SHSAT+Handbook+2017 2018

2017-2018
HIGH
SCHOOLS Fiorello H. LaGuardia High School
of Music & Art and Performing Arts
STUDENT
The Bronx High School of Science
The Brooklyn Latin School
Brooklyn Technical High School
HANDBOOK High School for Mathematics,

Science and Engineering
at the City College of New York
High School of American Studies
at Lehman College
Queens High School
for the Sciences at York College
Staten Island Technical High School
Stuyvesant High School
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schools.nyc.gov/SHS
ABOUT THE COVER

Student: Kiara Rosa | Teacher: Carl Landegger | Principal: Matthew Tossman
Each year, the NYC Department of Education and Cooper Hewitt, Smithsonian
Design Museum partner on a cover design competition for public high school
students. This directory’s cover was designed by Kiara Rosa, a student at Manhattan
Early College School for Advertising. For more information, including how to enter
next year’s competition, ask your art teacher or visit schools.nyc.gov/CoverDesign.
It is the policy of the New York City Department of Education to provide equal educational opportunities without regard to actual
or perceived race, color, religion, age, creed, ethnicity, national origin, alienage, citizenship status, disability, weight, gender (sex)
or sexual orientation, and to maintain an environment free of harassment on the basis of any of these grounds, including sexual
harassment or retaliation. Inquiries regarding compliance with appropriate laws may be directed to: Director, Office of Equal
Opportunity, 65 Court Street, Room 1102, Brooklyn, New York 11201. Telephone 718-935-3320.
2
CONTENTS
MESSAGE TO STUDENTS AND PARENTS/GUARDIANS. . . . 4 SECTION 5: SHSAT DESCRIPTION & MATERIALS

Changes to SHSAT Test Design . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
SECTION 1: THE SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS English Language Arts Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
The Bronx High School of Science . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Mathematics Section . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
The Brooklyn Latin School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5 Test Materials . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
Brooklyn Technical High School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6 SHSAT Test Design for 2017 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
High School for Mathematics, Science and Engineering SHSAT Testing Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 19
at the City College of New York . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6 Arriving at the Test Site . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20
High School of American Studies at Lehman College . . . . . . 7 Filling in the Answer Sheet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21
Queens High School for the Sciences at York College . . . . . . 7 Student Misconduct . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
Staten Island Technical High School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8 Claims of Testing Irregularities . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
Stuyvesant High School . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8 SHSAT Scoring . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
Fiorello H. LaGuardia High School of Music & Art Review Procedures . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
and Performing Arts . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9 Discovery Program . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24
SECTION 2: SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS SECTION 6: SHSAT USEFUL TIPS FOR TESTING
ADMISSIONS TEST (SHSAT) DATES AND LOCATIONS
Before Test Day . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25
Test Dates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
Day of the Test . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25
Alternate Test Date . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10
Specific Strategies: English Language Arts . . . . . . . . . . . . . 26
Test Locations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
Specific Strategies: Mathematics . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33
Test Results . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
SAMPLE SHSAT TESTS

SECTION 3: FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL
General Directions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 36
OF MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS AUDITIONS
Sample Answer Sheet, Form A . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 38
Audition Dates . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12
Sample Test, Form A . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40
Audition Exceptions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12
Explanations of Correct Answers for Sample Test, Form A . . 74
Auditions for Students New to New York City . . . . . . . . . . . . 12
Sample Answer Sheet, Form B . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 91
Admissions Process . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12
Sample Test, Form B . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 92
Registering for LaGuardia High School Auditions . . . . . . . . . 13
Explanations of Correct Answers for Sample Test, Form B . 127
Audition Information for Each Studio . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Sample Math Problems for Grade 9 Students . . . . . . . . . . 143
Explanations of Correct Answers for Sample Grade 9
SECTION 4: APPLYING TO THE SPECIALIZED Math Problems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 147
HIGH SCHOOLS
Practice Grid-In Mathematics Questions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 149
Steps in the Application Process . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
Testing Accommodations on the SHSAT . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16
Testing Accommodations for LaGuardia High School
Auditions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
Confirming Testing Accommodations for the SHSAT and
LaGuardia High School Auditions . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
Opting Out of Testing Accommodations . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
Students with Extended Time Who Finish the Test Before
the End of the Extended Time Period . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18
Emergency Testing and/or Audition Accommodations . . . . . 18
Building Accessibility . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18
3
MESSAGE TO STUDENTS AND PARENTS/GUARDIANS ABOUT
SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS

This 2017-2018 Specialized High Schools Student Handbook contains useful information, including:
Specialized High School admission procedures
Registration for the Specialized High Schools Admissions Test (SHSAT) and Fiorello H. LaGuardia
High School of Music & Art and Performing Arts (LaGuardia High School) auditions
Confirming testing accommodations for SHSAT and LaGuardia High School auditions
Calendar of important dates
Sample SHSAT tests with test-taking tips
There are nine Specialized High Schools in New York City. They are:
FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL OF MUSIC & ART

AND PERFORMING ARTS
ADMISSIONS
Dance Drama
DETERMINED
BY AUDITION(S) Instrumental Music Technical Theater
Fine Arts Vocal Music
THE BRONX HIGH SCHOOL OF SCIENCE
THE BROOKLYN LATIN SCHOOL
BROOKLYN TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL

HIGH SCHOOL FOR MATHEMATICS, SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING
ADMISSIONS
AT THE CITY COLLEGE OF NEW YORK
DETERMINED
BY SHSAT HIGH SCHOOL OF AMERICAN STUDIES AT LEHMAN COLLEGE
QUEENS HIGH SCHOOL FOR THE SCIENCES AT YORK COLLEGE
STATEN ISLAND TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL
STUYVESANT HIGH SCHOOL
These schools were established under New York State Law 2590 – Section G. Entrance into these
schools is determined by the SHSAT, except for LaGuardia High School, which is based on a
competitive audition and review of academic records. Students must be residents of New York City
and current eighth grade or first-time ninth grade students in order to apply, register, sit for, and
receive results for the Specialized High Schools Admissions Test (SHSAT) and LaGuardia High School
audition(s).
For updates concerning Specialized High School admissions, please visit:

schools.nyc.gov/shs
The Specialized High Schools Student Handbook is a project of the New York City Department of Education.
4
THE SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS SECTION
11
THE BRONX HIGH SCHOOL OF SCIENCE academic disciplines that students use as a foundation for
deeper exploration in the upper grades. Widely regarded
75 West 205th Street, Bronx, New York 10468
around the world as the most rigorous and comprehensive
Phone: (718) 817-7700 ■ Website: www.bxscience.edu
course of study at the high school level, the International
Email: [email protected]
Baccalaureate (IB) Programme is integral to the TBLS
Overview: The Bronx High School of Science educates an curriculum. In all classes, students experience a strong and
academically gifted community of learners through a rigorous consistent emphasis on structured writing and public speaking,
Science, Technology, Engineering, and Mathematics (STEM) as well as numerous opportunities for analytical thinking, which
curriculum. All academic disciplines are taught through the lens prepares them for the challenges of college work.
of inquiry to emphasize critical thinking and problem solving.
The school cultivates a diverse community of lifelong learners Academic program: All students are required to complete
who discover their passions through a collaborative and four years of study in Latin, history, mathematics, English, and
supportive network of students, educators, and alumni. Utilizing science, at least two years of a world language, and one year
a balance of theoretical and applied learning, students explore of art history. Many of our classes feature public speaking
complex problems and have access to a rich offering of exercises such as Declamation and Socratic Seminars, as well
resources to develop solutions. Drawing upon a long tradition of as oral presentations of scientific labs and mathematical
academic success, the Bronx High School of Science prepares problem sets. In addition, many of our classes feature writing
students to flourish in the best colleges and universities. The exercises such as science lab reports, Spanish portfolios and
school creates the leaders and visionaries of the future. Included essays, math modeling papers and Latin sight translations.
among the school’s alumni are eight Nobel Prize winners and six The IB Programme’s emphasis on student-led inquiry, global
Pulitzer Prize winners. perspectives, international mindedness, and personal integrity
conform perfectly with the ideals on which the school was
Academic program: The Bronx High School of Science offers founded. In addition to rigorous class work, IB emphasizes
30 Advanced Placement (AP) courses and many post-AP independent thinking and community engagement. In order to
courses (second-year college courses). The school offers seven earn the IB Diploma, students are expected to complete an
foreign languages, numerous electives in biology, chemistry, independent research project that culminates in a 4,000-word
physics, mathematics, technology, the humanities, music and a essay paper on a subject of choice, a task which correlates
three-year independent research course in STEM or social closely to college-level research writing. They are required to
science. Students may also select sequences in computer take a two year epistemology course called Theory of
science and engineering that emphasize hands-on applications Knowledge (TOK) that challenges students to consider the
of scientific principles. The school’s website provides full course ways knowledge is constructed, and which culminates in a
descriptions. final research paper and presentation. In addition, students
are required to engage in activities involving creativity, service,
Extracurricular activities: Extracurricular activities include and reflection over an 18-month period. Creativity, action,
over 70 after-school clubs, 43 athletic teams, an internationally and service (CAS) may include volunteering or engaging
acclaimed speech and debate team, mock trial team, two meaningfully with the TBLS community and the larger
robotics teams, two theatrical productions, S!NG, a newspaper community. These requirements of the IB Diploma help our
and yearbook, and scholarly journals. students become well-rounded citizens of the world.
2017 Admissions: 19,198 students listed Bronx Science as a Extracurricular activities: To provide enrichment for students
choice on the SHSAT, and 941 offers were made. outside of the classroom, and to facilitate the completion of
their CAS requirements, TBLS currently supports over 40
extracurricular activities, including athletic teams such as
THE BROOKLYN LATIN SCHOOL coed cross country, badminton and soccer, boys and girls
223 Graham Avenue, Brooklyn, New York 11206 basketball, boys wrestling, and girls volleyball clubs; fine and
Phone: (718) 366-0154 ■ Website: www.brooklynlatin.org performing arts offerings like studio art, photography, literary
Email: [email protected] magazine, dance, and a cappella; and various other groups
such as the school newspaper, STOKED, Math Club, Science
Overview: Modeled after the prestigious Boston Latin school
Olympiad, Model United Nations, Law Club, and many more.
and founded in 2006, The Brooklyn Latin School (TBLS)
provides a liberal arts curriculum, with an emphasis on the 2017 Admissions: 16,621 students listed The Brooklyn Latin
Classics and Latin language instruction. Early instruction School as a choice on the SHSAT, and 425 offers were made.
emphasizes the acquisition of core knowledge of the key
5
THE SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS continued...
BROOKLYN TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL HIGH SCHOOL FOR MATHEMATICS,

29 Fort Greene Place, Brooklyn, New York 11217 SCIENCE AND ENGINEERING AT
Phone: (718) 804-6400 ■ Website: www.bths.edu THE CITY COLLEGE OF NEW YORK
Email: [email protected] 240 Convent Avenue, New York, New York 10031
Overview: With over 5,500 students, Brooklyn Technical High Phone: (212) 281-6490 ■ Website: www.hsmse.org
School (Brooklyn Tech) is the largest public high school devoted Email: [email protected]
to science, technology, engineering, and mathematics (STEM). Overview: Founded in September 2002, The High School for
Housed in a state-of-the-art physical plant reborn for the 21st Mathematics, Science and Engineering (HSMSE) at The City
century, the school is a national model for excellence and a College of New York (CCNY) provides a unique and unparalleled
stimulating environment that fosters transformational education collaborative educational experience. The school’s mission is to
and personal growth. With modern technology at its core and encourage students to develop the habits of inquiry, written and
labs and classrooms on par with university and industry verbal expression, and critical thinking. HSMSE enrolls
standards, Brooklyn Tech serves as a vibrant intellectual arena approximately 450 students, drawn from all five boroughs, making
for faculty and students to explore and embrace the ideas, it one of the most ethnically diverse schools in New York City. The
technology, and instructional methods that will truly shape the academically rigorous learning environment focuses on
future. Graduates go on to the finest colleges and universities. mathematics, science, and engineering, while emphasizing civic
They are found in every facet of society. Graduates invented the responsibility and the value of acquiring knowledge for its own
digital camera, contributed to the development of the internet, intrinsic reward. HSMSE faculty work together regularly to plan
and helped put man on the moon. They are innovators and lessons, develop curricula, and share best practices. Their deep
entrepreneurs. Brooklyn Tech graduates have won Nobel prizes professional and personal experiences enrich the learning
and occupy prominent positions in industries, engineering firms, community; many faculty members have earned doctorates, and
corporations, government, academia, and research institutions. all have advanced degrees. Many have distinguished themselves in
business, engineering, and other fields prior to becoming teachers.
Academic program: In the ninth grade, all students take the
Design and Drawing for Production class which is a foundation HSMSE has staff who conduct individual and group counseling
course through Project Lead the Way. This class immerses sessions regularly, and coordinate the Big Sib / Little Sib
students in the design process, from brainstorming to Program that connect upperclassmen to serve as peer mentors
prototyping through 3D printing. Students use industry standard to underclassmen. Through a partnership with The New York
3D modeling software (Autodesk Inventor) to complete both Foundling, HSMSE has a Health and Wellness Center with a full-
individual and team-oriented projects. During the 10th grade, all time mental health clinician. HSMSE sponsors workshops that
students take AP Principles of Computer Science. In the 11th have an overall theme and industry partners, who provide
and 12th grades, Brooklyn Tech students choose one of the different speakers from different departments to offer a
following major areas of concentration: Aerospace, Architecture, comprehensive perspective of a particular job or company.
Biological Sciences, Chemistry, Civil Engineering, College Prep, Students who participate can apply for summer research,
Finance, Electrical Engineering, Environmental Science, Gateway apprenticeship, and/or employment opportunities in the
to Medicine, Industrial Design, Law & Society, Mathematics, partnering company.
Mechatronics & Robotics, Media & Digital Animation, Physics,
Social Science Research, or Software Engineering. In addition, Academic program: HSMSE faculty plan lessons that include
the school offers unique electives in performance-based music, student discussion and cooperative learning to develop and
competitive mathematics, and research opportunities. improve problem-solving skills. All students take four years of
math and science courses. Core classes meet every other day
Extracurricular activities: Brooklyn Tech’s unparalleled learning for 90 minutes, allowing time to engage in hands-on activities
environment is enriched with 43 PSAL teams and more than 120 and in-depth discussions. Students attend a 45-minute elective
activities and clubs. Partners in industry and higher education, as enrichment course daily; course options include: Gastronomy,
well as an active alumni community help sustain the level of Astronomy, Microsoft Office User Certification, Art, Poetry
excellence through classroom enrichment, mentoring, Writing, Jazz Band, and Classical Guitar. There are three major
internships, and more. concentrations that students select from in the spring of their
sophomore year: Mathematics, Mount Sinai Medical Biomedical
2017 Admissions: 23,329 students listed Brooklyn Tech as a
Research Program, or Engineering. HSMSE has the largest
choice on the SHSAT, and 1,923 offers were made.
German Language program in New York State. College credit
courses are offered in multiple ways: Advanced Placement
6
courses are offered to all, and City University of New York film, foreign languages, history, and the arts. A special
(CUNY) courses are offered to eligible students through the component of our program focuses on the development of
CCNY partnership and the CUNY College Now program. At college-level research skills and methodologies, and students are
HSMSE, we strive to educate the whole child; therefore, in therefore supported by school and college faculty in the process
addition to stellar academic support services, HSMSE offers a of pursuing individualized research projects. Through our
Health and Wellness Center with a full-time mental health collaboration with Lehman College, students have access to its
clinician to meet the socio-emotional needs of our students, too. campus library and athletic facilities and take credit-bearing
college classes and seminars in their junior and senior years.
Extracurricular activities: CCNY’s Baskerville Hall faces the
college quad, giving students green space in which to eat lunch, Extracurricular activities: After school, students may participate
socialize, and relax on sunny days. Students may participate in a in a wide variety of clubs, join one of the school's many athletic
wide variety of extracurricular activities and PSAL sports after teams, and take part in competitive activities, such as moot court,
school, including Junior Statesmen of America, EatNYC, Euro- mock trial, debate, and Model UN.
Challenge, Fed-Challenge, Science Olympiad, Robotics Club,
and the Key Club International. Additionally, HSMSE offers ping- 2017 Admissions: 16,737 students listed HSAS at Lehman
pong, volleyball, dance, cheerleading, and Strategy Games clubs. College as a choice on the SHSAT, and 146 offers were made.
HSMSE students compete in national competitions, sponsored
by the Goethe Institute and American Association of Teachers of
German, for study abroad opportunities to Germany. Every year, QUEENS HIGH SCHOOL FOR THE
at least one HSMSE student competes successfully enough to SCIENCES AT YORK COLLEGE
earn two weeks free travel to Germany. During the school year, 94-50 159th Street, Jamaica, New York 11433
HSMSE sponsors trips to colleges such as Boston College, Phone: (718) 657-3181 ■ Website: www.qhss.org
Massachusetts Institute of Technology, Princeton, Brown, and Email: [email protected]
University of Michigan.
Overview: Queens High School for the Sciences at York College
2017 Admissions: 18,863 students listed HSMSE at CCNY as a is dedicated to providing a rigorous curriculum in collaboration
choice on the SHSAT, and 199 offers were made. with York College that emphasizes the sciences and
mathematics. The school philosophy is students are more
successful when nurtured in a small learning community. The
HIGH SCHOOL OF AMERICAN STUDIES school mission is to develop a community of diligent learners
AT LEHMAN COLLEGE and independent thinkers who are inspired to attain academic
excellence and prepare them for the competitive environment
2925 Goulden Avenue, Bronx, New York 10468 and challenges of higher education.
Phone: (718) 329-2144 ■ Website: www.hsas-lehman.org
Email: [email protected] Academic program: In line with offering small-sized classes for
Overview: The High School of American Studies at Lehman standard high school courses (such as English, Social Studies,
College (HSAS) emphasizes the study of American History and Science, and Mathematics), the school offers a wide range of
offers students a well-rounded academic program that aims to elective courses in all academic subjects, as well as art, music,
prepare students for admission to highly competitive colleges and and language. Advanced Placement courses, including Biology,
for a range of careers in politics, law, journalism, business, science, Calculus AB, Calculus BC, Chemistry, Chinese, English Language
mathematics, and the arts. In all endeavors, HSAS seeks to and Composition, Environmental Science, Physics 1, Spanish,
encourage in students a love for learning and an inquisitive spirit. U.S. History, and World History, are available to those who qualify.
Students also have the opportunity to enroll in City University of
Academic program: All students engage in a three-year New York (CUNY) College Now courses, such as Biology,
chronological study of American History. Our aim is to make Sociology, Health Services, Nutrition and Health, Pre-Calculus,
history come alive through the use of primary source documents, and Psychology. Course offerings vary from year to year. Besides
films, biographies, literature, and creative teaching techniques. offering nurturing, small classes, students are further supported
Supported by the Gilder-Lehrman Institute, students gain first- with tutoring by teachers and honors students. School counselors
hand knowledge of the key events in American history through support and assist students in all areas of concern, especially the
trips to sites and cities of historic importance and through selection of and application to colleges.
participation in special seminars with guest speakers. We also
offer honors-level, Advanced Placement, and elective courses in Extracurricular activities: Since the school is located on the
mathematics, science, constitutional and criminal law, literature, campus of York College, students enjoy state-of-the-art facilities
7
such as the College’s library, gymnasium, pool, theater, and Partnerships with CUNY College Now, SUNY University in the
cafeteria/food court throughout their high school career. A High School, St. John’s University College Advantage and the
variety of clubs (determined by student suggestion and staff College of St. Rose provide students with the opportunity to
capacity) are available to all students, including Model UN, earn and graduate with 15 to 60 college credits.
Amnesty International, chess, Sigma sorority, philosophy,
basketball, Key Club, and many others. Boys and Girls Extracurricular activities: The extracurricular program features
Swimming, Girls Bowling, and Coed Tennis and Handball over 100 afterschool clubs and activities (e.g., robotics, debate,
comprise the school’s athletic teams. Science/ Russian Olympiad) and 46 PSAL teams. The Student
Organization, National Honor Society and Junior Statesmen of
2017 Admissions: 16,402 students listed Queens High School America serve as the pipeline for our student leaders, while
for the Sciences at York College as a choice on the SHSAT, and students interested in the arts can participate in nine different
179 offers were made. bands, including jazz, marching band and ensembles, as well as
theatrical productions.
STATEN ISLAND TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL 2017 Admissions: 15,278 students listed Staten Island Technical
High School as a choice on the SHSAT, and 339 offers were
485 Clawson Street, Staten Island, New York 10306 made.
Phone: (718) 667-3222 ■ Website: www.siths.org
Overview: Staten Island Technical High School’s college STUYVESANT HIGH SCHOOL
preparatory curriculum provides a robust liberal arts curriculum
345 Chambers Street, New York, New York 10282-1099
that includes courses in Science, Technology, Engineering, Arts,
Phone: (212) 312-4800 ■ Website: www.stuy.edu
and Mathematics (STEAM), and a cutting edge Career and
Technical Education (CTE) program. All 9th grade students
participate in the highly innovative 1:1 Digital Education Initiative. Overview: Stuyvesant High School’s mission is to provide
Over 60% of the faculty members teach Advanced Placement students with a rigorous curriculum that nurtures and rewards
(AP) and other college level courses. their intellectual curiosity. Although Stuyvesant is historically
recognized for its strengths in math, science, and technology
Academic program: Students advance beyond the core instruction, the school also has a dynamic and diverse
curriculum by taking four years of mathematics and a wide array Humanities program, as well as unique educational
of STEAM, AP, and Dual-Enrollment courses in all subject opportunities outside the classroom.
areas, along with the option of participating in the Science &
Engineering Research Program, in which students compete in Academic program: The school’s enriched curriculum includes
the NYC Science and Engineering Fair, Intel Science Talent required courses for graduation and also affords its students the
Search, Google, and Quality of Life competitions. All ninth grade opportunity to take many advanced courses and electives in
students take an Intensive Writing course and College Board’s various subjects. These course selections include Research,
Common Core-aligned SpringBoard English Language Arts Multivariate Calculus, Organic Chemistry, Existentialism, and Wall
curriculum, which prepares all students for AP Language and Street, in addition to a wide array of Advanced Placement
AP Literature and Composition curricula. All students graduate courses.
with at least two or three AP Social Studies courses and take
Extracurricular activities: The school is proud of its 45 PSAL
three years of Russian language. There is an optional fourth-
sports teams and extensive extracurricular activities such as
year of a second language offered in Mandarin, Latin, German,
Robotics, Math Team, Speech and Debate, Science Olympiad,
French, Italian or Spanish via a blended learning program.
chess, Model UN, and Junior State of America. There are a
The Pre-Engineering STEAM program features Robotics, number of major publications, over 190 student-run clubs, and
AutoCAD, Digital-Analog Electronics, TV Studio Engineering, IT an active student government. Students interested in music
Mouse Squad, and Computer Science courses as well as an may participate in symphonic band, symphony orchestra, jazz
extensive Work Based Learning (WBL) College and Career band, and a number of choral groups, as well as join the
Exploration sequence featuring career talks, job shadowing, Stuyvesant Theater Community, which presents three major
career and college fairs, as well as internships. All students productions yearly, including a musical, drama, and comedy.
participate in the Pre-Engineering STEAM program.
2017 Admissions: 22,393 students listed Stuyvesant High
School as a choice on the SHSAT, and 926 offers were made.
8
FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL Opera production. Students also have the opportunity to
OF MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS compose, conduct, and perform original repertoire.
100 Amsterdam Avenue, New York, New York 10023 Each studio requires a substantial time commitment after
Phone: (212) 496-0700 ■ Website: www.laguardiahs.org school, in addition to multiple periods of study during the
Email: [email protected] school day. Requirements include, but are not limited to,
The Fiorello H. LaGuardia High School of Music & Art and rehearsals and performances, as well as the practical
Performing Arts enjoys an international reputation as the first application of technical theater and gallery management
and foremost high school committed to nurturing students techniques. Longer school days are expected during
dedicated to the arts. LaGuardia High School’s dual mission performance times, and students are required to be present
provides a uniquely balanced educational experience that and participate in program-related, after-school performances
includes both demanding conservatory-style training and a and activities. Upon successful completion of graduation
rigorous, comprehensive academic program. requirements, studio coursework, and examinations, students
may receive the Chancellor's Arts Endorsement.
Studio Programs: Students in the Dance program study ballet
and modern dance; supplementary courses include Auditions will be held at the LaGuardia High School campus in
professional skills, dance history, choreography, theater dance Manhattan. Students must register for auditions with their
(tap and jazz), career management, and repertory. Students in school counselors. See pages 12-14 for LaGuardia High School
the Drama program focus on theater preparation through audition information.
courses in acting, voice and diction, physical techniques,
Academic Program: LaGuardia High School students exceed
theater history, musical theater, acting on film, and script
the NYC Department of Education's College and Career
analysis. Students in the Fine Arts program receive the first
Readiness Benchmarks. These benchmarks, as outlined by
two years of training in traditional and foundational skills and
the DOE, define the qualities and achievements that students
media. These include, but are not limited to, drawing, painting
need to complete in order to be ready to enroll, persist, and
in water-based media, graphic design, and painting in oils and
succeed in college, postsecondary training opportunities, and
acrylics. After taking the core art courses, students round out
gain entry into meaningful careers. The school’s rigorous
their arts education with advanced courses in the subjects
academic program includes required courses for graduation,
listed above and with other elective offerings, such as
CUNY College Credit Bearing Courses, as well as over 23
architecture, art history, ceramics, computer graphics, mural
Advanced Placement (AP) courses in the following subjects:
painting, photography, print making, and sculpture. Students in
Art History; Biology; Calculus AB and BC; Chemistry;
the Technical Theater program receive practical training in
Computer Science Principles; English Language; English
scenic carpentry, lighting technology, costume construction,
Literature; Environmental Science; Government & Politics;
sound properties, stage management, technical drawing, and
Human Geography; Language and Culture in Italian, French,
design. Upon successful completion of this program, students
and Spanish; Music Theory; Physics; Psychology; Statistics;
may receive a Career and Technical Education (CTE) endorsed
Studio Art Drawing and 2-D; US History; and World History.
diploma. Technical Theater students participate in both the
production and the performance aspects for various LaGuardia Students complete this course load in addition to their studio
High School events. Students in the Instrumental Music majors.
program study sight singing, music theory, and music history.
The Instrumental Music Studio performing groups include Extracurricular activities: Students actively engage in 23
Senior Orchestra, Junior Orchestra, Intermediate Orchestra, PSAL sports teams and an extensive array of extracurricular
Elementary Orchestra, Senior Band, Junior Band, Intermediate activities such as Math Team, Speech and Debate, Science
Band, Senior Jazz Band, Junior Jazz Band, and two Pit Olympiad, Chess, and ARCHON and ARISTA Honor Societies.
Orchestras. Students in the Vocal Music Studio program Students participate in over 50 student-run clubs and student
study sight-singing, music theory, and music history. Studio government.
performing groups include Elementary, Mixed, Girls, Women’s,
and Senior Choruses. In voice classes, students receive 2017 Admissions: 1,285 students received one or more offers
training in Italian, German, and French vocal literature. Both to the programs at LaGuardia High School from a pool of
Vocal and Instrumental Music elective courses include 10,849 students who registered for an audition.
Chamber Music, Guitar, Soundlab Recording Studio, Music
Technology, New Music Ensemble, Show Choir, Solo Voice,
Audition Preparation, Gospel Choir, Piano, Songwriting, and an
9
22
SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS TEST
SHSAT DATES AND LOCATIONS SECTION
A
ll eligible current 8th and first-time 9th grade students in public, private, and parochial schools applying to one or more
of New York City’s Specialized High Schools (with the exception of LaGuardia High School) must take the SHSAT.
Approximately 28,000 students took the SHSAT for September 2017 admission.
Students interested in taking the SHSAT should speak with their school counselor during the registration period.
Students will be issued a Test Ticket, which will indicate the date, time, and location assigned to the student for testing.
Students must test on the date and at the location assigned. Testing locations are specified on page 11, and students are assigned
to a test site based on the geographic district in which the student’s school is located. Conflicts should be reported to the student's
school counselor prior to the test date.
September 7 – October 12, 2017 October 18, 2017

Registration Period Test Tickets available for distribution
Students register for the SHSAT and LaGuardia High
School audition(s) with school counselors.
TEST DATES (For locations, see page 11)

Saturday, October 21, 2017
■ All current 8th grade students
Sunday, October 22, 2017
■ All current 9th grade students

■ 8th and 9th grade students who are English Language Learners or students with Sunday, October 29, 2017
disabilities who have Individualized Education Programs (IEPs) or 504 Plans that
include testing accommodations.* Saturday, November 4, 2017
■ Make-up test requests
■ Students new to New York City (Records must show that student arrived in
End of summer 2018
NYC after the November test.)
ALTERNATE TEST DATE

■ Students must notify their school counselors within the registration period if they require a test date that does not conflict
with a Saturday or Sunday religious observance. If a student’s Test Ticket does not indicate an appropriate date, the student
should speak to his/her school counselor so that the ticket can be modified.
■ If a student is ill and unable to take the test on a scheduled date, the student must immediately notify their school counselor
upon return to school, present medical documentation, and request that the school counselor provide a make-up testing
date.
■ Documentation is required to confirm a valid make-up request. School counselors must submit requests with required
documentation by October 25 for the October 29 test and by November 1 for the November 4 test.
*More information about eligible English Language Learners and former English Language Learners is on page 16.
10
SHSAT DATES AND LOCATIONS continued...
TEST LOCATIONS
Grade 8 and 9
students attending
schools in: TESTING SITE ADDRESS
Manhattan Stuyvesant 345 Chambers Street, New York, NY 10282 Tel: (212) 312-4800
High School Subways: 1, 2, 3, A, C, E to Chambers Street; R to City Hall
Buses: M20, M22, M5, M9, X1, X10
Bronx The Bronx 75 West 205 Street, Bronx, NY 10468 Tel: (718) 817-7700
High School Subways: 4, to Bedford Park Boulevard-Lehman College; B, D to
of Science Bedford Park Boulevard
Buses: Bx1, Bx10, Bx2, Bx22, Bx26, Bx28, Bx3
Brooklyn Districts Brooklyn 29 Fort Greene Place, Brooklyn, NY 11217 Tel: (718) 804-6400
13, 14, 15, 16, 19, Technical Subways: 2, 3, 4, 5 to Nevins Street, A to Hoyt & Schermerhorn; B, Q, R to
20, 32 High School DeKalb Avenue; C to Lafayette Avenue; D, N to Atlantic Avenue-Barclays Center;
G to Fulton Street
Buses: B103, B25, B37, B38, B41, B45, B52, B54, B62, B63, B65, B69
Brooklyn Districts James Madison 3787 Bedford Avenue, Brooklyn, NY 11229 Tel: (718) 758-7200
17, 18, 21, 22, 23 High School Subways: B, Q to Kings Highway
Buses: B100, B2, B31, B44, B49, B7, B82, BM3, BM4
Queens Districts Hillcrest 160-05 Highland Avenue, Jamaica, NY 11432 Tel: (718) 658-5407
26, 27, 28, 29 High School Subway: E, J, Z to Jamaica Center-Parsons/Archer; F to Parsons Boulevard
Buses: Q1, Q110, Q111, Q112, Q114, Q17, Q2, Q20A, Q20B, Q24, Q3, Q31,
Q34, Q36, Q40, Q41, Q43, Q56, Q6, Q65, Q76, Q77, Q8, Q83, Q9, X68
Queens Districts Long Island City 14-30 Broadway, Long Island City, NY 11106 Tel: (718) 545-7095
24, 25, 30 High School Subways: N, Q to Broadway
Buses: Q100, Q102, Q103, Q104, Q18, Q66, Q69
Staten Island Staten Island 485 Clawson Street, Staten Island, NY 10306 Tel: (718) 667-3222
Technical Subways: Staten Island Railway (SIR) to New Dorp
High School Buses: S57, S74, S76, S78, S79-SBS
Note: Not every site will be available on November 4. Please check your Test Ticket for precise testing location.
TEST RESULTS
Please note that the SHSAT is not a requirement for admission to LaGuardia High School. For all other Specialized High
Schools, offers are made to students based upon their SHSAT scores, how they ranked the Specialized High Schools on the
SHSAT answer sheet, and seat availability. SHSAT scores are available in March 2018 with High School Admissions Round One
results. To determine offers to a Specialized High School:
■ All scores of the students who took the test are ranked from highest score to lowest score.
■ The student with the highest score is placed in their first choice (highest prioritized school).
■ S
tarting from the highest score on down, each student, in turn, is placed in that student’s highest prioritized school in which
seats are still available. Therefore, if all the seats in a student’s first-choice school have been offered to students who scored
higher, the student is placed in their second-choice school if seats are available. If all the seats in the student’s second-choice
school have been offered to students who scored higher, the student is offered a seat in their third-choice school if there are still
seats available, and so on. This process continues until there are no seats available in any of the eight Specialized High Schools
where admission is based on the SHSAT.
From year to year, the number of offers and projected seats for each Specialized High School may be subject to an increase or
decrease based on school enrollment.
11
33
FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL OF
MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS AUDITIONS SECTION
September 7 – October 12, 2017 October 18, 2017

Register for LaGuardia High School audition(s) with your school counselor. Audition Tickets available for distribution
UDITION ATES
All auditions are held at LaGuardia High School. Dates are scheduled according to the borough in which your school is
located, not your current home address, and by the first letter of your last name.
BOROUGH LAST NAME AUDITION GROUP DATE START TIME
Bronx A–L Students auditioning for Dance Saturday, November 04, 2017 8:00 AM
Bronx M–Z Students auditioning for Dance Sunday, November 05, 2017 8:00 AM
Students auditioning for a single or

Bronx A–Z Saturday, December 02, 2017 8:00 AM
multiple studios except Dance
Students auditioning for two or more
Brooklyn A–Z Saturday, October 28, 2017 8:00 AM
studios or Technical Theater
Students auditioning for a single
Brooklyn A–L Sunday, October 29, 2017 8:00 AM
studio except Technical Theater
Brooklyn M–Z Sunday, October 29, 2017 11:30 AM
Students auditioning for two or more
Manhattan A–Z Saturday, November 04, 2017 8:00 AM
studios or Technical Theater
Manhattan A–L Sunday, November 05, 2017 8:00 AM
Manhattan M–Z Sunday, November 05, 2017 11:30 AM
Queens/ Students auditioning for two or more
A–Z Saturday, November 18, 2017 8:00 AM
Staten Island studios or Technical Theater
Queens/ Students auditioning for a single
A–K Sunday, November 19, 2017 8:00 AM
Staten Island studio or Technical Theater
Queens/ Students auditioning for a single
L–Z Sunday, November 19, 2017 11:30 AM
Staten Island studio or Technical Theater
AUDITION EXCEPTIONS AUDITIONS FOR STUDENTS NEW

If a student’s audition date conflicts with a religious observance, TO NEW YORK CITY
the student may audition on either the Saturday or Sunday of A student whose official records indicate that they became a New
the student’s school’s scheduled weekend. York City resident after November 1, 2017 may be eligible to
audition at the end of summer 2018. Please visit a New York City
If a student's scheduled SHSAT date/time conflicts with their Department of Education Family Welcome Center once a student
scheduled LaGuardia High School audition, the student must becomes a New York City resident.
audition on either the Saturday or Sunday of the student’s
school’s scheduled weekend. ADMISSIONS PROCESS
LaGuardia High School requires a doctor's note for ■ Admission to LaGuardia High School is based on a competitive
students who miss their audition and need to reschedule due to audition and review of a student’s academic record to ensure
illness/injury. success in the school’s demanding studio work and challenging
academic program.
12
MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS AUDITIONS continued...
■ To audition for one or more of the studios at LaGuardia High for LaGuardia High School can be faxed to 212-724-5748 or
School, a student must inform their school counselor of their emailed to [email protected].
intention to audition and indicate for which studio(s) they wish
to audition. The school counselor must provide the student ■ Students must arrive on time for audition(s), although the
with a receipt to reflect the request during the registration arrival time indicated on the Audition Ticket may not be the
period, and an Audition Ticket prior to the audition date. actual start time of the audition. Students are strongly
encouraged to bring a light snack and/or water.
■ Successful candidates are expected to exhibit an
intermediate to advanced level of proficiency in their art forms. ■ At the auditions, there is a designated waiting area for
Students are evaluated based on their preparation for the families, as audition areas are for student applicants only.
audition, technical proficiency, and artistic expression. Most Family members or guardians also may choose to leave and
students receiving an offer for one or more of the studios re-enter the school building at any time. It is important that the
typically score between 80-100 points on the studio rubric in student has food and that any other communication with
addition to having a satisfactory academic and attendance families is made prior to the beginning of the audition process.
record.
AUDITION INFORMATION FOR EACH STUDIO
■ All applicants must bring their Audition Ticket to each
audition for entrance. Printed receipts from the registration A total of 10,849 students registered to audition for one or more
process are not acceptable. For students who attend a non- of the six studios at LaGuardia High School for the 2017-2018
public school (private or parochial), one copy of the previous school year. Students may audition for the studios listed below.
academic year’s report card and/or transcript is required for Only students who are residents of New York City are eligible
each studio audition for which the student is registered. For to apply and audition.
example, if the student is auditioning for two studios, then the
student must provide two copies of the Audition Ticket and DANCE Applicants participate in both a ballet class and a
report card. Students are evaluated solely on the official marks modern dance class. Applicants should wear ballet shoes and
awarded during the previous academic school year. No fitted black dance attire.
reevaluation will be done based on any subsequent improved
DRAMA Applicants should be prepared to perform two (age
academic performance.
and content appropriate) contrasting one-minute monologues.
Applicants may be asked to do an impromptu reading. Attire
REGISTERING FOR LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL should allow free movement since applicants may be asked to
AUDITIONS demonstrate how well they move physically.
■ Students interested in applying to one or more of the six
FINE ART Applicants must bring a portfolio of 8-15 pieces of
studios at LaGuardia High School should review the audition
original artwork done in a variety of media. The type of artwork
requirements listed in this handbook and also in the 2018 New
should be from observation, imagination, and memory. All
York City High School Directory to prepare to audition.
artwork must be labeled appropriately to include student name,
■ Students registered to audition for more than two studios type of artwork, and medium. Students must also label artwork
may be asked by LaGuardia High School to audition over more as being created from observation, imagination, or memory.
than one day. Students should ask their school counselors to Photographs—not originals—of three-dimensional (3D) works
follow up with LaGuardia High School directly if they are in this may be included. For the audition, applicants will be given three
situation. drawing assignments. Students are asked to draw the human
figure from observation, draw a still life from memory, and
■ English Language Learners (ELLs) eligible for testing create a drawing in color based on imagination. All drawing
accommodations and students with Individualized Education materials for auditions will be supplied by the school at the time
Plans (IEPs) or 504 Plans including testing accommodations of the audition.
will receive those accommodations for the LaGuardia High
School audition(s) as long as the accommodations do not INSTRUMENTAL MUSIC Applicants should prepare a solo
interfere with the content or the skill being measured. selection to perform without accompaniment and bring one
copy of the music they plan to perform. Applicants should bring
■ Students with disabilities or eligible former English Language their instruments to the audition, except those auditioning on
Learners who will be using their accommodations for piano, percussion, tuba, double bass, and harp. These
LaGuardia High School auditions must send relevant instruments will be provided by the school at the audition.
documents related to the accommodations to LaGuardia High Amplifiers also will be provided at the audition for electric
School prior to the registration deadline (e.g., student’s IEP, 504 guitarists. Applicants will be tested for rhythm and tonal
Plan, or signed letter on school letterhead describing ELL memory and will be asked to perform a sight-reading excerpt.
supports received by student in school setting). Documentation
13
MUSIC & ART AND PERFORMING ARTS AUDITIONS continued...
TECHNICAL THEATER Applicants are expected to bring a

prepared 3D design model/diorama with attached photograph
of the diorama from one of the following plays: The Crucible,
A Raisin in the Sun, or Dracula. Students must be able to
discuss the play and their choices in designing the diorama.
Students must also be able to carry the diorama themselves
throughout the audition day. Applicants participate in one-on-
one, hands-on practical in more than one aspect of technical
theater.
VOCAL MUSIC Applicants should prepare a song to sing

without accompaniment for the audition. LaGuardia High
School has a suggested online song list (www.laguardiahs.org);
applicants are not required to select from the song list. In
addition to performing the selected song, applicants will be
asked to sing back melodic patterns and tap back rhythmic
patterns.
14
44
STEPS IN THE APPLICATION PROCESS
APPLYING TO THE SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS SECTION
1
CONTACT SCHOOL COUNSELOR will display the studio(s) for which the student requested to
audition when the registration was submitted. Students should
tudents should contact their school counselor to
S
make a copy of the Audition Ticket for each audition they
indicate intention to take the SHSAT and/or audition
attend.
for LaGuardia High School within the registration
5
period, starting in early September.
ATTEND SHSAT OR AUDITION
2
OBTAIN A TEST OR AUDITION TICKET Students taking the SHSAT must bring their Test
Tickets to their assigned test sites on the day of the
Prior to the testing/audition date(s), school
test. Students auditioning for one or more studios at
counselors will provide students with a SHSAT Test
LaGuardia High School must bring their Audition Tickets to
Ticket and/or a LaGuardia High School Audition Ticket.
their audition(s) as well.
This ticket will indicate the location of the test/audition site, the
date and time of the SHSAT/audition, the student’s ID number, Students arriving without an Audition or Test Ticket may not be
and the school code number of the student’s current school. If a guaranteed admittance. Although sites will make every effort
student has a conflict with the test or audition date assigned, to confirm a student's registration and accommodate those
the student should inform the school counselor immediately to with missing tickets, another test or audition date may need to
arrange an alternate test or audition date. Once Test and be scheduled. Students should arrive at the time indicated on
Audition Tickets have been issued, students are expected to the Test or Audition Ticket; but it is important to note that the
arrive on the date and time indicated on their tickets. SHSAT test or audition may start after the arrival time listed on the
test sites are based on the location of students’ current schools, Test or Audition Ticket.
not current home addresses. LaGuardia High School audition
dates and times are based on the borough where students Students are allowed to bring cell phones to the SHSAT test
currently attend school. site and/or LaGuardia High School, but cell phones must be
3
turned off and not in use while in school buildings. No other
REVIEW TEST OR AUDITION TICKET electronic devices are allowed. Prior to the start of the audition
or SHSAT, students must be prepared to turn in their cell
Students and parents/guardians should review all
phones when it is requested.
information on the Test or Audition Ticket for accuracy.
ELLs and students with disabilities should check their For both the SHSAT and LaGuardia High School auditions,
tickets and make sure they are scheduled for the appropriate students may bring a snack and water; however, test and
testing date (see pages 10 and 12) with the appropriate audition site staff, including proctors and adjudicators, will
accommodations. They should inform their school counselors determine when consuming these items is allowed.
immediately if there are any errors on the Test or Audition
6
Ticket.
RECEIVE RESULTS
4
COMPLETE AND OBTAIN PARENT/ Students must be residents of New York City in order
GUARDIAN SIGNATURE ON TEST OR to receive results of the SHSAT and/or offers
AUDITION TICKET to LaGuardia High School studio(s). In March 2018,
students will be notified through the High School Admissions
Students and parents/guardians must sign the Test or
Round One result letters as to whether or not they received
Audition Ticket prior to the exam or audition. Those taking the
offer(s) to the Specialized High Schools. It is possible for
SHSAT should rank, in priority order, up to eight Specialized
students who audition for one or more of the studios at
High Schools to which they want to apply. Students will copy
LaGuardia High School to receive offer(s) to one or more of
these choices onto the SHSAT answer sheet on test day.
the studios at LaGuardia High School. Students who receive
Students may choose to apply to only one school, or may
offers to a Specialized High School may, at the same time,
apply to as many as all eight schools to increase their chances
receive an offer to one of the other high school choices that
of being offered a seat in one of those Specialized High
were submitted on their New York City High School Admissions
Schools. Students should only list schools that they wish to
Application. At this time, the student will have to choose
attend if they are offered a seat. Families and students should
between the Specialized High School offer(s) and the High
work together to ensure that the student is prepared to
School Admissions Application offer.
complete their selections on the answer sheet as desired. Once
choices have been submitted on the day of the test, they may
not be changed. The LaGuardia High School Audition Ticket
15
STEPS IN THE APPLICATION PROCESS continued...
TESTING AND AUDITION ACCOMMODATIONS
Students with disabilities who have IEPs or 504 Plans that sure their testing accommodations are correct on their test
include testing accommodations and English Language tickets.
Learners, including current and former English Language
Learners who achieved proficiency on the New York State Due to the time needed to transition students from the building
English as a Second Language Achievement Test (NYSESLAT) entrance to the testing rooms, extended time on the
within the past two years, are eligible to receive testing and/or examination is calculated from the start time of the exam, not
audition accommodations on the SHSAT and LaGuardia High the arrival time indicated on the ticket.
School auditions.
ELLs and eligible former ELLs taking the SHSAT are granted
Testing accommodations are changes made in the extended testing time of 360 minutes (2.0x standard testing
administration of the test in order to remove obstacles to the time). Bilingual mathematics glossaries will also be provided by
test-taking process that are presented by the disability or the NYCDOE on the day of the SHSAT at each test
language proficiency without changing the skills or content administration site in the NYCDOE’s nine major languages:
being tested. Families are encouraged to review the New York Arabic, Bengali, Chinese (Traditional and Simplified), French,
City Department of Education’s (NYCDOE) resources on testing Haitian-Creole, Korean, Russian, Spanish, and Urdu. Students
accommodations for additional information: are not permitted to bring their own bilingual mathematics
http://schools.nyc.gov/Academics/SpecialEducation/ glossaries. Sample glossaries can be found on the NYCDOE
FamilyResources/GuidesDocuments/default.htm. Specialized High Schools Admissions Test (SHSAT) website:
http://schools.nyc.gov/accountability/resources/testing/shsat.htm.
IMPORTANT NOTES:
ELLs with IEPs or 504 Plans will receive the accommodations
■ Testing accommodations for the SHSAT or LaGuardia to which they are entitled, as long as the accommodations are
auditions are provided based on a student’s existing testing permitted for the SHSAT (see the next section).
accommodations. These are documented on students’ IEPs
or 504 Plans or based on their ELL status. Students whose IEPs or 504 Plans include the use of assistive
technology, such as a Frequency Modulation (FM) Unit, or other
■ Accommodations that are requested only for the SHSAT aids, such as masks, markers, highlighters, pencil grip, or a
and/or LaGuardia High School auditions are not allowed. magnifying glass must bring these with them on the day of the
Students must demonstrate a documented history of needing SHSAT and/or audition if needed. Assistive technology and
and using testing accommodations. other aids will not be provided by test or audition sites on
■ Students with 504 Plans must have their accommodations testing and/or audition days.
approved every year. Schools and families must review (and
approve, if appropriate) the student’s 2017-18 504 Plan no Testing Accommodations Not Allowed for SHSAT
later than the last day of school in June 2017. Please see this
Students are entitled to the testing accommodations stated
FAQ on 504 Plans:
on their IEPs or 504s, however certain testing
http://schools.nyc.gov/Offices/Health/SchoolHealthForms
accommodations are not permitted for any student on the
■ Students who demonstrate disabilities or temporary SHSAT because providing these accommodations would
impairments within 30 days of the SHSAT may receive certain interfere with how the test measures certain skills. For
emergency testing accommodations, if approved by the example, students are not permitted to use calculators and/or
principal. Please see the section on “Emergency Testing and/ mathematics tables on the Mathematics section because this
or Audition Accommodations” on page 18 for more section of the SHSAT measures students’ mathematical
information. computation skills. Additionally, oral translations of test
directions, questions, and answers are not permitted because
TESTING ACCOMMODATIONS ON THE SHSAT this changes the standardization of the test. (ELLs who need
translations are permitted to use bilingual mathematics
Students with disabilities will be provided with the
glossaries on the Mathematics section of the SHSAT only.)
accommodations listed in their IEPs or 504 Plans, unless the
accommodation is not permitted on the SHSAT, or if the Students and families should work with their school
accommodation is not needed on the SHSAT (see the next counselors to inquire about testing accommodations or
section). Students and families should contact school specific situations which may not be addressed here.
counselors at their current schools directly with questions
about testing accommodations on the SHSAT and to make
16
Testing Accommodations Not Needed for the SHSAT supporting documentation directly to LaGuardia High School
prior to the registration deadline (e.g., student’s IEP, 504 Plan, or
In addition, some accommodations that students may use on signed letter on school letterhead describing English Language
other tests may not be needed on the SHSAT. For example, Learner supports received by student in school setting).
students who use a computer or word processor for tests with Documentation for LaGuardia High School can be faxed to
essays will not need to use this accommodation on the SHSAT 212-724-5748 or emailed to [email protected].
because there are no essays on the test. School counselors should contact LaGuardia High School
directly with any questions about audition accommodations.
A Note About Scribes: If a student has a scribe listed on their
IEP or 504 Plan, it is important to note if the student needs ■ Non-public school students with disabilities who do not
help answering in the test booklet or help filling in the answer have an IEP or 504 Plan indicating their need for testing
sheet. A scribe is not needed if the student is able to circle accommodations must work with their school counselor to
answers in the test booklet. A scribe is only needed if a complete a NYCDOE Request for Accommodations form
student is unable to write their answers in the test booklet. and submit the form and supporting documentation to the
Students requiring transcription of answers onto the answer NYCDOE for review and approval at least three (3) weeks prior
sheet are provided with the accommodation of answers in the to the registration deadline. Students’ current schools can
test booklet, but do not require a scribe. Students using a provide the form and are responsible for ensuring that an
scribe on testing day will have a 1:1 testing administration. appropriate review process takes place, and that students’
Therefore, it is critical for families to work with their IEP or 504 accommodations and relevant documentation are submitted at
Team to make sure this accommodation is correctly listed on least three (3) weeks prior to the registration deadline. The
NYCDOE reserves the right to request additional information
the IEP or 504 Plan as well as on the student's Test Ticket.
about schools’ processes for granting accommodations and
verify that the requested accommodation addresses a
TESTING ACCOMMODATIONS FOR documented need. Non-public school students auditioning at
LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL AUDITIONS LaGuardia High School must have accommodations plans
approved by school-based support or IEP teams and the
If there is any question as to whether an accommodation documentation should be sent directly to LaGuardia High
is permitted for an audition, please have your school counselor School so that accommodations can be arranged for the
contact LaGuardia High School directly by phone at audition(s).
212-496-0700 or email at [email protected].
For information about arranging for accommodations for
LaGuardia High School auditions, please see the next section. OPTING OUT OF TESTING ACCOMMODATIONS
Before the registration deadline, parents/guardians of English
Language Learners and students with IEPs or 504 Plans may
CONFIRMING TESTING ACCOMMODATIONS opt out of certain testing accommodations for their children on
FOR THE SHSAT AND LAGUARDIA HIGH the SHSAT or LaGuardia High School auditions. Before the
SCHOOL AUDITIONS registration deadline, parents/guardians must contact their
■ During the SHSAT registration period, a student’s current child’s school counselor to indicate in writing their desire to opt
school, including non-public schools (private and parochial out of testing accommodations for their child. Neither school
schools), is responsible for entering the appropriate testing counselors nor students may opt out of testing
accommodations in the NYCDOE’s Student Enrollment accommodations; written consent by a parent/guardian is
Management System (SEMS). For students with 504 Plans required.
or similar school-based accommodation plans (only for
students not in NYCDOE schools), all documentation If it is not possible to provide written consent to opt out of
must be submitted to the NYCDOE for review via email to testing accommodations before the registration deadline,
[email protected] at least three parents/guardians must provide their written consent on testing
(3) weeks prior to the registration deadline. Documentation day to opt out of the testing accommodations listed on their
received after this deadline may not be reviewed in time for the child’s Test or Audition Ticket.
student's scheduled test date. Students and families should
directly contact their school counselors at their current schools On testing day, students cannot modify or opt out of the testing
with questions about testing accommodations on the SHSAT. accommodations listed on their Test or Audition Ticket unless
parent/guardian consent has been provided in writing on the
■ Students arranging accommodations for LaGuardia High Test or Audition Ticket.
School auditions must have their school counselor send
17
STUDENTS WITH EXTENDED TIME WHO BUILDING ACCESSIBILITY

FINISH THE TEST BEFORE THE END OF THE The NYCDOE is committed to ensuring that its programs,
EXTENDED TIME PERIOD services, and activities are accessible to staff, members of the
school community, students, and family members with
■ All students must stay in testing rooms until at least the end
disabilities. The NYCDOE assesses all of its buildings on a
of the standard test administration time (180 minutes), with the
continuing basis to determine which schools are accessible to
exception of bathroom breaks.
individuals with disabilities. For the most up-to-date
■ Once the standard test administration time (180 minutes) is information on the accessibility of each school, please contact
over, students with an accommodation of extended time may the school directly. Families are encouraged to visit schools to
leave if they have finished working on the exam. learn about the level of accessibility. For more information,
please visit http://schools.nyc.gov/Offices/OSP/Accessibility.
■ Students who leave before the end of their extended time
will be required to acknowledge in writing that they had the
opportunity to use the full amount of the extended time period
but chose to leave early.
■ If a parent/guardian does not want their child to leave the

testing room before the full amount of the extended time
period has ended, the parent/guardian is responsible for
communicating this to their child before the test begins.
■ Re-tests will not be provided to students who choose to

leave before the end of their extended time.
EMERGENCY TESTING AND/OR AUDITION

ACCOMMODATIONS
Emergency testing accommodations are intended for use
by students whose disabilities or injuries occur after the
registration deadline but before their scheduled testing/
audition day, and without enough time to develop an IEP or
504 Plan. For the SHSAT, students and families should work
with their school counselor to complete the Emergency Testing
Request form and ask their school counselor to email
[email protected] as soon as
possible prior to the testing day that emergency
accommodations may be needed.
If a family requests an accommodation without giving the

NYCDOE sufficient time to review the request before the
regular SHSAT administration date, the student’s SHSAT may
be rescheduled to ensure that the request for accommodations
may be properly reviewed.
If a student requires emergency accommodations for a

LaGuardia High School audition, the family or school counselor
must contact LaGuardia High School directly to request the
accommodation.
Students and families should contact their current school

counselor for additional information about testing
accommodations.
18
SHSAT DESCRIPTION AND MATERIALS SECTION
55
T
he SHSAT assesses knowledge and skills. These skills Revising/Editing section may have up to 20 total questions and
consist of the ability to comprehend English prose, to is divided into Parts A and B. Part A includes up to eight
demonstrate understanding of revising and editing skills questions, each of which is based on its own sentence or
central to writing in English, and to use problem-solving skills in paragraph. Part B includes questions that are based on one or
mathematics. The test measures knowledge and skills students two passages. Each Revising/Editing passage may have up to
have gained over the course of their education. Keeping up with eight questions. Revising/Editing items assess students' ability
schoolwork throughout the year is the best possible preparation. to recognize and correct language errors and to improve the
overall quality of a piece of writing. There are up to 50 items in
CHANGES TO SHSAT TEST DESIGN Reading Comprehension. The Reading Comprehension section
requires students to read five or six passages, each of which is
Starting with the fall 2017 SHSAT test administration (for
followed by up to ten questions assessing students’ ability to
admissions to schools for the 2018-19 school year), the
understand, analyze, and interpret what they have read.
Specialized High Schools Admissions Test (SHSAT) will have an
updated test design.
MATHEMATICS SECTION (57 QUESTIONS)
The following processes and policies have not changed:
The Mathematics section consists of word problems and
■ P rocess for registering for the SHSAT computational questions in either a multiple-choice or grid-in
■ How eligibility for Specialized High Schools is determined — format. There are 5 grid-in Math items and 52 multiple-choice
rank ordering of students based on performance on SHSAT, in items. The Mathematics section asks students to solve word
combination with students’ school preferences and available and computational problems involving addition, subtraction,
seats multiplication, and division. Some word and computational
■ Availability of allowed accommodations for eligible students problems will also include working with fractions, decimals, and
The following changes have been made to the SHSAT for 2017: statistics.
English Language Arts. The SHSAT will continue to have two Students may choose to complete either the English
sections; however, the Verbal section is now called English Language Arts or Mathematics section first. Students
Language Arts (ELA) and consists of two parts: Revising/Editing who finish early may go back to questions in either
and Reading Comprehension. section to review their work.
Grid-In Mathematics items. In addition to multiple-choice Students will not be given extra time at the conclusion
items, the Mathematics section now includes 5 grid-in items. of testing to transfer responses from the test booklet
See page 34 for more information on the grid-in item type. to the answer sheet. All responses must be recorded
Multiple Choice items. All multiple choice items will have 4 on the answer sheet before the conclusion of the test.
answer choices instead of 5 answer choices.
TEST MATERIALS
Embedded field test items. Each section of the 2017 SHSAT
includes items that are not counted in the student's score but Students must bring to the testing session:
that are being tried out, or field tested, for possible use in future ■ a SHSAT Test Ticket signed by parent/guardian with
SHSAT tests. student’s Specialized High School choices
Increased testing time. Overall testing time has been increased ■ sharpened Number 2 pencils (a ballpoint pen or other ink
to 180 minutes. cannot be used for machine scoring)
■ an eraser
SHSAT TEST DESIGN FOR 2017 ■ Assistive Technology (if indicated on the IEP and Test Ticket)
The SHSAT has two sections, English Language Arts (ELA) and ■ a silent non-calculator watch to keep track of your working
Mathematics. Standard administration time is 180 minutes to time
complete the test. The test site will provide:
There are 57 items total in each section; of these, 47 are scored ■ a
test booklet with an answer sheet and scrap paper
items and 10 are embedded field test items. You will NOT know attached
which items are scored and which are field test items. It is to
Scrap paper may be used to solve mathematics problems, and
your advantage to answer all items in each section.
will be collected at the end of the test.
ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS SECTION SHSAT TESTING PROCEDURES

(57 QUESTIONS) Students, it is important to review the instructions
The English Language Arts (ELA) section consists of two below with your parent/guardian to ensure
parts: Revising/Editing and Reading Comprehension. The understanding prior to testing.
19
SHSAT DESCRIPTION AND MATERIALS continued...
ARRIVING AT THE TEST SITE Do not bring cameras or personal electronic

■ It is important to arrive at the test site at the time indicated devices such as a calculator watch, smart watch,
on your SHSAT Test Ticket. Please note the test may not begin calculator, MP3 Player/iPod, tablet/iPad or ebook
immediately after the stated arrival time. The test site can reader to the test. Non-calculator watches are
provide information about anticipated test completion times. allowed.
You may bring snacks and water, but the test site will
As per NYCDOE testing policy, cell phones and other
determine the appropriate time to consume them. All cell
electronic devices will be collected from all students
phones and electronic devices will be collected by the proctor
entering the room in which the test is being administered
and stored in the testing room prior to the test and will be
and returned to the student after the student finishes the
returned at the conclusion of the test. You may not use a cell
test and leaves the testing room. Students may not access
phone until after the test is completed and you have been
any devices during testing, including break periods.
dismissed from the building.
During testing, schools will establish a collection point upon
■ Prior to the test, you will be asked to read and sign a
students entering the classroom prior to the test
statement on your answer sheet indicating that you are a
administration. Students will be instructed to store cell
resident of New York City, are well enough to take the test, and
phones/cameras/electronic devices in their backpack/bag,
are taking it at the appropriate grade level. Students who sign
or a school provided container, and place it in the front of
this statement but do not meet the requirements specified will
the classroom until the conclusion of the test
be disqualified from acceptance to any of the Specialized High
administration. Admission to the test shall be denied to any
Schools.
student who refuses to relinquish a prohibited device.
■ If you do not feel well and do not have an approved medical Possession of a prohibited device at any time during the
504, you should inform the test proctor immediately; you test administration, even if powered off, shall result in the
should not begin the test, or sign the statement. Once you test being invalidated. Students will not be provided with an
have begun the test, you may not be able to request a opportunity to make up the exam on a subsequent day.
make-up test due to illness. Any requests for a make-up test
made after you have started the test may not be honored.
■ Prior to the start of the test, NYCDOE staff will take a

photograph or video of the students in each testing room.
These images will be used for test security purposes only.
20
FILLING IN THE ANSWER SHEET important that you make your decisions about ranking schools
before the day of the test. Discuss with your family the schools
Answer sheets will be attached to test booklets. When the
you are interested in, and determine the order in which you will
proctor instructs you to do so, you must detach the answer
list them on the answer sheet. Enter these rankings on the Test
sheet and a sheet of scrap paper from the test booklet along the
Ticket so that you will be able to carefully copy them onto Grid
perforations, being careful not to tear the answer sheet or break
5 on your answer sheet at the test site. Only choices made in
the seal on the test booklet.
Grid 5 will be counted.
Before taking the test, you will need to provide EXAMPLES OF CORRECT GRID 5
information such as name, student ID number, school
number, and school choices on the answer sheet.
It is important to fill in the circles completely so that

scoring is not delayed. The following grids from the
answer sheet collect important identifying information
as well as information that affects admission to a
Specialized High School.
In Grid 4 you will fill in in your name as it appears in

your school record and on your high school application.
You should not use a nickname. For example, if your
name on your school record is Robert, you should fill
in in that name, even if most people call you “Robbie.”
Or if your name on your school record is Mei-Ling, you
should fill in in that name, even if most people call
you “Melanie.”
Grid 5 is for your choice of Specialized High Schools

only. If you mark Grid 5 incorrectly, your admission to
a Specialized High School may be affected. Admission
is based on your score and the order in which you rank
your school preferences in Grid 5, as well as the number
of seats available at each school. Therefore, it is very
You MUST fill in a first choice school.
EXAMPLES OF INCORRECT GRID 5
DO NOT fill in more than one DO NOT fill in more than one DO NOT fill in the same school
circle in a column. circle in a row. for each choice.
21
You must fill in one and only one circle for each school for which you GRID 7
wish to be considered. You may make as few as one or as many as
eight choices. To increase your chances of receiving an offer to one of
the Specialized High Schools, you are encouraged to make more than
one choice. You must fill in a first choice school, and you may fill in Abraham Lincoln IS 171
only one school for each choice. You must fill in only one circle in a
row and only one circle in a column. You must not fill in a school more
than once. You must not fill in the same school for each choice.
19K171
In Grid 7, you must print the name of the school where you are now
enrolled. You will then print your school code exactly as it appears on
your Test Ticket or in the Feeder School List available from the test
proctor. After that, you will fill in the circle under the corresponding
number or letter for each digit of your school code. Fill in the circle
marked with the letter “P” if you attend a private or parochial school.
For example, a student who attends Abraham Lincoln IS 171 in
Brooklyn should complete Grid 7 as shown in the example on the
right. Fill in Grid 7 carefully: an error in Grid 7 may delay the reporting
of your score.
Grid 8 is labeled “STUDENT ID NUMBER.” Write your nine-digit

student ID number in Grid 8. You will find this number on your SHSAT
Test Ticket. Below each box, fill in the circle containing the same GRID 8
numeral as the box. (See the
example on the right.) 8.
SAMPLE ANSWER MARKS
When you are told to begin the 1 A B C D RIGHT
test, mark your answers on the 2 A B C D WRONG
3 2 1 4 56 7 7 8
answer sheet by completely 3 A B C D WRONG
filling in the appropriate circle
4 A B C D WRONG
(see example). Make sure your
5 A B C D WRONG
marks are heavy and dark.
Be careful not to make any
stray marks on the answer sheet. If you change an answer, completely
erase your first answer. Do not fold or tear the answer sheet. There is
only one correct answer to each question. If your answer sheet shows
more than one mark in response to a question, that question will be
scored as incorrect.
You may write in your test booklet or on the scrap paper

provided to work through ELA or mathematics problems, but
your answers must be recorded on the answer sheet in order to
be counted. It will not be possible to go back and mark your
answers on the answer sheet after time is up. Information in the
test booklet or on scrap paper will not be counted.
22
STUDENT MISCONDUCT several forms of the SHSAT, raw scores from different test
forms cannot be compared directly. The test forms were
It is important to note that test security is CRITICAL for the
developed to be as similar as possible, but they are not
SHSAT. Items and answers may not be shared with any
identical.
individuals outside of the testing site. During the test, you may
not attempt to communicate with other students in any way. To make valid score comparisons, a raw score must be
This includes, but is not limited to: speaking, writing and converted into another type of score that takes into account
passing notes, sharing test booklets or answer sheets, looking the differences between test forms. In a process called
at other students’ answers, recording test items, and/or calibration, ELA and mathematics raw scores are converted
possession of a camera or personal electronic device. into scaled scores. The raw scores and scaled scores are not
Students found to be engaging in any of these activities will proportional. In the middle of the range of scores, an increase
have their tests invalidated and will not be allowed to take the of one raw score point may correspond to an increase of three
test again until the following school year (for current 8th grade or four scaled score points. At the top or bottom of the range
students; 9th grade students will not have any additional of scores, an increase of one raw score point may correspond
opportunities to take the test after 9th grade). to 10-20 scaled score points. The reason for this difference is
that the scaled scores have been adjusted to fit the normal
CLAIMS OF TESTING IRREGULARITIES curve. Scaled scores are on a scale that is common to all test
forms, making it possible to compare these scores directly.
If you believe there is interference or testing irregularity during
The composite score is the sum of the ELA and mathematics
any part of the SHSAT test, you should bring the matter to the
scaled scores. The composite score is used to determine
immediate attention of the proctor. This may include a
admission to a Specialized High School.
misprinted test booklet, undue distraction, or improper
student behavior. The proctor will attempt to remedy the
situation and may take a written statement from you at the REVIEW PROCEDURES
end of the test. After receiving results, students and their parents/guardians
may review a copy of their answer sheet by requesting an
Students and parents/guardians may also report any appointment with a representative from the Office of
suspected proctoring or testing irregularities, in the form of Assessment. Copies of answer sheets are not available for
a letter, to the address below: distribution but will be reviewed at the scheduled appointment.
Appointments may be arranged in one of the following ways:
Office of Student Enrollment
52 Chambers Street, Room 415 1) By submitting an electronic request via the SHSAT website,
New York, NY 10007 www.nyc.gov/schools/Accountability/resources/testing/
SHSAT, or
Mailed letters must be sent by certified mail with proof of
2) By sending a written request via certified mail with proof of
delivery and postmarked no later than one week after the test
delivery to:
administration. For all claims, please include parent/guardian
and student names, as well as telephone and/or email contact
Office of Assessment, SHSAT Review
information. Any claims of testing irregularity postmarked later
131 Livingston Street, Room 401A
than one week after the test date may not be considered.
Brooklyn, New York 11201
Claims will be responded to on an individual basis.
Electronic requests must be submitted and letters must be

SHSAT SCORING postmarked no later than March 30, 2018. Requests must
SHSAT scores are based on the number of correct answers include:
marked on scored items.1 There is no penalty for wrong
■ Student’s name, date of birth, and OSIS number
answers. If you are not sure of an answer, you should mark
your best guess. You should not spend too much time on any ■ Parent/guardian’s name, phone number, and email address
one question. Answer each question as best you can or skip it
and keep going. If you have time at the end of the test, you Within four weeks of receipt of the request, the Office of
may go back. Assessment will provide information to schedule an
appointment. The student and at least one parent/guardian
Each answer sheet is scanned and scored electronically, and must be present at the appointment. Along with the student,
the number of correct answers on scored items, called a raw only a parent/guardian will be admitted to the appointment.
score, is determined for each test taker. Because there are Translators are available upon request.
1
A small number of items will be pre-designated for field testing and will not
count towards a student's score.
23
DISCOVERY PROGRAM
As stated in New York State law, the Specialized High Schools may sponsor a Discovery Program to
give disadvantaged students of demonstrated high potential an opportunity to attend a Specialized
High School program. Students will be notified which schools will be sponsoring a Discovery Program
and whether they are eligible to participate in Spring 2018.
To be eligible, the student must:

1. have scored within a certain range below the qualifying score on the SHSAT. Eligible scores will vary from year to
year and will be based on seat availability; and
2. have ranked one of the Specialized High Schools that plans to host a 2018 Discovery Program as among the
choices on their 2017 SHSAT answer sheet; and
3. be certified as disadvantaged by their current school; and
4. be recommended by their current school as having high potential for the Specialized High School program.
Once notified of eligibility, families should meet with the school counselor to discuss the Discovery Program application.
Not all eligible students will be accepted into the Discovery Program. Those students who are successful in meeting the
demands of the summer program will be granted an offer to the school sponsoring the Discovery Program. Those
students who are not successful will attend the school to which they had previously been assigned. Students should
speak to their school counselors if they have any questions. For more information on eligibility requirements, please visit
http://schools.nyc.gov/ChoicesEnrollment/High/specialized.
24
SHSAT USEFUL TIPS FOR TESTING
PARENTS/GUARDIANS ARE ENCOURAGED
SECTION
66
High Schools. Arrive at your assigned test site on time. Wear
comfortable clothes and bring a non-calculator watch to keep
TO REVIEW THE FOLLOWING TIPS WITH THEIR
track of the time. Make sure that you have several sharpened
CHILDREN SO THAT THEY ARE WELL PREPARED
Number 2 pencils and an eraser that erases cleanly. You may
FOR THE TEST. also bring a highlighter, pencil grip, or a magnifying glass, if
needed. Do not bring personal electronic devices to the test.
BEFORE TEST DAY Such devices include, but are not limited to: an iPod,
calculator, tablet/iPad, or ebook reader. You may bring a cell
Knowing what to expect on the test and having some
phone but it will be turned off and collected by your proctor for
practice in test taking is beneficial. This handbook
the duration of the test.
describes each part of the test and contains two sample tests
to use as practice. Each sample test has been updated to Plan your time. Be aware of the total number of questions
match the 2017 tests as closely as possible. A list of correct and the amount of time you have to complete the test. Work
answers is provided for each test, along with explanations. carefully, but keep moving at a comfortable pace and keep
track of the time. Listen carefully to your test proctor and all
Simulating the actual testing situation helps. You will have instructions regarding time. Be sure to place all answers on the
three hours (180 minutes) to complete the test. During the test, answer sheet. You will not be given additional time to transfer
how you allot the time between the ELA and mathematics your answers from the test booklet or any scrap paper to the
sections is up to you. You may start with either section. Use answer sheet after time is up.
the practice tests to decide how much time you will spend on Read the instructions carefully. Be sure you understand the
each section to keep yourself on pace and manage your time task before marking your answer sheet. For each question,
on test day. For example, will you spend 90 minutes on each read all the choices before choosing one. Many questions ask
section, or will you spend more time on one section than for the best answer; it is important to compare all the choices
another? Will you leave certain questions for the end? You may to determine the choice that best answers the question.
return to one section if you have time remaining after finishing
Mark your answers carefully. This is a machine-scored test,
the other section. Mark your answers on the answer sheet
and you will not receive credit if you mark the wrong answer
provided in this handbook. Remember, on the actual test, you
bubble or mark the answers to two questions on the same line.
will not be given extra time to mark your answers on the
Make sure the number on the answer sheet matches the
answer sheet after time is up.
number of the question in your test booklet. To change an
After you complete the practice test, check your answers answer, erase the original mark completely. If two bubbles are
against the list of correct answers. Read the explanations of filled in for a question, that question will be scored as
the correct answers to see the kinds of mistakes you may have incorrect. Avoid making stray pencil marks on your answer
made. Did you read too quickly and misunderstand the sheet. You may write in your test booklet to work through ELA
question? Did you make careless errors in computation? Did or mathematics problems, but remember that only answers
you choose answers that were partially correct, but were not the recorded on the answer sheet will be counted.
best answers? Were many of your wrong answers guesses? There is no penalty for a wrong answer. Your score is based
You also should check to see whether there is a pattern to on the number of correct answers marked on the answer sheet.
your errors. For example, did you get all of the inequality Therefore, omitting a question will not give you an advantage,
questions wrong? Did you leave any answers blank? Seek out and wrong answers will not be deducted from your right
opportunities to do more practice in areas that challenged you. answers. Fill in any blanks when the time limit is almost up.
Make an educated guess when you do not know the answer
Put this handbook away for a few days, and then take the
to a question. Do this by eliminating the answer choice(s) that
second sample test, following the same procedure. Be aware
are definitely wrong, and then choose one of the remaining
that how well you do on these sample tests is not a predictor of
answers.
your score on the actual test. However, these tests will give you
an idea of what to expect when taking the SHSAT. Be considerate of other students during the test. Do not
chew gum or make noises or movements that would be
distracting to others.
DAY OF THE TEST If you finish before time is up, go back over your work to make
Prepare yourself. The night before the test, remember to get sure that you followed instructions, did not skip any questions,
a good night’s sleep. Bring your signed Test Ticket with you to and did not make careless mistakes. Students must remain in
your assigned test site and make sure it includes a parent/ the testing room for the entire duration of the test (180 minutes).
guardian signature and your ranked choices of Specialized
25
SPECIFIC STRATEGIES ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS
REVISING/EDITING Part A TIPS FOR REVISING/EDITING PART A
T
Read the text in the box and take note of any issues. For
he first part of the Revising/Editing section contains up
example, consider the following:
to eight items and measures your ability to identify
specific errors in language conventions, to select the • Are there words, phrases, or sentences that are
correction for an error in language conventions, or to improve difficult to read due to an error in language usage or
the quality of the writing presented in sentences or short punctuation?
paragraphs. The language skills assessed in this section are
• Is there any part of the text that could be written more
based on the Language section of the Common Core Learning
clearly, concisely, or precisely?
Standards for Grade 7, as well as skills that are introduced at
lower grade levels. After reading and thinking about the text in the box, read the
question.
Each question directs you to read a sentence, a list of
sentences, or a paragraph with numbered sentences. Then Think about possible ways to correct or improve the text
you are asked to address issues related to conventions of before reading the answer options.
language or punctuation. Be sure to read the question carefully
so that you know which of the following you are being asked It is highly recommended that you re-read the text in the box
to do: and the question at least once after you read the answer
options.
• identify a sentence with an error
• select the best correction for an error The following sample questions show different types of items
you may encounter in the first part of the Revising/Editing
• improve the writing by combining sentences or revising
section.
part of a sentence
Example 1—Identify a sentence with an error
Read this paragraph.
(1) Established in 1946, the National Air and Space Museum (NASM) contains the most prominent
collection of historical aircraft in the world. (2) As one of the many museums and landmarks of the
Smithsonian Institution, millions of people from around the world visit NASM each year. (3) Over
the years, NASM has undergone several renovations and major reconstruction to accommodate more
visitors and exhibits. (4) In addition to being a popular Washington, D.C., tourist destination, NASM
is home to a research center for terrestrial and planetary science.
Which sentence should be revised to correct a misplaced modifier?
A. sentence 1
B. sentence 2
C. sentence 3
D. sentence 4
Correct Answer for Example 1: B

Sentence 2 begins with the modifying phrase “As one of the many museums and landmarks of the Smithsonian Institution,” which
refers to NASM but instead modifies “millions of people.” It is nonsensical to describe “millions of people” as “one of the many
museums and landmarks of the Smithsonian Institution.” A revised version of this sentence could be, “As one of the many
museums and landmarks of the Smithsonian Institution, NASM sees millions of visitors from around the world each year.”
26
SPECIFIC STRATEGIES ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS continued...
Example 2—Select the best correction for an error
Read this sentence.
Since college admissions are highly competitive, many students began planning for the admissions
process while they attend middle school rather than waiting until they enter high school.
Which edit should be made to correct this sentence?
A. change are to will be

B. change began to begin
C. change attend to had attended
D. change enter to entered
Correct Answer for Example 2: B

The verbs in this sentence are in present tense, and the error relates to an inappropriate shift in tense. Option B suggests changing
the past tense began to the present tense begin. This edit would correct the inappropriate shift in tense.
Example 3—Improve the writing by combining sentences or revising part of a sentence
Read these sentences.
(1) Monarch butterflies are common in the United States.

(2) Monarch butterflies are recognizable by their orange-and-black wings.
(3) Monarch butterflies travel thousands of miles when they migrate to warmer climates in the fall.
What is the best way to combine these sentences?
A. Because they are common in the United States, monarch butterflies are recognizable by their orange-
and-black wings and travel thousands of miles when they migrate to warmer climates in the fall.
B. By traveling thousands of miles when they migrate to warmer climates in the fall and being common
in the United States, monarch butterflies are recognizable by their orange-and-black wings.
C. Although they are common in the United States, monarch butterflies, which are recognizable by their
orange-and-black wings, travel thousands of miles when they migrate to warmer climates in the fall.
D. Monarch butterflies, common in the United States and recognizable by their orange-and-black wings,
travel thousands of miles when they migrate to warmer climates in the fall.
Correct Answer for Example 3: D

The key details of the three sentences are the following: monarch butterflies are common in the United States, they have
recognizable orange-and-black wings, and they migrate a long distance. Option D is the best way to combine these sentences
because it clearly and concisely combines the ideas in the three sentences into one complex sentence. The sentence begins with
the topic, monarch butterflies, and then describes the details. The ideas that monarch butterflies are common in the United States
and are recognizable by their orange-and-black wings are combined into one phrase to describe “monarch butterflies.” After
providing a description of monarch butterflies, the sentence continues on to explain what they do: travel thousands of miles when
migrating to warmer climates.
27
REVISING/EDITING Part B TIPS FOR REVISING/EDITING PART B

T
he second part in the Revising/Editing section measures In order to ensure a thorough understanding of the text, read
your ability to read a passage and then make decisions the passage carefully rather than skimming it. Make sure that
that improve the overall quality of the writing. There are you understand the content of the text so that you can answer
one or two passages in Part B, and each passage is questions about how the text is developed and organized.
approximately 350 words long. The passages are either
As you read, be aware of specific sentences and paragraphs
argumentative or informative. An argumentative passage
that seem illogical, extraneous, redundant, imprecise, informal,
presents an argument for a claim by offering supporting
or difficult to read. There are most likely questions that ask you
evidence. An informative passage introduces a topic and
to correct or improve those sentences or the organization of
explains the topic by offering supporting details. Subjects
ideas in those paragraphs.
include historical and current events, people, places,
technology, and phenomena in the biological sciences, After reading the passage in its entirety, read the question
physical sciences, and social sciences. carefully. Refer back to the passage and re-read the sentences
or paragraphs that are relevant to the question. Keep in mind
Passages may contain errors in language usage, missing or
that it is important to read the sentences that appear both
extraneous supporting details, missing or inappropriate
before and after the sentence or paragraph stated in the
transitions, a missing or an unclear introductory statement or
question.
concluding statement, and other errors that are typical in
student writing. Each sentence is numbered so that you can Take note of any issues in the relevant sentences or
quickly locate and refer to specific parts of the passage. paragraphs. Then read each answer option and choose the
best one.
The following sample passage and questions show the types

of items you may encounter in the second part of the Revising/
Editing section.
Example 4
Studying Religions
(1) According to the National Council for the Social Studies, “knowledge about religions is not only a
characteristic of an educated person but is necessary for effective and engaged citizenship in a diverse
nation and world.” (2) In support of this idea, the world history standards in most states in this country
include a basic overview of the five major world religions. (3) While public schools are not allowed to
promote one religion over another, school officials should understand that the study of world religions
through an academic lens is an essential component of history and social studies instruction and needs to
be part of every student’s education.
(4) It is impossible to deny the role that religion plays in history, literature, and current events. (5) Some
schools and teachers are hesitant to educate students about world religions. (6) The First Amendment
to the United States Constitution guarantees the separation of church and state, which makes the
discussion of religion in public schools seem problematic to some school districts and teachers. (7) The
First Amendment also states that the government cannot obstruct religious freedom in the United States.
(8) A 2010 survey by Pew Research Center found that more than half of those polled thought teachers were
prohibited from teaching classes about religions.
(9) An understanding of different world religions enriches a student’s education in several ways. (10) The
politics, economics, and laws of countries are often a by-product of religious ideas, and literary and cultural
references are better understood through the context of religion. (11) The benefits of this knowledge extend
beyond the classroom. (12) Students who get world religions do better when they start working with
people who come from different backgrounds. (13) They can appreciate the traditions and values of their
neighbors and co-workers and can form educated opinions regarding current events and world issues.
(14) A comprehensive study of world religions will help students become informed adults.
28
Example 4 continued...
1. Which sentence would best follow sentence 6 to support the argument presented in the passage?
A. Some educators avoid the topic altogether, and as a result, many students are not studying the
founding ideas of culture and society.
B. Many teachers are worried about the risk of introducing ideas or concepts that may lead to
controversy.
C. Schools tend to spend more resources teaching mathematics and the physical sciences than
teaching the humanities.
D. In order to protect students’ personal beliefs, many teachers think that they should teach only
limited ideas about world religions.
2. Which transition should be added to the beginning of sentence 11?
E. For that reason

F. In contrast
G. Of course
H. Moreover
3. Which revision of sentence 12 uses the most precise language?
A. Students who are clued into world religions are likely to get along better with the people they
work with who are from different places.
B. Students who know about world religions are likely to understand more about doing business
with new people.
C. Students who understand world religions are better equipped to work with diverse colleagues and
customers from around the world.
D. Students who are familiar with world religions may be more aware of how to do business with
acquaintances from other countries.
4. Which sentence is irrelevant to the argument presented in the passage and should be deleted?
E. sentence 2
F. sentence 7
G. sentence 10
H. sentence 13
29
QUESTION 1 READING COMPREHENSION

(A) Sentence 6 states that there is a constitutional foundation
for the separation of church and state in the United States and This section measures your ability to read and comprehend
suggests that because of this separation, some educators are five to six passages. Each passage is up to 900 words long.
unsure of how to treat religion in classrooms. The question The subjects include short biographies, discussions of
asks for a sentence that would follow and further expand on historical events, descriptions of scientific phenomena, brief
the ideas in sentence 6 and relate to the main claim in the essays on art or music, discussions with a point of view, and
passage. Option A is the only option that explains and makes human interest stories.
a connection between educators avoiding the topic of religion
and the subsequent impact on a student’s education.
TIPS FOR READING
QUESTION 2 COMPREHENSION
In order to ensure a thorough understanding of the text, read
(H) Sentence 11 is leading into the idea that having an
the passage carefully rather than skimming it. This will help
understanding of world religions is also important outside of
prevent you from making inaccurate assumptions based on
the classroom. By explaining the benefits of understanding
only a few details.
world religion outside of an educational context in sentences
12 and 13, the author is providing further support for the After reading the passage in its entirety, read the question
argument that learning about world religions is important. The carefully. Re-read the relevant part or parts of the passage.
word “Moreover” (Option H) best conveys that sentence 11 is
transitioning to new supporting evidence for the argument on Try to determine the answer before reading the answer
top of what is stated in sentence 10. choices. Then read each answer option and choose the best
one.
QUESTION 3 Base your answers only on the information presented in the

passage. Do not depend on your prior knowledge of the topic.
(C) Sentence 12 uses vague and imprecise language and
needs to be corrected. Of all the available options, Option C The following sample passage and questions show the types
uses the most precise language (“understand,” “better of items you may encounter in the Reading Comprehension
equipped,” “diverse colleagues and customers”). section.
QUESTION 4
(F) The question asks for a sentence that is irrelevant to the
development of the argument in the passage. Sentence 7
(Option F), while related to the general topic of religion,
introduces the idea of a person’s freedom to practice a religion
but does not relate to the discussion about the study of
religion in schools. This sentence should be removed from the
passage.
30
Example 5
Several animal species, although they Gulls have learned that human habitation
remain wild, are comfortable living in close usually means a plentiful, easy food supply.
proximity to people. Some of these animals, They accept handouts eagerly and will drive
such as squirrels and pigeons, are plentiful off more mild-mannered birds, such as
5 even in big cities. Many make their home in 40 ducks, rather than share food with them.
buildings and have developed a taste for Gulls follow fishing boats and garbage
human food. Among these species, few have scows, knowing that these are reliable
a larger appetite for the products of human sources of easy pickings. They find landfills,
civilization than seagulls do. with their plentiful food scraps, especially
45 inviting. Unfortunately, this causes a
10 Despite the name, not all gulls live near the serious problem when the landfills are
sea. Of the forty-four gull species, several located near airports. Gulls have been
are found in deserts or mountain regions, sucked into the air intakes of jet engines,
although most inhabit shorelines. On the resulting in fatal plane crashes.
California coast, western gulls far
15 outnumber other gull species. Glaucous- 50 Many gulls have adapted to living among
winged gulls dominate the Pacific city skyscrapers. The buildings’ high roofs
Northwest; herring gulls, the North Atlantic and straight sides resemble the cliffs where
coast; ring-billed gulls, the Great Lakes and gulls nest in the wild and provide the same
other inland freshwater; and California kind of updrafts that allow seagulls to glide
20 gulls, despite their name, the Great Salt 55 and soar with little effort. Apart from an
Lake in Utah. Because of special glands occasional hawk, seagulls have few natural
above their eyes, all gulls can drink predators in urban settings. City living also
saltwater as well as freshwater. provides easy access to plenty of garbage.
Gulls have a varied natural diet, ranging It seems, though, that gulls are not the best
25 from fish and shellfish to rodents and 60 of neighbors. They are noisy and have been
insects. They typically break shellfish open known to damage buildings and farm crops
by carrying them while they fly and then and to pester humans carrying food. A
dropping them onto a hard surface. Some whole “gull control” industry has sprung up
gulls have been seen trying to dine on some to discourage seagulls from congregating
30 rather unusual substances. For example, 65 near human communities. For example,
gulls have attempted to eat golf balls, electronic devices produce flashing lights or
perhaps mistaking them for the eggs of the sounds of predators, and spikes and
another species of bird. Others have sprinklers on buildings and fences deter the
dropped metal objects, such as nuts and birds from roosting. As long as people
35 bolts, from the sky onto the ground. 70 continue to provide them with food,
however, gulls will probably remain the
birds next door.
31
Example 5 continued...
1. Which of the following best tells what this 3. What species of gull would have the least use
passage is about? for the special glands mentioned in line 21?
A. how gulls pester both people and animals A. ring-billed
B. how gulls have adapted to living near B. herring
human communities C. western
C. how gulls have become tame D. glaucous-winged
D. how gulls’ intelligence helps them survive
2. Which of the following statements about the

eating habits of gulls is suggested by the
passage?
E. Gulls have developed a taste for metal
objects.
F. Gulls eat only food that people have
thrown away.
G. Gulls sometimes steal and eat the eggs of
other birds.
H. Gulls are fussy eaters compared with
other birds.
QUESTION 1 QUESTION 3
(B) The correct answer for this question must encompass the (A) The special glands mentioned in line 21 allow gulls to drink
main points without being overly broad. The passage explains saltwater as well as freshwater. All the gull species in the
how gulls have adapted to living in areas near humans, second paragraph, except the ring-billed gulls, live near
particularly in relation to the gulls’ diet (third paragraph and saltwater oceans or the Great Salt Lake. Thus, they need the
fourth paragraph) and where gulls prefer to fly or build nests special glands in order drink to saltwater. Ring-billed gulls live
(fifth paragraph). This main idea is best stated in Option B. near the Great Lakes and other inland freshwater. Freshwater
is easily accessible to them, so they have little use for the
special glands (Option A).
QUESTION 2
(G) The eating habits of gulls are mentioned in several places
throughout the passage. You must keep all of these in mind in
order to answer correctly. The third paragraph provides an
example of how gulls have attempted to eat golf balls because
the balls look like small round eggs. Based on this information,
you can infer that gulls eat the eggs of other types of birds.
This is best described in Option G.
32
SPECIFIC STRATEGIES MATHEMATICS
The Mathematics section consists of word problems and computational questions in either a multiple-
choice or grid-in format. There are 5 grid-in items and 52 multiple-choice items. The Mathematics section
includes arithmetic, algebra, probability, statistics, and geometry problems. The mathematical terms and
general concepts in these test questions can be found in Common Core Learning Standards for
Mathematics. The math problems involve application of topics covered in the Common Core. However, as
one of the purposes of this test is to identify students who will benefit from an education at a Specialized
High School, the SHSAT contains many questions that require using mathematical skills to respond to
novel situations.
Math problems on the Grade 8 test forms are based on material included in the New York City curriculum
through Grade 7. Math problems on the Grade 9 test forms are based on material through Grade 8.
TIPS FOR TAKING THE YOU MAY DRAW FIGURES OR DIAGRAMS for
questions that do not have them. This will help you visualize
MATHEMATICS SECTION OF THE the context of the problem.
SHSAT SOME QUESTIONS ASK YOU to combine a series of
T
simple steps. Take one step at a time, using what you know
o improve your mathematics skills, choose a
about mathematics and what the question tells you to do.
mathematics textbook or ask your teacher for
recommendations for websites for your grade level.
Practice solving five to ten problems every day. Do both
routine and challenging problems. Routine problems reinforce TIPS FOR MULTIPLE-CHOICE
basic mathematical skills. More challenging problems help you
QUESTIONS
understand mathematics concepts better. Do not limit yourself
only to types of problems that test what you have learned in MOST MULTIPLE-CHOICE PROBLEMS SHOULD
your mathematics class. Do not give up if you cannot BE DONE by working out the answer. This is more efficient
complete some of the problems. Skip them and move on. You than trying out the options to see which one fits the question.
may be able to solve them after you have practiced different The only exception is when you are explicitly asked to look at
types of problems. the options, as in, “Which of the following is an odd number?”
You must know the meanings of mathematical terms that are IF THE QUESTION IS A WORD PROBLEM, it is often
appropriate to your grade level, such as “parallel” and helpful to express it as an equation. When you obtain an
“perpendicular,” as well as the customary symbols that answer, look at the choices listed. If your answer is included
represent those terms. You also need to know various among the choices, mark it. If it is not, reread the question and
formulas learned in your mathematics class, such as those for solve it again.
the perimeter and area of different figures. You can find these
If your answer is not among the answer choices, write your
mathematical terms, symbols, and formulas in your
answer in a different form. For example, 10( x + 2) is equivalent
mathematics course materials. These terms, symbols, and
to 10x + 20. Or simplify the fraction, if your answer is in
formulas will NOT be given in the test booklet. Practice using
fraction form.
them to solve problems until you are comfortable with them.
Do not use a calculator when solving problems. Calculators THE INCORRECT CHOICES are answers that people
are not allowed on the test. often get if they misread the question or make common
computational errors. For this reason, it is unwise to solve a
READ EACH PROBLEM CAREFULLY and work out
problem in your head while looking at the possible choices. It
the answer on scrap paper or in your test booklet. Do not
is too easy to be attracted to a wrong choice.
calculate on your answer sheet.
33
SPECIFIC STRATEGIES MATHEMATICS continued...
TIPS FOR GRID-IN QUESTIONS When your answer

includes a decimal,
EXAMPLE D EXAMPLE E
The Mathematics section includes five grid-in questions in make sure to fill in the
which students must solve computational questions and circles that match all
provide the correct numerical answer rather than selecting the parts of your answer.
answer from multiple-choice options. For each grid-in For example, if your
question, you will write your answer in the boxes at the top of answer is 0.78, fill in the
the grid and fill in the circles within the grid that match the circles under the 0, “.,”
numbers or symbols that you wrote. 7, and 8, like in
Example D. Note that
The grid for each question is made up of five columns. When an answer displaying
you record your answer in the grid, begin on the left. .78 will also be
accepted as correct,
Print only one number or decimal symbol in each box. Use the like in Example E.
“.” symbol if your response includes a decimal point.
Fill in the circle under the box that matches the number or
symbol that you wrote.
Do not leave a box EXAMPLE F EXAMPLE G
Example A shows EXAMPLE A EXAMPLE B blank in the middle of
the acceptable way an answer. If there is a
to grid an answer of 5. blank in the middle of
Example B shows the your answer, it will be
acceptable way to grid scored as incorrect. For
an answer of 3.2. example, if your answer
is 308, Example F is
the acceptable way to
grid in your response. In
Example G, there is a
space between the 3
and the 8 rather than a
0—this is an
unacceptable way to
grid in your response
and will be scored as incorrect.

The first column on the left of the EXAMPLE C

Do not fill in a circle EXAMPLE H
grid is ONLY for recording a
under an unused box,
negative sign, as in Example C.
as in Example H. The
If your answer is positive, leave
answer recorded in
the first column blank and begin
Example H will be
recording your answer in the
scored as 3,080
second column.
because the circle in the
last column for 0 is filled
in.
34
SPECIFIC STRATEGIES MATHEMATICS continued...
IMPORTANT NOTES SAMPLE TESTS AND

PRACTICE GRID-IN QUESTIONS
For your answer to be scored, the circles in the grid that match
your answer must be filled in. If you write an answer in the
boxes but do not fill in the circles in the grid, your answer will The sample tests in this handbook are Grade 8 forms.
not be scored.
If you are taking the Grade 9 test, work the math problems on
A complete numerical response that is correct will be scored pages 143–146 as well. These problems cover topics that are
as correct, even if you accidentally begin recording in the introduced in the Common Core for Grade 8.
wrong column.
Additional grid-in questions are found on pages 149–151.
If you accidentally add a decimal point (with no additional
values or zeros) after a whole number, your answer will be Now you are ready to try sample test Form A. Begin by
scored as that whole number. For example, if your answer is 5, carefully reading the Directions on pages 36 and 37 and filling
as in Example A, an answer that is filled in as "5." or "5.0" will out side 1 of the Answer Sheet on page 38. For Form A, use
be considered an answer of "5" in scoring. side 2 of the Answer Sheet (page 39). When you are ready for
Form B, use the Answer Sheet on page 91. You may tear out
Double-check how you have filled in the circles for each pages 39 and 91 to make it easier to mark your answers.
grid. If there is more than one circle filled in for a column, your
answer will be scored as incorrect. If your answer written in the
boxes does not match how you have filled in the circles, your
score will be based on how you have filled in the circles, like in
Example H.
35
GRADE 8 A
NEW YORK CITY PUBLIC SCHOOLS
2017 Specialized High Schools
ADMISSIONS TEST
GENERAL DIRECTIONS
Identifying Information Fill in one and only one circle for each school for
which you wish to be considered. You may make
Turn to Side 1 of the answer sheet. Line 1 says, “I am as few as one or as many as eight choices. To increase
well enough to take this test and complete it. I under- your chances of being assigned to one of the specialized
stand that once I break the seal of the test booklet, I may high schools, you are encouraged to make more than one
not be eligible for a make-up test. I am a New York City choice. You must fill in a first choice school. Do not fill
resident and a Grade 8 student taking a Grade 8 test. in a school more than once. Do not fill in the same school
I understand that a student who is not a New York City for each choice. Fill in only one circle in a row and only
resident, who takes the test more than once in a given one circle in a column.
school year, or who takes the test at the wrong grade level
will be disqualified from acceptance to any of the Grid 6 asks for your date of birth. Print the first three
specialized high schools.” Sign your name in the space letters of the month in the first box, the number of the
following the word “signature.” Do not print your name. day in the next box, and the year in the last box. Then
Notify the proctor immediately if you are ill or fill in the corresponding circles.
should not be taking this test. Do not sign the For Grid 7:
statement or begin the test. Return your answer 1. Print the name of the school where you are now
sheet to the proctor. enrolled in the space at the top of the grid.
On Line 2, print today’s date, using the numbers of the 2. In the boxes marked “SCHOOL CODE,” print the six-
month, the day, and the year. On Line 3, print your birth digit code that identifies your school and fill in the
date with the number of the month first, then the number circle under the corresponding number or letter for
of the day, then the last two digits of the year. For each digit of the school code. (You can find your school
example, a birth date of March 1, 2003, would be 3-1-03. code on your Test Ticket. If it is not there, you or the
In Grid 4, print the letters of your first name, or as many proctor should look in the Feeder School List under the
as will fit, in the boxes. Write your name exactly as you borough in which your school is located to find the code
did on the application. If you have a middle initial, print it for your school.)
in the box labeled “MI.” Then print your last name, or as 3. If you attend a private or parochial school, fill in
much as will fit, in the boxes provided. Below each the circle marked “P.”
box, fill in the circle that contains the same letter as the
box. If there is a space in your name, or a hyphen, fill in Grid 8 is labeled “STUDENT ID NUMBER.” All SHSAT
the circle under the appropriate blank or hyphen. test-takers should write their student ID number in Grid
8. The student ID number is found on your Test Ticket.
Make dark marks that completely fill the circles. In the boxes, print your nine-digit student ID number.
If you change a mark, be sure to erase the first mark Below each box, fill in the circle containing the same
completely. number as in the box.
Grid 5 is for your choice of specialized high schools.
If Grid 5 is not marked correctly, your admission to a
specialized high school will be affected because your
admission is based on the score you attain and the
order in which you rank your school preferences. The DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET
school choices indicated on your answer sheet are final. UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
Therefore, carefully copy the order in which you ranked TURN YOUR BOOKLET OVER TO THE BACK COVER
the schools on your Test Ticket onto Grid 5.
Form A 36
GENERAL DIRECTIONS, continued
Grid 9 is labeled “BOOKLET LETTER AND NUMBER.” Planning Your Time

In most cases, Grid 9 is already filled in for you. If it is
not, copy the letter and numbers shown in the upper-right You have 180 minutes to complete the entire test. How
corner of your test booklet into the boxes. Below each you allot the time between the English Language Arts
box, fill in the circle containing the same letter or number and Mathematics sections is up to you. If you begin
as the box. with the English Language Arts section, you may
go on to the Mathematics section as soon as you are
Now review Side 1 to make sure you have completed all ready. Likewise, if you begin with the Mathematics
lines and grids correctly. Review each column to see that section, you may go on to the English Language
the filled-in circles correspond to the letters or numbers Arts section as soon as you are ready. It is
in the boxes above them. recommended that you do not spend more than
Turn your answer sheet to Side 2. Print your test booklet 90 minutes on either section. If you complete the test
letter and numbers, and your name, first name first, in before the allotted time (180 minutes) is over, you may go
the spaces provided. back to review questions in either section.
Marking Your Answers Work as rapidly as you can without making mistakes.
Don’t spend too much time on a difficult question. Return
Be sure to mark all your answers in the row of answer to it later if you have time.
circles corresponding to the question number printed in
Students must remain for the entire test session.
the test booklet. Use a Number 2 pencil. If you change
an answer, be sure to erase it completely. You may write Example 1
in your test booklet to solve problems, but your
answers must be recorded on the answer sheet in DIRECTIONS: Solve the problem. Find the best answer
order to be counted. Be careful to avoid making any among the answer choices given.
stray pencil marks on your answer sheet.
Each question has only one correct answer. If you mark E1. If four ice cream cones cost $2.00, how much will
more than one circle in any answer row, that question will three ice cream cones cost?
be scored as incorrect. Select the best answer for each
question. Your score is determined by the number of A. $0.50
questions you answered correctly. It is to your B. $1.00
advantage to answer every question, even though C. $1.25
you may not be certain which choice is correct. See
the example of correct and incorrect answer marks below. D. $1.50
SAMPLE ANSWER MARKS EXAMPLE ANSWER

1 A B C D RIGHT E1. A B C D
2 A B C D WRONG
3 A B C D WRONG
4 A B C D WRONG
5 A B C D WRONG
DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL

YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO
Copyright © 2017 Pearson. All rights reserved.

No part of this document may be copied, repro-
duced, modified, or transmitted by any means,
electronic or mechanical.
A 1109213 1 2 3 4 5 A B C D E
NY00001234
Printed in the USA ISD16301
37
t | | | | | | | | | | | | || || |
t SIDE 1
NEW YORK CITY PUBLIC SCHOOLS
2017 8
t SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS TEST
t
t GRADE 8
t 1. STUDENT STATEMENT: I am well enough to take this test and complete it. I understand that once I break the seal of the test booklet, I may
not be eligible for a make-up test. I am a New York City resident and a Grade 8 student taking a Grade 8 test. I understand that a student who
t is not a New York City resident, who takes the test more than once in a given school year, or who takes the test at the wrong grade level will be
t disqualified from acceptance to any of the specialized high schools.
t
t Signature (full name, first name first):
t
t 2. TODAY’S DATE: 3. DATE OF BIRTH:
t Month Day Year Month Day Year
t CAREFULLY RECORD YOUR NAME, SCHOOL CHOICES, INFORMATION ABOUT THE SCHOOL WHERE YOU ARE NOW ENROLLED, DATE OF BIRTH, AND STUDENT ID NUMBER.
t USE A PENCIL ONLY. INCORRECT MARKS MAY DELAY THE SCORING OF YOUR ANSWER SHEET.
t 4. FIRST NAME (please print) MI LAST NAME (surname) (please print) 5. CHOICES OF SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS
t Indicate your school choice in order of preference.
t • Fill in only one school for each choice.
t\\\\\\\\\\\ \ \\\\\\\\\\\\\\ • You must fill in a first choice school.
t\ -- \-- \ -- \-- \-- \
-- \-- \-- \
-- \-- \-- \-- \-- \-- \
-- \
-- \
-- \-- \
-- \
-- \-- \-- \-- \-- \-- \
-- • Fill in only one circle in a row and only one circle in a
column.
t\A \ A \ A \ A \ A \A \ A \ A \A \ A \ A \A \A \ A \A \A \A \ A \A \A \ A \ A \ A \ A \ A \A
t\B \ B \ B \ B \ B \B \ B \ B \B \ B \ B \B \B \ B \B \B \B \ B \B \B \ B \ B \ B \ B \B \ B
School choices indicated
t\C \ C \ C \ C \ C \C \ C \ C \C \ C \ C \C \C \ C \C \C \C \ C \C \C \ C \ C \ C \ C \C \ C on the answer sheet CHOICES
t\\\\\\\\\\\ \ \\\\\\\\\\\\\\
D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D are final.
2nd choice
3rd choice
4th choice
5th choice
6th choice
7th choice
8th choice
1st choice
t\E \ E \ E \ E \ E \E \ E \ E \E \ E \ E \E \E \ E \E \E \E \ E \E \E \ E \ E \ E \ E \ E \E
t\F \ F \ F \ F \ F \F \ F \ F \F \ F \ F \F \F \ F \F \F \F \ F \F \F \ F \ F \ F \ F \ F \F
t\G \ G \ G \ G \ G \G \ G \G \ G \ G \ G \G \G \ G \G \G \G \ G \G \G \G \ G \ G \ G \G \ G
SCHOOLS
t\H \ H \ H \ H \ H \H \ H \ H \H \ H \ H \H \H \ H \H \H \H \ H \H \H \ H \ H \ H \ H \H \ H
t\ I \ I \ I \ I \ I \I \ I \ I \I \ I \ I \ I \ I \ I \I \I \I \ I \I \I \ I \ I \ I \ I \ I \I Bronx Science »»»»»»»»

\\\\\\\\
t\ J \ J \ J \ J \ J \J \ J \ J \J \ J \ J \J \J \ J \J \J \J \ J \J \J \ J \ J \ J \ J \ J \J
t\K \ K \ K \ K \ K \K \ K \ K \K \ K \ K \K \K \ K \K \K \K \ K \K \K \ K \ K \ K \ K \K \ K Brooklyn Latin »»»»»»»»

\\\\\\\\
t\ L \ L \ L \ L \ L \L \ L \ L \L \ L \ L \L \L \ L \L \L \L \ L \L \L \ L \ L \ L \ L \ L \L
t\M \ M \ M \ M \ M \M \ M \M \ M \ M \ M \M \M \ M \M \M \M \ M \M \M \M \ M \ M \ M \M \ M Brooklyn Tech »»»»»»»»

\\\\\\\\
t\N \ N \ N \ N \ N \N \ N \ N \N \ N \ N \N \N \ N \N \N \N \ N \N \N \ N \ N \ N \ N \N \ N
t\O \ O \ O \ O \ O \O \ O \O \ O \ O \ O \O \O \ O \O \O \O \ O \O \O \O \ O \ O \ O \O \ O HS Math, Sci., & Engineering \\\\\\\\

»»»»»»»»
t\P \ P \ P \ P \ P \P \ P \ P \P \ P \ P \P \P \ P \P \P \P \ P \P \P \ P \ P \ P \ P \ P \P
t\Q \ Q \ Q \ Q \ Q \Q \ Q \Q \ Q \ Q \ Q \Q \Q \ Q \Q \Q \Q \ Q \Q \Q \Q \ Q \ Q \ Q \Q \ Q HS American Studies/Lehman \\\\\\\\»»»»»»»»

t\\\\\\\\\\\ \ \\\\\\\\\\\\\\
R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R
t\S \ S \ S \ S \ S \S \ S \ S \S \ S \ S \S \S \ S \S \S \S \ S \S \S \ S \ S \ S \ S \ S \S Queens Sci./York »»»»»»»»

\\\\\\\\
t\T \ T \ T \ T \ T \T \ T \ T \T \ T \ T \T \T \ T \T \T \T \ T \T \T \ T \ T \ T \ T \ T \T
t\U \ U \ U \ U \ U \U \ U \ U \U \ U \ U \U \U \ U \U \U \U \ U \U \U \ U \ U \ U \ U \U \ U Staten Island Tech »»»»»»»»

\\\\\\\\
t\V \ V \ V \ V \ V \V \ V \ V \V \ V \ V \V \V \ V \V \V \V \ V \V \V \ V \ V \ V \ V \ V \V
t\W \ W \ W \ W \ W \W \ W \W \ W \ W \ W \W \W \ W \W \W \W \ W \W \W \W \ W \ W \ W \W \ W Stuyvesant »»»»»»»»

\\\\\\\\
t\\\\\\\\\\\ \ \\\\\\\\\\\\\\
X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X
t\Y \ Y \ Y \ Y \ Y \Y \ Y \ Y \Y \ Y \ Y \Y \Y \ Y \Y \Y \Y \ Y \Y \Y \ Y \ Y \ Y \ Y \ Y \Y 9. BOOKLET
LETTER AND
t\Z \ Z \ Z \ Z \ Z \Z \ Z \ Z \Z \ Z \ Z \Z \Z \ Z \Z \Z \Z \ Z \Z \Z \ Z \ Z \ Z \ Z \ Z \Z
NUMBER
t 7. SCHOOL WHERE YOU ARE NOW ENROLLED
t 6. DATE OF BIRTH
t Month 8. STUDENT ID NUMBER \A \0 \ 0 \0 \ 0 \ 0 \ 0
Day Year
t NAME OF SCHOOL \B \1 \ 1 \1 \ 1 \ 1 \ 1
t – – \\\\\\\
C 2 2 2 2 2 2
School Code
t JAN \ \ 1 \ 11 \
21 \
19 \0 \
0 \
0 \0 \ 0 \0 \0 \ 0 \0 \ 0 \0 \D \3 \ 3 \3 \ 3 \ 3 \ 3
t FEB \ \ 2 \ 12 \
22 \
20 \1 \
1 P Fill in for private
\ \
1 \1 \ 1 \1 \1 \ 1 \1 \ 1 \1 \E \4 \ 4 \4 \ 4 \ 4 \ 4
or parochial
t MAR \ \ 3 \ 13 \
23 \2 \
2 \0 \ 0 \K \0 \0 \ 0 schools only \
2 \2 \ 2 \2 \2 \ 2 \2 \ 2 \2 \F \5 \ 5 \5 \ 5 \ 5 \ 5
t APR \ \ 4 \ 14 \
24 \3 \
3 \1 \ 1 \M \1 \1 \ 1 \
3 \3 \ 3 \3 \3 \ 3 \3 \ 3 \3 \G \6 \ 6 \6 \ 6 \ 6 \ 6
t MAY \ \ 5 \ 15 \
25 \4 \
4 \2 \ 2 \Q \2 \2 \ 2 \
4 \4 \ 4 \4 \4 \ 4 \4 \ 4 \4 \H \7 \ 7 \7 \ 7 \ 7 \ 7
t \ \\\
JUN 6 16 26 \ \
5 5 \\\\\\
3 3 X 3 3 3 \\\ \\\ \\\ \\\\\\\
5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 J 8 8 8 8 8 8
t \ \\\
JUL 7 17 27 \ \
6 6 \\\\\\
4 4 R 4 4 4 \\\ \\\ \\\ \\\\\\\
6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 K 9 9 9 9 9 9
t AUG \ \ 8 \ 18 \
28 \7 \
7 \5 \ 5 \W \5 \5 \ 5 \
7 \7 \ 7 \7 \7 \ 7 \7 \ 7 \7 \L
t \ SEP \9 \ 19 \
29 \8 \
8 \6 \ 6 \
6 \6 \ 6 \
8 \8 \ 8 \8 \8 \ 8 \8 \ 8 \8 \P
t OCT \ \ 10 \ 20 \
30 \9 \
9 \7 \ 7 \
7 \7 \ 7 \
9 \9 \ 9 \9 \9 \ 9 \9 \ 9 \9 \Q
t NOV \ \
31 \8 \ 8 \
8 \8 \ 8 \W
t DEC \ \9 \ 9 \
9 \9 \ 9 |
198824-001:321
38
| || || | | | | | | | | | | | | T
SIDE 2 T
NEW YORK CITY PUBLIC SCHOOLS T
2017 SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS TEST
T
GRADE 8 Test Booklet Letter Test Booklet Number T
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Student’s First Name (please print) Student’s Last Name (please print)
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PART 1 ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS T
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| Reprinted by Permission—Restricted Edition—Not for Distribution T
39
SAMPLE TEST, FORM A
PART 1 — ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS
Suggested Time — 90 Minutes
57 QUESTIONS
REVISING/EDITING
QUESTIONS 1–20
IMPORTANT NOTE
The Revising/Editing section (Questions 1-20) is in two parts: Part A and Part B.
REVISING/EDITING Part A
DIRECTIONS: Read and answer each of the following questions. You will be asked to recognize and
correct errors in sentences or short paragraphs. Mark the best answer for each question.
1. Read this sentence.
During a nightly-news segment about a cooking contest, a reporter talked to some people who did
the best in the contest.
Which of these is the most precise revision for the words talked to some people who did the best
in the contest?
A. conversed with some of the people who won the contest

B. spoke to the three contestants who did well
C. discussed the contest with some of the winners
D. interviewed the top three contestants
Form A 40 CONTINUE ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

2. Read this paragraph.
(1) When coal was used to heat homes, it frequently left a soot stain on the walls. (2) Brothers
Cleo and Noah McVicker, who owned a cleaning product company, created a doughy substance to
help people remove this soot. (3) Over time, as natural gas becomes more common, people had
little need for soot cleansers, and the McVickers’ family company struggled to stay in business.
(4) Then one day, Joe McVicker, Cleo’s son, learned that his sister-in-law had been using the
substance for art projects in her classroom, so he remarketed the product as the toy known today
as Play-Doh.
Which sentence should be revised to correct an inappropriate shift in verb tense?
E. sentence 1
F. sentence 2
G. sentence 3
H. sentence 4
The animal shelter, which is located on Midway Street, is looking for volunteers to help with a
variety of tasks, such as walking dogs cleaning kennels, hand-feeding newborn kittens, and
supporting the pet adoption process.
Which edit should be made in this sentence?
A. delete the comma after shelter

B. insert a comma after volunteers
C. insert a comma after dogs
D. delete the comma after kennels

4. Read these sentences.
(1) Flyby missions near Jupiter have been happening since 1973.
(2) Flyby missions allow scientists to collect data about Jupiter and its moons.
What is the best way to combine these sentences to clarify the relationship between the ideas?
E. Flyby missions near Jupiter, which allow scientists to collect data about the planet and its moons,
have been happening since 1973.
F. Although there have been flyby missions near Jupiter since 1973, they have allowed scientists to
collect data about the planet and its moons.
G. Flyby missions near Jupiter allow scientists to collect data about the planet and its moons, which
have been happening since 1973.
H. Since 1973 flyby missions have been happening near Jupiter, but they allow scientists to collect
data about the planet and its moons.
(1) Eliza and Brianna have been singing in their school chorus since they were in fourth grade.
(2) The girls always sing a duet at the school talent show, and they take turns singing the
national anthem before school sporting events. (3) Outside of school, she also sings in a choir
made up of young and old members of her community. (4) Both girls hope that they will be able
to continue singing for many more years.
Which sentence should be revised to correct a vague pronoun?
A. sentence 1
B. sentence 2
C. sentence 3
D. sentence 4
In 1962 the agile athletic Wilt Chamberlain became the first and only professional basketball
player in the United States to score 100 points in a single game.
E. insert a comma after agile

F. insert a comma after Chamberlain
G. insert a comma after only
H. insert a comma after States

REVISING/EDITING Part B
DIRECTIONS: Read the passage below and answer the questions following it. You will be asked to
improve the writing quality of the passage and to correct errors so that the passage follows the
conventions of standard written English. You may reread the passage if you need to. Mark the best
answer for each question.
Unlock, Ride, Return

(1) In metropolitan areas around the world, millions of cars, trucks, and taxis pack the streets every day,
causing headaches for commuters and polluting the environment. (2) Public transportation eases some
of this congestion, but crowding and potential delays are still an issue for many travelers. (3) In recent
years, another transportation option has been gaining momentum in some cities. (4) This option is all
about sharing bicycles, which is a creative and new idea for some.
(5) The bike share concept is fairly simple. (6) Bike stations are set up at multiple locations in a city.
(7) Frequent users can purchase a membership pass, while less-frequent users or tourists can buy a daily
permit. (8) Many city bikers prefer bike sharing over ownership. (9) They are not responsible for the
bike’s storage or its maintenance. (10) Tourists also benefit from having an affordable way to experience
the sites of a city.
(11) The largest bike sharing program in the United States today is in New York City. (12) Known as
Citi Bike, the program was launched in 2013 and now boasts 10,000 bikes spread across 600 stations in
Manhattan, Brooklyn, and Queens. (13) Similarly, in Hangzhou, China, a city of 7 million residents,
there are approximately 75,000 bikes offered across 2,700 stations. (14) In 2016, people used Citi Bike
for a lot of trips, which turned out to be a huge increase in the number of people taking rides from the
previous year. (15) These numbers are likely to increase further, since the program is set to expand into
additional neighborhoods soon. (16) According to Citi Bike, the bike sharing concept has gained rapid
popularity because it is “faster than walking, cheaper than a taxi, and more fun than the subway.”
(17) New York City officials estimated that in 2016 the bike share program had kept nearly 5,000 tons of
carbon dioxide out of the city’s air. (18) Officials in Montreal, Canada, and Lyon, France, have noted
similar impacts on air quality.
(19) As populations grow, fuel costs increase, and environmental concerns escalate, people will continue
to search for more economical and environmentally friendly ways to travel. (20) Bike sharing is a new
mode of transportation.
7. Which sentence should replace sentence 4 to more clearly introduce the topic of this passage?
A. Bike share programs have become an accessible and environmentally friendly solution for many
urban travelers.
B. Bike share programs are successful because both residents and tourists can use the bicycles to
travel within a city.
C. Bike share programs offer an alternative form of transportation in urban areas that is faster
than using a car or taxi.
D. Bike share programs have created an affordable mode of transportation for people in large cities
throughout the world.

8. Which sentence can best follow sentence 6 to help develop the ideas in the second paragraph
(sentences 5–10)?
E. Bike sharing stations that are located near tourist destinations or major transportation hubs are
the most popular.
F. A person obtains a bike from one station, rides it for a period of time, and then returns the bike to
the original station or to another station within the system.
G. A mechanism called a dock keeps each bicycle securely locked to the station until a user comes
along, releases the lock, and starts a ride.
H. Bike sharing stations have been built in many of the largest cities in the United States, including
Boston, San Francisco, Chicago, Minneapolis, and Denver.
9. What is the best way to combine sentences 8 and 9 to clarify the relationship between the ideas?
A. Although they prefer bike sharing over ownership, many city bikers are not responsible for the
bike’s storage or its maintenance.
B. Many city bikers prefer bike sharing over ownership, and they are not responsible for the bike’s
storage or its maintenance.
C. Since many city bikers prefer bike sharing over ownership, they are not responsible for the bike’s
storage or its maintenance.
D. Many city bikers prefer bike sharing over ownership because they are not responsible for the
bike’s storage or its maintenance.
E. In 2016, data revealed that Citi Bike was used for millions of trips, which shows that the
program had a 40 percent increase in ridership from the previous year.
F. In 2016, nearly 14 million trips were recorded by Citi Bike, which adds up to a huge increase in
ridership compared with the previous year.
G. In 2016, Citi Bike documented nearly 14 million trips, which amounted to an astonishing
40 percent increase in ridership from the previous year.
H. In 2016, Citi Bike saw several million trips, which turned out to be a big increase in ridership
from the previous year.
11. Which sentence should be added before sentence 17 to improve the organization of the fourth
paragraph (sentences 17–18)?
A. Experts increasingly want to discuss the positive effects of bike sharing programs, such as Citi
Bike, in big cities.
B. While bike sharing programs offer clear benefits to riders, some people cite another reason for
their support of the bike share model.
C. If bike sharing programs are going to continue to increase in popularity, it is important for
communities to discuss all the benefits these programs offer.
D. Citi Bike is an innovative program that can cite positive statistics about ridership from one year
to another.

12. Which sentence could best follow sentence 18 and support the main point of the fourth paragraph
(sentences 17–18)?
E. Bike share programs are developed in cities mainly to improve air quality.
F. Participating in a bike share program is the main way travelers can improve air quality in cities.
G. Cities may begin to experience improved air quality as more travelers use bike share programs.
H. Bike share programs may be more effective at improving air quality in some cities than they are
in other cities.
13. Which sentence is irrelevant to the ideas in the third paragraph (sentences 11–16) and should be
deleted?
A. sentence 12
B. sentence 13
C. sentence 15
D. sentence 16
14. Which concluding sentence should replace sentence 20 to better support the information presented in
the passage?
E. Over time, bike sharing may become a routine part of modern urban life.
F. Even small- or medium-sized cities can benefit from implementing a bike share program.
G. Compared with other solutions, bike sharing seems to have the most potential.
H. Ultimately, bike sharing is an interesting and unique way for tourists to explore a city.

Pursuing a Hobby
(1) A hobby is an activity or interest that a person pursues for pleasure or relaxation. (2) For some it is a
sport or a game, while for others it is an art, a craft, or a volunteer opportunity. (3) Becoming involved in
a hobby can seem difficult and time consuming, but that should not stop people from pursuing one.
(4) Hobbies can be an outlet for the stress of everyday life. (5) School, work, family responsibilities, and
relationships can all compete for a person’s time and attention. (6) Many people exhibit psychological
symptoms of stress, such as boredom, tension, and anxiety. (7) Others report physical symptoms,
including low energy, headaches, and insomnia. (8) Reading books, creating works of art, or playing
games can give the human mind a reprieve from stress. (9) But stress relief is not the only benefit of
pursuing a hobby.
(10) People who regularly pursue a hobby spend time in what is called active leisure. (11) Active leisure
involves doing an activity that is relaxing but that also expends some mental or physical energy, such as
following a pattern to knit a scarf, analyzing statistics about a favorite sports team, or doing light
noncompetitive exercise. (12) During active leisure, people may experience what experts call flow, or a
state of effortless concentration. (13) Pursuing a stimulating hobby can help a person find flow, which
psychologists believe is more relaxing and restorative than passive leisure activities, such as watching
television. (14) Many successful businesspeople and celebrities have said that they pursue hobbies in
their free time.
(15) Another benefit of hobbies is that they can encourage positive social interaction among people with
similar interests. (16) A hobbyist might decide to do something to get better at a hobby or go to places
with other people interested in the hobby. (17) Making connections and having discussions with fellow
hobbyists can enhance a person’s knowledge about a hobby while fostering new friendships.
(18) Free time is a precious commodity, and spending it engaged in a hobby has many advantages.
(19) Finding an enjoyable hobby may take effort, but the physical, mental, and social effects of engaging
in a hobby are overwhelmingly positive.
15. Which sentence should follow sentence 3 to state the main claim of the passage?
A. Hobbies offer a variety of benefits, and people should set aside time to pursue them.
B. People should select a hobby carefully before investing the time and resources.
C. Hobbies are a productive way to spend free time, so people should pursue them.
D. People should find hobbies that bring them pleasure and enjoyment.
16. Which transition word or phrase should be added to the beginning of sentence 6?
E. For example
F. Indeed
G. As a result
H. Also

Active hobbies, such as jogging or yoga, can also provide relief from some of the effects of stress,
because they prompt the body to release chemicals called endorphins, which can promote positive
feelings.
Where should this sentence be added to best support the ideas in the second paragraph
(sentences 4–9)?
A. between sentences 6 and 7

B. between sentences 7 and 8
C. between sentences 8 and 9
D. at the end of the paragraph (after sentence 9)
E. A hobbyist might try to learn more about a hobby or go to events with other people who also like
the same hobby.
F. A hobbyist might enroll in a course related to the hobby or attend a convention with other people
who enjoy the hobby.
G. A hobbyist might try to find new information about a hobby or go to places where other people
are involved with the hobby.
H. A hobbyist might want to expand his or her knowledge of a hobby or do an activity with other
people who pursue the same hobby.
19. Which sentence would best follow sentence 17 to support the ideas in the fourth paragraph
A. Meaningful friendships are associated with an increased sense of self-confidence and happiness.
B. Participating in a hobby with friends is usually more enjoyable than pursuing a hobby alone.
C. Friends who enjoy pursing a hobby together will likely enjoy pursuing other hobbies together.
D. Forming deep and rich friendships can become more challenging as people get older.
20. Which sentence is irrelevant to the ideas presented in the third paragraph (sentences 10–14) and
should be deleted?
E. sentence 10
F. sentence 11
G. sentence 13
H. sentence 14

READING COMPREHENSION
QUESTIONS 21–57
DIRECTIONS: Read the passage below and answer the questions following it. Base your answers on
information contained only in the passage. You may reread a passage if you need to. Mark the best
The eruption of the Philippine volcano Mount 40 Some religious leaders warned their
Pinatubo in June 1991 sent a huge cloud of congregations that the unusual weather
gas and dust encircling the globe. The dust meant that the end of the world was drawing
and ash from Mount Pinatubo was blamed near. Other leaders attributed the cool
5 for a two-year decrease in global weather to unusual sunspot activity. The
temperature, changes in weather patterns, 45 proliferation of the newly invented lightning
and damage to the ozone layer. The situation rod was also blamed. Some people believed
brings to mind a meteorological event that that lightning rods had interrupted the
occurred 175 years earlier. At that time, natural temperature balance of Earth,
10 harsh weather conditions plagued much of causing the cooler temperatures.
eastern North America and, to a lesser
extent, northern Europe. 50 It was not until October that the first
plausible explanation for “The Year Without a
April 1816 brought typical spring weather to Summer” was suggested. A German
upstate New York and New England; trees astronomer, Friedrich Bessel, reported seeing
15 budded, and farmers prepared to plow and thick clouds of dust in the upper atmosphere.
plant. In May, however, the expected warm 55 He theorized that these dust particles
temperatures failed to arrive. Most people screened portions of Earth from the warming
remained optimistic, waiting for the summer rays of the sun. It was discovered that in
that was “just around the corner.” They April 1815, Mount Tambora, an Indonesian
20 waited in vain. June ushered in what modern volcano, had erupted with such force that it
meteorologists call “The Year Without a 60 had sent an estimated 100 cubic miles of fine
Summer.” During the first week of June, dust into the atmosphere. Witnesses to the
ten inches of snow fell on New England. eruption reported that the sky remained dark
Throughout the month, temperatures rarely for two days. The dust then rose high into the
25 rose above the 30s. Many farmers replanted stratosphere, where it encircled the world for
crops several times, only to see them stunted 65 several years to come.
or destroyed by sleet, hail, and icy winds.
July and August brought little improvement. Skeptics in 1816 doubted that a faraway
During most days the temperature stayed in volcano could steal their summer. However,
30 the 40s. Farmers’ diaries document the most present-day researchers believe Bessel’s
farmers’ daily struggles with near-freezing explanation to be generally correct,
temperatures, failing crops, and dying farm 70 demonstrating the global nature of weather.
animals. The few crops that managed to The dust in the atmosphere eventually
survive were killed by frost in mid- settled, and the spring of 1817 was back to
35 September. Winter came early in New normal.
England and was unusually severe. Even the
South was affected; on July 4, the high
temperature for Savannah, Georgia, was only
46 degrees!

21. Which of the following best tells what this 24. Which of the following is implied by the
passage is about? phrase “the global nature of weather”
(line 70)?
A. the belief of some religious leaders that
the end of the world was coming in 1816 E. Understanding weather events around
B. a summer of strange weather and its the world is important for making
probable cause weather predictions.
C. the importance of summer weather to F. Extreme weather conditions in some
agriculture in New England parts of the world can have a lasting
D. a comparison of the weather of 1816 and impact on a geographical area.
1991 G. Natural disasters tend to occur in
different parts of the world at the same
time.
22. What is the most likely reason farmers
H. Conditions in one part of the world can
persisted in replanting their crops?
affect weather in another part of the
E. They believed that the cold weather could world.
not continue all summer long.
F. They thought that crops would be able to 25. The author includes the details about the
survive even though the weather eruption of Mount Tambora in lines 57–65 in
remained cold. order to
G. The weather had warmed up by July.
H. They thought the June snowfalls would A. emphasize that the aftermath of the
provide needed moisture. eruption still affects the environment
today.
B. highlight the severe impact that the
23. In the winter that followed the summer of
eruption had on the atmosphere.
1816, New Englanders most likely
C. provide details about what happens
experienced
during a volcanic eruption.
A. new weather events that they had not D. suggest that weather events around the
encountered before. world caused the eruption.
B. temperatures that were warmer than
usual for that time of year.
C. shortages of fruits, vegetables, and other
essential crops.
D. difficulty adjusting to a different time
line for planting crops.

26. The cold summer of 1816 was most likely 27. How does the third paragraph contribute to
caused by the passage?
E. unusual sunspot activity. A. It presents the most probable cause of the

F. the excessive use of lightning rods. 1816 weather.
G. damage to the ozone layer. B. It shows how nineteenth-century people
H. an increase in dust in the atmosphere. explained the 1816 weather.
C. It presents a theory about the 1816
weather that some skeptics doubted.
D. It includes eyewitness reports to describe
the source of the 1816 weather.

The British novelist Charles Dickens is well was sent back to school. “I know how these
known for the colorful and eccentric things have worked together to make me
characters he created in his many novels. But 40 what I am,” Dickens later wrote, but he never
one of his books, David Copperfield, seems to forgot that his mother was eager for him to
5 have a great deal to do with fact as well as return to work.
fiction. After attempting to write his
autobiography, Dickens abandoned the As an adult, Dickens always remembered the
project and began to work on a novel, the plot shame and humiliation he felt during those
of which was loosely based on his own 45 months at the factory. For years afterward,
10 boyhood experiences. Apparently, it was whenever in London, he could not go near the
easier for him to weave the events of his own sites of the factory and boardinghouse, going
life into the fiction of David Copperfield than out of his way to avoid those painful
to write about them in nonfiction. reminders of his past. In fact, Dickens never
50 told his wife and children about his childhood
Some of Dickens’s most troubling memories work experience. It was only after his death
15 involved a job he held in 1824 as a 12-year- that they heard of it from a family friend
old child. Because his family was deeply in whom Dickens had confided in.
debt, he was forced to quit school and go to
work in a London factory, pasting labels on Instead, Dickens expressed his feelings by
pots of shoe polish. Dickens lived in a 55 giving his fictional “other self,” David
20 boardinghouse, using his meager wages to Copperfield, a job similar to the one he had so
support himself and to help pay his family’s hated. In the novel, ten-year-old David is
debts. He worked in the dreary, run-down forced by his harsh stepfather to work as a
factory six days a week from 8:00 a.m. to bottle washer in a factory. Young David, who
8:00 p.m. Such long hours were not unusual 60 “suffered exquisitely” as a child manual
25 at the time, for children or adults, but laborer, was apparently Dickens’s way of
Dickens was miserable during the entire four dealing with his own past. David Copperfield
months he spent working at the factory. was to become Dickens’s most popular novel,
and Dickens himself called it his “favorite
Even when the family finances improved, 65 child.”
Dickens continued to work at the factory
30 until his father quarreled with Dickens’s
boss, who promptly dismissed the son.
Dickens was upset at being fired but relieved
to be out of the factory. Thus he felt betrayed
when his mother, anxious for the boy’s weekly
35 wage, succeeded in making peace and getting
Dickens’s job back for him. The father,
however, now sided with his son, and the boy

28. Which of the following best tells what this 31. Which of the following is the most likely
passage is about? reason that Dickens wrote David
Copperfield?
E. Dickens’s motivations for becoming a
writer A. He needed money from the novel to help
F. Dickens’s childhood relationship with his pay his family’s debts.
parents B. He needed a way to cope with the
G. the autobiographical basis for Dickens’s difficulties of his childhood.
David Copperfield C. He wanted to avoid telling his children
H. the characters created by Dickens for about his experiences in the factory.
David Copperfield D. He wanted to explain how his childhood
had influenced his adult life.
29. In the fourth paragraph, the author includes
details about Dickens’s experiences as an 32. Based on the details in the third paragraph,
adult in order to what can be concluded about the relationship
between Dickens and his mother?
A. highlight that the time Dickens spent
working in the factory affected him E. He avoided her after he was allowed to
throughout his life. return to school.
B. emphasize that Dickens made sure he F. He resented her for putting the need for
would never have to work in a factory his wages above his happiness.
again. G. He hoped she would understand why
C. highlight that Dickens did not readily attending school was important to him.
share details about his childhood with H. He recognized that she had the authority
others. to negotiate on his behalf.
D. emphasize that Dickens did not want his
own children to experience hardships.
33. What most directly enabled Charles Dickens
to return to school?
30. The details in the second and third
paragraphs suggest that young Dickens A. the discussion between his mother and
his boss
E. struggled to perform his job in the factory. B. the argument between his father and his
F. worried about the financial situation of boss
his family. C. getting fired from the factory
G. wished he had a better relationship with D. getting support from his father
his parents.
H. preferred attending school to working in
a factory.

When you eat an orange, your experience of techniques have been developed to capture
its flavor comes from the combination of its the aromas of food as it is being prepared—
aroma and its taste. Taste buds, the sensory 40 such as the smell of baking bread—and distill
receptors on the tongue, convey information the essential chemicals from these essences.
5 to the brain about chemicals in food while the Flavorists use their highly developed senses
food dissolves in saliva. The sense of smell of taste and smell to attempt to produce
comes into play when the olfactory nerve in acceptable flavorings that are chemically
the nasal passages senses even very low 45 identical to, but purer than, flavors that are
concentrations of food chemicals in gaseous naturally present in unprocessed food.
10 form. The sense of smell has a larger role in
tasting flavors than most people realize— Although American consumers claim to want
that is, until they have a stuffy nose and “natural” flavors in their food, taste tests
nothing tastes good. demonstrate that they often prefer their
50 synthetically produced counterparts.
If taste and smell depend on our detection of Artificial flavors tend to be stronger and less
15 food chemicals, one might expect that subtle than natural flavors. For example,
chemists would be able to duplicate the many Americans prefer a soft drink created
flavors of foods. In fact, a surprising number with artificial flavors, such as orange soda,
of popular food flavors can now be reproduced 55 over an “all-natural” soda flavored with real
in the laboratory, and even more are on the oranges, which may taste weak in
20 way. Orange, perhaps the most popular flavor comparison. In fact, some flavorists worry
worldwide, has been reproduced successfully. that consumers will develop such a strong
So have some national favorites, including taste for artificial flavors that natural
cashew (Latin America), paprika (Hungary), 60 flavorings, usually more expensive than their
and fruit-flavored Jamaica (Mexico). artificial counterparts, will become scarce.
25 Synthetic flavors are not limited to flavoring
food; they are also added to mouthwashes, Researchers have not always been successful
toothpastes, beverages, and other consumer in their efforts to duplicate natural flavors.
products. Some popular flavors, such as coffee,
65 strawberry, and chocolate, have proven
Only a small proportion of the chemical virtually impossible to reproduce. The
30 components occurring naturally in foods difficulty in creating a flavor like chocolate,
actually contributes to their flavor. To experts say, is its complexity—a mysterious
identify these critical components, scientists combination of sweet and bitter that excites
use a gas chromatograph to separate a food 70 the taste buds in an unusual and satisfying
into its basic chemical constituents. Flavor way.
35 experts, called flavorists, then attempt to
isolate those chemicals that are essential to
the distinctive flavor of a food. Mechanical

34. Which of the following best tells what this 37. Why does the author mention orange soda in
passage is about? the fourth paragraph?
E. the relationship between smell and taste A. to suggest that consumer preferences for
F. the science of how taste buds work natural or artificial flavors vary
G. the analysis and creation of flavors B. to explain why natural flavors are more
H. the difficulty of producing artificial expensive than artificial substitutes
flavors C. to demonstrate that consumers
sometimes prefer artificial flavors to
natural flavors
35. What is the principal goal of the scientific
D. to give an example of a natural flavor
research described in the third paragraph?
that may become difficult to find in the
A. to predict consumer taste preferences in future
food
B. to develop food with strong flavors 38. The author describes the role that the sense
C. to produce synthetic equivalents of of smell plays when experiencing a flavor
natural food flavors (lines 6–13) in order to
D. to improve the natural flavors in
unprocessed food E. emphasize that it is easier for a person to
sense the aroma of a flavor than its taste.
F. highlight that the aroma of a flavor
36. Which of the following can be concluded from
the collection of aromas during food influences how a person perceives its
preparation? taste.
G. emphasize that synthetic flavors need to
E. Creating artificial flavors from captured have both an aroma and a taste.
aromas is a difficult process. H. highlight that synthetic flavors tend to
F. Certain chemical components of a food’s have a stronger aroma than taste.
flavor are present in its aroma.
G. Most people cannot tell the difference 39. The author includes details about the uses
between natural flavors and artificial for synthetic flavors in lines 25–28 in order to
flavors.
H. The natural flavor of a food is usually A. show that synthetic flavors are easy to
enhanced during the cooking process. create.
B. demonstrate that many items are made
with the same synthetic flavor.
C. suggest that synthetic flavors are
healthier than natural flavors.
D. highlight that synthetic flavors are found
in a variety of everyday items.

The African country of Zimbabwe took its built by the Queen of Sheba. British
name from the Shona word meaning “stone authorities sent a British journalist, Richard
enclosures” or “venerated houses.” In fact, Hall, to Great Zimbabwe to investigate
today dozens of stone ruins are scattered 50 Mauch’s report. Archaeology was still in its
5 throughout Zimbabwe and other areas in infancy, and Hall, convinced that the
southeastern Africa. One of these ruins, structures had been built by ancient people
known as Great Zimbabwe, was once a fabled from the Middle East, dug up and discarded
city that inspired tales that circulated archaeological deposits that would have
throughout Europe. Where was this 55 revealed much about the true history of
10 remarkable city, and who had built it? For Great Zimbabwe. Later European
centuries the mystery occupied the minds of excavations destroyed even more valuable
explorers and treasure seekers. evidence.
The first reports to Europeans of Great In the twentieth century, after excavating
Zimbabwe were spread a thousand years ago 60 areas that had not been disturbed, David
15 by Arab traders sailing between the Middle Randall-MacIver, a Scottish Egyptologist, and
East and the east coast of Africa. They told of Gertrude Caton-Thompson, an English
the fabulous wealth of a mysterious stone archaeologist, concluded that the ruins were
city in the African interior. In their tales, that unmistakably African in origin. Great
city became associated with their 65 Zimbabwe was most likely built during the
20 understanding of Middle Eastern history— fourteenth or fifteenth century by the
the Queen of Sheba, King Solomon, and his ancestors of the present-day Shona people.
legendary gold mines, long since lost to the Recent carbon-14 dating supports their
world. By the sixteenth century, Portuguese conclusion. Great Zimbabwe was once home
explorers regularly visited East Africa, 70 to an estimated 20,000 people, the center of a
25 searching for “King Solomon’s gold,” but they great Shona kingdom. Wealthy Shona kings
never found Great Zimbabwe. In 1552, a traded their ivory and gold in coastal towns
Portuguese historian, João de Barros, for other goods, thus accounting for the
recorded a story told by the Arabs about a discovery of beads and other foreign wares in
city with a “square fortress of masonry 75 the ruins.
30 within and without, built of stones of
marvelous size, and there appears to be no One mystery of Great Zimbabwe had been
mortar joining them.” solved. Another mystery remains: why was
the settlement at Great Zimbabwe
In fact, Great Zimbabwe was a marvel. In one abandoned, leaving the magnificent stone
area, a massive wall, over thirty feet high 80 architecture to fall into ruins?
35 and twenty feet thick, created a great
enclosure. Another area contained a fortress-
like series of walls, corridors, and steps built
into the bluff above. Throughout the city, each
stone was precisely fitted to the others
40 without the use of mortar.
In the 1870s, a German geologist, Karl

Mauch, was the first European to see Great
Zimbabwe, by then in ruins. Mauch realized
that he had “rediscovered” the fabled city
45 from de Barros’s story. He jumped to the
conclusion that Great Zimbabwe had been

40. Which statement best describes the central 43. Which of the following statements about the
idea of the passage? Shona people is best supported by the
passage?
E. Great Zimbabwe was an enormous stone
city thought to be home to some of the A. They live along the east coast of Africa.
greatest treasure of ancient history. B. They are descendants of the people who
F. Mysteries related to Great Zimbabwe built Great Zimbabwe.
continue to interest historians and C. They lived in the Middle East before
explorers even though archaeologists settling in Africa.
have confirmed its origins. D. They were once ruled by King Solomon
G. The history of Great Zimbabwe was and the Queen of Sheba.
subject to much speculation until modern
archaeologists definitively determined its
44. The conclusions of David Randall-MacIver
origins.
and Gertrude Caton-Thompson were
H. Early missteps in the study and
significant mostly because they
excavation of the Great Zimbabwe ruins
led to the loss of valuable evidence about E. proved that Great Zimbabwe was much
the city. older than previously thought.
F. questioned why the Shona people left
41. What was the main way that Karl Mauch’s Great Zimbabwe.
conclusions about Great Zimbabwe G. supported the idea that ancient Shona
(lines 45–47) affected later archaeological society was robust.
investigations? H. revealed that Great Zimbabwe was
created by the ancient Shona people.
A. Archaeologists from all over Europe
became interested in excavating the area. 45. Which of the following best describes the
B. Archaeologists made assumptions about
relationship of Portuguese explorers to Great
the history of the ruins before excavating. Zimbabwe?
C. Archaeologists started to believe that
many of the past accounts recorded about A. They searched for it but were never able
the ruins were true. to find it.
D. Archaeologists realized it was unlikely B. They hoped it was as grand as they had
that an ancient culture could build such a been told by traders.
grand structure. C. They knew it was unlikely they would
find the stone city.
42. What was “one mystery of Great Zimbabwe” D. They had to rely on information from
(line 76) that had been solved? others in order to search for it.
E. when the settlement was abandoned and

why
F. why there was no ivory or gold found in
the ruins
G. why the ruins remained undiscovered
until the 1870s
H. who had built the settlement and when

In many cultures, the ugly physical depend on them for food and shelter—would
appearance of the bat has given it an be threatened to the point of extinction.
unearned reputation as an evil and vicious 40 Areas outside the rain forests would be
bearer of diseases. Many people, for example, affected as well, since the rain forests’ lush
5 believe that little brown bats carry rabies. In vegetation replenishes the oxygen in the
fact, they are no more likely to transmit the global atmosphere.
disease than other animals, such as dogs.
Brown bats actually help prevent disease, not Unfortunately, many people are determined
spread it. The basis of their diet is the 45 to get rid of bats. Flying foxes are at
10 mosquito, an insect that transmits more particular risk. In the wild, they feed on wild
diseases than all the bats in the world fruit, but when their rain forest habitat is
combined. reduced by conversion into farmland or
residential areas, they occasionally raid
A group of bat species known as flying foxes 50 cultivated fruit trees, spoiling the crops.
or fruit bats serves another important Several flying fox species have been hunted
15 purpose as a critical link in the reproduction to extinction, while others are seriously
of many tropical trees and shrubs. In the endangered.
tropical rain forests of Africa, Asia, and
Australia, plants such as avocados, date Conservation groups and government
trees, cashews, and mangoes rely in part on 55 agencies in many countries are attempting to
20 flying foxes for pollination. One of Africa’s change people’s attitudes toward bats. When
most valuable hardwood trees, the iroko, is people learn that bats pollinate the trees and
entirely dependent on this type of bat for crops that provide their livelihood, they are
pollination. Flying foxes feed on flowers, fruit, more likely to appreciate and protect the bats
and nectar, flying from one plant to another 60 in their area. There are also effective,
25 and pollinating the plants as they go, much nonharmful ways to deal with troublesome
as bees do in other parts of the world. bats. Orchard owners can cover their trees
Because they are sloppy eaters, flying foxes with netting to discourage the bats, and there
drop fruit as they go, dispersing the seeds. are humane methods for moving bats from
They can travel great distances and convey 65 places where they are not wanted. For the
30 pollen and seeds far from their origins, sake of the rain forests and for life-forms
thereby maintaining the genetic biodiversity everywhere that depend on them, it is urgent
within a plant species. that people apply a new twist to an old adage
and realize that ugliness is only skin deep.
Because of the importance of bats’ role in
pollination and seed distribution, scientists
35 consider them a keystone in the ecosystems
of tropical rain forests. Without bats, many
bat-pollinated plants—and the animals that

46. Which statement best reflects the central 49. Which evidence best supports the claim that
idea of this passage? the bat is important to the survival of certain
species?
E. Bats provide numerous benefits to the
environment and should be protected. A. the details about how bats pollinate the
F. Bats are still considered pests even iroko tree
though people understand that bats are B. the information about how bats help
helpful. maintain genetic diversity
G. Bats help limit the spread of disease by C. the details about how bats sometimes eat
eating insects that carry diseases. cultivated fruit trees
H. Bats are responsible for pollinating a D. the information about how bats consume
variety of rain forest plants across great mainly mosquitoes
distances.
50. In the third paragraph, the author includes
47. Which of the following best describes animal the details about the bat’s role as a keystone
species that function as a “keystone” species in order to
(line 35)?
E. convey that bats help distribute seeds
A. They can be threatened with extinction. throughout the rain forest.
B. They are a food source for other animals. F. show that bats provide food and shelter
C. They pollinate many different types of for other animals.
plants. G. emphasize that threats to bats would
D. They help maintain the balance of their affect the rain forest ecosystem.
environment. H. highlight that bats help maintain the
levels of oxygen in the atmosphere.
48. Which statement best describes the author’s
opinion about bat conservation? 51. What does the author intend to convey by the
statement “ugliness is only skin deep”
E. Allowing bats to occasionally eat crops (line 69)?
and fruit from cultivated trees is a good
way to prevent bats from becoming A. Certain species of bats have a less
endangered. appealing physical appearance than other
F. Because bats can support the growth of species of bats.
many different species, they should be B. People should avoid making assumptions
relocated to areas with struggling about bats based on the animals’ physical
ecosystems. appearance.
G. Although bats may seem to be a nuisance, C. People should avoid removing bats from
it is vitally important that they are certain areas because of the physical
protected and managed in humane ways. appearance of bats.
H. Protecting the bat population takes D. Efforts to conserve bats are worthwhile
priority over concerns about bats ruining even though people dislike the animals’
cultivated trees and crops. physical appearance.

Imagine living in a society where ordinary transcripts. By the mid-1960s, the samizdat
people could be punished for what they network produced sophisticated political
choose to read and write. For much of the 40 news, debate, and analysis.
twentieth century, such a closed society
5 existed in Russia and the rest of the Soviet The great Russian novelist Boris Pasternak
Union. The Soviet government tried to had his work published as samizdat. Like
dominate its citizens’ activities and ideas by other writers, he feared that an appearance
controlling the information that they of disloyalty to the Soviet state would bring a
received. Government censors examined 45 knock at his door in the middle of the night.
10 books, films, and newscasts and banned His classic novel Doctor Zhivago was
anything they considered objectionable. They smuggled out of the Soviet Union for
censored criticism of the Soviet government, publication in Western countries in 1956; in
news from the outside world, and anything Russia, it appeared only as samizdat.
that complimented Soviet enemies. 50 Pasternak won the Nobel Prize in Literature
in 1958, but the government forced him to
15 The Soviet government’s strict censorship refuse the prize. Soviet authorities also
made life tremendously difficult for writers. blocked publication of the work of Anna
Most worried that they were being watched Akhmatova, one of Russia’s greatest poets.
by the government’s secret police. Despite the 55 Her work was banned until 1952 because
harsh laws, small groups of writers dodged censors thought she did not sufficiently
20 state censorship through an underground, or praise the Soviet government. Akhmatova
secret, publishing network that produced was kept out of public life and the official
works called samizdat. The name samizdat Writers’ Union. She composed her poetry in
came from the Russian words for “self ” and 60 private, and her works were available only as
“publish.” For many writers, samizdat offered samizdat.
25 the only outlet for their intellectual and
creative expression. To produce samizdat, an Through the 1960s and ’70s, Russian writers
author passed a typed or handwritten text to used samizdat networks to circulate banned
a second person, who made a handwritten or or politically risky material. By the late
typed copy. The original was returned to the 65 1980s, computers became available in
30 author, while the copy was passed to other scientific research facilities, and underground
members of the network. The works were writers began using the computers to store
unsigned or signed with false names. and circulate texts. Censorship was officially
abolished in 1989, shortly before the breakup
At first, samizdat focused mainly on 70 of the Soviet Union, leading to a publishing
literature, such as poetry and novels. By the boom. Works by previously banned authors
35 late 1950s, samizdat circles were distributing were published, and the samizdat networks
political material, such as letters to the quickly faded into history.
government, political essays, and trial

52. Which of the following best tells what this 55. Which event led to a change in how samizdat
passage is about? was created and shared?
E. the Russian writers Boris Pasternak and A. government authorities censoring

Anna Akhmatova Akhmatova’s work
F. the poetry published in the Soviet Union B. the increase in the distribution of
during the twentieth century political essays
G. censorship in the Soviet Union and the C. Pasternak winning the Nobel Prize
underground system that arose in D. the rise in the use of computers and
response computer networks
H. the reasons for banning writers who
criticized the Soviet government
56. What is the most likely reason that samizdat
materials were unsigned or signed with false
53. Which of the following is most likely an names?
example of material circulated in the earliest
phase of samizdat? E. to allow the materials to be smuggled out
of the country
A. a letter protesting a writer’s F. to protect the writer from punishment
imprisonment G. to avoid breaking censorship laws
B. a short story H. to differentiate between original and
C. a list of political prisoners copied works
D. an article from a foreign newspaper
57. Why did samizdat networks quickly
54. The phrase “a knock at his door in the middle disappear in 1989?
of the night” (lines 44–45) most likely refers
to a visit by A. Samizdat networks were unnecessary
after censorship was abolished.
E. the secret police. B. Samizdat networks became regular
F. a representative from a major publisher. publishing companies.
G. a participant in the samizdat network. C. Samizdat networks were replaced by the
H. people from other countries. use of computers.
D. Samizdat networks went deeper
underground than ever before.

PART 2 — MATHEMATICS
57 QUESTIONS
IMPORTANT NOTES
(1) Formulas and definitions of mathematical terms and symbols are not provided.
(2) Diagrams other than graphs are not necessarily drawn to scale. Do not assume any relationship in a
diagram unless it is specifically stated or can be figured out from the information given.
(3) Assume that a diagram is in one plane unless the problem specifically states that it is not.
(4) Graphs are drawn to scale. Unless stated otherwise, you can assume relationships according to
appearance. For example, (on a graph) lines that appear to be parallel can be assumed to be parallel;
likewise for concurrent lines, straight lines, collinear points, right angles, etc.
(5) Reduce all fractions to lowest terms.
GRID-IN PROBLEMS
QUESTIONS 58–62
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem. On the answer sheet, write your answer in the boxes at the top of the
grid. Start on the left side of each grid. Print only one number or symbol in each box. DO NOT LEAVE
A BOX BLANK IN THE MIDDLE OF AN ANSWER. Under each box, fill in the circle that matches the
number or symbol you wrote above. DO NOT FILL IN A CIRCLE UNDER AN UNUSED BOX.
58. 59. The owner of a tree farm plants pine trees and
oak trees in a ratio of 8:3. How many oak trees
are planted if 264 pine trees are planted?
x° R
Q
72° 60. For what value of w is 4w = 2w − 8 ?
P S
In the figure above, PQRS is a parallelogram.

What is the value of x ?

61. A survey asked students what pets they have. 62. The sum of two consecutive integers is −15 . If
Based on the results, the following statements 1 is added to the smaller integer and 2 is
are all true. subtracted from the larger integer, what is the
product of the two resulting integers?
• 20 students have cats.
• 23 students have dogs.
• 3 students have both dogs and cats.
• 5 students have no dogs or cats.
How many students were surveyed?

MULTIPLE CHOICE PROBLEMS
QUESTIONS 63–114
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem. Select the best answer from the choices given. Mark the letter of
your answer on the answer sheet. You can do your figuring in the test booklet or on paper provided by the
proctor. DO NOT MAKE ANY MARKS ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET OTHER THAN FILLING IN
YOUR ANSWER CHOICES.
63. The set of possible values of m is {5, 7, 9}. 66. Jenny starts a game with twice as many
What is the set of possible values of k if marbles as Keiko. Jenny gives Keiko
2k= m + 3 ? 5 marbles, but she still has 10 more than
Keiko. How many marbles did Jenny have to
A. {3, 4, 5} start with?
B. {4, 5, 6}
C. {8, 10, 12} E. 25
D. {10, 14, 18} F. 30
G. 35
H. 40
64. One bottle contains 500 milliliters of juice.

How many liters of juice are there in 24 of
these bottles? 67. In a scale diagram, 0.125 inch represents
125 feet. How many inches represent 1 foot?
E. 12 L
F. 120 L A. 0.001 in.
G. 1,200 L B. 0.01 in.
H. 12,000 L C. 0.1 in.
D. 0.12 in.
65. In a certain school, course grades range from

0 to 100. Adrianna took 4 courses and her
average course grade was 90. Roberto took
5 courses. If both students have the same sum
of course grades, what was Roberto’s average?
A. 72
B. 80
C. 90
D. 92

68. 69.
PEOPLE PER VEHICLE AT CHECKPOINT

R
Number of People Percent of
in Vehicle Vehicles
1 40%
2 35%
N
3 15%
M P
4 7%
S
5 or more 3%
Q
A researcher recorded the number of people in In the pyramid above, each triangular face has
each vehicle that passed through a checkpoint.
the same area, and the base MNPQ is a
The table above shows the percent
square that measures 8 centimeters on each
distribution for the 420 vehicles that passed
through the checkpoint yesterday morning. side. If the length of RS = 6 centimeters, what
How many of the 420 vehicles contained at is the surface area of the pyramid excluding
least 3 people? the base?
E. 42 A. 48 sq cm
F. 63 B. 96 sq cm
G. 105 C. 128 sq cm
H. 315 D. 160 sq cm
70. The perimeter of a rectangle is

510 centimeters. The ratio of the length to the
width is 3:2. What are the dimensions of this
rectangle?
E. 150 cm by 105 cm
F. 153 cm by 102 cm
G. 158 cm by 97 cm
H. 165 cm by 90 cm

71. Which number line below shows the solution 74. The sum of the numbers x , y , and z is 50.
The ratio of x to y is 1:4, and the ratio of y
to the inequality −4 < x < 2 ?
2 to z is 4:5. What is the value of y ?
E. 4
F. 8
A. –10 –5 0 5 10 G. 10
H. 20
B. –10 –5 0 5 10
75.
C. –10 –5 0 5 10 y
D. –10 –5 0 5 10
2
72. 1 dollar = 7 lorgs 1

1 dollar = 0.5 dalt
Kevin has 140 lorgs and 16 dalts. If he x

exchanges the lorgs and dalts for dollars O 1 2
according to the rates above, how many
dollars will he receive? What is the area of the shaded region in the
graph above?
E. $28
F. $52 A. 0.25 square unit
G. $182 B. 0.5 square unit
H. $282 C. 1 square unit
D. 1.5 square units
73. A box of colored pencils contains exactly 6 red
pencils. The probability of choosing a red 76. In Centerville, 45% of the population is
female, and 60% of the population commutes
pencil from the box is 2 . How many of the to work daily. Of the total Centerville
7
population, 21% are females who commute to
pencils in the box are not red? work daily. What percentage of the total
Centerville population are males who do not
A. 5
commute to work daily?
B. 15
C. 21 E. 15%
D. 30 F. 16%
G. 24%
H. 39%

77. Mrs. Cranston bought five bottles of water for 79. 1 sind = 4 lorgs
$0.90 each and 8 pounds of meat. She paid a 2 plunks = 5 dalts
total of $26.90 for these items, not including 5 sinds = 2 harps
tax. What was the price per pound of the
1 plunk = 3 harps
meat?
A nation has five types of coins: sinds, dalts,
A. $2.80
lorgs, harps, and plunks. The relationship
B. $3.25
between the coins is shown above. Which coin
C. $14.40 is most valuable?
D. $22.40
A. sind
B. dalt
78. In a sample of 10 cards, 4 are red and 6 are C. harp
blue. If 2 cards are selected at random from D. plunk
the sample, one at a time without
replacement, what is the probability that both
cards are not blue?
80.
E. 2 SCORES ON MATH QUIZ

15
Score Number of Students
F. 4
25
85 4
G. 3
10
75 4
H. 1
3 65 2
What is the mean score of the 10 students in

the table above?
E. 22.5
F. 75
G. 77
H. 85

81. 83. In a scale drawing of a triangular banner, one
side measures 16 centimeters and the other
two sides each measure 12 centimeters. On
the actual banner, these two sides each
HOW PEOPLE GET TO WORK
measure 36 feet. What is the length of the
IN CENTER CITY remaining side of the actual banner?
Bicycle 4%
A. 16 ft
B. 32 ft
C. 40 ft
D. 48 ft
Car Pool 15% Walk 22%
84. The faculty of a certain four-year college

consists of 179 teachers. There are
663 first-year students. The student-to-faculty
Bus 10% ratio for the entire college is 15 to 1. What is
the total number of second-, third-, and
fourth-year students?
Drive Alone 49%
E. 1,989
F. 2,022
G. 2,652
H. 2,685
Total number of people

working in Center City = 15,000
85. 21 +3 3 + 4 2 +51
How many more people in Center City walk to 5 10 5 2
work than ride their bicycle to work?
What is the value of the expression shown
A. 2,500 above?
B. 2,700
C. 2,800
D. 3,000 A. 14 7
20
B. 14 2
5
82. Which of the following numbers has factors
that include the smallest factor (other than 1) C. 15 7
of 91? 20
E. 30 D. 15 2
5
F. 35
G. 39
H. 44

86. A car is traveling 55 miles per hour, and 90. Johan leased a car for three years. He paid a
1 mile = 5,280 feet. Which of the following one-time fee of $1,000, and an additional $300
calculations would give the car’s speed in feet per month for the full three years. At the end
per second? of the three years, what is the total amount
Johan paid for leasing this car?
55 i 5,280 E. $1,900
E.
1 F. $4,600
55 i 5,280 G. $10,800
F. H. $11,800
3,600
G. 55 i 3,600
5,280
91. There are 6 different cookies on a plate. Aiden
H. 55 i 5,280 will choose 2 of these cookies to pack in his
60 lunch. How many different pairs of 2 cookies
can he choose from the 6?
87. Today, Tien’s age is 1 of Jordan’s age. In A. 12

4
2 years, Tien’s age will be 1 of Jordan’s age. B. 15
3 C. 30
How old is Jordan today? D. 36
A. 4 years old
B. 6 years old
C. 12 years old 92. For a presentation, Deion can create 5 slides
D. 16 years old in 20 minutes, working at a constant rate.
Kyra can create 3 slides in 10 minutes,
working at her own constant rate. What is the
total number of slides the two of them can
88. How many positive even factors of 48 are create in one hour?
greater than 24 and less than 48?
E. 16
E. 0 F. 30
F. 1 G. 33
G. 2 H. 55
H. 12
89. The least of 5 consecutive integers is l, and the

l+ g
greatest is g. What is the value of in
2
terms of l?
A. 2l
B. 3l
C. l + 2
D. l + 5

93. 95. Ryan must read 150 pages for school this
weekend. It took him 30 minutes to read the
first 20 pages. At this rate, how much
additional time will it take him to finish the
L N reading?
A. 2 1 hr
6
B. 3 1 hr
4
On the number line above, LN = 1 . Point M
8
(not shown) is located between point L and C. 3 3 hr
4
point N. Which value below is a possible value
D. 7 1 hr
2
for M?
A. 4.26 y
B. 4.31 96. Suppose M = w , N = , and w, x, y, and z
x z
C. 4.35 do not equal 0. What is M in terms of w, x, y,
D. 4.58 N
and z ?
94. An unmarked straight stick will be laid end wx

E.
over end to measure a distance of exactly yz
72 feet. The same stick will be used in the
wy
same way to measure a distance of exactly F.
xz
30 feet. What is the length of the longest
possible stick that can be used for both wz
G.
measurements? xy
E. 3 ft xy
H.
wz
F. 4 ft
G. 6 ft
H. 8 ft
97. In the set of consecutive integers from 12 to
30, inclusive, there are four integers that are
multiples of both 2 and 3. How many integers
in this set are multiples of neither 2 nor 3?
A. 5
B. 6
C. 13
D. 15

w = y
98. 100.
x z
In the equation above, w , x , y , and z are
positive numbers. Which of these is equal
NUMBER OF SCHOOLS IN
to z ?
FIVE CITIES
10
9 E. x
8
7 F. xy
Number 6
of 5 w
G.
4 xy
Schools
3 xy
H.
2 w
1
0
M N P Q R 101.
City
W X Y Z
The graph above shows the number of schools
per city for five small cities. Cities M and N –10 0 8
each have 500 students per school. City P has
400 students per school. Cities Q and R each On the number line above, points W, X, Y, and
have 700 students per school. Which of the
Z are integers, and WX:XY:YZ = 4:2:3. What is
five cities has the greatest number of
the value of WY?
students?
A. 8
E. City M
B. 11
F. City P
C. 12
G. City Q
D. 18
H. City R
102. A metal plate used in an electronic device

99. A box contains 5 strawberry candies, 3 banana
must have a thickness of 0.02 inch, with an
candies, and 2 orange candies. If Braden
allowable error of 1 percent. What is the
selects 2 candies at random from this box,
greatest allowable thickness of the metal
without replacement, what is the probability
plate?
that both candies are not banana?
E. 0.0002 in.
F. 0.02 in.
A. 1
G. 0.0202 in.
15
H. 0.03 in.
B. 9
100
C. 7
15
D. 49
100

103. 106. A car travels at 4,400 feet per minute. The
radius of each tire on the car is 1 foot. How

SCORES ON BIOLOGY TEST
many revolutions does one of these tires make
in 1 minute? (Use the approximation 22 for

Section Lowest Score Range
7
I 65 28 .)
II 62 25
E. 700
F. 1,925
G. 13,828
III 67 22
H. 15,400
Mr. Blake’s biology class is divided into three

sections. The same test was given to each
section. The table above shows both the lowest 107. 100( 2 + 0.1)2 − 100 =
score and the range of scores on this test for
each section. What is the overall range of all A. 101
scores in all three sections? B. 200
C. 301
A. 25
D. 341
B. 27
C. 28
D. 31
108. A sports store has a container of handballs:
4 blue, 5 red, 8 yellow, 9 white, and 11 green. If
one ball is picked from the container at
104. If 3n is a positive even number, how random, what is the probability that it will be
many odd numbers are in the range from 3n yellow?
up to and including 3n + 5 ?
E. 2 1
E.
F. 3 37
G. 4
F. 1
H. 5 8
G. 8
37
105. 10 = 0.769230
H. 8
13
29
In the infinitely repeating decimal above, 7 is

the first digit in the repeating pattern. What
is the 391st digit?
A. 0
B. 3
C. 6
D. 7

109. Each week, Leon has fixed expenses of $1,250 111.
at his furniture shop. It costs him $150 to
make a chair in his shop, and he sells each
chair for $275. What is Leon’s profit if he
J K L M
makes and sells 25 chairs in 1 week?
3
A. $1,875 8
B. $2,500
C. $3,125
D. $4,375 On the number line above, JK = 3 1 ,
2
JM = 9 3 , and LM = 1 1 . What is the
4 8
110. Using the approximation position of point L ?
2.54 centimeters = 1 inch, how many
centimeters are in 4 feet 7 inches?
A. 5 1
E. 21.65 cm 8
F. 119.38 cm
G. 121.92 cm B. 5 1
4
H. 139.70 cm
C. 5 1
2
D. 6 1
4
112. If 4 x − 3 y = 12 , what is x in terms of y ?
E. =
x 3 y + 12
4
F. x = − 3 y + 12
4
G. =
x 3 y+3
4
H. x = − 3 y + 3
4

113. 114. A paste is made by mixing the following
ingredients by weight: 4 parts powder, 3 parts
water, 2 parts resin, and 1 part hardener. One
SERVINGS OF FRUITS AND VEGETABLES
billboard requires 30 pounds of this paste.
Number of Servings of How many total pounds of resin are
Number of Students
Fruits and Vegetables required for 4 billboards?
0 5 E. 6 lb
F. 8 lb
1 7 G. 24 lb
H. 48 lb
2 3
3 4
4 0
5 1
There are 20 students in a class. The

frequency table above shows the number of
students in this class who ate 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, or 5
servings of fruits and vegetables yesterday.
What is the mean number of servings of fruits
and vegetables eaten yesterday per student in
this class?
A. 1 1
2
B. 3
C. 3 1
3
D. 4
THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST.

IF TIME REMAINS, YOU MAY CHECK
YOUR ANSWERS. BE SURE THAT THERE
ARE NO STRAY MARKS, PARTIALLY
FILLED ANSWER CIRCLES, OR
INCOMPLETE ERASURES ON YOUR
ANSWER SHEET. j
Form A 73
AA
SAMPLE TEST – ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS
EXPLANATIONS OF CORRECT ANSWERS FORM
uses the pronoun “they” to correctly refer to both girls

REVISING/EDITING PART A again. Sentence 4 (Option D) uses the pronoun “they” to
correctly refer to “both girls.” Sentence 3 (Option C) is the
1. (D) The question asks for the most precise revision
only sentence where the pronoun is vague. The sentence
for the words talked to some people who did the best
uses the pronoun “she” near the beginning, but whether
in the contest. Option A and Option C do not precisely
“she” refers to Eliza or Brianna is unclear.
state how many people the reporter interviewed. Option
B specifies the number of people interviewed but uses
the imprecise phrase “who did well.” Option D is the 6. (E) The sentence in the box needs a comma to separate
only option that precisely states the reporter’s action coordinate adjectives. Option F incorrectly adds a comma
(“interviewed”) as well as who exactly the reporter between the subject and the verb. Option G incorrectly
interviewed (“the top three contestants”). adds a comma between two adjectives, but they are not
coordinate adjectives. Option H is incorrect because a
comma is not needed to set off the phrase “to score 100
2. (G) The question asks for the identification of a
points in a single game.” Option E is the only option
sentence with an inappropriate shift in verb tense.
that places a comma where it is needed, between the
Option E, Option F, and Option H identify sentences that
coordinate adjectives “agile” and “athletic.”
use past tense. Sentence 3 (Option C) demonstrates an
incorrect shift into the present tense with the clause “as
natural gas becomes more common,” which should be “as REVISING/EDITING PART B
natural gas became more common.”
Unlock, Ride, Return
3. (C) The sentence in the box needs a comma to separate
7. (A) The correct answer must state the topic of the
items in a series. Option A would remove the necessary
passage and hint at some of the supporting ideas. Option
comma before the nonrestrictive clause “which is located
B mentions the idea that bike sharing programs are
on Midway Street.” Option B is incorrect because while
successful because both residents and tourist can use
the phrase that ends with the word “volunteer” can stand
them, but that detail is mentioned in only the second
on its own as an independent clause, a comma is not
paragraph. Option C mentions that bike sharing provides
needed before the explanation of what the volunteers
a faster mode of transportation, but it is referring to a
would help do. Option D would delete a necessary comma
detail suggested in sentence 16. Option D might seem
between two items in a series. Option C is the only option
attractive because it states a specific benefit of bike
that would place a necessary comma to separate items
sharing, but it does not encompass other key points of the
“walking dogs” and “cleaning kennels” in the series.
passage. Option A is the only option that clearly states
the topic of the passage and refers to multiple key points.
4. (E) The question asks for the best way to combine the
sentences to clarify the relationship between the ideas. 8. (F) Because it will be placed after sentence 6, the
Option F is incorrect because the conjunction “although” correct answer needs to provide appropriate details that
suggests that scientists were allowed to collect data even help the reader understand sentences 5 and 6. Sentences
though there were flyby missions, which is inaccurate. 5 and 6 begin to explain how bike sharing programs
In Option G, the phrase “which have been happening work, so the correct answer should provide additional
since 1973” is incorrectly modifying “the planet and its general details that help the reader picture how people
moons.” In Option H, the conjunction “but” suggests use the program. The detail stated in Option E may be
an adverse relationship between ideas, which is also true, but the detail relates to where bike sharing stations
incorrect. Option E is the only option that accurately are located, not to how a bike sharing program works.
reflects the relationship between the ideas by using the Similarly, Option H includes details about major United
nonrestrictive phrase “which allow scientists to collect States cities that have bike sharing programs and does
data about the planet and its moons” to describe the not provide more information about how a bike sharing
purpose of the flyby missions. program works. Option G might seem attractive because it
provides very specific details about how the bike stations
5. (C) The question asks the student to identify a vague keep bicycles secure. However, this level of detail is too
pronoun in a sentence in the box. Sentence 1 (Option specific to help the reader understand the program as a
A) correctly uses the plural pronouns “their”/”they” to whole. Only Option F includes details that give the reader
refer to both Eliza and Brianna. Sentence 2 (Option B) a clear idea of how people use bike sharing programs.
74
A
EXPLANATIONS OF CORRECT ANSWERS continued... Form
9. (D) The correct answer needs to have the same this option is incorrect because the paragraph focuses
relationship between ideas as the one implied in on how improved air quality is an effect of people
sentences 8 and 9. Context tells the reader that there using bike sharing programs. Option F indicates that
is a causal relationship between city bikers’ lack of participating in a bike sharing program is the principal
responsibility and their preference for bike sharing. The way travelers can improve air quality, but that does not
subordinate clause in Option A, “Although they prefer accurately connect the ideas in the paragraph. Option
bike sharing over ownership,” presents an opposing idea, H suggests that bike sharing programs in some cities
giving the impression that city bikers prefer bike sharing are more effective at improving air quality than bike
even though they are not responsible for storage and sharing programs in other cities, but this option is
maintenance, which is an inaccurate way to connect these incorrect because it does not relate to the main topic of
ideas. In Option B, the linking word “and” connects the the paragraph: there is a relationship between a city’s
two ideas but does not clarify that one idea is the cause implementation of a bike sharing program and improved
of the other. Option C presents a causal relationship, but air quality in the city. Option G is correct because it
it reverses the relationship between the ideas. The use of makes a connection between the increasing use of bike
“since” in Option C suggests that city bikers’ preference sharing programs and the potential impact on air quality.
for bike sharing is the reason they are not responsible for
bike storage and maintenance. Only Option D accurately
13. (B) The correct answer must be a sentence that does
expresses the relationship that the original two sentences
not relate to the topic of the third paragraph. Option
implied. The transition word “because” clarifies that
A (sentence 12), Option C (sentence 15), and Option D
avoiding the responsibility for storage and maintenance
(sentence 16) are relevant to the paragraph because they
is the reason city bikers prefer bike sharing.
provide information about the bike sharing program
in New York City. Option B (sentence 13) relates to a
10. (G) The correct answer should use the most precise program in a city in China, which is not the focus of the
and specific details and language. Option E uses an third paragraph.
imprecise word, “millions,” which does not provide a
specific number. Option F specifies “14 million,” but it
14. (E) The correct answer should provide a logical
uses the imprecise “huge increase” rather than a specific
conclusion based on the details about the transportation
number. Option H uses the imprecise phrase “several
and environmental benefits of bike sharing programs.
million” rather than the precise number of trips, and it
Option F makes a prediction about small- and medium-
uses the imprecise phrase “big increase” rather than the
sized cities that is not supported by the passage, which
specific number for the increase. Option G is the only
mentions only large cities. Option G compares bike
option that includes precise numbers and language.
sharing with other transportation methods, but this
option is an incorrect conclusion because the passage
11. (B) The correct answer must transition from the third focuses on the benefits of bike sharing programs, not
paragraph and provide a topic sentence for the fourth comparing bike sharing to other modes of transportation.
paragraph. Option A presents information (“experts Option H states that bike sharing is useful for tourists,
increasingly want to discuss”) that was not addressed which does not provide a conclusion for the details about
in the passage. Option C might seem attractive because transportation and the environmental impact of bike
it mentions information from earlier paragraphs about sharing programs. Only Option E could follow sentence
the popularity of bike sharing programs, but it does 19 by presenting the conclusion that bike sharing
not accurately preview the fourth paragraph. Option D programs will become more routine because of the
restates information from the third paragraph but does benefits outlined in the passage.
not relate to the information in the fourth paragraph.
Only Option B includes a transition from the previous
paragraph and an accurate topic sentence for the fourth Pursuing a Hobby
paragraph.
15. (A) The question asks for a sentence that should
follow sentence 3 and state the main claim of the
12. (G) The correct answer must relate to the topic of passage. Option B suggests that people should think
the fourth paragraph: the relationship between bike carefully about selecting a hobby to pursue, which may
sharing programs and improved air quality in a city. be true, but it is only a minor detail implied in the last
Option E states that improving air quality is the main paragraph. Option C claims that people should pursue
reason cities establish bike sharing programs, but hobbies because hobbies are a productive way to spend
75
A
free time. This idea is implied in sentence 18, but it is not 19. (A) The question asks for a sentence that follows
the main claim of the passage. Option D addresses the sentence 17 and supports the ideas in the paragraph:
idea that having a hobby should be enjoyable, which is hobbies can encourage positive social interaction.
addressed in sentence 1, but this is a general description Pursuing a hobby with friends (Option B) may be
of hobbies, not the main claim of the passage. Option A enjoyable, but this does not explain the benefits of
is the only option that logically follows the statement engaging in positive social interaction. Option C states
in sentence 3 and presents the main claim that people that friends who enjoy one hobby may enjoy other hobbies,
should make time to pursue a hobby because hobbies but this is not the idea that needs to be supported in
have a variety of benefits. This claim is developed in sentence 17. Option D addresses the idea that forming
sentences 4, 9, 13, and 17. relationships becomes more difficult as people grow up,
which does not support the ideas in the paragraph. Option
A is the only option that provides support for sentence 17
16. (G) Sentence 5 states the aspects of everyday life
by making the point that having meaningful friendships
that can cause stress. Sentence 6 lists several physical
stemming from interest in a hobby may be associated with
symptoms that can result from stress. Option E
a variety of positive outcomes.
incorrectly suggests that sentence 6 is an example of
sentence 5. Option F suggests that sentence 6 provides
confirmation of the point made in sentence 5, which 20. (H) The question asks for a sentence that is
is incorrect. Option H suggests that sentence 6 is the irrelevant to the development of ideas in the third
addition of examples similar to those presented in paragraph of the passage. Sentences 10 (Option E),
sentence 5, which is also incorrect. Option G is the 11 (Option F), and 13 (Option G) are essential to the
only option that provides a transition to show that the paragraph in order to explain active leisure and flow. The
symptoms in sentence 6 can happen as a result of the idea in sentence 14 (Option H) relates to the hobbies of
stressors listed in sentence 5. celebrities and businesspeople, which is not relevant to
the description and benefits of engaging in active leisure.
17. (C) The sentence in the box names some active
hobbies and states that these hobbies release endorphins READING COMPREHENSION
to promote positive feelings and override some effects of
stress. Option A places this sentence between sentences 6
and 7, which are both sentences that deal with symptoms
No Summer
of stress and not the hobbies themselves. Option B 21. (B) The passage is mostly about the strange, cold
places the sentence in the box between sentences 7 and summer of 1816 and speculation around its cause, which
8. Sentence 8 begins a list of some hobbies and how they is best stated in Option B. Option A is a detail in the
can give the mind a break from stress. Since the sentence passage about one theory regarding the cause of the
in the box uses the phrase “can also provide,” this weather. Option C is incorrect because the passage is
sentence needs to go after sentence 8. The sentence in about more than agriculture in New England. Option
the box would not follow sentence 9 (Option D) because D is a detail in the passage mentioned only in the first
sentence 9 is used to end the discussion of how hobbies paragraph.
relieve stress. Option C states the only place where the
ideas in the sentence fit into the paragraph.
22. (E) The second paragraph states that “farmers
prepared to plow and plant” (lines 15–16), they “expected
18. (F) Sentence 16 uses vague and imprecise language warm temperatures” (lines 16–17), and they were
that needs to be more specific (“do something,” “get “optimistic” (line 18). This suggests that the farmers
better,” “go to places”). Only Option F provides specific kept replanting their crops because they expected the
details about the social activities a hobbyist might do weather to return to normal, which is reflected in Option
(“enroll in a course,” “attend a convention”). The language E. Option F and Option H are incorrect because the
used in Option E (“learn more about,” “go to events”), cold weather and the snow actually worsened growing
Option G (“try to find new information,” “go to places”), conditions. Option G is incorrect because the weather did
and Option H (“want to expand his or her knowledge,” not improve until the following year.
“do an activity”) does not offer more precision than the
original sentence.
76
A
23. (C) The winter of 1816–1817 followed the meager plausible explanation”—Bessel’s—is described later in
harvest of the summer of 1816. With many crops the passage. The ideas described in Option C and Option
“stunted or destroyed” (lines 26–27), one would expect D are not included in the third paragraph.
food shortages the following winter, which is Option
C. There is no evidence in the passage that people
experienced new weather events (Option A) or warmer Dickens
temperatures (Option B). Although some famers did
replant their crops, there is no evidence in the passage 28. (G) The issues presented in Option E and Option H
that they struggled to adjust to a different time line for are only briefly mentioned or hinted at in the passage.
farming (Option D). Option F states an important detail about Dickens’s
childhood, but it is not a main topic. Option G correctly
combines the information in the passage about Dickens’s
24. (H) The phrase “the global nature of weather” refers childhood and the novel David Copperfield.
to how conditions in one part of the world can affect
weather in another part of the world, which is Option
H. Option E is incorrect because line 70 is about the 29. (A) The author includes the details about Dickens’s
effects of weather conditions around the world, not experiences as an adult in the fourth paragraph in order
about making weather predictions. Option F is incorrect to highlight that his time spent in the factory continued
because it discusses the lasting impact on specific to influence him as an adult, as evidenced in lines 43–44
geographical areas, while the phrase “the global nature (“As an adult, Dickens always remembered the shame
of weather” refers to events that affect the entire world. and humiliation”), lines 46–47 (“he could not go near
While weather events, like the unusually cold summer in the sites of the factory and boardinghouse”), and lines
New England in 1816, can be related to natural disasters 49–53 (“Dickens never told his wife and children about
such as a volcano eruption, there is no support for the his childhood work experience”). This purpose is best
idea that natural disasters tend to occur at the same stated in Option A. While Dickens was “miserable during
time, which rules out Option G. the entire four months he spent working at the factory”
(lines 26-27) and likely did not want to work in a factory
ever again, the author does not include the details in
25. (B) The details about the eruption are included in the fourth paragraph to emphasize this idea, ruling out
the fourth paragraph. They highlight the severity of Option B. Option C is incorrect because the detail that
the eruption and how it clouded the atmosphere and Dickens did not share information about his childhood
eventually encircled the world (Option B). The passage with others is used as a supporting sentence for the idea
does not support the idea that the effects are still present that childhood experiences affected his adult life. It is
today (Option A) or that other weather events caused also reasonable to infer that Dickens did not want his
the volcano to erupt (Option D). While the details may children to suffer the way that he did, but the details in
include information about what happens during an the fourth paragraph do not emphasize or support this
eruption (Option C), that is not why the author includes inference, ruling out Option D.
those details.
30. (H) Although Dickens disliked his job, there is no

26. (H) Researchers today believe that Bessel’s theory is reason to think he could not perform his duties (Option
the most logical and probable (lines 67−70). His ideas are E). Option F and Option G might be true, but the details
summarized in lines 55–57, and Option H restates his presented in the second and third paragraphs primarily
theory. Option E and Option F were thought to be other support Option H, the idea that Dickens disliked working
possible causes at the time. Option G was an effect of in the factory and preferred attending school (“forced
Mount Pinatubo erupting in 1991. to quit school,” “relieved to be out of the factory,” “The
father, however, now sided with his son, and the boy was
27. (B) The third paragraph describes how nineteenth- sent back to school”).
century religious and other leaders tried to account for
the cooler weather in 1816. Some leaders thought it was 31. (B) The correct answer is found in lines 10–13 and
“the end of the world” (line 42), “sunspot activity” (line in the fifth paragraph. Dickens wrote David Copperfield
44), or a new invention (lines 44−46). This is best stated because he was unable to complete his autobiography
in Option B. The causes described in the third paragraph and writing the novel helped him deal with difficult
were not the most probable cause (Option A), as “the first childhood memories (Option B). Dickens’s writings
as an adult would not have helped pay his family’s
77
A
debts (Option A). While it may be true that Dickens 36. (F) The process of collecting aromas during food
avoided telling his children about his job at the factory preparation is described in the third paragraph. Option
(Option C), that is not the reason Dickens wrote David E is not supported because the process of capturing
Copperfield. Option D is incorrect because Dickens aromas has been successful and only certain flavors
did not intend to share information about his own present difficulties. The idea that most people cannot
experiences. tell the difference between natural and synthetic flavors
(Option G) is not a conclusion that can be made from
the collection of aromas during food preparation. Option
32. (F) The passage says little about the relationship
H is incorrect because aromas are collected during
between Dickens and his mother, only that Dickens
the cooking process to isolate essential chemicals that
felt betrayed when his mother, anxious for the boy’s
make up flavor (lines 35–37), not to enhance the natural
wages, got his job back for him (lines 33–36). Option F
flavor. Option F is the best answer: the aroma of food
best expresses this information. Option E suggests that
as it is being prepared can be captured and distilled to
they did not have a positive relationship, but there is
synthesize the food’s flavor (lines 35–41).
no evidence in the passage to support this inference.
Dickens may have hoped his mother would understand
why he wanted to go to school (Option G), but this idea 37. (C) Orange soda is mentioned in lines 52–57 to
is not clearly expressed in the passage. Dickens’s mother provide an example of a product that uses a synthetic
did negotiate with the factory boss on his behalf (Option flavor that some consumers prefer to its natural
H), but this action does not describe their relationship. counterpart (Option C). The idea that consumer
preferences for artificial or natural flavors vary could be
true, but this is not suggested by the author’s discussion
33. (D) The passage states, “The father, however, now
of one flavor (orange soda), ruling out Option A. Option B
sided with his son, and the boy was sent back to school”
is incorrect because even though the passage states that
(lines 36–38). In other words, Dickens was able to return
natural flavors may be more expensive than artificial
to school because his father supported the idea (Option
flavors, the author does not use the details about orange
D). The discussion between his mother and his boss
soda to make this point. The author states that some
(Option A) led to Dickens getting his factory job back.
natural flavors may become scarce in the future (lines
The argument between his father and his boss (Option B)
59–61), but this is not exemplified by the discussion of
led to Dickens’s dismissal from his job, not his return to
orange soda in lines 52–57, ruling out Option D.
school. Getting fired from the factory (Option C) occurred
before Dickens returned to school but was not the direct
reason for it. 38. (F) The author describes the role of the sense of smell
to highlight that the aroma of a flavor, in addition to
its taste, influences how a person experiences a flavor,
Flavors as evidenced in lines 10–11 (“The sense of smell has a
larger role in tasting flavors than most people realize”).
34. (G) Option E and Option F are too specific: the This is best stated in Option F. Option E reflects the idea
passage mentions some scientific aspects of taste and in lines 8–10, but the idea that it is easier for people to
smell, but it concentrates on the development of flavors. smell an aroma than to taste its flavor is not why the
Option H is mentioned in only the last paragraph. Option author includes the description about how smell impacts
G is a good summary of the passage. It incorporates the taste. Option G and Option H present inaccurate ideas
main topics—the scientific analysis of flavors and how regarding synthetic flavors and fail to explain why the
flavors are created. author describes the role of the sense of smell at the
beginning of the passage.
35. (C) The third paragraph describes a technique for
separating a food into its basic chemical constituents. 39. (D) The author describes the uses of synthetic flavors
Option C best summarizes the goal of this research. in items such as “mouthwashes, toothpastes, beverages”
Option A and Option D are not supported by the passage (lines 26–27) to demonstrate that synthetic flavors are
as goals of the research. Option B is incorrect because found in many everyday household products. This is best
the goal of the research is to capture and reproduce the stated in Option D. Option A may seem like an attractive
flavor, not to develop food. option because the list of everyday items with synthetic
flavors could give the impression that creating synthetic
flavors is easy; however, while some synthetic flavors have
78
A
been successfully created (lines 17–20), efforts to duplicate was abandoned and why,” has not been solved (lines
other flavors have been unsuccessful (lines 62–71), ruling 77–80). The presence of ivory and gold (Option F) and
out Option A. The idea that the same synthetic flavor is the reason that Europeans did not discover Great
used in many items (Option B) and the idea that synthetic Zimbabwe until the 1870s (Option G) are not presented
flavors are healthier than natural flavors (Option C) as mysteries.
cannot be concluded from the list of common products that
use synthetic flavors in lines 26–28.
43. (B) The Shona people are discussed in the fifth
paragraph. Ancient Shona people lived in the African
interior, not on the coast, and the passage does not
Great Zimbabwe explain where Shona people live in the present, which
40. (G) Only Option C represents the central idea that eliminates Option A. Option C and Option D confuse the
is developed, supported, and explained throughout the histories of the Shona people and ancient Middle Eastern
passage. The idea that there was much speculation people. Option B is the best answer; lines 64–67 state
about Great Zimbabwe is explained in lines 9 and 10 as that Great Zimbabwe was most likely built by ancestors
well as in the second paragraph, and the details about of the present-day Shona people.
how modern archaeologists determined its origins are
explained in the fifth paragraph. Option E is incorrect 44. (H) David Randall-MacIver and Gertrude Caton-
because it does not encompass the facts revealed about Thompson’s conclusions were significant because their
Great Zimbabwe in the fifth paragraph. Option F is excavation of the ruins revealed that Great Zimbabwe
incorrect because it mainly focuses on the idea that was most likely built by the Shona people (lines 64–67)
archaeologists are still interested in the mysteries of and discredited the long-standing idea that the structure
Great Zimbabwe, which is mentioned only in the sixth was Middle Eastern in origin. This is stated in Option
paragraph. Option H is incorrect because the fact H. Option E is incorrect because Randall-MacIver and
that early excavations of Great Zimbabwe caused the Caton-Thompson’s determined that the city was most
destruction of valuable evidence is a detail from lines likely built in the fourteenth or fifteenth century (line
50–58, and the option does not fully explain the central 66), which was later than earlier explorers had assumed.
idea developed in the passage. Lines 69–75 indicate that the Shona society was robust
(Option G), and lines 77–80 pose the question of why
41. (B) Lines 45–47 explain that Mauch “jumped to the great city was abandoned (Option F), but these ideas
the conclusion that Great Zimbabwe had been built by are not the main reasons Randall-MacIver and Caton-
the Queen of Sheba.” This affected later investigations Thompson’s conclusions were significant.
of the ruins because archaeologists worked under the
assumption that Mauch’s conclusions were accurate, and 45. (A) Option A is correct; the Portuguese searched
the archaeologists discarded evidence that may have for “King Solomon’s gold,” which they associated with
suggested otherwise, as detailed in lines 50–56. This is Great Zimbabwe but they never found the city (lines
best stated in Option B. Archaeologists were interested 23–26). Option B and Option D may be true based
in the area (Option A), but this was not the main effect of on the details in the second paragraph, but they are
Mauch’s conclusions, as described in the passage. People not the best descriptions of the Portuguese explorers’
searched for Great Zimbabwe because they already overall relationship with Great Zimbabwe. Even though
believed the stories told by Arab traders and historians Portuguese explorers had little information about the
like de Barro were true (lines 23–26), not because of precise location of Great Zimbabwe (lines 13–16), the
Mauch’s conclusions, which rules out Option C. Although passage does not support the idea that the explorers
the city was considered impressive (lines 29–40; lines knew they would not find the stone city (Option C).
69–75), Mauch’s conclusions did not influence whether
people believed an ancient culture could have built it,
ruling out Option D.
Bats
46. (E) Option E is correct because it states the main
42. (H) The fifth paragraph states that carbon-14
idea of the passage: bats provide benefits for the
dating proved Randall-MacIver and Caton-Thompson’s
environment and need to be protected. These benefits
conclusions that Great Zimbabwe was built by ancestors
are explained and supported in the second and third
of the Shona people during the fourteenth or fifteenth
paragraphs, and the idea that they need to be protected
century (lines 64–69). Option E, “when the settlement
is supported in the fourth and fifth paragraphs. Option
79
A
F is incorrect because it focuses on the idea that people 50. (G) The author describes the bat’s role as a keystone
consider bats pests and does not explain how bats are species in order to emphasize the drastic effects that a
helpful. The idea that bats help prevent the spread sudden change in the bat population would have on the
of disease (Option G) and pollinate rain forest plants pollination of plants and trees (lines 36–37), the ability
(Option H) are details about some of the benefits bats of certain animals to find shelter (lines 37–38), and the
provide, not the central idea of the passage. levels of oxygen in the atmosphere (lines 40–43). This
is best stated in Option G, which encompasses the idea
47. (D) The far-reaching impact of a keystone species that if bats could not perform these natural activities,
is described in the third paragraph. The flying fox, a the rain forest would be threatened. The ideas in Option
keystone species in the rain forest, pollinates plants and E, Option F, and Option H are explained in the third
distributes seeds and thus helps provide food and shelter paragraph as natural activities that bats support, but
for many other plants and animals in its ecosystem. these are individual details about what bats do. The
Rain forests in turn help maintain a balanced global statements do not explain the significance of the role of
atmosphere for living creatures everywhere. Option D bats in the survival of an entire rain forest ecosystem.
best states that bats are important in maintaining a
stable ecosystem because of the effects listed in lines 51. (B) The phrase “ugliness is only skin deep” (line
36–43. A keystone species can be threatened with 69) is intended to mean that an unattractive outward
extinction (Option A), but that does not explain the appearance does not necessarily indicate inward
function of a keystone species. Option B and Option C ugliness. The intended meaning—that the ugly outward
are too limited in scope to represent the function of a appearance of bats does not mean that they are bad—is
keystone species. best stated in Option B. While the passage describes
different species of bats (“brown bat” in lines 5 and 8 and
48. (G) The author discusses bat conservation at the “flying foxes” in the second paragraph), the text focuses
end of the passage. The author acknowledges that many on their roles in the environment, not on a comparison
people think bats are a problem but then stresses that of their appearance, which rules out Option A. Option C
bats should be carefully managed and protected, which is incorrect; the passage states people try to remove bats
is best stated in Option G. Option E is incorrect because because they ruin fruit trees and crops (lines 49–50),
the author does not advocate for bats eating crops and not because of their appearance. As mentioned in the
cultivated trees. Option F is incorrect because, while fifth paragraph, conservation groups and government
bats do support the growth and survival of many species, agencies are trying to overcome people’s negative
the author never suggests relocating them to areas with perception of bats by educating people about the benefits
struggling ecosystems as a conservation method. Option bats provide; however, Option D is incorrect because
H is incorrect because the author understands that the passage does not state or imply that the physical
farmers and orchard owners need their crops and trees to appearance of bats influences efforts to conserve them.
survive in order to earn a livelihood (lines 62–65).
Samizdat
49. (A) The iroko tree is mentioned in lines 20–23 as a
valuable tree that depends entirely on flying foxes for 52. (G) Option E mentions two important samizdat
pollination (Option A), and so without bats this plant writers from the fourth paragraph but does not explain
would not exist. While genetic diversity can improve a samizdat or the authors’ relationship to it. Option F
plant’s ability to survive, it is not necessary for survival, refers to all poetry published in the Soviet Union, not
ruling out Option B. Lines 46–50 explain why bats just samizdat poetry, so it is too broad. Option H is
sometimes eat cultivated fruit, but the result of this is mentioned only in the first paragraph. Option G is a good
that crops are ruined, ruling out Option C. While bats do description of the topic of the passage, describing Soviet
eat mosquitoes (lines 9 and 10), this detail best supports censorship and the samizdat response.
the idea that bats help limit the spread of disease, which
rules out Option D. 53. (B) The earliest phase of samizdat is described in lines
33 and 34: “At first, samizdat focused mainly on literature,
such as poetry and novels.” Only Option B, “a short story,”
fits in this category. Option A, Option C, and Option D are
not representative of the earliest phase of samizdat.
80
A
54. (E) The phrase “a knock at his door in the middle

of the night” refers to the secret police. Pasternak,
like other samizdat writers, feared being caught by
authorities and accused of writing and distributing
samizdat (lines 15–18). Option E is correct. The passage
does not indicate that Pasternak would be concerned
about “a representative from a major publisher” (Option
F), “a participant in the samizdat network” (Option G), or
“people from other countries” (Option H) knocking on his
door at night.
55. (D) Option D is the best answer because storing and

circulating texts via computers marked a significant
change from hand-copying or typing paper copies of
samizdat texts (lines 64–68). Option A, Option B, and
Option C represent events that occurred during the peak
of samizdat circulation, but those events did not directly
lead to significant changes in the samizdat distribution
process.
56. (F) Lines 1–3 indicate that people could be punished

for writing about certain topics. Lines 26–32 explain the
steps samizdat authors and distributors used to ensure
that the network of authors was protected, including
having authors leave their work unsigned or using fake
names. This is stated in Option F. Samizdat works, like
Pasternak’s Doctor Zhivago, were smuggled out of the
country (lines 46–48), so using no names or fake names
would not relate to this practice, ruling out Option E.
Samizdat writers would be breaking censorship law
regardless of whether they included their real names,
which rules out Option G. While making copies of a work
was part of the samizdat distribution process, the act
of leaving work unsigned or writing under a false name
would not differentiate between original and copied
works, which rules out Option H.
57. (A) The answer is found in lines 68–73. The correct

answer, Option A, makes the connection between the
abolishment of censorship and subsequent freedom of the
press, which eliminated the need for samizdat. The fifth
paragraph explains that there was “a publishing boom”
(lines 70–71) after censorship laws were abolished but
does not suggest that samizdat networks ended because
they became regular publishing companies, which rules
out Option B. Option C is incorrect because the use of
computers helped samizdat networks spread material
(lines 65–68) while censorship laws were still in place.
Option D is incorrect because going deeper underground
would not be necessary after censorship was abolished.
81
AA
SAMPLE TEST – MATHEMATICS
58. (162) First, find the measure of angle PQR. 62. (63) If x is the smaller consecutive integer, then
The measure of angle PQR is equal to the x + 1 is the larger consecutive integer. Use
measure of angle PSR. their sum (−15) to find x:
m∠PSR
= 180 − 72 = 108. x + ( x + 1) = −15
So, the measure of angle PQR is also 108. 2x + 1 = −15
2x = −16
108 + 90 + x = 360
x = −8
198 + x = 360
The two consecutive integers are −8 and −7.
x = 162
One is added to the smaller integer:
−8 + 1 = −7, and 2 is subtracted from the
59. (99) Let x be the number of oak trees when 264 larger integer: −7 − 2 = −9.
pine trees are planted. Set up a proportion
Find the product: −7 × −9 = 63.
and solve for x:
x = 3
264 8 63. (B) 2k = m + 3 so k = m +3 .
2
8x = 762 Substitute each value of m to find the values
of k:
x = 99
k = 5 +3 = 8 = 4
2 2
60. (– 4) 4w = 2w − 8
2w = −8 k = 7+3 = 10 = 5
2 2
w = −4
k = 9 +3 = 12 = 6
2 2
61. (45) Let x = number of students with only cats as
pets. The set k is { 4, 5, 6}.
Let y = number of students with only dogs

as pets. 64. (E) First, convert 500 milliliters to liters by
dividing by 1,000: 500 ÷ 1,000 = 0.500
Calculate x and y using the given information:
There are 20 students who have cats, and Now, multiply by 24 to find the solution:
of those 20 students, 3 have both cats and 0.500 × 24 = 12 L
dogs. Thus, x = 20 − 3 = 17. There are
23 students who have dogs, and of those
23 students, 3 have both cats and dogs. Thus 65. (A) The sum of Adrianna’s course grades equals
y = 23 − 3 = 20. 4 times the average (mean) of her grades:
To find the total number of students 90 × 4 = 360. Roberto has the same sum
surveyed, add the number of students who (360) as Adrianna. Find the mean of his
only have cats (x), the number of students course grades:
who only have dogs (y), the number of 360 ÷ 5 = 72
students who have both (3), and the
number of students who have neither (5):
3 + 5 + x + y = 8 + 17 + 20 = 45
82
A
66. (H) Set up some equations. 69. (B) Line segment RS is the altitude, or height, of
Jenny (J) has twice as many marbles as triangle QRP. The length of QP is 8 cm. Use
Keiko (K): J = 2K
that information to find the area of triangle
Jenny gives Keiko 5 marbles, so now they
each have: J − 5 and K + 5 marbles. QRP: A = 1 bh = 1 (8)(6) = 24 sq cm.
2 2
Jenny still has 10 more than Keiko: There are 4 congruent triangles in
J − 5 = ( K + 5) + 10 the pyramid, so the surface area is
To find how many marbles Jenny had to start 4 × 24 = 96 sq cm.
with, solve J = 2K for K and substitute that
into the second equation:
70. (F) Let 2x = the width and 3x = the length.
In equation J = 2K , solve for K: K = J .
2 Draw the rectangle to help visualize.
Substitute J in for K.
2 3x
J − 5 = ( K + 5) + 10
(2 )
J − 5 = J + 5 + 10 2x 2x
J −5 = J + 15
2
J = J + 20 3x
2
J = 20 Since 2 times width + 2 times length =
2 perimeter, we get
J = 40 marbles
2( 2x) + 2(3x) = 510
4 x + 6x = 510
67. (A) Let x be the number of inches representing 10x = 510
1 foot. Set up a proportion and solve for x:
x = 51
x = 0.125 2x = 102 cm and 3x = 153 cm
1 125
x = 0.001 in.
71. (D) Multiply each term by 2 to eliminate the
fraction, and isolate x:
68. (G) First, add the percentage of cars containing 3
people, 4 people, and 5 or more people: ( )
−4( 2) < x ( 2) < 2( 2)
2
−8 < x < 4
15% + 7% + 3% = 25%
Thus, 25% of the cars contained at least 3 Therefore, x must be between −8 and 4.
people, so use that to calculate the number of
cars:
420 × 0.25 = 105 cars.
83
A
72. (F) Use proportions to make the conversions: 74. (H) Since both ratios have y in common, solve for
x and z in terms of y in both equations.
Lorgs to dollars:
Using x: y = 1:4, solve for x in terms of y.
140 = 7
x 1 x = 1
7x = 140 y 4
x = $20 x= 1 y
4
Dalts to dollars:
Using the ratio y: z = 4:5, solve for z in terms
16 = 0.5 of y:
x 1
y
= 4
0.5x = 16 z 5
x = $32 z= 5 y
4
Total dollars = 20 + 32 = $52
The question states x + y + z = 50.
Substitute from the two equations above and
73. (B) Let x be the total number of colored pencils in solve for y.
the box. Set up a proportion to find x:
1 y + y + 5 y = 50
2 = 6 4 4
7 x
10 y = 50
2x = 42 4
x = 21 10 y = 200
If there are 6 red pencils, then the number of y = 20
pencils that are not read is 21 − 6 = 15.
75. (B) The shaded region is a right triangle. Each
leg is 1 unit in length. So the area is
=A 1=bh 1 (1)(1) = 1 or 0.5 sq unit

2 2 2
76. (F) Create a table with the information provided

in the problem and use subtraction to fill in
the rest of the table:
Female Male TOTAL

Commutes 21% 39% 60%
to work (60 – 21)
Does not 24% 16% 40%
commute to (45 – 21) (40 – 24) (100 – 60)
work
TOTAL 45% 100%
16% of the population is male and does not
commute to work.
84
A
77. (A) Let x be the price per pound for the meat. Set 81. (B) According to the chart, 22% of people walk
up an equation to show what Mrs. Cranston to work and 4% ride a bicycle. Subtract to
spent: find the percentage of how many more people
walk than bicycle:
5(0.90) + 8x = 26.90
4.50 + 8x = 26.90 22% − 4% = 18%
8x = 22.40 To find the exact number of people, multiply
x = 2.80 18% (0.18) by the number of people working
in Center City (15,000):
The price per pound for the meat is $2.80.
15,000 × 0.18 = 2,700
78. (E) The probability that both cards are not blue
82. (F) To find the smallest factor of 91, list the
is the same as the probability that both cards factors: 1, 7, 13, and 91.
are red. There are 4 red cards out of the 10, The smallest factor (other than 1) is 7.
so the probability of the first card being red is Of the options listed (30, 35, 39, and 44), only
4 . Now there are 9 cards left, and 3 of those 35 is a multiple of 7.
10
are red, so the probability of the second card
83. (D) Let x be the remaining side of the actual
being red is 3 . Multiply the two probabilities banner. Set up a proportion:
9
to find the probability that both cards are red
x = 36
(not blue): 16 12
4 × 3 = 12 = 2 x = 48 ft
10 9 90 15
84. (F) Let x be the number of second-, third-, and
79. (D) 1 sind = 4 lorgs, so 1 sind > 1 lorg. fourth-year students. Then the total number
of students in the college is 663 + x. Set up a
2 harps = 5 sinds, so 1 harp > 1 sind. proportion and solve for x:
1 plunk = 3 harps, so 1 plunk > 1 harp, 15 = 663+ x

1 179
meaning that 1 plunk > 1 sind and 1 lorg.
663 + x = 179(15)
2 plunks = 5 dalts, so 1 plunk > 1 dalt. 663 + x = 2,685
Therefore, the plunk is the most valuable. x = 2,022
80. (G) For each row, multiply the number of students 85. (D) 2 1 + 3 3 + 4 2 + 5 1
by the score. Then add those together and 5 10 5 2
divide by the total number of students to find Convert all the fractions to a common
the mean (average) of the 10 students. denominator (10):
85( 4 )+75( 4 )+65( 2) = 340 +300 +130
10 10 2 2 +3 3 +4 4 +5 5
10 10 10 10
= 770 = 77
10
= ( 2 + 3 + 4 + 5) + (
2 + 3 + 4 +5
10 )
= 14 + 1 4 = 15 2
10 5
85
A
86. (F) Divide the rate by the number of seconds in 89. (C) The first integer is l, so the second is l + 1,
an hour. (Since there are 60 minutes in an the third is l + 2, then l + 3, and finally
hour and 60 seconds in a minute, multiply l + 4. Since g is the fifth and greatest of the
60 × 60 = 3,600 seconds in an hour): integers, g = l + 4.
55 miles per second Substitute l + 4 for g and simplify:

3,600
l+ g
Multiply by the number of feet in a mile = l + l + 4 = 2l + 4 = l + 2
2 2 2
(5,280):
55 ⋅ 5,280 90. (H) Three years is 36 months (12 × 3). Set up an
feet per second
3,600 expression to find the total amount Johan
paid:
87. (D) First, set up an equation to express Tien’s age
(T) and Jordan’s age (J) today: 1,000 + 300(36) = $11,800
T = 1J
4 91. (B) Create a list of the possible pairs. Let the
Two years from now, Tien’s age will be T + 2, cookies be named A, B, C, D, E, and F.
and Jordan’s age will be J + 2. Set up an AB, AC, AD, AE, AF
equation about the relationship between BC, BD, BE, BF
Tien’s age and Jordan’s age in two years: CD, CE, CF
DE, DF
T + 2 = 1 ( J + 2) EF
3
Solve the above equation for T: There are a total of 15 possible pairs of
cookies that Aiden can choose.
T = 1 ( J + 2) − 2
3
92. (G) Set up proportions to figure out how many
Now set the two equations equal to each other
slides Deion and Kyra can create in 1 hour:
and solve for J:
Deion
1 J = 1 (J + 2) − 2
4 3 5 = x
20 60
1J = 1J− 4
4 3 3 20x = 300
− 1 J =−4 x = 15
12 3
Deion can create 15 slides in 1 hour.
3 (
J = − 4 − 12
1 ) Kyra
J = 16 3 = x
10 60
88. (E) List the factors of 48: 10x = 180
1 and 48, 2 and 24, 3 and 16, 4 and 12, 6 x = 18

and 8 Kyra can create 18 slides in 1 hour.
There are no factors greater than 24 and less Add Deion and Kyra to figure out how many
than 48. slides they can create together in 1 hour:
15 + 18 = 33.
86
A
97. (B) The question asks for integers from 12 to 30

93. (C) Since LN = 1 , point N is located at that are not divisible by 2 or 3.
8
4 5 + 1 = 4 7 . So M must be between The set of consecutive integers is {12, 13, 14,
16 8 16
point L, 4 5 , and point N, 4 7 . Point L can 15, 16, 17, 18, 19, 20, 21, 22, 23, 24, 25, 26, 27,
16 16 28, 29, 30}.
also be written as 4.3125, and point N can be
Since all even numbers are divisible by 2,
written as 4.4375. The only option given that eliminate all even numbers, leaving the odd
lies between those two points is 4.35. numbers in the set: {13, 15, 17, 19, 21, 23, 25,
27, 29}.
Eliminate those integers that are multiples
94. (G) The length of the stick must be the greatest
of 3 (15, 21, and 27). The remaining integers
common factor of 72 and 30. The factors of
are: {13, 17, 19, 23, 25, 29}. Therefore, there
30 are 1, 2, 3, 5, 6, 10, 15, and 30. Of those,
are 6 numbers in the set that are multiples of
only 1, 2, 3, and 6 are also factors of 72. The
neither 2 nor 3.
greatest of these is 6.
98. (G) Take each city’s number of schools and

95. (B) Ryan has 130 pages left to read (150 − 20).
multiply by the number of students. It is not
He read 20 pages in 30 minutes, which means
necessary to calculate all 5 of these. Cities M
he read at a rate of 40 pages per 1 hour. To
and N have the same number of students, so
find out how much longer it will take him
just calculate the number of students in City
to finish the assignment, divide the total
M because it has more schools than City N.
number of pages remaining (130) by the
The same goes for Q and R — only Q needs
number of pages he is able to read per hour
to be calculated because it has more schools
(40):
than R.
130 = 3 1
40 4 M = 8 × 500 = 4,000
P = 9 × 400 = 3,600
96. (G) It is easier to rewrite M as M ÷ N since Q = 6 × 700 = 4,200

N
they are both fractions. City Q has the greatest number of students.
y
M÷N = w ÷ = w ⋅ z = wz
x z x y xy 99. (C) The total number of candies in the box is
5 + 3 + 2 = 10. The number of candies that
are not banana is 5 + 2 = 7.
The probability of the first candy not being

banana is 7 . Now, out of 9 candies, there
10
are 6 candies left that are not banana.
The probability of the second candy not
being banana is. 6 . Multiply these two
9
probabilities to get the solution:
7 × 6 = 42 = 7
10 9 90 15
87
A
100. (H) Solve the equation for z:

w = y 105. (D) There are 6 digits in the repeating decimal
x z (769230), so 7 would be the first, seventh,
thirteenth digit and so on. To find the 391st
wz = xy digit, divide 391 by 6.
xy 391 ÷ 6 = 65 R1
z=
w
Since the remainder is 1, that means the
391st digit is the same as the 1st digit, which
101. (C) Convert the ratios into fractions of WZ. Use is 7.
the sum of the ratios for the denominator.
WX:XY:YZ = 4:2:3 106. (E) One revolution is equal to the circumference
of the tire:
WX = 4 = 4
4 + 2 +3 9
( )
C = 2πr = 2(1) 22 = 44 ft
7 7
XY = 2 = 2
4 + 2 +3 9 The car travels at 4,400 ft per minute. To
calculate the number of revolutions, divide
The part of WZ that is WY is the sum of those the speed by the circumference:
fractions:
4,400 ÷ 44 = 4,400 × 7 = 700 revolutions.
WY = 4 + 2 = 6 = 2 7 44
9 9 9 3
Find the length of WZ: WZ = 8 − (−10) = 18 107. (D) 100( 2 + 0.1)2 − 100 = 100( 2.1 2 ) − 100
The value of WY is 2 (18) = 12. = 100( 4.41) − 100 = 441 − 100 = 341
3
102. (G) Find 1% of 0.02: 0.02 × 1 = 0.0002 108. (G) The total number of handballs in the
100
container is 4 + 5 + 8 + 9 + 11 = 37.
The greatest allowable thickness would be
0.02 + 0.0002 = 0.0202 inch. Since there are 8 yellow handballs, the
probability of selecting a yellow handball is
103. (D) First, calculate the highest score for each 8 .
section by adding the lowest score to the 37
range:
109. (A) Each chair costs Leon $150 to make, and he
Section I: 65 + 28 = 93 sells the chair for $275. His profit is found by
Section II: 62 + 25 = 87 subtracting the cost from the price:
Section III: 67 + 22 = 89 $275 − $150 = $125 per chair
The overall highest score is 93, and the If Leon makes and sells 25 chairs in a week,
overall lowest score is 62. Thus the overall his initial profit is 25 × $125 = $3,125.
range is 93 − 62 = 31. However, Leon has additional fixed expenses
of $1,250 per week, so this cost must also be
subtracted to arrive at the profit. His final
104. (F) Since 3n is even, then 3 n + 1 must be odd. profit is $3,125 − $1,250 = $1,875.
Thus 3 n + 3 and 3 n + 5 are also odd. So
there are a total of 3 numbers in this range
that are odd.
88
A
110. (H) Convert 4 ft 7 in. to inches. 113. (A) First, determine the total number of servings
of fruits and vegetables that the students ate
Since 12 in. = 1 ft :
by multiplying the number of servings by the
4(12) + 7 = 55 inches number of students in each row of the table.
Then add that column to get the total number
Multiply that by the conversion
of servings:
254 cm = 1 in.
55 × 2.54 = 139.70 cm Number of
Servings of Number of Servings
Fruits and Number of ×
111. (C) First, use JK = 3 1 to find the location of J: Vegetables Students Number of Students
2
0 5 0
3 −J = 31
1 7 7
8 2
3 2 3 6
J= − 3 = −3 1
1
8 2 8 3 4 12
4 0 0
Now, use JM = 9 3 to find the location of M:
4 5 1 5
( )
M − −3 1 = 9 3
8 4
Total: 30
Calculate the mean by dividing the total
1
M+3 = 9 3
number of servings of fruits and vegetables by
8 4
the total number of students:
M = 9 −31 = 6 5
3
4 8 8 30 = 1 1
20 2
Finally, use LM = 1 1 to find the location of
8
L:
114. (G) The ratio is 4:3:2:1, so the total parts is 10.
65 −L =11
8 8 Since there are two parts resin, the fraction of
L = 6 5 −1 1 = 5 4 = 5 1 resin is 2 = 1 .
8 8 8 2 10 5
So the amount of resin in 30 lb of paste (for 1
112. (G) 4 x − 3 y = 12
billboard) is 1 × 30 = 6 lb. For 4 billboards,
4 x = 3 y + 12 5
that would be 6 × 4 = 24 lb.
x = 3 y + 12
4 4
x = 3 y+3
4
89
A
Answer Key for Sample Form A

1. D 14. E 27. B 40. G 53. B 66. H 79. D 92. G 105. D
2. G 15. A 28. G 41. B 54. E 67. A 80. G 93. C 106. E
3. C 16. G 29. A 42. H 55. D 68. G 81. B 94. G 107. D
4. E 17. C 30. H 43. B 56. F 69. B 82. F 95. B 108. G
5. C 18. F 31. B 44. H 57. A 70. F 83. D 96. G 109. A
6. E 19. A 32. F 45. A 58. 162 71. D 84. F 97. B 110. H
7. A 20. H 33. D 46. E 59. 99 72. F 85. D 98. G 111. C
8. F 21. B 34. G 47. D 60. –4 73. B 86. F 99. C 112. G
9. D 22. E 35. C 48. G 61. 45 74. H 87. D 100. H 113. A
10. G 23. C 36. F 49. A 62. 63 75. B 88. E 101. C 114. G
11. B 24. H 37. C 50. G 63. B 76. F 89. C 102. G
12. G 25. B 38. F 51. B 64. E 77. A 90. H 103. D
13. B 26. H 39. D 52. G 65. A 78. E 91. B 104. F
90
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SIDE 2 T
NEW YORK CITY PUBLIC SCHOOLS T
2017 SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS TEST
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GRADE 8 Test Booklet Letter Test Booklet Number T
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91
SAMPLE TEST, FORM B
PART 1 — ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS
57 QUESTIONS
REVISING/EDITING
QUESTIONS 1–20
IMPORTANT NOTE
The Revising/Editing section (Questions 1-20) is in two parts: Part A and Part B.
REVISING/EDITING Part A
DIRECTIONS: Read and answer each of the following questions. You will be asked to recognize and
correct errors in sentences or short paragraphs. Mark the best answer for each question.
(1) In September 2016, the National Museum of African American History and Culture opened,
as part of the Smithsonian Institution, the museum is already the Smithsonian’s third most
popular site. (2) Experts say that they expect this newest Smithsonian facility to welcome nearly
4 million visitors a year. (3) The museum features more than 30,000 objects, including
Muhammad Ali’s boxing gloves and a dress sewn by Rosa Parks. (4) A commemorative copy of
the Emancipation Proclamation, which was written in 1863 during the presidency of Abraham
Lincoln, is also available for viewing at the museum.
Which sentence should be revised to correct a run-on?
A. sentence 1
B. sentence 2
C. sentence 3
D. sentence 4
Form B 92 CONTINUE ON TO THE NEXT PAGE

To promote their club, a bake sale will be sponsored by members of the debate team on
Wednesday.
How should this sentence be revised?
E. To promote their club, on Wednesday a bake sale will be sponsored by members of the debate
team.
F. On Wednesday to promote their club, a bake sale will be sponsored by members of the debate
team.
G. To promote their club, members of the debate team will sponsor a bake sale on Wednesday.
H. Members of the debate team, on Wednesday to promote their club, will sponsor a bake sale.
(1) Devon spent several hours preparing for an upcoming audition. (2) First, he did vocal
exercises to practice his diction and projection. (3) Then, he studies the text of the monologue to
better understand the emotions and motivations of the character he plans to portray. (4) Finally,
he recited his monologue in front of a mirror many times, making slight adjustments and
improvements to his performance each time.
Which sentence should be revised to correct an inappropriate shift in verb tense?
A. sentence 1
B. sentence 2
C. sentence 3
D. sentence 4
The Colosseum in Rome, Italy which is considered one of the New Seven Wonders of the World, is
the largest amphitheater ever built and could hold more than 50,000 spectators.
E. delete the comma after Rome

F. insert a comma after Italy
G. delete the comma after World
H. insert a comma after built

The engineers tried some other things in the hope of finding a more effective insulation for the
compartment.
What is the most precise revision for the words The engineers tried some other things?
A. The engineers did experiments with several new materials

B. The engineers tested foam and fiberglass
C. The engineers did tests with two new materials
D. The engineers worked with foam and fiberglass

REVISING/EDITING Part B
DIRECTIONS: Read the passage below and answer the questions following it. You will be asked to
improve the writing quality of the passage and to correct errors so that the passage follows the
conventions of standard written English. You may reread the passage if you need to. Mark the best
The Local Library

(1) According to a 2015 survey, more than two-thirds of Americans own a smartphone, which means that
obtaining information or communicating with people is easier than ever before. (2) With the swipe of a
finger or the tap of an icon, people have instant access to articles, blogs, news, and social networking
websites. (3) Even with all these immediate sources, one of the best resources also happens to be one of
the oldest. (4) The public library is a great place for people to get information.
(5) The public library serves a truly critical role in promoting community. (6) There has been an
explosion of digital media in recent years. (7) This now allows people in different places to communicate
almost instantaneously. (8) And yet many people complain of feeling more isolated and alone than ever
before. (9) The library stands in a unique position to help community members meet this universal need
for human connection and companionship.
(10) Furthermore, libraries offer free assistance, training programs, and Internet access to all people.
(11) A student who does not have a computer at home can research and type a paper for school. (12) An
unemployed adult without access to the Internet can make use of library resources to find job
opportunities. (13) A library’s selection of materials, known as its collection, can include classic novels,
reference books, magazines, periodicals, CDs, and DVDs. (14) The stuff that is found at the library can
help people get a lot done.
(15) Public libraries also offer a variety of resources to community members. (16) One important
resource is the local librarian, who does far more than check out books and collect fines. (17) Other
library resources include free or low-cost tutoring and training programs. (18) Additionally, lectures,
book groups, and town meetings promote critical thinking and community engagement. (19) A typical
librarian holds a master’s degree and can help library patrons navigate through the flood of information
available in print or on the Internet.
(20) The hallmark of a public library is that its materials and services are accessible to all. (21) The
library connects people to a network of information and resources and is an important part of a
community.
6. Which sentence should replace sentence 4 to best introduce the main claim of the passage?
E. The public library is a valuable resource that all members of a community should use.
F. Going to the public library to gather information can be a valuable learning experience.
G. The resources available at a public library are most useful for students.
H. A public library offers many services to those who are interested in improving their communities.

7. What is the best way to combine sentences 6 and 7 to clarify the relationship between ideas?
A. There has been an explosion of digital media in recent years, since people in different places can
now communicate almost instantaneously.
B. There has been an explosion of digital media in recent years, although it now allows people in
different places to communicate almost instantaneously.
C. In addition to the explosion of digital media in recent years, people in different places can
communicate almost instantaneously.
D. With the explosion of digital media in recent years, people in different places can now
communicate almost instantaneously.
8. Which sentence can best follow and support sentence 9?
E. Libraries, which have been around for centuries and are found throughout the world today, help
preserve the history of a community.
F. The public library is often used as a place for community leaders and organizers to host
community events, such as hearings or town halls.
G. Libraries rely on a combination of local, state, and federal dollars to provide the kinds of services
and programs that community members have come to expect.
H. At a public library, people can interact with others through a variety of programs, including teen
book clubs, toddler story times, and senior-citizen exercise classes.
A. For example
B. Similarly
C. Indeed
D. As a result
10. Which revision of sentence 14 best maintains the formal style established in the passage?
E. The resources available at the library can help people accomplish many tasks.
F. All the materials you can get at the library can help you do many different tasks.
G. Everything in the library can help people work on a lot of different things.
H. The resources you can find at the library can help you do whatever you need to do.
11. Where should sentence 19 be moved to improve the organization of the fourth paragraph
A. to the beginning of the paragraph (before sentence 15)

D. between sentences 17 and 18

12. Which sentence is irrelevant to the argument presented in the passage and should be deleted?
E. sentence 3
F. sentence 11
G. sentence 13
H. sentence 20
13. Which concluding sentence should be added after sentence 21 to support the argument presented in
the passage?
A. Finally, patrons of the public library can grow in both their interpersonal life and their level of
community engagement.
B. Clearly, it is in the best interest of community members to maintain, support, and use their
public library.
C. After all, the public library has been a part of American communities since the first one was
founded in 1833.
D. In the end, community leaders must work together to find ways to generate more involvement in
public library events.

Moving Through Mountains
(1) An age-old proverb says that necessity is the mother of invention. (2) Centuries of human ingenuity
in the face of obstacles prove this to be true. (3) For many years the Swiss Alps, a mountain range
spanning southern Switzerland and northern Italy, were such an obstacle. (4) Roads and railways had to
navigate around the mountains or through winding tunnels inside the mountains. (5) Transportation of
people and goods was difficult and time consuming. (6) In 2016 these burdens were eased with the
completion of the Gotthard Base Tunnel.
(7) Construction of the high-speed railway tunnel began in 1996. (8) The tunnel was created through the
use of tunnel-boring machines, which are giant drills with a rotating head. (9) Each of the tunnel-boring
machines used during the construction of the tunnel was about the length of four football fields arranged
end-to-end. (10) During the seventeen-year construction period, 28 million tons of rock were removed,
enough to rebuild the Great Pyramid at Giza five times. (11) This massive construction project is
reported to have cost $12 billion. (12) After that, 4 million cubic meters of concrete, or enough concrete to
build eighty-four Empire State Buildings, were used to construct and support the tunnel.
(13) By 2020 the high-speed railway will carry more than 250 freight trains and fifty-five passenger
trains a day, with most traveling at speeds of around 100 to 125 miles an hour. (14) It will be faster for
people to travel between northern and southern Europe. (15) The travel time between the European
cities of Zurich, Switzerland, and Milan, Italy, will be reduced by an hour. (16) Many European leaders
compare the Gotthard Base Tunnel to the Channel Tunnel, a 33-mile underwater tunnel that connects
the United Kingdom and France. (17) While there is no roadway in the Channel Tunnel, people can
drive their cars onto special trains that will carry vehicles through to the other side.
(18) The Gotthard Base Tunnel project was successful, so now there is renewed interest in solving other
problems associated with traveling to and from certain places. (19) Just as traffic congestion in major
cities led to the construction of underground local transportation, natural formations, such as mountain
ranges, have also sent people underground for faster, easier, and cheaper methods of transportation
across larger areas.
14. What is the best way to combine sentences 4 and 5 to clarify the relationship between ideas?
E. Roads and railways had to navigate around the mountains or through winding tunnels inside the
mountains, making the transportation of people and goods difficult and time consuming.
F. Even though roads and railways had to navigate around the mountains or through winding
tunnels inside the mountains, the transportation of people and goods was difficult and time
consuming.
G. Roads and railways had to navigate around the mountains or through winding tunnels inside the
mountains, emphasizing that the transportation of people and goods was difficult and time
consuming.
H. Roads and railways had to navigate around the mountains or through winding tunnels inside the
mountains, since the transportation of people and goods was difficult and time consuming.

15. Which sentence should follow sentence 6 to most clearly introduce the topic of the passage?
A. The Gotthard Base Tunnel was approved by Swiss voters in 1992 and was funded by tolls, fuel
taxes, and government loans.
B. Leaders from several European countries attended the opening ceremonies for the Gotthard Base
Tunnel.
C. The Gotthard Base Tunnel is the world’s longest and deepest railway tunnel, stretching
35.5 miles straight through the base of the Swiss Alps.
D. The construction of the Gotthard Base Tunnel continues to help reduce the number of freight
trucks on the roadways.
16. Which sentence could be added to follow and support sentence 8?
E. The tunnel-boring machine is helpful to tunnel builders in the modern era and has been an
improvement over dynamite.
F. These enormous tunnel-boring machines function somewhat like a cheese grater, grinding slowly
through rock and stone.
G. Engineers had considered making a tunnel under the mountains for many years, but it was
impossible to do without modern tunnel-boring machines.
H. Different types of tunnel-boring machines are used depending on the geology of the area where
the tunnel is being created.
17. Where should sentence 12 be moved to improve the organization of the second paragraph
(sentences 7–12)?
A. to the beginning of the paragraph (before sentence 7)

D. between sentences 10 and 11
E. Even so
F. Additionally
G. For example
H. Therefore

19. Which sentence is irrelevant to the topic presented in the passage and should be removed?
A. sentence 3
B. sentence 11
C. sentence 13
D. sentence 17
20. Which concluding sentence should be added after sentence 19 to support the topic presented in the
passage?
E. There is proof that underground tunnels like the Gotthard Base Tunnel are beneficial to the
economy of the surrounding areas.
F. The Gotthard Base Tunnel is an extraordinary example of how human ingenuity and persistence
can overcome great obstacles.
G. The completion of the Gotthard Base Tunnel shows that people can work together to achieve
important goals.
H. The Swiss government is confident that the economic impact of the Gotthard Base Tunnel will be
worth its construction cost.

READING COMPREHENSION
QUESTIONS 21–57
DIRECTIONS: Read the passage below and answer the questions following it. Base your answers on
information contained only in the passage. You may reread a passage if you need to. Mark the best
On Monday evening, September 26, 1960, camera while answering questions, appearing
seventy million Americans turned on their to speak directly to his viewers and give
TV sets to view the first televised political 40 them straight answers. Nixon was recovering
debate in a campaign for the presidency of from a severe bout of influenza, and he
5 the United States. As of that date, it was by appeared tense and tired. He looked at the
far the largest number ever to witness a reporters who asked the questions instead of
political discussion. The novelty of the event at the camera, giving some viewers the
drew even those with little or no interest in 45 impression that he avoided eye contact with
politics. his audience and thus suggesting that he was
not trustworthy. Most commentators agreed
10 The candidates, Republican Vice President that Kennedy gained from the encounter:
Richard M. Nixon and Democratic Senator many viewers who had previously thought he
John F. Kennedy, had agreed to face each 50 lacked the maturity necessary to be president
other and the nation in four one-hour were won over by his charm, poise, and
sessions that the press dubbed the “Great confident manner.
15 Debates.” Many expected Vice President
Nixon to win the debates easily. He was While far fewer people watched the three
ahead in the newspaper polls, he was an later sessions, much discussion ensued
experienced public speaker, and he had 55 regarding the influence of the Great Debates
served as vice president for nearly on the outcome of the 1960 presidential
20 eight years. Senator Kennedy was less well- election. Some feared that the better TV
known and, at forty-three, was the youngest performer was bound to come across as being
man ever to run for president. Throughout the better candidate. “Is this a good way to
the presidential race, his opponents criticized 60 judge a person’s ability to serve as president
him for his relative youth and inexperience. of the United States?” they asked.
25 By mutual agreement, the first session was Kennedy ultimately won the election, but it
limited to domestic issues within the United was by the narrowest popular vote margin in
States. Each candidate was given more than eighty years. Some observers
eight minutes to make his opening remarks. 65 concluded that, had the Great Debates been
During the remainder of the hour, the broadcast on radio and not on television,
30 candidates took turns responding to Nixon would have won.
questions posed by selected reporters. Both
Kennedy and Nixon dealt with the issues
calmly and carefully. Viewers who expected to
see a free-for-all were disappointed. The way
35 the two men appeared on the television
screen, however, may have been as important
as what they said. Kennedy looked at the

21. Which of the following best tells what this 24. How did Kennedy benefit from the debates?
passage is about?
E. He was able to prove that he knew more
A. the reasons Nixon was expected to defeat about domestic issues than Nixon did.
Kennedy in the 1960 election F. He was able to display favorable personal
B. the discussion of domestic issues in the characteristics despite his inexperience.
1960 presidential debates G. He was able to show that he had a more
C. the events related to the first televised positive relationship with reporters than
presidential debate Nixon did.
D. the qualifications of Nixon and Kennedy H. He was able to persuade viewers to agree
for the role of president with his positions on domestic issues.
22. Which of the following would have been the 25. What evidence does the author provide to
most likely result if the candidates had not support the last sentence of the passage?
debated on television in 1960?
A. Kennedy and Nixon drew much smaller
E. Kennedy would have won the election audiences for their later debates.
anyway. B. Kennedy and Nixon responded to
F. Nixon would have had a better chance of questions calmly and carefully.
winning the election. C. Nixon participated in the debate despite
G. The election results would have been having been recently ill.
much closer. D. Nixon was more experienced and well-
H. The debates would not have become a known than Kennedy.
tradition.
26. Why did people who were not normally
23. Which of the following did critics in 1960 interested in politics tune in to the first of the
think could be an undesirable consequence of Great Debates?
televised presidential debates?
E. Vice President Nixon was a popular
A. Candidates who are less well-known politician.
would have to debate experienced F. Television had never before been used in
politicians. this way.
B. Candidates might have difficulty G. They had heard that Kennedy was young
overcoming the pressure of being on live and charismatic.
television. H. They wanted to see whether the
C. Candidates would be evaluated based on newspaper polls were correct.
their performance rather than their
positions.
D. Candidates would need to participate in
multiple televised debates to fully cover
important issues.

If you have ever watched someone fall on the or liquid-like, regardless of friction or
ice, you’ve seen slipperiness at work. But pressure. This notion was first proposed more
have you wondered what makes ice slippery, than 150 years ago by physicist Michael
or why skates or skis glide across ice so 40 Faraday. Faraday’s simple experiment
5 easily? The answer might seem obvious: ice is illustrates this property: two ice cubes held
smooth. Yet smoothness in itself does not against each other will fuse together. This
explain slipperiness. Imagine, for example, happens, Faraday explained, because liquid
skating on a smooth surface of glass or sheet on the cubes’ surfaces freezes solid when the
metal. 45 surfaces make contact.
10 Surprisingly, scientists do not fully Faraday’s hypothesis was overlooked, in part

understand why ice is slippery. Past because scientists did not have the means to
explanations of slipperiness have focused on detect molecular structures. However,
friction and pressure. According to the technological advances during recent decades
friction theory, a skate blade rubs across the 50 have allowed scientists to measure the thin
15 ice, causing friction. The friction produces layer on the surface of ice. For example, in
heat, melting the ice and creating a slippery, 1996, a chemist at Lawrence Berkeley
microscopically thin layer of water for the Laboratory shot electrons at an ice surface
skate to glide on. The friction theory, however, and recorded how they rebounded. The data
cannot explain why ice is slippery even when 55 suggested that the ice surface remained
20 someone stands completely motionless, liquid-like, even at temperatures far below
creating no friction. freezing. Scientists speculate that water
molecules on the ice surface are always in
The pressure theory claims that pressure motion because there is nothing above them
from a skate blade melts the ice surface, 60 to hold them in place. The vibration creates a
creating a slippery layer of water. The water slippery layer of molecules. According to this
25 refreezes when the pressure is lifted. Science interpretation of the Lawrence Berkeley
textbooks typically cite this explanation, but Laboratory experiments, the molecules move
many scientists disagree, claiming that the only up and down; if they also moved side to
pressure effect is not great enough to melt 65 side, they would constitute a true liquid.
the ice. Nor can the pressure theory explain Thus it could be said that people are skating
30 why someone wearing flat-bottomed shoes— on wildly vibrating molecules!
which have a greater surface area than skate
blades and thus exert less pressure per The phenomenon of a slippery, liquid-like
square inch—can glide across the ice or even surface is not limited to ice, although ice is
go sprawling. 70 the most common example. Lead crystals and
even diamond crystals, which are made of
35 During the 1990s, another theory found carbon, also show this property under certain
acceptance: the thin top layer of ice is liquid, temperature and pressure conditions.

27. Which of the following best tells what this 31. According to researchers at the Lawrence
passage is about? Berkeley Laboratory, why is the surface of ice
liquid-like rather than a true liquid?
A. the circumstances that allow ice to melt
B. the theories behind what makes ice A. because electrons rebound from the ice
slippery surface
C. the discoveries of Michael Faraday B. because the ice surface molecules vibrate
D. the processes of freezing and melting only up and down
C. because the ice surface is a different
temperature
28. What is the most likely reason that the
D. because the ice surface is under pressure
author mentions lead and diamond crystals
in the last paragraph?
32. According to the passage, which of the
E. to point out that solids other than ice following undermines the friction theory of
have slippery surfaces slipperiness?
F. to suggest that ice, lead, and diamonds
are composed of the same materials E. a person wearing flat-bottomed shoes
G. to cast doubt on Faraday’s theory of gliding across an icy surface
slipperiness F. two ice cubes fusing together
H. to illustrate the effects of temperature G. electrons bouncing off the surface of ice
and pressure on slipperiness H. a person sliding while standing immobile
on an icy surface
29. According to Faraday, why do two ice cubes
fuse when held together? 33. The author includes details about the
pressure theory in the third paragraph in
A. Friction causes the surfaces of the ice to order to
melt and refreeze.
B. The applied pressure forces the surfaces A. highlight that there are different ideas
of the cubes to stick to each other. regarding this theory about the
C. Liquid layers on the surfaces freeze slipperiness of ice.
together when the surfaces make contact. B. describe the most recently accepted
D. The liquid layers on the surfaces of the theory for the slipperiness of ice.
ice are perfectly smooth. C. emphasize that this theory has been
tested by scientists who study the
30. What is the most likely reason that the slipperiness of ice.
author mentions the 1996 experiment at D. show that there is scientific support for a
Lawrence Berkeley Laboratory? plausible theory about the slipperiness of
ice.
E. to provide evidence about the surface of
ice
F. to illustrate that studying ice molecules is
difficult
G. to show how experiments on ice are
inconclusive
H. to explain why ice cubes freeze together

One of the books that has done the most to people may use and enjoy, but not destroy, the
alert the world to the dangers of riches of the earth.
environmental degradation was George
Perkins Marsh’s Man and Nature. Its Furthermore, he asserted that everything in
5 message—that Western society was in the nature is significant and that even the tiniest
process of causing irreparable harm to the 50 organism affects the fragile environmental
environment—greatly influenced ecologists balance. His belief that drastic alteration of
during the beginning of the modern this balance would be dangerous is now
environmentalist movement in the 1960s. accepted as a fundamental principle of
10 Marsh was not, however, part of this modern environmental science.
movement. Surprisingly, Man and Nature
was first published in 1864. 55 Although he pointed out environmental
damage caused by irresponsible human
Marsh first observed the environmentally activities, Marsh did not oppose every human
destructive effects of human activities while alteration to the environment. To him, the
15 growing up in Vermont in the early goal was proper management, not a return to
nineteenth century. The heavy demand for 60 wilderness conditions. People should consider
firewood had depleted the forests, and the consequences of their actions, he wrote,
extensive sheep grazing had stripped the and become “co-worker[s] with nature.”
land. The result was flooding and soil erosion. Marsh praised the Suez Canal, the human-
20 Furthermore, streams were fouled by wastes made waterway between the Mediterranean
dumped from numerous mills and dye 65 Sea and the Gulf of Aden, as “the greatest
houses. and most truly cosmopolite physical
improvement ever undertaken by man.” He
Much later in his life, after careers in law, believed that the advantages of the canal—
business, farming, and politics, Marsh served improved transportation and commerce—
25 as ambassador to Italy. There he noticed land 70 would outweigh any environmental damage.
abuse similar to what he had seen in Yet he also warned of possible unintended
Vermont. Overgrazing and forest consequences, such as destructive plants and
mismanagement had rendered desolate areas animals spreading from one body of water to
that had been productive farmland since the the other.
30 days of the Roman Empire. Marsh attributed
this to what he called “man’s ignorant 75 Marsh was considered a radical thinker
disregard for the laws of nature.” during his lifetime. By the late nineteenth
century, however, his writings, along with
In Italy, Marsh began to organize his those of John Muir, Henry David Thoreau,
observations and theories. He wrote in a way and others, had inspired what became known
35 intended to educate readers about the impact 80 as the conservation movement. The
of industrial and agricultural practices on the conservationists of that time sought to
environment. In Man and Nature, he educate the public that wilderness areas
evaluated the important relationships were worth preserving, and they were
between animals and plants, discussed responsible for creating the National Park
40 forestry practices in great detail, and 85 Service and the National Forest Service.
analyzed the ways natural water supplies are
affected by human use.
Man and Nature challenged the popular

belief that nature could heal any damage
45 that people inflict upon it. Marsh argued that

34. Which statement best describes the central 36. What is the most likely reason the author
idea of the passage? uses the word “surprisingly” in line 11?
E. Marsh’s experience growing up on a farm E. to argue that Marsh’s ideas are more
allowed him to witness firsthand how applicable in the present than they were
human demands on nature can lead to during his lifetime
problems, and as an adult he wrote one of F. to show that Marsh introduced ideas a
the first books about conservation. century before they became widely
F. Marsh challenged the notion that nature accepted
could repair the damage people cause to G. to emphasize that Marsh was unaware
it, but he also supported human-made that his ideas would help begin a
modifications to nature that improve conservation movement
transportation and commerce. H. to prove that there would be fewer issues
G. Marsh’s ideas about the environment with the environment today if people had
were considered radical in his lifetime, accepted Marsh’s ideas earlier
but they later gained popularity during
the environmental movement in the
37. Which evidence supports the idea that
twentieth century.
Marsh’s theories about nature were accurate?
H. Marsh was a radical thinker who believed
that people’s actions could dramatically A. the details about Marsh’s observations of
affect nature, and his writings are environmental degradation
considered foundational to the B. the details about how Marsh’s writing
conservation movement. inspired a conservation movement
C. the details about how Marsh’s ideas are
35. Marsh believed that the people of his time essential to modern environmental
caused harm to the environment mostly science
because D. the details about Marsh’s opinion on
human alterations to the environment
A. they assumed future generations would
solve any environmental problems.
B. they thought industrial progress was
more important than protecting nature.
C. they were unwilling to change farming
and waste-disposal practices.
D. they lacked knowledge of nature and
natural processes.

38. Which detail about Marsh provides support 39. Which of Marsh’s ideas most influenced the
for the author’s statement in lines 55–58? environmental movement of the 1960s?
E. his reputation as a radical thinker A. Some human alterations to the

F. his contribution to the conservation environment are necessary.
movement B. People lack an understanding of the
G. his experience working as an ambassador environment.
H. his approval of beneficial human-made C. Human activities could damage the
projects in nature environment.
D. Environmental degradation has been
occurring for many years.

Anyone who has watched TV news coverage of work, from sawmills and drainage
of a hurricane has seen how destructive wind pumping to processing goods, such as dyes,
energy can be. But the power of the wind can 40 tobacco, cocoa, and spices.
also be put to constructive use. From
5 sailboats to old-fashioned windmills to high- In the 1700s, as steam engines gained in
tech wind turbines, people have devised ways popularity, the use of wind machines for
to harness wind energy for thousands of many types of work declined. However,
years. windmills still played an essential role in
45 pumping water on farms throughout the
The first known attempt to use wind power American West and Midwest. Between 1850
10 was the sailboat. Ancient shipbuilders and 1970, over six million small windmills
understood how to use forces like lift and were installed on American farms for
momentum, even if they could not explain watering livestock and meeting other water
those forces scientifically. The principles 50 needs. In many remote areas even today,
behind sailing led to the development of the livestock production would be impossible
15 windmill. The first known windmills without the use of windmills to provide
originated in Persia, an area that is now Iran, water.
as early as A.D. 500. They were created to
help with the demanding chores of grinding Beginning in the late nineteenth century,
grain and pumping water. By the tenth 55 windmills were adapted to generate
20 century, windmills were used throughout electricity. During the 1930s and ’40s, thin-
central Asia; they were used in China as bladed windmills provided electricity for
early as the thirteenth century. hundreds of thousands of farms across the
United States. By the 1950s, however, power
In Europe, windmills came into widespread 60 lines connected almost every household in
use during the twelfth century. As in other America to a central power source, such as a
25 parts of the world, they were used for milling utility company. After that, there was little
grain and pumping water. Windmills replaced need for wind turbines until the energy crisis
the water wheel, which was turned by the of the 1970s. At that time, interest in wind
movement of running water over paddles 65 turbines was renewed due to rising energy
mounted around a wheel. The windmill was costs and concern about the future
30 more adaptable and efficient than the water availability of fossil fuels, such as oil, coal,
wheel and quickly became popular. For and natural gas. The last several decades
example, Holland, famous for its windmills, have seen the development of “wind farms,”
used the machines to pump seawater away 70 clusters of wind turbines that generate
from low-lying coastal bogs. This allowed the electricity. Efficient, clean, and fairly
35 Dutch to reclaim large areas of land from the inexpensive to operate, wind farms may
sea. Windmills eventually became prove to be as important in the future as
sophisticated enough for use in a broad range earlier windmills were in the past.

40. Which of the following best tells what this 43. Why were fewer American farms dependent
passage is about? on wind machines for electrical power after
the 1950s?
E. the ways people have harnessed wind
power throughout history A. The energy crisis had prompted interest
F. reasons for developing wind farms to in other fuel sources.
generate electricity B. Coal and natural gas could generate more
G. how windmills are used in the United power than wind turbines.
States C. Centralized power systems connected
H. why windmills were modified to generate most places.
electricity D. Wind farms had reduced the need for
individual windmills.
41. What evidence best supports the idea that
windmills were important resources in the 44. Which of the following best expresses the
western United States? author’s opinion regarding the future use of
wind energy?
A. the details about the development and
use of wind farms E. Wind farming methods are unlikely to
B. the details about how windmills provided increase electrical output.
water for farms and livestock F. Wind farms will most likely be used to
C. the details about the role of wind energy provide energy in rural areas.
during the energy crisis of the 1970s G. Wind farming output will likely
D. the details about how steam engines supplement other sources of energy.
influenced the use of windmills H. Wind farms may become an important
source of electricity.
42. The author describes the tasks windmills
were used for in lines 36–40 in order to 45. According to the passage, the people of
Holland most notably used windmills to
E. emphasize that windmills served a
variety of purposes. A. pump water to remote locations.
F. highlight that windmills are more B. turn bogs into usable land.
efficient than water wheels. C. make the country famous.
G. emphasize that windmills were used for D. process a variety of goods.
many years.
H. convey that some countries used
windmills more than other countries.

Archaeologists first succeeded in using logs used in the buildings. With this floating
tree-ring dating while excavating ancient chronology, the archaeologists could tell
Pueblo Native American villages in the 40 which logs were older and which were more
southwestern United States during the recent. None could be precisely dated, since
5 1920s. At that time, no one knew when the no log had a pattern of tree rings that
villages had been occupied, or for how long, matched any part of the established
but the logs used in the buildings provided a chronology. It was clear from this evidence,
clue. Scientists had long known that trees 45 however, that the buildings must have been
add a new growth ring to their constructed before 1260.
10 circumferences during each growing season.
Drought or early frost results in little growth Finally, continued excavations turned up a
and narrow rings. Good growing years result “key” beam. The outer ring pattern of the key
in wide rings. Archaeologists knew that by beam overlapped the earliest rings in the
matching identical patterns of wide and 50 established chronology. Furthermore, its
15 narrow rings in sections of two different logs, inner ring pattern matched the pattern
they could determine which log was older. For formed by the most recent rings of the
example, a log with a certain pattern of rings floating chronology. Thus, the chronology for
near its outside edge would indicate a specific the abandoned Pueblo villages could be
series of good and bad growing seasons. This 55 known with certainty. Counting backward
20 log would have been cut down before a log of from the present, the archaeologists
comparable size that shows the identical estimated that the villages had been occupied
pattern near its center. between 900 and 1300.
But how could these ring patterns help The tree rings also suggested why the
determine the actual dates for the abandoned 60 villages had been abandoned. The rings for
25 Pueblo villages? Archaeologists had already the years 1276 to 1299 were very thin,
used the ring patterns of trees with indicating a severe drought that lasted for
overlapping lifetimes to establish a tree-ring twenty-three years. Most likely the villagers
chronology for the southwestern United had left their homes to search for a more
States that went back to A.D. 1260. That work 65 hospitable climate.
30 had been done in a Hopi village called Oraibi.
Oraibi had been continuously inhabited since
before the arrival of the first Spanish
explorers in 1540.
That same team of archaeologists also

35 developed a relative, or floating, chronology
for the abandoned Pueblo villages by
matching up the ring patterns of the various

46. Which of the following best tells what this 49. Which evidence best supports the idea that
passage is about? tree-ring dating helped archaeologists
understand why the Pueblo villages were
E. how variations in weather conditions abandoned?
affect tree growth
F. recent breakthroughs in understanding A. the details about the Hopi village Oraibi
Native American cultures B. the details about the twenty-three-year
G. why the Pueblo villages were abandoned drought
H. how tree-ring dating can establish the C. the details about the discovery of the
age of archaeological findings Pueblo villages
D. the details about the floating chronology
47. What was the importance of the key beam
described in the fourth paragraph? 50. Why did the archaeologists conclude that the
buildings in the abandoned Pueblo villages
A. It proved that trees of the same age were constructed before A.D. 1260?
would have identical tree-ring patterns.
B. It helped archaeologists determine why E. The logs in the Pueblo buildings did not
the villages had been built at that time. share any ring patterns with the
C. It revealed a new floating chronology for established chronology from the Hopi
archaeologists to investigate. village.
D. It connected the floating chronology to F. The logs in the Pueblo buildings had
the established chronology. fewer rings than the logs from the
buildings in the Hopi village.
G. The Pueblo villages were abandoned
48. The author explains the causes of wide and
before the Hopi village was established.
narrow tree rings in lines 8–13 in order to
H. The Pueblo villages and the Hopi village
E. emphasize that tree-ring dating is highly were constructed from logs of similar size.
accurate.
F. highlight how tree rings help determine 51. Why did archaeologists compare the logs
past weather patterns. from buildings in the abandoned Pueblo
G. emphasize that a tree’s ring patterns villages with logs from the Hopi village?
grow in a unique way.
H. highlight the importance of studying tree A. to find the oldest and most recent logs
rings. used in the Pueblo villages
B. to find evidence that would help explain
what caused people to leave the Pueblo
villages
C. to find a log from the Pueblo villages that
had tree rings that matched logs from the
Hopi village
D. to find evidence that the Pueblo villages
were constructed before the Hopi village

The decade that began with the stock market Reginald Marsh, Isabel Bishop, and the Soyer
crash in 1929 and ended with the declaration brothers, were associated with the Art
of war in Europe in 1939 was a turning point 40 Students League in New York. These painters
for art in the United States. Rejecting showed the high price paid by individual men
5 European trends, such as abstract art, and women struggling to survive the
American painters searched for a style that Depression. The names of some of their
was distinctly American. It was a time of works illustrate the style: Office Girls,
great social change—a society based on rural 45 Waiting, The Bowery. For various reasons,
and small-town life was rapidly being their work has been largely forgotten today.
10 replaced by a society focused on city life and
values. Although members of various groups Edward Hopper was an artist who was
are all referred to as “American Scene” associated with the American Scene but
painters, different groups painted their otherwise escaped further classification. Like
images of the United States in very different 50 the Urban Realists, he painted the tired
15 ways. dinginess of the urban streets during the
Depression. Yet Hopper often found beauty in
One group, sometimes called the the midst of the city’s monotony. For example,
Regionalists, included Thomas Hart Benton, one of Hopper’s best-known paintings,
Grant Wood, and John Steuart Curry, all 55 Nighthawks, shows several people sitting like
from the Midwest. Their art was intensely robots in a brightly lit coffee shop at night,
20 patriotic and frequently glorified an older, each apparently unaware of the others.
simpler United States. Their subject matter Hopper was not interested in a return to the
included church steeples, New England past. He presented what he saw without
fishing villages, and Midwestern cornfields. 60 apology or sentimentality.
Grant Wood’s most famous canvas is probably
25 American Gothic, which shows a stiff and The American Scene art movement of the
proper farm couple, the husband holding a 1930s was characterized by realistic
pitchfork. The Regionalists were often paintings that expressed the traditions and
muralists as well, painting local scenes on interests of people in the United States at
walls of state capitols and other public 65 that time. Because the paintings presented
30 buildings. Enormously popular during the common images and mirrored the lives of
1930s, Regionalist art is still treasured by many people, the general public readily
many as a fond memory of times gone by. identified with the subjects of the paintings.
With the onset of World War II, a new spirit
While the Regionalists remembered the past, 70 of internationalism swept through the art of
other American Scene artists painted the the United States, and the American Scene
35 drab realities of the contemporary urban painters became out of date. Although the
environment, testifying to its loneliness and movement did not last, it had reflected its
anonymity. The Urban Realists, including own time with profound understanding.

52. Why did ordinary people in the 1930s 55. How does the fourth paragraph contribute to
identify with the art of the American Scene the passage?
painters?
A. It describes the end of the American
E. The artists were primarily concerned Scene movement.
with painting farm life. B. It highlights Edward Hopper as a unique
F. People appreciated the beauty reflected in American Scene painter.
the paintings. C. It explains why Edward Hopper’s work
G. People wanted paintings to show social has been forgotten.
and cultural change. D. It contrasts the American Scene and
H. The paintings reflected the times in ways Urban Realist styles.
that were familiar to most viewers.
56. The author uses the phrase “without apology”
53. Which of the following subjects would an (lines 59–60) to explain that Hopper did not
Urban Realist painter be most likely to think he needed to justify
represent?
E. how he portrayed his subjects.
A. a scene with factory workers going home F. painting scenes of real places.
from work G. why his paintings became popular.
B. a scene with children playing games in a H. the classification of his art style.
street
C. a scene of a bustling European city
57. What is the most likely reason that
D. a scene showing the stores along the
Regionalist art has retained some of its
main street in a city
popularity while Urban Realist art has not?
54. Hopper’s paintings contrast with the work of A. Regionalist art depicts modern life as
the Urban Realist painters by well as life in the past, while Urban
Realist art depicts only the past.
E. showing the ugliness of a city B. Regionalist art more accurately portrays
environment. the time in which it was painted than
F. illustrating the move toward an Urban Realist art does.
international style. C. Regionalist art shows American life as
G. revealing the ways that dull urban life people wish to remember it, while Urban
can include beauty. Realist art does not.
H. focusing on the portrayal of people rather D. Regionalist art depicts Americans
than on the setting. overcoming the Depression, while Urban
Realist art depicts life during World
War II.

PART 2 — MATHEMATICS
57 QUESTIONS
IMPORTANT NOTES
(1) Formulas and definitions of mathematical terms and symbols are not provided.
(2) Diagrams other than graphs are not necessarily drawn to scale. Do not assume any relationship in a
diagram unless it is specifically stated or can be figured out from the information given.
(3) Assume that a diagram is in one plane unless the problem specifically states that it is not.
(4) Graphs are drawn to scale. Unless stated otherwise, you can assume relationships according to
appearance. For example, (on a graph) lines that appear to be parallel can be assumed to be parallel;
likewise for concurrent lines, straight lines, collinear points, right angles, etc.
(5) Reduce all fractions to lowest terms.
GRID-IN PROBLEMS
QUESTIONS 58–62
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem. On the answer sheet, write your answer in the boxes at the top of the
grid. Start on the left side of each grid. Print only one number or symbol in each box. DO NOT LEAVE
A BOX BLANK IN THE MIDDLE OF AN ANSWER. Under each box, fill in the circle that matches the
number or symbol you wrote above. DO NOT FILL IN A CIRCLE UNDER AN UNUSED BOX.
58. How many 5-digit numbers can be created 60. (−6) − (−5) + 4.2 − 3 − 9.6 =
using the digits 2, 3, 5, 7, and 8 without
repeating any digits within that 5-digit
number?
59. 147− x = 12
12
What is the value of x in the equation shown
above?

61. Tyler has completed 60 pages in his French 62.
workbook. This is 20% of the total number of
pages in the workbook. How many pages are
in the workbook?
30°
y° 60°
P
25°
Four straight lines intersect at point P as

shown above. What is the value of y ?

MULTIPLE CHOICE PROBLEMS
QUESTIONS 63–114
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem. Select the best answer from the choices given. Mark the letter of
your answer on the answer sheet. You can do your figuring in the test booklet or on paper provided by the
proctor. DO NOT MAKE ANY MARKS ON YOUR ANSWER SHEET OTHER THAN FILLING IN
YOUR ANSWER CHOICES.
63. If x = 9 and y = −7 , what is the value of 65. M = 3N = P = Q + 5 = R > 0

4 7
x ( x − 2 y) ?
Based on the statement above, which variable
A. 18 has the greatest value?
B. 45
C. 144 A. M
D. 207
B. N
C. P
64.
D. R
Q R
50° 66. A roofing contractor uses shingles at a rate of

3 bundles for every 96 square feet of roof
covered. At this rate, how many bundles of
shingles will he need in order to cover a roof
70° that is 416 square feet?
P T S E. 5
F. 12
In the figure above, PQRS is a parallelogram. G. 13
The measure of ∠PQT is 50° , and the H. 14
measure of ∠PTQ is 70° . What is the
measure of ∠QRS ?
67. To make party invitations, Macie could buy a
E. 60° package of paper for $10.50, or she could buy
x individual sheets of the same paper for
F. 70° $0.15 each. What is the largest value of x that
would make buying the individual sheets less
G. 80°
expensive than buying the package?
H. 120°
A. 60
B. 65
C. 69
D. 70

68. At 1:00 p.m. one day, the temperature was 70.
8 degrees above zero. During the rest of the
day, the temperature fell 3 degrees per hour.
DESSERT CHOICES
What was the temperature at 7:00 p.m. that
day?
Dessert Number of Times Ordered
E. −13° Cookies 42
F. −10°
Pie 23
G. −7°
Cake 47
H. 5°
Ice Cream 48
69. A bag contains 75 marbles that are red, blue,

or green. The ratio of red to blue marbles is The table above shows the number of times
15:7, and the ratio of blue to green marbles is that different desserts were ordered at a
7:3. If 2 blue marbles are removed and restaurant. Based on this information, what is
replaced with 2 green marbles, what will be the probability of a customer ordering ice
the new ratio of red to green marbles? cream as a dessert?
A. 3:1 E. 25%
B. 5:1 F. 30%
C. 7:5 G. 40%
D. 45:11 H. 48%
71. What is the least common multiple of 24, 6,

and 18?
A. 36
B. 48
C. 72
D. 144
72. One day, the Early Bird Restaurant used

15 dozen eggs for 200 breakfast customers. At
this rate, approximately how many dozen eggs
are needed for 300 breakfast customers?
E. 20
F. 23
G. 25
H. 30

73. A cooler contains three types of beverages: 75.
5 bottles of apple juice, 3 bottles of grape juice, PRICES FOR AD
and 6 bottles of fruit punch. What is the
SPACE
probability that a bottle chosen at random
from this cooler is not apple juice?
Space Price
1 1
A. 200
9 4
5 1
B. 350
14 2
9
full page 600
C.
14
D. 2 The table above shows prices for newspaper

3
advertising. A store purchased 1 pages,
4
1 pages, and full pages of space in equal
74. A large circular dinner plate has a radius of 2
20 centimeters. A smaller circular plate with a numbers for a total of $11,500. What is the
circumference of 20 centimeters is placed in
the center of the larger dinner plate. What is total amount of page space the store
the area of the part of the larger dinner plate purchased?
that is not covered by the smaller plate?
E. 20 sq cm A. 1 3 pages

4
F. 100 sq cm
B. 10 pages
G. 200 sq cm
C. 16 1 pages
H. 300 sq cm 2
D. 17 1 pages
2

76. 79. Bryana bought 1 3 yards of cloth at $8.00 per
4
yard. If there was an 8% sales tax, what was
y
the total cost of the cloth?
R A. $12.96
S B. $14.08
T x C. $15.12
U D. $16.08
V
80.
For which point on the graph above is the

value of the y-coordinate greater than the
M N
value of the x -coordinate?
E. R 11
3
F. T
G. U
H. V On the number line above, MN = 5 5 . What
6
is the position of point M ?
77. If 36 = 4 x , what is the value of x when

y
y=3? E. −7 1
6
A. 3 −4 1
F.
B. 4 2
C. 9
D. 12 G. 4 1
2
H. 7 1
6
78. Points X , Y, and Z are on a straight line, and
Y is between X and Z . Length YZ = 3 XY ,
5 81. A United States presidential coin is made
and length XY = 20 centimeters. What is the from an alloy of four metals—copper, zinc,
manganese, and nickel—with weights in the
length of XZ ? ratio of 177:12:7:4, respectively. The coin
weighs a total of 8 grams. What is the weight
E. 12 cm of the zinc in this coin?
F. 24 cm
G. 30 cm A. 0.28 g
H. 32 cm B. 0.48 g
C. 0.96 g
D. 48 g

82. Jack scored an average of 15 points per game 86. If w − 1 is an odd integer, which one of the
in his first 3 basketball games. In his following must be an even integer?
4th game, he scored 27 points. What is his
average score for the first 4 games?
E. w + 1
E. 15
F. 2w − 1
F. 17
G. 18 G. 2w − 2
H. 21
H. 2w + 1
83. A cylindrical oil drum can hold 4,320 liters

87. Three students stand at the starting line of a
when it is completely full. Currently, the drum running track and begin running laps at the
same time. Ann completes 1 lap every
is 1 full of oil. How many kiloliters of oil
3 2 minutes, Jack completes 1 lap every
need to be added in order to fill the drum 3 minutes, and Lee completes 1 lap every
4 minutes. How many laps does Ann complete
completely? before all three runners are once again at the
starting line at the same time?
A. 1.44 kL
B. 2.88 kL A. 4
C. 4.32 kL B. 6
D. 14.10 kL C. 12
D. 20
84. Nicole’s age now is three times Carmen’s age.

If Carmen will be 17 in two years, how old was 88. Simplify this expression:
Nicole 5 years ago?
4 ( 7 − 3x ) − ( 5 − x )
E. 38 yr
F. 40 yr
G. 45 yr E. 23 − 4 x
H. 50 yr
F. 23 − 11x
G. 28 − 4 x
85. A chemical decays in such a way that the
amount left at the end of each week is 20% H. 28 − 12x
less than the amount at the beginning of that
same week. What percent of the original
amount is left after two weeks?
A. 40%
B. 60%
C. 64%
D. 80%

89. 91. 5x 3 + 3x + 9 + 12
x
If x = 10 , what is the value of the expression
PET SURVEY
above?
Number of Pets Number of Students
A. 2,539.01
B. 5,039.01
0 12
C. 5,039.1
D. 5,139
1 16
2 7
92.
3 or more 5
N S P
Amy surveyed students at her school about
the number of pets they have. What is the
probability that a student who participated in
the survey has at least 2 pets?
R 6 cm
A. 7
40
B. 1
12
C. 1
8 M T Q
D. 3
10 R, S, and T are midpoints of the sides of
square MNPQ, as shown above. What is the
sum of the areas of the shaded triangles?
90. A large container is partially filled with
E. 9 sq cm
n liters of water. Ito adds 10 liters of water to
F. 12 sq cm
the container, making it 60% full. If Ito adds
G. 18 sq cm
6 more liters of water, the container will be
H. 36 sq cm
75% full. What is the value of n ?
E. 14
F. 15 93. The Chens spend $5 of every $8 they earn on
G. 26 planned expenses. If the family earns $29,600
H. 30 in one year, how much will they spend on
planned expenses that year?
A. $1,850
B. $3,700
C. $5,920
D. $18,500

94. A pizza shop offers a choice of 3 sizes (small, 97. On a bike trip, Rajiv traveled 65 kilometers in
medium, and large) and 7 different toppings. 5 hours, while Shaina traveled 72 kilometers
Different pizzas can be created by changing in 4 hours. How much less was Rajiv’s mean
the size and/or the choice of toppings. If Cody speed, in kilometers per hour (kph), than
wants to order a pizza with exactly 2 different Shaina’s?
toppings, how many different pizzas can he
create? A. 1 kph
B. 5 kph
E. 6 C. 7 kph
F. 21 D. 9 kph
G 63
H. 126
98. Points P, Q, R, and S represent −3, −1, 0, and 2,
respectively, on a number line. How many
95. units is the midpoint of PQ from the midpoint
of RS ?
SURVEY OF CATS PER FAMILY
E. 1
Number of Cats Number of Families
F. 2
G. 3
H. 4
0 15
1 42
99. There are 1,000 cubic centimeters in 1 liter,
2 35 and 1,000 cubic millimeters in 1 milliliter.
How many cubic millimeters are there in
1,000 cubic centimeters?
3 or more 8
A. 1,000
B. 10,000
The table above shows the number of cats per
family in 100 households in the Blaine C. 100,000
neighborhood. By what percentage is the D. 1,000,000
number of families with 1 cat greater than the
number of families with 2 cats?
A. 7%
B. 10%
C. 17%
D. 20%
96. A wooden box has a square base. The height of

this box is 3 times the length of one side of the
base. If one side of the base is 3 feet long, what
is the volume of this box?
E. 9 cu ft
F. 27 cu ft
G. 36 cu ft
H. 81 cu ft

100. 101.
M R T
−1 5
4 8
The hash marks on the number line above are

evenly spaced. What is the coordinate of
point R?
1
x+
A. 7
40
B. 9
40
C. 11
y 2 40
D. 21
In the quarter circle above, what is y in terms 40
of x ?
102. Phan chose an Internet service that charges

$18.00 per month plus $0.024 per minute.
E. x −1
Deion chose an Internet service that charges
$30.00 per month for unlimited usage. At the
F. x +1 end of the month, Phan’s and Deion’s charges
were identical. For how many minutes did
G. x +1 Phan use the Internet service that month?
2
E. 50 min
( x +1)2
H. F. 60 min
2
G. 100 min
H. 500 min

103. In a sample of 50 cars at a local dealership, 105.
there are 12 red cars and 10 cars with backup
cameras. Of the 12 red cars, 4 have backup
cameras. If a car is selected at random from
y
the given sample, what is the probability
that both of the following are true: the car is
not red and does not have a backup camera?
A. 3
5
B. 16 x
25
O m n
C. 19
25
What is the area of the shaded triangle shown
D. 4
above?
5
A. m + n
104. The decimal 0.06 can be written as the
B. n − m
fraction x . What is the value of x ?
50 C. 2( n − m)
E. 3
F. 6 D. 4 ( n − m)
G. 12
H. 30

106. 14 = p
108. 21 7
ANIMAL CARDS
In the equation above, what is the value of p ?
Number of Cards Picture on Card
8 cat E. 2
3
6 dog F. 3
5 bird
G. 14
3
4 fish
H. 14
1 horse
109. A ball is selected at random from a box that

The cards in the table above are mixed in a contains 7 black balls, 14 green balls, and 21
box. Which animal pictured on a card has red balls. What is the probability that the ball
exactly a 1 in 4 chance of being picked at selected is black?
random from the box?
E. cat 1
A.
F. dog 6
G. fish
B. 1
H. horse 5
C. 1
3
107. Which number line below shows the solution
set for 2x − 2 ≤ y ≤ 4 x + 10 when y = 1 ? D. 5
6
A.
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 110. At North High School, a survey asked two
questions, Question A and Question B. For
each question, students could answer either
B. “yes” or “no.” Of the 800 students who
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 responded to the survey, 720 answered “yes” to
Question A, and 640 answered “yes” to
Question B. What is the least possible number
C.
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 of these students who could have answered
“yes” to both questions?
D. E. 80
–3 –2 –1 0 1 2 3 F. 160
G. 560
H. 640

111. Raoul is at least 3 years older than Vahn. 113. There are now x cans stacked on a shelf that
Which of the following inequalities gives the holds 36 cans when full. If 4 of these cans
relationship between Raoul’s age ( r ) and were removed, the shelf would be half full.
Vahn’s age ( v )? What is the value of x ?
A. 14
A. r − v ≥ 3
B. 16
B. r − v ≤ 3 C. 18
D. 22
C. 3 − v ≤ r
D. 3 − r ≤ v
114. Carlos tossed a paper cup in the air 50 times
and found that the probability of it landing on
its side was 72%. If he tosses the cup in the air
112. 1 sind = 5.6 ricks 150 more times, what is the total number of
1 sind = 12.88 dalts times he can expect the cup to land on its
side?
Using the conversion above, how many dalts
are equal to 1 rick? E. 72
F. 108
E. 0.43 dalt G. 144
F. 2.30 dalts H. 158
G. 7.28 dalts
H. 18.48 dalts
THIS IS THE END OF THE TEST.

IF TIME REMAINS, YOU MAY CHECK
YOUR ANSWERS. BE SURE THAT THERE
ARE NO STRAY MARKS, PARTIALLY
FILLED ANSWER CIRCLES, OR
INCOMPLETE ERASURES ON YOUR
ANSWER SHEET. j
Form B 126
BB
REVISING/EDITING PART A REVISING/EDITING PART B

1. (A) The question asks for the identification of a run-on
sentence that needs to be corrected. Option B, Option C, The Local Library
and Option D identify complete sentences that are not 6. (E) The question asks for a sentence that should
run-ons. Option A identifies a sentence made up of two replace sentence 4 to introduce the main claim in the
independent clauses that need to be more definitively passage. Option F states that going to the library can be
separated between “opened” and “as,” using either a a learning experience. This idea is implied in sentences
semicolon or a period. 17 and 18, but it is not the main claim of the passage.
Option G states that the resources at a public library
2. (G) The sentence in the box demonstrates the use of a are most useful for students, which is discussed in the
misplaced modifier. In Option E and Option F, the phrase third and fourth paragraphs. The idea that the library
“to promote their club” incorrectly modifies “a bake sale.” is useful for students is offered as evidence for the
While Option H makes it clearer that “to promote their main claim. Option H states the fact that local libraries
club” refers to the “members of the debate team,” the rest provide services to help improve communities, which is
of the sentence is poorly written. Option G is the only explained in sentences 15–18, but this statement does
option in which the phrase “to promote their club” clearly not present an argument. Option E best presents the
modifies “members of the debate team” and that clarifies argument that the public library is a valuable resource
that the bake sale is on Wednesday. and should be used by community members.
3. (C) All the sentences should have a main verb in the 7. (D) This question asks for the best way to combine
past tense. For Option A (sentence 1), Option B (sentence sentences 6 and 7 to clarify the relationship between
2), and Option D (sentence 4), the main verbs in the ideas. Option A makes an incorrect connection that
sentences are in the past tense (“spent,” “did,” “recited”). the explosion of digital media happened “since” people
For Option C (sentence 3), the main verb in the sentence can communicate instantaneously. Option B makes an
inappropriately shifts to the present tense (“studies”) incorrect connection because the use of the conjunction
and should be revised to the past tense (“studied”). “although” suggests that the explosion of digital media
in recent years led to something different before allowing
people to communicate instantaneously, which does
4. (F) The sentence in the box needs a comma to set off not make sense. Option C suggests that instantaneous
the nonrestrictive clause “which is considered one of communication is in addition to the explosion of digital
the New Seven Wonders of the World.” Option E would media, rather than an effect. Option D is the only option
remove the comma between a city and country, which that accurately connects the ideas in sentences 6 and 7 to
would be incorrect. Option G would incorrectly remove show that the explosion of digital media has contributed
the comma at the end of a nonrestrictive clause, which is to the ability of people to instantaneously communicate.
set off by commas at the beginning and the end. Option
H is incorrect because a comma is not necessary before
the conjunction “and” to connect a dependent clause. 8. (H) Sentence 9 expresses the idea that the library
Option F is the only option that places a comma where it helps community members meet the need for human
is needed, after “Italy,” to set off the nonrestrictive clause connection and companionship. Option E references the
that follows. history of the library, which does not support the ideas in
sentence 9 or the main argument in the passage. Option
F introduces the idea of community meetings, but it does
5. (B) The question asks for the most precise revision not support the idea in sentence 9. Option G mentions
for the words The engineers tried some other things. an expectation of the community, but it does not support
Option A and Option C use the word “materials” rather the ideas in sentence 9, and it brings up a new idea
than precisely identifying what the engineers used. unrelated to the main claim in the passage. Option H is
Option D identifies the materials, but the imprecise verb the only option that provides support for sentence 9 and
“worked with” does not specify what the engineers were strengthens the connection between the information in
doing. Option B is the only option that revises the words sentence 9 and the main argument in the passage by
to be precise by using the specific words “tested” for the listing examples of how people can connect at the library.
verb and “foam and fiberglass” for the materials.
127
B
9. (B) Sentence 11 provides an example of a way that to the argument of the passage, which is that the library
a person can use the library, and sentence 12 offers promotes a sense of community and offers assistance.
another way. Option A suggests that sentence 12 This sentence should be deleted.
is an example of the idea in sentence 11. Option C
suggests that sentence 12 confirms the point made
13. (B) The question asks for a concluding sentence
in sentence 11. Option D suggests that sentence 12
that would follow sentence 21 to support the argument
is a result of sentence 11. Option B is the only option
presented in the passage. Option A does not provide
that demonstrates that sentence 12 provides a similar
a logical conclusion to support the argument that
example of a person who can use the library.
the public library is a valuable resource because the
sentence addresses the patrons of the library more than
10. (E) The question asks for a revision of sentence 14 the function of the library. Option C presents the idea
that best maintains the formal style established in the that the library has been in existence since 1833, but it
passage. Both Option F and Option H use the second does not logically support the main claim of the passage
person and directly address the reader, which is more as a concluding sentence because it focuses only on this
informal. Also, Option H uses the informal phrase one idea. Option D states a new claim, that community
“whatever you need to do.” Option G does not use second leaders must work together to support library events,
person, but it uses informal language like “work on” instead of a claim supporting the argument of the
and “things.” Option E is the only option that maintains passage. Option B is correct because it logically follows
the formal style by using “people” instead of “you” and sentence 21 and supports the argument that the public
the more formal language “resources available” and library is a valuable part of a community by urging
“accomplish many tasks.” community members to use, maintain, and support their
local public library.
11. (C) The question asks for where sentence 19 should
be moved in order to improve the organization of the
fourth paragraph. Sentence 19 describes a typical Moving Through Mountains
librarian and the direction he or she provides in the 14. (E) Sentence 4 is the reason for the situation
library. Option A places this sentence before the main described in sentence 5. In Option F, the phrase “even
idea of the paragraph, which states that public libraries though” changes the relationship between ideas so that
offer a variety of resources. Sentence 19 is an example the sentence illogically implies that needing to navigate
of one of the resources, so it would not be placed at the around and through the mountains should have made
beginning of the paragraph before the main idea. Option transportation easy. Option G is incorrect because it
B places the sentence before the librarian is introduced states that traveling around the mountains or through
in the paragraph. Both sentences 17 and 18 (Option winding tunnels emphasized that transporting people
D) have moved on from the topic of the librarian, so and goods was difficult rather than clarifying that
sentence 19 would not logically fit between them. Option this difficulty was an effect of having to travel around
C correctly places sentence 19 after the librarian is the mountains or through winding tunnels. Option H
introduced in sentence 16, with an example of what else reverses the relationship between the ideas. Only Option
the librarian does. E makes it clear that the transportation of people and
goods was difficult because roads and railways had to
12. (G) The question asks for a sentence that is navigate around and through the mountains.
irrelevant to the argument presented in the passage.
Option E is relevant because sentence 3 makes reference 15. (C) The correct answer should state the main topic of
to the library being one of the oldest yet best resources. the passage. Option A offers overly detailed information
Option F is relevant because sentence 11 provides about the funding to build the Gotthard Base Tunnel,
an example of how a person can get assistance at the but it does not explain what or where it is. Option B
library, the main idea of the third paragraph. Option H is gives details about the opening of the tunnel but does
relevant because sentence 20 emphasizes the important not provide a description of the tunnel. Option D offers
idea that libraries are accessible. Option G, while related a result of the Gotthard Base Tunnel, rather than a
to the topic of the library because it states the selection description of what and where it is. Only Option C
of materials available, does not contribute specifically states and clarifies the Gotthard Base Tunnel
as the main topic.
128
B
16. (F) The correct answer needs to provide details about 19. (D) The correct answer must be a sentence that is
the tunnel-boring machines used to build the Gotthard irrelevant to the topic. Sentence 3 (Option A) introduces
Base Tunnel to supplement the general description of the obstacle that the Gotthard Base Tunnel was built
the machines in sentence 8. Option E offers information to overcome, so sentence 3 should not be removed.
about how tunnel-boring machines were an improvement, Sentence 11 (Option B) should not be removed because
which does not explain how the machines work. Option G the sentence helps the reader understand that building
is incorrect because it describes how the tunnel could not the tunnel was a massive job. Sentence 13 (Option
be completed until advances were made in tunnel-boring C) helps the reader understand how the tunnel will
machine technology and does not describe the machines improve transportation through the Alps, so it should
used for this tunnel. Option H explains that there are not be removed. However, the information about the
different types of machines for different geologies, but the Channel Tunnel in sentence 17 (Option D) does not help
geology of the tunnel area is not discussed in sentence 8 the reader understand the Gotthard Base Tunnel, so
or the rest of the paragraph and the sentence does not sentence 17 should be removed.
explain how the machines work. Only Option F gives
specific details about the tunnel-boring machines used to
20. (F) The correct answer needs to support key points
create the Gotthard Base Tunnel.
from earlier in the passage. Option E would not be an
effective concluding sentence because the economies of
17. (D) The correct answer must be a location in which surrounding areas were never mentioned in the passage.
the sentence completes the detailed steps of how the Option G might seem attractive because building the
tunnel was built. Option A, placing the sentence at Gotthard Base Tunnel appears to have required many
the beginning of the paragraph (before sentence 7), people to work together. However, the passage does not
would not make sense because the topic has not been explicitly mention people or groups working together.
introduced. Similarly, Option B, placing the sentence Option H would not be an effective concluding sentence
after sentence 7, would not make sense because adding because it focuses on the cost of the Gotthard Base
concrete would have to happen after the rock was broken Tunnel, which is referred to in only sentence 11 of the
down and removed from the tunnel. Similarly, Option passage. Only Option F, which supports key elements
C, placing the sentence between sentences 9 and 10, from the introductory paragraph, would make an
would not make sense because the use of concrete did effective concluding sentence.
not take place before the removal of “28 million tons of
rock.” Option D, placing the sentence between sentences
10 and 11, is correct because placing the sentence there READING COMPREHENSION
helps the reader understand the full sequence of steps in
constructing the tunnel before the cost of the project is Debates
introduced.
21. (C) The passage is primarily about the participants
in the first televised presidential debate (lines 10−24),
18. (G) The correct answer must be a transition that details about how both Nixon and Kennedy acted during
clarifies the relationship between the ideas in sentences the debate (lines 25−47), and the impact of the debate
14 and 15. Option E, “even so,” suggests that travel (lines 47−61). All of these details are best stated by
between Zurich and Milan would not be affected by Option C. The reasons Nixon was expected to win (Option
the tunnel. Option F may seem attractive because A), the discussion of domestic issues (Option B), and the
“additionally” is used to show that sentence 15 gives qualifications of each candidate (Option D) are important
a new idea related to the earlier one in sentence 14. details related to the debates but are not the overall
However, sentence 15 doesn’t add an idea related to topic.
faster travel time. Option H, “therefore,” is used to show
that one idea or event is the result of another. However,
22. (F) Some observers suggested that had the debate
the one-hour reduction in travel time from Zurich to
not been on television, it is more likely that Nixon, not
Milan mentioned in sentence 15 is not a result of travel
Kennedy, would have won the election (lines 64−67),
being faster from northern to southern Europe but a
which is Option F. The passage states that Nixon was
detail to show one trip that will be faster. Only Option
well known, ahead in the polls, and more experienced
G, “for example,” correctly shows that the reduced travel
than Kennedy (lines 16−20), so it is unlikely that
time from Zurich to Milan is an example of faster travel
Kennedy would have won anyway (Option E) or that the
between northern and southern Europe.
129
B
election results would have been closer (Option G). The 26. (F) The answer is given in lines 3–9, which explains
idea that the debates would not have become a tradition that the debates of 1960 were the first time presidential
(Option H) is not supported by the passage. debates were broadcast on television and reached a
greater audience than ever before, including people who
were not interested in politics. This is summarized in
23. (C) The answer to this question can be found in the
Option F. Option E is a true statement, but it does not
fourth paragraph. Lines 57–59 state that “Some feared
explain why people not interested in politics would have
that the better TV performer was bound to come across
watched the debates. The text does not indicate that
as being the better candidate.” This concern is best
Kennedy’s youth and charisma were the main reasons
reflected in Option C. The less well-known candidates
people watched the debates, ruling out Option G. The
have to encounter more experienced candidates
idea that people wanted to verify the newspaper polls
whether the political debates are televised or not, which
(Option H) is not supported by the passage.
rules out Option A. While certain candidates may be
uncomfortable on live television, this was not the main
concern described in the fourth paragraph, ruling out
Option B. Multiple debates were planned before the first Ice
debate took place, so the idea in Option D would not 27. (B) The passage begins by asking why ice is
be considered an undesirable consequence of televised slippery (lines 2–5) and then reviews several theories
debates. of slipperiness: smoothness, friction, pressure, and
Faraday’s theory. Option B best states the topic of
24. (F) Details in lines 49−52 show that the televised the passage. The circumstances that allow ice to melt
debates benefitted Kennedy by allowing him to display (Option A), the discoveries of Michael Faraday (Option
his “charm, poise, and confident manner,” which were C), and the processes of freezing and melting (Option D)
favorable characteristics that convinced viewers he had are details related to the theories of ice slipperiness, but
the maturity to be president. This benefit is summarized they do not express the main idea of the passage.
by Option F. Option E is incorrect because it can be
inferred that both candidates appeared to have an 28. (E) The most likely reason that the author mentions
equal understanding of domestic issues since they are lead and diamond crystals (lines 70–71) is to illustrate
described as having “dealt with the issues calmly and that solids other than ice have slippery surfaces and
carefully” (lines 31–33). Both Nixon and Kennedy took indicate that other substances can contain this property
questions from reporters (lines 29−31), but there is no under the right circumstances (lines 72−73). This is
indication that Kennedy had a better relationship with best stated in Option E. Option F cannot be correct,
reporters than Nixon did, which rules out Option G. The because these crystals are not made of frozen water. The
debate may have persuaded some viewers to agree with properties of lead and diamond crystals are not related
Kennedy’s positons on domestic issues (Option H), but to Faraday’s theory, ruling out Option G. While lead and
the passage does not support that this was an advantage diamond crystals may demonstrate the slipperiness
for Kennedy because of the debates being televised. property under certain temperature and pressure
conditions (Option H), the author does not list these
25. (D) The detail in Option D supports the last sentence substances in order to show the effects of temperature
of the passage: Nixon’s greater experience (lines 16–20) and pressure on their slipperiness.
may have been more apparent to radio listeners who
would not have been distracted by his poor television 29. (C) According to Faraday, the liquid on the ice cubes’
appearance. While lines 53−54 state that fewer people surfaces freezes solid when the surfaces make contact
watched the later debates (Option A), this does not (lines 42–45). This information is restated in Option C.
support the idea that Nixon would have won had the Option A is incorrect because Faraday’s explanation does
debates not been televised. The idea that both Nixon and not include the concept of friction. Neither the pressure
Kennedy responded to questions calmly and carefully theory, described in the third paragraph, nor Faraday’s
(lines 31−33) also does not indicate that Nixon would theory, described in lines 35–42, support the idea that
have won, ruling out Option B. While Nixon was ill just applied pressure forces ice cubes to stick together, ruling
before the debate (lines 40−41), this does not support the out Option B. Smoothness (Option D) was a discredited
idea that Nixon was the favorite to win before the debate, explanation for slipperiness, not for why two ice cubes
ruling out Option C. fuse when held together.
130
B
30. (E) The experiment at Lawrence Berkeley Laboratory Marsh

is mentioned in lines 51–57. The author most likely
mentions the experiment because the data provide 34. (H) The second through fifth paragraphs of the
evidence that the ice surface remains liquid-like, creating passage primarily describe Marsh’s personal experiences
a slippery layer of molecules on the ice surface (Option and his ideas about nature, and the final paragraph
E). In the past, studying ice molecules was impossible explains how his ideas are the basis for the conservation
(lines 46−48), but the experiment at Lawrence Berkeley movement. This is best stated in Option H. Option
Laboratory does not indicate the difficulty of studying E focuses mainly on Marsh’s early life and does not
ice molecules presently, ruling out Option F. Option G is address his influence. Option F describes specific details
incorrect because the experiment described in the fifth about Marsh’s beliefs but does not explain who he was
paragraph did lead to the conclusion that the molecules or how he affected the conservation movement. Option
vibrated only up and down (lines 63−64). Ice cubes G emphasizes that Marsh’s ideas were radical and
freezing together refers to Faraday’s observations in influential but does not provide any information about
lines 41−42 (Option H), but the experiment at the lab in what Marsh’s beliefs were.
1996 is included to present observations about ice on a
molecular level. 35. (D) Marsh attributed people’s practices to “the
popular belief that nature could heal any damage that
31. (B) The distinction between the two terms is people inflict upon it” (lines 43–45), which suggests a
made in lines 63–65. The surface of ice is liquid-like lack of understanding, or ignorance, of nature (lines
because the surface molecules move only up and down, 31–32). This is best stated in Option D. Although
which is Option B. Option A describes the results of future generations are working to solve environmental
the experiment, not the ice surface itself. The passage problems, there is no indication in the passage that
does not state that the liquid-like state is related to Marsh believed that people in his time expected future
temperature (Option C) or pressure (Option D). generations to solve environmental problems, ruling
out Option A. While the people of Marsh’s time made
advances in industry, Marsh did not indicate that
32. (H) The friction theory of slipperiness is explained he believed that people thought industrial progress
in the second paragraph, which concludes that the outweighed efforts to protect the environment (Option B).
theory cannot explain why ice is slippery for someone Option C is incorrect because there is also no evidence in
who stands motionless, essentially creating no friction. the passage to suggest that Marsh believed that people
Something that a theory cannot explain can be said to were unwilling to change their practices.
weaken, or undermine, the theory. Option H, “a person
slipping while standing immobile on an icy surface,”
is the best answer. Option E undermines the pressure 36. (F) Lines 1–9 lead the reader to expect that Marsh
theory, not the friction theory. Option F and Option G was part of the modern environmental movement that
neither support nor undermine the friction theory. began in the 1960s. Therefore, the fact that Marsh’s
influential book was published 100 years earlier is
surprising (Option F). While Marsh’s ideas have had
33. (A) The author includes the information about the a resurgence in popularity since the 1960s (lines 7–9),
pressure theory to highlight that there are different Marsh’s observations about deforestation in Vermont
perspectives on the validity of the pressure theory (lines 16–19) and land mismanagement in Italy (lines
between what is presented in textbooks and what 25–30) indicate that his ideas were just as applicable in
researchers believe to be true (lines 25−29). This is best his time as they are today, ruling out Option E. While
stated in Option A. Option B is incorrect because the Marsh could not have been aware that his ideas would
liquid-like theory, not the pressure theory, has gained lead to the start of a conservation movement (Option
more acceptance recently. Even if scientists have tested G), line 12 indicates that the surprising part is that
the pressure theory (Option C), the pressure theory still Marsh had these ideas 100 years before the conservation
raises questions about why ice is still slippery when movement became popular. While it’s possible a greater
less pressure is applied (lines 29−34). There is scientific awareness of human impact on the environment
support for a plausible theory (Option D), but that during Marsh’s time could have prevented certain
support is for Faraday’s theory, not the pressure theory. environmental issues today (Option H), this is conjecture
and does not explain the author’s purpose for using the
word “surprisingly.”
131
B
37. (C) The concept that Marsh’s theories about nature electricity is mentioned in lines 54–56, but this detail
were accurate is best supported by the statement that is explained only at the end of the passage, ruling out
ideas from his book are now considered basic knowledge Option H.
in the field of environmental science (lines 51–54),
which is Option C. While Marsh made observations of
41. (B) The idea that windmills were an important
environmental degradation (lines 13–22, lines 25–27),
resource in the western United States is best supported
this does not provide evidence that his theories were
by the information about the use of windmills to pump
accurate, ruling out Option A. While Marsh’s writing did
water for farms and livestock in lines 44–45 (“essential
inspire a conservation movement (lines 77–80), these
role in pumping water”) and lines 47–50 (“over six
details do not call attention to the accuracy of his ideas,
million small windmills were installed . . . for watering
which rules out Option B. Option D is incorrect because
livestock and meeting other water needs”). This is best
it refers to personal opinions (lines 58–59, lines 67–70),
stated in Option B. The details about the development
not his theories, which are considered true today.
and use of wind farms in lines 68–71 (Option A) support
the idea of wind being an alternative energy source but
38. (H) Details about Marsh’s approval of the Suez Canal are not limited to a specific region. The energy crisis of
(lines 63–67) show that Marsh did not oppose certain 1970 (Option C) was not limited to the western United
human activates because the advantages—improved States, and steam power (Option D) led to a decline in
transportation and commerce—improved human the use of windmills.
life and outweighed negative environmental damage
(lines 67–70). Option H best summarizes that idea.
42. (E) The author describes the different tasks
Option E is not relevant to the statement in question.
windmills were used for mainly to emphasize that
Option F acknowledges Marsh’s contributions to the
windmills and wind energy can be used to serve a variety
environmental movement but does not relate to his
of purposes and were important in the production of
attitudes about certain alterations to the environment.
goods before steam power was harnessed. This purpose
Option G is incorrect because it relates to a time when
is best stated in Option E. While windmills did replace
Marsh observed environmental degradation in a foreign
water wheels (lines 26–31), this is not the idea the
country.
author is emphasizing by including a list of the tasks
windmills were adapted to perform, ruling out Option
39. (C) Marsh’s main contribution to the modern F. The passage does explain that windmills had been
environmental movement is given in lines 5–7—the used for many years (lines 15–23), but this idea is not
idea that Western society was causing irreparable harm highlighted by the list of tasks, which rules out Option G.
to the environment. Option C restates that idea. While Option H is incorrect because it relates to the idea that
Marsh did believe that some human alterations to the Holland was famous for its windmills (line 32), which
environment are necessary (lines 67–70; Option A), that is not proved or emphasized by the tasks listed in lines
people lacked an understanding of nature (lines 30–32; 36–40.
Option B), and that environmental degradation had been
occurring for many years (lines 27–30; Option D), it is
43. (C) The need for wind machines to produce electricity
clear from the information in the first paragraph that the
on American farms before the 1950s is discussed in
impact of human activity was his most influential idea.
lines 54–59. The next two sentences explain that the
need for windmills decreased in the 1950s because most
homes were connected to an electric utility and no longer
Wind Energy depended on windmills for electrical power (Option C).
40. (E) Option E best describes what the passage is The energy crisis happened in the 1970s and prompted a
about, which is how wind energy has been used in a renewed interest in wind energy, which rules out Option
variety of ways from ancient sailboats to medieval A. The idea that coal and natural gas generate more
windmills to modern turbines. Wind farms are a more power than wind turbines (Option B) is not supported in
modern development, and they are mentioned only in the passage as the main reason for the decline in the use
lines 68–74, which rules out Option F as the main topic of wind machines in the 1950s. Electrical connectivity,
of the passage. Option G is incorrect because the second not wind farms, reduced the need for individual
and third paragraphs explain in detail about windmills windmills (Option D).
that were used in other areas of the world, not just
the United States. Developing windmills to generate
132
B
44. (H) The author’s opinion regarding the future use of 49. (B) Tree-ring dating helped reveal that the Pueblo
wind energy is discussed in the last paragraph: “wind villages were likely abandoned during a long drought
farms may prove to be as important in the future as (Option B). Option C first led archaeologists to realize
earlier windmills were in the past” (lines 72–74). Option that the villages had been abandoned. Option A and
H best conveys the author’s optimism that wind farms Option D contributed to establishing the chronology but
will be a major source of electricity in the future. Option do not explain why the villages were abandoned.
E is incorrect, given the author’s optimism. Option F
and Option G relate to the present state of wind farming
50. (E) The third paragraph describes the development of
more than the author’s vision of the future.
a floating chronology that did not overlap the established
chronology that went back to 1260. This implies that
45. (B) The country of Holland most notably used the years of the floating chronology preceded the years
windmills to pump seawater away from bogs and reclaim of the established chronology, which is stated in Option
large areas of land (lines 32–36), as stated in Option B. E. Option F is incorrect because the pattern of tree-rings
The pumping of water to remote locations (Option A) was in the logs reveals more about the chronology than the
more important in the United States than in Holland. number of tree-rings does. Archaeologists knew that the
While Holland is famous for its windmills (line 32), the Pueblo villages were abandoned before the Hopi villages
passage clearly states that windmills were most notably were established because the Hopi villages had been
used for practical purposes, such as clearing bogs (lines continuously inhabited (lines 31–33), ruling out Option
33–34) or processing goods (line 39), which rules out G. Option H is incorrect because the size of the logs does
Option C. The use of windmills to process goods was not not provide information about their connection to the
limited to or most notably done by the Dutch, which rules established chronology.
out Option D.
51. (C) Lines 41–44 suggest that archaeologists
Pueblo compared samples from both villages in hopes of finding
a beam where the patterns matched (Option C). The
46. (H) Option E cannot be the topic of the passage discovery of the key beam is described later in the
because only the first paragraph discusses how weather passage. Option A, Option B, and Option D are related
conditions affect tree growth. Option F is too broad to information that can be gathered from examining
to be a good statement of the topic. The reason for the logs, but the options do not accurately explain the
the abandonment of the Pueblo villages (Option G) is archaeologists’ purpose of finding a key beam.
mentioned only in the last paragraph, so it is not the
main topic. Option H offers the best statement of the
topic of the passage.
American Scene
47. (D) Option A is true but can be proved without a key 52. (H) The correct answer is found in lines 65–68;
beam. Option B is not related to the key beam. Option C the general public identified with American Scene art
misrepresents the importance of the key beam. Option because the paintings presented common images and
D is correct. The key beam, with its overlapping ring mirrored the lives of many people, which is best stated
patterns from the established and floating chronologies, in Option H. While farm life was depicted in a subset of
allowed archaeologists to connect the two chronologies. American Scene art (Regionalist art; lines 16−32), this is
not an explanation of why people identified with the art,
which rules out Option E. Option G is incorrect because
48. (F) The size of the tree rings provides information American Scene art primarily focused on painting the
about the health of the tree and insight about changing United States as the artists saw it (lines
environmental factors and weather patterns (Option 11−15). Option F may seem true, but the emphasis of the
F). The fact that archaeologists rely on tree-ring dating passage is on the relatability of the scenes depicted in
suggests that it is accurate (Option E), but this does not American Scene art, not the beauty.
explain why the author describes ring widths. Option G
is incorrect because the passage explains that trees that
live in a specific place at the same time will have the 53. (A) According to the third paragraph, Urban Realists
same tree-ring pattern. Option H is incorrect because it “painted the drab realities of the contemporary urban
does not offer an explanation about the conclusions that environment” (lines 34–36) and depicted “the high
can be made from the size of tree rings. price paid by individual men and women struggling to
survive the Depression” (lines 41–43). The subject that
133
B
best matches that description is Option A. Option B and

Option D may be set in an urban environment, but they
do not fit the description of Urban Realist art given in
the passage. Option C is incorrect because it does not
describe an American city scene.
54. (G) Lines 49–53 provide the correct answer. Edward

Hopper, the painter of Nighthawks, portrayed dingy
urban streets; however, he often found beauty in the
midst of a city’s drab surroundings, which is expressed
in Option G. Option E and Option H do not state clear
contrasts to the Urban Realist style. The international
style had not yet developed, ruling out Option F.
55. (B) The fourth paragraph is about Edward Hopper

and his association with American Scene art. The
paragraph highlights that Hopper’s work was unique
and hard to classify because of the way he found beauty
in otherwise drab urban settings (lines 49–53). This
is best stated in Option B. The end of the American
Scene movement is described in the fifth paragraph, not
the fourth, ruling out Option A. Option C is incorrect
because Hopper’s work has been remembered. Option
D is incorrect because the fourth paragraph focuses
on Hopper’s contribution to the art style of the time.
Additionally, Urban Realist style is a subcategory of
American Scene style, and most typically contrasted with
Regionalist art (lines 33–37).
56. (E) The phrase “without apology” (lines 59−60) refers

to how Hopper saw and portrayed his subjects. In his art,
he presented people and places as he saw them, as in his
painting Nighthawks (lines 55−57). This is described in
Option E. While Hopper did paint scenes of real places
(Option F), the phrase is about how he chose to portray
those scenes in his work. Hopper’s works became well
known (Option G), but the phrase does not relate to the
popularity of his work. The passage says that Hopper
“escaped further classification” (line 49), but the phrase
does not relate to the classification of his art style, which
rules out Option H.
57. (C) Regionalist art, with its pleasant and familiar

subjects, retained some of its popularity because it
showed American life as people wished to remember it
(lines 8−11, lines 19−23). This is best stated in Option
C. It did not retain some of its popularity because it
portrayed modern life (Option A) or the time in which
it was painted (Option B). Regionalist art did not depict
Americans overcoming the Depression or life during
World War II, ruling out Option D.
134
BB
58. (120) There are 5 choices for the first digit, 4 64. (E) Find the missing angle, angle QPT, of triangle
choices for the second digit, 3 choices for the PQT: 180° − 70° − 50° = 60°
third digit, 2 choices for the fourth digit, and
In parallelogram PQRS, angle QPT is
1 choice for the final digit. The total number
congruent to angle QRS, so the measure of
of possibilities is 5 × 4 × 3 × 2 × 1 = 120.
angle QRS is also 60°.
59. (3) 147− x = 12

12 65. (D) Break the equations apart to each equal M:
147 − x = 144 M = 3N
x=3
M = P
4
60. (–3.4) (−6) − (−5) + 4.2 − 3 − 9.6 = 3.2 − −6.6
= 3.2 − 6.6 = −3.4 M = Q+5
61. (300) Let x be the total number of pages in the M = R

7
workbook. Then, 20% of x is 60. Set up a
proportion and solve for x: Pick a number to substitute into the
equations, and solve the equations to find the
20 = 60 values of M, N, P, Q, and R.
100 x
Let M = 2. Since all the equations are equal
20x = 6,000 to 2, substitute 2 to find each variable.
6,000
=x = 300 pages M = 3N
20
2 = 3N
62. (65) Call the missing angle in the top half of 2 = N
the figure x. The sum of the four angles 3
on the top of the figure is equal to 180°.
x + y + 30 + 60 = 180
M = P
4
Since x is a vertical angle with the 25° angle,
then x is also 25°. Use that to solve for y. 2= P
4
25 + y + 30 + 60 = 180
8= P
y + 115 = 180
M = Q+5
y = 65
2= Q+5
−3 = Q
63. (D) x( x − 2 y) = 9[ 9 − 2(−7)] = 9(9 + 14 )
= 9(23) = 207
M = R
7
2= R
7
14 = R
Variable R has the greatest value.
135
B
66. (G) Set up a proportion: 70. (F) The total number of desserts ordered is
42 + 23 + 47 + 48 = 160.
x = 3
416 96 The probability that ice cream was chosen is
96x = 1,248 48 3
= = 30%.
160 10
x = 13 bundles
71. (C) Since 18 and 24 are both multiples of 6, find

67. (C) Set up an inequality to compare the costs: the least common multiple of only 18 and 24.
0.15x ≤ 10.50 Multiples of 18: 18, 36, 54, 72…
x ≤ 70 Multiples of 24: 24, 48, 72…
Therefore, 70 individual sheets of paper would The least common multiple of 6, 18, and 24
cost $10.50, so 69 is the greatest number of is 72.
individual sheets of paper that Macie can
buy that would be less expensive than the
package. 72. (F) Let x be the number of dozens of eggs for 300
customers. Set up a proportion:
68. (F) 7:00 p.m. is 6 hours after 1:00 p.m. Calculate x = 15

the number of degrees the temperature 300 200
dropped in 6 hours: 3 × 6 = 18 degrees. 200x = 4500
Subtract that from the starting point x = 22.5 dozen eggs.
(8 degrees) to find the solution: Round up to 23 because you can't have half an
8 − 18 = −10 degrees. egg.
73. (C) The total number of bottles of juice in the

69. (D) The ratio of red to blue to green is 15:7:3.
cooler is 5 + 3 + 6 = 14.
Find the proportion of blue marbles. Add the The number of bottles of juice that are not
apple juice (grape juice and fruit punch) is
numbers of the ratio and use the total sum as
3 + 6 = 9.
the denominator: 7 = 7 . Find the
15+7+3 25 So the probability is 9 .
proportion of green marbles: 3 . Since there 14
25
are a total of 75 marbles, the number of blue
marbles is 7 × 75 = 21. The number of

25
green marbles is 3 × 75 = 9. The number
25
of red marbles is 75 − 21 − 9 = 45.
If 2 blue marbles are removed and replaced
with 2 green marbles, the number of blue
marbles is now 19 and the number of green
marbles is now 11. The ratio of red marbles to
green marbles is 45:11.
136
B
74. (H) The radius of the large plate is 20 cm. Use 77. (A) Substitute 3 for y and solve for x:
that to find the area of the large plate:
36 = 4 x
A = πr = π( 20 2 ) = 400π sq cm y
2
The circumference of the smaller plate is 36 = 4 x

20 π cm. Use that to find the radius, and then 3
the area, of the smaller plate: 12 = 4 x
C = 2πr 3= x
20π = 2πr
78. (H) Since XY = 20 cm, use that to find YZ :
r = 10
A = πr = π(10 ) = 100π sq cm YZ = 3 XY = 3 ( 20) = 12 cm
2 2
5 5
Subtract the area of the small plate from the XZ = XY + YZ = 20 + 12 = 32 cm
area of the large plate:
400π − 100π = 300π sq cm
79. (C) Calculate the cost of the cloth before tax:
75. (D) The question says that an equal number (x) 1 3 × 8 = 7 × 8 = $14
4 4
of each type of space was purchased. To find
Now find the tax for $14 worth of cloth:
the number of each type of space that was
purchased, multiply the price per type by x
and set it equal to the total amount spent, 14 × 8% = 14 × 8 = $1.12
100
then solve for x:
Finally, add the cost of the fabric and the tax:
200x + 350x + 600x = 11,500
$14 + $1.12 = $15.12
1,500x = 11,500
x = 10 80. (F) To find M, subtract N − M and set it equal to
Thus, the store purchased 10 units of each the length:
type of space. To find the total amount of
page space purchased, multiply each type of 11 −M = 55
3 6
space by 10, and add: 5
−M = 5 − 1 1
6 3
(10 × 14 page) + (10 × 12 page) + (10 × 1 page) 5
−M = 5 − 1 2
6 6
= 17 1 pages −M = 4 3
2
6
M = −4 1
76. (E) In the second quadrant, where point R is 2
located, the x-values are negative and the
y-values are positive. Any point in the second
quadrant will have a y-value greater than the
x-value. So, the answer is point R.
137
B
81. (B) Add the four values in the ratio 85. (C) Let x be the original amount of the chemical.
(177 + 12 + 7 + 4 = 200) and use the sum as It loses 20% after each week, which means
the denominator. Use that to find the fraction 80% of the chemical remains at the end of
of zinc in one of the coins. Then reduce the each week.
fraction:
End of first week: 0.80x
12 = 3 At the end of the second week, 80% of the
200 50 amount left at the end of the first week
remains.
Multiply this fraction by 8 to find the number
of grams of zinc in decimal form: End of second week:
0.80(0.80x) = 0.64 x or 64%
3 × 8 = 24 = 0.48 g
50 50
86. (G) One more than an odd integer must be even.
82. (G) Jack scored a mean of 15 points per game in One more than w − 1 is w, therefore w must
each of the first 3 games, so he earned a total be even. Two times an even integer must be
of 45 points for the first 3 games. Use that even, therefore 2w is even. An even integer
information to calculate the mean over the decreased by 2 must be even.
four games:
Therefore, 2w − 2 must be even.
45 + 27
= 72 = 18
4 4
87. (B) Find the least common multiple of 2, 3, and
4 — which is 12. So, it takes 12 minutes
before all three are back at the starting line.
83. (B) Find the number of liters that need to be
Ann completes 1 lap every 2 minutes, so in 12
added. Since 1 of the oil drum is full, 2 of minutes she has completed 6 laps.
3 3
the drum remains empty:
88. (F) 4( 7 − 3x) − ( 5 − x) = 28 − 12x − 5 + x
2 × 4,320 = 2,880 liters
3 = 23 − 11x
Use the conversion 1 kL = 1,000 L to find the
number of kL: 89. (D) First, add the number of students for each
category to find out how many total students
2,880 were in the survey: 12 + 16 + 7 + 5 = 40
= 2.88 kL
1,000
The number of students who had at least
2 pets are the ones who have 2 pets (7) plus
84. (F) First, find out how old Nicole and Carmen are the ones who have 3 or more (5). The total
now. number of students with at least 2 pets is
Let N = Nicole’s age now. 7 + 5 = 12.
Let C = Carmen’s age now. The probability of a student in the survey
having at least two pets is:
C + 2 = 17
, 12 = 3
C = 15 (Carmen s age now) 40 10
N = 3C
=
N 3(15)
= 45 (Nicole’s age now)
N − 5 = 45 − 5 = 40 (Nicole’s age 5 years ago)
138
B
90. (E) Let x be the total number of liters the 92. (E) The length of one side of the square is 6
container can hold.
cm. Since R, S, and T are midpoints, then
n +10 = 60% and n +16 = 75% TM, MR, RN, and NS are all equal to 3
x x
cm. Triangles TMR and RNS are both right
First, solve each equation for x:
triangles, so the area of one of the triangles is
Equation 1:
1 × 3 × 3 = 9 . The triangles are congruent,
n +10 = 60 2 2
x 100 so the sum of the areas is 9 + 9 = 9 sq cm.
2 2
n +10 = 3
x 5
3x = 5( n + 10) 93. (D) Let x be the amount spent on planned expense
in one year:
x = 5n +50
3 x = 5
29,600 8
Equation 2:
5
x = ( 29,600) = 18,500
n +16 = 75 8
x 100
n +16 = 3
x 4 94. (G) First, figure out how many different topping
3x = 4( n + 16) pairs are possible. Use 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7 to
represent the toppings and create a list of
x = 4n +64 possible pairs:
3
1,2; 1,3; 1,4; 1,5; 1,6; 1,7
Now, set the two equations equal to each
2,3; 2,4; 2,5; 2,6; 2,7
other and solve for n.
3,4; 3,5; 3,6; 3,7
5n +50 = 4n +64 4,5; 4,6; 4,7
3 3 5,6; 5,7
6,7
5n + 50 = 4n + 64
So there are 21 different topping
n + 50 = 64
combinations for one pizza.
n = 14 liters Since there are 3 pizza sizes, multiply the
total number of combinations by 3 to get the
91. (B) 5x + 3x + 9 + 1
3 total number of different pizzas Cody can
x
2 create: 3 × 21 = 63.
= 5(10 3 ) + 3(10) + 9 + 1
10
2 95. (D) To find by what percent the number of
families with 1 cat is greater than the number
= 5,000 + 30 + 9 + 1 = 5,039.01 of families with 2 cats, calculate the difference
100
between the two numbers and divide by the
number of families with 2 cats:
42−35 = 7 = 1 = 0.20 or 20%.
35 35 5
139
B
96. (H) One side of the square base is 3 ft long. Since 100. (E) Both x + 1 and y + 2 are radii. So, set them
the height of the box is 3 times the length, equal to each other and solve for y.
then the height is 3 × 3 = 9 ft. The volume of
a rectangular prism is length × height y + 2 = x +1
× width. The volume of the wooden box is y = x −1
V = 3 × 3 × 9 = 81 cu ft.
101. (C) There are 5 sections between M and T. To find
97. (B) Calculate each mean speed: the length of one of these sections, find the
distance between M and T and divide by 5:
=
R 65
= 13 kph
5
( 85 − (− 14 )) ÷ 15 =
72
=
S =
4
18 kph
( 85 + 82 ) ÷ 15 =
Then calculate the difference of both mean 7 ÷ 5 = 7×1 = 7
speeds: 8 1 8 5 40
S − R = 18 − 13 = 5 kph R is 3 sections away from M, so add:
98. (G) 4 ( )
− 1 + 3 7 = − 10 + 21 = 11
40 40 40 40
R is located at 11 .
40
102. (H) Let x be the number of minutes Phan used his

Find the midpoint of PQ and RS: internet service in the month. Phan’s monthly
−1 − (−3) charges were 18 + 0.024 x. Since Deion’s
Midpoint of PQ = = 2 = 1 unit. charges were the same as Phan’s, set the
2 2
The midpoint of PQ is located 1 unit from expression equal to 30 and solve for x:
each endpoint, so the midpoint is at −2. 18 + 0.024 x = 30
Midpoint of RS = 2 − 0 = 2 = 1 unit.
2 2 0.024 x = 12
The midpoint of RS is located 1 unit from
x = 500
each endpoint, so the midpoint is at 1.
Phan used his service for 500 minutes.
The distance between the two midpoints is
1 − (−2) = 3 units.
99. (D) If 1 L 1,000

= = cu cm, then 1 L 1,000 mL.
Set up a proportion, letting x = the
amount of cubic millimeters in 1,000 cubic
centimeters.
1,000 cu mm x cu mm
=
1L 1,000 cu mm
Solve for x: 1,000,000 cubic millimeters are in
1,000 cubic centimeters.
140
B
103. (B) Create a chart using the given information 107. (C) Separate the compound inequality into two
and use subtraction to figure out how many pieces:
cars are not red and do not have a back-up
camera: 2x − 2 ≤ y and y ≤ 4 x + 10
Substitute y = 1 into each inequality and
Red Not Red TOTAL
solve for x:
Back-up 4 6 10
Camera (10-4) 2x − 2 ≤ 1
No back-up 32 2x ≤ 3
Camera (38-6)
TOTAL 12 38 50 x≤ 3
(50-12)
2
1 ≤ 4 x + 10
The probability of selecting a car that meet −9 ≤ 4 x
both conditions from the total of 50 cars at the −9 ≤ x
4
dealership is 32 = 16 .
50 25
The solution is the number line that shows
that x is greater than or equal to −2 1 and
4
104. (E) 0.06 = 6 . Simplify the fraction to find the less than or equal to 1 1 .
100 2
answer:
=6 =3 so, x 3. 108. (G) 14 = p

100 50 21 7
21 p = 7(14)
105. (C) The height of the triangle is 4 units. The 21 p = 98
length of the base is n − m. So the area is
=
p 98
= 14
A = 1 ( n − m)( 4 ) = 2( n − m). 21 3
2
109. (A) The total number of balls in the box is

106. (F) The total number of cards in the box is 7 + 14 + 21 = 42.
8 + 6 + 5 + 4 + 1 = 24. Set up a proportion The probability that the ball is black is
to figure out which card has exactly a 1 in 4 7 = 1.
42 6
chance of being picked at random. x = 1
24 4
or x = 6. The dog card has a 1 in 4 chance of
being randomly selected.
141
B
110. (G) None of the 80 students (800 − 720) who 113. (D) The shelf, when full, holds 36 cans. When the
answered “no” to Question A (800 − 720) shelf is half full, it holds 18 cans.
could have answered “yes” to both questions.
x − 4 = 18
Therefore, the least possible number of
students who could have answered “yes” to x = 22
both questions, can be found by subtracting
the 80 who answered “no” to Question A from
114. (G) The probability of the cup landing on its
the 640 who answered “yes” to Question B or
side is 72%. Carlos tossed the cup a total of
640 − 80 = 560.
200 times (50 + 150). The number of times
the cup lands on its side is 72% of 200:
111. (A) Raoul is at least 3 years older than Vahn, 0.72 × 200 = 144.
which can be written as
r ≥v+3
Rewrite this inequality to match the answer
options:
r−v≥3
112. (F) Since 5.6 ricks and 12.88 dalts are both equal
to 1 sind, then 5.6 ricks = 12.88 dalts. To
calculate the number of dalts (d) in 1 rick, set
up a proportion:
5.6 = 1
12.88 d
5.6d = 12.88
d = 2.3
Answer Key for Sample Form B

1. A 13. B 25. D 37. C 49. B 61. 300 73. C 85. C 97. B 109. A
2. G 14. E 26. F 38. H 50. E 62. 65 74. H 86. G 98. G 110. G
3. C 15. C 27. B 39. C 51. C 63. D 75. D 87. B 99. D 111. A
4. F 16. F 28. E 40. E 52. H 64. E 76. E 88. F 100. E 112. F
5. B 17. D 29. C 41. B 53. A 65. D 77. A 89. D 101. C 113. D
6. E 18. G 30. E 42. E 54. G 66. G 78. H 90. E 102. H 114. G
7. D 19. D 31. B 43. C 55. B 67. C 79. C 91. B 103. B
8. H 20. F 32. H 44. H 56. E 68. F 80. F 92. E 104. E
9. B 21. C 33. A 45. B 57. C 69. D 81. B 93. D 105. C
10. E 22. F 34. H 46. H 58. 120 70. F 82. G 94. G 106. F
11. C 23. C 35. D 47. D 59. 3 71. C 83. B 95. D 107. C
12. G 24. F 36. F 48. F 60. –3.4 72. F 84. F 96. H 108. G
142
99
SAMPLE PROBLEMS FOR
GRADE 9 MATHEMATICS GRADE
DIRECTIONS: This section provides sample mathematics problems for the Grade 9 test forms. General direc-
tions for how to answer math questions are located on pages 61 and 114. There is no sample answer sheet
for this section; mark your answers directly on this page or on a separate piece of paper.
1. Assume S( x ) equals the sum of all positive 4. Simplify:

even integers less than or equal to x . What is
the value of S( 7) ?
p12  p0
−
p 4
E. 0
2. 16  196 = −3
F. p
G. p8
H. p16
3. y
5.
8 12 ft
6
M 4 ft
4
2 Water is pumped into a tank that is shaped

like the right inverted cone shown above. The
N cone has a base diameter of 12 feet and a
x height of 4 feet. What is the volume, in cubic
O 2 4 6 8 feet, of the water in the tank when the height
of the water is 2 feet?
If MN is translated 1 unit to the left to
produce M′ N′, what is the area of A. 6 cu ft
parallelogram NMM′ N′ ?
B. 18 cu ft
A. 3 square units
B. 4 square units C. 24 cu ft
C. 5 square units
D. 48 cu ft
D. 6 square units
143
SAMPLE PROBLEMS FOR GRADE 9 MATHEMATICS continued...
6. y 7. The graph shows the wolf population in
l Yellowstone National Park since 2000. A
student drew a line of best fit to model the
data.
(2a, 2b)
Wolf Population
y
(a, b)
180
x 170
O
160
Number of Wolves
150
140
130
120
Straight line l passes through the origin, as 110
shown in the figure above. What is the slope of 100
line l in terms of a and b ?
90
80
x
E. a 0 2 4 6 8 10 12 14
b
Years Since 2000
F. 2b
a
Which statement best describes the line of
G. 2a best fit that the student drew?
b
A. The line of best fit is not a strong model
H. b for the data, because the points are not
a
close to the line.
B. The line of best fit is not a strong model
for the data, because it does not pass
through any of the data points.
C. The line of best fit is a strong model for
the data, because both the line and the
data show a negative trend.
D. The line of best fit is a strong model for
the data, because about half the data
points are on each side of the line.
144
8. To determine the price of servicing a car, a 11. Which of the following expressions is
mechanic charges a fixed fee plus an hourly negative in value?
rate for each hour he works. If his price for
4 hours of service is $270, and his price for
7 hours of work is $420, what is the fixed fee A. 4 −
that the mechanic charges?
B. 3 − 9
E. $50 C. 12 − 4
F. $60
G. $70 D. 36 − 9
H. $120
9. y 12. P
m
4
Q R N 5c
3 10 cm Q
x
2
1 M R
P S
x
O 1 2 3 4 
In the figure above, MPR is similar to
 NPQ . If the length of NQ is 10 centimeters,
Rectangle PQRS above is rotated 180° about what is the length of MR in terms of x ?
the origin to form rectangle P′Q′ R′S′. What are
the coordinates of R′ ?
E. 2x
A. ( 4, −3)
F. 2x + 10
B. (−4, 3)
G. x + 5
C. (−4, 1)
D. (−4, −3) H. 1 x + 5
2
−8
10. 15.3 × 10
4
1.5 × 10
What is the quotient of the expression above,

expressed in scientific notation?
−13
E. 1.02 × 10
−11
F. 1.02 × 10
−4
G. 1.02 × 10
H. 1.02 × 1012
145
13.
20
x
In the right triangle above, x = 2 y . What is

the value of y ?
A. 2
B. 10
C. 80
D. 200
146
99
EXPLANATION OF CORRECT ANSWERS
GRADE 9 MATHEMATICS GRADE
1. (12) S(x) is the sum of all positive even integers 6. (H) Use the slope formula to figure out the slope
less than or equal to x. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6 are of line l.
all integers less than 7. Take the positive
y2−y1 2b−b
integers from the list and find the sum: Slope of line l = = = b
x2− x1 2 a−a a
S(7) = 2 + 4 + 6 = 12
7. (A) The line of best fit should be close to as many
points as possible. In this case, very few of the
2. (56) 16 • 196
= 4=
• 14 56 points are on or next to the line. So, this is not
a strong model for the data, because most of
the points are not close to the line.
3. (B) When MN is translated 1 unit left, the
distance between M′ and M is 1 unit, which
is the base of the parallelogram. The height 8. (G) Set up the two equations and subtract them
of the parallelogram is the vertical distance from one another to find the price per hour:
from M to N. Since M is at y = 5 and N is at
y = 1, the height is 5 − 1 = 4 units. The area y + 7x = 420
of a parallelogram is base × height, so the
area is 1 × 4 = 4 square units. − y + 4 x = 270
3x = 150
12 0 4
p p p x = 50
= ( p12 p0 ) = p 12+0 +4 =
• ( )
4. (H) −4
•
p 1
To find the fixed fee, use one of the equations
p 12+4 = p16
( )
( y + 7x = 420 or y + 4 x = 270) and solve for
y, using x = 50.
5. (A) First, find the radius when the depth of y + 4x = 270
the water is 2 ft. Set up two similar right
y + 4( 50) = 270
triangles as shown below:
y + 200 = 270
12 ft y= 70
9. (D) Point R is at (4, 3). If (x, y) is rotated 180°

x ft
about the origin: R( x, y) → (− x, − y).
4 ft Therefore, R( 4, 3) → (−4, −3).
2 ft
10. (F)
Use a proportion to find x. Since the diameter
−8 8 − 8 −
of the right inverted cone is 12 ft, the radius
is 6 ft:
15.3 × 10
1.5 × 10 4
(
1.5
)
= 15.3 × 10 4 = 10.2 × 10 4
10 10
x = 2
6 4 Then use the rule of exponents to simplify.
(−8−4) −12
x = 3 ft 10.2 × 10 = 10.2 × 10
Rewrite the answer so that it is standard
Now, find the volume of the cone with a scientific notation form.
radius of 3 ft and a height of 2 ft: 1.02 × 10
−11
V = 1 r 2πh = 1 (32 ) π( 2) = 3π(2) = 6π

3 3
147
EXPLANATION OF CORRECT ANSWERS GRADE 9 MATHEMATICS continued...
11. (C) Substitute the approximation π = 3.14 13. (C) Use the Pythagorean Theorem:
into each expression and solve to find which
expression results in a negative value: x 2 + y 2 = 20 2
4 − π = 0.86 Substitute x = 2 y into the equation and

solve for y.
3π − 9 = 0.42
12 − 4π = −0.56
( 2 y)2 + y 2 = 20 2
36 − 9π = 7.74
4 y 2 + y 2 = 400
So, the answer is 12 − 4π . 5 y 2 = 400
y 2 = 80
12. (F) Triangles NPQ and MPR are similar, so y= 80
corresponding sides of the triangles are
proportional. Set up a proportion to find MR.
MR = NQ
MP NP
MR = 10
x +5 5
5(MR) = 10(x + 5)
5(MR) = 10x + 50
MR = 2x + 10
Answer Key for Grade 9 Mathematics

1. 12 6. H 11. C
2. 56 7. A 12. F
3. B 8. G 13. C
4. H 9. D
5. A 10. F
148
88
SAMPLE PROBLEMS FOR
GRID-IN ITEMS GRADE
DIRECTIONS: Solve each problem. On the answer sheet, write your answer in the boxes at the top of the grid.
Start on the left side of each grid. Print only one number or symbol in each box. DO NOT LEAVE A BOX
BLANK IN THE MIDDLE OF AN ANSWER. Under each box, fill in the circle that matches the number
or symbol you wrote above. DO NOT FILL IN A CIRCLE UNDER AN UNUSED BOX.
1. On a practice test, there are 3 essay questions 3. 0.21 = x

for every 7 multiple-choice questions. If there 0.33 1.10
are a total of 420 questions on this test, how
many of those are essay questions? What is the solution to the equation above?
2. 19 − 21 + 1.9 − 2.1 − x = 10 4.
In the equation above, what is the value of x? P R
–6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6
Point Q is to be placed on the number line

one-third of the way from Point P to Point R .
What number will be at the midpoint of
segment PQ ?
149
SAMPLE PROBLEMS FOR GRID-IN ITEMS continued...
5. How many ways can the letters in the word 7. A box contains 11 marbles: 7 red and 4 green.
RAIN be arranged horizontally so that the Five of these marbles are removed at random.
vowels (A and I) are always immediately next If the probability of drawing a green marble is
to each other (either AI or IA)? now 0.5, how many red marbles were removed
from the box?
6.
8. If a = 20 and a = 8 , what is the value of
b
A B C 2
3b + a ?
–8 –6 –4 –2 0 2 4 6 8
On the number line above, D (not shown) is

the midpoint of AB , and E (not shown) is the
midpoint of BC . What is the midpoint of DE ?
150
SAMPLE PROBLEMS FOR GRID-IN ITEMS continued...
9. Maria is now 16 years old. In 6 years, she will 10. 4.5 × 0.22 =
be twice as old as her brother will be at that 0.1
time. How old is her brother now?
151
88
EXPLANATION OF CORRECT ANSWERS
GRID-IN ITEMS GRADE
DIRECTIONS: When filling out the answer grid, remember that each column should contain ONLY one
symbol/one digit. When filling out the circles, only fill in one circle to MATCH the symbol or digit at the top
of the column.
1. (126) There are 3 essay questions for every 7 2. (– 7.8) 19 − 21 + 1.9 − 2.1 − x = 10
multiple-choice questions, for a total of 10 −2 + −0.2 − x = 10
questions. The proportion of essay questions
2 + 0.2 − x = 10
is 3 . Multiply the fraction of essay x = −7.8
10
questions by 420 to find the total number of Since the answer is a negative, begin filling
essay questions: 420 × 3 = 1260 = 126 out the grid with the negative sign. The
10 10 answer contains a negative sign, a whole
Since the answer is a positive whole number, number, a decimal point, and a digit in
skip the first column and begin inputting the the tenths place. Each part of the answer,
digits to the answer in the second column on including the decimal point, should be placed
the left-hand side. in a separate column, with no blank spaces
between them.
152
EXPLANATION OF CORRECT ANSWERS GRID-IN ITEMS continued...
4. (– 2) First, find the length

3. (0.7) 0.21 = x of PR : 4 − (−5) = 9 units
0.33 1.10
Multiply the numerators and denominators Point Q is located 1 of the way from P to R,
of all the fractions by 100 to eliminate the 3
decimals: so calculate where that point would be:
21 = 100x 9 × 1 = 3 units
33 110 3
Simplify the fractions: So, point Q is located at 4 − 3 = 1. Finally,
calculate the midpoint of PQ :
7 = 10x
11 11 −5+1
Midpoint PQ = = −2
7(11) = 10x(11) 2
7 = 10x Since the answer is a negative single-digit, fill

in the negative sign and the second column
=
x 7
= 0.7 contains the digit, 2.
10
Since the answer is a positive decimal, skip
the first column and place the zero in the
second column on the left-hand side.
153
5. (12) There are three positions for the letters AI in 6. (1.25) Calculate the midpoints of AB and BC to
the four letter combinations: find the locations of D and E, respectively:
AI _ _ , _ AI _ _ , and _ _ AI Find the midpoint for AB (Point D):
For each of those positions of A and I, there −8 +3 −5
are two combinations of the letters R and D= = = −2.5
2 2
N: AIRN, AINR, RAIN, NAIR, RNAI, NRAI.
Thus, for the letters AI (in that order), there Find the midpoint for BC (Point E):
is a total of 6 combinations. The question
indicates that IA is also possible, so there are E = 3 +7 = 5
2
also + combinations with the letters in the
order IA. The total number of combinations is Now, find the midpoint of DE :
6 + 6 = 12. −2.5+5
= 2.5 = 5 = 1.25
Since the answer is a positive whole number, 2 2 4
skip the first column and begin inputting Since the answer is a positive decimal, skip
your answer in the second column. the first column. The response begins inon the
second column on the left-hand side.
154
7. (4) There were 11 marbles in the box. After 5 8. (65.2) Use the given equation and value of a to find
the value of b:
marbles were removed, the total number of
marbles in the box is now 6. The probability =a 20
= and a so 8
8,= 20
= or b 8 .
b b 20
of drawing a green marble is now 1 , which
2
Now, calculate the expression:
is equivalent to 3 , thus, 3 green marbles
6
remain in the box. ( )
3b + a2 = 3 8 + 8 2 = 1.2 + 64 = 65.2
20
Originally, there were 7 red marbles in the
Since the answer is a positive whole number
box. Since there are now 6 total marbles,
with a decimal, skip the first column and
there are now 3 red marbles. Meaning 4 red
begin inputting the answer starting at the
marbles were removed from the box.
second column at the left-hand side.
Since the answer is a positive single-digit
whole number, skip the first column and the
response begins on the second left-hand
column.
155
9. (5) When Maria is 22, she will be twice as old as 10. (9.9) In order to solve this problem, first convert
her brother. 4.5 to a whole number by multiplying the
0.1
Let x = the age of Maria’s brother when
numerator and denominator by 10 to get 45
Maria is 22. 1
which is 45.
2x = 22
x = 11 Multiply:
To find Maria’s brother’s current age, subtract 45 × 0.22 = 9.9

11 − 6 = 5. Since the answer is a positive whole number
Maria’s brother is currently 5 years old. with a decimal, skip the first column and
begin inputting the answer starting in the
Since the answer is a positive single-digit second column on the left-hand side.
whole number, skip the first column and the
response begins in the second left-hand
column.
Answer Key for Grid-In Mathematics

1. 126 6. 1.25
2. –7.8 7. 4
3. 0.7 8. 65.2
4. –2 9. 5
5. 12 10. 9.9
156
NY1109215 1 2 3 4 5 A B C D E Printed in the USA ISD16301

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2017-2018

HANDBOOK High School for Mathematics,

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ABOUT THE COVER

MESSAGE TO STUDENTS AND PARENTS/GUARDIANS. . . . 4 SECTION 5: SHSAT DESCRIPTION & MATERIALS

SAMPLE SHSAT TESTS

SPECIALIZED HIGH SCHOOLS ADMISSIONS

FIORELLO H. LAGUARDIA HIGH SCHOOL OF MUSIC & ART

THE BRONX HIGH SCHOOL OF SCIENCE

THE BROOKLYN LATIN SCHOOL

BROOKLYN TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL

QUEENS HIGH SCHOOL FOR THE SCIENCES AT YORK COLLEGE

STATEN ISLAND TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL

STUYVESANT HIGH SCHOOL

For updates concerning Specialized High School admissions, please visit:

BROOKLYN TECHNICAL HIGH SCHOOL HIGH SCHOOL FOR MATHEMATICS,

September 7 – October 12, 2017 October 18, 2017

TEST DATES (For locations, see page 11)

■ All current 9th grade students

■ Make-up test requests

ALTERNATE TEST DATE

September 7 – October 12, 2017 October 18, 2017

BOROUGH LAST NAME AUDITION GROUP DATE START TIME

Students auditioning for a single or

AUDITION EXCEPTIONS AUDITIONS FOR STUDENTS NEW

TECHNICAL THEATER Applicants are expected to bring a

VOCAL MUSIC Applicants should prepare a song to sing

TESTING AND AUDITION ACCOMMODATIONS

STUDENTS WITH EXTENDED TIME WHO BUILDING ACCESSIBILITY

■ If a parent/guardian does not want their child to leave the

■ Re-tests will not be provided to students who choose to

EMERGENCY TESTING AND/OR AUDITION

If a family requests an accommodation without giving the

If a student requires emergency accommodations for a

Students and families should contact their current school

ENGLISH LANGUAGE ARTS SECTION SHSAT TESTING PROCEDURES

ARRIVING AT THE TEST SITE Do not bring cameras or personal electronic

■ Prior to the start of the test, NYCDOE staff will take a

It is important to fill in the circles completely so that

In Grid 4 you will fill in in your name as it appears in

Grid 5 is for your choice of Specialized High Schools

EXAMPLES OF INCORRECT GRID 5

Grid 8 is labeled “STUDENT ID NUMBER.” Write your nine-digit

You may write in your test booklet or on the scrap paper

Electronic requests must be submitted and letters must be

To be eligible, the student must:

REVISING/EDITING Part A TIPS FOR REVISING/EDITING PART A

Example 1—Identify a sentence with an error

Read this paragraph.

Which sentence should be revised to correct a misplaced modifier?

Correct Answer for Example 1: B

Example 2—Select the best correction for an error

Read this sentence.

Which edit should be made to correct this sentence?

A. change are to will be

Correct Answer for Example 2: B

Example 3—Improve the writing by combining sentences or revising part of a sentence

Read these sentences.