Alliance University Scholastic Aptitude Test

(AUSAT)
Undergraduate Programs – 2021

SCIENCE SET-1

Test instructions:

1. Duration: 90 minutes.

2. All Sections are compulsory.

3. Each question carries 1 mark. There is no negative marking.

4. Do not make use of calculators

5. Any form of malpractice will lead to instant disqualification.

 (GENERAL ENGLISH)

For the highlighted word/phrase in each statement find the best option from below

Q.1. The antonym for the word derangement is arrangement.

A. Simplicity
B. Sobriety
C. Lucidity
D. No improvement

Q.2. Hitler was the most infamous demagogue of the twentieth century.

A. demi-God
B. democrat
C. demic
D. No improvement

Q.3. A detachment of marines was sent in to reconnoiter before the main landing was to take
place.
A. attachment
B. announcement
C. demonstration
D. No improvement

Q. 4. Tree lights and icicles are often added as empowerment.

A. embalmment
B. embankment
C. embellishment
D. No improvement

Q.5. Laura’s digression on her childhood was barely noticed by her art history students, most
of whom were already asleep.
A. divergence
B. deviation
C. denouncement
D. No improvement

Q.6. Bulls and bears dissent from one another in their stock purchase plans.
A. diverge
B. differentiate
C. detach
D. No improvement

Q.7. The synonym for the word entrapment is ensnare.

A. snare
B. encroach
C. encounter
D. No improvement

Q.8. The synonym for the word imbecile is stupid.

A. smart
B. serious
C. sensitive
D. No improvement

Q.9. She coyly walked through the door.

A. coyily
B. coiyly
C. coyle
D. No improvement

Q.10 The epileptology of the outbreak of the Ebola virus in Africa has been studied very
carefully
A. epidemiology
B. embryology
C. spectrology
D. No improvement

Q.11. The dinner served on our flight from St. Louis was absolutely egregious.
A. horrendous
B. heinous
C. horrific
D. No improvement

Q.12. Some of the most effective stand-up comedians have built a career on flippancy.
A. piquancy
B. conspiracy
C. errancy
D. No improvement

Q.13. Destitution is a condition in which it is unenviable to find oneself.

A. Denigration
B. Demonetization
C. Dilapidation
D. No improvement

Q. 14. Chartreuse is a disease.

A. a colour
B. an animal
C. an exotic fruit
D. No improvement

Q. 15. Metaphor, unlike analogy, is a direct comparison between two dissimilar things.
A. Metaphor, like analogy, is an indirect
B. Simile, unlike analogy, is an indirect
C. Metaphor, like analogy, and simile are both direct
D. No improvement
 (COMPREHENSION)
Read the passages given below & answer the questions which follow:

PASSAGE 1 (answer the questions from 1 to 5)

A sanctuary may be defined as a place where Man is passive and the rest of Nature active.
Till quite recently Nature had her own sanctuaries, where man either did not go at all or only
as a tool-using animal in comparatively small numbers. But now, in this machinery age, there
is no place left where man cannot go with overwhelming forces at his command. He can
strangle to death all the nobler wildlife in the world to-day. To-morrow he certainly will have
done so, unless he exercises due foresight and self-control in the meantime.
 
There is not the slightest doubt that birds and mammals are now being killed off much faster
than they can breed. And it is always the largest and noblest forms of life that suffer most.
The whales and elephants, lions and eagles, go. The rats and flies, and all mean parasites,
remain. This is inevitable in certain cases. But it is wanton killing off that I am speaking of
to-night. Civilized man begins by destroying the very forms of wildlife he learns to
appreciate most when
he becomes still more civilized. The obvious remedy is to begin conservation at an earlier
stage, when it is easier and better in every way, by enforcing laws for close seasons, game
preserves, the selective protection of certain species, and sanctuaries.
 
I have just defined a sanctuary as a place where man is passive and the rest of Nature active.
But this general definition is too absolute for any special case. The mere fact that man has to
protect a sanctuary does away with his purely passive attitude. Then, he can be beneficially
active by destroying pests and parasites, like botflies or mosquitoes, and by finding antidotes
for diseases like the epidemic which periodically kills off the rabbits and thus starves many of
the carnivora to death. But, except in cases where experiment has proved his intervention to
be beneficial, the less he upsets the balance of Nature the better, even when he tries to be an
earthly Providence.
 
Q.1. The author implies that his first definition of a sanctuary is
a) Totally wrong
b) Somewhat idealistic
c) unhelpful
d) indefensible
 
 Q.2. The author’s argument that destroying botflies and mosquitoes would be a beneficial
action is most weakened by all of the following except
a) parasites have an important role to play in the regulation of populations
b) the elimination of any species can have unpredictable effects on the balance of nature
c) the pests themselves are part of the food chain
d) these insects have been introduced to the area by human activities

Q.3. It can be inferred that the passage is

a) part of an article in a scientific journal
b) extracted from the minutes of a nature club
c) part of a speech delivered to an educated audience
d) a speech delivered in a court of law
 
Q.4. What should be the most appropriate central idea of this passage
a) Author argues that man kills big animals but saves mosquitoes & other parasites.
b) Man is selfish by nature, so he is up against the wildlife which is harmful for his
survival
c) Ecological balance, if not maintained by man will be harmful in long run.
d) Author proposes a programme for not disturbing the balance of nature as it is
beneficial for mankind.
 
 Q.5 Tone of the Author as expressed in the passage can be best described
a. Descriptive to analytical
b. Sarcastically humorous
c. Objective to narrative
d. Sarcastically critical to suggestive

PASSAGE 2 ((answer the questions from 6 to 10)

A DARK NIGHT IT WAS ....

A dark, grim night it was
Filled with short sharp
barks I heard the yelping
dogs
Some leaves rustled in the dark.

Slowly and softly the wind

blew I felt the night was
gripping me. The sky was of
sombre grey hue I wanted to
set myself free.

I heard a song from

somewhere Perhaps a distant
hill
But tightly I closed my ears
The sweet voice had a frightening feel.

I suffered till I saw the light

The first ray of the morning sun
It wiped all fears of the previous
 night No more did I want to run

The morning brought

delight Happiness and
hope for me All doubts
were far from sight
The gripping fear had set me free.

6. The rustling of leaves and yelping of dogs added to the note of the dark
night.
a.tense b) depressing
c) joyous d) frightening

7. The poet felt bound in the shackles of .

a) darkness b) sadness
c) loneliness d) somberness

8. The of sun shed away all the fears of the poet.

a) dawn b) light
c) rays d) brightness

9. The morning brought joy and in the mind of the poet.

a) happiness b) excitement
c) hope d) pleasure

10. A word in the passage which means the same as ‘colour’.

a) ray b) hue
c) pale d) grey
 (GENERAL KNOWLEDGE)
1. Which of the following reigns was known as the Golden Age for Mathura school of art?
A. Indo-Greeks
B. Sakas
C. Kushanas
D. Gupta

2. According to Buddhist traditions, who was Charioteer of Buddha?

A. Channa
B. Kanthaka
C. Devdatta
D. Chunda

3. The Kushanas issues the coins made of ____________________?

1. Gold
2. Silver
3. Copper
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
A. Only 1
B. Only 1 & 2
C. Only 1 & 3
D. 1, 2 & 3

4. Vallabhi era is identical with which of the following era?

A. The Vikrama era
B. The Gupta era
C. The Harsha era
D. None of the above

5. Robert Bruce Foote, who discovered first Palaeolithic tools in India, was originally ___?
A. Palaeobotanist
B. Geologist
C. Archaeologist
D. Historian

6. Devichandraguptam, a play by Vishakhadatta, tells story about which of the following

rulers?
A. Sri Gupta
B. Ramagupta
C. Bhanugupta
D. Vishnugupta

7. In which year, Interim Government of India (Arzi Hukumat-i-Hind) was formed by Subhash
Chandra Bose?
 A. 1941
B. 1942
C. 1943
D. 1945

8. Which among the following was the first state in India in the pre-independence times,
when the compulsory primary education was launched for the first time?
A. Baroda
B. Arcot
C. Coorg
D. Hyderabad

9. The biographical memoir of A. O. Hume was written by __?

A. Sir William Wedderburn
B. Lord Dufferin
C. J. Charles
D. None of the above

10. In which year East India Company was brought under British parliamentary control?
A. 1773
B. 1793
C. 1813
D. 1833

11. The north-east trade winds cause which of the following in India?
A. Winter rains in north-western India
B. Winter Rains in Chennai
C. Dust storm in the Thar Desert
D. Inclement conditions in the Indian Himalayas

12. Amaravati, Arkavathy, Bhavani, Chinnar, Hemavati, Honnuhole, Kabini etc. are
tributaries of which among the following rivers?
A. Kaveri
B. Krishna
C. Godavari
D. Narmada

13. Zawar mines are located in which state:

A. Rajasthan
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Maharashtra

14. Which among the following tribes of India follow the unique matrilineal system in which
women enjoy a clear higher status than men?
1. Khasi
2. Jaintia
 3. Naga
4. Mizo
Select the correct option from the codes given below:
A. Only 1 & 2
B. Only 2 & 3
C. Only 1, 2 & 4
D. 1, 2, 3 & 4

15. Which among the following is not correctly matched?

A. Sukhna Lake – Chandigarh
B. Wandoor Beach – Andaman & Nicobar
C. Bangaram Beach – Lakshadweep
D. Devka Beach – Goa

16.The Woods dispatch of 1854 is related to which of the following?

A. Setting up of some universities in India
B. Introduction of the India Post
C. Abolition of the Sati
D. Establishment of Administration Services in India

17. Ishwar Chandra Vidyasagar was a great 19th Century Social Reformer who waged a
struggle for/against which of the following social cause?
A. Education of Women
B. Widow Remarriage
C. Abolition of Sati
D. Untouchability

18. Which Act abolished the East India Company and transferred the powers of the
government, territories and revenues to the British Crown?
A. Charter Act of 1853
B. Government of India Act, 1858
C. Indian Councils Act of 1861
D. Indian Councils Act of 1892

19. Which among the following is not among the ancient list of seven wonders of world?
A. Statue of Zeus at Olympia
B. Great Wall of China
C. Colossus of Rhodes
D. Taj Mahal

20. Who among the following was the first Indian to win an Olympic medal ?
A. K D Jadhav
B. P T Usha
C. Leander Paes
D. Dhyan Chand
 QUANTITAIVE APTITUDE

Q.1 What is the greatest number that will divide 1204, 3664, and 5904 leaving the same
remainder?
A. 15
B. 13
C. 20
D. 12
Q.2 Three numbers that are co-prime to each other are such that the product of the first two is 551
and that of the last two is 1073. The sum of the three numbers is:
A. 85
B. 45
C. 65
D. 75
Q.3 A number when divided by the sum of 555 and 445 gives two times their difference as
quotient and 30 as the remainder. The number is _________.
A. 220030
B. 22030
C. 1250
D. 1220
Q.4 If the diagonal of a square field is 16 m, what is its area?
A. 126 m2
B. 128 m2
C. 130 m2
D. 132 m2
Q.5 A man rows downstream at 20 km/hr and rows upstream at 15 km/hr. At what speed he can
row in still water?
A. 17.5 km/hr
B. 18 km/hr
C. 20.5 km/hr
D. 22 km/hr
Q.6 A, B, and C undertakes to do work for Rs 707. A, and B together do 5/7 of the work, and the
rest is done by C alone. How much should C get?
A. 100
B. 300
C. 205
D. 202
Q.7 In a 500 m race, the ratio of the speeds of two participants A and B is 3: 4. A has a start of
140 m. Then, A wins by
A. 60m
B. 40m
C. 20m
D. 10m
Q.8 On a certain sum of money, the compound interest Rs. 318 is earned in 2 years. If the rate of
interest is 12%, what is the principal amount?
A. Rs.1250
B. Rs.1300
C. Rs.1200
D. Rs.1150
Q.9 Sunil gave 40% of his wealth to his wife, 20% of the remaining amount to each of his three
sons, and 50% of the remaining was spent on various items. The remaining amount of Rs.
12000 was deposited in a bank account. How much money did Sunil have at the beginning?

A. Rs. 100000
B. Rs. 50000
C. Rs. 120000
D. None of the listed options
Q.10 In what ratio must tea at Rs. 62 per kg be mixed with tea at Rs. 72 per kg so that the mixture
is worth Rs. 64.50 per kg?
A. 3:1
B. 3:2
C. 4:3
D. 5:3
Q.11 Two pipes A and B can fill a tank in 20 and 30 minutes respectively. If both pipes are used,
the tank will be filled in _________ minutes
A. 15
B. 12
C. 25
D. 50
Q.12 A man on a train notices that he can count 21 poles in one minute. If the poles are 50
meters apart, then what is the speed of the train (in km/hr)?
A. 60
B. 55
C. 57
D. 63

Q.13 Two trains are moving in opposite directions at 60 km/hr and 90 km/hr. Their lengths are
1.10 km and 0.9 km respectively. The time taken by the slower train to cross the faster one
in seconds is
A. 36
B. 45
C. 48
D. 49

Q.14 At present, the ratio between the ages of Arun and Deepak is 4:3. After 6 years, Arun's age
will be 26 years. Then Deepak's presents age is _____ years
A. 8
B. 10
C. 12
D. 15

Q.15 26 January 1950 which day of the week?

A. Monday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Tuesday

Q.16 If (x/y) = (6/5), find the value (x2+y2)/(x2-y2)

A. 16/11
B. 11/16
C. 11/61
 D. 61/11

Q.17 A watch which gains uniformly is 2 minutes low at noon on Monday and is 4 min. 48 sec
fast at 2 p.m. on the following Monday. When was it correct?
A. 2 p.m. on Tuesday
B. 2 p.m. on Wednesday
C. 3 p.m. on Thursday
D. 1 p.m. on Friday

Q.18 In a class of 345 students, the students who took English, Math, and Science are equal in
number. There are 30 students who took both English and Math only, 26 who took both
Math and Science only, 28 who took Science and English only and 14 who took all the 3
subjects. There are 43 students who didn’t take any of the subjects. Answer the following
question according to the data given above.
What percent of students did not take Science?
A. Less than 55%
B. approx. 59%
C. 72%
D. 79%

Q.19 The certain worth of a certain sum due sometime hence is Rs. 1600 and the true discount is
Rs. 160. The banker's gain is:
A. Rs. 20
B. Rs. 24
C. Rs. 16
D. Rs. 12

Q.20 The average temperature of the town in the first four days of a month was 58 degrees. The
average for the second, third, fourth, and fifth days was 60 degrees. If the temperatures of
the first and fifth days were in the ratio 7: 8, then what is the temperature on the fifth day?
A. 62 degrees
B. 64 degrees
C. 65 degrees
D. 66 degrees
 LOGICAL REASONING

Q.1 Read the statements given below and derive the conclusion.
Statements:
No window is monkey.
All the monkeys are cats.
Conclusions:
1. No window is cat.
2. No cat is window.
3. Some cats are monkeys.
4. All the cats are monkeys.
A. Only 2 and 4
B. Only 1 and 3
C. Only 3 and 4
D. Only 3
Q.2 A man walks 5 km toward the south and then turns to the right. After walking 3 km he turns
to the left and walks 5 km. Now in which direction is he from the starting place?
A. West
B. South
C. North-East
D. South-West
Q.3 The relation between triangle, quadrilateral, and square can be best illustrated by which of the
following diagrams.

Q.4 Statements:
I. The prices of petrol and diesel in the domestic market have remained unchanged for the past
few months.
II. The crude oil prices in the international market have gone up substantially in the last few
months.
A. If statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect;
B. If statement II is the cause and statement, I is its effect;
C. If both the statements I and II are independent causes;
 D. If both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

Q.5 Select a suitable figure from the four alternatives that would complete the figure matrix

Q.6 Choose the box that is similar to the box formed from the given sheet of paper (X).

A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 4 only
C. 2 and 3 only
D. 1 and 4 only
Q.7 There are eight people in a family viz. M, K, A, C, D, E, G and H consists of 3 generations.
Four of them are female. D and A are the daughter and son of K respectively and both are
married. E is the sister of H whose father is C. M and G are of 3rd generation and M is the son-
 in-law of E. K is the brother-in-law of H. Who among the following is the sister-in-law of D?

A. A
B. M
C. G
D. H
Q.8 If ‘-’ means ‘+’, ‘+’ means ‘-’, ‘*’ means ‘÷’ and ‘÷’ means ‘*’ then which of the following
will be the correct equation?
A. 10 + 5 - 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 158
B. 30 + 5 + 14 - 10 * 15 = 122
C. 30 * 5 - 4 ÷ 10 + 15 = 31
D. 30 - 5 + 14 ÷ 10 * 15 = 162
Q.9 A, B, C, D, E, F and G are 7 friends sitting in a single row facing north
a. D is to the immediate right of C
b. E & A are neighbours of F
c. B is to the immediate left of C and on second place from left most end
d. A is at the right most end
Find who are neighbours of G?
A. B
B. C
C. D
D. E

Q.10 Read the passage and derive a conclusion:

Four thermal heaters A, B, C and D are used in the R & D department of Raliance chemicals Ltd.
Only one heater can be used on any day. If heater A is used on any day, neither A nor C can be used
the next day. If heater C is used on any day, neither C nor D can be used on the next day. If heater C
is used on any day, then A has to be used the next day. If heater D is used on any day, then B has to be
used the next day.
If heater D is used on the third day and different heaters are used on the first and fourth day,
which heater is used on the first day?
A. D
B. A
C. B
D. C

Q.11 Mark your answer as per the codes provided below:

Assertion (A): When lightning strikes, the sound is heard a little after the flash is seen.
Reason (R): The velocity of light is greater than that of the sound.
A. A is true but R is false.
B. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
C. A is false but R is true
D. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
 Q.12 Select the figure which satisfies the same conditions of placement of the dots as in Figure-X.

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Q.13 Statement: "Fly with us and experience the pleasure of flying."- An advertisement by an
airline.
Assumptions:
I. More passengers may be attracted to travel by airline after reading the advertisement.
II. People generally may prefer an enjoyable flight.
III. Other airlines may not be offering the same facilities.

A. None is implicit
B. Only I is implicit
C. Only II is implicit
D. None of these

Q.14 Pointing to a photograph, a man said, "I have no brother, and that man's father is my father's
son." Whose photograph was it?
A. His son
B. His own
C. His father
D. His nephew
Q.15 You are passing by a river and you know swimming. Suddenly, you hear the cry of a
drowning child. You would:
A. wait to see if some other person is there to help
B. look for professional divers
C. console the child’s parents.
D. dive into the river to save him.
Study the following table and answer the questions from 16 to 20.
Expenditure of a company per annum over the given years
Year Item of Expenditure
salar Fuel and Transport Bonu Interest on Loans Taxe
y s s
1998 288 98 3.00 23.4 83
1999 342 112 2.52 32.5 108
2000 324 101 3.84 41.6 74
2001 336 133 3.68 36.4 88
2002 420 142 3.96 49.4 98

Q.16 What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this
period?
A. 32.43
B. 33.72
C. 34.18
D. 36.66
Q.17 The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately
what percent of the total amount of salary paid during this period?
A. 0.1%
B. 0.5%
C. 1.0%
D. 1.25 %
Q.18 Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total
expenditure in 2002?
A. 62%
B. 66%
C. 69%
D. 71%
Q.19 The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?
A. 544.44
B. 501.11
C. 446.46
D. 478.87

Q.20 The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on
Fuel and Transport for all the years respectively is approximately?
A. 4: 7
B. 10: 13
C. 15: 18
D. 5: 8
 SCIENCE

Physics

Q.1 The amplitude of a damped oscillator decreases to 0.9 times its original magnitude in 5s. In
another 10s it will decrease to α times its original magnitude, where α equals:
A. 0.7
B. 0.6
C. 0.81
D. 0.729
Q.2 The typical size of nano particle is _____
A. 1 cm
B. 1 mm
C. 1nm
D. 1km
Q.3 The flow of water from waterfalls is _______
A. laminar flow
B. Turbulence flow
C. Ideal fluid
D. Fluid under equilibrium
Q.4 The mass number of a nucleus is
A. always less than its atomic number
B. always more than its atomic number
C. equal to its atomic number
D. sometimes more than and sometimes equal to its atomic number
Q.5 Combine three resistors 5, 4.5 and 3 in such way the total resistance of this combination
is maximum
A. 12.5
B. 13.5
C. 14.5
D. 16.5

Mathematics

Q.6 Express 144o into radians

A. 5π/4
B. 4π/5
C. 3π/4
D. 4π/3
Q.7 What is the value of log 2 √ 2 64
A. 2
B. 4
C. 1/2
 D. 16

Q.8 Find the value of |31 −26 |

A. 16
B. 20
C. 0
D. -20
Q.9 The focus of the parabola y2=16 x is at
A. (0,4)
B. (4,0)
C. (3,0)
D. (0,3)
Q.10 An earth satellite has an apogee of 40,000 km and a perigee of 6,600 km. Assuming the
radius of the earth as 6,400 km, what will be the eccentricity of the elliptical path described
by the satellite with the centre of the earth at one of the foci?
A. 0.46
B. 0.49
C. 0.52
D. 0.56
Chemistry
Q.11 The major component used in preparation of different types of glasses is
A. Sodium borate
B. Sodium silicate
C. Silica
D. Calcium silicate
Q.12 Conduction band electrons have more mobility than holes because they are
A. experience collision more frequently
B. experience collision less frequently
C. have negative charge
D. need less energy to move them

Q.13 What is the major product of this reaction?

A.

B.

C.

D.
Q.14 The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving cell reaction with n = 2 is formed to be 0.295 V
at 25° C. The equilibrium constant of the reaction would be: [Given F = 96500 (mol -1); R =
8.314 JK-1 mol-1]
A. 1.0 × 1010
B. 2.0 × 1011
C. 4.0 × 1012
D. 1.0 × 102
Q.15 The chemical composition of ‘slag’ formed during the melting process in the extraction of
copper is
A. Cu2O + FeS
B. FeSiO3
C. CuFeS2
D. Cu2S + FeO