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Spring Final Earth Science

1. The multiple choice Earth Science Common Assessment Final contains 30 questions testing knowledge of topics including planetary formation, properties of the Sun and planets, geology, plate tectonics, earthquakes, volcanoes, and climate science. 2. Students are asked to identify the choice that best completes statements or answers questions about subjects such as the reason for Saturn's short day, the relative ages of rock layers, how the solar system formed, and the source of energy for the Sun. 3. Questions cover a range of Earth and planetary science concepts including planetary properties, geological dating techniques, plate boundary identification, earthquake measurement, volcano types, energy resources, water distribution systems, and factors influencing climate.
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© © All Rights Reserved
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
25 views

Spring Final Earth Science

1. The multiple choice Earth Science Common Assessment Final contains 30 questions testing knowledge of topics including planetary formation, properties of the Sun and planets, geology, plate tectonics, earthquakes, volcanoes, and climate science. 2. Students are asked to identify the choice that best completes statements or answers questions about subjects such as the reason for Saturn's short day, the relative ages of rock layers, how the solar system formed, and the source of energy for the Sun. 3. Questions cover a range of Earth and planetary science concepts including planetary properties, geological dating techniques, plate boundary identification, earthquake measurement, volcano types, energy resources, water distribution systems, and factors influencing climate.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd
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Earth Science Common Assessment Final

Multiple Choice
Identify the choice that best completes the statement or answers the question.

____ 1. A day on Saturn takes about 10 Earth hours. Which fact would best explain this short day?
a. Saturn is less dense than Earth. c. Saturn rotates more rapidly than Earth.
b. Saturn is much farther from the Sun than d. Saturn’s orbit has greater eccentricity than
the Earth. Earth’s.
____ 2. In an area where the river has cut deep into the Earth, there are several layers of very different rock exposed.
The oldest rock layer is most likely to be the layer that is:
a. below the other layers. c. the most rich in fossils.
b. the thickest layer. d. igneous intrusive rock.
____ 3. Which of the following statements best describes how the planets of the solar system formed?
a. They are condensed rings of matter c. The Sun captured them from smaller,
thrown off by the young Sun. older nearby stars.
b. They are the remains of an exploded star d. They formed from a nebular cloud of dust
once paired with the Sun. and gas.
____ 4. Which planet was formed from the light gases of the outer solar nebula?
a. Mars c. Venus
b. Mercury d. Uranus
____ 5. The diameter of Saturn is almost ten times that of Earth, yet its density is much less. This can best be
explained by the fact that Saturn:
a. is farther from the Sun. c. has a shorter period of rotation.
b. is a gaseous planet. d. has a ring around its center.
____ 6. Evidence suggests that Earth is about 4.6 billion years old, even though no Earth rocks have been formed that
can be dated at more than 4 billion years old. This discrepancy is most likely caused by Earth’s original crust
being:
a. difficult to date so precisely. c. blasted away during Earth’s formation.
b. subject to extensive erosion. d. destroyed by solar radiation.
____ 7. Before humans visited the Moon and brought back lunar rocks, the age of the Moon was unknown.
Radioisotope dating of these rocks showed that the age of the oldest lunar rock was closest to:
a. 186,000 years. c. 4.4 billion years.
b. 6.5 million years. d. 15 billion years.
____ 8. Early telescopes showed stars as only points of light, while the planets appeared to be much larger, providing
evidence that stars must:
a. be more plentiful in our solar system than c. be much farther from Earth than planets.
planets.
b. travel in elliptical orbits like planets. d. reflect much more light than planets.
____ 9. Although many ancient civilizations designated certain patterns of stars as constellations, they never included
planets in their constellations. What features of planets, as opposed to stars, explains this?
a. They look bigger than stars. c. There are not enough of them to form a
constellation.
b. They are more difficult to see than stars. d. They do not maintain fixed positions
relative to other planets or stars.
____ 10. What is the source of energy for the sun?
a. hydrogen fusion c. nuclear fission of metals
b. internal combustion d. burning of solar gases
____ 11. The surface of planet Mercury and our moon contain some very large craters that are most likely the result of
a. giant lava flows. c. nuclear explosions.
b. asteroid impacts. d. large collapsed caves.
____ 12. The Sun is an average yellow star in the Milky Way galaxy, which is described as
a. a dwarf galaxy. c. an elliptical galaxy.
b. a spiral galaxy. d. an irregular galaxy.
____ 13. As part of the modern theory of the origins of the elements, it is hypothesized that before the formation of the
stars, most of the matter in the universe consisted of what atoms?
a. hydrogen and helium c. silicon and lithium
b. nitrogen and carbon d. uranium and radium
____ 14. Stars begin their life cycle in
a. a black hole. c. a nebula.
b. a nova. d. a supernova
____ 15. Astronomers have discovered vast differences in stars through their observations. One theory used to explain
these differences is that
a. the distances between stars are vast. c. Earth’s atmosphere distorts our view of
the stars.
b. stars are at different points in their life d. there is too much light pollution on Earth
cycles. to study stars.
____ 16. The final state of a star’s existence is determined by its mass. The most massive stars will end their lives as
a. supergiant stars. c. white dwarf stars.
b. neutron stars. d. black holes.
____ 17. The youngest rocks on the ocean floor are typically located near what feature?
a. a mid-ocean ridge c. an abyssal plain
b. a continental shelf d. a subduction trench
____ 18. A rift valley is evidence of which kind of plate boundary?
a. convergent c. transform
b. divergent d. uniform
____ 19. The convergence of two continental plates would produce
a. island arcs. c. folded mountains.
b. rift valleys. d. trenches.
____ 20. Which of the following is most responsible for the formation of new crust at the edge of a tectonic plate?
a. mountain building at a continent-continent c. two tectonic plates sliding past one
convergent boundary another at a transform boundary
b. magma rising up from the mantle at a d. subduction of one oceanic plate under
divergent boundary another at a convergent boundary
____ 21. Relative cooling rates of igneous intrusive rocks can be estimated by comparing rocks’
a. crystal sizes. c. density.
b. composition. d. chemical reactivity.
____ 22. Earthquake vibrations are detected, measured, and recorded by instruments called
a. sonargraphs. c. Richter scales.
b. seismographs. d. magnetometers.
____ 23.
At which location would earthquakes be least likely to occur?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
____ 24. The Richter scale measures which of the following earthquake characteristics?
a. intensity c. frequency
b. magnitude d. probability
____ 25. Which type of volcano would be the least explosive?
a. cinder cone c. shield volcano
b. stratovolcano d. composite cone
____ 26. Geothermal energy is possible where there is
a. wind. c. coal.
b. oil. d. magma.
____ 27. The main purpose of the California aqueduct is to
a. allow inexpensive water routes for c. divert floodwater from populated regions
transporting commercial products. to sparsely populated areas.
b. transport fresh water to areas with dense d. provide abundant ocean water to drier
populations. regions of California.
____ 28. The majority of freshwater in California is used for
a. drinking. c. livestock.
b. agriculture. d. fire fighting.
____ 29. Only about 50% of the solar energy directed toward the Earth penetrates directly to the surface. What
happens to the rest of the radiation?
a. It is absorbed or reflected by the c. It is reflected off the Moon and back into
atmosphere. space.
b. It loses energy traveling through space. d. It loses energy overcoming the Sun’s
gravity.
____ 30. Venus is warmed by solar radiation, but its thick cloud cover increases the temperature because the clouds
a. prevent the escape of heat into space. c. absorb short light wavelengths, leaving
heat.
b. convert solar radiation into heat. d. produce heat as they are pushed by strong
winds.
____ 31. Which of these could increase average global temperatures?
a. increased use of fossil fuels c. decreased carbon dioxide emissions
b. increased ocean algal blooms d. increased number of animal species
____ 32. More solar energy reaches the equatorial regions than the polar regions because the equatorial regions
a. are covered by a greater area of land. c. have days with more hours of light.
b. have more vegetation to absorb sunlight. d. receive sun rays closest to vertical.
____ 33. What is the driving force for surface ocean currents?
a. density layering c. the Coriolis effect
b. global winds d. salt concentration
____ 34.

What causes the wind deflection from the North and South poles?
a. the rotation on the Earth from its axis c. the tilt of Earth’s axis relative to its orbital
plane
b. the oblate shape of Earth d. the difference in total land mass of the two
hemispheres
____ 35. Air moving from the poles toward the equator turns west. The primary cause of this global deflection is
a. the shape and size of land masses. c. changes in the magnetic field.
b. larger cities surrounded by farmlands. d. the rotation of the planet.
____ 36. When a layer of cool air at the surface of Earth is found under a layer of warmer air above it, the result is
known as
a. the Coriolis effect. c. a temperature inversion.
b. the greenhouse effect. d. an upwelling.
____ 37.

At which location on the map would a rain forest most likely be found?
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2 d. 4
____ 38. Wind Patterns of Plant X

Where would deserts most likely be found on Planet X?


a. A c. C
b. B d. D
____ 39. Snow on the ground prevents polar climates from gaining heat by what mechanism?
a. heating by greenhouse gases c. snow reflecting solar radiation
b. heat spread from the equator d. release of heat from Earth’s core
____ 40. The Gulf Stream in the Northern Hemisphere and the Brazilian Current in the Southern Hemisphere move
away from the equator. Compared to inland areas at the same latitude, the coastal areas bordering these
currents will
a. be warmer. c. have more advection fogs.
b. be more arid. d. have shorter growing seasons.
____ 41. Scientists have found fossils of tropical plants in Antarctica. How could tropical plants have grown in
Antarctica?
a. At one time, Earth’s entire surface was a c. The rotation of Earth has increased,
tropical rain forest. causing cooling of the atmosphere.
b. At one time, Antarctica was located closer d. Catastrophic volcanic eruptions melted the
to the equator. ice and exposed the soil to sunlight.
____ 42. From Earth’s atmosphere, carbon dioxide is used by plants, algae, and cyanobacteria during the process of
a. photosynthesis. c. decomposition.
b. respiration. d. nitrogen fixation.
____ 43. During periods of increased global temperatures, which of the following is most likely to occur?
a. a decrease in atmospheric CO2 c. a decrease in earthquakes
b. an increase in atmospheric CO2 d. an increase in earthquakes
____ 44. According to scientists, which of the following material categories is thought to be the primary cause for the
depletion of the ozone layer?
a. chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) c. fossil fuels
b. coal-containing sulfur d. hydrocarbons
____ 45. Most of the molecular oxygen in the early atmosphere of Earth resulted from
a. photosynthesis in primitive plants. c. volcanic eruptions.
b. decaying primitive plants and animals. d. lightning striking Earth.
____ 46. The first atmosphere that formed above Earth was most likely due to what process?
a. eruption of volcanoes c. development of land plants
b. movement of water d. occurrence of violent storms
____ 47. Which of the following human activities reduces the level of ozone in the atmosphere?
a. using artificial lighting in scientific polar c. releasing chlorofluorocarbons from
stations aerosol cans
b. using large banks of solar cells for energy d. destroying large areas of the equatorial
production rain forests
____ 48. What makes up most of the universe?
a. known elements c. dark energy and dark matter
b. black holes d. the dark force
____ 49. What is important about Hubble’s discovery that there is a red shift in the spectra of galaxies?
a. It suggests that the universe is expanding.
b. It suggests that the universe is contracting.
c. It proves the big bang theory.
d. It suggests the existence of black holes.
____ 50. The big bang occurred about
a. a billion years ago. c. 5 billion years ago.
b. 14 million years ago. d. 14 billion years ago.
Earth Science Common Assessment Final
Answer Section

MULTIPLE CHOICE

1. ANS: C PTS: 1
2. ANS: A PTS: 1
3. ANS: D PTS: 1
4. ANS: D PTS: 1
5. ANS: B PTS: 1
6. ANS: B PTS: 1
7. ANS: C PTS: 1
8. ANS: C PTS: 1
9. ANS: D PTS: 1
10. ANS: A PTS: 1
11. ANS: B PTS: 1
12. ANS: B PTS: 1
13. ANS: A PTS: 1
14. ANS: C PTS: 1
15. ANS: B PTS: 1
16. ANS: D PTS: 1
17. ANS: A PTS: 1
18. ANS: B PTS: 1
19. ANS: C PTS: 1
20. ANS: B PTS: 1
21. ANS: A PTS: 1
22. ANS: B PTS: 1
23. ANS: A PTS: 1
24. ANS: B PTS: 1
25. ANS: C PTS: 1
26. ANS: D PTS: 1
27. ANS: B PTS: 1
28. ANS: B PTS: 1
29. ANS: A PTS: 1
30. ANS: A PTS: 1
31. ANS: A PTS: 1
32. ANS: D PTS: 1
33. ANS: B PTS: 1
34. ANS: A PTS: 1
35. ANS: D PTS: 1
36. ANS: C PTS: 1
37. ANS: C PTS: 1
38. ANS: C PTS: 1
39. ANS: C PTS: 1
40. ANS: A PTS: 1
41. ANS: B PTS: 1
42. ANS: A PTS: 1
43. ANS: B PTS: 1
44. ANS: A PTS: 1
45. ANS: A PTS: 1
46. ANS: A PTS: 1
47. ANS: C PTS: 1
48. ANS: C PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 4
OBJ: 3
49. ANS: A PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 4
OBJ: 1
50. ANS: D PTS: 1 DIF: 1 REF: 4
OBJ: 2

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