PHARMACOLOGY 7.

Which of the following drugs is often combined with

sulfamethoxazole for the treatment of respiratory
1. Which drugs tend to concentrate in body tract and urinary tract infections?
compartments with a high pH? A. Amoxicillin
A. Permanently charged drugs B. Ciprofloxacin
B. Drugs that are not charged C. Clindamycin
C. Weak organic acids D. Metronidazole
D. Weak organic bases E. Trimethoprim
E. Inorganic ions
8. Which anticancer drug inhibits the enzyme
2. Naloxone antagonizes the therapeutic and toxic dihydro folate reductase?
effects of which drug? A. Bleomycin
A. Acetaminophen B. Cisplatin
B. Aspirin C. Doxorubicin
C. Carbamazepine D. 5-Fluorouracil
D. Fentanyl E. Methotrexate
E. Ibuprofen
9. Which of the following routes of drug administration
3. What is the mechanism of the analgesic action of is generally used for local drug effects?
aspirin? A. topical administration
A. Stimulates μ opioid receptors B. oral ingestion
B. Blocks histamine H2 receptors C. subcutaneous injection
C. Inhibits COX D. intravenous injection
D. Inhibits lipoxygenase
E. Blocks sodium channels in nerves 10. The most important enzyme systems for the
biotransformation of drug molecules are found in:
4. Which class of antihypertensive drug most effectively A. lungs
reduces the release of renin from the kidney? B. liver
A. β-Adrenergic receptor blockers C. brain
B. ACE inhibitors D. kidneys
C. α-Adrenergic receptor blockers E. gastrointestinal tract
D. Calcium channel blockers
E. Angiotensin II receptor blockers 11. The safest and easiest route for drug administration
is:
5. Clavulanic acid offers an advantage therapeutically A. oral
because ______. B. rectal
A. It inhibits streptococci at a low MIC C. Inhalation
B. It inhibits transpeptidase D. IV
C. It inhibits penicillinase
D. It inhibits anaerobes at a low MIC 12. Adrenaline (epinephrine) stimulates:
E. It inhibits DNA gyrase A. alpha1-receptors only
B. beta1-receptors only
6. Inhibition of which of the following enzymes is C. both alpha1,2 and beta1,2-receptors
mostresponsible for the cell wall synthesis inhibitory D. both alpha1 and beta-,-receptors only
effect of penicillin G?
A. β-Lactamase 13. All of the following drugs are alpha-adrenergic
B. DNA gyrase receptor blockers EXCEPT one. Which one is the
C. Nitro reductase EXCEPTION?
D. Transglycosylase A. phentolamine hydrochloride (Regitine)
E. Transpeptidase B. prazosin (Minipress)
C. propranolol (Inderal)
D. terazosin (Hytrin)
14. The heart is generally considered to have 21. Guanethidine is a drug used for the treatment of
predominantly which type of adrenergic receptors? __________.
A. alpha1 (a1) receptors A. Diabetes Mellitus
B. beta1 (B1) receptors B. Primary Hypertension
C. alpha2 (a2) receptors C. Bipolar Disorder
D. beta2 (B2) receptors D. GERD

15. All of the following neurons are cholinergic EXCEPT 22. Methylphenidate (Ritalin) is a drug used for
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? ____________.
A. preganglionic sympathetic neurons A. ADHD
B. preganglionic parasympathetic neurons B. Parkinsonism
C. postganglionic sympathetic neurons C. Petit mal Seizure
D. postganglionic parasympathetic neurons D. Cancer

16. If norepinephrine or epinephrine were to stimulate or 23. Drugs that induce gingival hyperplasia include the
combine with the alpha receptors in the eye, which following, EXCEPT:
response would you expect? A. Diphenylhydantoin
A. miosis B. Amlodipine
B. mydriasis C. Cyclosporine
C. meiosis D. Epinephrine
D. neither of the above; norepinephrine and
epinephrine do not stimulate or combine with alpha 24. Erythromycin is well known to cause adverse:
receptors in the eye A. CNS effects
B. GI effects
17. The most common adverse effects associated with C. hematologic effects
the benzodiazepines include all of the following D. renal effects
EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
A. CNS depression (drowsiness and sedation) 25. The most commonly used aminoglycoside is:
B. GI disturbances (nausea, vomiting and diarrhea) A. Neomycin
C. confusion B. Streptomycin
D. respiratory depression C. tobramycin
D. gentamicin
18. A fear reaction activates the sympathetic division of
the autonomic nervous system to result in: 26. Which antibiotic may cause bone marrow
A. miosis disturbances (aplastic anemia) and has limited use
B. Bradycardia due to the side effects?
C. hypertension A. Penicillin
D. increased salivation B. Tetracycline
C. Chloramphenicol
19. Which drug is the current drug of choice for the D. Doxycycline
treatment of the manic phase of bipolar disorder (or
manic-depressive syndrome)? 27. Which of the following is classified as an antifungal
A. phenobarbital agent?
B. imipramine A. Bacitracin
C. lithium B. amphotericin-B
D. haloperidol C. polymyxin-B
D. neomycin
20. Which of the following antibiotics exerts its mode of
action on the bacterial cell wall? 28. The drug of choice for treating Candidiasis is:
A. Penicillin A. Penicillin
B. Cephalexin B. Erythromycin
C. Tetracycline C. Nystatin
D. Sulphonamides D. chloramphenicol
29. Which of the following is known as the original 36. The prototype depolarizing neuromuscular blocking
penicillin? agent is:
A. penicillin V A. tubocurarine (Curare)
B. penicillin G B. mivacurium (Mivacron)
C. Ampicillin C. succinylcholine (Anectine)
D. Amoxicillin D. vecuronium (Norcuron)

30. The antibiotic of choice for standard prophylactic 37. In dentistry, a cholinergic drug is used to:
regimen of antibiotic coverage for the prevention of A. produce a dry field for taking impressions
bacterial endocarditis is: B. calm an anxious patient
A. penicillin VK C. treat dry mouth by inducing salivation
B. Tetracycline D. reduce nausea
C. Erythromycin
D. Amoxicillin 38. The major natural mineralocorticoid in humans is:
A. Dexamethasone
31. Which of the following is often co- administered with B. Aldosterone
antibiotics to delay the renal clearance of the C. Cortisol
antibiotic? D. prednisone
A. imipenem
B. probenecid 39. For a patient who is taking anticoagulants, what is the
C. hydrochlorothiazide most valuable test used in evaluating the patient as a
D. aztreonam surgical risk?
A. PTT (Partial Thromboplastin Time)
32. Which antibiotic is used cautiously due to its side B. PT (Prothrombin Time)
effects (pseudomembranous colitis, severe GI upset)? C. platelet count
A. azithromycin (Zithromax;Z-Pak) D. Hemoglobin
B. Clindamycin
C. penicillin VK 40. Which of the drugs below can prolong the QT interval
D. cephalexin (Keflex) of cardiac electrical conduction and thus can increase
the risk of cardiac arrhythmias?
33. Erythromycin is a _____ antibiotic which binds to the A. Erythromycin
_____ ribosomal subunit of susceptible bacteria. The B. Ibuprofen
result is the inhibition of protein synthesis. C. Hydrocodone
A. bactericidal; 30s D. penicillin VK
B. bactericidal; 50s E. azithromycin (Z-Pak)
C. bacteriostatic; 30s
D. bacteriostatic; 50s 41. Antimetabolites are cell cycle-specific drugs acting
primarily in the:
34. Which agent has anti- inflammatory properties? A. G0 phase or resting phase of the cell cycle
A. codeine B. S phase of the cell cycle
B. acetaminophen C. G-, phase of the cell cycle
C. Hydrocodone D. G2 phase of the cell cycle
D. ibuprofen
42. Inhaled ammonia is the drug of choice for acting
35. All of the following are antimuscarinic agents EXCEPT against:
one. Which one is the EXCEPTION? A. anaphylaxis
A. Atropine B. heart attack
B. Scopolamine C. syncope
C. glycopyrrolate (Robinul) D. urticarial
D. mecamylamine (Inversine)
43. Oral contraceptives block ovulation by inhibiting 49. Drug of choice for amoebiasis
which anterior pituitary hormones below? Select all A. Metronidazole
that apply B. Pyrazinamide
A. growth hormone (GH) C. Minoxidil
B. follicle stimulating hormone (FSH) D. Omeprazole
C. luteinizing hormone (LH)
D. adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH) 50. First synthetic pharmaceutical drug for pain relief,
discontinued use because it causes hemolytic anemia
44. Drugs travel through the bloodstream by binding to and methemoglobinemia
albumin plasma protein. However, only a small A. Phenacetin
number of drugs travel through the bloodstream by B. Aspirin
this mechanism. C. Diacetylmorphine
A. both statements are true D. Methylphenidate (Ritalin)
B. both statements are false
C. the first statement is true, the second is false 51. For which of the following conditions can Ranitidine
D. the first statement is false, the second is true be used?
A. prostatitis
45. Which drug is a synthetic opioid analgesic used as an B. GERD (heartburn)
intravenous sedative and is more potent than C. toxic-shock syndrome
morphine? D. renal failure
A. meperidine (Demerol)
B. pentazocine (Talwin) 52. Antibiotic regimens for patients with prosthetic
C. propoxyphene (Darvon) implants include all of the following drugs as standard
D. fentanyl therapy of first choice in patients not allergic to
penicillin EXCEPT one. Which one is the EXCEPTION?
46. Which adverse effect is associated with opioid A. Cephalexin
analgesics and not non-narcotic pain relievers? B. Cephradine
A. allergic response C. Amoxicillin
B. Nausea D. Tetracycline
C. Vomiting
D. respiratory depression 53. Which of the following has a clinically significant drug
interaction with Amoxicillin?
47. A drug with high LD50 and a low ED50 has a: A. triazolam (Halcion)
A. High therapeutic index, and is, therefore, very B. methotrexate
dangerous C. calcitriol
B. High therapeutic index, and is, therefore, relatively D. candesartan
safe
C. Low therapeutic index, and is, therefore, very 54. Cephalosporins have which of the following modes of
dangerous action?
D. Low therapeutic index, and is, therefore, relatively A. affect bacterial cell wall
safe B. affect bacterial DNA
C. affect bacterial protein synthesis
48. Which term is a compulsive, uncontrollable D. interfere with bacterial metabolic pathways
dependence on a substance, habit or practice to such
a degree that cessation causes severe emotional, 55.All of the following are cholinergic actions, EXCEPT?
mental or physiological reactions? A. slowing of the heart
A. habituation B. dilation of the pupils
B. tolerance C. the stimulation of the smooth muscles of the bronchi,
C. addiction GI tract, gallbladder, bile duct, bladder and ureters
D. none of the above D. The stimulation of sweat, salivary, tear and bronchial
glands
56. Which of the drugs below can prolong the QT interval 63. Which drug is a synthetic opioid analgesic used as an
of cardiac electrical conduction and thus can increase intravenous sedative and is more potent than
the risk of cardiac arrhythmias? morphine?
A. erythromycin A. meperidine (Demerol)
B. ibuprofen B. pentazocine (Talwin)
C. hydrocodone C. propoxyphene (Darvon)
D. azithromycin D. fentanyl

57. When writing a prescription, b.i.d. is the abbreviation 64. A female patient presents to your office with facial
for: and torso obesity, facial hair growth, and a deepened
A. twice a day voice. The patient explains these changes occurred
B. every 4 hours when she started taking a common drug to treat
C. three times a day Crohn’s disease, and subsequently she recently
D. four times a day discontinued the drug use. While performing a
surgical extraction, the patient suddenly starts
58. The following drugs are noted for causing what breathing at a fast rate, sweating, and complains of
prominent oral side effect? nausea and chills. You recognize that the patient is
• amitriptyline (Elavil) experiencing a crisis and reach for your Emergency
• diphenhydramine (Benadryl) Kit. Which of the following contents of your
• atropine Emergency Kit would be most appropriate to alleviate
• diazepam (Valium) this crisis?
A. geographic tongue A. Oxygen
B. xerostomia B. Sugar
C. mucositis C. Hydrocortisone
D. desquamative gingivitis D. Epinephrine

59. What serious dental effect is associated with 65. An emergency patient presents to your office with
alendronate and zoledronic acid? trismus, fever, and a swelling on one side of his lower
A. mucositis face. The patient questionnaire he filled out in the
B. osteonecrosis of the jaw bone waiting room states that he has no medical issues,
C. angular cheilitis takes no medications, and has a history of alcohol
D. Yeast infection abuse but has been sober for one month. During the
examination, you observe extensive decay on #18 and
60. Disulfiram (Antabuse) is used in the management of: a small abscess in the apical region of #18. The tooth
A. nicotine abuse is hopeless, but before extraction, you decide to place
B. ethanol abuse the patient on an antibiotic to clear up the acute
C. opioid abuse intraoral infection. Which of the following antibiotics
D. NSAID abuse would you want to avoid because of the patient’s
social history and the potential disulfiram-like effect?
61. All of the following are CNS stimulants EXCEPT one. A. Clarithromycin
Which one is the EXCEPTION? B. Metronidazole
A. caffeine C. Clindamycin
B. doxapram (Dopram) D. Doxycycline
C. phenobarbital E. Rifampin
D. methylphenidate
66. A patient presents to your office for an initial visit.
62. Which drug is the standard to which all opiates When reviewing the patient’s medical history, the
(narcotics) are compared? patient tells you that she is taking 81 mg of aspirin
A. codeine once a day and several alternative medications. She
B. oxycodone does not specify which alternative medications she is
C. fentanyl taking because she assumes they are not necessary
D. morphine for you to know. In fact, it is important for dentists to
know about all medications and supplements to
protect patients from possible substance
 interactions. When planning for a surgical procedure, 70. Which one of the following benzodiazepines does not
which of the following alternative medications might require Phase I metabolism by the liver?
you want to discontinue to prevent excessive A. Alprazolam
bleeding in this patient? B. Oxazepam
A. Ginseng C. Midazolam
B. Echinacea D. Triazolam
C. St. John’s Wort E. Diazepam
D. Ginkgo Biloba
E. Capsaicin 71. Continuous infusion of medication A is given to a 65-
kg patient. The pharmacokinetic parameters are as
67. During a routine medical history interview, your follows: clearance=9 mL/min/kg, volume of
patient tells you he is taking celecoxib for distribution = 65 L, half-life = 4 hours. How long will it
osteoarthritis. He has been on this medication for the take for the medication level to reach 93.75% of
past year. Compared to traditional nonsteroidal anti- steady state?
inflammatory drugs (NSAIDs) like ibuprofen, A. 8 hours
celecoxib: B. 10 hours
A. Is a more effective analgesic for acute post surgical C. 14 hours
pain D. 16 hours
B. Produces greater anti-inflammatory responses in E. 18 hours
osteoarthritis patients
C. Produces less water and sodium retention 72. A 75-year-old smoker with a history of chronic
D. Produces less gastrointestinal ulcers and bleeds with obstructive disease presents to a clinic with blood
chronic use pressure of 160/96 mm Hg. Which one of the
E. Is more effective at fever reduction following medications is contraindicated in this
patient?
68. A patient presented to your office for an emergency A. Atenolol
visit. One side of the patient’s face was swollen, and B. Metoprolol
on examination, a small abscess was present apical to C. Propranolol
tooth #16. The abscess was incised and drained, D. Esmolol
penicillin was prescribed, and root canal treatment E. Acebutolol
was recommended. The next day, the patient calls
your office and complains of swollen lips and a 73. Which one of the following beta-lactam antibiotics
developing rash. The best response to this situation is has antipseudomonal properties?
to: A. Penicillin V
A. Tell the patient not to worry; this is a normal reaction B. Penicillin G
B. Prescribe epinephrine C. Piperacillin
C. Instruct the patient to discontinue the penicillin and D. Amoxicillin
prescribe amoxicillin instead E. Ampicillin
D. Instruct the patient to discontinue the penicillin and
prescribe clindamycin instead 74. Which one of the following statements is true
regarding heparin?
69. Which drug is most appropriate to treat oral A. Its effect cannot be reversed with protamine sulfate
candidiasis? B. It can bind and activate antithrombin III, resulting in
A. Penicillin the inactivating thrombin and factor Xa
B. Amphotericin B C. It can lead to decrease in PTT, which is a clinical
C. Nystatin measure used to follow the anticoagulant effect
D. Tetracycline caused by heparin
E. Valacyclovir D. It decreases the synthesis of vitamin K coagulation
factors
E. There are no applications of heparin in pulmonary
embolism
75. What do prazosin, doxazosin, and terazosin have in 79. Drugs are usually metabolized to their lipid insoluble,
common? ionized form because drugs are not metabolized to a
A. They are all alpha-2 receptor blocker that causes a more toxic form.
decrease in peripheral vascular resistance A. Both statement and reason are correct and
B. They are diuretics used to control hypertension related.
C. Side effects of the drugs include orthostatic B. Both statement and reason are correct but
hypotension not related.
D. They are noncompetitive alpha-receptor blockers. C. The statement is correct, but the reason is
E. They rarely cause headache or dizziness not.
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason
76. A 50-year-old patient with recent diagnosis of is an accurate statement.
hypertension presents to your clinic complaining of a E. Neither statement nor reason is correct.
sudden increase in the size of his tongue and slight
difficulty in breathing. He was recently started on an 80. The combination of bactericidal and bacteriostatic
antihypertensive medication. Which one of the antibiotics results in antagonism because bactericidal
following drug classes may have caused the patient’s antibiotics affect only replicating microorganisms.
presentation? A. Both statement and reason are correct and
A. Beta-blocker related.
B. Alpha 1-blocker B. Both statement and reason are correct but
C. Thiazide diuretic not related.
D. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) C. The statement is correct, but the reason is
inhibitor not.
E. Calcium channel blocker D. The statement is not correct, but the reason
is an accurate statement.
77. Which of the following statements are true regarding E. Neither statement nor reason is correct.
a prescription?
I. It must be written in Latin abbreviations 81. Which of the following disease states is an
II. It must contain the proprietary name of the drug absolutecontraindication to the use of the sedative-
III. It should use the Apothecary system of weights hypnotic agents?
and measures A. Liver disease
IV. It is a medicolegal document B. Renal impairment
V. It contains instructions to both pharmacist and C. Angina pectoris
patient. D. Porphyrism
A. I, II, III E. Epilepsy
B. II, III, IV
C. III, IV, V 82. Guanethidine and reserpine are drugs of choice for?
D. I and II A. Diabetes
E. IV and V B. Epilepsy
C. Primary hypertension
78. Drugs produce their teratogenic effects during the D. Convulsion
second trimester of pregnancy because the fetus is
protected from chemicals during the first trimester by 83. Adverse effects of thioamides
the placental barrier A. Agranulocytosis
A. Both statement and reason are correct and B. Hepatitis
related C. Nephritis
B. Both statement and reason are correct but D. Cholestatic jaundice
not related. 84. The following belong or are related to xanthines,
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is EXCEPT:
not. A. Theophylline
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason B. Coffee
is an accurate statement. C. Theobromine
E. Neither statement nor reason is correct. D. Carbachol
85. The anti-inflammatory and antipyretic effects of 90. Drug of choice for Parkinsonism
aspirin are related to its inhibition of the synthesis of A. Levodopa
A. Adrenocorticosteroids B. Phenytoin
B. Bradykinin C. Carbaryl
C. Histamine D. Metoprolol
D. Prostaglandins
E. Substance p 91. This drug causes red orange discoloration to urine,
86. Stimulation of the beta adrenergic receptor results in sweat, saliva, or tears.
I. Vasoconstriction A. Isoniazid
II. Mydriasis B. Rifampicin
III. Increased heart rate C. Erythromycin
IV. Bronchial relaxation D. Pyrazinamide
V. glycogenolysis
A. I, II, III 92. A patient suddenly experiences sneezing, itching, and
B. II, III, IV rash after cleaning a dusty closet. The patient needs
C. III, IV, V to attend a long, important meeting in an hour. Which
D. I & II drug can help alleviate the patient?
E. All of the above A. Loratadine
B. Diphenhydramine
87. The prime mechanism by which antiarrhythmic C. Chlorpheniramine
agents terminate cardiac arrhythmias is to D. Quinidine
A. Slow impulse formation at the sinoatrial
node 93. This drug is contraindicated for babies because it may
B. Block the Beta adrenergic receptor cause “Gray baby syndrome”
C. Block conduction in the Purkinje fibers A. Chloramphenicol palmitate
D. Increase the refractory period of cardiac B. Aspirin
muscle C. Tetracycline
E. Slow nerve conduction through the AV node D. Vancomycin

88. Nitroglycerin is used in the treatment of angina 94. You finished extraction of #11 in a patient whose
pectoris because it reduces cardiac output. medical history includes renal insufficiency and
A. Both statement and reason are correct and gastritis. Which of the following would you prescribe
related. for pain relief?
B. Both statement and reason are correct but A. Ibuprofen
not related. B. Acetaminophen
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is C. Meloxicam
not D. Fentanyl
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason
is an accurate statement. 95. This drug was once used against Staphylococci which
E. Neither statement nor reason is correct. produce penicillinase. This is no longer manufactured
and replaced by drugs like oxacillin and dicloxacillin.
89. The subscription includes the amount or number of A. Amphetamine
drugs to be dispensed by the pharmacist, while the B. Penicillin V
inscription contains the drugs prescribed. C. Methicillin
A. The first statement is correct, but the second D. Probenecid
is not.
B. Both statements are correct. 96. “Blind as a bat, mad as a hatter, dry as a bone, red as
C. The second statement is correct, but the first a beet”
is not. A. Muscarinic agonists
D. Neither statements are correct. B. Direct cholinergic agonists
C. Indirect cholinergic agonists
D. Adrenergic agonists
97. This drug is known for treatment of hypertension for
patients with pheochromocytoma.
A. Esmolol
B. Etoricoxib
C. Phenoxybenzamine
D. Pentazocine

98. Diuretics are effective in the treatment of edema

because they promote the excretion of
A. Potassium
B. Chloride
C. Mercury
D. Sodium

99. The symptoms of hyperthyroidism (thyrotoxicosis)

are exacerbated by an excess of
A. Calcitonin
B. Thyroid hormone
C. Epinephrine
D. Histamine

100. Placebo drugs are incapable of producing therapeutic

effects in patients because placebo drugs do not
possess any demonstrable pharmacologic activity.
A. Both statement and reason are correct and
related.
B. Both statement and reason are correct but not
related.
C. The statement is correct, but the reason is not.
D. The statement is not correct, but the reason is an
accurate statement.
E. Neither statement nor reason is correct
ANSWER KEY: 54. A
1. C 55. B
2. D 56. A
3. C 57. A
4. A 58. B
5. C 59. B
6. E 60. B
7. E 61. C
8. E 62. D
9. A 63. D
10. B 64. C
11. A 65. B
12. C 66. D
13. C 67. D
14. B 68. D
15. C 69. C
16. B 70. B
17. D 71. D
18. C 72. C
19. C 73. C
20. C 74. B
21. B 75. C
22. A 76. D
23. D 77. E
24. B 78. E
25. D 79. C
26. C 80. A
27. B 81. D
28. C 82. C
29. B 83. C
30. D 84. D
31. B 85. D
32. B 86. C
33. D 87. D
34. D 88. C
35. D 89. B
36. C 90. A
37. C 91. B
38. B 92. A
39. B 93. A
40. A 94. B
41. B 95. C
42. C 96. A
43. B,C 97. C
44. C 98. D
45. D 99. C
46. D 100. A
47. B
48. C
49. A
50. A
51. B
52. D
53. B