Rahul’s IAS a blue print of success

ONE LINERS
1. Alteration of a contract can be done
 Bilaterally
2. Undueinfluence is said to be a subtle species of
 fraud
3. Fraud is proved when it is shown that a false representation has been made
 Knowingly, without belief in its truth, recklessly careless whether it be true or false
4. A bid at an auction is
 an offer
5. Manifestation of acceptance may be
 in the form of express words orsignified through conduct
6. Which of these may be a valuable consideration in the sense of law?
 Right, interest, profit
7. 'A' finds B's purse and gives it to him. B promises to give A Rs. 50. This is a contract by virtue of
 Section 25 (2) of the ICA
8. IPC comes into play in case of
 coercion
9. Which of the following renders the transaction void?
 fraudulent misrepresentation as to the character of the document
10. Where the parties agree to impose a fraud on a third person, their agreement is :-
 Void andunlawful
11. The exception contained in section 28, ICA saves contract to refer to arbitration question
 which has already arisen orwhich may arise
12. Wagering agreement are
 Void, speculative in nature, uncertain in nature
13. The promisor, must offer to perform his obligation under the contract to the promisee. This offer is
called -
 tender of performance
14. X enters into a contract with Y to buy the house of Y, if Y survives his wife Z. It is a
 contingent contract
15. 'A' knows that hishouse had a damaged hoof which he filled in such a way as to defy detection and
sold it to 'B'. This defect was subsequently discovered by 'B'. The act of 'A' will amount to
 active concealment of fact
16. The Supreme Court in observed that a claim for quantum merit is a claim for breach of contract?
 State of Madras v. Gannon & Co
17. Innocent party excused from further performance in case of
 Frustration of contract, Anticipatory breach of contract
18. A pays B 10000 rupees in consideration of B's promising to marry C, A's daughter. C is dead at the
time of the promise. The agreement is
 void, but B must repay A the Rs. 10,000
19. Section 65 of the Indian contract Act is not applicable to
 valid contract
20. Any benefit which have been passed under the contract from one party to another must be restored
where a valid contract becomes
 Unlawful andimpossible to perform
21. A failure to perform at the agreed time (when the time is of the essence of the contract) renders the
contract
 Voidable at the option of the opposite party
22. A makes a proposal to B which B accepts. But before the acceptance comes to the knowledge of
A, B revokes his acceptance by telegram. When is the revocation complete?

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  When the telegram is dispatched
23. A party to a contract can be discharged from performing it, if it has become
 Impossible
24. A change of nature of obligation of a contract is known as
 Alteration
25. A contingent contract is a contract to do or not to do something, if some event collateral to such
contract does or does not happen. The collateral event means
 An event incidental to the contract or An event, which is independent of the contract
26. A contract can be declared voidable provided there is a mistake of law
 If the law is one which is not in force in India
27. A contract of life insurance the performance of which depends upon a future event falls under the
category of
 Contingent contract
28. ‘A’ a social reformer, promised B a reward of Rs. 1000 if he refrained from smoking for two years.
B does so
 B is entitled to reward from A andIt is a valid consideration in the form of an act of abstainence
29. A,B and C jointly promises to pay Rs. 1200 to Z. Z files a suit to recover the amount against A. Here
 A,B and C are joint promisors , Z can recover the amount from any one of them
30. In case of conflict of jurisdiction of courts the incidence of a contract shall be governed by the law
of place where the
 Contract is made
31. The main test of the offer is
 Intention with which an offer is made
32. For acceptance of an offer, which of the following is not essential
 Motive
33. Free consent is an essential requirement of a contract as per..
 Section 14 of ICA
34. A stipulation for increased interest from the date of default is known as
 Penalty
35. Competency to contract relates to
 both age and soundness of mind
36. A person is deemed to be in a position to dominate the will of another by undue influence if the
mental capacity is affected temporarily or permanently by
 reason of age, reason of illness, mental or bodily distress
37. Partner may retire:–
 With the consent of all the other partners, In accordance with an express agreement by the
partners, Where the partnership is at will, by giving notice in writing to all the other partners
38. Partners may upon or in anticipation of the dissolution of the firm, make an agreement that some
or all of them will not carry on a business similar to that of the firm within a specified period.
 The agreement is valid if restrictions imposed are reasonable
39. Sections
(i) Right to have access to books of the firm (a) Section 12(d)
(ii) Right to express opinion (b) Section 12(c)
(iii) Right to take part in conduct of the business (c) Section 12(a)
(iv) Right to indemnity (d) Section 13(e)
40. An ordinary partnership business(private limited) can have—
 Not more than 50 partners

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41. The rate of interest prescribed under section 13, where a partner, advance money beyond the
amount of capital, for the business of the partnership, is —
 Six percent
42. The accounts books of the firm can be examined by a partner —
 As many number of times without any restriction
43. “The agreement by a minor is void, but he is capable of accepting benefits.” In consonance with
this position of law, which section under Partnership Act provides that a minor may not be a partner
in a firm, but with the consent of all the partners for time being, he may be admitted to the benefits
of partnership?
 Section 30
44. Under Section 10 of Partnership Act every partner shall indemnify the firm for any loss caused to it
by his _________
 Fraud
45. When a person is admitted as a partner to an already established business, he generally has to
pay some consideration known as______
 Premium
46. An agreement with minor is
 void
47. A bare promise devoid of consideration is called
 Nudumpactum
48. A general offer open for world at large can be accepted
 by complying with the conditions of offer
49. . The juristic concept of contract consists of
 Agreement and obligation
50. Every promise or set of promises forming the consideration for each other under section 2 (e) of
ICA, is called
 Agreement
51. Which one of the following is a contract?
 An undertaking in writing duly signed to pay the time-barred debt.
52. The correct sequence in the formation of a contract is
 Offer, acceptance, consideration, agreement.
53. The jurisdiction of an arbitrator to hear and decide a dispute is derived from
 The arbitration agreement
54. The Court may stay arbitration proceedings
 Where the parties have not agreed to refer the particular dispute to arbitration and Where the
Contract which carries the arbitration clause is itself void
55. An arbitration is a :
 Private proceedings
56. Who defined “Arbitration” is famous Collins v. Collins case?
 Romilly MR
57. The arbitrator can decide
 Matter connected with the contract
58. The arbitral proceedings are deemed to commence the date on which a request is received that
the dispute be referred arbitration. Such request must be made by
 The other party or The Arbitral Tribunal
59. An arbitration agreement
 May be in the form of an arbitration clause or Must be in the form of separate agreement
60. Correct Statements

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  An arbitration clause in an agreement does not attract stamp duty, An arbitration agreements
is not compulsorily registerable, Arbitrator cannot deal with dispute relating to title to immovable
property in a foreign country.
61. Power to refer parties arbitration under section 8 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act is:-
 Mandatory
62. Which section of Arbitration and Conciliation Act provides that— When a communication is deemed
to have been served
 Sec 3
63. When a contract contains an arbitration agreement
 It is a collateral term relating to the resolution of disputes
64. A reference to arbitration can be made
 Under statutory provisions or By consent of parties
65. As per Sec 4 of Arbitration and Conciliation Act the method of service provided by the section is not
applicable to
 Written commutation in respect of proceedings of any juridical authority
66. When an arbitration agreement exists and it covers the dispute which has arisen between the
parties, the case involved disputed question of law and fact about carrying costs in contract for
delivery of good
 The High Court should not ordinarily exercise its power of judicial review in such case, The
High Court should have left the parties to avail remedy under the substantive clause that existed
in the contract
67. In a suit for the specific performance of a contract for the transfer of immovable property plaintiff
can ask for
 Partition, Possession, Partition and separate possession
68. Suit to recover specific movable property can be filed under_______
 S–7, SRA, S–8, SRA
69. Protection u/s 6 of SRA can be invoked by
 Lessee
70. Under section 7 of SRA, a person can sue
 For the return of the specific movable property or For the value of the property
71. The possession of the plaintiff under section 6 of the SRA
 Must be actual
72. Specific performance of a contract may be obtained by________, where the agreement is a
covenant entered into with his predecessor in title and the reversioner is entitled to the benefit of
such covenant.
 A reversioner in possession
73. In a suit for injunction
 No relief for damages can be claimed unless specifically claimed in the plaint
74. Which of the following relief cannot be granted unless it has been claimed in the plaint/application?
 Rectification of instrument, Specific Performance of contract, Compensation, in a suit for
specific performance
75. Provision of S–9 of SRA does not apply in cases of_______
 Valid contract
76. The expression “person entitled to the possession”, u/s 7 of SRA means that such person must
have right to
 Immediate possession of the goods
77. Which section of the SRA deals with substituted performance of contract
 Section 20
78. Sec 26 of SRA provides that an instrument may be rectified if it does not express real intention due
to.

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  Fraud or mutual mistake
79. A person entitled to any legal character or any right as to any property may seek a declaration from
a court to that effect so that there are no adverse attack which could weaken that legal character
or title. The declaration could be sought:–
 Under Section 34SRA
80. The declaration given under section 34 SRA is a declaration:–
 In personam
81. As a general rule, granting of specific performance of contract under section 10 of SRA is
 Mandatory
82. Which of the following section of the SRA has not been amended by the Specific Relief
(Amendment) Act, 2018
 Section 9
83. Which of the following needs to be determined by the court in a suit under section 6 of SRA
 Plaintiff was in possession of the disputed property and Plaintiff has been illegally
dispossessed
84. A person is dispossessed, without his consent of two immovable properties, X and Y respectively;
otherwise than in due course of law .He is dispossessed of Y by the Central Government which has
not title to it. He is dispossessed of X by the person really entitled to it .In this case ,under section
6 (SRA) suit can be brought against
 The person really entitled to it
85. No suit can be filed against the owner of the property
 U/S 8
86. Under this section it is provided that if the contract in question creates an obligation in the nature
of a trust ,the Specific performance of such contract shall be enforced
 Section 11 SRA
87. Section 19 lays down…………categories of persons against whom specific performance of contract
may be enforced
 Five
88. Section 26,SRA covers
 A will, A marriage settlement, A sale deed
89. “Dispossession” u/s 6 of the SRA means
 Actual ouster and Ouster in regard to juridical possession
90. When a person sues for specific performance of a contract ,in the same suit
 He can claim compensation for the breach of that contract ,in addition
91. Section 31,SRA covers written instruments which are
 Void, Voidable
92. Section 18(a) of the SRA dealing with ‘non-enforcement except with variation’ uses the expression
 Fraud, Mistake of fact, Misrepresentation
93. Section 36 of SRA provides that preventive relief is granted by
 Temporary or perpetual injunction
94. An agreement to purchase property ,subject to approval of title by the purchaser’s solicitor
 Cannot be specifically enforced
95. The followingstatement is correct
 A suit to recover possession u/s 6 (SRA) is a summary remedy
96. If a person fails to exercise his first option by filing a suit within six months of possession under
section 6,he has liberty to file a suit to recover the possession in the manner provided by CPC
within

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  12 years
97. Section 33 of the SRA contemplates
 Restoration of benefit andPayment of compensation
98. U/S 41(j) of SRA ,an injunction cannot be granted when the plaintiff has
 No personal interest in the matter
99. A deposited a book (an antique) for safe custody with B. B loses them and C finds them, but refuses
to deliver them to B when demanded. B may recover them from C, subject to C’s right ,if any
 Under section 168 of the contract Act andUnder section 7 of the contract Act
100. Statement I – The grant or refusal of the relief of declaration under the provision of section 34 is
discretionary
 I is correct but
101. The plaintiff can claim the following in a suit for specific performance
 Decree of partition, Decree of refund of any earnest money , Decree of deposit of any deposit
paid
102. Before specific relief can be granted ,there must be a
 Concluded contract
103. This could be the consideration for granting temporary injunction
 Irreparable injury, Comparable mischief, Inconvenience
104. If a contract contains alternative promises
 The plaintiff can ask for specific performance, The court may treat this as independent of the
other part if other part is mutually exclusive
105. A mistake on one side may be a ground for
 Rescission of contract
106. The court may refuse to rescind the contract where the plaintiff has
 Expressly ratified the contract orImpliedly ratified the contract
107. Statement I – Declaration of rights or status is one at the discretion of the court u/s 34 of the SRA
Statement II- Equally the grant or refusal of the relief of injunction under the provision of the Act is
discretionary
 Both I and II are correct but II is not the correct explanation of I
108. Which section of SRA lays down that if the plaintiff sues for preventing the breach of an obligation
in his favour, and such a suit is dismissed, he cannot then sue for damages for the same breach.
 40
109. The expression used in section 34 ‘any right as to any property’ includes
 Any right relating to any property
110. The objection as to maintainability of suit of declaration without further relief
 must be taken at the earliest stage
111. Under section 37 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, a temporary injunction can be granted
 at any stage of the suit
112. Grant of a mandatory injunction is regulated by
 section 39 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963
113. Requirement of “reasonable apprehension of serious injury to the plaintiff ” is an essential ingredient
of:
 section 31 SRA
114. Character or right sought to be declared must be
 an existing right on the date of the suit or upto the date of decree, legal one, valid one
115. A claim for damages in suits for injunction can be made under:
 Section 40, SRA

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116. A declaration made is binding on
 The parties to the suit, Persons claiming through the parties to the suit, Where any party is
trustee, in the persons for whom such parties would be trustees
117. A mandatory injunction in its nature is
 Restitutory andProhibitory
118. A mandatory injunction is
 Retrospective, Prospective andConcurrent in operation
119. Preventive relief is granted by the court u/s 36 SRA by
 Injunctions
120. Remedy of rescission of a contract is
 Opposite of special performance
121. Specific performance of a contract means
 Actual execution of the contract
122. In which of the following cases, a partner does not have an implied authority?
 Admit any liability in a suit or proceeding against the firm, Enter into partnership on behalf of
the firm, Withdraw a suit filed on behalf of the firm
123. A partnership firm is a
 A group of individuals
124. As a general rule, the firm name shall not contain the words like CROWN, IMPERIAL, etc. However,
such words may be used with the written consent of:
 State Government
125. Section 69 of the Partnership Act makes registration of a firm mandatory for the purpose of:
 Suit to third party by a firm
126. Mark the incorrect statement:
 Arbitral award is defined in Section 2(1) (c) of Arbitration Act, as including an interim award
 The interim award can be on any matter with respect to which the tribunal can make a final
award
127. The arbitral tribunal shall issue an order for the termination of arbitral proceedings in cases where:
 The claimant withdraws his claim, unless the respondent objects to the order and the arbitral
tribunal recognises a legitimate interest on his part in obtaining a final settlement of the dispute
orThe parties agree on the termination of the proceedings orThe arbitral tribunal finds that the
continuation of the proceedings has for any other reason become unnecessary or impossible
128. Which of the following appealable orders (as mentioned in Section 37of the Arbitration Act) has
been inserted by Act 3 of 2015?
 Refusing to refer the parties to arbitration under Section 8
129. Section 22 of Partnership Actprovides for:
 Mode of doing act to bind the firm
130. Subject to contract between the partners, the property of the firm shall be held and used by the
partners_______
 Exclusively for the purpose of the business
131. The partnership business belongs to all the partners jointly. It is, therefore, expected of every
partner that he will act to the greatest common advantage rather than acting for personal profit at
the cost of other partners. Which provision contains such principle?
 Section 16 of the Partnership Act
132. When the partner retires from the partnership firm:-

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  It does not dissolve the firm andIt only severs the partnership between retiring partner and
continuing partners, leaving the partnership amongst the latter unaffected
133. On which ground, court will grant dissolution of the firm?
 When the incapacity is permanent and the partner becomes incapable of performing his duties
as a partner
134. “Third party” used in relation to a firm or to a partner therein means any person who is-
 Not a partner in the firm
135. Where a partner is entitled to interest on the capital subscribed by him such interest shall by payable
only out of-
 Profits
136. Goodwill of the partnership business is the property of the partnership-
 Under Section 14 of Partnership Act
137. Every partnership is based on ________
 mutual agency
138. Under section 23 of Partnership Act, an admission made by a partner concerning the affairs of the
firm is evidence against
 the partner, the firm
139. Section 72 of Indian Partnership Act prescribes mode of giving–
 Public notice
140. Right and duties of partners as provided under Section 17 of the Partnership Act, is_____
 Subject to contract between partners
141. Who was the first Solicitor General of India?
 ChanderKishanDaphtary
142. The 15th Finance Commission will make recommendations for 5 years commencing —
 April 1, 2020
143. Asteroids are found between the orbits of —
 Mars and Jupiter
144. Which blood group is known as the universal donor?
 ‘O’ Blood Group
145. Who is the chairman of the Financial Stability and Development Council?
 Finance Minister of India
146. Who was the last Governor General of India?
 C. Rajagopalachari
147. Which oneof the following books/journals was not authored by Bankim Chandra Chatterjee?
 Nibandhmala
148. Who was not the first recipient of the Bharat Ratna (1954)?
 M. Visvesvaraya
149. National Youth Day in India is observed every year on —
 January 12
150. Which one is commonly known as baking soda?
 Sodium bicarbonate
151. Decade 2019-2028 has been declared as the —
 Nelson Mandela Decade of Peace
152. Sundeep Mishra is going to write a book “Story So Far” on —
 Sprinter Dutee Chand

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153. Who was the second Chief Justice of India (CJI)?
 Justice M. PatanjaliSastri
154. Pritzker Prize is associated with —
 Architecture
155. First Indiancity to switch from Bharat Stage (BS)-IV fuel to BS-VI fuel —
 New Delhi
156. Novel “Jasmine Days” won the inaugural JCB Prize for literature. It is written by —
 Benyamin
157. MadanLalKhurana, who passed away recently served as the Chief Minister of Delhi and also as the
Governor of —
 Rajasthan
158. Which State has recently celebrated the incredible Sangai Festival?
 Manipur
159. Who among the followings was recently appointed as the first-ever female High Court Chief Justice
of Pakistan?
 TahiraSafdar
160. As per the 2018 Global Hunger Index (GHI), India is ranked —
 103rd
161. Which city is being developed as the nation’s first justice city?
 Amaravati
162. Which of the following country will host the 2020 Olympic and Paralympic Games?
 Japan
163. The LIGO-India Observatory will be operational by 2024. It is being built in the —
 Hingoli district of Maharashtra
164. Frances Arnold, George Smith and Gregory Winter jointly won the 2018 Noble Chemistry Prize for
—
 Evolution research
165.
 World Tourism Day — September 27
 World Heart Day — September 29
 World Youth Skills Day — July 15
Give one word substitute.
166. A motive merely to get money —
 Mercenary
167. Not to be moved by entreaty —
 Inexorable
168. Having to do with beliefs contrary to the fundamental doctrines of church, school or profession —
 Heretical

The word nearest opposite in meaning.

169. EXONERATE —
 Accuse
170. FLAMBOYANT —
 Quiet
171. DAINTY —
 Unpolished
The word which expresses the meaning of the given word.

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172. SOPORIFIC —
 Sleep-producing
173. RODOMONTADE —
 Lofty – bragging
174. COPIOUS —
 Profuse
The correct meaning of the idiom/phrase.
175. To hold water —
 To stands scrutiny
176. A wolf in sheep’s clothing —
 A hypocrite
177. A blue stocking —
 A literary woman
Fill in the blanks.
178. Do you want to _________ down for a while?
 Lie
179. Thesetrousers will last ______ donkey’s years without wearing ______.
 For, out
180. Dog is to faithfulness as fox it to________.
 Cunningness
The correct spellings.
181. Pusillanimous
182. Chiaroscuro
183. Saboteurs
184. Many people in Delhi celebrated Diwali in a grand way ________ the high prices.
 In spite of
185. The best punctuation is that which the reader is least conscious, for when punctuation, or lack of it
_______ itself, it is usually because it_______.
 Obtrudes, offends
186. We are living in a wicked, godless and an _____ age that is perhaps beyond salvation.
 Unregenerate
187. His orders were bossy, insistent, disciplinary ones so characteristic of a_______.
 Martinet
188. An application under section 46 of CPC can be made by
 Decree-holder
189. Kinds of sources suggested under section 89 of CPC, for outside court settlement are:
 four
190. As per the 96(4) of CPC appeal may lie from a decree in any suit of nature cognizable by court of
small causes, when the amount (decreetal)..
 Exceeds ten thousand rupees
191. Where, in any suit in which an arrest or attachment has been effected, subsequently if it appears
to the court that such arrest or attachment was applied for on insufficient grounds, court may award
compensation to defendant
 If the defendant apply for such compensation
192. Which section of CPC declares that a decree can also be executed by a court other than the court
which passed the decree
 Section 38
193. An application under section 51 of CPC can be placed by

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  Decree holder
194. The most important characteristic of any federal constitution is
 Division of power
195. Which part of the Indian Constitution deals with relations between the Union and the States?
 Part XI
196. Which of the following Article was added by 97th Amendment act of 2011.
 43-B
197. Who stated that the Directive Principals are intended as moral precepts for the authorities of the
State.”
 Sir B.N. Rau
198. The Constitutional validity the First Amendment Act (1951) was challenged in
 Shankari Prasad v. Union of India
199. The 24th Amendment Act (1971) has amended the
 Article 368
200. Writ petition to supreme Court can be preferred under —
 Article 32 and Article 132 and Article 136
201. “Impact test” related to
 Benneth Coleman case
202. Right to move to the Supreme Court for violation of fundamental rights must be based on
 Question of fact and Question of law
203. Who rendered a dissenting opinion in Indian Young Lawyers Association v. State of Kerala
&Ors.(2018)
 InduMalhotra,j.
204. Article 15Clause (5) is a saving clause to -
 Article 30
205. Article 14 guaranteed
 Equality before the law
206. Article 16 Clause (4A) was added by which constitutional Amendment-
 Seventy-Seventh Amendment Act 1995
207. The right to freedom guaranteed under Article 19 is provided to-
 All citizens
208. Article 19 (I) (d) which guaranteed free movement throughout the territory of India subject to which
reasonable restriction as per Clause (6) of Article 19-
 In the interest of general Public and For the protection of the interest of any schedule tribe
209. Principle of double jeopardy is enshrined under which provision of the constitution-
 Article 20(2)
210. Fundamental right to education enshined under Article 21A available to children between the age
of
 Six to fourteen year
211. Which of the following words indicates that state has established a form of government which gets
its authority from the will of the people.
 Democratic
212. The Constitution of Indian establishes a parliamentary from of Government at
 Centre and States
213. The essence of the parliamentary form of Government is
 Responsibility to the legislature

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214. The minister shall be accountable to the
 Legislature
215. The Council of Ministers of Central Govt. are collectively responsible of
 House of people
216. To cure the evil of defection Parliament has enacted
 52nd Amendment Act
217. Which of the following schedule is added by the Constitution (Fifty-Second Amendment) Act, 1985?
 X
218. Fundamental Rights in Part III are prohibition against
 The state
219. The question that whether Preamble can be amended was raised for the first time before Supreme
Court in
 KesvanandBharati v. State of Kerala
220. Citizen has given under Article 19 indicates
 Natural person
221. It has been held in this case that a law depraving under Article 21 must also satisfy the test of
“Reasonableness” under Article 14 and 19 of the Constitution
 Maneka Gandhi case
222. As per M. Nagaraj v. Union of India case (2006)..
 It is not mandatory for the State to make reservation for SC/ST in matter of promotions or If the
state did wish to exercise its discretion it may make reservation in matter of promotions after
gathering quantifiable data showing inadequacy of representation
223. In which of the following case Supreme court recently (2018) revisited M.Nagaraj v. Union of India
case
 Jarnail Singh v. LachhmiNarain Gupta
224. This doctrine means that if an offending provision can be separated from that which is constitutional
then only that part which is offending is to be declared as void and not the entire Statute…….
 Doctrine of severability
225. In which of the following case Supreme court has observed that Chinnaiah’s (E.V.Chinnaiah v.
State of A.P.) does not in any manner deal with any of the aspects of constitutional amendment
which were in question in Nagraj case
 Jarnail Singh v. LachhmiNarain Gupta
226. Term ‘decree’ as defined in sec.2 does not include
 An adjudication from which an appeal lies as an appealable order
227. A defendant against whom an ex parte decree has been passed preferred an appeal against such
decree under
 Section 96 (2)
228. Which of the following provisions empowers the court to pronounce the judgment upon the
admissions made by the parties in their pleadings
 O-12 rule 6
229. What is barred u/s 10
 Trialof subsequent suit
230. Section 10 places bar on the power of an Indian court to try a subsequent instituted suit if the
previously instituted suit is pending in
 An Indian court
231. The object of ……..to section 11 if to compel the plaintiff or the defendant to take all the ground of
attack or deface which were open to him
 Explanation IV

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232. A defendant to a suit against whom no relief is claimed is called
 Pro-forma defendant
233. In an execution of any decree for maintenance ……..of the salary of judgment debtor is not liable
to be attached
 1/3
234. The Jurisdiction which confers sole power on court or tribunal to try a case is called
 Exclusive jurisdiction
235. Which one of the following is covered by the expression “suit of a civil nature”
 Suit relating to a religious office
236. Appeal from original decree lies on
 Both, question law and fact
237. An application for restoration of the suit under order 9, rule 9 must be made within
 30 days of dismissal
238. In a suit for title and possession where the land is in the occupation of a tenant, mesne profits
should be awarded on the basis of
 Rent
239. The following is a suit of civil nature
 Suit relating to rights of worship, Suit relating to right to shares in offerings, Suit relating to
rights of property
240. Recently, as decided on Oct. 2018, supreme court laid down conditions for applicability of res-
judicata between co-defendant in
 Govindammalv.Vaidiyanathan
241. Which of the following provision specifically provides that the provisions of section 11 will directly
apply to execution proceedings also
 Explanation VII to section 11
242. Section 34 of CPC applies to
 Interest during pendency of the suit and interest from date of decree
243. Decisions on matter collateral or incidental to main issues in a case
 Will not operate as res judicata
244. Defendant is entitled to defend the suit as of right
 In an ordinary suit
245. A civil court has power to stay a suit
 Under section 10 of CPC and Under section 151 of CPC
246. The test for applicability of …….is whether the decision in a previously suit would operate as res
judicata in the subsequent suit
 Section 10
247. A plea of res-judicata can successfully be taken in respect of judgments of
 Revenue courts, Land acquisition courts, Administrative courts
248. If a relief claimed in a suit but is not expressly granted in the decree it will be deemed to have been
refused
 When the relief claimed is substantive
249. If a petition under Article 226 is considered on the merits and dismissed
 The decision will operate as res judicata
250. Particular or evidence by means of which material facts are to be established are called
 Factum probans

13
251. Where any person is added as defendant in the suit as regards him the suit shall be deemed to
have been instituted
 From the date he is joined as a party
252. A sues B rent. The suit is dismissed on finding that A was not the landlord but A and B were tenant-
in-common. A subsequent suit by A against B for partition of property
 Not Barred
253. The defendant against whom ex parte decree has been passed may apply for setting it aside.
Where there are more than two defendant
 Anyone or more of them may make such application
254. A sues B and C on a promissory note. B is the principle debtor and C is the surety. An ex parte
decree is passed against both. B alone applies to set aside the decree and shows sufficient cause
for his absence. The decree will be set aside against
 B and C
255. Amendment in pleading shall be effective
 From the date of the application
256. What may be the effect of non-filing of written statement by the defendant within the time permitted
by the court?
 The fact set out in the plaint may be treated as implied admission
 A judgment could possibly be passed in favour of the plaintiff without requiring him to prove
any fact mentioned in the plaint
257. Where the defendant fails to file written statement within time permitted by the court,
 Court can proceed to pronounce judgment on the basis of the facts contained in the plaint or
Court may require the plaintiff to prove the fact contained in the plaint instead of proceeding
on account of deemed admission
258. In a commercial transactions:
 grant of interest at reduced rate is a rare exception
259. Section 15 requires the plaintiff to file a suit in the court of lowest grade to try it. Here the words
’lowest grade’ refers to competency with respect to:
 Pecuniary jurisdiction
260. A suit in which the right to property is contested is a suit of a civil nature
 If such right depends entirely on the decision of question as to religious rites or If such right
depends partially on the decision of question as to religious rites
261. Garnishee proceeding is a proceeding by which the decree holder seeks to……………of the
judgment debtor in the hands of third party
 Money or Movable property
262. A suit to set aside a decree on the ground of lack of territorial jurisdiction is barred under
 sec 21-A
263. Restitution can be claimed against
 The parties or their representatives
264. The remedies available to the defendant against whom an ex-parte decree is passed, is to file an
appeal and to file an application for setting aside ex-parte decree?
 Both the remedies are concurrent
265. Revisional power can be exercised by the High Court
 In a case where no appeal lies to the High
266. the correct propositions
 The decree must be drawn up in terms of the judgment
 The decree need not to be in a particular form

14
  The decree follows the judgment
267. Provision of s-3 is a categorical mandate to
 The courts
268. Limitation period to record an adjustment or satisfaction of a decree is given in
 Article 125
269. In case of suit for money payable for money lent limitation period begins to run
 When the loan is made
270. Which of the following provision states that foreign rule of limitation can be pleaded in defence
 Clause (2) of section 11
271. Easmentary rights are acquired by continuous and uninterrupted use for
 20 years
272. The Limitation Act, 1963 is not applicable to
 Section 25 of the Indian contract Act (ICA)
273. Ss. 25 and 26 deals with the ……….acquisition of right to easements by adverse possession.
 Direct
274. While considering section 14, the definition of good faith given by the Limitation Act should be
applied. Therefore the rule as to what is good faith is a …
 Question of fact
275. In excluding time under section 14
 The day on which the former suit was instituted shall be excluded or The day on which the
proceedings ended shall be excluded
 The day on which the proceedings ended shall be excluded
276. Section 80, CPC requires a notice to be given before the institution of suit. In such a case the period
of notice shall excluded by virtue of
 Section 15 (2)
277. An agreement in writing undertaking to pay a time barred debt is
 Valid
278. Section 5 has no application
 Before Labour tribunal, Before Central Administrative Tribunal, To an election petition
279. The proceeding u/s 6 of the limitation Act should be
 Suit or an application for execution
280. Section 7 contemplates a legal capacity to give…….. the concurrence of the person under a
disability.
 Without
281. The term ‘property’ in section 10 of the Limitation Act includes
 Immovable property, Money or Profits of a Property
282. Article 67 provides limitation period for
 Suit by a landlord to recover possession from a tenant
283. The acknowledgement u/s 18
 May be addressed to a person other than a person entitled to the property or right
284. Section 19 of the limitation Act contemplates
 Both, secured and unsecured debt
285. In case of suit for possession of immovable property when the plaintiff has become entitled to
possession by reason of any forfeiture or breach of condition, the time begins to run from the date
 When the forfeiture is incurred or
 When the condition is broken
15
286. The doctrine of limitation and consideration are based on consideration that____
 There is a presumption that a right not exercised for a long time is not existent.
 An unlimited and perpetual threat of litigation creates insecurity and uncertainty
 Long dormant claims have been described as having “more of cruelty than of justice in them ”
287. Under section 19 fresh period of limitation shall be computed from the time ..
 When the payment was made
288. Section 5 is applicable only to delay in filing of
 Appeals and application other than applications for of decree
289. Which of the following is an exception to the general rule that ‘once time beings to run, no sequent
disability or inability to sue can stop it’?
 When the administration of a estate has been given to a debtor of the deceased
290. Question of Limitation of actions are governed by the lexfori. Which section of the Limitation Act
incorporates provisions in this regard?
 Section 11
291. The expression ‘Court’ contemplated under section 14 mean
 Any civil court under the Code of civil procedure
 Any Tribunal deciding the civil rights of the parties
 Any other authority deciding the civil rights of the parties
292. For excluding the time under this section, it must be shown the institution of the suit in question has
been stayed by necessary implication of the order passed or injunction issued in the previous
litigation
 Section 15 of the Limitation Act
293. The liability of B, C and D is a joint one the period of D’s absence (out of India) must be excluded
against
 Either D or B and C
294. Where the execution of a decree or order with the period of limitation has been prevented by fraud
or force of the judgment debtor, the court may, on the application of judgment- creditor made after
the expiry of the period of limitation, extend the period for the execution of the decree or order. But
such an application must be made by the judgment creditor-
 Within one year from the date of discovery of fraud or cessation of force, as the case may be
295. Payment made by a debtor cannot extend limitation against a co-debtor in view of
 Section 20 (2)
296. Section 5 of the limitation Act applies to
 Application for leave to the Supreme Court
 Application for restoration of an appeal
297. In terms of Article 65 of the Limitation Act, 1963 the starting point of limitation commence from
 The date defendant’s possession become adverse
298. In a suit plea of limitation can be raised against
 Plaintiff
299. In computing the period of limitation where an application for execution of a decree is filed within
limitation, the period when any stay of execution of a decree was in operation will be a deductible
 Irrespective of who had obtained the stay order
300. Law of prescription, under the Act, deals with
 Extinctive prescription and Acquisitive prescription
301. In case of application for leave to appear and defend a suit under summary procedure the time from
which period of limitation begins to run is
 When the summon is served

16
302. For the purpose of Limitation Act a suit is said to be instituted, in an ordinary case,
 When the plaint is presented to the proper officer
303. Prescribed period means
 Period of limitation computed in accordance with the provision of the limitation Act
304. Section 10 of Indian Evidence Act, 1872 is applicable to:-
 Both civil and criminal proceedings
305. According to section 58 of the Evidence Act, facts admitted by the parties
 Need not be proved or May at the discretion of court required to be proved
306. Presumption of fact is derived from:-
 Prevalent customs and human experience
307. Under which one of the following provisions of IEA contents of electronic records may be proved?
 Section 65A
308. In which of the following case secondary evidence of the contents of a document cannot be given:-
 When the original has been found to be inadmissible
309. Under the evidence act birth during marriage is a:-
 Conclusive proof
310. The court may presume the existence of any fact which it thinks to have happened, regard being
had to the:-
 Common course of natural events, Human conduct only, Public and private business
311. Objections as to admissibility of a document in evidence can be made:-
 At the first opportunity when the document is tendered in evidence
312. A man holds a certain opinion is a :-
 Fact
313. Facts necessary to explain or introduce relevant facts are provided under:-
 Section 9
314. Under which section of evidence act the court itself can compare the handwriting:-
 Section 73
315. Under sec 85 the court shall presume the due execution and authentication of ……………when
executed before and authenticated by notary public or any court or any court judge etc.
 Power of attorney
316. A agrees to sell to B "my land at X in the occupation of Y". A has land at X, but not in the occupation
of Y, and he has land in the occupation of Y, but it is not at X.
Under which section evidence may be given of facts showing which he meant to sell.
 Section 97
317. Section 109 of Indian Evidence Act is based on:-
 Rule of convenience
318. There is a presumption of legitimacy where the person born after the dissolution of:-
 Valid marriage
319. Admission defined under section 17 is a:-
 Oral statement
 Documentary statement
 Statement in electronic form
320. Doctrine of estoppels applies to
 Civil proceedings
321. When a fact pleaded in a plaint is not specifically denied but mere ignorance about its existence is
pleaded.

17
  It amounts to admissions unless by necessary implication it amounts to denial
322. Who among these holds his office during the pleasures of the president
 Governor
323. Who called the Indian federalism as a “Co-operative federalism”.
 Granville Austin
324. The adoption of universal Adult Suffrage without any qualification has been envisaged in the Indian
constitution under
 Article 326
325. It set out the aim and objective to be taken up by the states in the governance at the country
 Directive principles of state Policy
326. “Secularism” means ( w.r.t. State)
 A state which treats all religion equally
 A state which does not recognise any religion as a State religion
 Separation of State from religious institutions
327. Which terms were not present in the preamble originally.
 Socialist, Secular and integrity
328. Who was the Chairman of the Sixth Pay Commission?
 B. N. Srikrishna
329. Vittala Temple is an ancient-monument located at—
 Thanjavur
330. Which year was declared as the “International Year of Pulses” by the UN?
 2015
331. Which of the following ‘Day’ is observed in the month of September?
 National Hindi Day
332. In which discipline this year Nobel Prize was not awarded?
 Literature
333. BCG Vaccine is primarily given against —
 TB
334. Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan organized the ‘Red Shirt Movement’ in support of the —
 Civil Disobedience Movement
335. Who was the political guru of Mahatma Gandhi?
 G.K. Gokhale
336. Anemometer is used for measuring —
 Wind Velocity
337. Human Rights Day is observed annually on—
 December 10
338. Who was the calligrapher of the Indian Constitution?
 PremBehariNarainRaizada
 “RCEP” stands for —
 Regional Comprehensive Economic Partnership
339. Every year all over India, August 20 is observed as the —
 National Harmony Day
340. Who was the first recipient of the Rajiv Gandhi Khel Ratna Award?
 VishwanathanAnand
341. Trachoma is an infectious disease caused by a —
 Bacteria
342. The book “Gandhi - The Years That Changed The World (1914-1948)” is authored by —

18
  RamachandraGuha
343. First woman Secretary General of the Lok Sabha -
 SnehlataSrivastava
344. First woman Chief Justice of Jammu & Kashmir High Court —
 Gita Mittal
345. On human space mission, ISRO is to collaborate with—
 French Space Agency — CNES
346. Recently constituted “Amitava Roy Committee” will suggest —
 Jail reforms
347. Which of the following country will host the 2022 Youth Olympic Games?
 Senegal
348. As per the latest guidelines of the Supreme Court, no Bharat Stage IV vehicle will be sold in India
from—
 April 1, 2020
349. Recently announced award to honour police and paramilitary personal involved in disaster
response operation has been named after —
 Subhash Chandra Bose
350. First Indian woman pilot of Indian Air force to complete a solo flight —
 AvniChaturvedi
351. First woman bowler in the world to take 200 ODI wickets —
 JhulanGoswami
The word nearest in meaning to the given word.
352. ACQUIESEC — Quiet submission
353. DEBONAIR — Pleasing and gracious
354. ASKANCE — Obliquely
The word opposite to the word given.
355. SCURRY — To tremble
356. BOISTEROUS — Sobriety
357. BRUSQUE —Tactful
Spellings
358. Salubrious
359. Treacherous
360. Penurious
361. Camaraderie

Fill in the blanks

362. This bed is made _____ iron but chair is made _____ wood.
 of, from
363. The escape of David to France was successfully arranged but no sooner was this done ______
George was captured and held prisoner.
 Than
364. I am sorry __________ anything about his problem.

19
  For not knowing
Meaning of the idiom/phrase.
365. To run in the same groove —
 To advance in harmony
366. Take up the cudgels—
 To defend someone
367. A forlorn hope—
 A plan which has remote chances of success
Change in Active/Passive voice.
368. Has a dog ever bitten you?
 Have you ever been bitten by a dog?
369. It is time to close the shops.
 It is time for shops to be closed.
The word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word.
370. He is an inveterate liar.
 Habitual
371. Herostensible calm masked a deep-seated fear.
 Apparent
372. Nobody paid much attention to the trite remarks he kept passing.
 Hackneyed
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
To sum up the whole, we should say that the aim of Platonic philosophy was to exalt man into a God.
The aim of the Baconian philosophy was to provide man with what he requires while he continues to be
a man. The aim of Platonic philosophy was to raise us far above the vulgar wants. The aim of Baconian
philosophy was to supply our vulgar wants. The former aim was noble, but the latter was attainable.
Plato drew a good bow, he aimed at the stars; and therefore, though there was no want of strength or
skill, the shot was thrown away. His arrow was indeed followed by a track of dazzling radiance, but it
struck nothing. Bacon fixed his eye on mark which was placed on earth and hit it in the white. The
philosophy of Plato began with words and ended in words, noble words indeed, worth suchasweretobe
expected from the finest of human intellects exercising boundless dominion over the finest of languages.
373. The author in the above passage—
 Compares and contrasts two systems towards which he is impartial
374. The references to a bow and an arrow in the passage—
 Shows us the comparative strengths and weaknessess of Platonic and Baconian systems.
375. Which one of the followings best reflects the underlying tone of the passage?
 It is the image of man conceived differently that makes the basic distinction between different
systems.
376. Which of the following words in the passage confirm the exalted notions of man according to Plato?
 He aimed at the stars
377. A criminal conspiracy under the ………….is the agreement of two or more persons to do an illegal
act, to do a legal act by illegal means.
 English law and also under the Indian law
378. Under section 111 of the IPC, the abettor is liable for the act committed if
 It was a probable consequence of the abetment
 It was committed under the influence of the abetment

20
  It was committed in pursuance of the conspiracy which constituted abetment
379. This section is only brought into operation when circumstance amounting to abetment of a particular
crime have first been proved and then the presence of the accused at the commission of the crime
is proved in addition
 Section 114,IPC
380. ‘A’ caused hurt to ‘X’, a public servant engaged in the discharge of his duty. A will be liable under..
 Section 332,IPC
381. To hold a person liable for wrongful restraint, the obstruction must be
 The obstruction must be such as to prevent that person from proceeding in any direction in
which he has a right to proceed
382. Which of the following offence can be committed either in private, or in a public place
 Assault
 Riot
383. A, being executor to the will of a deceased person, dishonestly disobeys the law which directs him
to divide the effect according to the will, and appropriate them to his own use. A has committed
 Criminal breach of trust
384. A, by falsely pretending to be in the Civil Service, intentionally deceives Z to let him have on credit
goods for which he does not mean to pay. A shall be punished under..
 Section 419,IPC
385. To constitute an offence under section 121, IPC
 No specific number of persons is necessary
386. Promoting enmity between different classes is an offence against
 The publictranquility
387. Extortion differs from cheating in
 Mode of obtaining consent
388. It can be committed in respect of movable as well as immovable property
 Extortion
 Robbery
389. To constitute hurt it is necessary to cause
 Bodily pain or Disease or Infirmity to another
390. Which of the following section of the IPC deals with of private defence against deadly assault when
there is risk of harm to innocent person
 Section 106
391. ……kind of hurt designated as grievous
 Eight
392. Offence under this section is bailable one.
 Section 304 B,IPC
393. Which of the following offence needs involvement of minimum of five person
 Being member of unlawful assembly having common object
 Dacoity
 Rioting
394. Outraging a woman’s modesty is punishable under
 Section 354 IPC
395. A shakes his fist at Z intending or knowing it to be likely that he may thereby cause Z to believe that
A is about to strike Z , A has committed
 Assault

21
396. Which section lays down the test to determine when a person is said to have caused an act as a
result of involuntary intoxication
 Section 85 IPC
397. If the intention is that the person abducted may be murdered or so disposed of as to be put in
danger of being murdered………applies
 Section 364 IPC
398. It is a substantive offence and punishable in itself
 Kidnapping
399. Aattempts to pull Z’s nose Z in exercise of the right of private defence lays hold of A to prevent him
from doing so. A is moved to sudden and violent passion in consequence and kill Z. This is
 Murder
400. Under section 79 IPC act of the person claiming exemption must fall under
 Legal justification
401. Which of the following section of IPC was mainly involved in DevidasRathodv.State of
Maharashtra(sc 2018)
 section 84
402. A person who fraudulently and dishonestly uses as document, which he knows or has reason to
believe to be forged, is punishable under
 Section 471
403. Intention can be drawn from
 Nature of injuries, Motive, Weapons used
404. Joseph Shine v Union of India (decided on 27.092018) is a famous case on
 Adultery
405. In no case the sentence of solitary confinement be awarded more then…….at a time.
 14 days
406. The IPC has listed under exception 1 to section 300 IPC the circumstances under which the offence
of murder will be reduced to culpable homicide not amounting to murder punishable under
 Section 304
407. Offence of mischief can be committed against
 Private property or Public property
408. Which section of the IPC deals with the intraterritorial operation of the code?
 Section 2
409. According to section ……..where a conflict occurs between the code and the special or local law
the code shall not apply
 Section 5 of IPC
410. To constitute ‘wrongful gain’ there must be
 An unlawful acquisition, An unlawful means
411. For an assembly to be unlawful it must have a common object of the kind specified in
 Section 141
412. The correctly matched
 Affray – Section 159 IPC
413. The offence of voluntarily causing grievous hurt is punishable under
 Section 326 IPC
414. A instigates B to burn Z’s house. B sets fire to the house and at the same time commits theft of
property there. A is guilty of
 Abetting the burning of the house

22
415. Mischief is an offence against
 Property
416. Refusal to answer a question which is relevant to the subject concerning which the public servant
is authorized to inquire is punishable under
 Section 179 IPC
417. In which of the following offence injury is not essential?
 Abetment and
 Criminal conspiracy
418. Absence of good faith within the meaning of section 52 of IPC means
 Want of due care and caution
419. A an officer of a court of justice being ordered by that court to arrest Y and after due enquiry,
believing Z to be Y, arrests Z. A will be exempt from criminal liability under.
 Section 76
420. To invoke the plea of right of private defence
 There must be an offence committed or There must be attempt to commit an offence
421. A being legally bound to appear before the High Court at Chandigarh in obedience to subpoena
issuing from that court, intentionally omits to appear. A has committed the offence defined in
 Section 174
422. Dacoity is
 Robbery committed by five or more persons
423. Intention is an important factor in determining guilt of the accused for the offence of
 Abduction
424. To constitute force there must be
 Causing of motion or Change of motion or Cessation of motion
425. The consent is not a valid consent of u/s 90 of IPC
 If given under a fear of injury or misconception of fact
 If given by a person of unsound mind
 If given by a child below 12 years of age
426. Intention is immaterial for the offence of
 Kidnapping
 Bigamy
427. A person is said to cause an effect voluntarily when
 He causes it intentionally
 He knew or had reason to believe to be likely to cause it
 He presumes to know the nature and consequences of his act and is liable for the same
428. The correct response
 Inquiry is conducted prior to the framing of the charge, by a court or a magistrate
429. Which section of the Cr.P.C. is in consonance with the right conferred by Article 20(2) of the Indian
Constitution.
 Section 300
430. Itmanifests the Article 39 A if the Indian Constitution
 Section 304
431. The classification of compoundable and non-compoundable offence has been provided under
Cr.P.C in
 Section 320
432. A case can be committed to a court of sessions ,by a Magistrate

23
  U/s 209,Cr.P.C
 U/s 323, Cr.P.C
433. A confessional statement u/s 164 of the Cr.P.C. can be recorded
 During the course of investigation at any time afterwards before the
434. Anycondition imposed by a Magistrate while releasing the accused in a non-bailable offence case
can be set aside or modified
 by the court of session
 by the High court
 by the Magistrate himself
435. Criminal procedure is a subject of
 Concurrent list
436. Addition of a new charges during trial is
 legal , as provided U/S 216 (I) Cr.P.C
437. As provided in Cr.P.C the general rule is that
 For every distinct offence of which any person is accused there shall be a separate charge
 For every separate charge there shall be a separate trial
438. Under which section of Cr.P.C an accused person can himself be a competent witness
 Section 315
439. How much punishment may be sentenced to an accused who is found guilty under a summary trial
under Cr.P.C.
 Not exceeding three months
440. What is the time limit under section 468 of the Cr.P.C for taking cognizance in a case of defamation
?
 Three years
441. Under Cr.P.C. no court shall take cognization of an offence punishable with fine only,after expiry
of
 Six months
442. As provided under Cr.P.C. 1973,which one of the following courts can try a murder case
 Sessions Judge
443. In Cr.P.C., there shall be no appeal by a convicted person where a magistrate of 1 st class imposes
only sentence of fine not exceeding
 One hundred rupees
444. A refusal to answer question put to a witness under section 161 of the Cr.P.C. is an offence under
 Section 179 of IPC
445. According to the section 154Cr.P.C. ,every information relating to the commission of a cognizable
offence shall be signed by
 The person giving it
446. Which section of CrPC cast a duty upon police to prevent cognizable offence
 149
447. A private person may arrest any person who
 In his presense commits a cognizable and non-bailable offence
448. Under which section an arrested person can be searched
 Section 51
449. Who can issue a search warrant to search persons wrongfully confined
 The district Magistrate
 The sub-divisional Magistrate

24
  The Magistrate 1st class
450. Who has the power to direct security to be taken
 Court issuing a warrant
451. The personal attendance of the accused can be dispenced with
 Section 207 ,Cr.P.C.
452. The right to maintenance available to a wife is:-
 statutory right
 personal right
453. The criminal procedure code 1973 came into force:-
 01-04-1974
454. What is true of criminal procedural code:-
 the code does not extend to the state of Jammu and Kashmir
455. The provision of Cr.P.C are:-
 mainly mandatory
456. TheCr.P.C is a:-
 procedural law
 contains provisions in the nature of substantive law
457. The object of investigation is to:-
 to collect the evidence against the accused
458. Inquiry is conducted by a magistrate:-
 to find out a prima facie case
459. Under section 50 of the code of criminal procedure, it is not mandatory to inform the arrested person
that he is entitled to be released on bail if he is arrested:-
 without warrant for non bailable offence
460. The order of maintenance is given by:-
 the judicial magistrate first class
461. A magistrate could make an ex parte order in case of public nuisance:-
 while he is making a conditional order
462. Any dispute relating to possession of immovable property is decided by:-
 executive magistrate
463. Which of the following does not amount to FIR:-
 A statement given to a police officer after investigation has commenced
 A statement recorded by an officer in charge on the basis of his personal knowledge after the
original information was received
 A complaint made orally or in writing to a magistrate
464. Which of the following statement is correct in relation to FIR:-
 it can be used as a previous statement for any purpose
465. Confession made voluntarily is admissible in evidence:-
 to amagistrate having competent jurisdiction
466. Where the investigation relates to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or
imprisonment not less than 10 years, the magistrate may authorize the detention of accused person
in police custody for a maximum period of:-
 15 days
467. An executive magistrate may grant remand under section 167 Cr. P. C for a maximum period of:-
 7 days
468. The statement under section 174 Cr.P.C:-

25
  canbe used only as a previous statement to corroborate and contradict the person making it at
the trial
469. If the Magistrate or court finds that a prima facie case is made out against the accused and he is
incapable of entering defence by reason of mental retardation.
 Magistrate or court shall order release of such person on bail.
470. This section was amended by the criminal law (Amendment) Act,2005
 Section 195, Cr.P.C.
471. In Chapter X of the principal Act (Cr.P.C), under sub-heading “C-Urgent cases of nuisance or
apprehended danger,” this section has been newly inserted
 144A
472. Bail can be asked as a matter of right
 In bailable offence
473. A report has to be filled as soon as
 The investigation is complete
474. The limit of a police station are fixed by
 The Government notification
475. Statement-(I) Court can issue warrant of arrest in substitution of summon
Statment - (II) Warrant of arrest cannot be issued in addition to summon
 I is correct but II is incorrect
476. The jurisdiction conferred on the Magistrate by the 125 Cr.P.C. is
 More preventive than remedial
477. Right to maintenance is absolute
 Under personal law as well as Cr.P.C.
478. In which of the following case, in 2017, Supreme court has issued issued directions to prevent the
misuse of section 498A IPC.
 RajeshSharma v. State of U.P.
479. In which case Supreme Court has formulated ‘Rarest of rare’ theory first?
 Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab
480. The gist of the offence under this section is the deprivation of the husband of his custody and his
proper control over his wife with the object of having illicit intercourse with her by the act of some
blandishment or allurement whereby her consent so to stay away is obtained by the offender.
 Section 498
481. Whoever commits dowry death shall be punished with imprisonment for a term which shall not be
less than
 Seven years
482. To bring the liability under this section the women against whom offence has been committed must
have been subjected to cruelty or harassment
 Section 304B IPC
 Section 498A IPC
483. Whoever have been habitually associated with any other or others for the purposes of committing
robbery or child stealing by means of or accompanied with murder is called
 Thug
484. If a women causes herself to miscarry the act would fall within
 Section 312 IPC
485. The difference between section 323 and 324 of the IPC is in the
 Use of weapons / means

26
486. Under which section of Cr. P.C compensation is paid to groundlessly arrested person
 Section 358
487. A was traveling from Varanasi to Delhi by train .In the course of his journey he commited a theft
between Varanasi and Kanpur .At Kanpur A suddenly changed his mind ,broke his journey and
stayed at Kanpur.A can be tried
 At Delhi ,if the person whose property has been stolen ,travelled upto Delhi or At Varanasi or
At Kanpur
488. The procedure of trial held before the Court of Sessions is provided in the Code of Criminal
Procedure under
 Section 225-237
489. On being submitted the sentence of death by court of session ,the high court may
 Confirm the sentence or Annual the conviction
490. Under section 167 Cr.P.C. the maximum period of judicial custody of an arrested person can be
 60 or 90 days
491. Which section of the Cr.P.C. provides that “no statement made by any person to a police officer if
reduced to writing ,be signed by the person making it.
 Section 162
492. Which section of the Cr.P.C. deals with case diary?
 Section 172
493. Who is authorized to appoint public prosecutor for a district
 State government
494. Which section of the Cr.P.C authorizes the public prosecutor to withdraw the prosecution
 Section 321
495. A proclaimed person whose property has been attached can claim the property or sale proceeds
on appearance within
 2 years of attachment
496. Under section 313 of the Cr.P.C ,the statement of the accused has to be taken by the court
 Not on Oath
497. The following is correctly provided
 Reference to High Court – Sec 395 CPC
498. Under section 439 of Cr.P.C Jurisdiction to cancel the bail vests with
 The High Court or the Court of Session
499. Under chapter XII of the Cr.P.C. the Magistrate can authorise detention for a total period of 90 days
during investigation in case of offences punishable
 with death ,imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term of not less than ten years
500. In case of a women under eighteen years of age, the detention (u/s 167 Cr.P.C) shall be authorized
to be in the custody of
 recognized social institution or remand home
501. Statement I – Court of sessions can not take direct cognizence of an offence
Statement II – Court of sessions may take direct conigance of an offence
Statement III – Court of sessions may take direct cognizence in certain circumstances mentioned
in section 193 of Cr.P.C.
 II and III are correct, I is incorrect
502. The court can record demenanour of a witness :
 U/s 280
503. What is the condition precedent for registration of an FIR?
 Information disclosing a cognizable offence
27
504. It is the duty of the police to ensure that each & every cognizable offence is promptly investigated
in accordance with law. Police can proceed to conduct investigation into a cognizable offence
 When an FIR has been lodged
 Without receiving any FIR, if police suspects the commission of such offence
505. The truthfulness of the information regarding cognizable offence can be fact checked by police by
investigation , which the police concerned is empowered u/s
 156 Cr.P.C.
506. Under section 156 (3) Magistrate can make an order of
 Investigation of a case
 Registration of a case
507. The Criminal Procedure Code gives power of arrest to
 Police officer
 Magistrate
 Private person
508. To invoke section 167(1) Cr.P.C. it is necessary that arrest should have been effected by
 A police officer or An officer empowered to arrest under any other law (special act)
509. The main object of section 167 (1) Cr.P.C.
 Production of an arrestee before magistrate
510. If a police officer files a report u/s 173 of the Cr.P.C. , Magistrate may take cognizance upon the
same under section
 190 (1) (b), Cr.P.C.
511. The word ‘statement’ under section 161, Cr.P.C. includes
 Oral statement
 Written statement
 Sign and gestures
512. Which section is designed to cure to some extent the defects and irregularities in the recording of
the confession or other statement of the accused under section 164, Cr.P.C.
 Section 463, Cr.P.C.
513. Examination of witnesses in the absence of the accused
 Can be done u/s 299, Cr.P.C.
514. Power to grant an anticipatory bail is vested with the
 High court and sessions court
515. If the investigation is not completed with 90 or 60 days , as the case may be, and the accused is in
custody , on the expiry of said period the accused is entitled to be
 Released on bail if he furnishes bail
516. Under section 202, Cr.P.C. magistrate can make a direction to the police to investigate the case
 After examination of the complainant
517. An investigating officer has power to arrest
 Without warrant if case relates to cognizable offence
 With warrant if case relates to non-cognizable offence
518. Bail under section 167 Cr.P.C. is
 Statutory bail
 Bail by default
519. In which case Supreme Court,in 2017, has held that sex with minor wife is rape
 Independent Thought v. Union of India

28
520. The following is a condition precedent for getting bail under section 167, CrPC
 Non-filing of chargsheet
521. The power of the Magistrate to direct an investigation on receiving the report under
 Section 157 of the Cr.P.C.
522. Section 159 of the Cr.P.C. is primarily meant to give to the Magistrate the power
 Of directing an investigation in cases where the police decides not to investigate the case
523. Kuchipudi classical dance is indigenous to the State of —
 Andhra Pradesh
524. Who wrote the book “Gandhi Versus Lenin”?
 S.A. Dange
525. In India, ‘National Voters Day’ is observed on—
 January 25
526. Which of the followings is not included in the list of UNESCO World Heritage Sites?
 Kanheri Caves
527. HarGovind Khorana, an Indian American biochemist, won the 1968 Nobel Prize for —
 Medicine
528. Vasopressin stimulates —
 Reabsorption of water
529. Dr. V. Kamakot Committee was associated with —
 Artificial Intelligence
530. Mahatma Gandhi was the editor of journal —
 Harijan
 Young India
 Indian Opinion
531. India’s first hyperloop project will come up in —
 Andhra Pradesh
532. Which one was not associated with education reforms?
 Fraser Commission
533. First Woman Chief Justice of Delhi High Court —
 Justice G. Rohini
534. In India, Good Governance Day is observed every year on —
 December 25
535. Where is the headquarters of ‘Insurance Regulatory Development Authority of India’ (IRDAI)
located?
 Hyderabad
536. Gout is a kind of arthritis caused due to excessive accumulation of —
 Uric acid crystals
537. Who is known as the “Father of Modern India”?
 Raja Ram Mohan Roy
538. The play “Untitled-1” is written by—
 AnneiZaidi
539. The 2018 Asian Junior Athletics Championships was held at —
 Gifu
540. The Delhi Dialogue is premier annual event to discuss politico-security and economic engagement
between India and —

29
  ASEANNations
541. Recently launched book“281 and Beyond” is the autobiography of —
 V. V. S.Laxman
542. As to undertake the “Gaganyaan” space flight program, ISRO is building a new launch pad at —
 Sriharikota
543. Who among the followings was conferred with the Rajiv Gandhi KehlRatna Award for the year
2017?
 Sardara Singh
544. Which state emerged as the overall champion in the first edition of North-East Olympic Games -
2018?
 Manipur
545. RastriyaEktaDiwas is observed on October 31 every year as to pay tribute to—
 Sardar Patel
546. India’s fastest and first multi-petaflop supercomputer —
 Prathyush
547. Stephan Hawking, who passed away recently, hailed from which country?
 UK
Read the following passage and answer the question.
“The States are like pearls and the Centre is the thread which turns them into a necklace, if the thread
snaps, the pearls are scattered.”
548. Which one of the following views corroborates the statement?
 A strong Centre is a binding force for national integrity.
The word opposite to the underlined word.
549. The child was singing in a sweet voice.
 Hoarse
550. The speaker’s eyes were equally expressive of the vehemence of his feelings.
 Mildness
551. People tend to avoid loquacious persons.
 Reticent
Directions the word nearest in meaning to the given word.
552. ADUMBRATE —
 To shadow forth
553. BESTIAL —
 Brutish
554. CHIDE —
 To rebuke
Directions the meaning of the idiom/phrase
555. Elbow room —
 To giveenough space to move in
556. Bag of bones —
 An extremely weak person
557. Grist to one’s mill —
 Usefulfor one’s purpose
Directions the word opposite to the given word.
558. WELLBRED—
 Coarse
559. VENIAL —

30
  Unpardonable
560. WIZENED —
 Smooth
Directions the correctspelling.
561. Connoisseur
562. Disentangle
563. Cessation
564. The phrase “to hold in contempt” means —
 To hate
Directions one word substitute for the following group of.
565. A place where aeroplanes are kept —
 Hanger
566. To deny responsibility —
 Repudiate
Directions Rewrite the sentence in the same form in future tense.
567. The parrot has flown from the cage.
 The parrot would have flown from the cage.
Directions correct word.
568. It was late evening by the time crowd _________.
 Dispersed
Directions (Questions 197 to 200): Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Books are, by far, the most lasting product of human effort. Temples crumble into ruin, pictures and
statues decay, but books survive. Time does not destroy the great thoughts which are as fresh today
as when they first passed through their author's mind. These thoughts speak to us throughthe printed
page. The only effect of time has been to throw out of currency the bad products among books. Nothing
in the literature which is not good can live for long. Good books have always helped man in various
spheres of life. No wonder that the world keeps its books with great care
569. "To throwout of currency" means —
 Put out of use
570. Of the products of human effort, books are the most —
 Permanent
571. Time does not destroy books because they contain —
 Greatideas
572. What are the characteristics of good books?
 They help man in various spheres of life.
 They are the expression of the author’s mind.
 They are universal in nature, and thus, are applicable to all time and ages.
573. An accused can be discharged under section 249 of CrPC
 If the offence is a compoundable offence or If the offence is a cognizable offence
574. When, in any warrant-case instituted on a police report, the accused appears or brought before a
Magistrate at the commencement of the trial, the Magistrate shall satisfy himself that he has
complied the provisions of —
 Section 207 CrPC
575. If a single act or series of acts is of such a nature that it is doubtful which of several offences the
facts which can be proved will constitute
 The accused may be tried at once with any number of such charges or The accused may be
charged in the alternative with having committed some one of the said offence

31
576. Where an accused person has pleaded guilty and has pleaded guilty and has been convicted on
such plea, there shall be no appeal even as extent or legality of the sentence
 If the conviction is by a High Court
577. A person of unsound mind shall be released on bail during the pendency of investigation or trial
 If he is incapable of entering defence by reason of unsoundness of mind under section 328 or
329 of CrPC
578. In case of default of payment of fine where imprisonment has been awarded as part of the
substantive sentence, a Judicial Magistrate First Class may award maximum imprisonment of
 Nine months
579. “Judicial proceeding” includes any proceeding in the course of which evidence……...legally taken
on oath
 Is or may be
580. The following is correctly matched
 Cognizable offence -------------- Section 2(c) CrPC
 Bailable offence --------- Section 2(a) CrPC
 Non-bailable -------------- section 2(a), CrPC
581. Every warrant of arrest shall remain in force until it is cancelled by—
 The court which issued it
582. Which of the following is triable by Judicial Magistrate First Class
 offence committed under section 326 of IPC
583. In order to attract section 23 of the ICA, it is not necessary that the contract should be tainted with
 illegality
584. This section comes into play when a part of the consideration for an object is unlawful -
 Section 24, ICA
585. Exception of the section 26 of the Indian Contract Act is :-
 child marriage
586. An agreement to agree in the future is
 Void and uncertain
587. When a tender is submitted in response to an invitation, it is
 an offer
588. A and B contract that A shall deliver goods to B to be paid for by B on delivery. A need not deliver
the goods, unless B is ready and willing to pay for the goods on delivery by virtue of
 Section 51 of the Indian Contract Act and Section 31 of the Sale of Goods Act
589. The principal factor governing the general circumstances of a frustration of contract is
 It is hardship to the performer
590. Fortheapplicability of section 65 of the Indian contract Act, restoration purposes, when the parties
have entered into the contract it must be
 an apparently valid contract
591. The doctrine of pari delicto is attracted
 when both the parties are at equal fault
592. A party to a contract committing breach is liable to pay compensation in respect of
 The direct consequence following from the breach
593. A party who suffers loss as a result of breach of contract, can, in the usual course, claim
 Ordinary damages
594. A person is said to be in ‘distress’ when his mental capacity is
 Temporarily affected or Permanently affected
595. A counter-offer is
 A rejection of the original offer

32
596. The money paid under mistake is recoverable if there is a
 Mistake of fact or law
597. The loss or damage arising from a breach of contract has to be ascertained
 At the date of the breach of contract
598. When the promisor offers to perform his obligation under the contract to the promise, it is called
 Tender of performance and Offer of performance
599. Which of the following is an “implied offer”
 A bid at an auction sale
 A bankers catalogue of charges
 Consuming estables at a restaurant
600. All innocent promises collateral to the main illegal promise contained in a contract will be regarded
as
 illegal
601. Birth during subsistence of marriage is a conclusive proof of legitimacy.
This provision is give in
 Section 112,IEA
602. Under which one of the following section of ,IEA, opinion as to digital signature has been considered
to be relevant
 Section 47A
603. Under which section of the, IEA defines “Examination-in-chief”.
 Section 137
604. Which of the following is a normal condition for admissibility of admissions?
 Admission should be against the interest of the maker
 It must relate to the subject matter in issue
605. Facts which need not be proved by the parties include
 Facts of which judicial notice has be taken
 Facts which have been admitted by the parties at the hearing
606. Where a number of documents are all copies of a common original, they are _______evidence of
the contents of the original
 Secondary
607. For the presumption of death U/S 108, the person is show to be not heard for a period of
 7 years
608. Power for granting interim relief under section 9 of Arbitration Act is vested with..
 court
609. A sues B for negligence in providing him with a carriage for hire not reasonably fit for use whereby
A was injured. What is relevant under a trial?
 The fact that B’s attention was drawn to the defect of the carriage
610. The IndianEvidence Act, 1872 was drafted by
 James Stephen
611. Phrase ‘Lex Loci Contractus’ is relate with
 Section 11 of the Limitation Act
612. “In computing the time , the rule observed is to exclude the first day and to include the last.”
Which section of the Limitation Act is primarily related with the above statement.
 Section 14
613. Defect of jurisdiction in section 14 of the Limitation Act, means
 A defect in the particular court where the former proceedings were instituted
 An inability shared by the court in common with all other courts to entertain the proceedings
614. The expression “court” contemplated under section 14 of Limitation Act, means
 Any civil court under the Code of Civil Procedure

33
  Any Tribunal deciding the civil rights of the parties
 Any other authority deciding the civil rights of the parties
615. Facts bearing on question whether act was intentional or accidental are mentioned under:-
 Section 15,IEA
616. Oral admission as to contents of documents are relevant when:-
 The party proposing to prove that he is entitled to give secondary evidence of the contents of
the contents of such document or the genuineness of the document produced itself in question
617. If the statement of the accused is such that a part of it incriminates him where as the other part of
it exculpates him from the liability, then generally:-
 Court must accept the whole statement
618. In a trial of murder of B by A which fact is not relevant:-
 A has borrowed Rs. 50,000/- from B
619. The contents of the documents may be proved by:-
 Primary evidence or Secondary evidence
620. Under which section of Evidence Act the court itself can compare the handwriting:-
 Section 73
621. Estoppel operates on tenant
 When he remains in possession after the termination of tenancy by notice to quit
 During the continuance of tenancy
622. A agrees to sell to B “my land at X in the occupation of Y”. A has land at X, but not in the occupation
of Y, and he has land in the occupation of Y, but it is not at X. Under which section evidence may
be given of facts showing which he meant to sell.
 Section 97
623. A fact is relevant under the Indian Evidence Act 1872:-
 Which support or rebut the inference
 Which establish the identity of anything or person
624. The purpose of proving the existence of conspiracy is to show that:-
 Such person was the party to it
625. Limitation period for suit to establish periodically recurring right
 Three years
626. Section 19 of the Limitation Act contemplates
 Both secured and unsecured debt
627. Payment , under section 19 of Limitation Act, must be made towards
 Principal or interest
628. Section 21(1) of Limitation Act is not attracted where a party is added or substituted owing to
 An assignment
 Devolution of interest during pendent lite
 Defendant is made a plaintiff
629. Section 22 of the Limitation Act deals with
 Continuing breach of contract
 Continuing tort
630. Z, going on a journey, entrusts his plate to A, the keeper of the warehouse, till Z shall return. A
carries the plate to a goldsmith and sells it.
 A has not committed theft
 A may have committed criminal breach of trust
631. Easement may be acquired by
 Prescription
 Express grant
 Implied grant
632. The proceeding for the purpose of section 27 of the Limitation Act

34
  Must be suit
633. Under section 27 of the Limitation Act
 Possession need not to be physical and Acts of possession must show that plaintiff had
enjoyed such dominion over the property in the manner in which such dominion is normally
exercised
634. Section 8 of the Limitation Act provides that nothing in section 6 or in section 7 applies to suits to
enforce rights of
 Pre-emption
635. Which of the illustration of section 114 of Indian Evidence Act provides for presumption of certain
fact says that an accomplice is unworthy of credit, unless he is corroborated in material particulars:-
 illustration (b)
636. The only safeguard against the risk of condemning the innocent with the guilt lies in insisting upon:-
 Independent evidence
637. After the re-examination of witness, the adverse party:-
 Has a right to cross-examination if new matter is introduced by re-examination
638. Which one of the following is not a public document under the IEA?
 Will
639. Under the Indian Evidence Act, the word “Relevent” defined as:-
 Factual and legal relevancy
640. The good faith of a sale by a client to an attorney is in question in a suit brought by the client. The
burden of proving the good faith of the transaction is on the attorney by virtue of
 Section 111 of IEA
641. A is tried for the murder of B by intentionally shooting him dead.
The fact that A, on the other occasions shot at B.
 Is relevant
642. The mode of proving a custom or right is:-
 By transaction or By particular instance
643. Section 23 of Indian Evidence Act deals with:-
 Admissions in civil cases when relevant
644. The protection for communications during marriage can be waived by:-
 With the consent of husband and wife
645. A witness who is not a party, can not be compelled to produce:-
 His title deeds to any property only
 The pledge or mortgage deed of any property
 Any document which might tend to criminate him
646. Which of the provision of Evidence Act lays down the rule that “evidence should be weighted not
counted”:-
 Section 134
647. Leading question may be asked in:-
 Cross-examination
648. Statement recorded by a police officer U/S 161, Cr.P.C.
 Is not a substantive evidence
 Cannot be used for the purpose of corroboratation
 Can be used for the purposes of contradiction
649. U/s 159 of the Cr.P.C. Magistrate has power
 To direct investigation

35
  To hold preliminary inquiry
650. As provided u/s 164 (4) of the Cr.P.C., confession shall be recorded in the manner provided in
 Sec. 281, Cr.P.C
651. To whom Chief Judicial Magistrate can empower to take cognizance under sub-section 2 of section
190,Cr.P.C
 Magistrate of second class
652. Confession u/s 164 Cr.P.C
 Shall not be recorded by a police officer
653. To set aside declaration of forfeiture u/s 96 of Cr.P.C. application may be given to
 High Court
654. U/s 107 of CrPC which of the following courts has power to release offender on security for keeping
peace and good behaviour?
 Executive Magistrate
655. Under section 110 CrPC which of the following courts has power to release offender on security for
keeping peace and good behavior
 Executive magistrate
656. Section 128,Cr.P.C provides for
 Enforcement of order of maintenance
657. The remedy under section 7 can also be invoked
 If the plaintiff remains entitled to the possession of the goods
658. Section 41 (d) of the SRA provides that an injunction cannot be granted restraining any person from
instituting or prosecuting any proceeding in a
 Criminal matter
659. A person can sue for the return of the specific movable property or alternately, for its value under
 Section 7 SRA
660. Statement I – An interim relief can be granted only in aid of and as ancillary to the main relief
Statement II – If final relief cannot be granted in the terms sought for, a temporary relief of the same
nature cannot be granted
 Both I and II are correct
661. Where an instrument is evidence of different rights or different obligations
 The court can cancel it in part
 The court can cancel it in part and allow it to stand for the residue
662. A partner may retire:–
 With the consent of all the other partners
 In accordance with an express agreement by the partners
 Where the partnership is at will, by giving notice in writing to all the other partners
 All the above as provided under Section 32 of the Act
663. Under which circumstance Inspection of Register and filed document is allowed-
 On payment of prescribed fees the Register of Firms shall be open for inspection
664. Section 29 of the Partnership Act lays down the rights of the transferee of partner’s interest? Which
of the following is such a right?
 Right to receive the share of profits of the transferring partner
665. If the Partnership firm is not registered under Section 69, the firm is not barred to institute
 Criminal Proceeding
666. Whenever a registered firm discontinues business at any place then:
 Any partner or agent may send intimation thereof to the Registrar
667. Goodwill of business is:
 Property of the firm

36
668. When shall the firm, should indemnify a partner in respect of payments made and liabilities incurred
by him-
 In doing any act, in an emergency, for protecting firm from loss
669. According to Section 72 of the Partnership Act, a public notice means:
 A notice in the official gazette
 A notice at least one vernacular newspaper circulating in the district where the firm to which it
relates has its place or principal place of business
670. “Rights of outgoing partner in certain cases to share subsequent profits.” Which option is more
appropriate in reference of the statement?
 Section 37 of Partnership Act, 1932 provides such rights to the outgoing partners.
671. Where the several Courts having jurisdiction are subordinate to the same Appellate Court, an
application under section 22 of the CPC shall be made to —
 Appellate Court
672. Where the liability in relation to sum adjudged has not arisen out of a commercial transaction, the
maximum yearly rate of interest awardable under section 34(1) of the Code of Civil Procedure, from
the date of decree for payment of money to date of Payment is—
 6%
673. The provisions related to service of foreign summonses are contained under section—
 29, CPC
674. Every suit shall be instituted by the present action of a plaint and in every plaint, facts shall be
proved by affidavit—
 Section 26,CPC
675. In a suit, which relates to a railway, the authority to be named as plaintiff or defendant shall be—
 The Union of India
676. An order passed under section 151 of Code of Civil Procedure, is—
 Revisable
677. Under Code of Civil Procedure, which of the following is not a suit of civil nature—
 Suit for vindication of a mere dignity connected with an office
678. Under section 148 of the Code of Civil Procedure the Court can enlarge the time not exceeding in
total—
 30 days
679. No attachment under a precept shall continue for more than —
 Two months
680.
(i) Payment into Court (a)Order XXIV
(ii) Commissions (b)Order XXVI
(iii) Security for costs (c) Order XXV
(iv) Withdrawal and adjustment of Suits (d) Order XXIII
681. The following is not necessary for the applicability of the doctrine of res-judicata
 Former suit must be pending before a competent court
682. In every suit heard by a Court of small causes, the summons shall be for—
 The final disposal
683. The Court may frame the issues from any of the following materials—
 Allegations made on oath by the parties, or by any person present on their behalf, or made by
the pleaders of such parties
 Allegations made in the pleadings or in answers to interrogatories delivered in the suit
 The contents of document produced by either party.

37
684. In which case the Court executing the decree shall issue a notice to the person against whom
execution is applied for requiring him to show cause, on a date to be fixed, why the decree should
not be executed against him —
 Where an application for execution is made more than two years after the date of the decree
 Where an application for execution is made against the legal representative of a party to the
decree
 Where an application for execution is made against the assignee or receiver in insolvency,
where the party to the decree has been adjudged to be an insolvent
685. What is maximum time granted to court by Code of Civil Procedure, to draw up a decree after
pronouncing judgment —
 15 days
686. The Supreme Court shall have power to issue for the enforcement of any of the rights conferred by
the Part III, of the Constitution of India —
 Directions, orders
 Writs, orders
 Directions, writs
687. The rights guaranteed by Article 32 shall not be suspended except as otherwise provided for, by—
 Constitution
688. Upon whom the Power to modify the rights conferred by Part III in their application to forces, bureau,
or other organisation levied-
 Parliament
689. Which is not fundamental duties as provided in the Constitution of India—
 Promotion of Co-operative societies
690. Arrange the following cases in ascending order of their passing year-
(i) UOI v. SankalchandHimatlalSheth
(ii) S.C. Advocates-on-records-Asso. v. UOI
(iii) S.P. Gupta v. UOI
(iv) Re. Presidential Reference
Code:-
 (iii) (i) (iv) (ii)
691.
Writ Object
(i) Habeas Corpus (a) person confined without legal justification
(ii) Mandamus (d) Superior court to any government Court or public
authority to do or for bear from doing
(iii) Prohibition (c ) The Court or tribunal to whom it is issued to refrain
from doing something which it is about to do
(iv) Quo warranto (b) prevent a person who was wrongfully usurped
an public office
692. The first state of India to implement Panchayati Raj system was—
 Rajasthan
693. What is the chief source of political powers of India-
 The People
694. The provision of the Constitution regarding President as the Executive head and Supreme
Commander of the Army adopted from
 U.S.A. Constitution
695. Among the following on what grounds State cannot restrict the freedom to manage religious
affairs—
 Decency

38
696. Which one of the following is not correctly matched?
 Section 29, IPC -Document
697. To apply….of IPC there must be prior meeting of mind
 Section 34 and 120-A
698. Which section of IPC incorporates the common law principle of ‘ignorantiafacit doth exusat
ignorancejuris non excusat.’?
 Section 76
 Section 79
699. A mistake of law is no offence in law
 In civil cases
 In criminal cases
700. There must be dishonest intention before taking the property to constitute this offence
 Theft
701. The defence available u/s 94 of the IPC is subject to the exception of
 Murder and waging war against the Govt. of India
702. Which section of IPC incorporates the principles of vicarious liability
 Section 154
 Section 155
 Section 156
703. Act neither intended nor likely to cause death may amount to
 Simple hurt or Grievous hurt
704. To exercise of private defence there must be ‘apprehension of danger’ as provided under
 Section 102 IPC
 Section 105 IPC
705. Section 149 of IPC is a
 Specific offence
Directions (Questions 141 to 142): Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Malnutrition most commonly occurs between the ages of six months and two years. This happens
despite the child's food requirements being less than that of an older child. Malnutrition is often attributed
to poverty, but it has been found that even in households where adults eat adequate quantities of food,
more than 50 per cent of children-under-five do not consume enough food. The child's dependence on
someone else to feed him/her is primarily responsible for the malnutrition. Very often the mother is
working and the responsibility of feeding the young child is left to an older sibling. It is therefore crucial
to increase awareness regarding the child's food needs and how to satisfy them.
706. According to the passage, malnutrition in children can be reduced —
 If the food needs of younger children are known
Give one word substitute for the following group of words or phrases.
707. Toe the line — Follow
708. Incapable of being corrected — Incorrigible
709. Placing a thing beside another — Juxtapose
The word nearest opposite in meaning of the given word.
710. EXECRABLE — Excellent
711. THAWED — Freeze
712. NIGGARDLY — Competent
Mark the response which gives the correct meaning of the idiom/phrase.
713. Halcyon days — Happy & peaceful days
714. Hobson’s choice — Option of taking the one offered or nothing
715. To strike oil — To have lucky success

39
 Choose the word which expresses the meaning of the given word.
716. RUE — To regret
717. POSTERITY— Progeny
718. CAJOLE — To coax
Fill in the blanks.
719. She ________ his forgiveness.
 Besought
720. Why did you ________ yourself from duty yesterday, when there was urgent work to be done.
 Absent
721. Your _______ tactic many compel me to cancel the contract as the job must be finished on time.
 Dilatory
Write the correct spelling.
722.
 Resuscitation
723.
 Meagre
724.
 Coalesce
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
We started pitching the highest camp that has been ever made. Everything took five times as long
as it would have taken in the place where there was enough air to breathe; but at last we got tent
up, and when we crawled in, it was not too bad. There was only a light wind and inside it was not
too cold for us to take off our gloves. At night most climbers take off their boots; but I prefer to keep
them on. Hilary, on the other hand took his off and lain them next to his sleeping bag.
725. What does the expression “pitching the highest camp” imply?
 So far nobody climbed that high.
726. They took a long time to finish the work because -
 There was not enough air to breathe.
727. When they crawled into the tent -
 They took off their gloves because it was not very cold.
The word best expressing the meaning of the underlined word.
728. The debate has instigated a full official enquiry into the incidence.
 Incited
729. Her ostensible calm masked a deep-seated fear.
 Apparent
730. The authorities seem to be callous concerning the conditions of workers.
 Insensitive

The word which is closest to the opposite in the meaning of the underlined word.
731. That was on impudent remark.
 Modest
732. A cheap display of wealth was done through gaudy dresses.
 Sober
Directions (Questions 169 to 170): Fill in the blanks
733. Hens live in a ______.
 Coop
734. A lunatic is confined to an________.
 Asylum

40
735. Under SukanyaSamriddhi Scheme an account can be opened until a girl attains the age of —
 10 years
736. Borlaug Award is associated with —
 Agriculture
737. N.K. Singh is the chairman of the —
 15th Finance Commission
738. K. Kasturirangan Committee is related with the —
 New Education Policy
739. Which country won the 2018 Blind Cricket World Cup ?
 India
740. The Defence Research and Development Organization (DRDO) is headquartered in —
 New Delhi
741. Adam’s apple is associated with the —
 Respiratory System
742. “Namaste Shalom” is a monthly magazine on bilateral relations between India and—
 Israel
743. Every year, May 3 is observed as the —
 World Press Freedom Day
744. Vitamin ‘K’ deficiency can cause —
 Profuse bleeding
745. A geostationary satellite revolves around the earth from —
 West to East
746. Which University topped the QS World University Ranking — 2019?
 Massachusetts Institute Technology
747. India-based Neutrino Observatory (INO) would be set up in the State of —
 Tamil Nadu
748. Index of Industrial Production (IPP) is published on —
 Monthly basis
749. Rashid Khan, the youngest captain in the history of International Cricket, hails from —
 Afghanistan
750. Environment Ministry recently approved a project to induce artificial rain via cloud seeding to clear
smog in—
 Delhi
751. Who won the 2018 Rajiv Gandhi Sadbhavana Award?
 Gopalkrishna Gandhi
752. The 2022 Asian Para Games will be hosted by —
 China
753. Supreme Court has recently approved a separate High Court for the State of —
 Andhra Pradesh
754. What was the rank of India in the 2018 Ease of Doing Business Report?
 100th
755. Every year all across world, Universal Children’s Day is celebrated on—
 November 20
756. Rekha Sharma is the current chairman of —
 National Commission for Woman (NCW)
757. Book “Constitutionalizing India: An Ideational Project” is authored by —
 BidyutChakrabarty

41
758. European Space Agency has recently sent “BepiColombo” mission to—
 Mercury
759. “Hellenic Space Agency” has been established by—
 Greece
760. Prime Minister’s Science, Technology and Innovation Advisory Council (PM-STIAC) is headed by—
 K. Vijay Raghavan
761. Jharsuguda Airport has been renamed after —
 Veer SurenderSai
762. VaishaliNarendraSalavkar is associated with which of the following sports?
 Chess
763. “Druzhba” is a joint military training exercise between —
 Russia and Pakistan
764. India’s second highest peacetime gallantry award —
 Kirti Chakra
765. The following sentences are is correct
 No appeal is maintainable against a consent decree having regard to the specific bar contained
is section 96(3) CPC
 No appeal is maintainable against the order of Court recording the compromise or refusing to
record a compromise
 No independent suit can be file for setting aside a compromise decree on the ground that the
compromise was not lawful in view of the bar contained in rule 3-A of order 23, CPC
766. When a finding as regards title to immovable property is rendered by a small causes court
 Res judicata cannot be pleaded as a bar in the subsequent suit for the enforcement of any
right in the immovable property
 A question of title in a small cause suit can be regarded as incidental only
767. Which explanation to section 11 of CPC provides that the principle of res judicata is applicable to
executions proceedings also
 Explanation VII
768. Principles of res judicata applies
 To suits as well as execution proceedings
 To arbitration proceedings
769. Which of the following is called ‘estoppel by record’?
 Res judicata
770. Which of the following sections of the CPC places ‘Bar on suit to set aside decree on objection as
to place of suing?
 Section 21A
771. Under section 26(2) of the CPC , in every plaint, facts should be proved by
 Affidavit
772. Which one of the following is not a principle of pleadings?
 Pleadings should state facts and law
773. The true Statement
 Doctrine of res judicata applies in probate proceedings
774. When the plaint shows that the claim is barred by limitation , the plaint is liable to be
 Rejected
775. When an ex-parte decree is passed and defendant filed an application under order 9 rule 13 CPC
 Subsequently he shall not be allowed to filed an appeal under section 96(2) as one after the
other

42
  He cannot avail the remedy under section 96 one after the other reason being it may lead to
conflict of decisions
 Both remedies can be availed by him simultaneously but one must not in derogation to other
776. Which of the following determines whether or not the suit is of a ‘civil nature’?
 Subject matter involved
777. A suit for foreclosure , sale or redemption in the case of a mortgage of property shall be instituted
in the court within the local limits of whose jurisdiction the
 Property is situate
778. What may be the effect of non-filing of written statement by the defendant within the time permitted
by the court?
 The fact set out in the plaint may be treated as implied admission
 A judgment could possibly be passed in favour of the plaintiff without requiring him to prove
any fact mentioned in the plaint
779. A statement to be considered as an admission under Evidence Act, must refer
 Admission of fact or fact in issue
780. Judicial admissions’ are those which are
 Made before the court
 Made In pleadings
 Made in any judicial proceedings
781. Which of the following provisions (sections) of the Evidence Act corresponds to the proviso to rule
5 (1) order 8 of the CPC?
 Section 58
782. Admissions, under IEA
 Are always of fact
783. The phrase “burden of proof” under Indian Evidence Act, means
 the burden of proof as a matter of law
 the burden of establishing a case
784. Which of the following sentence is not correct in a matter of conducting DNA Test for ascertaining
the paternity of child?
 That courts in India can order blood test as a matter of course
785. Phrase “presumptionjuris et de jure” denotes
 Conclusive presumption
786. Which of the following section of the Evidence Act refers rebuttable presumption of law
 Section 79
 Section 90
 Section 105
787. Question of admissibility of evidence is to be decided by the court. Which section of the Evidence
Act manifest that
 Section 136
788. Conduct under section 8 of the Evidence Act includes
 Statements accompany and explain some act other than statements
789. A person summoned to produce a document
 cannot be cross examined unless and until he is called as a witness
790. A party who calls a witness
 may allowed to contradict the witness and prove him untrustworthy
791. In order to operate as res judicata , the finding must be such that it dispose of a matter that is
 Directly and substantially in issue in the former suit
792. In cases where no second appeal lies in view of section 102 of the CPC

43
  A revision can be entertained only if the court is satisfied that the decision of the subordinate
court is vitiated by error of jurisdiction
 A revision can be entertained only on substantial question of law
793. The appellate court can
 Re –examine question of fact
 Re-examine question of law
 Re-appreciate evidence
794. Extortion differs from cheating in
 Mode of obtaining consent
795. Intention can be drawn from
 Motive
 Nature of injuries
 Weapons used
796. In order to impose criminal liability on the accused under section 304 of the IPC , prosecution needs
to established
 Intention or Knowledge
797. It is based on the principle enunciated in the maxim ‘sic utretuo at alienum non leads’:
 Mischief
798. If ‘A’ produces a false certificate that represents him as a graduate of a particular university and
seeks permission to appear at the M.A. examination privately, ‘A’ is said to have acted
 Fraudulently
799. The element which constitute an act fraudulent is
 Deceit and intention to deceive
800. The evidence in the form of extra judicial confession made by the accused to witnesses
 By way of abundant caution required to be corroborated
801. A is tried for causing grievous hurt and convicted .The person afterwards dies
 A may be tried again for culpable homicide
802. The writ of certiorarican not be issued against
 Legislative bodies
803. Article……..immunizes any law included in Ninth schedule from all the fundamental rights
 31 B
804. The directive of protection and improvement of environment and safeguarding of forest and wildlife
was added by
 42nd amendment
805. Who has given the nomenclature of “cabinet system” to the parliamentary system?
 Ivor jennigs
806. The structural part of constitution of the India is, to a large extent , derived from
 The Government of India Act, 1935
807. The first proclamation of emergency was issue on
 October 1962
808. Every resolution approving the proclamation of presidents rule or its continuation can be passed by
 Simple majority
809. An investigation under section 174 Cr.P.C. is limited in scope
 To the ascertainment of the apparent cause of death
810. A session Judge Convicts an accused X without hearing him on ‘question of sentence’ while the
case has been proved beyond reasonable doubts. On appeal in the High court, the argument

44
 advanced by X is that conviction is liable to be set aside as he was not heard by the sessions Judge
on ‘question of sentence’ which is mandatory provision under section 235 (2) of the Cr.P.C.
Select the right option in light of above case
 The conviction is not liable to be set aside
 The High Court on appeal may remand the case to session Judge on question of sentence
811. The period of Limitation means the period specified in section 468 of the Cr.P.C. for
 taking cognizance of an offence
812. In which of the following cases the Magistrate is required to make a speaking order
 Dismissal of complaint u/s 203 of Cr.P.C.
813. In a summon-case, triable by magistrate, there are four accused persons. The complainant wants
to withdraw the case in respect of only one accused:
 withdrawal can be done with respect to one accused subject to the satisfaction of the
magistrate
814. The Constituent Assembly was constituted in Nov. 1946 under the scheme formulated by
 The Cabinet mission plan
815. The constituent assembly has total
 11 sessions
816. The following does not constitute a fraud
 A man purchases goods on credit with the intention to pay for them, but does not perform the
contract
817. The death or insanity of the proposer amounts to revocation of proposal
 If the fact of his death or insanity comes to the knowledge of the acceptor before acceptance
818. A agrees to sell his house worth 5 lakhs for one lakhs. A denies that his consent to the agreement
was freely given, Here
 The fact that consent was not given freely may be taken into consideration by the court
 The agreement is enforceable as long as A is not able to prove that consent was not given
freely
 The agreement is contract notwithstanding the inadequacy of the consideration
819. All cases of general offer:
 Are a kind of unilateral contract
 Demand some act in return for the promise to pay
 Demand acceptance by performance
820. A contract for the sale of an unspecified share in property , the sale deed to be executed on actual
partition of the property , the contract is
 Not a contingent contract
 Capable of specific enforcement
821. If A, a minor, enters into an agreement:-
 Ratification on attainment of majority relates back to the date of making of the contract
 A fresh contract should be made on attaining majority
 In case of fresh contract on attainment of majority a fresh consideration is also required
822. If the court is satisfied that the dying declaration is true and voluntary
 It can base conviction on it without corroboration
823. Strict proof of marriage is necessary in the offence of
 Bigamy
 Adultery
 Enticing away a married women

45
824. The remedy u/s 7 SRA can be invoked
 So long as the plaintiff remains entitled to the possession of the goods
825. Remedy of preventive relief under SRA is available for
 Restriction on a person’s action in future
826. In a suit for declaration of title and consequential injunction, if plaintiff fails to prove his clear to the
property, he is not entitled to
 Declaration
 Consequential injunction
827. It is not in sensustricto a judicial remedy
 Rescission
828. If a buyer purchases on antique piano on credit and later discovers it is a fake, the buyer may sue
for
 Rescission
 Restitution
829. Interrogatories(under CPC) shall be answered by
 affidavits
830. In every case, the examination-in-chief of a witness shall be on
 Affidavit
831. ‘Sufficient cause’ for setting aside an ex parte decree is a
 Question of fact
832. Which of the following is an essential condition for the offence of house breaking?
 Criminal trespass
833. A person seized with a gang of dacoits, and forced, by threat of instant death to do a thing which is
an offence by law. He is entitled to the benefit of
 Section 94, IPC
834. Section 159 of the IPC is attracted
 When there is exchange of abuses with exchange of blows
835. Starting point of limitation in an application for restoration of suit dismissed for default under order
9 rule 9 of CPC is from
 Date of order
836. Which of the following Article of the Limitation Act is a residuary article?
 Article 113 and Article 137
837. Section 7 of the Limitation Act deals with cases
 Where there are several persons jointly entitled to institute a suit or make an application for
the execution of a decree and some of them is under a legal disability
 Where there are several person jointly entitled to institute a suit or make an application for the
execution of a decree and one of them is under a legal disability
838. Limitation Act is not applicable to law relating to
 Marriage and divorce
839. Claim by the bank that the amount credited twice in the amount of the defendant by mistake. Period
of limitation against plaintiff starts from
 The date of the detection
840. For a person with disability the starting point of limitation is
 Removal of disability
841. The period of limitation for a suit for money lent under an agreement that it shall be payable on
demand is three years from
 When the loan is made

46
842. Which of the following is a characteristic of a firm at will
 Partners can retire at anytime by giving notice to that effect
 It can be dissolved at any time by notice given by a partner with intention to dissolve the firm
 It’s easy dissolvability
843. Which of the following order of the CPC permits action to be instituted by or against the firm in its
firm name, whether by the partners or outsider?
 Order 30
844. Who among these can sell his share without the consent of the others?
 Co-owners of a joint property
 Shareholder of a company
845. An action for indemnity against a partner cannot be brought by
 A partner in his individual capacity
846. If a partner is in possession of more information about the affairs and assets of the firm, and if
without furnishing that information , he makes a contract with his co-partners the contract is
 Voidable
847. Ivor Jennings called it nucleus of power in a parliamentary system
 Cabinet of ministers
848. Earlier a proclamation issued under Article 358 could be revoked by the president on his own and
the Lok Sabha had no control on this regard. Now, the president must revoke a proclamation if the
Lok Sabha passes a resolution disapproving its continuation. This safeguard was introduced by
 44th Amendment
849. Private arbitration is also described as
 Consensual arbitration
850. Statutory arbitration is
 Imposed on the parties by operation of law
 A compulsory arbitration
 A proceeding where the consent of the parties is not necessary
851. Parties may apply for interim relief u/s 9 of the Arbitration Act
 Before arbitration proceeding commences
 During arbitration proceeding
 After the making of arbitral award
852. The court may stay arbitration proceedings
 Where the parties have not agreed to refer the particular dispute to arbitration
 Where the contract which carries the arbitration clause is itself void
853. Which of the following may form the subject of reference to arbitration?
 Present civil dispute
 Future civil dispute
854. If there is an implied term of the arbitration agreement or of the reference to arbitration that a
complaint for non-compoundable offence will not be further proceeded with , the arbitration
agreement is
 Illegal
855. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 will extend to Jammu and Kashmir in the matter of
 International commercial arbitration
 International commercial conciliation
856. In which one of the following cases the Supreme Court enlisted the situations where the exercise
of power under Article 356 could be proper or improper?
 S.R.Bommai v. Union of India

47
857. It has been held in this case that a law depriving a person of his personal liberty under Article 21
must also satisfy the test of “reasonableness” under Article 14 and 19 of the constitution
 Maneka Gandhi case
858. Recently in this case Supreme court has held that penalizing adults of the same sex engaged in
consensual sexual behavior violates the constitutional guarantee of the right to life and to the equal
protection of law..
 Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
859. Who is the Chairman the National Disaster Management Authority (NDMA)?
 Prime Minister
860. The first ever India-US Dialogue on Intellectual Property (IP) was recently held in—
 New Delhi
861. First Indian to be appointed in Viceroy’s Executive Council —
 S. P. Sinha
862. Which of the followings have identical DNAs?
 Twins
863. Which one is not a greenhouse gas?
 Sulphur Dioxide
864. World Epilepsy Day, observed on March 26 annually, is better known as —
 Purple Day
865. What is the rank of India in the “2019 Ease is Doing Business Report”?
 77th
866. Former Indian Captain M. S. Dhoni was one among the nine recipients of the 2018 —
 Padma Bhushan Award
867. The book “Universe in a Nutshell” is authored by —
 Stephen Hawkings
868. PradhanMantri “MUDRA” Yojana is associated with —
 Micro-units financing
869. Kangla Fort is located in —
 Imphal
870. The commission to examine the issue of sub-categorization of OBCs is chaired by —
 Justice G. Rohini
871. India’s first “Technology and Innovation Support Centre” (TISC) was established in —
 Punjab
872. Laver Cup is associated with —
 Tennis
873. Who won the 2017 Jnanpith Award?
 Krishna Sobti
874.
 World Trauma Day — October 17
 International Teachers Day — October 05
875. Present World Chess Champion Magnus Carlsen hails from which country?
 Norway
876. Who was the first Indian to receive the Luc Hoffman Award?
 DhrubajyotiGhosh
877. Which is the lowest layer of the atmosphere?
 Troposphere

48
878. “Baal Aadhar Card” for children aged below 5 years is —
 Blue coloured
879. Who has been elected as the new Chief Electoral Officer of Delhi?
 Ranbir Singh
880. The 2020 ICC T20 World Cup will be hosted by —
 Australia
881. “NIPUN” an e-learning portal has been launched by the —
 Delhi Police
882. Book “ Fables of Fractured Times” is a compilation of articles written by —
 Manish Tiwari
883. Miss India (Deaf) 2018 Deshna Jain hails from which Indian State?
 Madhya Pradesh
884. What is “Jazero Crater”?
 Landing site for “Mars 2020 Mission”
885. Which country topped the 2018 “Soft Power 30” Index?
 UK
886. Biosphere Reserve recently included in the list of World Network of Biosphere Reserve —
 Khangchendzonga Biosphere Reserve
887. World Organ Donation Day is observed on —
 August 13
888. Book “New Dimensions of India’s Foreign Policy” is authored by —
 Atal Bihari Vajpayee
889. Central Government has increased its contribution in State Disaster Response Fund (SDFR) to —
 90%
890. Satellites “NovaSAR” and “S1-4” belong to —
 UK
891. Who won the 2018 Nobel Peace Prize?
 Denis Mukwege
892. Who is known as the “Father of Indian DNA Fingerprinting”?
 Lalji Singh
893. Which city was adjudged as the cleanest city as per the 2018 SwachhSurvekshan?
 Indore
894. Which country won the 2018 Women’s Hockey World Cup held in London?
 Netherlands
895. Mt. Everest Friendship Exercise -2018 was recently held between —
 Nepal and China
896. First country in the world to land robotic rovers on asteroid “Ryugu” —
 Japan
897. Indian cricketer recently inducted formerly into the ICC Cricket Hall of Fame —
 Rahul Dravid
898. Who is the current CEO of the NITI Aayog?
 Amitabh Kant
899. Recently, cyclone “GAJA” devastated the coastal and delta regions of —
 Tamil Nadu
900. Who has been appointed as the new Chief Statistician of India?
 PravinSrivastava
901. “Swastha Bharat Yatra” Campaign is associated with —

49
  Safe food
902. PriyankKanoongo is the current Chairman of —
 NCPCR
903. Bile is stored in the —
 Gallbladder
904. Recently, SI unit(s) has/have been redefined for —
 Current
 Weight
 Temperature
905. The first-ever QS India University Rankings was topped by —
 IIT Bombay
906. Anna Burns won the Man Booker Prize for her novel —
 “Milkman”
907. First Latin American nation to join NATO —
 Columbia
908. The first-ever “International Day of Parliamentarian” was observed on —
 June 30, 2018

The correct meaning of the idiom/phrase.

909. To look big —
 To impress one’s prosperity
910. To cast aspersions —
 To express malicious accusation
911. Take to task —
 Reprove
912. Make hay while the Sun shines —
 Make maximum use of a given opportunity
913. Smell a rat —
 To suspect
The word opposite in meaning.
914. DEVIOUS —
 Direct
915. NAUSEATED —
 Enchanted
916. CAUSTIC —
 Pleasing
917. CAPTIVATE —
 Repel
918. CONSECRATE —
 Desecrate
Read the following passage and answer the questions.
Education, without a doubt, has an important functional, instrumental and utilitarian dimension. This is
revealed when one asks questions such as 'what is the purpose of education?'. The Solutions, too often,
are 'to acquire qualifications for employment/upward mobility', 'wider/higher (in terms of income)
opportunities', and 'to meet the needs for trained human power in diverse field for national development'.
But in its deepest sense education is not instrumentalist. That is to say, it is not to be justified outside
of itself because it leads to the acquisition of formal skills or of certain desired psychological – social
attributes. It must be respected in itself. Education is thus not a commodity to be acquired or possessed

50
 and then used, but a process of inestimable importance to individuals and society, although it can and
does have enormous use value. Education then, is a process of expansion and conversion, not in the
sense of conversion turning students into doctors or engineers, but the widening and turning out of the
mind – the creation, sustenance and development of self-critical awareness and independence of
thought. It is an inner process of moral-intellectual development.
919. What do you understand by the 'instrumentalist' view of education?
 Education is functional and utilitarian in its purposes.
920. According to the passage, education must be respected in itself because -
 It is an inner process of moral and intellectual development.
921. Education is a process in which -
 Individuals develop self-critical awareness and independence of thought.
The correct spellings.
922. Predicament
923. Reminiscence
924. Plebeian
925. Convalesce
926. Lassitude
Read the following passages and answer the questions.
Passage —
Crude mineral oil comes out of the earth as a thick brown or black liquid with a strong smell. It
is a complex mixture of many different substances, each with its own individual qualities. Most of
them are combinations of hydrogen and carbon in varying proportions. Such hydrocarbons are also
found in other forms such as bitumen, asphalt and natural gas. Mineral oil originates from the
carcasses of tiny animals and from plants that live in the sea. Over millions of years, these dead
creatures form large deposits under the sea-bed; and ocean currents cover them with a blanket of
sand and silt. As this mineral hardens, it becomes sedimentary rock and effectively shuts out the
oxygen, so preventing the complete decomposition of the marine deposits underneath. The layers
of sedimentary rock become thicker and heavier. Their pressure produces heat, which transforms
the tiny carcasses into crude oil in a process that is still going on today.
927. Mineral oil deposits under the sea do not get completely decomposed because they -
 Become rock and prevent oxygen from entering them
Passage —
Seven-year-old Jim came home from the park without his new bicycle. "An old man and a little
boy borrowed it," he explained. "They are going to bring it back at four o'clock." His parents were
upset that he had given his expensive new bicycle, but were secretly proud of his kindness and
faith. At four o'clock, no bicycle. The parents were anxious. But at 4:30, the doorbell rang, and there
stood a happy man and a boy, with the bicycle and a box of chocolates. Jim suddenly disappeared
into his bedroom, and then came running out. "All right," he said, after examining the bicycle. ''You
can have your watch back!"
928. When Jim came home without his bicycle, his parents -
 Were worried
Word Meanings
929. EGREGIOUS — Outstanding
930. MUNIFICENT — Generous
931. BABBLE — Prattle
932. HUMDRUM — Dull
933. COMMISERATE — Sympathise
Fill in the blanks
934. The rough edges of sarcasm are apt to ________ the feeling of a sensitive person.

51
  Lacerate
935. Many families in India have to depend ________ the earnings of one person.
 On
936. His moral attitude towards gambling was one of deep _________.
 Antipathy
937. The poem I am referring _______ is given ______ page ten.
 To, at
Closest to the opposite in the meaning of the underlined word.
938. All employers look for docile servants.
 Unmanageable
939. The student’s labour met with fervent appreciation from her teachers.
 Sympathetic
940. Your recitation of the poem was looked at with disdain by the rest of the class.
 Admiration
941. The woman brought forth all her charms to captivate the gathering.
 Repel
The pair which best expresses the relationship as similar as reflected in the given pair of words.
942. Slovenly : Untidily —
 Saturnine : Gloomy
943. Time : Moments —
 Faith : Tenets
944. Hauteur : Humility —
 Rigidity : Flexibility
Fill in the blanks.
945. Sing is to hum as talk is to ________.
 Mumble
946. Solicit is to beg as ask is to _________.
 Demand
947. Mask is to face as ________ is to name.
 Alias
948. Abstinence is to inebriation as celibacy is to _________.
 Promiscuity
Word Meanings.
949. Your involvement with undesirable elements is bound to blemish your reputation as an upright
man.
 Tarnish
950. Ultimately, one of the parties to the dispute relinquished his claim to the ownership of the property.
 Gave up
951. The student’s perseverance ultimately brought him success after so many futile attempts.
 Steadfastness
952. It is good if all traces of the tragedy are obliterated from the victim’s mind.
 Effaced
One word substitute for the following group of words or phrases.
953. A feeling of attraction as well as repulsion —
 Ambivalence
954. Predicament form which there in no obvious escape —
 Impasse

52
955. Fade away and grow weak and thin, especially for love —
 Languish
Spellings.
956. Cessation
957. Enamour
958. Opprobrious
959. As per rationale of AghnooNagesia v. Bihar (1965 SC), A confessional FIR made to a police officer
by the accused is relevant under the following section:
 Section 8 IEA
 Section 27 IEA
960. What is the meaning of propriovigore
 of it’s own
961. A self-serving admission may be admissible in the following circumstances:
 Statement made by a dead captain in the course of business relevant under S. 32, had the
captain not been dead
 statement of the existence of any state of mind or body, relevant or in issue, made at or about
the time when such state of mind or body existed, and is accompanied by conduct
 Statements relevant under any section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
962. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 envisages a provision for ‘Communication Without
Prejudice’?
 Section 23
963. The case Pakala Narayan Swamy v. King Emperor(1939 PC) is famous for which of the following
 Definition of confession up dying declaration
964. A confession recorded by a Judicial Magistrate under Section 164 of the Criminal Procedure Code,
1973 is presumed to be a genuine record under the following section/s:
 Section 80 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
965. Things said by a conspirator can be used:
 against himself
 against any other person who was or are members of the conspiracy
966. Facts otherwise not relevant, become relevant when they are consistent or inconsistent
 with the expert opinion
 with any Fact in issue or Relevant Fact
 if it makes the existence of a Fact in issue or Relevant Fact highly probable or improbable
967. In the following cases, evidence of bad character can be given even if the evidence of good
character has not been given:
 Bad character in itself a Fact in Issue
 Previous conviction for enhancing his sentence under S. 75 IPC is permissible for determining
the quantum of punishment, it is permitted.
968. Ordinance making power of the President and Governor is under
 Article 123 and 213, respectively of the Constitution of India
969. S. 30 Indian Evidence Act is not applicable in which of the following case:
 One of them was never made an accused
 Both of them were co-accused and one of them was granted pardon
 Prosecution withdrawn w.r.t one of them
970. Who is not an accomplice
 one who does not participate in a crime voluntarily
 who participates in the crime under fear of death
 a bystander
971. Whether Accomplice is a Competent Witness

53
  yes, according to Section 133 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872
972. Once prosecution has proved, it’s a case beyond reasonable doubt, then the burden of proof that
keeps shifting is known as
 Onus Probandi
 Onus of Proof
 Secondary or shifting BOP
973. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act in terms of Burden of Proof is based on the maxim ‘Res
Ipsa Loquitur- Things speak for itself’
 S. 106 Indian Evidence Act, 1872
974. Under Section 30 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, the imprisonment in default of fine shall
not exceed ¼ of
 the power of Magistrate to impose the sentence
975. Mark the correct option:
 156(3) Criminal procedure Code, 1973 is a pre cognizance stage
 Section 200 of the Criminal procedure Code, 1973 is a post cognizance stage
976. In case of a complaint case which is triable exclusively by a Court of Session before committing the
case to the Court of Session:
 The Magistrate shall examine the complainant and all his witnesses
977. Can something in the nature of complaint given in writing by a person without any intention that the
Magistrate may take any action on it regarded as a complaint under Section 2(d) of the Criminal
Procedure Code, 1973?
 cannot be regarded as a complaint
978. During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by
 the invetigating officer
979. Is child a competent witness
 only if child is a competent witness according to S. 118
980. Which of these is correct about Section 164 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
 The Magistrate shall, before recording any such confession, explain to the person making it
that he is not bound to make a confession
 That, if he makes any confession, it may be used as evidence against him;
981. Under Section 173 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973, in how much time is the investigation in
relation to rape of a child expected to be completed:
 May be completed within three months from the date on which the information was recorded
by the officer in charge of the police station.
982. In case of Petty offences, the amount of the fine specified in such summons shall not exceed
 One thousands rupees
983. What does the word ‘same kind’ refer to under S. 219 of the Criminal Procedure Code, 1973
 Offences which are punishable with the same amount of punishment under the same section
of the IPC or of any special or local law.
984. Plea Bargaining was finally accepted upon the following recommendation:
 156th Law Commission Report
985. In which circumstances can a person be tried for same offence again, as an exception to Section
300 Criminal Procedure Code, 1973:
 Incasethe new consequences had not happened, or were not known to the Court to have
happened, at the time when he was convicted, the convict can be tried for a different offence
if it had not happened earlier.
 Can be tried by competent court, if it wasn’t a court of competent jurisdiction for the other
offence, allowed to be tried in the court of competent jurisdiction

54
986. What does life imprisonment mean:
 remainder of life
987. For the purpose of S. 436A Cr.PC what is the maximum period for which an undertrial prisoner can
be detained in-case of an offence punishable with life imprisonment?
 10 years
988. Which of the following is correct:
 Effect of compounding is of acquittal and plea bargaining is of conviction
989. Attempt under S. 511 Indian Penal Code, 1860 is applicable for offences punishable with
 Life or other imprisonment
990. Under Section 23 Indian Penal Code, 1860 what is meant by Gaining wrongfully, losing wrongfully:
 A person is said to gain wrongfully when he acquires and retains wrongfully
 A person is said to lose wrongfully when he is deprived and kept out of his property,
wrongfully
991. Which of the following punishments cannot be awarded under the Indian Penal Code, 1860?
 Transportation for life
992. Vishwanath v. State of UP is a leading judgment on:
 Right of Private Defence
993. Aa m agistrate makes a report to superior officer about B’s character imputation made in good faith
an for public good. A commits:
 no offence
994. X for the purpose of inducing B to desist from prosecuting a civil suit threatens to burn Y’s house.
X is guilty of:
 Criminal Intimidation
995. Which of these is an inchoate crime?
 Criminal Attempt
996. In which of the following offences mensrea is not an essential element?
 Bigamy
997. By virtue of a presumption of severe stress incase of attempt to commit suicide the attempt to
commit suicide has been overridden as is contained in which of the following:
 Enactment of Mental Health Care Act 2017
998. Adultery has been struck down as a criminal offence by the virtue of which Supreme Court
judgment:
 Joseph Shine v. Union of India
999. Which of the following Supreme Court judgment decriminalizes sex between consenting adults of
same gender?
 Navtej Singh Johar v. Union of India
1000. A intentionally keeps his wife starved and only sometimes allow her to have a morsel of bread or
grass husk mixed in water once in 5-6 days, however one day his wife manages to escape the
house and reach the police station. A can be booked for which of the following offence?
 Attempt to Murder
1001. What do you mean by Illegal and legally bound to do under Section 43 of the Indian Penal Code,
1860?
 Which is an offence or which is prohibited by law
 which furnishes ground for legal action.
 and which is illegal in him to omit
1002. Solitary confinement shall not exceed how many months incase the imprisonment exceeds one
year?
 three months

55
1003. Under which of the sections of the Indian Penal Code, it is omission and not an act which is an
offence?
 Section 491
1004. Minimum number of offenders required to constitute the offence of robbery under the Indian Penal
Code, 1860:
 One person
1005. X is at work with a hatchet in a forest, the head flies off and kills a man who is standing nearby,
what offence is X responsible for? And which offence will he be liable for, had he been doing the
particular work at a children’s park where children were playing?
 No offence; murder
1006. The right of private defence of property against theft continues till
 offender has effected his retreat with the property
 either the assistance of the public authorities is obtained
 property has been restored
1007. Stealing one’s own property is
 not at all an offence
1008. A, by instigation, voluntarily causes, Z, a person under 18 years of age to commit suicide. Here, on
account of Z’s youth, he was incapable of giving consent to his own death with his own consent. A
has therefore abetted which offence:
 murder
1009. The correct statement:
 In a no confidence motion it is not required to mention a ground on which it is based and in
censure there is a requirement to mention the charges against the government for which it is
being moved.
1010. President’s term is
 five years from entering office
1011. Income or extent of property can be taken as a measure of social advancement and on that basis
the ‘creamy lawyer’ of a given caste can be excluded was held in which case
 Indira Sawhney (Mandal Commission) case
1012. Mark the correct statement:
 India has the character of being a federal Constitution generally however during the time of
emergency it acquires a unitary character.
1013. According to Article 248 of the Constitution of India
 Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any matter not enumerated
in the Concurrent List or State List.
 Such power shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either
of those Lists.
1014. 69% reservation in Tamil Nadu is a result of :
 Ninth Schedule
1015. Which committee on constitutional amendments by the President of the Indian National Congress,
is reported to have felt that a chapter on fundamental duties for the citizen should be included along
with the existing fundamental rights in the Constitution of India?
 Swaran Singh committee
1016. Any resignation of the President addressed to the Vice-President shall forthwith be communicated
by him to the
 Speakerof the House of the People
1017. Who determines the salary of the Comptroller and Auditor General
 Parliament
1018. What is meant by Sublimation

56
  Change of the state of water from solid to vapour directly or vice-versa.
1019. Where is Pampas and Prairies
 The mid-latitude grasslands of South America and The mid-latitude grasslands of North
America respectively
1020. World Literacy Day is celebrated on:
 8th September
1021. Dynamo was invented by:
 Micheal Faraday
1022. Use of a Fathometer
 To measure the depth of the ocean
1023. India ranked the following out of 119 countries in Global Hunger Index
 103rd
1024. When is the National Unity Day celebrated in India
 October 31, 2018
1025. Who has become the first female Chief Economist of the International Monetary Fund
 Gita Gopinath
1026. Which world leader has been recently stripped of the Honorary Canadian Citizenship?
 Aung San SuuKyi
1027. Who is the fastest batsman to reach 10,000 ODI runs
 ViratKohli
1028. Meaning of the term Puerile
 childish
1029. Besiege meaning
 blockade
1030. Misogynist meaning
 strongly hates women
1031. Chose the correctly spelled word:
 connoisseur
1032. Chose the correctly spelled word:
 vicissitude
1033. Meaning of this idiom: Under the weather
 Low health condition only
 Low spirits only
1034. Meaning of this idiom: Playing ducks and drakes
 to carelessly misuse one’s wealth
 to behave recklessly
 use selfishly to suit oneself
1035. Meaning of this idiom: A herculean task
 requiring great strength
1036. Meaning of this idiom: wet his whistle
 to have a drink
1037. Meaning of this idiom: To be a bolt from the blue
 a complete surprise
1038. Where was the first Asian Games organized?
 India
1039. Who was the first Governor General of India(post independence)?
 Lord Louis Mountbatten
1040. Who was the first woman PM of any country?

57
  Sirimavo Bandaranaike
1041. First Miss World from India?
 ReitaFaria Powell
1042. First woman President of UN General Assembly?
 VijaylakshmiPandit
1043. National aquatic animal of India?
 River Dolphin
1044. The highest statue in India Statue of Unity –World's Tallest Statue is how many metres long?
 182 metres
1045. Highest cricket stadium in India?
 Chail, Himachal Pradesh
1046. Shortest Day in the year in India?
 December 22
1047. Which country was the 193rd and the latest country to join the United Nations?
 South Sudan
1048. Ghumura is the famous folk dance of which state?
 Odisha
1049. What is the capital of Turkey?
 Ankara
1050. Who was the first Deputy Prime Minister of India?
 SardarVallabhBhai Patel
1051. Which plant has the largest leaf?
 Raphiaregalis
1052. Where is Yosemite National park where an Indian couple recently died while clicking a selfie?
 California
1053. Academy awards is famously known as?
 Oscar Awards
1054. Thomas Cup and Uber Cup are associated with which of the following sports?
 Badminton
1055. Who has been adjudged Best Actor(Female) in the 65th National Filmfare Awards?
 Sri Devi
1056. Who won the DadasahebPhalke Award 2018?
 VinodKhanna
1057. First, add some _____ chopped garlic to the tomatoes.
 finely
1058. I'm a teacher and _____ my husband.
 so is
1059. Anger is something you should try to control, _____ you can let love roam free.
 whereas
1060. Part of the reason Chris wanted to apply for the job _____ that employees were given plenty of
room to grow within the company.
 was hisrecognition
1061. The boy I was about to meet _____ play a very important role in my life.
 would get to
1062. Sometimes, in a transaction it appears that there are 2 parties but there are not 2 actually only 1
party. Can this transaction constitute a contract?
 No, there must be 2 parties.

58
1063. The prohibited drug was on display and the man who intended to buy it was just going to make the
proposal to the shopkeeper, before that he was caught by the police. What offence has the man
committed?
 no offence
1064. Incase an advertisement contains a condition and a person performs that condition without
communicating his acceptance to the advertisement giver, will be considered to have accepted the
proposal?
 Yes, by virtue of Section 8 of the Indian Contract Act, 1872
1065. A proposes to sell a car to B and gives the same proposal to C. Time prescribed was 15 days. B
accepted on the 5th day, Car sold to B. Someone informed C that car already sold to B. Thereafter
C also accepted on the 10th day. A does not sell the car to C. C asks for damages. A denies contract.
Is there a contract between A and C?
 As per English law, there is no contract between the parties, while as per Indian Law there is
a contract between the parties
1066. An agreement to agree in future is:
 Void Agreement
1067. The correct statement:
 Supreme Court held that the rule of communication of acceptance given under S. 4 does not
apply to Inter-presentees, it applies only to Inter-absentees.
1068. Mark the correct statement:
 As per Section 2(d) of the Indian Contract Act, 1872, Consideration must move at the desire
of the Promisor
1069. A party who suffers loss as a result to breach of contract, can, in the usual course claim
 ordinary damages
1070. In certain conditions, past consideration is a good consideration, provided the following requirement
is met:
 Past act or service done at the request of the Promisor
 At the time when the request was made by promisor, he intended to compensate the promise
for the act/service.
1071. Husband and wife used to fight a lot, Husband made a promise to give a property free of cost on
the condition that wife shall stay away from him, wife sued for specific performance. What kind of
an agreement is it?
 Void Agreement, as not made on account of ‘natural love and affection’
1072. Mark the correct statement:
 Consideration is inadequate is inconsequential, however may be taken into consideration to
determine free consent of the parties.
1073. Communication of acceptance incase of Inter-presentees will be considered to be complete:
 when the acceptance was heard.
1074. A person applied for some shares in the company, the company accepted and sent a letter
accepting the same, the applicant did not receive any such letter. After a few days Company was
being wound up and letter was sent asking the applicant to pay for the called up money to which
the applicant refused stating he did not receive any letter of acceptance so he revoked the offer.
Whether his revocation has been duly made?
 No, as a revocation can be made only before the letter of acceptance is put in the course of
transmission.
1075. Contract of marriage between father of a girl to give money to a boy if he marries his daughter.
Uncle of this boy gets into a contract with the boy that if he marries the same girl he would be paid
by the uncle.
 Promise owed to one person can be consideration for promise owed to a third person.
1076. Period of Lucid Interval Or Interval of Lucidity or Lunacy, is the period during which:

59
  this person can make an agreement, it will be considered as a valid contract.
1077. The following is true about O II Rule 2 of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
 if Plaintiff did not present the copy of the plaint filed in previous suit in the second suit being
filed . The suit is liable to be dismissed.
1078. Husband obtained a divorce decree against wife in an American court, parties were married in India
governed by HMA, 1955. American court passed decree of divorce without taking into consideration
the HMA. What kind of a decree is it?
 Void
1079. What does one mean when they refer to rejection of plaint as a demurrer’s claim?
 the party does not need to give any evidences because the bar is manifest
1080. Is O. VII Rule 11 exhaustive on the grounds of the rejection of the plaint?
 No. The court has the discretion to reject the plaint or even dismiss the suit under S. 151
CPC.
1081. Under O VI Rule 17 chances of either party being allowed the amendment
 Incaseof Plaintiff, Court will be stricter-as an amendment in the Plaint directly affects the
cause of action however incase of Defendant, the court will be liberal as it does not directly
affect the cause of action
1082. Whether in case of change in the substantive law there is a need of Amendment of pleadings?
 not required to be pleaded, unless the substantive law requires in itself to be pleaded
1083. The true correctstatements:
 Legal set off is for an ascertained sum of money, while equitable set off is for an
unascertained sum of money
 Legal set off is arises from different transactions, while equitable set off arises from the same
transaction
 Legal set off and equitable set off are kinds of set off only
1084. The plea of adverse possession is a defence available under the Civil Procedure Code 1908 to:
 Only to the defendant against the plaintiff
1085. Civil Procedure Code Amendment 2002 has been introduced for the purpose of
 Cut short the delay in disposal of the suits
1086. Plea of adverse possession cannot be used as sword but always can be used as shield (defence)
was held in which case:
 Gurdwara Sahib v. Gram Panchayat Village Sirthala reported in (2014) 1 SCC 669
1087. Attachment of a property attached shall remain operative under Order XXXIX Rule 2A CPC, for a
period of:
 One year
1088. Afcons Infrastructure Limited and Another v. CherianVarkey Construction Company Private Limited
and Others is a leading judgment on
 Alternative Dispute Resolution
1089. The correct statements are:
 Statutory recognition of the Doctrine of Laches Applicable on Writs and not the Limitation Act,
1963.
 The essential element of laches is an unreasonable delay by the plaintiff in bringing the claim;
 Laches is an equitable defense, it is ordinarily applied only to claims for equitable relief (such
as injunctions), and not to claims for legal relief (such as damages).
1090. If a person loses a copy of the judgment and applies again for the same, meanwhile the time for
suing is lost.
 a. He can claim the exception under Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963
1091. S. 19 Limitation Act Essentials:
 There should be a liability of debt of one person towards another.

60
  Person liable has made the part payment either of the principal amount or interest before the
expiry of the prescribed period
 Such payment should have been made to the person towards whom the liability exists or his
authorized agent.
 The moment the payment is made- the acknowledgement takes place and the fresh
prescribed period starts to run
 The party making the payment also should have signed a document of the payment.
1092. The firm can be dissolved if any of the following contingent event happens:
 Completion of the fixed term
 Completion of One or more adventures
 Death of partners
 Adjudication of partner as insolvent
1093. S. 44 Partnership Act, 1932, winding up of the company can be done on the following grounds
 A partner has become of unsound mind
 Business of firm cannot be carried on except on loss
 on any other just and equitable ground
1094. S. 7 Partnership at will means in a partnership where no provision made as to:
 Duration of partnership
 Determination of partnership
 Both
1095. Consequences of Section 69 of the Partnership Act, 1963. No suit to enforce a right
 arising from a contract or
 conferred by this act
1096. Under Section 20A Specific Relief Act, 1963 (2018 Amendment)
 No injunction shall be granted by a court in a suit where granting injunction would cause
impediment or delay in the progress or completion of such project. Which type of project:
 infrastructure
1097. According to the amendment made in section 21 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (2018
Amendment). in sub-section (1), for the words “, either in addition to, or in substitution of,”
 the words in addition to” shall be substituted.
1098. According to Section 14A of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (2018 Amendment).
 The opinion or report given by the expert shall form part of the record of the suit;
 and the Court, or with the permission of the court any of the parties to the suit, may examine
the expert personally in open court on any of the matters referred to him or mentioned in his
opinion or report, or as to his opinion or report, or as to the manner in which he has made the
inspection.
1099. According to Section 14 of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 (2018 Amendment).
The following contracts cannot be specifically enforced, namely:—
 where a party to the contract has obtained substituted performance of contract in accordance
with the provisions of section 20;
 a contract which is so dependent on the personal qualifications of the parties that the court
cannot enforce specific performance of its material terms; and (
 a contract which is in its nature determinable.
1100. Whatis correct about S. 6 SRA, 1963
 after the expiry of six months from the date of dispossession, no suit shall be brought;
 shall not lie against the Government.
 No appeal shall lie from any order or decree passed in any suit instituted under this section,
nor shall any review of any such order or decree be allowed.

61
1101. The correct statement:
 In so far as domestic arbitration is concerned, the definition of "Court" is the same as was in
the 1996 Act, however, for the purpose of international commercial arbitration, 'Court' has
been defined to mean only High Court of competent jurisdiction.
 Accordingly, in an international commercial arbitration, as per the new law, district court will
have no jurisdiction
 The parties can expect speedier and efficacious determination of any issue directly by the
High court which is better equipped in terms of handling commercial disputes.
1102. According to Section 9 Arbitration and Conciliation Act Amendment 2015 if the amended section
envisages that if the Court passes an interim measure of protection under the section before
commencement of arbitral proceedings, then the arbitral proceedings shall have to commence
within a period of how many days from the date of such order or within such time as the Court may
determine.
 90 days
1103. The Arbitration and Conciliation (Amendment) Bill, 2018 amendments which, when passed will
apply to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 are pursuant to which Committee Report:
 Sri Krishna Committee Report
1104. According to the amended in Section 29A, the arbitration proceedings must be completed within 12
month period which shall begin:
 torun from the date when pleadings are complete.
1105. Some of the provisions added in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act 2018 Amendment are as
follows:
 confidentiality
 arbitrator immunity
1106. The most advanced “System of Air Quality and Weather Forecasting” (SAFER) was indigenously
developed by —
 Indian Institute of Tropical Meteorology
1107. The Shanghai Cooperation Organization (SCO) conducted the mega anti-terror drill “The Peace
Mission-2018” in —
 Chebarkul, Russia
1108.
 World Food Day — October 16
1109. Who authored the book “Making of New India: Transformation under Modi Government”?
 Kishore Desai
 BibekDebroy
 AnirbanGanguly
1110. Which of the followings has/have been granted Geographical Indication (GI) Tag recently?
 Shahi litchi of north Bihar
 Gobindobhog rice of West Bengal
 Benaganapalle mango of Andhra Pradesh
1111. Which of the followings is/arecorrectly matched?
 Committee to review Companies Act was headed by InjetiSrinivas.
 Committee to review Competition Act was headed by InjetiSrinivas.
1112. Pravind Kumar Jugnath will be the chief guest at the 2019 PravasiBhartiyaDiwas. He is the Prime
Minister of —
 Mauritius
1113. The Global Agriculture Leadership Summit - 2018 was chaired by —
 M. S. Swaminanthan
1114. Government has set an ambitious goal to double farmer’s income by —

62
  2022
1115. Which country won the 2018 SultanAzlan Shah Cup Tournament Title?
 Australia
Fill in the blanks.
1116. Yarn is to tale as fib is to ________.
 Deception
1117. He was scarcely in his teens, when he became completely _________ by German __________
and writings of Shakespeare.
 Captivated, Literature

Read the following passage and answer the questions.

A stout old lady was walking with her basket down the middle of a street in Petrograd to the great confusion
of the traffic and no small peril to herself. It was pointed out to her that the pavement was the place for foot-
passengers, but she replied, "I am going to walk where I like. We've got liberty now." It did not occur to the
dear lady that if liberty entitled the foot-passenger to walk down the middle of the road it also entitled the
taxi-driver to drive on the pavement, and that the end of such liberty would be universal chaos. Everything
would be getting in everybody else's way and nobody would get anywhere. Individual liberty would have
become social anarchy.
1118. It was pointed out to the lady that she should walk on the pavement because she was —
 A pedestrian
1119. The lady refused to move from the middle of the street because —
 she felt that she is entitled to do whatever she liked
1120. The old lady failed to realise that —
 Her liberty was not unlimited
The word closest to the opposite in the meaning of the underlined word.
1121. HAPLESS —
 Fortunate
1122. GYRATE —
 Fix
1123. SUNDRY —
 Few
1124. UNKEMPT —
 Spruce
1125. LASSITUDE —
 Potency

The correct meaning of the idiom/phrase.

1126. Brush up —
 To renew
1127. Spike and span —
 Neat and clean V
1128. In the nick of time —
 Just at the right moment
1129. Between Scylla and Charybdis —
 Between two dangers
The word which expresses the meaning of the given word.
1130. AUGURY —
 Omen

63
 1131. EULOGY —
 High praise
1132. CONTENTION —
 Dispute
1133. EXUDE —
 Discharge slowly
Spellings.
1134. Extirpate
1135. Scrupulous
1136. Debauchery
1137. Staid
Give one word substitute for the following group of words or phrases.
1138. That which cannot be expressed in words —
 Ineffable
1139. To catch sight of something —
 Espy
The pair which best expresses the relationship as similar as reflected in the given pair of words.
1140. Scribble : Scrawl —
 Lethargic : Lax
1141. tinerant : Statue —
 Omnipresent : Absent
The word which best expresses the meaning of the underlined word.
1142. Respect for individual dignity is held sacrosanct by all religions.
 Inviolable
1143. For all your efforts at sounding and convincing, no one is going to buy your story.
 Believe
Read the passage and try to understand first what it is about. Then, fill in the blanks from among the
alternatives given below.
More animals, including the great cats, do not___ (1144) ___man and they do their best to___ (1145) ___him.
My brain turns round and round likes a___ (1146) ___at this odd behaviour. The explanation that the
animals___ (1147) ___that man is a killer is___ (1148) ___believable. To me, men are comparatively___
(1149) ___and defenceless. Animals are more agile and___ (1150) ___than man. Nevertheless, it is fact
that animals___ (1151) ___avoid man. My view is shared___ (1152) ___other hunters that man has
developed a___ (1153) ___armour.

1144. like
1145. Avoid
1146. Wheel
1147. Feel
1148. Hardly
1149. Weak
1150. Brisk
1151. Normally
1152. By
1153. Defensive

1154. contracts with B to sing for twelve months at B’s theatre and not to sing in public elsewhere:-

64
  B cannot obtain specific performance to sing, but he is entitled to an injunction restraining A
from singing at any other place of public entertainment.
1155. A is B’s medical advisor. He demands money from B, which B declines to pay. A then threatens to
make known the effect of B’s communication to him as patient:-
 B may obtain a prohibitory injunction to restrain A from so doing.
 B may obtain a mandatory injunction ordering A to destroy all written communications made
by B as patient of A
1156. The correct proposition
 A person seeking specific performance of a contract must approach the court within reasonable
time even if time is not of the essence of the contract.
 Family arrangements (compromises) can be specifically enforced.
 In a suit for specific performance of a contract the plaintiff may also claim compensation for its
breach, either in addition to, or in substitution of, such performance.
1157. Any person suing for the specific performance of a contract for the transfer of immovable property
may, in an appropriate case, ask for:-
 Possession, or partition and separate possession, of the property, in addition to such
performance.
 Refund of any earnest money or deposit paid or made to him, in case his claim for specific
performance is refused.
1158. Under Section 6 of the Specific Relief Act:-
 A tenant can file a suit for possession even against the landlord on the ground that he was
unlawfully dispossessed by the landlord.
 No question of title either of the plaintiff or of the defendant can be raised or gone into that
case.
1159. A mandatory injunction in the nature is:-
 Restitutory
 Prohibitory
1160. Injunction cannot be granted:-
 Irrespective of whether the contract is specifically enforceable or not
1161.
(I) Act of 1858 1. British Crown assumes Power
(II) Indian Council Act, 1909 2. Minto Morley Reforms
(III) Government of India Act, 1919 3. Dyarchy
(IV) Government of India Act, 1935 4. Provinical autonomy
1162. Ombudsman refers to the person:-
 Who looks into complaints against public authorities
1163. The Supreme Court laid down certain requirements to be followed in all cases of arrest or detention
in:-
 D.K.Basu’s case
1164. Who among the following names is associated with drafting of Indian Penal code of 1860:-
 Lord Macaulay
1165. The system of India election follows:-
 Adult Franchise
1166. A child aged nine years picks up a mobile valued at Rs.10000 lying on a table in his friend’s house
and immediately sells it for Rs 4000 and misappropriates the money.The child will not protected
under section 81, 82 at 83 IPC
 Section 81 of IPC
 Section 82 of IPC
 Section 83 of IPC

65
  None of the above
1167. __________isthe law of place:-
 Lex Loci
1168. ‘Ultra Vires’ is a term used for:-
 Beyond the scope of power allowed or granted by a Charter or by Law
1169. Right of way is covered under:-
 Law of easement
1170. Statement : All intelligent person are creative:-
Assumptions: I. All creative persons are intelligent
II. Creativity and intelligence to together
 Neither I nor II is implicit
1171. Correctly matched —
List-I List-II
(Metal State) (Consequence)
 The feeling which prompts the will of doer. – Volition
 A desire for bodily notions which constitute the act – Mensrea
 An operation of will directing an over act. – Intention
 The ultimate object of the act. – Motive
1172. Assertion (A) : An accused person has been guaranteed the right to be informed of the nature and
cause of accusation.
Reason (R) : The accused person can get his conviction quashed upon vague and obscure
charges.
 ‘A’ is true but ‘R’ is not a correct explanation
1173. Assertion (A) : An accused person cannot be compelled to give his thumb impression.
Reason (R) : An accused person cannot be compelled to be a witness against himself.
 ‘A’ is false but ‘R’ is true
1174. The power of judicial review means the power of the Supreme Court to :-
 Examine Constitutional validity of any administrative action as well as legislative provision and
strike it down if not found in accordance with the Constitutional provisions.
1175. The essential condition for the applicability of the rule of sub judice:-
 The matter in issue in the subsequent suit must be directly and substantially in issue in the
previous suit
 Both the suits must be between the same parties or their representatives
 Such parties must be litigating under the same title in both the suits
1176. A alleging that he the adopted son of X, sues B to recover certain property granted to him by X,
under a deed and forming part of X’s estate. The court finds that A is not the adopted son of X, but
he is entitled to the property under the deed and a decree is passed for A. The finding that A is not
the adopted son of X:-
 Will not operate as res judicata in a subsequent suit between A and B in which the question of
adoption is again put in issue
1177. In which of the following cases, the doctrine of constructive res judicata is applicable:-
 A sues B on a contract and obtain a decree. B afterwards sues for rescission of the contract
on the ground that it did not fully represent the agreement between the parties
 A files a suit against b to recover money on a pro-note. B contends that the promissory note
was obtained from him by undue influence. The objection is overruled and the suit is decreed.
B challenges the promissory note on the ground of coercion and fraud in a subsequent suit.
1178. Mark the correct statement:-
 The court must be competent to try the suit at the time of filing of the suit. Subsequent change
in value does not affect the jurisdiction.

66
  It is the plaintiff’s valuation in the plaint that determines the jurisdiction of the court and not the
amount for which ultimately the decree may be passed by the court
 If the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court is Rs.10000 and the plaintiff files a suit for accounts
and finally the court finds on taking the account that Rs.15000 are due , the court is not
deprived of its jurisdiction to pass a decree for that amount
1179. X is living in Pune and Y, his brother in Mumbai. X wants to file a suit for partition of their joint
property situated in Delhi and Banglore.:-
 The suit may be instituted either in Delhi or Banglore
1180. Mark the correct statement:-
 A suit for accounts of dissolved partnership may be instituted either where the contract of
partnership was entered into or where the business of partnership was carried on
 A suit for dissolution of partnership carried on in a foreign country is maintainable in India if the
parties are resident there
 The proper forum in the case of an ordinary agent is the place where the contract of agency
was made or the place where accounts are to be rendered and payment is to be made by the
agent
1181. When an objection as to non-joinder or mis-joinder of parties is upheld by the court:-
 The court may allow the amendment of the plaint viz. striking out the names of such persons
as have been improperly joined as plaintiffs or defendants
1182. Mark the correct statement in context of a representative suit:-
 If the person suing or defending does not proceed with due diligence, the court can substitute
in his place any person having the same interest in the suit
 The suit can be withdrawn, compromised or abandoned by the plaintiff after notice to all the
persons interested
 Any decree passed in such a suit is binding on all the person interested
1183. The amendment of pleadings could be allowed:-
 For granting relief on the basis of different approached to the same facts
 Amendment taking note of subsequent event.
1184. Where the serving officer delivers or tenders a copy of the summons to the defendant personally
or to his agent, he must require such a person to sign an acknowledgment of service to be endorsed
on the original summons. Then:-
 The copy of the summons will be delivered to the defendant
 The original summons with the defendant’s signature thereon, will be returned to the court
1185. No one can be ordered to attend in person to give attendance in a civil suit, unless he:-
 Resides within the local limits of the court’s ordinary original jurisdiction
1186. The correct proposition:-
 Set off is a statutory defence to a plaintiff’s action, whereas a counter claim is a cross-action
 Set off should not be barred on the date of the suit while counter-claim should not be barred o
the date of filling written statement
 Claim for set-off cannot exceed plaintiff’s claim, whereas counter-claim can exceed the
plaintiff’s claim.
 Both set-off and counter claim cannot exceed the pecuniary jurisdiction of the court
1187. The correct statement:-
 The questions which are put only to test the credibility of a person will not be allowed as
interrogatories although they may be asked in cross-examination
 Interrogatories can be administered only to a party to a suit and not to a witness, whereas
cross examination can be of any person, parties and witness alike
 A party filing affidavit in reply to interrogatories can neither cross-examine nor adduce evidence
to contradict it, as it is a conclusive proof

67
1188. A suit may be dismissed under O.9 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908:-
 Where the summons not is not served upon the defendant in consequence of the plaintiff’s
failure to pay costs for service of summons
 Where neither the plaintiff nor the defendant appears
 Where plaintiff, after summons returned unserved, falis for 7 days to apply for fresh summons
 Where on the date fixed for hearing in suit only defendant appears and he does not admit the
plaintiff’s claim
1189. In a suit for recovery instituted by A against B, despite the summons of suit having been duly served
upon B, he did not appear on the date fixed in the summons on 1.3.1996. The court consequently
on 1.3.93 passed an ex parte order against B and listed the case for 3.4.93 for ex parte evidence
of A:-
 B can seek setting aside of the ex-parte order if he is able to show good cause for his non-
appearance
1190. Mark the correct statement in relation to order 23 of Code of Civil Procedure, 1908:-
 At any time after the institution of a suit, the plaintiff may withdraw his suit or abandon part of
his claim
 If a plaintiff withdraws from a suit without the court’s permission, he is precluded from instituting
a fresh suit against the same defendant in respect of the same subject matter
 If the court is satisfied that a suit must fail by reason of some formal defect or there are other
sufficient grounds, it may allow the withdrawal from suit.
1191. Compensatory costs can be imposed:-
 If the claim (or defence) is false or vexatious and subsequently disallowed or withdrawn
 If objection to the false or vexatious claim or defence has been taken by the party at the earliest
opportunity
1192. Where any party dies after conclusion and before pronouncing of judgment:-
 The suit shall not abate
1193. A relief of injunction may be refused on the ground of:-
 Laches or acquiescence
 The applicant has not come with clean hands
 Where monetary compensation is adequate relief
1194. Where it appears to the court that elements of an acceptable settlement exist, the court may refer
it to:-
 Arbitration/conciliation/mediation
 Judical settlement, including that through Lok Adalat
1195. Mark the correct statement:-
 Evidence excluded by the evidence act is inadmissible even if it seems essential for
ascertainment of truth
 Parties cannot contract themselves out of the provisions of the act
 A court cannot on the ground of public policy, exclude evidence relevant under this act
1196. A is accused of a child’s murder. The following facts are constructed in the case:-
(I) An hour before the murder, A went to the place of murder with the child
(II) A alone returned home
(III) Collar of A’s shirt found to be blood-stained
The evidence which takes into account the above-mentioned facts in called:-
 Circumstantial evidence
1197. Mark the correct statement:-
 All admissible evidence is usually relevant, but all relevant evidence is not admissible
 Relevancy is the genus of which admissibility is a species
 Relevancy and admissibility are neither synonymous nor is the one included in other

68
1198. The question is, whether A owes B Rs.10000. The facts that A asked C to lend him money, and D
said to C in A’s presence and hearing –“I advise you not to trust A, for he owes B Rs.10000”, and
that A went away without making any answer is a:-
 Relevant fact
1199. A and B ere prosecuted for conspiracy for bribing a police officer, A came to the police station and
offered an inspector packet of currency notes, He told the Inspector that B had sent the money as
a consideration for hushing up the case against him. The offer of money and the accompanying
statement made by A were relevant against:-
 Both A and B
1200. Admissions by agents are:-
 Admissible in civil proceedings only if the agent has the authority to make admissions
 Not admissible in criminal proceedings
1201. Telling his wife that P’s wife had called him to receive payment due to him, K leaves his house.
After two days, his dismembered body is found in a trunk. In P’s trial for murder of K, the statement
made by K to his wife is:-
 Admissible as it relates to the circumstance of the transaction which resulted in K’s death
1202. If X is charged with Y’s murder, which of the following will be a hearsay evidence:-
 Evidence of A that “Z told me that he had seen X stabbing Y”
1203. If on the carbon copies of a letter written on a typewriter, signature have been put on the first letter
then other copies:-
 Will be secondary evidence
1204. If no attesting witness can be found it must be proved that:-
 Attestation of one attesting witness at least is in his handwriting
 Signature of the person executing the document is in the handwriting of that person
1205. X sues Y for money due on a bond. The execution of the bond is admitted, but Y days that it was
obtained by fraud, which X denies. The burden of proof is on:-
 Y
1206. In which of the following cases, the court may presume under section 114:-
 That a man in possession of stolen goods after the theft is either the thief or has received the
goods knowing them to be stolen
 That judicial and official acts have been regularly performed
 That evidence which could be and is not produced would, if produced, be unfavourable to the
person withholding it (e.g. the police withholding a piece of evidence)
1207. Which of the following is an exception to the doctrine of estoppel:-
 Where a minor represents fraudulently or otherwise that he is of age and thereby induces
another to enter into a contract with him
 When true fact are known to both the parties
 When the representation is against the statute
1208. A intentionally and falsely leads B to believe that certain land belongs to A, and thereby induces B
to buy and pay for it. The land afterwards becomes the property of A, and A seeks to set aside the
sale on the ground that, at the time of the sale, he had no title:-
 A must not be allowed to prove his want of title
1209. A local development authority announced a housing scheme and accepted applications under it,
subsequently finding that the scheme was in violation of the Master Plan cancelled it:-
 It is free to do so without any shackles of promissory estoppel
1210. Which is the most appropriate definition in relation to a hostile witness? A ‘hostile witness:-
 Is one who from the manner in which he gives the evidence shows that he is not desirous of
telling the truth to the court

69
1211. Confession of a co-accused, not required to be oath and cannot be tested by cross-examination:-
 The only limited use which can be made of a confession of a co-accused is by way of furnishing
an additional reason for believing such other evidences as exists
 It is a very weak type of evidence and is much weaker even than the evidence of an approver
1212. A disputed handwriting can be proved:-
 By calling an expert
 By examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the writer of the questioned
document
 By comparison of the two-admitted & disputed handwriting
1213. Cross-examination of witness:-
 Must relate to relevant facts but need not be confined to what the witness testified in
examination-in-chief
1214. After re-examination of a witness, the adverse party has a:-
 Right to further cross-examine the witness only when a new matter is introduced in the re-
examination
1215. Which of the following is not an essential search-procedure under section 100 of the code of
Criminal Procedure, 1973:-
 Signature of the accused on the search-list
1216. In relation to first information Report, which of the following statement is not correct:-
 It cannot be used as a previous statement for any purpose
1217. If two or more courts (not subordinate to the same High court) have taken cognizance of the same
offence, and a question arises as to which of tem ought to inquire, the question is to be decided by
the:-
 the high court within the local limits of whose appellate criminal jurisdiction the proceedings
first commenced
1218. Under section 198 of the code of criminal procedure, 1973, no court can take cognizance of an
offence against marriage (punishable under chapter XX,IPC) unless a complaint is made by:-
 Some person who is aggrieved by the offence
1219. If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Session
Court, he, under Section 202 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973, postponing the issue of
process against the accused:-
 Shall call upon the complaint to produce all his witnesses and examine them on oath
1220. An error or omission in charge is not material:-
 A is charged with cheating B, and the manner in which he cheated B is not set out in the
charge, or is set out incorrectly. A defends himself, calls witnesses and gives his own account
of the transaction.
1221. Whenever a charge is altered or added to by the court after the trial has commenced:-
 the prosecution has a right to recall or re-summon any witness who has already been examined
1222. A is accused of an act which may amount to theft, or receiving stolen property or criminal breach of
trust or cheating. He is only charged with theft but it appears that he committed the offence of
criminal breach of trust. He may be:-
 Convicted of criminal breach of trust
1223. If the complainant is absent on the day fixed for the hearing of the warrant case, the Magistrate may
discharge the accused if:-
 The offence is non-cognizable or compoundable
1224. Under Section 313 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973:-
 No oath shall be administered to the accused when he is examined
1225. Mark the correct sentence:-

70
  Section 319 of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 could not be invoked where the trial has
not begun and no evidence has been recorded
 The power to proceed against a person not named as an accused is to be exercised sparingly
and for compelling reasons
 The provisions for section 319 for the code of criminal procedure, 1973 applies to all the courts
including a sessions court
1226. When the person who would otherwise be competent to compound an offence under section 320
of the code of criminal procedure, 1973 is dead, then:-
 Legal representative of such person can compound the offence with the consent of the court
1227. Whenever a Magistrate is of opinion, after hearing the evidence for prosecution and the accused,
that the accused is guilty, and that he ought to receive a severe punishment then such Magistrate
is empowered to inflict, the Magistrate may forward the case to:-
 Chief Judicial Magistrate
1228. When can a trail court release an accused on bail under Section 389 (3) of the code of criminal
procedure, 1973 after conviction:-
 Where accused is on bail imprisonment is not exceeding 3 years
1229. Assertion (A) :Bail, not jail, is the general rule in bailable offence in India
Reason (R) :Personal liberty is the most cherished right of a human being
 Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A
1230.
 Release from prison – Bail
 A written authority to a police officer – Search warrant
 Conviction or acquittal – Judgment
 Speedy disposal of petty cases – Summary Trial
1231. The liability of a surety under the surety bond is:-
 Mutually exclusive of the liability of the accused under his personal bond
 Limited to the amount of the surety bond
1232. In computing the period of limitation, the time during which:-
 Any person has been prosecuting with due diligence another prosecution in any court against
the offender shall be excluded
 The period during which an offender is absent from India Shall be excluded
 The period during which an offender is absconding/concealing himself, is excluded
1233. In a joint trial where several accused persons are being tried, one accused examines himself as a
witness:-
 Only that co-accused has a right to cross-examine the accused examining himself as witness,
against whom such an accused has deposed something, the co-accused do not have any right
at all to cross-examine, the accused examining himself as a witness under any circumstances
1234. Period of limitation shall commence:-
 From the date of the offence generally
 From the date of knowledge of the commission of the offence if not known earlier
 From the date of establishment of the identity of the accused if not known at the time of
commission of the offence
1235. Consider the following statements with regard to “uberrima fides”:-
 It falls within a cases, which require utmost good faith
 Contract of insurance is an example of “uberrima fides”
1236. A by a letter offers to sell his car to B for Rs.75,000/-. At the same time, B by a letter which crosses
the above letter while in post, offers to buy the car for Rs.75,000/-. In this context, which one of the
following propositions is correct:-
 No contract is concluded at any time

71
1237. X duly posts a letter of acceptance to Y. But the letter is lost in transit by the negligence of the post
office:-
 The contract s concluded, because the acceptance is complete, from the date of dispatch,
notwithstanding any delay or miscarriage in its arrival from causes not within the acceptor’s
control
1238. A in an offer to sell a property, gave B the right to accept within 14 days. The next day at about 3.50
p.m., B sent by post his letter of acceptance, which was received by A’s office at 8.30 p.m. But
before that at about 1 p.m., A had posted a letter revoking his offer. The revocation and the
acceptance crossed in the course of post. B received the letter of revocation at 5.30 p.m.:-
 Revocation has not been effectively made
1239. Consideration is:-
 Something of value in the eye of law
 A price for any promise
1240. A daughter promises to give maintenance to her uncle in consideration of hr mother making a gift
of certain properties to her. The daughter pleads lack of consideration when the uncle seeks to
enforce the contract. She says that the uncle is a stranger to the consideration and so he cannot
enforce the contract. The daughter:-
 Cannot succeed because according to the Indian contract Act consideration might move from
any person
1241. The mother owes Rs.10,000 to her daughter. But the Limitation act has barred this debt. The mother
signs a written promise to pay Rs.3,000 on account of the debt. In this case which one of the
following is correct:-
 This is enforceable against the mother because such a promise is valid and binding under the
Indian contract act
1242. The following illustration does not amount to fraud:-
 A representation made without knowing it to be false, honestly believing it to be true
1243. A offers to sell B a painting, which A knows, is a “copy” of a well-known masterpiece. B thinking
that the painting is an “original” one and that A must be unaware of this accepts A’s offer:-
 The contract is a valid one, because a unilateral mistake will not make a contract invalid
1244. The following is an agreement is restraint of trade:-
 A sells the goodwill of his business with an agreement not to practice the same trade for 25
years.
1245. A promises to paint a picture for B by a certain day at a certain price. A dies before the day.:-
 The agreement lapses for both the parties
1246. X agreed to supply 1000 tons of iron at Rs.100 per tone to Y to be delivered not later than 31-1-
2002. X also entered into a contract with A for purchase of 1000 tones of iron at Rs.80 per tone
telling A clearly that the iron is needed before 31-1-2002 for supply to Y to fulfil the contract with Y.
A fails to supply the iron to X who in turn failed to supply the same to Y. In an action by X against
A:-
 X can recover damages for the loss of profit at the rate of rs.20 per tone i.e., the loss of profit
1247. Avoidable contract is an agreement which is
 Enforceable by law at the option of one or more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of
the other or others
1248. A landlord in good faith let out his premises to young widow on a rent of Rs.1400 per month. Later
on the came to know that the widow was using the premises to carry on prostitution. In a suit by the
landlord for recovery of rent, the court should:-
 Not reject the claim as the landlord has no knowledge of the purpose for which the widow was
to put use the let out premises
1249. A owes B Rs.3000, C pays to B Rs.2000 and B accepts it in satisfaction of his claim against A. This
payment:-

72
  Is a discharge of the entire claim
1250. If a notice at the entrance of an automatic car-park is an offer, it can be accepted by:-
 Driving in
1251. If a person who finds goods, belonging to another, takes them into his custody, then he:-
 Is subject to the same responsibility as a bailee
1252. The defendant husband to pay Rs.400 per month to his plaintiff wife in consideration of her giving
up prosecution against his under S 494 IPC., an offence compoundable with the leave of the court.
With the leave to the court, the offence was compounded and the husband was acquitted. In an
action by the wife to enforce the agreement, the husband contends that the agreement is one to
stifle prosecution and hence unlawful. In the light of the above,
 The wife can enforce the agreement against the husband because the agreement is supported
by consideration
1253. J, a usual customer of B, orders certain goods on the day on which B transfers his business to the
plaintiff. The plaintiff accepts the order and supplies the goods. Thereupon J refuses to pay alleging
that he has intended to contract only with B since he is having set off against him:-
(a) Has no liability to pay the price because he has never intended to contract with the plaintiff
1254. A, B, C jointly promise to pay Rs.300 to ‘P’. ‘P’ files a suit to recover the amount. Which one of the
following is correct:-
 Since A, B and C are joint promisors. ‘P’ can recover the amount from any one of them.
1255. Five persons went to the house of Z armed with clubs to beat Z. Among these, one A was carrying
a pistol concealing it underneath his clothes. During beating, A fired a shot resulting in Z’s death:-
 Only A will be liable for causing death
 All of them will be liable for beating Z
1256. The following is correct in case of defence of intoxication:-
 Intoxication is defence when the intoxicated person in incapable of knowing the nature of the
act at the time of doing it.
 Intoxication is defence when the intoxicated person in incapable of knowing what he was doing
was either wrong or contrary of law
1257. A is in the house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People, below hold out a blanket. A drops the child
in good faith intending the child’s benefit. But the child is killed by the fall. A has committed:-
 No offence
1258. A, armed with a sword, is at a great distance from B. A threatened to kill B. B shot at A, and killed
him:-
 B could not plead private defence, as it cannot be daid that he has a present and reasonable
apprehension of being attacked by A
1259. A instigates his six-year-old daughter B to take away from C, a purse containing Rs.1500. In this
case which one of the following statements is correct:-
 B does not commit any offence but A commits abetment of theft
1260. A, B, and C decide amongst themselves to persuade D to steal jewellery from the hose of M and
they accordingly do so. D readily agrees and sets out towards M’s house in order to steal jewellery:-
 A , B, and C are liable for conspiracy to commit theft
 A, B and C are liable for criminal conspiracy, but D is not liable for any offence because his act
only amounts to preparation
1261. A person is said to give ‘false evidence’, if he:-
 Being legally bound by an oath, or by an express provision of law to state the truth

73
  Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject makes any statement which is
false
 Being bound by law to make a declaration upon any subject which he either knows or believes
to be false, or does not believe to be true
1262. A tries to pickpocket B. B has a loaded pistol in his pocket. A’s hand touches the pistol and triggers
it, resulting in the death of B:-
 A is guilty only of pick pocketing
1263. A was relived of his wristwatch worth Rs.100 by B in a running train. When the train was about to
stop at a railway station, A raised an alarm. At this point of time, C pushed A as a result of which A
fell down and sustained injuries. This was done by C to enable B to carry the stolen watch. C has
committed the offence of:-
 Robbery
1264. X, applied for the post of Lecturer in Delhi University and submitted his application along with degree
of Ph.D. Interview call was issued to X and 2nd Feb., 1992 was the date fixed for the interview of X.
But on 10th Jan., 1992 the University came to know that the copy of degree attached with the
application was bogus and cancelled the interview:-
 X is guilty of attempt to cheat
1265. The offence of house breaking is not committed:-
 Where a hole was made by burglars in the wall of a house but their way was blocked by beams
on the other side
1266. A partner cannot contract himself out of which of the following duties:-
 Duty of utmost good faith i.e. uberrimaefidei
 Duty to carry on business to greatest common advantage
 Duty to render true accounts and full information
 Duty to indemnify for fraud
1267. The authority of a partner to bind the firm by his acts done in the usual course of business is called
his “implied authority “. Such authority does not include:-
 Withdraw a suit or proceeding filed on the firm’s behalf
1268. A notice to one partner operates as a notice to the whole firm. However, for that:-
 The notice must have been given to a partner who habitually acts in the business of the firm
 Notice to a dormant or a sleeping partner would also suffice
1269. A firm will not be liable for the wrongful act or omission of a partner:-
 Receipt of money, due to the firm, by one of the partners by way of set off against his personal
debt to the other party
1270. According to Section 30 of the Partnership Act, “at any time within 6 months of his attaining majority
or of obtaining knowledge that he had been admitted to the benefits of partnership, whichever date
is later, a minor can elect to become or not to become a partner”:-
 Such option is exercised by giving a public notice
 If he remains silent and fails to give such a notice there is a presumption that he wants to be a
partner and on the expiry of the said 6 months he shall become a partner in the firm
 If he did not exercise the option, he will be deemed to become a partner in firm
1271. A, B and C are partners in a firm. C retires and X is admitted as a new partner. The firm did not give
a public notice of the change but continued its business in its old firm name. Z, a customer of the
firm, deals with the firm after the change and the firm becomes indebted to him:-
 Z can sue either A, B and C, or , A, B and X

74
1272. The right to rescind the contract of partnership:-
 Is lost it the contract is not repudiated within one year of discovery of fraud
1273. Law of limitation:
 Does not extinguish substantive right
 Is an adjective or procedural law
 Creates a right in favour of a person
1274. Mark the correct statement:-
 A debt not cases to exist only because its recovery is barred by the stature of limitation
 A defendant can plead that the instrument is voidable even if his suit to set it aside on the
ground of its voidability is barred by limitation
1275. Good faith under the limitation act implies due care and attention. It becomes relevant when the
question is whether:-
 The limitation period should be extended or not
 The delay on the part of a party should be condoned or not
1276. Period of limitation means:-
 The period of limitation prescribed for any suit, appeal or application by the Schedule of the
limitation act
1277. A party who prays for condonation of delay under section 5 of the limitation act, 1963 has to
establish that:-
 He was vigilant
 No negligence on his part
 No lack of bona fides on his part
1278. Where a person is affected by two legal disabilities, or where one disability followed by another
without leaving the gap, than suit or application may be filed:-
 After both disabilities have ceased
1279. If a pronote is executed on 5th June, 1945, the last day for filing the suit will be:-
 6th June, 1948
1280. Which of the following is an essential requisite of a valid acknowledgment:-
 It must be made before the expiration of limitation period
 It mist be signed by the person making the acknowledgment or by his duly authorized agent
 It must be made by the party against whom any property or right is claimed or by some person
through whom he derives title or liability
1281. In a suit filed by the plaintiff, the defendant in his written statement has taken the objection of non-
impleadment of necessary party. Despite such objection the plaintiff continued the suit and the suit
finally was decreed. At the first appellate stage, the plaintiff withdraws the suit with liberty to file a
fresh one on the same cause of action and subsequently filed a fresh suit. The period spent by the
plaintiff in the earlier suit, under section 14 of limitation act is:-
 Liable to excluded under section 14 (3) of limitation act
1282. X, a person above the age of 18 years, asks Y to shoot him to death as X is suffering from incurable
disease. Y is the domestic servant of X. As a loyal servant, Y shoots X to death. In the context of
the above, which one of the following statements is correct:-
 Y’s act is culpable homicide not amounting to murder
1283. A is a good swimmer. He sees B drowning, but does not save him. B is drowned. A has committed:-

75
  No offence
1284. ‘A’ a foreigner stabbed B another foreigner in a foreign vessel on the high seas. Both A and B were
brought to Bombay for treatment where B died. A is also available in Bombay. Which one of the
following propositions is correct in respect of applicability of Indian Penal code (IPC) to the trial of
A:-
 As both the deceased and the accused belong to foreign countries and the occurrence of
offence has taken place on the high seas, IPC is not applicable to A and hence he cannot be
prosecuted in India
1285. Assertion (A): There is no liability for an attempt to commit an impossible theft.
Reason (R) : No criminal liability can be incurred under Section 511 of the Indian Penal code for
an attempt to be an act which, if done will not be an offence
 A is false but R is true
1286. A is invited by B for a cup of tea. While B is in the kitchen preparing tea, A finds a golden ring on
the table. He picks it up and places it somewhere in the room with the intention of dishonestly taking
it away sometime later. A commits:-
 Theft
1287. X and Y swimming in the sea, after a shipwreck got hold of plank. The plank was not large enough
to support both X, with no other option, pushed Y, who was drowned. X has committed:-
 No offence
1288. That “no person accused of an offence shall be compelled to be a witness against himself” is a/an:-
 Fundamental right
1289. The directive Principles of state Policy are fundamental for the:-
 Governance of state
1290. When a writ is issued to an inferior court or tribunal on grounds of exceeding its jurisdiction or acting
contrary to the rules of natural justice it is called a writ of:-
 Certiorari
1291.
 The President can commute death sentence to the life imprisonment
 The governor cannot commute death sentence to life imprisonment
 The president’s power to pardon extends to punishments or sentences by court marital
1292. Double Jeopardy means:-
 Putting the same person on trial twice for the same offence
1293. In case of inconsistency between laws made by Parliament and the laws made by the state
legislatures, which one of the following shall prevail:-
 The law made by parliament before or after the law made by the legislature of the state
1294. Assertion (A): The rule making power of the Supreme Court is not subject to any law made by the
Parliament of India
Reason (R) : Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of the individual
without fear or favour
 A is false but R is true
1295. Assertion (A): The entries in the three legislative list are not always set out with scientific precision
Reason (R) : The entries are not powers but are only fields of legislation
 Both A and R are individually true but R is not correct explanation of A
1296.

76
  The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in any dispute between the government of India
and one or more states
 The Supreme Court has original jurisdiction in any dispute between the government of India
and any state or states on side and one or more other state on the other
 The supreme Court has jurisdiction in any dispute between two or more states
1297. The High Court can
 Punish for its contempt
 Issue certain writs for enforcement of Fundamental Rights or for other purposes
1298. The essential ingredient of a valid Arbitration agreement:-
 There should be an animus arbitrandi
 The agreement must be a writing
 The agreement must be registered
1299. An arbitration agreement must relate to:-
 Present disputes
 Past disputes
 Present or future disputes
1300. The material difference between an arbitration agreement and an ordinary contract:-
 In ordinary contract the obligations of the parties to each other cannot in general be specifically
enforced and breach of them results only in damages
 The appropriate remedy for breach of agreement to arbitrate is not damages but its
enforcement
1301. In reference to the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996:-
 There is no provision where the party can apply to the court for reference to the arbitration in
respect of matter which is covered in the arbitration agreement
1302. Under the arbitration and conciliation act, 1996:-
 Presiding Arbitrator replaces the Umpire of the old act
 Presiding arbitrator is a part and parcel of the Arbitral Tribunal, while Umpire under the old Act
was a third person
 Presiding arbitrator makes award along with panel or arbitrators, while Umpire could make
award single headedly when the appointed arbitrators has failed to arrive at a consensus
1303.
 John Hastings — Cricket — Australia
 Sandeep Michael — Hockey — India
 Magnus Carlsen — Chess — Norway
1304. Which one is the brightest Planet?
 Venus
1305. Which of the following has the highest sex ratio?
 Puducherry
1306. BhagwatiCharanVohra wrote which of the followings?
 Philosophy of Bomb
1307. Pulitzer Prize of conferred annually in the USA for outstanding works in —
 Music

77
  Literature
 Journalism
1308. Who has been appointed as the Chairman of UPSC?
 ArvindSaxena
1309. Hepatitis is associated with an inflammatory condition of —
 Liver
1310. Montreal Protocol is associated with substances that causes —
 Depletion of ozone layer
1311. Which one is the apex institution to provide agriculture credit in India?
 NABARD
1312. Who is the present Cabinet Secretary of India?
 P. K. Sinha
1313. Which country will host the 2023 IAAF World Championships?
 Hungary
1314. The Western blotting test is used for the detection of —
 Proteins
1315. Tungabhadra River is the major tributary of the River —
 Krishna
1316. Education as a subject of legislation mentioned in the —
 Concurrent List
1317. Pong Dam is built on the River —
 Beas
1318. Imran Hussain recently honoured with PETA “Hero to Animals” award. He is the —
 Food & Supply Minister in Delhi Government
1319. Who authored the book “The Dhoni Touch - Unravelling the Enigma that is Mahendra Singh Dhoni”?
 Bharat Sunderson
1320. The 2018 World Hindi Conference (11th) was recently hosted by which country?
 Mauritius
1321. Which Indian state has the highest number of people with HIV/AIDS?
 Maharashtra
1322. Recently constituted “Lokpal Search Committee” is headed by —
 Justice RanjanaPrakash Desai
1323. James Allison and TasukuHonju won the 2018 Nobel Medicine Prize for discovery of —
 Cancer Therapy
1324. To assist victims of tsunami in Indonesia which country launched the “Operation SamudraMaitri”?
 India
1325. Which Indian cricketer has recently inducted formally into ICC Cricket Hall of Fame?
 Rahul Dravid
1326. The 2018 LalBahadurShashtri National Award for Excellence in Public Administration was recently
conferred upon —
 FaliNariman

78
 Give one word substitute for the following group of words or phrases
1327. Having no equal —
 Nonpareil
1328. Something that is really wanted —
 Desideratum
1329. To irritate someone —
 Nettle
The nearest opposite in meaning of the given word.
1330. OBSCURE —
 Famous
1331. STEADFAST —
 Capricious
1332. UPBRAID —
 Praise
The word which expresses the meaning of the given word.
1333. ALLITERATION —
 Repeat
1334. AVARICE —
 Greed
1335. SURFEIT —
 Excess

The correct meaning of the idiom/phrase.

1336. Ear your stripes —
 Gain experience or skill
1337. Fool’s gold —
 Looking valuable but worthless
1338. Spill the beans —
 Blurt out the truth
Fill in the blanks.
1339. Despite sharing a congruence _____ values and ideals, India and the EU have both struggled to
build a partnership.
 Of
1340. The Athenians on the whole were peaceful and prosperous, they had ________ to sit at home and
think about the universe and dispute with Scorates, or to travel abroad and ________ the world.
 Leisure, explore
1341. Physicians may soon have _______ to help paralyzed people move their limbs by bypassing the
________ nerves that once controlled their muscles.
 Ways, damaged
Fill in the blanks.

79
1342. The argument that the need for a looser fiscal policy to _______ demand outweighs the need to
________ budget deficits is persuasive.
 Stimulate, control
1343. The internet is a medium where users have nearly ________ choices and _______ constraints
about where to go and what to do.
 Unlimited, minimal
1344. The simplified __________ to the decision making process, is a must read for anyone ________
important real estate, personal, or professional decisions.
 Guide, facing
1345. Their achievement in the field of literature is described as ________, sometimes it is even called
_________.
 Unimportant, trivial
1346. Village Panchayat is organised under:
 Article 40
1347. The number of nominated members in the Council of States is:
 12
1348. Which Constitutional Amendment incorporated Fundamental Duties in the Constitution of India?
 44th
1349. What is the base year for calculating GDP?
 2011-12
1350. Anna Burns won the 2018 Man Booker Prize for her novel —
 Milkman

80