UPDA Electrical/Electronic Engineering Reviewer Material No.

03

1. Given data is
Ambient Temperature is 65⁰C (k value is 1.38 x 10-23)
Frequency is 10 kHz
Resistance is 100 Ohms
Formula is given as hint Vnoise = root over 4kTR (BW-f):
A. 1.9 microV
B. 1.0 nV
C. 1.9 nV
D. 0.1 microV

2. Uninterruptible power system has to be connected to the network by:

A. Series to feed electrical power at normal time
B. Parallel to feed electrical power at normal time
C. Series to feed electrical power at critical time
D. Parallel to feed electrical power at critical time

3. In conducting a power-flow (or load flow) study using conventional iterative calculation, which of the
following statements is most nearly correct?
A. One bus is designated as a slack bus, and the others are designated as voltage-controlled buses or
load buses.
B. One bus is designated as a voltage-controlled bus, and the others are designated as slack buses or
load buses.
C. One bus is designated as a load bus, and the others are designated as voltage-controlled buses or
slack buses.
D. There may be any number of slack buses, voltage-controlled buses, and load buses designated, as
long as they total the number of buses in the network.

4. Which of the following engineer do the tests for the reliability and sustainability?
A. Production Engineer
B. Research Engineer
C. Testing Engineer

5. Which one of the following is not correct based on Ohm’s Law?

A. Potential / Current = Constant
B. Current / Potential = Constant
C. Current = Potential x Resistance
D. Potential = Current x Resistance

6. The room amplifier in a wireless system amplifies:

A. The baseband signals
B. The modulated signal only
C. The encoded and modulated signal
D. The received signal

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7. Harmonic currents present in a power system may cause:
A. Excessive heating
B. Malfunctioning of the control and regulating circuits
C. Resonance
D. All of the above

8. We have three resistance each of 1 Ohm. How many different values of resistance can be obtained by
different series-parallel combinations if all the three resistance are to remain in the circuit?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6

9. The wind load LSi in Newton’s on an overhead line structure is calculated using the following formula.
Lsi = 0.613v2 m/s KzGRF / CfAm2. What does the Kz term represents?
A. Force Coefficient
B. Guest Response Factor
C. Velocity Pressure Coefficient
D. Wind Speed

10. The resistance of 100W, 200V tamp is:

A. 100 ohms
B. 200 ohms
C. 400 ohms
D. 1600 ohms

11. Consider the oscillator circuit shown below. The circuit uses which resonant modes of the crystal X1:

A. Series Resonant
B. Parallel Resonant
C. Series-Parallel Resonant
D. Non-Resonant

12. The OP-AMP circuit shown performs the function of:

A. Simplification
B. Integration
C. Differentiation
D. Summing
E. Attenuation

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13. What is the best economical way to start a single-phase motor?
A. Resistive method
B. Inductive method
C. Capacitive method
D. None of the above

14. Strength of Materials?

A. Ability to withstand external forces
B. Ability to withstand internal forces
C. Ability to withstand pressure
D. Ability to withstand an applied load without failure or plastic deformation

15. For which of the following circuits elements is superposition valid?

A. Independent source
B. Dependent source
C. Charged capacitor
D. Inductor with I Initial not equal to zero

16. What is the difference between EPROM and EEPROM?

A. EEPROM is volatile and EPROM is non-volatile.
B. EEPROM is erased by exposing ultraviolet and EPROM by electrically.
C. EEPROM/EPROM both are same.
D. EEPROM is used for Operating systems storage and EPROM is for computer constants
E. required for systems start-up.

17. Why steel is used in concert structure because?

A. it is cheap
B. good bond
C. highly rigid
D. temperature expansion coefficient is same with cement/concrete

18. For a 12AWG wire we should use CB rating:

A. 10A
B. 15A
C. 20A
D. 30A

Hint: 14 Gauge Wire: 15 amps CB

12 Gauge Wire: 20 amps CB
10 Gauge Wire: 30 amps CB

19. If fuse rate = 8 Ampere, what does mean?

A. It will not work if current is less than
B. It has a resistance of 8W
C. It will work only if current is 8A
D. It will melt if current exceeds 8A

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20. CMOS Inverter is superior to the R-Pull up inverter due to:
A. High impedance
B. Smaller propagation delay
C. Symmetric transfer characteristics
D. Asymmetric transfer characteristics

21. The delay time for a series of activities that would not affect if occurred the project timing called:
A. Total Slack (Total Float)
B. Total Slag
C. Critical Float
D. Float Pad
E. Critical Slag

22. Which one of the following is not describes ceramic?

A. Crystallizers
B. High Resistivity
C. High Conductivity
D. Insulator

23. The device used for measuring potential difference is known as:
A. Potentiometer
B. Ammeter
C. Galvanometer
D. Voltmeter

24. Among the sites being considered for a new main library are those adjacent to the following areas or
services. The most appropriate site is one that is adjacent to:
A. A residential neighborhood and recreation facilities
B. Mosques and government offices
C. Public schools
D. Shopping and public transportations

25. Number 34 in the following “N34’ E” usually will be specified with:

A. Starting Point
B. Traverse
C. Bearing

26. Changing in the excitation in grid having an alternator connected to it will having the following effect:
A. Change in active component of load
B. Change in reactive component of load
C. Change in Power Factor of Load
D. The frequency of the generated wave form will be affected

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27. Sensor transducers will transfer:
A. Move to electrical signals
B. Heat to mechanical signal

28. What is the term of component arrangement for waves in transmitting and receiving?
A. Array
B. Source
C. Dish Antenna

29. A passive filter can:

A. filter only
B. filter and amplify only
C. amplify only
D. none of the above

30. Which of the following types of material has high thermal and electrical conductivity?
A. Ceramic
B. Metal
C. __________ (any other write here)

31. V = 50 Cos (40wt + 30) + 28.2 Cos (40wt + 30), R = 5, find P:

A. 1025 Erms = ((Edc2 + (Em12+Em22+---------+Emn2/2))0.5 =((502+28.282)/2)0.5 = 40.62V
B. 650 P = V 2 / R = 1650/5 = 330W
C. 330
D. 550

32. The initial investment for a project is 2.0 million QR. A net annual profit of 150,000 QR is anticipated.
Using a 10% desired rate of return on the investment what is the payback period for the project?

A. 6.84 years
B. 4.55 years
C. 5.36 years
D. 8.89 years

33. Which of the following systems uses Assembly language?

A. SCADA
E. Microcontrollers
B. ASIC
C. FPGA
D. Both A & B

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34. Weak power system means:
A. Power system with high short circuit capability and low sensitivity to harmonics
B. Power system with high short circuit capability and high sensitivity to harmonics
C. Power system with low short circuit capability and low sensitivity to harmonics
D. Power system with low short circuit capability and high sensitivity to harmonics

35. For the diagram shown, what is the approximate required minimum clearance distance, R, if the phase
voltage of the live parts is 13,800V?
A. 1.8m
B. 2.5m
C. 3.0m
D. 4.0m

36. Project Control will be:

A. Before construction
B. During construction
C. After construction
D. Throughout the process

37. In 50Hz induction machine, if the no load speed is 2900 rpm, the slip frequency is:
A. 0.33 Hz N = 120f/P = 3000
B. 0.67 Hz S = 3000-2900/3000 =0.0333
C. 1.33 Hz slip frequency = sf = 0.0333*50 = 1.67Hz
D. 1.67 Hz

38. Which of the special purpose diodes formed by a junction between a layer of metals and layer of
semiconductor?
A. A Schottky diode
B. A tunnel diode
C. A Zener diode
D. A Varactor diode

39. What is the worth after 5 years of an investment of One Million Qatari Riyals if the APR is 9% paid
monthly?
A. 1,450,000
B. 1,538,634
C. 1,824,320 A = P ( 1+ i/mn)n
D. 1,926,248

40. Which is not part of Scope Management?

A. Define scope
B. Verify Scope
C. Execute Scope
D. Create WBS

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41. Process to identify, study, analyze, and rectify root cause of incidents is called:
A. Pareto Analysis
B. Risk Opportunity Management
C. Cause and Effect Analysis
D. Quality Control Procedures

42. In the context of time management, which is not a typical type of activity dependency:
A. Mandatory dependency
B. Discretionary dependency
C. External dependency
D. Multiple dependency

43. Which is not a resource related to activities:

A. Manpower
B. Material
C. Machinery
D. Time

44. Process of decomposing deliverables into smaller, more manageable components is complete when:
A. Project justification has been established
B. Change request have occurred
C. Cost and duration estimates can be developed
D. Each work element can be found in the WBS

45. Project life cycle is different than product life cycle in that project life cycle:
A. Does not incorporate methodology
B. Is different for each industry
C. Covers different project
D. Describes project management activities

46. Best time to assign a project manager to a project is during:

A. Execution
B. Initiation
C. Monitoring and Controlling
D. Closing

47. Scheduling periodic tasks to execute on a processor based on assigning the highest priority to the task
that has the shortest period (greatest frequency) is:
A. Cyclic executive
B. Deadline monotonic
C. Earliest deadline first
E. Rate monotonic

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48. The final step in the definition of a work breakdown structure is to:
A. Assign codes for each activity of the work package
B. Assign the cost account to a manager
C. Assign the work package to a manager
D. Develop the responsibility matrix
E. None of these are included in the final step

49. In transformer saturation:

A. The efficiency decreases and the no load current increases
B. The efficiency decreases and the no load current decreases
C. The efficiency increases and the no load current increases
D. The efficiency increases and the no load current decreases

50. When using the method of symmetrical components, which of the following statements is most nearly
correct:
A. The three zero sequence current phasor are equal in magnitude and displaced by 1200.
B. The three positive sequence and the three negative sequence current phase are all equals in
magnitude, but have opposite phase.
C. In wye connected synchronous generator, the voltage drops through the neutral grounding
resistor, R is equal to √3 Io R, where I0 is the zero-sequence current.
D. Positive sequence and negative sequence currents cannot pass through the neutral grounding
resistor in a wye-connected generator.

51. To make sure that an instrument did not drift with time, we need to:
A. Heat it up
B. Change it
C. Calibrate it
D. Put it into higher position

52. What are the most important components of sustainability?

A. Economical
B. Social
C. Environmental
D. All are equally important

53. Among the sites being considered for a new main library are those adjacent to the following areas or
services. The most appropriate site is one that is adjacent to:
A. A residential neighborhood and recreation facilities
B. Mosques and governmental offices
C. Public schools
D. Shopping and public transportation

54. For the design and implementation of smoke detectors and door control system, it is preferable to
use:
A. FPGAs
B. Microcontrollers

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 C. ASIC
55. What does QSAS stands?
A. Qatar Standards of Architectural Sustainability
B. Qatar Sustainability Assessment System
C. Qatar System for Assessing Sustainability
D. Qatar Sustainability Assessment Standards

56. According to Brundtland Report (WCED, 1987) defining the main attributes of sustainability and
sustainable development, what are the three main pillars of sustainable development?
A. Economic, Social and Cultural factors
B. Economic, Cultural and Environmental factors
C. Economic, Environmental and Social factors
D. Political, Social and Environmental factors

57. The bode plot for the circuit shown A = V2 / V1, is:

A.

B.

C.

D.

58. Project management is ideally suited except:

A. Accountability
B. Flexibility
C. Innovation
D. Speed
E. Repeatability

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59. In the circuit below, Switch S1 closes at t = 0. The diode D is rated at a maximum peak current of 5A.
Assume that the initial charge on the capacitor is zero. The minimum value of R (n) to prevent
exceeding the diode maximum peak current is most nearly:

A. 33
B. 24
C. 71
D. 11 R = Vm / Im = 120√2 / 5 = 33.93

60. A circuit breaker is:

A. A current interrupting device
B. Power factor correcting device
C. Harmonics correcting device
D. All of the above

61. Which of the following would not be classified as a direct cost?

A. Safety and first aid expenses
B. Finishing labor for a concrete slab
C. Materials for a structural steel frame
D. Foundation excavation equipment expenses

62. The assembly language is usually used for programming:

A. DSP
B. Microcontrollers
C. FPGA

63. The term sustainability refers to:

A. Maintaining resource use, a at current or higher levels.
B. Keeping the natural environment and human society in happy, healthy and functional state.
C. Holding or increasing the current quality of human life.
D. Always focusing on fulfilling shortage term needs.
E. Opposing change from current policies.

64. In circuit 27 is given and along with 52 mentioned:

A. Time delay
B. Overcurrent function in CB
C. Under voltage relay in CB

65. AM radio signal is modulated how?

A. Quadrature amplitude modulated
B. Quadrated Semi Band Amplitude Modulation
C. Dual Modulation with Semi Quadrature form

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 D. One more is there
66. Two coils are in series. The H is 4 and mutual inductance value is 0.75. Hint: induction = K:
A. 2
B. 4
C. 8
D. 12

67. Which system will cause saturated currents?

A. 50 Hz transformer by rated MVA but 60 Hz
B. 3 Phase 50 Hz motor by Inverter of rated voltage but half of frequency

68. A battery which factor is least dependent for long self-discharge property:
A. concentration of electrolyte
B. temperature
C. long period
D. nominal voltage

69. The power factor of an alternator depends on:

A. Load
B. Speed of rotor
C. Core losses
D. Armature Losses

70. Induction load running at stability slip is:

A. 1
B. 0

71. If an induction motor speed at no-load is 745 RPM, what is the speed of the motor:
A. 700 RPM
B. 750 RPM
C. 800 RPM
D. 850 RPM

72. Common breakers used in distribution level:

A. Air brake circuit breaker
B. Air blast circuit breaker
C. Oil type
D. Vacuum

73. Fire Alarm and Smoke Detector is preferable to use:

A. Microcontrollers
B. ASIC
C. FPGA

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74. Which transmission voltage is not applicable in Qatar?
A. 66 kV
B. 132 kV
C. 220 kV
D. 400 kV

75. Which one is the highest input impedance?

A. NPN-BJT
B. MOSFET
C. Both

76. Embedded System should have best:

A. Dynamic response
B. Static response
C. No response

77. Embedded System working on which platform:

A. SCADA
B. Microcontrollers
C. ASIC
D. FPGs

78. Harmonics in system is mainly due to:

A. Variable imp load
B. Saturated magnetic load
C. Power electronic load
D. All of the above

79. Reinforce concrete will give:

A. High tensile strength
B. High compression strength
C. Both

80. What is the resistance for 100W and 200V potentials?

A. 200
B. 100
C. 400
D. 1600

81. The unit of conductance:

A. Ohm
B. Ohm/m
C. Ohm-m

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 D. Mho

82. The unit of conductivity:

A. Ohm
B. Ohm/m
C. Mho
D. Mho/m

83. The unit of resistance:

A. Ohm
B. Ohm/m
C. Ohm-m
D. Mho

84. The unit of resistivity:

A. Ohm
B. Ohm/m
C. Ohm-m
D. Mho/m

85. A differential relay designed to protect a zone of the distribution system, uses current transformer
(CTs) connected to annually CTs. The auxiliary CTs must match both the phase shift and the ratio of the
differential relays CTs if the values do not match. Which of the following is the least likely outcome?
A. The trip could occur at a lower level than expected.
B. The trip could occur at a higher level than expected.
C. The trip could occur under a non-fault condition.
D. The trip could occur only when the CTs are wired in parallel.

86. A Wrist watch mercury cell has a capacity of 200 x 10 -3 AH. How many months can the watch function
without replacement if it draws 15 x 10-6 A? Hint: Dh = I x t
A. 9 months
B. 18 months
C. 24 months Duration = Capacity / current = (200/1000) / (15/1000000) = 13333.33Hrs
D. 30 months = 555.55days = 18 months

87. The system shown is stable for:

A. k > -2

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 B. – 3 < k < 0
C. k < -2
D. – 3 < k < 2

88. According to the Nyquist Sampling theorem, a sufficient condition for these to be no aliasing in the
sampled signal is that the highest frequency in the signal point to sampling must be:
A. less than the half of the sampling frequency
B. greater than half of the sampling frequency
C. less than the sampling frequency
D. greater than the sampling frequency

89. A biomedical signal is sampled at 128Hz, no anti-aliasing fiber is used. Spectral analysis on the sampled
data shows strong sit. The most likely source of the 58 Hz component is:
A. Power line artifact picked up by the equipment 120-28 = 70Hz
B. 70 Hz source in the original signal
C. Random noise in the original signal
D. 122 Hz source in the source signal

90. Which of the following characteristics of a data network is never a correct of a packet switched
network?
A. A transmitted packet contains source and destination address coding, information, and error
control bits.
B. Individual packets of a long message can be routed under different paths by the switching
exchange equipment.
C. The address coding is transparent to a user.
D. A transmitted packet contains only information bits.

91. During which of the following categories are you more likely to find status reports many changes and
the creation of forecasts?
A. Concept
B. Initiation
C. Planning
D. Execution
E. Closure

92. The critical path in a project network is the:

A. Shortest path through the network
B. Longest path through the network
C. Network path with the most difficult activities
D. Network path using the most resources

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 E. Network path with the most merge resources
F. None of the above

93. In Hardware Description Language (HDL) the designer can specify the input and output. At what stage
of function, name of input and output specified?
A. Architecture Declaration
B. Entity Declaration
C. Both Architecture and Entity Declaration
D. Input and Output PIN assignment

94. The equipment arrangement for transmit/receive of radio signal:

A. Waveguide
B. Array
C. Hyginus source
D. Dish Antenna

95. A D’Arsonval movement is with a resistance of 150 ohms is used to make ammeter. What is the
maximum deflection range of ammeter?
A. 0.3 mA
B. 0.3 A
C. 3A
D. None of above

96. A computer network graph as below, where the vertices represents the computer and nodes
represents the network connectivity. The diameter is used to determine throughput of network. Each
weigh is one. What is the diameter?

A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

97. Which one of the following is not correct based on Ohm’s Law?
A. Potential / Current = Constant
B. Current / Potential = Constant
C. Current = Potential x Resistance
D. Potential = Current x Resistance

98. A cyclic redundancy check (CRC) generator is based on what operation?

A. Exclusive OR
B. Modulo 2 Division
C. Bit wise add with carry
D. Two’s complement addition

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99. In the figure:

A. 6Ω, 3Ω and 9Ω are in series

B. 9Ω and 6Ω in parallel and the combination in series with 3Ω
C. 6Ω, 3Ω and 9Ω are in parallel
D. 3Ω and 6Ω in parallel and the 9Ω series with

100. Which of the following junction nodes are forward biased?

A. Anode = +7V, Cathode = +10V
B. Anode = +5V, Cathode = +3V
C. Anode = +0.3V, Cathode = +5V

101. The minimum standard wire gauge of earth wire is:

A. 20 SWG
B. 16 SWG
C. 10 SWG
D. 8 SWG

102. For effective earthling, which of the following mixture is preferred for filling around the earth
electrode?
A. Lime-Sand mixture
B. Saw Dust – Sand mixture
C. Bone Meal mixture
D. Coal-Salt mixture

103. While machine in operation, the slip of the synchronous machine is:
A. High
B. Low
C. Zero
D. 1

104. What is analysis technique to determine effect of multi-sources?

A. Kirchhoff Law
B. Shannon Law
C. Miller Law
D. Superposition
105. A certain communication signal uses a bandwidth BW of 2kHz. What is the classification of this signal?
A. Voice grade VHF
B. Narrowband VLF
C. Voice grade HF

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 D. Wide band UHF

106. On the question above, what is the required supply resistance to ensure proper operation of the
Zener regulator circuit?
A. 19 Ω
B. 22 Ω
C. 24 Ω Rs = Vin – Vzmax / Ilmax =120-24 / 5 = 19.2
D. 25 Ω

107. An alternator is operating at __________ for capacitive loads.

A. Lagging power factor
B. Unity power factor
C. Leading power factor
D. None of the above

108. Engineers are:

A. Who design, build, test
B. Social and Economic manager

109. Loading effect can be reduced in a system by using:

A. Integrator
B. Inverted Amplifier
C. Non-inverted Amplifier
D. Differential Amplifier

110. Type of amplifier at transmitter:

A. Power Amplifier
B. Differential Amplifier
C. None

111. Fan Out logic gate is:

A. Number of Gate
B. Number of Gate connect to output
C. None

112. The heat loss inside a straight conductor is 60J upon applying current I for 5s. If the resistance of the
conductor is decrease to half, and the same current is applied for 5s, what will be the heat dissipation:
A. 60 Heat Loss = I 2Rt if R decreases heat loss decreases same proportion
B. 30
C. 15
D. 120

113. For an inverter op-amp, what will be the equivalent output resistance?
A. Relative forward resistance
B. Infinity
C. 0

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 D. Same as the input resistance
E. None of the above

114. When using Zener diode for voltage regulation, the output waveform shape will be affected by:
A. Dynamic resistance of the diode
B. Input current passing through the diode
C. None

115. What is the low pass filter?

A. It will let pass low frequencies?
B. It will let pass high frequencies?
C. It will let pass band frequencies?
D. It will eliminate a band of frequencies?

116. The load resistance of cascade amplifier is:

A. The resistance after the first stage.
B. The resistance before the first stage.
C. The resistance after the second stage.
D. The resistance before the second stage.

117. The output for the cascade amplifier is:

A. The output of the first stage.
B. Output of the last stage.
C. None

118. Cascade amplifier used to reduce load effect; the output impedance will be:
A. High
B. Low
C. Medium

119. The dynamic output resistance of transistor in CB configuration is _____ at constant IE:
A. ФVEB / ФIE
B. ФVEB / ФIC
C. ФVCB / ФIC

120. Transconductance of BJT is:

A. dIE / dIC
B. VBE / IE
C. IE / IC
D. Ic / VBE

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