ , CO₃ , SO₄ , etc. usually
through roots.
7. Plants derive necessary elements from the atmosphere, soil and water. Carbon
enters the plant as atmospheric carbon-dioxide.
8. Source of hydrogen is water and oxygen comes from air and water. Carbon,
Hydrogen and oxygen are not minerals in origin.
9. Source of nitrogen is the soil. Plant derives nitrogen from both mineral and
non-mineral origin.
10. Microelements are required in traces because they function in the catalytic role
e.g. Zn, Cu, Al, Si, etc) It acts as a co-factor.
11. Macroelements are required in large quantity. They mainly play the nutritive
and structural roles e.g. C, H, O, P, Mg, N, K, S, etc) C, H, O is non mineral major
elements.

298
299
Q.3 An Fertilization is the biological process of Fusion of male and female gametes
1 s.resulting in the formation of zygote.
Steps of fertilization in humans:
i) Movement of sperms towards egg
ii) Entry of sperm into egg
iii) Acrosomal reaction
iv) Activation of egg
v) Fusion of egg and sperm
Movement of sperm towards egg-
i) The sperm incapacitation undergoes acrosomal reactions and release certain
chemicals known as sperm lysins.
ii) The movement of sperm towards ampulla a result of their own swimming and
partly by contraction of uterus and fallopian tube stimulated by oxytocin of
female.
Entry of sperm into egg - only few sperms can reach the ampulla.
i) After reaching their sperm to lie against ovum.
Acrosome reaction –
i) As the sperm head touches the zona pellucida in the animal pole region its
acrosome covering ruptures to release lytic enzymes.
ii) A small fertilization cone is formed where both plasma membrane dissolve.
iii) Plasma membrane of both cells dissolve at the point of contact the sperm
nucleus enter the egg.
Activation of Ovum –
iv) The entry of sperm triggers the metabolism in the zygote, subsequent
formation of polar body and true ovum formed.
Fusion of egg and sperm –
v) The coverings of male and female pronuclei degenerate allowing the
chromosomal pairing, this results in the formation of a synkaryon by the process
called syngamy.

300
 PAPER - 4
Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Asexual reproduction is the process which produces genetically ______ progeny from a single
organism.
(a) identical (b) non identical (c) different (d) similar

(ii) The blood contains_____ of proteins.

(a) 75% (b) 90% (c) 7 to 8% (d) 1 to 2%

(iii) _____ is the process of formation of gametes in sexually reproducing animals.

(a) gametogenesis (b) Formation (c) Spermiogenesis (d) Oogenesis

(iv) Match the terms in Column 1 with those in column 2.

(a) A-3, B- 2, C- 1, D-4 (b) A-2, B-4, C-1, D- 3 (c) A-4, B- 2, C- 1, D-3 (d) A-3, B- 1, C- 2, D-4

(v) Gibberellins found at _________.

(a) Root tip (b) Shoot tip (c) Lateral buds (d) Apical buds

(vi) The mentioned instrument is called____.

301
 (a) Electrostatic precipitator (b) Gas scrubber (c) Catalytic converter (d) Emission controller

(vii) Name the growth curve.

(a) Exponential growth curve (b) Bacterial growth curve

(c) Logistic growth curve (d) Zero growth curve

(viii) Find the odd one out from the below mentioned names.
Pyramid of biomass, saprotrophs, omnivores, decomposers, producers
(a) Pyramid of biomass (b) Omnivores (c) Decomposers (d) Producers

(ix) Substance that causes pollution is called ____.

(a) pollutant (b) precipitant (c) particles (d) particulate

(x) ______ and ______ contribute to an increase in population density.

(a) Mortality and Natality (b) Population growth and density
(c) New births and Immigration (d) Growth rate and birth rate

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) What is Duplication?

(ii) What is nuclease?

(iii) What is the function of filiform apparatus ?

(iv) Define : Pacemaker

(v) Where does fertilization and implantation occur?

(vi) Which population growth model is the Verhulstpearl equation associated?

(vii) Write the names of hormones and the glands secreting them for the regulation of following function:
Basal Metabolic rate.

(viii) Mention the significance of the concept of ecological niche.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

302
Q.3 Justify the statements. If the answer is false, change the underlined words to make the statement true:
The DNA molecule is double stranded and the RNA molecule is single stranded.

Q.4 Write a note on IVF

Q.5 Give scientific reason: Closed circulation is more efficient than open circulation.

Q.6 Describe in brief, an account of disorders of adrenal gland.

Q.7 Match the following:

Q.8 Define and explain term: Biopiracy

Q.9 Identify and Labelled the diagram.

Q.10 What is spatial pattern, enlist its two types.

Q.11 Explain the properties of a good or ideal cloning vector for rDNA technology.

Q.12 Complete the table:

303
Q.13 Name two types of particulate pollutants found in air. Add a note on ill effects of the same on human
health.

Q.14 Define and explain term: Bioethus

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 By talking industrial melanism as one example. Explain the concept of natural selection.

Q.16 Explain the process of sewage water treatment before it can be discharged into natural bodies. Why
this treatment is essential?

Q.17 Describe three devices by which cross pollination is encouraged in Angiosperms by avoiding self
pollination.

Q.18 Why is it advantageous to breathe through the nose than through the mouth?

Q.19 Describe the different types of chromosomes.

Q.20 Explain the role of hypothalamus and pituitary as a coordinated unit in maintaining homeostasis?

Q.21 Write a note on lac culture.

Q.22 Diffusion of water into plant cell across the plasma membrane

Q.23 Explain the stages involved in the maturation of microspore into male gametophyte.

Q.24 If the duration of the atrial systole is 0.1 sec and that of complete diastole is 0.4 sec, then how does
one cardiac cycle complete in 0.8 sec?

Q.25 Describe in brief an account of disorders of the thyroid.

Q.26 “Father is responsible for determination of sex of child and not the mother”. Justify.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Explain the process by which zygote divides and redivides to form the morula.
304
Q.28 How are the minerals transported by the plants?

Q.29 Explain the process of DNA replication.

Q.30 How does the transmission of each of the following diseases take place?
a. Amoebiasis b. Malaria c. Ascariasis d. Pneumonia

Q.31 Write a detail types of cellular differentiations.

-------- All the Best --------

305
 PAPER 4
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (a)

(ii) Ans. (c)

(iii) Ans. (a)

(iv) Ans. (b)

(v) Ans. (a)

(vi) Ans. (c)

(vii) Ans. (c)

(viii) Ans. (a)

(ix) Ans. (a)

(x) Ans. (c)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. Genes are repeated or doubled in number on chromosome.

(ii) Ans. Enzymes that cut the phosphodiester bonds of polynucleotide chains are called nuclease.

(iii) Ans. The function of filiform apparatus is to guide entry of pollen tube and release of sperm cells.

(iv) Ans. Sino atrial node is known as pacemaker. It lies at the base of opening of superior vena cava.

(v) Ans. Fertilization occurs in fallopian tube and implantation occurs in uterus.

(vi) Ans. Logistic population growth model is the Verhulst pearl equation.

(vii) Ans. Names of hormones- Thyroxin.

Glands secreting hormone-Thyroid gland

306
 (viii) Ans. Concept of Ecological niche is used to denote the functional role played by an organism in its
environment.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. 1. The DNA is responsible for storing genetic information and alsopreserving it for the next
generation of cells. Thus, it needs to be stable and resistant to enzymatic or oxidative alteration.
2. The double stranded DNA molecule is so designed that the part which stores the genetic
information; the nitrogenous base pairs are stacked inward.
3. Phosphate group (PO₄ ˉ) keep the base pairs safe inside form the backbone. DNA is further
wrapped up around histone proteins into chromosomes which keep it condensed. This would not be
possible if it were only single stranded.
4. RNA is not meant to last long and acts as template carrying information which is copied from the
DNA. Using protein synthesizing machinery, it forms protein. After which is disintegrates and
digested.

Q.4 Ans. 1. IVF stands for in vitro fertilization.

2. It is one of the most widely known types of reproductive technology.
3. It works by surgical procedure to help sperm fertilise an egg and help the fertilised egg implant in
human uterus.
4. In these cases, doctors fuses sperms and ovum externally and zygote formed is implanted in
women uterus for further development.

Q.5 Ans. 1. In open circulation, blood is circulated through the body cavities. But in close circulation, blood
is circulated all over the body.
2. In open circulation, blood flow has low pressure. It does not contain any respiratory pigments.
3. In close circulation, blood flow in high pressure and it contain respiratory pigments like
hemoglobin which helps in the transportation of gases.
4. Because of this high pressure of blood flows closed circulation is more efficient than open
circulation.

Q.6 An a. Hyposecretion of mineralocorticoids and glucocorticoids is responsible for

s.Addison’s disease. Characteristics features of this disease are low blood sugar,
law Na⁺ and high K⁺ concentration in plasma, increased loss of Na⁺ and water
in urine. It leads to weight loss, weakness, nausea, vomiting and diarrhea.
b. Hyper secretion of glucocorticoids produces Cushing’s disease. It leads to high
blood sugar level, excretion of glucose in urine, rise in Na⁺ level in blood, high
blood pressure, obesity and wasting of limb muscles.

Q.7 An 2 - a.
s.1 - b.
3.- d.
4 - c.

Q.8 An Biopiracy is defined as ‘theft of various natural products and then selling
s.them by getting patent without giving any benefits or compensation back to
the host country’.
In short, it is unauthorized misappropriation of any biological resource and
indigenous knowledge.

307
Q.9 An
s.

Q.1 An 1. Spatial pattern of a distribution is defined as the arrangement of individual

0 s.entities in space and the geographic relationship among them.
2. Biotic and abiotic components differ as the locations vary in space and time and
this variation due to space cause in spatial pattern.
3. There are two types of special patterns, stratification and zonation.
4. Stratification is the vertical distribution of different species of plants and
animals different labels and zonation is the horizontal distribution of plants and
animals on land or in water.

Q.1 An Different properties of a vector are:

1 s.1. A vector should have the ability of independent replication so that as the
vector replicates, a large number of copies of the DNA insert will be formed.
2. A vector should be able to easily introduce into host cells.
3. A vector should have marker genes for antibiotic resistance.
4. It must contain unique cleavage site in one of the marker genes for restriction
enzyme.
5. It should have at least suitable control elements like promoter, operator,
ribosomal binding sites, etc.

Q.1 An
2 s.

308
Q.1 An 1. Particulate pollutants are macroscopic or microscopic liquid or solid particles
3 s.present in the form of suspension in the air.
2. The name of these kind of particulate pollutants are smoke, dust and pesticides.
3. Exposure to such pollutants can affect both the lungs and heart, which causes
decreased lungs function, increased respiratory symptoms such as irritation of the
airways, coughing and difficulty in breathing.

Q.1 An Bioethics helps to study moral vision, decision and policies of human behavior in
4 s.relation to biological phenomena or events. Ethics deals with ‘Life’ e.g. in vitro
fertilization, sperm bank, gene therapy, cloning, gene manipulations,
euthanasia, death, maintaining those who are in comatose state, prenatal genetic
selection, etc.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.1 An 1. Natural selection encourages those genes or traits that assure highest degree of
5 s.adaptive efficiency between population and its environment.
2. Industrial melanism is one of the best example for natural selection.
3. In Great Britain, before industrialization (1845) grey white winged moths
(Bistonbetularia) were more in number than black winged moth
(Bistoncarbonaria).
4. These moths are nocturnal and during day time they rest on tree trunk.
5. White-winged moths were camouflaged (hide in the background) well with the
lichen convert trees that helped them to escape from the predatory birds.
6. However, the black-winged moth resting on lichen covered tree trunks were
easy victims for the predatory birds and their number was reduced.
7. During industrial revolution, large number of industries came up in Great
Britain.
8. The industries released black sooty smoke that covered and killed the lichens
growing on tree and turn the tree black due to pollution.
9. This change became an advantage to the black-winged moths that camouflaged
well with the black tree trunks and their number increased.
10 The white-winged moths however became victims to predatory birds due to
which their number reduced. Thus, natural selection has resulted in the
establishment of a phenotypic trait in the changing environmental condition.

309
Q.1 An Different stages of sewage treatment are:
6 s.1. Screening: In this step the suspended and floating materials are filtered through
screening chambers and are removed.
2. Primary treatment: After preliminary treatment waste is pumped into primary
sedimentation tank. About 50-70% of the solids settle down. The organic matter,
which is settled down, is called primary sludge which is removed by mechanically
operated devices. The supernatant (effluent) in the primary sedimentation tank
still contains large amount of dissolved organic matter and micro-organisms
which can then be removed by the secondary treatment.
3. Secondary treatment: The primary effluent is passed into large aeration tanks.
Here it is constantly agitated mechanically, and air is pumped into it. Aerobic
bacteria grow vigorously and form flocs. These aerobic microbes
consume the major part of the organic matter present in the effluent.
4. Tertiary treatment: Once the BOD of waste water is reduced, it is passed into a
settling tank. Here the bacterial flocs are allowed to sediment. The sediment is
now called activated sludge. major part is pumped in to large tanks called
anaerobic sludge digesters. In these tanks, anaerobic bacteria grow and digest
the bacteria and fungi in the sludge. During this anaerobic digestion, gases such as
methane, hydrogen sulphide, CO₂ , etc. are produced. Effluents from these
plants (digester) after chlorination, are released in natural water bodies like rivers
and streams. Chlorination kills pathogenic bacteria
5. In last the sludge cake is disposed of.
Treatment of sewage is essential because if it is eluted out as such then it will
cause pollution in the environment.

Q.1 An 1. Three outbreeding devices that flowering plants have developed are self-
7 s.incompatibility production of unisexual flowers and dichogamy.
2. Self- incompatibility - it is a genetic method to prevent pollen from fertilizing
ovules of the same flower by inhibiting their germination on stigma or pistil.
3. Production of unisexual flower- in this case the female and male parts will be
present on different plants, so, self-pollination is not possible to occur.
4. Dichogamy- In this device, anthers and stigmas mature at different times in a
bisexual flower. So, self-pollination is not possible to occur.

Q.1 An 1. Breathe through the nose is always adventitious because the nose contains
8 s.three regions namely Vestibule, Respiratory part, and Olfactory or sensory
chamber each region has its unique features.
2. The nose has a pair of slit like openings called external nares or nostrils for
entry of air into the nasal cavity.
3. The nasal cavity is divisible into right and left nasal chambers by mesethmoid
cartilage.
4. The vestibule has hair for filtering the air and trapping the dust and suspended
particles in the inhaled air.
5. The respiratory part is a thin walled highly vascular part for warming and
moistening the inhaled air.
6. The Olfactory or sensory chamber uppermost part is lined by olfactory
epithelium for the detection of smell.

310
Q.1 An A typical chromosome consists of two chromatids joined together at centromere.
9 s.Depending on the position of centromere there are four types (shapes) of
chromosomes.
1. Acrocentric – In this type of chromosome the position of the centromere is near
one end of the chromosome. Its J shaped.
2. Telocentric – It is I Shaped chromosome. The position of the centromere is at
one end.
3. Submetacentric – In this type of chromosome the position of the centromere is
some distance away from centre of chromosomes.
4. Metacentric – It is V shaped chromosome. The position of the centromere is
Middle of the chromosome.

Q.2 An 1.Anterior pituitary and intermediate lobes are connected to the hypothalamus
0 s.through hypophyseal portal system. Various hormones secreted by hypothalamus
reach the pituitary gland through the hypophyseal portal system.
2. The portal vein collects blood from various parts of hypothalamus and opens
into anterior lobe of pituitary. From the pituitary, the vein finally carries the blood
into the superior vena cava. It helps in feedback mechanism for hormonal control.
3. Also, negative feedback mechanism takes place in the form of hormones
released by the target glands decrease the secretion of pituitary gland.
4. In such negative feedback mechanism, the secretion of ACTH, TSH and
gonadotropins (FSH and LH) decreases when their target gland hormones levels
rise.
5. eg. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulate the cortex of the adrenal
gland to secrete glucocorticoids, mainly cortisol. In turn, an elevated blood level
of cortisol decreases secretion of both corticotripin and corticotropin-releasing
hormone (CRH) by suppressing the activity of the anterior pituitary corticotrophs
and neurosecretory cells.

Q.2 An 1. Lac is produced by an insect Trachardia lacca

1 s.2. Resin like substance is produced by dermal glands of female lac insect. Insect
feeds on succulent twigs of certain plants like ber, peeple, palas, kusum,
babool, etc. and secretes pink colored resin, that hardens on coming in contact
with air forming lac.
3. Lac is a complex substance having large amount of resin together with
sugar, water, minerals and alkaline substances.
4. Natural lac is always contaminated.
5. Shellac is pure form of lac obtained by washing and filtering. Products of lac
play a vital role in the economy of the farmers.
6. Lac is used in bangles, toys, woodwork, inks, mirrors, etc. Production of lac
requires an artificial inoculation of plants which give better and regular supply of
good quality and quantity of lac.

311
Q.2 An
2 s.

Q.2 An 1. The nucleus of each microspore mother cell undergoes meiosis or reduction
3 s.division to develop four haploid nuclei, this process is called microsporogenesis.
2. The four nuclei are arranged tetrahedrally and soon get enclosed with cell walls,
these are called micro spores or pollen grains.
3. Pollen grains are non-motile, haploid, unicellular body with single nucleus.
4. Pollen grains marks the beginning of male gametophyte.
5. It undergoes first mitotic division to produce bigger naked vegetative cell and
small thin walled generative cell.
6. The second mitotic division is concerned with generative cell only and gives
rise to two non-motile male gametes
7. The pollen grains are shed from the anther at these two celled stages.

Q.2 An 1. When all the chambers of the heart are in diastole, this condition is called joint
4 s.diastole or complete diastole.
2. In normal conditions, the joint diastole takes 0.4 sec.
3. In joint diastole flow of blood does not cause the contraction of any part of the
heart but simply by the fact that the pressure in the heart is less than that in great
veins and the AV valves are open.
4. In normal conditions, atrial systole is for 0.1 sec.
5. During the period of atrial systole the atria contract and expel their contents into
the respective ventricles. The left atrium, being further away from the S.A node,
contracts a little after the right atrium.
6. In normal conditions, ventricular systole lasts for 0.3 sec.
7. In the ventricle systole, the impulse originating at the S.A node will certainly
overtake the atrium first, and then it will travel down the junctional tissues, enter
the ventricles and stimulate their contraction. Naturally then, ventricular systole
will always come after atrial systole.
So for the completion of one cardiac cycle takes 0.8 sec.

312
Q.2 An Disorder of thyroid gland are caused due to hypersecretion and hyposecretion of
5 s.thyroid hormones.
1. Hyperthyroidism : Hypersecretion of thyroid hormones. It is caused by
increases in the levels of thyroid hormones. This increases metabolic rate,
sensitivity, sweating, flushing, rapid respiration, bulging of eye balls, and affects
various physiological activities.
Graves disease (Exopthalmic goiter) : Hyperthyroidism in adults , is characterized
by protruding eyeballs, increased BMR and weight loss. Increased BMR produces
a range of effect like increased heartbeat, increased BP, higher body temperature,
nervousness, irritability, tremor of figure and bulging eyeballs.
2. Hypothyroidism : It is caused by deficiency of thyroid hormones or removal of
thyroid gland. (Thyroidectomy).
a. Cretinism : Hyposecretion in infants leads to cretinism. A cretin has reduced
BMR and low oxidation. They are short saturated because the skeleton fails to
grow. They are mentally retarded. They show dry skin, thick tongue, prolonged
neonatal jaundice, lethargy and constipation. This can be treated by early
administration of thyroid hormones. The certin shows stunted physical growth
delayed puberty and mental retardation.
b. Myxoedema : It is the deficiency of thyroid hormones in adults. It is
characterized by a peculiar thickening and puffiness of skin and subcutaneous
tissue particularly of the face and extremities. Patient lacks alertness, intelligence.
The patients suffers from slow heart rate, low BP always feeling cold, low body
temperature and retarded sexual development.
c. Simple goiter : (Iodine deficiency goiter) Iodine is needed for synthesis of
thyroid hormone. If there is deficiency of Iodine in the diet, it cause enlargement
of thyroid gland leading to simple goiter. This disease is common in hilly areas.
Addition of iodine to table salt prevents this disease. Size of the thyroid gland is
increased but total output of thyroxine is decreased.

Q.2 An 1. The chromosomal mechanism of sex determination in human beings is XX-XY

6 s.type.
2. In human beings, the nucleus of each somatic cell contains 46 chromosomes or
23 pairs of chromosomes. Out of these, 22 pairs are autosomes and one pair of sex
chromosome.
3. Human female has a pair of XX, homomorphic sex chromosomes while male
has XY, heteromorphic sex chromosomes.
4. The genotype of Female is 44 Autosomes + XX and Male is 44 Autosomes +
XY.
5. During gamete formation in male, the diploid germ cells in tests undergo
spermatogenesis to produce two types of haploid sperms, 50% sperms contain 22
chromosomes and X chromosome while, 50% sperms contain 22 autosomes and
Y chromosome.
6. In Female, the diploid germ cells in ovaries to produce only one type of egg.
All egg contains 22 autosomes and X chromosome. Thus human male is
heterogametic and female is homogametic.
7. If sperm containing X chromosome fertilize egg (ovum), then diploid zygote is
formed, that grows into a female child.
8. If sperm containing Y chromosome fertilizes the egg, then diploid zygote is
formed that grows into a male child.
9. This indicate that the sex of a child depends on the type of sperm fertilizing the
egg and hence the father is responsible for determination of sex of child and not
the mother.

313
 Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.2 An 1. The zygote formed as a result of syngamy is ready to divide, the mitotic
7 s.division is initiated and is called the cleavage to form 2, 4, 8, 16 daughter cells
called blastomeres.
2. The first cleavage in the zygote is meridional and occurs about 30 hours after
fertilization, it divides longitudinally into two blastomere one slightly larger than
the other.
3. The second cleavage is also longitudinal but at the right angle to the first one
and occurs after 30hrs.
4. The third cleavage is horizontal, after 3rd cleavage the embryo is 8 celled
structure.
5. As cleavage are going on the embryo is gradually being pushed towards the
uterus.
6. By the end of 4th day of fertilization embryo is a solid ball of 16 -32 cells and
externally looking like Mulberry, the embryo containing blastomeres form the
morula.
7. It continues to transform and divide into hollow and multicellular blastocyst as
it further approaches the uterus.

314
Q.2 An 1. Soil act as a main source for the minerals.
8 s.2. It contains mainly occurring solids crystalline inorganic materials obtained
from earth’s crust.
3. Minerals play an important role in the day to day life of the plant.
4. Minerals are absorbed by the plants in the ionic (dissolved) form, mainly
through roots, and then transported.
5. Analysis of the plant ash demonstrates that minerals are absorbed by plants
from soil, and surroundings.
6. Absorption of minerals is independent of that of the water.
7. Absorbed mineral ions are pulled in upward direction along with the xylem sap
because of transpiration pull. This could be understood when the ascending sap is
analyzed.
8. Mineral ions are needed in the areas of the plant namely apical, lateral, young
leaves, developing flowers, fruits, seeds, and storage organs.
9. Hence, from the source (root), these are pulled, and transported ascendingly
through the sap, and gets unloaded by fine veins through the process of diffusion
in the vicinity of cells. Cells uptake them actively.
10. Soil would not be the only source for mineral uptake.
11. Mineral ions can be remobilized within the parts of the plant.
12. Older parts (like leaves in deciduous plants) export their ions to younger
leaves before the fall.
13. The minerals such as phosphorus, nitrogen, sulphur, and potassium are most
readily mobilized.
14. The ions which structural components like calcium are not remobilized.
15. Some nitrogen travel as inorganic ions is shows in analyses of the xylem
exudates.
16. More amount of the nitrogen is carried in organic like amino acids, and related
compounds.
17. Inorganic molecules like sulphur and phosphorus are also carried out in small
amount.
18.It was understood, and that inorganic molecules are transport from the xylem,
and organic molecules are transport from the phloem.

315
Q.2 An 1. In Eukaryotes, DNA is the basic genetic material. When the cells reproduce,
9 s.the DNA also duplicate itself to distribute equally to daughter cells.
2. As a carrier of genetic information when DNA directs the synthesis of RNA
and Proteins-Hydro catalytic Function.
3. When DNA directs the synthesis of DNA itself-Autocatalytic Function.
4. In Eukaryotes, DNA replication takes place only once during S-Phase of
interphase in the cell cycle.
5. The process of semiconservative replication is proposed by Watson and Crick.
6. Steps:
• Activation of Nucleotides
dAMP, dGMP, dCMP and dTMP by an enzyme Phosphorylase in the
nucleoplasm. This results in the formation of dATP, dGTP, dCTP and dTTP. This
process is called Phosphorylation.
• Point of Origin or Initiation Point.
Begins at '0' origin and terminates at point 'T'.
• Replication Fork
i) The point formed due to unwinding and separation of two strands appears Y-
Shaped Fork.
ii) Unit of DNA in which Replication occurs is called Replication.
• Synthesis of New Strands
i) Each separated strand acts as a template for the synthesis of a new
complementary strand, which begins with the help of small RNA called RNA
primer.
ii) RNA primer associates on the 3' end of the template and attracts
complementary nucleotides from the nucleoplasm.
iii) These nucleotides bind to the complementary nucleotides on the templates by
forming H-Bonds (such as A = T, T = A, G = C, C = G).
iv) Newly bound Nucleotides get interconnected by phosphodiester bonds forming
a polynucleotide.
v) The synthesis of new strand is catalysed by enzyme DNA polymerase.
vi) New complementary strand is formed in the direction 5’→3'
• Leading and Lagging Strands :
i) Leading Template-The template with free 3' end.
ii) Lagging Template-The template with free 5' end.
• OKAZAKI FRAGMENTS
i) DNA synthesis on Lagging templates takes place in small fragments called
OKAZAKI FRAGMENTS which are joined by DNA Ligase.
ii) RNA primers are removed by DNA Polymerase-I in Prokaryotes and DNA
Polymerase-II in Eukaryotes.
iii) Finally, DNAgyrase (topoisomerase) enzymes forms double helix to form
daughter DNA molecule.
• Formation of Daughter DNA Moleule
i) Two daughter DNA molecules are formed. In each daughter DNA, one strand is
parental, other is newly synthesized.50% is contributed by mother DNA. Hence
described as Semi-Conservative Replication.

316
317
Q.3 An Amoebiasis
0 s.1. It is caused by protist parasite- Entamoeba histolytica.
2. It can be transmitted via Faeco-oral route, eating with dirty hands, contaminated
food and water.

Malaria
1. Malaria is vector borne disease caused by protist-Plasmodium.
2. Plasmodium is transmitted from one person to other through an insect vector-
female Anopheles mosquito.
3. Upon the infection the female Anopheles mosquito sucks human blood which
may transfers to sporozoites to human circulation.
4. The sporozoites are reproducing asexually through fission in liver cells or
erythrocytes now these cells are called as merozoites.
5. The cells formed within erythrocytes function as gametocytes (gamogony).
Gametocytes if taken up by female Anopheles, fertilization occurs in its gut.
Diploid zygote is formed which transforms into oocyst.
6. The oocyst forms large number of haploid sporozoites through meiosis which is
now ready to infect new person.

Ascariasis
1. It is an infectious disease of human intestinal tract, caused by roundworm-
Ascaris lumbricoides.
2. Food and drinks contaminated with the eggs of this worm is the main mode of
transmission.
3. Eggs hatch inside the intestine of the new host. The larvae pass through various
organs and settle as adults in the digestive system.

Pneumonia
1. It is caused by a variety of pathogens which may be viruses like influenza virus,
adenovirus, para influenza and Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) or bacteria like
Streptococcus pneumoniae or fungal pathogens. It can be also caused by physical
and chemical burns.
2. Pneumonia mostly spreads by direct person to person contact.
3. It can also spread via droplets released by infected person or even by using
shared clothes and utensils.

318
Q.3 An 1. There are three cellular differentiations namely differentiation,
1 s.dedifferentiation, redifferentiation.
2. Differentiation can be defined a permanent change in structure and function of
cells leading to maturation.
3. In differentiation maturation of cells derived from apical meristem of root and
shoot.
4. In differentiation the maturation is at the cost of capacity to divide and redivide.
5. Examples of differentiation: Parenchyma in hydrophytes develops large
schizogenous interspaces for mechanical support, buoyancy and aeration.
6. Dedifferentiation can be defined as it is a regaining ability of living
differentiated cell which has lost the capacity to divide as per the need.
7. In dedifferentiation the mature cell undergoes dedifferentiation and becomes
meristematic.
8. Example of dedifferentiation: Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are
formed.
9. The Interfascicular cambium and cork cambium are formed in differentiation
are from parenchyma cells between vascular bundles and inner most layer of
cortex, respectively.
10. Redifferentiation can be defined as; the cells produced by dedifferentiation
once again lose the capacity to divide and mature to perform specific function.
11. Example of redifferentiation: secondary xylem and secondary phloem are
formed by redifferentiation.
12. Secondary xylem and secondary phloem are formed in redifferentiation are
from dedifferentiated cambium present in the vascular bundle.

319
 PAPER - 5
Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Which one of the following statements is not correct about structure of testes.
(a) They are present in a pouch called scrotum.
(b) Each testis is oval.
(c) Testicular lobules are present inside testis.
(d) Graafian follicle is present inside testis.

(ii) In guard cells, when sugar is converted into starch, the stomatal pore .............
(a) Closes almost completely (b) Open partially
(c) Open fully (d) Remains unchanged

(iii) The antiviral proteins released by a virus-infected cell are called ............
(a) Histamines (b) Interferons (c) Pyrogens (d) Allergens

(iv) The DNA segment to be cloned is called

(a) gene segment (b) DNA fragment (c) DNA insert (d) all of these

(v) From among the statement below, choose the one which is suitable result for parthenocarpy.
(a) fruit is developed without the process of fertilization.
(b) Identical plants produced in this method
(c) The fruit produced in this process are seeded plants
(d) Parthenocarpy cannot be induced artificially

(vi) ______ is the birth rate of a population.

(a) Mortality (b) Population growth (c) Natality (d) Crude birth rate.

(vii) Match the different types of Neuroglial cells in column 1 with their Function in column 2

Page 1 of 5
320
 (a) 1-d, 2-a, 3- c, 4-b (b) 1-d, 2-a, 3- b, 4-c (c) 1-d, 2-a, 3- c, 4-b (d) 1-c, 2-d, 3- b, 4-a

(viii) The movement of nutrient elements through the various components of an ecosystem is called as
_____.
(a) Succession (b) Nutrient cycle (c) Food web (d) Trophic level

(ix) ______ niche considers number of environmental factors.

(a) Trophic (b) Habitat (c) Fundamental (d) Hypervolume

(x) The diversity of life at all the 3 levels is now rapidly being modified by _____
(a) Modern man (b) Plants (c) Ecosystem (d) Tropical forest

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) What is the difference between embryo and zygote?

(ii) What does it mean by ‘open growth’?

(iii) Give two examples of biodegradable materials released from sugar industry.

(iv) Define the following term: Commensalism

(v) Give importance / functions of : Lymphatic system

(vi) Identify the diagram

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321
 (vii) Name the factors responsible for the variety of habitat formed within each Biome.

(viii) State true or false.

a) Species diversity is more at lower altitudes than at higher altitudes.
b) Smaller areas may have more resources that can be distributed among the inhabitant species.

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Column-I Column-II

1. 21 trisomy a. Turner’s syndrome
2. X-monosomy b. Klinefelter’s syndrome
3. Holandric traits c. Down's syndrome
4. Feminized male d. Hypertrichosis

Q.4 Write the objections to Mutation theory of Hugo de vries.

Q.5 Give economic importance of fishery.

Q.6 Fill in the blanks and complete the chart.

Q.7 Write a note on blood plasma.

Q.8 Explain the properties of a good or ideal cloning vector for rDNA technology.

Q.9 Labelled the Diagram.

Page 3 of 5
322
Q.10 Describe pericardium.

Q.11 Define and explain term: Biopiracy

Q.12 Explain in brief the factors affecting blood pressure.

Q.13 Differentiate between arithmetic and geometric growth.

Q.14 Write principles of farm management.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Which as the function of male accessory glands?

Q.16 Explain the role of hypothalamus and pituitary as a coordinated unit in maintaining homeostasis?

Q.17 Why t-RNA is called as adapter molecule?

Q.18 What is Apomixis, write down the main categories of apomixis.

Q.19 How is blood kept moving in the large veins of the legs?

Q.20 What is an acquired disease?

Q.21 Why does energy lost at each trophic level of the food chain, explain with suitable figure?

Q.22 Diffusion of water into plant cell across the plasma membrane

Q.23 What will be the effect of thyroid gland atrophy on the human body?

Q.24 Write a note on applications of DNA finger printing.

Q.25 What are the goals of RCH programme.

Q.26 Root tip showing root hair zone

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Page 4 of 5
323
 Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Describe the process of double fertilization.

Q.28 What is parthenogenesis? Explain the haplo-diploid method of sex determination in Honey bee.

Q.29 What is Genetic variations? Explain the different factors responsible for genetic variations.

Q.30 Give a brief note on types of growth.

Q.31 Explain the Reflex Pathway with the help of a neat labelled diagram.

-------- All the Best --------

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 PAPER 5
[ MODEL ANSWER ]

Std: 12th Subject: Biology Time: 3 Hours

Max Marks: 70

Section A (MCQ & VSA 1 MARKS Questions)

Q.1 Select and write the correct answer: 10

(i) Ans. (d)

(ii) Ans. (a)

(iii) Ans. (b)

(iv) Ans. (c)

(v) Ans. (a)

(vi) Ans. (c)

(vii) Ans. (d)

(viii) Ans. (b)

(ix) Ans. (d)

(x) Ans. (a)

Q.2 Answer the following: 8

(i) Ans. 1. Zygote- It is unicellular.

It is the first stage in the development of a new organism
2. Embryo- It is multicellular.
An embryo is the early stage of development of multicellular organism.

(ii) Ans. In plants the growth is indeterminate and occurs throughout the life indefinitely by meristems which
are the regions where new cells are constantly and continuously produced is called open growth.

(iii) Ans. Bagasse is the dry pulp fibrous residue which is released from sugar industry and it is used as
biofuel.
Another material released from sugar industry is molasses.

(iv) Ans. It is a type of interaction where one species is benefited while the other remains unaffected.

(v) Ans. The function of lymphatic system is to remove excess fluids from body tissues.

325
 (vi) Ans. The diagram represents passenger pigeon.

(vii) Ans. Regional and local variation.

(viii) Ans. a- true

b- False

Section B (SA I - 2 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 16

Q.3 Ans. 1. 21 trisomy - c. Down's syndrome

2. X-monosomy - a. Turner’s syndrome
3. Holandric traits - d. Hypertrichosis
4. Feminized male - b. Klinefelter’s syndrome

Q.4 Ans. 1. The large and discontinuous variations were due to chromosomal aberrations as gene mutation
bring out minor changes.
2. Rate of mutation is slow as compared to requirement of evolution.
3. Chromosomal abbreviations have little significance as they are quite unstable.

Q.5 Ans. Fishery has an important economical aspect. Some of them are mentioned below:
1. It act as the source as nutritious food source.
2. Fish yield a number of by-products which are of commercial value. They are fish oil, fish meal,
fertilizers, fish guano, fish glue and isinglass.
3. These by-products are widely used in paints, soaps, oils, and medicine.
4. Prawns and Lobsters have market value all over the world.
5. Fishery provides good job opportunities and self-employment to many people.

Q.6 Ans. i. Insect resisting property

ii. FlavrSavr Tomato
iii. For reduction in vitamin A deficiency
iv. 6,000 liters milk on average and up to 8,000 – 10,000 for the best ones.

Q.7 Ans. 1. The plasma constitutes about 55% of the blood.

2. It is a straw-color, slightly alkaline, viscous fluid.
3. It contains 90% water, 7 to 8% of protein, 1% inorganic salts, and 1 to 2% other materials.
4. The other material contains food, wastes, regulators, anticoagulants, cholesterol and antibodies,
dissolved gases.

Q.8 Ans. Different properties of a vector are:

1. A vector should have the ability of independent replication so that as the vector replicates, a
large number of copies of the DNA insert will be formed.
2. A vector should be able to easily introduce into host cells.
3. A vector should have marker genes for antibiotic resistance.
4. It must contain unique cleavage site in one of the marker genes for restriction enzyme.
5. It should have at least suitable control elements like promoter, operator, ribosomal binding
sites, etc.

326
Q.9 Ans.

Q.10 Ans. 1. The pericardium is the part in which the heart is enclosed in a membranous sac
2. It is made up of two main layers namely outer fibrous and inner serous pericardium.
3. The serous /inner pericardium is soft, moist, and elastic. It is formed of squamous epithelium and
is further divisible into two layers as a parietal and visceral layer.
4. The parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium are separated by a pericardial space is
called pericardial fluid
5. The pericardial fluid acts as a shock absorber and protects the heart from mechanical injuries. It
also keeps the heart moist and acts as a lubricant.

Q.11 Ans. Biopiracy is defined as ‘theft of various natural products and then selling them by getting patent
without giving any benefits or compensation back to the host country’.
In short, it is unauthorized misappropriation of any biological resource and indigenous knowledge.

Q.12 Ans. 1. It includes cardiac output, peripheral resistance, blood volume, length and diameter of blood
vessels, the viscosity of blood, age, gender, venous return, sleep, emotions, exercise, anxiety, etc
2. The normal cardiac output is 5 lit/min. An increase in cardiac output increases systolic pressure.
3. Peripheral resistance depends upon the diameter of blood vessels. The reduced diameter of blood
vessels decreases the diameter of arterioles and capillaries under the effect of vasoconstrictors like
vasopressin or ADH which further causes an increase in peripheral resistance and thereby increases
in blood pressure.
4. The blood pressure is directly proportional to the viscosity of blood, so when the individual came
across the accident leads to the huge loss of blood which results in the reduction of blood pressure.
5. The blood pressure increases with age due to the increase in the inelasticity of blood vessels.

Q.13 Ans. Arithmetic growth :

1. Growth rate is constant and an increasing.
2. Cell divides mitotically into two, but one of the daughter cell divide continuously and the other
cell takes part in the differentiation and maturation.
3. It is mathematically expressed by an equation Lt = Lo + rt
4. Linear curve is obtained When graph of length is plotted against the time

Geometric growth :
1. Initially growth rate is slow but later raid growth in exponential rate occurs.
2. Cell divides mitotically into two. Here, both the daughter cells continue to divide and redivide
repeatedly.
3. It is mathematically expressed by an equation
W1=Woert
4. Straight is obtained When graph of length is plotted against the time.

327
Q.14 Ans. 1. Farm management starts from selection of high yielding breeds, their food requirements, supply
of adequate nutritional sources, and cleanliness of the environment and maintenance of health.
2. Management of farm animals includes veterinary supervision, vaccination, high yielding cross
breed development, production and preservation of products, distribution and marketing.

Section C (SA II - 3 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Eight: 24

Q.15 Ans. 1. The main accessory glands are seminal vesicle, prostate gland, and Cowper’s gland
2. seminal vesicle - it activates and provides energy to facilitate sperm motility after ejaculation.
3. prostate gland - It nourishes and activates sperms.
i. Enhances sperm motility, provides alkalinity to the ejaculate, neutralizes urine
ii. Acidity.
4. Cowper’s gland- This gland in enhances mobility and survival potentiality of sperms in the genital
tract of female reproductive system and neutralises the activity of acidic vaginal secretion.

Q.16 Ans. 1.Anterior pituitary and intermediate lobes are connected to the hypothalamus through hypophyseal
portal system. Various hormones secreted by hypothalamus reach the pituitary gland through the
hypophyseal portal system.
2. The portal vein collects blood from various parts of hypothalamus and opens into anterior lobe of
pituitary. From the pituitary, the vein finally carries the blood into the superior vena cava. It helps in
feedback mechanism for hormonal control.
3. Also, negative feedback mechanism takes place in the form of hormones released by the target
glands decrease the secretion of pituitary gland.
4. In such negative feedback mechanism, the secretion of ACTH, TSH and gonadotropins (FSH and
LH) decreases when their target gland hormones levels rise.
5. eg. Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) stimulate the cortex of the adrenal gland to secrete
glucocorticoids, mainly cortisol. In turn, an elevated blood level of cortisol decreases secretion of
both corticotripin and corticotropin-releasing hormone (CRH) by suppressing the activity of the
anterior pituitary corticotrophs and neurosecretory cells.

Q.17 Ans. 1. In Translocation, both the subunits of ribosome move along in relation to t RNA and m RNA.
2. t-RNA carrying dipeptide now gets positioned at ‘P’ site of ribosome, making ‘A’ site
vacant.
3. Then next charged t-RNA molecule carrying amino acid will be received.
4. During this process, first uncharged tRNA is discharged from E-site.
5. This process is repeated as amino acids are added to polypeptide. It takes less than 0.1 second for
formation of peptide bond.
6. Third charged t-RNA with its amino acid, arrives at A-site of ribosome.
7. Anticodon and codon bind by hydrogen bond. Polypeptide bond is formed.
8. Second t-RNA is discharged from P-site to E-site and leaves the ribosome.
9. The arrival of tRNA amino acid complex, formation of peptide bond, ribosomal translocation, and
removal of previous tRNA,
10 . As ribosome move over the mRNA, all the codons on mRNA are exposed one by one for
translation.

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Q.18 Ans. 1. Apomixis is the phenomenon of development of embryo through asexual method of reproduction
without formation of gametes and the act of fertilization.
2. It is one type of sexual reproduction where there is no meiosis and syngamy, embryo develops in
the ovule and ovule develops to form seed.
3. Three types of Apomixis are generally recognized:
a. Recurrent Apomixis
b. Non- current Apomixis
c. Adventive embryony
4. Recurrent Apomixis- In this type embryo sac generally rise either from an archesporial cell or
from some other part of the nucellus.
5. Non-current Apomixis- In this type megaspore mother cell undergoes usual meiotic division and a
haploid embryo sac is formed. Plants produced by this method are generally sterile and don't
reproduce sexually.
6. Adventitious Apomixis - In this type embryos may develop from somatic nucellus or integuments
along with normal zygotic embryo. It is common in Mango, Orange, Lamon, etc. It gives rise to a
condition called polyembryany.

Q.19 Ans. 1. Veins are thin walled, mostly superficial vessels which carries blood from the organs towards the
heart.
2. Except for the pulmonary veins or other veins of the body carries deoxygenated blood towards the
heart.
3. As per nature’s rule each and everything has an attraction towards gravity. So the blood also
travels from the upper side of the body towards the lower side.
4. The pumping force of the ventricles moves blood through the arteries.
5. The breathing movements exert pressure on the chest veins, the valves in the larger veins keep the
blood from flowing backward, and the skeletal muscles' contraction all help the blood in veins to
move.
6. The muscles in your legs help transport blood back to your heart.
7. It carries a deoxygenated blood
8. The veins in your legs also have valves to help this process and prevent blood from flowing back
down towards your feet.

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Q.20 Ans. 1.The acquired disease can be defined as the disease caused or developed after birth during the live
time an individual is called as an acquired disease.
2. It is classified into two categories namely:
3. Communicable/infectious diseases
4. Non- Communicable/Non-infectious diseases.
5. The communicable diseases are the diseases that are transmitted from infected persons to another
person directly or indirectly. While non-communicable diseases cannot be transmitted from an
infected person to another healthy person.
6. The communicable diseases are caused by pathogens such as viruses, bacteria, fungi helminth
worms, et(c)
7. All disease-causing organisms are called pathogens so it is pathogenesis.

Q.21 Ans. 1. Energy that is not used by organism in an ecosystem is eventually lost as heat.
2. Energy and nutrients are passed through the food chain when one organism eats another organism.
3. In each trophic level energy is passed on from one trophic level to the next trophic level and each
time some energy is lost in the form of heat into the atmosphere.
4. The number of trophic levels in any food chain is restricted as the transfer of energy followers
10% law.
5. As per the law, only 10% of the energy is transport to each trophic level as net energy from the
previous trophic level.
6. The source of energy is on so the traffic level representing producers contains the most energy.

Q.22 Ans.

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Q.23 Ans. 1. Thyroid gland dysfunction can result in hyper or hypo activity of the thyroid.
2. Hypothyroidism is a condition in which the thyroid gland is functionally inadequate.
3. symptoms of hypothyroidism include brittle fingernails, thinning of hair, puffy eyes, weakness,
and Constipation.
4. Hyperthyroidism is caused by increase in the levels of thyroid hormones.
5. This increases metabolic rate, sensitivity, sweating, flushing, rapid respiration, bulging of eyeballs
and effects various physiological activities.
6. Atrophic thyroids may be viewed as the later stages of autoimmune hypothyroidism in which there
is minimal residual thyroid tissue.
7. The effects are fatigue, cold intolerance, weight gain, depression, and dry skin.

Q.24 Ans. 1. Genes are present on the chromosomes which are responsible for determining the characteristics
of an individual.
2. Due to the combination of maternal and paternal genes, we differ from our parents.
3. So, due to all these factors, every individual has its own genetic makeup which is called
FINGERPRINT.
4. The technique developed to identify a person with the help of DNA restriction analysis is called
DNA Profiling or DNA Fingerprinting.
Steps for DNA Fingerprinting
1. Isolating DNA from the cells or tissue of the host.
2. Restriction digestion with the help of restriction enzymes.
3. This phenomenon is called Restriction Fragments Length Polymorphism (RELP).
4. Gel Electrophoresis Samples are located with agarose gel electrophoresis under an electric
influence.
5. Southern Blotting The separated DNA fragments are transferred to a nylon membrane or
nitrocellulose filter paper.
6. Selection of DNA probe
7. Hybridization: Probe DNA is added to the nitrocellulose Filter paper containing Host DNA.As a
result, DNA-DNA Hybrids are formed on the nitrocellulose filter paper.
8. Photography: Now this filter paper is photographed on x-ray film by autoradiography to analyse
the presence of Hybrid DNA.
9. DNA Fingerprinting is helpful in Medico- legal cases such as murder or rape cases.
10. Also used to find out biological father or mother in case of disputed parentage.
11. Used in pedigree analysis in cats, dogs, horses. And humans.

Q.25 Ans. The following points are main goals of RCH programmes -
1. To create awareness among people about various aspects related to reproduction.
2. To provide the facilities to people to understand and built of reproductive health.
3. To provide support for building up a reproductively healthy society.
4. To bring about a change mainly in 3 critical health indicators that is reducing total fertility, rate
infant mortality rate and maternal mortality rate.
5. The goals of RCH can be achieved by introduction of sex education in schools to create awareness
about various aspects related to reproduction and by educating the younger generation about birth
control measures.

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Q.26 Ans.

Section D (SA II - 4 MARKS EACH)

Attempt any Three: 12

Q.27 Ans. 1. Double fertilization is a complex process which involves the fusion of one female gametophyte
with two male gametes.
2. Pollination helps the pollen grain to reach stigma via style the two sperm cells enter the ovule-
synergy cell.
3. The growth of pollen tube is guided by the chemical secreted by the synergids.
4. The pollen tube carrying male gametes penetrates in one of the synergids which then ruptures and
release the contents including the two non- motile male gametes.
5. Out of two sperm cells one fuses with the egg cell and the other fuses with two polar nuclei which
result in a diploid zygote. Zygote develops into embryo.
6. Because both the male gametes participate and fertilization results in two structures called zygote
and endosperm. therefore, it is described as double fertilization.

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Q.28 Ans. 1. Parthenogenesis is the development of embryo directly from egg cell or a male gamete. In another
word the process by which a female produces offspring from unfertilized eggs is known as
parthenogenesis.
2. Haplo-diploid method of sex determination in honey bee :
3. In honey bees, chromosomal mechanism of sex determination is Haplo-diploid type. In this type,
sex of individual is determined by the number of set of chromosomes received.
4. Females are diploid (2n = 32) and males are haploid (n = 16).
5. The Female produces haploid eggs (n = 16) by meiosis and male produces haploid sperms (n = 16)
by mitosis.
6. If the egg is fertilized by sperm, the zygote develops into a diploid female (2n = 32) (queen and
worker) and unfertilized egg develops into haploid male (n = 16) by way of parthenogenesis.
7. The diploid female gets differentiated into either worker or queen depending on the food they
consume during their development.
8. Diploid larvae which get royal jelly as food develops into queen (fertile female) and other
develops into workers (sterile females).

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Q.29 Ans. They are caused due to various aspects of mutation, recombination and migration. The change in
gene and gene frequencies is known as genetic variation.
Genetic variation are caused by following factors.:
1) Gene Mutation : Sudden permanenet heritable change is called mutation. Mutation can occur in
the gene, in the chromosome and in the chroimosome number. Mutation that occurs within the single
gene is called point mutation or gene mutation.
Mutation leads to the change in phenotype of the organism, causing variation.
2. Genetic recombination : In sexually reproducing organisms, during gamet formation, exchange of
genetic material occurs between non-sister chromatids of homozygous chromosome. This is called
crossing over. It produces new genetic combination which result in variations. Fertilization between
opposite mating gamets leads to various recombination resulting into the phenotypeic variations
causing change in the frequencies of alleles.
3. Gene flow : Gene flow is movement of genes into or out of population. Gen movement may be in
the form of migration of organism, or gamets (dispersal of pollens) or segment of DNA
(transformation). Gene flow also alters gene frequency causing evolutionary changes.
4. Genetic Drift : Any radom fluctuation (alteration) in allele frequency, occurring in the natural
population by pure chance, is called genetic drift.
E.g. When the size of population is severely reduced due to natural disasters like eqrthquakes,
floods, fires, etc., it causes elimination of particular alleles from a population. Smaller populations
have greater chances for genetic drift. It will result in the change in the gene frequency. Genetic drift
is also an important factor for evolutionary change.
5. Chromosomal aberrations : The structural and morphological change in chromosome due to
rearrangement is called chromosomal abbrations. It changes the gene arrangement (order or
sequence) that results in the variation. Chromosomal abbrations occur due to following reasons :
i) deletion : Loss of gene from chromosome.
Ii) Duplication : Loss of gene from chromosome.
Inversion : A particular segment of chromosome is broken and gets reattached to the same
chromosome in an inverted position due to 180˚ twist. There is no loss or gain of gene complement
of the chromosome.
4. Translocation : Transfer (transportation) of a part of chromosome or a set genes to a non-
homologous chromosome is called translocation. It is affected naturally by the transpons present in
the cell.

Q.30 Ans. 1. There are two types of growth are present namely arithmetic growth and geometric growth.
2. In an arithmetic growth is constant and an increase in the growth occurs in arithmetic progression.
i.e. 2, 4, 6, 8 cms etc)
3. Growth rate is constant in an arithmetic growth while in geometrical growth the growth rate is
slow initially but later on there is a rapid growth at exponential rate.
4.In both growth types the daughter cells are formed by mitosis. It forms 2 daughter cells.
5. In arithmetic growth upon mitosis one of the daughter cell continues to divide and the other cell
takes part in the differentiation and maturation while in geometric growth the daughter cells
produced by mitotic division continue to divide and re-divide repeatedly, so such growth is called as
geometrical growth.
6. Arithmetic growth is expressed mathematically by an equation, It is expressed as, Lt = Lo + rt
Where,
Lt = Length at time‘t’
Lo = Length at time ‘Zero’
r = Growth rate
t = Time of growth
7. Geometric growth can be expressed mathematically by an equation i.e.

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Q.31 Ans. 1. The reflex arc describes the pathway in which the nerve impulse is carried, and the response is
generated and shown by the effector organ.
2. The reflex arc is typically consisting of 5 components, such as
The receptor
The sensory neuron
The relay neuron
Motor neuron
Effector organ
3. The first event starts with a receptor detecting stimulus from a sensory organ. The stimulus could
be in the form of pressure, temperature, or chemicals.
4. This is followed by the sensory neuron sending a signal to the relay neuron.
5. The relay neuron then sends the signal to the motor neuron.
6. The motor neurons send a signal to the organ or a cell that acts to the stimuli called the effector.
7. Finally, the effector produces an instantaneous response, such as knee jerk reaction.

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