Table of Contents

Logical Reasoning Handout .............................................................................................................................. 3

Logical Reasoning Handout Homework ............................................................................................................ 9
Data Interpretation .......................................................................................................................................... 15
1) The Bar Chart .......................................................................................................................................... 15
2) The Line Chart ........................................................................................................................................ 16
3) The Pie Chart .......................................................................................................................................... 18
Data Interpretation Solution: .......................................................................................................................... 35
Logical Reasoning ........................................................................................................................................... 48
01) Alphabet Test ......................................................................................................................................... 48
02 Coding And Decoding: ............................................................................................................................ 50
03 Blood Relation ......................................................................................................................................... 53
04 Number Series ......................................................................................................................................... 56
05 Letter Series............................................................................................................................................. 58
06 Clock & Calendar: .................................................................................................................................. 59
07 Ranking.................................................................................................................................................... 61
08 Direction Sense Test ................................................................................................................................ 64
09 Eligibility Test ......................................................................................................................................... 68
10 Seating Arrangement ............................................................................................................................... 70
11 Syllogism ................................................................................................................................................. 73
12 Venn Diagram ......................................................................................................................................... 76
13 Puzzle ...................................................................................................................................................... 78
14 Inference .................................................................................................................................................. 82
15 Cause & Effect ........................................................................................................................................ 84
16 Coded Inequalities................................................................................................................................... 86
17 Input-Output ............................................................................................................................................ 88
18 Statement And Assumptions .................................................................................................................... 92
19 Course Of Action ..................................................................................................................................... 94
20 Arguments................................................................................................................................................ 98
21 NON VERBAL REASONING ................................................................................................................ 101
Logical reasoning Solutions: ......................................................................................................................... 105
01) Alphabet Test ....................................................................................................................................... 105
02 Coding And Decoding: .......................................................................................................................... 106
03 Blood Relation ....................................................................................................................................... 107
04 Number Series ....................................................................................................................................... 109
05 Letter Series........................................................................................................................................... 110
06 Clock : ................................................................................................................................................... 112

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 07 Ranking.................................................................................................................................................. 113
08 Direction Sense Test .............................................................................................................................. 114
09 Eligibility Test ....................................................................................................................................... 117
10 Sitting Arrangement .............................................................................................................................. 118
11 Syllogism ............................................................................................................................................... 119
12 Venn Diagram ....................................................................................................................................... 121
13 Puzzle .................................................................................................................................................... 122
14 Inference ................................................................................................................................................ 122
15 Cause & Effect ...................................................................................................................................... 123
16 Coded Inequalities................................................................................................................................. 124
17 Input Output .......................................................................................................................................... 125
18 Statement And Assumptions .................................................................................................................. 127
19 Course Of Action ................................................................................................................................... 128
20 Arguments.............................................................................................................................................. 130
21 Non Verbal Reasoning .......................................................................................................................... 131
Logical Reasoning Handout Homework- Solution ........................................................................................ 133

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 9) Distance between point A and B is 9 cm and point B and C is
Logical Reasoning Handout 5 cm. What is the Distance between point A and C?
i) Point A, B and C are collinear.
Data Sufficiency ii) Point A, B and C are non-collinear.

Directions for questions 10) Is x3 > x2 ?

Each problem contain a question and two statements 1 and 2 i) x > 0
giving certain data. You have to select the correct answer from ii) x < 1
options 'a' to 'e' depending on the sufficiency of the data given
in the statements to answer the question. Mark your answer as. LR Data Sufficiency
a) If statement 1 alone is sufficient to answer the question but
not 2 alone. 1) Is X is a leap year?
b) If statement 2 alone is sufficient to answer the question but i) Four years after X there is a leap year.
not 1 alone. ii) Four years before X there is a leap year
c) If each statement alone is sufficient to answer the question.
d) Both statements together are required to answer the question 2) K, L, M, N and P are standing in a queue. Who stand exactly
but not 1 and 2 alone in the middle or the queue?
e) If 1 and 2 together are not sufficient to answer the question i) M and N stand between L and P.
and additional data is required. ii) N stand just behind K

Quant Data Sufficiency 3) A, B, C, D and E live in an apartment (ground floor is named

as first floor, the floor above ground floor in named as second
1) Will the sum becomes eight times of itself within fifteen years? floor and so on). On which floor does E live?(Note: Only one
i) The sum becomes twice of itself in two years. person is living on one floor)
ii) The type of interest is compound interest, compounded i) D lives on the bottom floor. C does not live on the top floor.
annually. ii) The number of floors above B's floor is equal to the number
of floors below A's floor.
2) Mr. Bipin divided his property among Vineeth, Vipin, and
Vikram. Who got the least share of property? 4) K, L, M, N, O and P are sitting around circular table facing
i) Vineeth's share is Rs.80000 more that of Vipin. towards centre and all person are sitting equidistance, Who sits
ii) Vipin's share is Rs. 50000 less than that of Vikram second to the left of O?
i) L and P are sitting opposite to each other. N is two places
3) Is 500 the average (Arithmetic mean) score on the GMAT? away from M.
i) Half of the people who take GMAT score above 500 and half ii) M and L are immediate neighbours.
of the people score below 500.
ii) The highest GMAT score is 800 and the lowest score is 200. 5) What is the code for 'or' in the code language?
i) 'nik sa te' means 'right or wrong', 'ro da nik' means 'he is right'
4) What is the area of the rectangle? and 'fe te ro' means 'that is wrong'.
i) When the length is increase by 20% and the breadth is ii) 'pa nik la' means 'that right man', 'sa ne pa' means 'this or
decrease by10% then the area increases by 8%. that' and 'ne ka re' means 'tell this there'.
ii) The length of rectangle is 14 cm.
6) Madan is elder than Kamal and Sharad is younger than
5) Which of the two trains, A or B is faster? Arvind. Who among them is the youngest?
i) The ratio of the time taken by the trains A and B in crossing a i) Sharad is younger than Madan.
platform is 5:6 ii) Arvind is younger than Kamal.
ii) The length of the trains A and B are in the ratio of 7:6
7) On which date in August was Kapil born?
6) Is x=y? i) Kapil's mother remembers that Kapil was born before
𝟏 𝟏
i) (x+y)( + )=4 nineteenth but after fifteenth.
𝒙 𝒚
ii) Kapil's brother remembers that Kapil was born before
ii) (x-50)2=(y-50)2
seventeenth but after twelfth.
7) What are the values of M and N?
8) Amol is in whch direction if Amit?
i) N is an even positive integer, M is an odd positive integer and
i) Amol is to the north of Vikas, Vikas is to the west of Naman
M is greater than N.
and Naman is to the south of Amit
ii) Product of M and N is 30.
ii) Distance between Amol and Vikas, Vikas and Naman and
Naman and Amit is same.
8) One side of a rectangle is 9 cm. Find the area of the
rectangle?
9) How many persons are there in the row if Ram is 10 th from
i) One side is square of the another side.
the left and shyam is 6th from the right ?
ii) Length of rectangle is 9 cm.
(Note : All the persons in the row are facing toward north)
i) In between Ram and Shyam 10 persons are there.

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ii) In between Ram and Shyam 3 persons are there. 6) Which of the following is true with respect to V as per the
given information?
10) How is A related to B? a) The one who lives immediately below V is travelling to
i) B is A's father's only brother's wife. Mumbai
ii) B is the wife of X who is brother of Y who is father of A. b) V lives on floor no. 7
c) V lives immediately below T
Puzzles d) V lives on the lowermost floor
e) V is travelling to Bangalore
7) Who among the following lives on floor no number 3?
Directions for Questions 1 to 5
Study the following information and answer the questions a) The one travelling to Chennai
given bellow. b) The one travelling to Kolkata
A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight students of a school. They c) R d) V e) T
study in Std VI, VII and VIII with not more than three in any Std. 8) Who lives on the floor immediately above T?
a) P b) Q c) S d) V e) U
Each of them has a favourite subject from Physics, Geography,
English, Marathi, Mathematics, Chemistry, Biology and 9) To which of the following cities is S travelling?
a) Mumbai b) Bangalore c) Patna
Economics not necessarily in the same order.
D likes Chemistry and studies in Std VIII with only H. B does d) Kolkata e) Chennai
not study in Std VII. E and A study in the same Std but not with 10) How many people live between the floors on which S and the
one travelling to Mumbai live?
B. C and F study in the same Std. Those who study in Std VI do
not like Mathematics or Biology. F likes Physics. The one who a) None b) Two c) One
d) More than three e) Three
studies in Std VIII likes English. C does not like Geography. A’s
favourite subject is Marathi and G does not like Biology.
1) Which subject does H like? Directions for questions 11 to 13
Answer the questions on the basis of the information given
a) English b) Marathi c) Science
d) Data inadequate e) None of these below.
Five women decided to go shopping to M.G. Road, Bangalore.
2) What is G’s favourite subject?
a) Biology b) Physics c) Marathi They arrived at the designated meeting place in the following
d) Data inadequate e) None of these order: 1. Archana, 2. Chellamma, 3. Dhenuka, 4. Helen, and 5.
3) What is C’s favourite subject? Shahnaz. Each woman spent at least Rs. 1000. Below are some
a) Economics b) Biology c) English additional facts about how much they spent during their
shopping spree.
d) Geography e) Data inadequate
4) Which of the following combinations of student-Std Subject is i. The woman who spent Rs. 2234 arrived before the lady who
spent Rs. 1193.
correct?
a) C-VII-Economics b) D-VI-Chemistry ii. One woman spent Rs. 1340 and she was not Dhenuka.
c) G-VII-Physics d) B-VIII-Mathematic iii. One woman spent Rs. 1378 more than Chellamma.
iv. One woman spent Rs. 2517 and she was not Archana.
e) None of these
5) Which of the following groups of students study in Std VII? v. Helen spent more than Dhenuka.
vi. Shahnaz spent the largest amount and Chellamma the
a) EAF b) ECG c) EAG
d) Data inadequate e) None of these smallest.
11) What was the amount spent by Helen?
a) Rs. 1193 b) Rs. 1340 c) Rs. 2234 d) Rs. 2517
Directions for Questions 6 to 10
Answer the questions on the basis of the information given 12) Which of the following amounts was spent by one of them?
a) Rs. 1139 b) Rs. 1378 c) Rs. 2571 d) Rs. 2718
below.
Seven people P, Q, R, S, T, U and V live on separate floors of a 13) The woman who spent Rs. 1193 is
7-floor building. Ground floor is numbered 1, first floor is a) Archana b) Chellamma c) Dhenuka d) Helen
numbered. 2 and so on until the topmost floor are numbered 7.
Each one of these is travelling to a different city, namely Delhi, Directions for questions 14 to 16
Study the following information and answer the questions
Mumbai, Patna, Chennai, Kolkata, Bangalore and Lucknow but
not necessarily in the same order. Only three people live above given bellow.
Five persons - A, B, C, D and E - have collected some money.
the floor on which P lives. Only one person lives between P and
the one travelling to Bangalore. U lives immediately below the After counting all the money it is found that B has more money
one travelling to Mumbai. The one travelling to Mumbai lives than D, who has more money than C but less than E, who has
more money than A but less than B.
on an even-numbered floor. Only three people live between the
ones travelling to Bangalore and Patna. T lives immediately 14) Who has the highset amount of money?
a) E b) B c) C d) D
above R. T is not travelling to Patna. Only two people live
between Q and the one travelling to Kolkata. The one travelling 15) Who among the following can have least amount of money?
to Kolkata lives below the floor on which Q lives. The one a) A b) D c) B d) None of these
16) What is the maximum possible number of persons who can
travelling to Delhi does not live immediately above or
immediately below Q. S have more money than A?
a) 3 b) 4 c) 2 d) 1
does not live immediately above or immediately below P. V does
not travel to Chennai.
Directions for questions 17 to 19

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Study the following information and answer the questions Seating Arrangement
given bellow.
Seven persons - P, Q, R, S, T, U and V - are sitting in a row not Directions for questions 1 to 5
necessarily in the same order. They are sitting left to right in the
Directions: Study the following information to answer the
decreasing order of their heights. No two among them are of given questions:
equal height. Eight people are sitting in two parallel rows containing four
V is not the tallest but taller than R. S and V are adjacent to each
people each, in such a way that there is an equal distance
other. S is taller than U, who is shorter than P , who is not the between adjacent persons. In row- 1, Asha, Bheem, Chelsi and
tallest. R and V are taller than Q, who is not the shortest. P and
Deep are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all
R are adjacent to each other. T is the second shortest. The one of them are facing South. In row-2, Preet, Qureshi, Raunit and
who is tallest is 180 cm. Q's height is 160 cm. Sana are seated (but not necessarily in the same order) and all
17) Which of the following could possibly be the T's height? of them are facing North. Therefore, in the given seating
a) 170 cm b) 160 cm c) 172 cm d) 159 cm arrangement each member seated in a row faces another
18) Which of the following is true with respect to the given
member of the other row. Raunit sits second to left of the person
information? who faces Asha. Sana is an immediate neighbour of Raunit. Only
a) Q and U are adjacent to each other.
one person sits between Asha and Deep. One of the immediate
b) S's height is 180 cm neighbours of Chelsi faces Qureshi. Bheem does not sit at any
c) V is the shortest. of the extreme ends of the line.
d) Q is the tallest.
1) Who amongst the following faces Bheem?
19) If the shortest persons height is 14 cm less than that of Q. a) Preet b) Qureshi c) Raunit
Which of the following can be T's height?
d) Sana e) Cannot be determine
a) 140 cm b) 145 cm c) 146 cm d) 149 cm 2) Who amongst the following faces Raunit?
a) Asha b) Bheem c) Chelsi
Directions for questions 20 to 22
d) Deep e) Cannot be determine
Study the following information and answer the questions 3) Which of the following is true regarding Chelsi?
given bellow.
a) Chelsi sits second to right of Deep
Age and experience of five people - Vinay, Palak, Sunil, Bipin b) Asha sit immediate right of Chelsi
and Jayesh - working for an organization are compared. The c) Sana faces Chelsi
following information is known. d) Deep is an immediate neighbour of Chelsi
a) The second oldest person has the least experience and the e) The person who faces Chelsi is an immediate neighbour of
oldest person is senior most.
Raunit
b) No two people are of the same age or have the same 4) Four of the following five are alike in certain way based on
experience.
the given seating arrangement and thus form a group. Which is
c) The age of Vinay is more than that of Jayesh 's and the the one that does not belong to the group?
experience of Sunil is more than that of Bipin 's a) Qureshi b) Raunit c) Chelsi
d) The age of each person is more than his experience.
d) Preet e) Cannot be determine
e) The age and experience of Bipin 's is more than age and 5) Who amongst the following sits second to the right of the
experience of Jayesh.
person who faces Preet?
f) The age of Palak is less than experience of Jayesh. a) Asha b) Bheem c) Chelsi
20) Who is older than exactly two other people? d) Deep e) Cannot be determine
a) Sunil b) Vinay c) Bipin d) Jayesh
21) Who is the most experienced? Directions for questions 6 to 10
a) Sunil b) Palak c) Vinay d) Bipin
These questions are based on the following information.
22) Who is the youngest? Seven persons A, B, C, D, E, F and G are sitting around a
a) Palak b) Vinay c) Bipin d) Jayesh circular table facing either the centre or outside. Each one of
them belongs to a different city viz, Hyderabad, Mumbai, Delhi,
Directions for questions 23 and 24 Pune,
Study the following information and answer the questions
Bangalore, Gujarat and Chennai but not necessarily in the same
given bellow. order. G does not belong to Pune. C sits third to the right of G.
Study the following information and answer the questions given
G faces the centre. Only one person sit between D and F. Both
bellow. F and D face the centre. Only one person sit between C and the
X,Y and Z often eat dinner out. person who belongs to Pune. Immediate neighbours of C face
1. Each orders either coffee or tea after dinner.
outside. A belongs to Gujarat and faces the centre. The person
2. If X orders coffee, then Y orders the drink that Z orders. who belongs to Bangalore sits to the immediate left of E. Two
3. If Y orders coffee, the X orders the drink that Z doesn't order.
persons sit between the persons who belongs to Gujarat and
4. If Z orders tea, then X orders the drink that Y orders. Mumbai. The person who belongs to Delhi sits to the immediate
23) Who do you know always orders the same drink after left of the person who belongs to Chennai..
dinner?
6) To which of the following cities does B belong?
a) X b) Y c) Z d) Cannot be determine a) Hyderabad b) Mumbai c) Pune
24) In the above question which drink that is always ordered?
d) Bangalore e) Chennai
a) Either Tea or Coffee b) Both Tea and Coffee
c) Only Tea d) Only Coffee

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7) who among the following sit exactly between C and the person Basic Diagram for all the Statements.
who belongs to Pune? Positive statements Negative Statements
a) The person who belongs to Chennai
b) B c) The person who belongs to Mumbai All A's are B's. Some A's are not B's.
d) G e) D
8) How many persons sit between the person who belongs to
Chennai and A, when counted from the right hand side of A?
a) One b) Two c) Three
d) Four e) More than four
9) Who among the following sit between the persons who
belongs to Mumbai and Gujarat when counted from the left hand Some A's are B's. No A is B.
side of the person who belongs Mumbai?
a) B and D b) G and F c) C and E
d) D and F e) B and C
10) Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based
on their position in the given arrangement and so form a group.
Which is the one that does not belong to that group?
a) Delhi b) Gujarat c) Pune
d) Chennai e) Bangalore
Rules to solve the Questions of Deduction:
1) Conclusions are results which are true in all cases.
Deduction 2) Always draw the Basic Diagram i.e. diagram with minimum
intersection.
Positive statements : 3) If Conclusion is Positive, Directly check from the Basic
1) All A's are B's. Diagram. If it is true then it follows, else not.
4) If Conclusion is Negative, Check its opposite conclusion. If
opposite is true under any case then required conclusion does
not follows and if opposite never becomes true then required
conclusion follows.
2) Some A's are B's. 5) If there are exactly two opposite conclusions and neither of
them individually follows then mark "Either...or" as the answer.

Directions for the question 1 to 15:

The question below has either two or three Statements
followed by two conclusions I and II. You have to take the two
or three given Statements to be true and then decide which of
the given conclusions logically follows from the two/three
given Statements, disregarding the commonly known facts.
Give your Answer as,
Negative Statements :
1) If only conclusion I follows
1) Some A's are not B's.
2) If only conclusion II follows
3) If either I or II follows
4) If neither I nor II follows
5) If both I and II follow.
Q1 Statements : All hats are men. All men are taps.
Conclusions : I. Some taps are hats.
II. Some taps are men.
Q2 Statements : All wine is divine. All divine are tales
Conclusions : I. All wine is tale.
II. All tales are wine.
2) No A is B. Q3 Statements : All cabs are cats. All fish are cats
Conclusions : I. All cabs are fish.
II. Some fish are cabs.
Q4 Statements : All pans are chicks. All chairs are chicks.
Conclusions : I. Some pans are chairs.
II. Some chicks are pans.
➢ "All A's are B's" and "Some A's are not B's" are
Q5 Statements : All goods are worms. All worms eat well.
opposite to each other.
Conclusions : I. All those who eat well are goods.
➢ "Some A's are B's" and "No A is B" are opposite to each
II. All goods eat well.
other.
Q6 Statements : Every mine is a stupid. Every stupid is idiot
Basic Diagram - Basic Diagram is Diagram with minimum
Conclusions : I. Every mine is idiot.
intersection.
II. Some idiot are stupid.

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Q7 Statements : All tanks are hens. No cups are hen II. Some needles are pins.
Conclusions : I. No cups are tanks III. All needles are knifes.
II. Some hens are not cups. IV. No pin is blade.
Q8 Statements : All books are cakes. No locks are cakes. a) EITHER I or IV b) only II and III true
Conclusions : I. Some locks are not books c) Only III and IV true d) Only I and IV true
II. No lock is book. e) Only IV true
Q9 Statements : All rods are metals. Some metals are books.
Conclusions : I. Some books are rods 19) Statements:
II. All metals are books. 1. Some parrots are sparrows. 2. Some sparrows are peacocks.
Q10 Statements : All jug are tigers. Some tigers are hosts. 3. No parrot is crow.
Conclusions : I. Some hosts are jugs Conclusions:
II. No host is jug. I. Some sparrows are parrots.
Q11 Statements : All boards are tall. Some tall are hooks. II Some crows are sparrows.
Conclusions : I. Some boards are hooks III. Some peacocks are crows.
II. Some hooks are tall. a) Only I is true b) Only II is true
Q12 Statements : All artists are actors. No actor is drum. c) Only III is true d) All are true
Conclusions : I. All actors are artists e) None of these
II. Some drums are not actors.
Q13 Statements : Some hens are crows. All crows are horses 20) Statements:
Conclusions : I. Some horses are hens 1. All greens are plants. 2. All bloods are red.
II. Some hens are horses. 3. Some bloods are green.
Q14 Statements : Some parts are toffees. All toffees are chicks. Conclusions:
Conclusions : I. Some chicks are toffees I. Some reds are blood. II. All red are plants.
II. Some toffees are not parts. III. All blood are green. IV. Some plants are green.
Q15 Statements : Some kings are quarts. All quarts are a) only I is true b) only II is true
beautiful. c) only III and IV true d) Only I and III true
Conclusions : I. All kings are beautiful e) Only I and IV true
II. All quarts are kings.
21) Statements:
Directions for Questions 16 to 21 1. Some blankets are Towels. 2. All Towels are cloths.
In each question below are given Some statements followed by 3. No blanket is kerchief.
conclusions. You have to take the given statements to be true Conclusions:
even if they seem to be at variance from commonly known I. Some kerchiefs are cloths.
facts. Read the conclusion and then decide which of the given II. Some blankets are cloths.
conclusions logically follows from the given statements, III. All kerchiefs are towels.
disregarding commonly known facts. IV. No kerchief is cloth
16) Statements: a) Only I is true b) Only II is true Either I or IV
1. Some plants are roots. 2. Some roots are Leaves. c) only III is true d) Only I and II are true
3. All leaves are branches. e) only II and III are true
Conclusions:
I. Some plants are branches. II Some roots are branches.
III. Some plants are leaves. IV. No plant is branch.
a) Only II is true b) Only III is true
c) all are true d) None of these
e) Only II and Either I or IV

17) Statements:
1. All shirts are Trousers. 2. Some Trousers are Jackets.
3. Some Jackets are clothes.
Conclusions:
I. Some Trousers are shirts.
II. Some Jackets are Trousers.
III. Some clothes are Jackets.
a) I and II are true b) I and III are true
c) II and III are true d) all are true
e) None of these

18) Statements:
1. Some needles are blades. 2. All blades are knifes.
3. No blade is pin.
Conclusion:
I. Some pins are blade

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 Data Interpretation 6) In 2001, which school has the least pass percentage?
a) A b) B c) C d) D e) E
Directions for questions 1 to 5 7) For B, in which year the percentage of attendance the least?
a) 2000 b) 2001 c) 2002
These questions are based on the following information.
The total population of village Satana is 3550, out of which 36% d) 2003 e) Cannot be determined
people are below poverty line. The total population of Satana is 8) The ratio of total number o students who passed in 2000 to
that in 2003 in all the schools is.
11 1/4% less than the total population of Amin, while there are
29% people in Amin who lives below poverty line. In Nilokheri a) 104:132 b) 185:233 c) 4:7
d) 7:11 e) None of these
the people living below poverty line are 40 more than that in
Amin which is 40% of the total population of this village. The
average population of Gharaunda and Samalkha is equal to the 9) In how many instances is the pass percentage of any school
average population of Amin and Nilokheri, while the difference in any year less than 80%?
between their population is 1800 (Village Samalkha is more a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3 e) 4
10) The number of students who passed in 2002 from school B
populated). 47% of the population of Gharaunda are below
poverty line. Overall 46% of the population of all villages; is approximately how many times that in 2000 from A?
a) 2 b) 2.2 c) 3 d) 2.6 e) 1.8
together lives below poverty line.
1) What percentage of population of Samalkha lives above
poverty line? (Approximate) Directions for questions 11 to 15
The following graph shows the profit percentage earned by
a) 26% b) 27% c) 28%
d) 29% e) 30% three companies Aryan Holding, Arban Enterprises and
Anirban Pvt Ltd over the given years.
2) Find the approximate average number of people below
poverty line in the given villages.
a) 1610 b) 1620 c) 1615
d) 1320 e) 1730
3) If 35% of the BPL population of Nilokheri are children, while
30% of the overall population of this village are children. Then
what percent of population above poverty line are children?
a) 25% b) 30% c) 26 1/3 %
d) 26 2/3 % e) None of these
4) What is the difference between total population of Nilokheri
and that of Gharaunda?
a) 300 b) 200 c) 250
d) 400 e) None of these
5) If in the next year the total population of Amin would increase
by 20%, while BPL population would decrease by 25%, then
what percent of population in next year would be below poverty
line?
a) 18.125% b) 18.325% c) 18.225%
d) 18.525% e) None of these

Directions for questions 6 to 10 Note : Formula for % Profit is given bellow,

𝑰𝒏𝒄𝒐𝒎𝒆−𝑬𝒙𝒑𝒆𝒏𝒅𝒊𝒕𝒖𝒓𝒆
These questions are based on the following data. % Profit = × 100
𝑬𝒙𝒑𝒆𝒏𝒅𝒊𝒕𝒖𝒓𝒆
The following tables gives the information about the number of
students applied, appeared and passed from various schools in 11) If the income of Arban Enterprises in 2005 was Rs. 12 lakh,
different years. what was the approximate profit earned, in lakh rupees, in that
year?
2000 2001 2002 2003 a) 8 b) 3 c) 16 d) 11.5 e) 2.5
Year 12) If the expenditure of Arban Enterprises in 2007 is equal to
School X Y Z X Y Z X Y Z X Y Z that of Anirban Pvt Ltd in 2008, what was the ratio of the income
of Arban Enterprises in 2007 to that of Anirban Pvt Ltd in 2008?
A 200 180 160 240 200 175 280 270 250 300 240 235 a) 4:5 b) 39:40 c) 27:29
B 300 250 240 360 300 240 400 370 350 500 400 380 d) 3:4 e) None of these
13) Income of Anirban Pvt Ltd in 2003 and 2005 were equal.
C 250 250 200 200 180 180 250 210 190 300 270 240 What was ratio of its expenditure in 2003 to that in 2005?
D 240 230 200 180 150 105 200 190 180 240 160 90 a) 28:25 b) 1:5 c) 16:23
d) 9:7 e) 25:28
E 160 150 125 300 260 240 250 220 200 300 230 220
14) Income of Aryan Holdings in 2006 is equal to its expenditure
X - Applied; Y - Appeared; Z - Passed in 2007. What is the ratio of its income in 2007 to that in 2005?
𝑵𝒐.𝒐𝒇 𝒔𝒕𝒖𝒅𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒔 𝒑𝒂𝒔𝒔𝒆𝒅
Passed Percentage = ×100 a) 3:7 b) 1:1 c) 91:50
𝑵𝒐.𝒐𝒇 𝒔𝒕𝒖𝒅𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒔 𝑨𝒑𝒑𝒆𝒂𝒓𝒆𝒅
𝑵𝒐.𝒐𝒇 𝑺𝒕𝒖𝒅𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒔 𝑨𝒑𝒑𝒆𝒂𝒓𝒆𝒅 d) 10:13 e) Cannot be determined
Percentage of Attendance = ×100
𝑵𝒐.𝒐𝒇 𝒔𝒕𝒖𝒅𝒆𝒏𝒕𝒔 𝑨𝒑𝒑𝒍𝒊𝒆𝒅

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15) In which year is the percentage rise /fall in the percentage
of profit earned by Aryan Holdings the best?
Logical Reasoning Handout
a) 2004 b) 2006 c) 2008 Homework
d) 2005 e) 2007
Blood Relation
Directions for questions 16 to 20
This questions are based on the pie-charts given below. Q) 1) How is Kanchan's sister's only brother's wife's mother -
in-law related to Kanchan?
a) Sister b) Mother c) wife
d) Aunt e) Mother-in-law

2) A met B in a train and B recognise A as the person who is

the daughter of his mother's only brother's father's daughter-
in-law. How is B related to A?
a) cousin b) Niece c) Nephew
d) uncle e) brother

3) Ajay and Vijay are looking at wedding photograph of

Namita, who is daughter of their paternal uncle. In that
photograph Vijay is standing with Namita's only brother Anuj
and Anuj's wife Pallavi. How is Pallavi's father-in-law related
to Ajay?
a) Father b) Father-in-law c) uncle
d) Grandfather e) Not Related

4) Ms. Vidya's boss Mr. Gupta is the only child of his parents
and he has two sons, who are the siblings of Vidya. How is
Ms.Vidya's related to Mr. Gupta?
a) Niece b) Daughter c) Cousin
d) Wife e) Granddaughter

5) Sana and Vinay went for shopping in a mall and there they
meet Bipin who is husband of Sana's mother's father-in-law's
The above two pie chart gives the distribution of the adults only daughter, who is mother of Vinay. How is Bipin related to
in the city . Viany?
The total number of adults = 98000 a) Uncle b) Father c) Brother
The ratio of number of males to that of females among the adults d) Nephew e) Son
in the city is 25:24.
Directions for Questions 1 to 5
16) What is the difference between the number of male lawyers Study the following information and answer the questions
and female lawyers? given bellow.
a) 2600 b) 2400 c) 2480 A, B, C, D, E, F, G and H are eight members of a family. They
d) 2530 e) 2440 belong to three different generations. There are three married
17) What is the number of females lawyers in the city? couples. All of them are sitting around a circular table, facing
a) 1200 b) 1800 c) 2400 the centre but not necessarily in the same order.
d) 1250 e) 1600 D and F are married couples. D, the wife of F, sit second to the
18) What is the total number of engineers in the city? left of her husband.
a) 12500 b) 7200 c) 19500 C and A are offspring of D. A is not an immediate neighbour of
d) 20700 e) None of these his mother.
19) The number of males who are unemployed as the percentage There is only one person sitting between C and his niece G, but
of total unemployed person in the city is. that person is not G's father.
a) 40% b) 50.5% c) 56.5% E, a bachelor, sits third to the right of his uncle A, but neither
d) 38.5% e) 34.5% to the opposite nor to the immediate left of his father.
20) What is the ratio of total number of engineers to that of G is not an immediate neighbour of her aunt B. No three
teachers in the city? females are sitting together.
a) 146:201 b) 79:84 c) 35:43 C and his sister-in-law are immediate neighbour.
d) 197:220 e) 211:233 1) Who among the following is G's father?
a) F b) A c) H d) B e) Can't be determine

2) How many females are there in the family?

a) 2

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b) 3 4) One evening, Bipin and Lalit were standing facing each
c) 5 other, it was observed that the shadow of Bipin was falling to
d) Can't be determine his left. Which direction was Lalit Facing?
e) None of these a) South
3) What is the position of D with respect to her b) North
granddaughter? c) East
a) 2nd to the left d) West
b) 4th to the right e) Cannot be determine
c) 3rd to the right
4) 4th to the left 5) Akash walked 30 ft towards north, then took a left turn and
e) Immediate Left walked 15 ft. He again took a left turn and walked 30 ft. How
far and in which direction is Akash from the starting point?
4) Who among the following is the aunt of D? a) 15 ft to the West
a) B b) 45 ft to the South
b) D c) 30 ft to the East
c) G d)15 ft to the North
d) H
e) Can't be determine Clocks
5) Which of the following represent the male member in the 1) What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when the
family?
time shown by the clock is 6:30 p.m.?
a) EB a) 00
b) FG b) 500
c) CG
c) 300
d) FA d)150
e) Can't be determine
2) What is the angle between the two hands of a clock when the
Direction Sense time shown by the clock is 2:34 p.m.?
a) 1440 b) 1720 c)1270 d) 900
1) A person starts walking in east direction and walks 20m. 3) At what time between 3 and 4 o’clock will the minute hand
After that he turn to his right and walks 10m and then turn to and the hour hand are on the same straight line but facing
his left and walks 15m and reached at a point A. Find the opposite directions.
distance between A and initial point. a) 3:49 b) 3:15 c) 3:39 1/11 d) 3:49 1/11
a) 5√51 4) By how many degrees does the minute hand move in the
b) 5√53 same time, in which the hour hand move by 28 0 ?
c) 5√57 a) 1680 b) 3360 c) 1960 d) 3760
d) 5√59 5) what time between 8 and 9 o’clock will the angle between
e) None of these minute hand and the hour hand is 36 0?
𝟐 𝟑 𝟏
a) 8:50 b) 8:36 c) 8:37
𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏 𝟏𝟏
2) Neeru started from her friend's house and travel 5 km
d) Both a and c
towards the east followed by 6 km towards the south and 5 km
towards the east before travelling another 6 km towards the
south, she then travelled 25 km towards the east and finally 24 Calendar
km towards the north and reached her house. What is the
shortest distance between Neeru's house and her friend's 1) Given that on 27th February 2003 is Thursday. What was
house? the day on 27th February 1603?
a) 35 km a) Monday b) Thursday
b) 37 km c) Sunday d) Tuesday
c) 24 km
d) 47 km 2) January 1, 2005 was Saturday. What day of the week lies on
e) 25 km Jan. 1, 2006?
a) Wednesday b) Tuesday
3) A wall clock is place in such a way that at 12 o'clock the c) Saturday d) Sunday
minute hand points towards the south. In which direction does
the hour hand point at 3 o'clock? 3) It was Monday on Jan 1, 2007. What was the day of the
a) East week Jan 1, 2011?
b) West a) Monday b) Friday
c) North c) Saturday d) Wednesday
d) North-West
e) South-West 4) Today is Friday. After 57 days, it will be:
a) Monday b) Tuesday

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c) Saturday d) Sunday 4) What is the code for 'too bad'?
a) la ka b) la bi c) ma ni d) fa ri e) ma ri
5) Today is Sunday. After 94 days, it will be: 5) What can be the code for 'this is cold'?
a) Wednesday b) Sunday a) si ri ta b) si ni da c) si gi fa
c) Tuesday d) Saturday d) ni ma ga e) si ni ga

6) Which of the following is not a leap year? Direction for questions 6 to 10

a) 500 b) 400 c) 1600 d) 2000 6) In a certain code ALPHABET is written as YJNFYZCR, then
how will CHILDREN be written in the same language?
7) On 16th Nov, 2010 Thursday falls. What day of the week was a) EJKNFTGP b) AFGJBPCL
it on 16th Nov, 2009? c) DIJMESFO d) AFJGBPCL
a) Monday b) Friday
c) Wednesday d) Tuesday 7) In a certain code BUSINESS is written as FSWGRCWQ,
then how will BANGALORE be written in the same language?
8) January 1, 2010 was Friday. What day of the week lies on a) FYREEJSPI b) ZELKXPMVC
Jan. 1, 2011? c) YFERJEPSI d) DCPICNQTG
a) Monday b) Sunday
c) Saturday d) Wednesday 8) In a certain code GUNPOWDER is written as
DEGNOPRUW, then how will HOSTPITAL be written in the
9) On 14th Feb, 2009 it was Saturday. What was the day of the same language?
week on 14th Feb, 2008? a) AIOHLPST b) HLPSTAIO
a) Friday b) Sunday c) TSPOLIHA d) AHILOPST
c) Tuesday d) Thursday
9) In a certain code REASONING is written as ASREONGNI,
10) January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. What day of the week lies on then how will FRIZZLING be written in the same language?
Jan 1, 2009? a) GNILZZIRF b) ZIRFZGNIL \
a) Monday b) Wednesday c) IZFRZNGLI d) FIRZZLNIG
c) Thursday d) Sunday
11) The calendar for the year 2011 will be the same for the 10) In a certain code SENSITIVE is written as HVMHRGREV,
year: then how will HYDROGEN be written in the same language?
a) 2015 b) 2020 c) 2021 d) 2022 a) SBWILTVM b) MVTLIWBS
c) IZESPHFO d) SBWLITVM
12) Which of the following is not a leap year?
a) 500 b) 400 c) 1600 d) 2000 11) In a certain code BIOLOGY is written as XFNKNHA , then
13) On 5th December 1993, Nirmala and Raju celebrated their how will CHEMISTRY be written in the same language?
anniversary on Sunday. What will be the day on their a) XQSRLHDB b) WPRGQKCA
anniversary in 1997? c) WPRQGKCA d) XQSRHLDB
a) Wednesday b) Thursday
c) Friday d) Tuesday 12) If QKKQUGQL is the code for OMISSION, which word is
coded as RYVIWZB?
Coding Decoding a) PATKUBZ b) BZWIVYR
c) BZWVIYR d) PTAKBZU e) BZIWYVR
Direction for questions 1 to 5
These questions are based on the following information. Decision Making
In the table given bellow, a group of words written in column 1
and their respective codes are written in column 2 against each Following are the criteria to be fulfilled to get admission into
group. Each word has a unique code. Compare the groups of MBA course in college X , in Maharashtra.
words and their respective codes and answer the following The candidate should
questions. (a) Have been born and brought up in the state of
Column 1 Column 2 Maharashtra.
This is not too good pa ni si la ri (b) Have scored at least 65% marks in graduation.
You are not bad ka la ma bi (c) Have scored at least 60% marks in the entrance
It is too hot da ri ta ni examination conducted by the collage.
We are not good ka fa pa la (d) Not be more then 22 years old , as on 1st June 2014. If all
This is not you la bi ni si the criteria (a) to (d) are fulfilled, then a candidate may get
1) What is the code for 'you'? admitted in to the course.
a) la b) ma c) bi d) si e) ka
2) What is the code for 'hot'? If a candidate satisfies all the criteria except,
a) ri b) ta c) da d) ni e) Cannot be determine
3) Which word is coded as 'ri'?
a) this b) too c) is d) it e) hot

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(e) Criterion (a)only, but if the candidate has done his C. Only IV is true D. Either III or IV is true
graduation in Maharashtra, then he\she is to be referred to the E. Either III or IV and I are true
Chairman of the college.
(f) Criterion (d)only, but if the candidate has experience of at 2) Statements: A * E, E $ F, F # O, O @ L
least six months as a team leader in any corporate company, Conclusions:
then he\she is to be referred to the Principal of the college. I. L # F II. E @ O III. A # O IV. E @ L
A. None is true B. Only I is true
Based on above criteria and the data given in each question C. Only II is true D. Only III is true
decide the action to be taken in each case. Do not assume E. Only IV is true
anything beyond given information. If you feel that given
information is not sufficient to decide any action, then mark 3) Statements: B @ Q, Q # A, A & L, L * N
your answer as data inadequate. Conclusions:
Mark your answer as, I. N $ A II. L @ Q III. B @ N IV. Q # N
1) If candidate may be admitted in to the course. A. I, II and III are true B. I, II and IV are true
2) If candidate is to be referred to the Chairman of the college. C. I, III and IV are true D. I, III and IV are true
3) If the candidate is to be referred to the Principal of the E. All are true
college.
4) If the candidate would not get admission. 4) Statements:
5) If the data is inadequate. E # M, M * N, N @ O, O $ P
Questions : Conclusions:
1) Girish is born and brought up in the state of Kerala. He I. P # M II. P # N III. M # O IV. N @ E
scored 70% marks in the entrance examination conducted by A. II and III are true B. II and IV are true
the college as well as in his graduation. Girish was born in C. III and IV are true D. I, and IV are true
1994 and he did his graduation in the state of Delhi. E. All are true

2) Prachi is born and brought up in Mumbai(Capital of 5) Statements: A $ E, E @ F, F * G, G # H

Maharashtra). She scored 80% marks in her graduation as Conclusions:
well as in the entrance examination conducted by the college. I. H @ E II. A $ G III. E @ H IV. A @ F
Her date of birth is 22nd June, 1993. A. None is true B. Only I is true
C. Only II is true D. Only III is true
3) The date of birth of Arun is August 7th, 1993. He is born E. Only IV is true
and brought up in Maharashtra. He has scored 70% marks in
his graduation and 80% marks in the entrance examination
conducted by the college. Input Output
4) Romeo has work experience of one year in a corporate
Directions for questions
company as a Team Leader. He is born and brought up in the These questions are based on the following information
Maharashtra. He scored 65% marks in his graduation and
A word and number arrangement machines when given an
80% marks in the entrance examination conducted by the input line of words and numbers, arranges them following a
college. particular rule. Following is an illustration of an input and its
arrangement.
5) Sarathi was born in the state of Uttar Pradesh in the year Input : we 16 93 you people quest 29 63 45 lack
1994. He did his graduation in the state of Maharashtra. He
Step 1 : you we 16 93 people quest 29 63 45 lack
scored 70% marks in graduation and 85% marks in the Step 2 : you we 16 people quest 29 63 45 lack 93
entrance examination conducted by college X. Step 3 : we you 16 people quest 29 63 45 lack 93
Step 4 : we you 16 people quest 29 45 lack 63 93
Inequality Step 5 : quest we you 16 people 29 45 lack 63 93
Step 6 : quest we you 16 people 29 lack 45 63 93
Directions for Question Number 1 to 5 Step 7 : people quest we you 16 29 lack 45 63 93
Study the following information to answer the given questions Step 8 : people quest we you 16 lack 29 45 63 93
A$B means A is not smaller than B Step 9 : lack people quest we you 16 29 45 63 93
A@B means A is neither smaller than nor equal to B Step 9 is the last step.
A#B means A is neither greater than nor equal to B Based on the rules followed in the above steps, find the
A&B means A is neither greater than nor smaller than B appropriate steps for the following input and answer the
A*B means A is not greater than B questions followed.
Input for the questions:
1) Statements: O & A, A $ R, R # S, S * Q 53 54 29 jam can man ban 15 86 90 63 van tan den
Conclusions: (All the numbers in the arrangement are two-digit numbers)
I. Q @ RII. S @ O III. R & O IV. R # O Questions:
A. Only I is true B. Only III is true 1) Which of the following is the last step for the given input?
a) Step 10 b) Step 9 c) Step 11

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d) Step 13 e) None of these 10) In a queue, nine members are standing behind Anjali,
2) Which is the fourth element from the left end in step 7? seven members are ahead of Meena and six members are in
a) can b) tan c) van between Anjali and Meena. How many members are standing
d) 53 e) 54 in the queue?
3) How many elements are there between 'tan' and 'can' in step a) 20 b) 10 c) 24 d) 22 e) Cannot be determine
10 of the given input?
a) two b) five c) seven Venn Diagram
d) nine e) None of these
4) Which step number is the following rearrangement?
Direction for the questions 1 to 5
'jam man tan van 53 54 29 can ban 15 den 63 86 90' Read the following information carefully and answer the
a) Step 5 b) Step 7 c) Step 8 following question.
d) Step 9 e) No such step In a batch of 300 candidates, 45% of the candidates are
5) In the second last step, in a certain way 'den' is related to appearing for SSC exam, 43% of the candidates are appearing
'86' and 'tan' is related to '53' in the same way, 'van' is related
for PO exam and 40% of the candidates are appearing for
to. UPSC exam. 10% candidates are appearing for both SSC and
a) 54 b) man c) 29 d) 15 e) ban
PO, 12% candidates are appearing for both UPSC and PO,
15% candidates are appearing for both SSC and UPSC. 5%
Letter and Number Series candidates are not appearing for any exam.
1) How many candidates are appearing for all the three
Direction for Questions 1 to 5 exams?
Find Out the Missing number in the following series. a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) 15 e) 16
1) 343, 64, 81, 100, 1331, 144, 2197, 196, ____
a) 215 b) 625 c) 225 d) 285 e) 345 2) How candidates are appearing for exactly one exam?
a) 200 b) 216 c) 198 d) 194 e) 208
2) 2000, 1996, 1980, 1944, 1880, ____
a) 1680 b) 1600 c) 1750 3) What is the percentage change in number of candidates
d) 1780 e) None of these. appearing for exactly two exams when total changes from 300
to 450?
3) 2, 10, 24, 98, 200, ____, 1608 a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40% e) 50%
a) 802 b) 815 c) 928
d) 718 e) None of these. 4) What is the ratio of the number of candidates appearing for
SSC but not for PO to the number of candidates appearing for
4) NQF, LOD, JMB, HKZ, ____ PO but not for SSC?
a) FGY b) FIX c) GJX a) 33:35 b) 35:33 c) 31:33
d) IGY e) GIY d) 33:31 e) 35:31
5) What percent of candidates are appearing for at least two
5) TMCI, VJGD, XGKY, ZDOT, ____ exams?
a) BYSQ b) BATOc) BASP a) 25% b) 29% c) 27%
d) BASQ e) BATP d) 31% e) 26%

Direction for Questions 6 and 7 6) How many candidates are appearing for at most two exams?
Each of these Questions consist a series with one wrong a) 94% b) 91% c) 90%
number. Find the wrong number. d) 71% e) 95%
6) 16, 24, 40, 64, 98, 136
a) 98 b) 64 c) 40 d) 24 e) None of these Cubes
7) 78, 81, 86, 93, 102, 117
Direction : A solid cube of 12 cm been painted green , blue
a) 78 b) 86 c) 117 d) 102 e) 93 and yellow on pairs of opposite faces . it is then cut in cubical
blocks of each side 3 cm.
Questions 8 to 10
8) Ajay is sitting in a row of thirty six people. He shifted seven
places towards the left end. Now he becomes sixth from the left
end. What is his present position from the right end?
a) 30 b) 31 c) 24 d) 25 e) 23

9) In a row of bots facing south, Ravi is 8th from the left end
and Raghav is 5th to the left of Ravi and 16th from the right
end of the row. What is the total number of boys in the row?
a) 27 b) 25 c) 23 d) 18 e) 16

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1. How many cubes have only one face painted?
1) 8 2) 16 3) 24 4) 28
2. How many cubes have only two faces painted?
1) 8 2)16 3) 20 4) 24
3. How many cubes have only three faces painted?
1) 0 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8
4. How many cubes have no face painted?
1) 0 2) 4 3) 8 4) 12
5. How many cubes have at most one face painted?
1) 24 2) 32 3) 30 4) 36
6. How many cubes have two faces painted yellow and green
and all other faces unpainted?
1) 4 2) 8 3)16 4) 24

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 Data Interpretation
Data Interpretation deals with the understanding, organizing and interpreting of the given data so as to arrive at meaningful
conclusions.

Data Interpretation skills are important to an IAS aspirant, as day in and out, a civil service officer is expected to have a good
control over the analysis of data and deduction of meaningful conclusions from the myriad representations of information.
Honing your skills in Data Interpretation is a three step process

1) Understanding the different modes of representation of data and linking of information across two or more graphs.
2) Improving your calculation speed
3) Practice to perfection so that you learn to pick the right questions and maximize your attempts with good accuracy.
Types of representation of data
Data can be represented in multitude ways, including tables and different charts. We will look at the different representations of
data in this section.

1) The Bar Chart

A bar chart or bar graph is a chart with rectangular bars with lengths proportional to the values that they represent. The bars can
be plotted vertically or horizontally. Bar charts are used for plotting discrete (or ‘discontinuous’) data which has discrete values
and is not continuous

1a) Simple Bar graph

Look at the example below. The Y axis denotes the points scored by Teams A, B & C over the years 2003-2006. For eg, Team A
scores 25 points in the year 2004.

Figure 1 Simple Bar Graph plotted vertically

Figure 2 Simple Bar Graph plotted horizontally

1b) Cumulative/Stacked Bar Graph

Stacked bar graph is a graph that is used to compare the parts to the whole. The bars in a stacked bar graph are divided into
categories. Each bar represents a total.
In the example below, in the year 2005, team A scores 20% of the available points, team B scores 20% of the points and Team C
scores 60% of the points.

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Figure 3 Cumulative Bar Graph (percentage based)

Figure 4 Cumulative Bar graph-Value Based

2) The Line Chart

A line chart or line graph is a type of graph, which displays information as a series of data points connected by straight line
segments. It is a basic type of chart common in many fields. It is an extension of a scatter graph (see Figure 5 below), and is
created by connecting a series of points that represent individual measurements with line segments. A line chart is often used to
visualize a trend in data over intervals of time – a time series – thus the line is often drawn chronologically.
2a) Scatter Graph
A scatter plot or scatter graph is a type of mathematical diagram using Cartesian co-ordinates to display values for two variables
for a set of data. The data is displayed as a collection of points, each having the value of one variable determining the position on
the horizontal axis and the value of the other variable determining the position on the vertical axis
Each point in the graph below shows the profit and turnover data for a company. Each company belongs to one of the three food
commodity industries-Jowar, Bajra and Ragi.

2b) Simple Line Graph

In the example below, it can be seen that Team A scores 10 points in 2003, 25 points in 2004, 20 points in 2005 and 50 points in
2006

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Figure 6 Simple Line Graph

2c) Stacked Line Graph/ Band Diagram

A stacked line graph or a Band Diagram is a line chart in which lines do not overlap because they are cumulative at each point. A
stacked line chart displays series as a set of points connected by a line. Values are represented on the y-axis and categories are
displayed on the x-axis. You can read it similar to a stacked bar graph
In the example below, Team A scores 10 points in 2003, Team B scores (30-10) 20 points in 2003 and Team C scores (60-20-10)
30 points in 2003.

Figure 7 Stacked line Graph

The same data, for clearer understanding is represented in a stacked bar graph as follows

Figure 8 Stacked bar Graph

2d) Cumulative Line Graph

To read a cumulative line chart, the values are “Accumulated” or “Added on” to those of the previous data point in the chart.
Look at the example below. In the first quarter, both Primary and Secondary education comprise 10% of the budget allocation. In
the second quarter, the budget allocation for Primary Education becomes 20% (30-10) and the budget allocation for Secondary
Education becomes 10% (40-30)

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Figure 9 Cumulative Line Graph

3) The Pie Chart

A pie chart (or a circle graph) is a circular chart divided into sectors, illustrating proportion. In a pie chart, the arc length of
each sector (and consequently its central angle and area), is proportional to the quantity it represents. Together, the sectors
create a full disk. The pie chart is perhaps the most ubiquitous statistical chart in the business world and the mass media. Pie
charts can be an effective way of displaying information in some cases, in particular if the intent is to compare the size of a slice
with the whole pie, rather than comparing the slices among them

Figure 10 Pie chart depicting sales across quarters

3a) Exploded Pie Chart

A chart with one or more sectors separated from the rest of the disk is known as an exploded pie chart. This effect is used to either
highlight a sector, or to highlight smaller segments of the chart with small proportion.

3b) Doughnut Chart:

A doughnut chart (also spelled donut) is functionally identical to a pie chart, with the exception of a blank center and the ability to
support multiple statistics as one. There are 2 types of doughnut charts, doughnut and exploded doughnut.

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Figure 11 (A) Donut chart with multiple statistics Figure 11 (B) Exploded Donut Chart

Directions for Questions 1 to 5

Refer to the Line Graph and answer the given questions. Number of Shirts of ‘X’ brand sold in Shop “A” and Shop “B” in 6
different months.

1) The number of Shirts sold in Shop “B” increased by what percent from November to December?
1. 50% 2. 40% 3. 10% 4. 60% 5. None of the Above
2) What is the difference between the total number of Shirts sold in both the shops together in October, February & March and
the total number of Shirts sold in both the shops together in January, November and December?
1. 1060 2. 1070 3. 1020 4. 1010 5. 1050
3) The number of shirts sold in shop “A” in October, November and December is what % more than the number of shirts sold in
Shop “B” in the same months?
1. 25/4% 2. 45/4 % 3. 55/4 % 4. 75/4 % 5. None of the Above
4) What is the average number of Shirts in Shop “A” in October, November, December, February and March?
1. 205 2. 215 3. 207 4. 210 5. 206
5) The total number of shirts sold in Shop “B” in September is 20% less than the number of shirts sold in same town in October.
The total number of shirts sold in Shop “B” in April is 20% more than the number of shirts sold in same town in March. what is
the respective ratio between the number of shirts sold in September and those sold in April in the same shop?
1. 2:9 2. 1:5 3. 4:9 4. 2:7 5. 8:5

Directions for Questions 6 to 10

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Study the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow:
Percentagewise distribution of teachers who teach six different subjects

Total Number of Teachers = 1800

6) If two-ninth of the teachers who teach Physics are females, then the number of male Physics teachers is approximately what
percent of the total number of teachers who teach Geography?
1. 57% 2. 42% 3. 63% 4. 69% 5. None of these
7) In History, number of male teachers and female teachers are in the ratio of 1:1. If one-third of the teachers who teach
Geography are females and the percentage of female teachers in History equals to the percentage of female teachers in Biology
then what is the total number of male teachers who teach Geography, History and Biology?
1. 624 2. 627 3. 776 4. 798 5. None of these
8) What is the difference between the total number of teachers who teach History and Physics together and total number of
teachers who teach Chemistry and Biology together?.
1. 352 2. 362 3. 342 4. 353 5. None of these
9) If one – third of the teachers who teach Chemistry are females and the percentage of male teachers in Maths is 50%. What is
the ratio of the male teachers who teach Chemistry to the number of female teachers who teach Maths?
1. 13 : 7 2. 7 : 13 3. 7 : 26 4. 13 : 6 5. None of these
10) If the percentage of Chemistry teachers is increased by 50% and percentage of Maths teachers is decreased by 25%, what will
be the total number of Chemistry and Maths teachers together?
1. 390 2. 379 3. 469 4. 480 5. 459

Directions for Questions 11 to 15

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below.

11) What is the total number of female students studying in the college R in the given six departments together?
1. 293 2. 303 3. 313 4. 323 5. None of these
12) What is the ratio of total number of male students of the college Q in the departments CSE and EC to the total number of
female students in the departments EEE and CE of the college U?
1. 55 : 19 2. 60 : 23 3. 65 : 27 4. 70 : 31 5. None of these
13) What is the total number of male students of the colleges P, Q and R in CSE department and the total number of male students
of the colleges T, U, and V in ME departments?
1. 444 2. 464 3. 484 4. 504 5. None of these
14) What approximate percentage of students in CSE of all the colleges together are males?
1. 50.49% 2. 55.89% 3. 60.69% 4. 65.29% 5. 70.09%

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15) In which one of the given colleges are there the highest number of female students?
1. V 2. U 3. T 4. R 5. None of these

Directions for Questions 16 to 20

Study the following graph and table carefully to answer the given questions.
Number of employees working in 5 different Companies

16) What is the total number of male employee in all the companies together ?
1. 2010 2. 2001 3. 2100 4. 2140 5. None of these
17) What is the average number of female employee taking all the years together ?
1. 432 2. 278 3. 384 4. 335 5. None of these
18) What is the ratio of male and female employee working in companies D and E together ?
1. 217:221 2. 43:47 3. 124:127 4. 219:229 5. None of these
19) By what % is the no of total employees of company C more than that of Company D ?
1. 18.18% 2. 16.75% 3. 22.65% 4. 7.25% 5. None of these
20) By what % is the no of employees working in companies A and C more than that of female employees working in companies B
and D ?
1. 112.5% 2. 96.2% 3. 102.6% 4. 124.5% 5. None of these

Table Set 1: Directions for Questions 1 to 5

Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.
Expenditures of a Company (in Pesetas) per Annum Over the given Years.

1) What is the average amount of interest per year which the company had to pay during this period?
A. 32.43 B. 33.72 C. 34.18 D. 36.66

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2) The total amount of bonus paid by the company during the given period is approximately what percent of the total amount of
salary paid during this period?
A. 0.1% B. 0.5% C. 1.0% D. 1.25%
3) Total expenditure on all these items in 1998 was approximately what percent of the total expenditure in 2002?
A. 62% B. 66% C. 69% D. 71%
4) The total expenditure of the company over these items during the year 2000 is?
A. 544.44 B. 501.11 C. 446.46 D. 478.87
5) The ratio between the total expenditure on Taxes for all the years and the total expenditure on Fuel and Transport for all the
years respectively is approximately?
A. 4:7 B. 10:13 C. 15:18 D. 5:8

Table Set 2: Directions for Questions 1 to 6

Study the following table and answer the questions.
Number of Candidates Appeared and Qualified in a Competitive Examination from Different States Over the Years.

1) Total number of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1997 is approximately what percentage of the total number
of candidates qualified from all the states together in 1998?
A. 72% B. 77% C. 80% D. 83%
2) What is the average candidates who appeared from State Q during the given years?
A. 8700 B. 8760 C. 8990 D. 8920
3) In which of the given years the number of candidates appeared from State P has maximum percentage of qualified candidates?
A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2001
4) What is the percentage of candidates qualified from State N for all the years together, over the candidates appeared from State
N during all the years together?
A. 12.36% B. 12.16% C. 11.47% D. 11.15%
5) The percentage of total number of qualified candidates to the total number of appeared candidates among all the five states in
1999 is?
A. 11.49% B. 11.84% C. 12.21% D. 12.57%
6) Combining the states P and Q together in 1998, what is the percentage of the candidates qualified to that of the candidate
appeared?
A. 10.87% B. 11.49% C. 12.35% D. 12.54%

Table Set 3: Directions for Questions 1 to 5

The following table gives the percentage of marks obtained by seven students in six different subjects in an examination.

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1) What are the average marks obtained by all the seven students in Physics? (rounded off to two digit after decimal)
A. 77.26% B. 89.14 C. 91.37 D. 96.11
2) The number of students who obtained 60% and above marks in all subjects is?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. none
3) What was the aggregate of marks obtained by Sajal in all the six subjects?
A. 409 B. 419 C. 429 D. 449
4) In which subject is the overall percentage the best?
A. Maths B. Chemistry C. Physics D. History
5) What is the overall percentage of Tarum?
A. 52.5% B. 55% C. 60% D. 63%
Table Set 4: Directions for Questions 1 to 5
Study the following table chart and answer the questions.

1) What is the different between the number of students passed with 30 as cut-off marks in Chemistry and those passed with 30 as
cut-off marks in aggregate?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 6
2) If at least 60% marks in Physics are required for pursuing higher studies in Physics, how many students will be eligible to
pursue higher studies in Physics?
A. 27 B. 32 C. 34 D. 41
3) The percentage of number of students getting at least 60% marks in Chemistry over those getting at least 40% marks in
aggregate, is approximately what according to the table chart?
A. 21% B. 27% C. 29% D. 31%
4) The number of students scoring less than 40% marks in aggregate is?
A. 13 B. 19 C. 20 D. 27
5) If it is known that at least 23 students were eligible for a Symposium on Chemistry, then the minimum qualifying marks in
Chemistry for eligibility to Symposium would lie in the range?
A. 40-45 B. 30-40 C. 20-30 D. Below 20

Table Set 5: Directions for Questions 1 to 6

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Study the following table and answer the questions based on it.

1) For which state the average number of candidates selected over the years is the maximum?
A. Delhi B. H.P C. U.P D. Punjab
2) The percentage of candidates qualified from Punjab over those appeared from Punjab is highest in the year?
A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2000
3) In the year 1997, which state had the lowest percentage of candidates selected over the candidates appeared?
A. Delhi B. H.P C. U.P D. Punjab
4) The number of candidates selected from Haryana during the period under review is approximately what percent of the number
selected from Delhi during this period?
A. 79.5% B. 81% C. 84.5% D. 88.5%
5) The percentage of candidates selected from U.P over those qualified from U.P is highest in the year?
A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2001
6) What is the approximate percentage of total number of candidates selected to the total number of candidates qualified for all
five stages together during the year 1999?
A. 10% B. 11% C. 12% D. 13%

Bar chart Set 1: Direction for the question 1 to 5:

The bar graph given below shows the sales of books (in thousand number) from six branches of a publishing company during
two consecutive years 2000 and 2001.

1) What is the ratio of the total sales of branch B2 for both years to the total sales of branch B4 for both years?
A. 2:3 B. 3:5 C. 4:5 D. 7:9
2) Total sales of branch B6 for both the years is what percent of the total sales of branches B3 for both the years?
A. 68.54% B. 71.11% C. 73.17% D. 75.55%
3) What percent of the average sales of branches B1, B2 and B3 in 2001 is the average sales of branches B1, B3 and B6 in 2000?
A. 75% B. 77.5% C. 82.5% D. 87.5%
4) What is the average sales of all the branches (in thousand numbers) for the year 2000?
A. 73 B. 80 C. 83 D. 88
5) Total sales of branches B1, B3 and B5 together for both the years (in thousand numbers) is?
A. 250 B. 310 C. 435 D. 560

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Bar chart Set 2: Direction for the question 1 to 4:

1) The ratio of the number of years, in which the foreign exchange reserves are above the average reserves, to those in which the
reserves are below the average reserves is?
A. 2:6 B. 3:4 C. 3:5 D. 4:4
2) The foreign exchange reserves in 1997-98 was how many times that in 1994-95?
A. 0.7 B. 1.2 C. 1.4 D. 1.5
2) For which year, the percent increase of foreign exchange reserves over the previous year, is the highest?
A. 1992-93 B. 1993-94 C. 1994-95 D. 1996-97
3) The foreign exchange reserves in 1996-97 were approximately what percent of the average foreign exchange reserves over the
period under review?
A. 95% B. 110% C. 115% D. 125%
4) What was the percentage increase in the foreign exchange reserves in 1997-98 over 1993-94?
A. 100 B. 150 C. 200 D. 620

Bar chart Set 3: Direction for the question 1 to 6:

1) For which of the following years, the percentage rise/fall in production from the previous year is the maximum for Company Y?
A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2000
2) What is the ratio of the average production of Company X in the period 1998-2000 to the average production of Company Y in
the same period?
A. 1:1 B. 15:17 C. 23:25 D. 27:29
3) The average production for five years was maximum for which company?
A. X B. Y C. Z D. X and Z both

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4) In which year was the percentage of production of Company Z to the production of Company Y the maximum?
A. 1996 B. 1997 C. 1998 D. 1999
5) What is the percentage increase in the production of Company Y from 1996 to 1999?
A. 30% B. 45% C. 50% D. 60%
6) What is the difference between the production of Company Z in 1998 and Company Y in 1996?
A. 2,00,000 tons B. 20,00,000 tons C. 20,000 tons D. 2,00,00,000 tons

Bar chart Set 4: Direction for the question 1 to 5:

Out of the two bar graphs provided below, one shows the amounts (in Lakh Rs. = One Lakh is equal to One Hundred Thousand
(100,000)) invested by a Company in purchasing raw materials over the years and the other shows the values (in Lakh Rs. = One
Lakh is equal to One Hundred Thousand (100,000)) of finished goods sold by the Company over the years.

1) Interpret the data and find the maximum difference between the amount invested in Raw materials and value of sales of finished
goods was during the year?
A. 1995 B. 1996 C. 1997 D. 1998
2) The value of sales of finished goods in 1999 was approximately what percent of the sum of amount invested in Raw materials in
the years 1997, 1998 and 1999?
A. 33% B. 37% C. 45% D. 49%
3) What was the difference between the average amount invested in Raw materials during the given period and the average value
of sales of finished goods during this period?
A. Rs. 62.5 lakhs B. Rs. 68.5 lakhs C. Rs. 71.5 lakhs D. Rs. 77.5 lakhs
4) In which year, the percentage change (compared to the previous year) in the investment on Raw materials is same as that in the
value of sales of finished goods?
A. 1996 B. 1997 C. 1998 D. 1999
5) In which year, there has been a maximum percentage increase in the amount invested in Raw materials as compared to the
year?
A. 1996 B. 1997 C. 1998 D. 1999

Bar chart Set 5: Direction for the question 1 to 5:

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Study the bar chart and answer the question based on it.

1) What was the percentage decline in the production of fertilizers from 1997 to 1998?
A. 33(1/3)% B. 20% C. 25% D. 21%
2) The average production of 1996 and 1997 was exactly equal to the average production of which of the following pairs of
years?
A. 2000 and 2001 B. 1999 and 2000 C. 1998 and 2000 D. 1995 and 2001
3) What was the percentage increase in production of fertilizers in 2002 compared to that in 1995?
A. 320% B. 300% C. 220% D. 200%
4) In which year was the percentage increase in production as compared to the precious year the maximum?
A. 2002 B. 2001 C. 1997 D. 1996
5) In how many of the given years was the production of fertilizers more than the average production of the given years?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Pie Chart Set 1: Direction for the question 1 to 9:

The following pie-chart shows the percentage distribution of the expenditure incurred in publishing a book. Study the pie-chart
and the answer the questions based on it.

1) If for a certain quantity of books, the publisher has to pay Rs. 30,600 as printing cost, then what will be amount of royalty to be
paid for these books?
A. Rs. 19,450 B. Rs. 21,200 C. Rs. 22,950 D. Rs. 26,150
2) What is the central angle of the sector corresponding to the expenditure incurred on Royalty?
A. 15o B. 24 o C. 54 o D. 48 o
3) The price of the book is marked 20% above the C.P. If the marked price of the book is Rs. 180, then what is the cost of the
paper used in a single copy of the book?
A. Rs. 36 B. Rs. 37.50 C. Rs. 42 D. Rs. 44.25
4) If 5500 copies are published and the transportation cost on them amounts to Rs. 82500, then what should be the selling price of
the book so that the publisher can earn a profit of 25%?

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A. Rs. 187.50 B. Rs. 191.50 C. Rs. 175 D. Rs. 180
5) Royalty on the book is less than the printing cost by:
A. 5% B. 33 1/5% C. 20% D. 25%
6) If the difference between the two expenditures are represented by 18 o in the pie-chart, then these expenditures possibly are
A. Binding Cost and Promotion Cost B. Paper Cost and Royalty C. Binding Cost and Printing Cost
D. Paper Cost and Printing Cost
7) For an edition of 12,500 copies, the amount of Royalty paid by the publisher is Rs. 2,81,250. What should be the selling price of
the book if the publisher desires a profit of 5%?
A. Rs. 152.50 B. Rs. 157.50 C. Rs. 162.50 D. Rs. 167.50
8) If for an edition of the book, the cost of paper is Rs. 56250, then find the promotion cost for this edition.
A. Rs. 20,000 B. Rs. 22,500 C. Rs. 25,500 D. Rs. 28,125
9) Which two expenditures together have central angle of 108 o?
A. Biding Cost and Transportation Cost B. Printing Cost and Paper Cost C. Royalty and Promotion Cost
D. Binding Cost and Paper Cost

Pie Chart Set 2: Direction for the question 1 to 2:

The following pie charts exhibit the distribution of the overseas tourist traffic from India. The two charts shows the tourist
distribution by country and the age profiles of the tourists respectively.

1) What percentage of Indian tourists went to either USA or UK ?

A. 40 % B. 50 % C. 60 % D. 70 %
2) The ratio of the number of Indian tourists that went to USA to the number of Indian tourists who were below 30 years of age is
?
A. 2:1 B. 8:3 C. 3:8 D. Cannot be determined

Pie Chart Set 3: Direction for the question 1 to 3:

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The following pie chart give the information about the distribution of weight in the human body according to different kinds of
components. Study the pie charts and answer the question.

1) What percentage of proteins of the human body is equivalent to the weight of its skin ?
A. 41.66 % B. 43.33 % C. 44.44 % D. Cannot be
determined
2) How much of the human body is neither made of bones or skin ?
A. 40 % B. 50 % C. 60 % D. 70 %
3) What is the ratio of the distribution of proteins in the muscles to that of the distribution of proteins in the bones?
A. 2:1 B. 2:3 C. 3:2 D. Cannot be
determined

Pie Chart Set 4: Direction for the question 1 to 3:

The pie chart shows the distribution of New York market share by value of different computer companies in 2005.

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1) Based on the above pie chart, for the year 2005, which company has realized the lowest average unit sales price for a PC ?
A. Commodore B. IBM C. Tandy D. Cannot be
determined
2) Over the period 2005-2006, if sales (value-wise) of IBM PC's increased by 50% and of Apple by 15% assuming that PC sales
of all other computer companies remained the same, by what percentage (approximately) would the PC sales in New York (value-
wise) increase over the same period ?
A. 16.1 % B. 18 % C. 14 % D. None of these
3) In 2005, the average unit sale price of an IBM PC was approximately (in US$)
A. 3180 B. 2800 C. 3930 D. 3080

Pie Chart Set 5: Direction for the question 1 to 5:

The following pie-chart shows the sources of funds to be collected by the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) for its
Phase II projects. Study the pie-chart and answers the question that follow.
Sources of funds to be arranged by NHAI for Phase II projects (in Yen.)

1) Near about 20% of the funds are to be arranged through:

A. SPVS B. External Assistance C. Annuity D. Market Borrowing
2) If NHAI could receive a total of 9695 Yen as External Assistance, by what percent (approximately) should it increase the
Market Borrowing to arrange for the shortage of funds?
A. 4.5% B. 7.5% C. 6% D. 8%
3) If the toll is to be collected through an outsourced agency by allowing a maximum 10% commission, how much amount should
be permitted to be collected by the outsourced agency, so that the project is supported with 4910 Yen?
A. 6213 Yen B. 5827 Yen C. 5401 Yen D. 5316 Yen
4) The central angle corresponding to Market Borrowing is
A. 52o B. 137.8 o C. 187.2 o D. 192.4 o
5) The approximate ratio of the funds to be arranged through Toll and that through Market Borrowing is
A. 2 : 9 B. 1 : 6 C. 3 : 11 D. 2 : 5

Line Graph Set 1: Direction for the question 1 to 5:

Study the following line graph and answer the questions.

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Exports from Three Companies Over the Years (in Pesetas)

1) For which of the following pairs of years the total exports from the three Companies together are equal?)
A. 1995 and 1998 B. 1996 and 1998 C. 1997 and 1998 D. 1995 and 1996
2) Average annual exports during the given period for Company Y is approximately what percent of the average annual exports
for Company Z?
A. 87.12% B. 89.64% C. 91.21% D. 93.33%
3) In which year was the difference between the exports from Companies X and Y the minimum?
A. 1994 B. 1995 C. 1996 D. 1997
4) What was the difference between the average exports of the three Companies in 1993 and the average exports in 1998?
A. 15.33 B. 18.67 C. 20 D. 22.17
5) In how many of the given years, were the exports from Company Z more than the average annual exports over the given years?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5

Line Graph Set 2: Direction for the question 1 to 5:

The following line graph gives the ratio of the amounts of imports by a company to the amount of exports from that company
over the period from 1995 to 2001.

1) If the imports in 1998 was Rs. 250 and the total exports in the years 1998 and 1999 together was Rs. 500 then the imports in
1999 was?
A. 250 B. 300 C. 357 D. 420
2) The imports were minimum proportionate to the exports of the company in the year?
A. 1995 B. 1996 C. 1997 D. 2000
3) What was the percentage increase in imports from 1997 to 1998?

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A. 72 B. 56 C. 28 D. Data inadequate
4) If the imports of the company in 1996 was Rs. 2 720 000 000 , the exports from the company in 1996 was ?
A. 3 700 000 000 B. 3 200 000 000 C. 2 800 000 000 D. 2 750 000 000
5) In how many of the given years were the exports more than the imports?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4

Line Graph Set 3: Direction for the question 1 to 5:

1) What is the difference between the number of vehicles manufactured by Company Y in 2000 and 2001?
A. 50000 B. 42000 C. 33000 D. 21000
2) What is the difference between the total productions of the two Companies in the given years?
A. 19000 B. 22000 C. 26000 D. 28000
3) What is the average numbers of vehicles manufactured by Company X over the given period? (rounded off to nearest integer)
A. 119333 B. 113666 C. 112778 D. 111223
4) In which of the following years, the difference between the productions of Companies X and Y was the maximum among the
given years?
A. 1997 B. 1998 C. 1999 D. 2000
5) The production of Company Y in 2000 was approximately what percent of the production of Company X in the same year?
A. 173 B. 164 C. 132 D. 97

Line Graph Set 4: Direction for the question 1 to 3:

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1) The incomes of two Companies X and Y in 2000 were in the ratio of 3:4 respectively. What was the respective ratio of their
expenditures in 2000?
A. 7:22 B. 14:19 C. 15:22 D. 27:35
2) If the expenditure of Company Y in 1997 was 220 what was its income in 1997?
A. 312 B. 297 C. 283 D. 275
3) If the incomes of two Companies were equal in 1999, then what was the ratio of expenditure of Company X to that of Company
Y in 1999?
A. 6:5 B. 5:6 C. 11:6 D. 16:15

Line Graph Set 5: Direction for the question 1 to 5:

1) The difference between the percentages of candidates qualified to appeared was maximum in which of the following pairs of
years?
A. 1994 and 1995 B. 1997 and 1998 C. 1998 and 1999 D. 1999 and 2000
2) In which pair of years was the number of candidates qualified, the same?
A. 1995 and 1997 B. 1995 and 2000 C. 1998 and 1999 D. Data inadequate
3) If the number of candidates qualified in 1998 was 21200, what was the number of candidates appeared in 1998?

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A. 32000 B. 28500 C. 26500 D. 25000
4) If the total number of candidates appeared in 1996 and 1997 together was 47400, then the total number of candidates qualified
in these two years together was?
A. 34700 B. 32100 C. 31500 D. Data inadequate
5) The total number of candidates qualified in 1999 and 2000 together was 33500 and the number of candidates appeared in 1999
was 26500. What was the number of candidates in 2000?
A. 24500 B. 22000 C. 20500 D. 19000

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 9) Answer – 4. 13 : 6
Data Interpretation Solution: Explanation :
Number of male teachers who teach Chemistry = 2/3 * 13/100
1) Answer – 4. 60%
* 1800 =156
Explanation :
Number of female teachers who teach Biotechnology = 1/2 *
= 320-200 = 120
8/100 * 1800 =72
= (120/200)*100
Ratio = 156 : 72 = 13 : 6
= 60%
10) Answer – 5. 459
2) Answer – 4. 1010
Explanation :
Explanation :
Total number of teacher who teach Chemistry = 234 + 117 =
Shirts in October, February & March = 1700
351
Shirts in January, November & December = 690
Total number of teacher who teach Maths = 3/4 * 8% of 1800
Difference = 1700 – 690 = 1010
= 108
Total number of Chemistry and Maths teachers together = 351
3) Answer – 4. 75/4 %
+ 108 = 459
Explanation :
Required Percentage
11) Answer - 2 : 303
= [(760-640)/640]*100
Explanation:
= [120/640]*100 = 75/4%

4) Answer – 5. 206
Explanation :
Explanation :
Avg = 150 + 260 + 350 + 190 + 80 = 1030 = 1030/5 = 206

5) Answer – 5. 8:5
Explanation :
12) Answer - 3 : 65 : 27
Shirts sold in Shop B in September
Explanation
= 20% of 120 = 24 = 120-24 = 96
Shirts sold in Shop B in April
= 20% of 50 = 10 = 50 + 10 = 60
Ratio = 96 : 60 = 8:5

6) Answer – 1. 57%
Explanation :
Number of teachers in Physics = 17/100 * 1800 = 306
Number of male teachers in Physics = 7/9 * 306 = 238 13) Answer - 1 : 444
Number of teachers in Geography = 23/100 * 1800 = 414 Explanation
% = 238 / 414 * 100 = 57%

7) Answer – 2. 627
Explanation :
Number of male teachers who teach Geography = 2/3 *
23/100 * 1800 = 276
Number of male teachers who teach History = 1/2 * 27/100 *
1800 = 243
% of female teachers who teach Biology = % of female 14) Answer - 3 : 60.69%
teachers who teach Biology i.e 50% Explanation
Therefore Number of male teachers who teach Biology =
50/100 * 12/100 * 1800 = 108
Total = 276 + 243 + 108 = 627

8) Answer – 3. 342
Explanation :
Total number of teacher who teach History and Physics =
44% of 1800 15) Answer - 1 : V
Total number of teacher who teach Chemistry and Biology =
25% of 1800
Difference = 19% of 1800 = 342

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Explanation

2) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Required percentage

16) Answer - B)2001

Explanation :
A = 697*12/17 = 492
B = 854*4/7 = 488
C = 780*7/15 = 364 3) Answer & Explanation:
D = 660*9/20 = 297 Answer: Option C
E = 684*20/38 = 360 Explanation: Required percentage
Total = 492+488+364+297+360 = 2001

17) Answer - D)335

Explanation :
A = 697 – 492 = 205
B = 854 – 488 = 366
C = 780 – 364 = 416
D = 660 – 297 = 363
E = 684 – 360 = 324
Avg = 205+366+416+363+324/5 = 1674/5 = 334.8 = 335 4) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option A
18) Answer - D)219:229 Explanation: Total expenditure of the Company during 2000 =
Explanation : (324 + 101 + 3.84 + 41.6 + 74) pesetas = 544.44 pesetas
Male = D+E = 297+360 = 657
Female = D+E = 363+324 = 687 5) Answer & Explanation:
657:687 = 219 : 229 Answer: Option B
Explanation: Required ratio
19) Answer - A)18.18%
Explanation :
C = 780
D = 660
% = (780-660)*100/660 = 18.18%

1) Answer - C)102.6%
Explanation :
A+C = 697+780 = 1477
Female B + D = 366+363 = 729
% = (1477-729)*100/729 = 102.6%
Table Set 2: Solution
Table Set 1: Solution
1) Answer & Explanation:
1) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D
Explanation: Required percentage
Explanation: Average amount of interest paid by the Company
during the given period

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 6) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option C
Explanation: Required percentage

2) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Required average

Table Set 3: Solution

1) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:

3) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

2) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option B
Explanation: From the table it is clear that Sajal and Rohit
have 60% or more marks in each of the six subjects.

3) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
4) Answer & Explanation: Explanation:
Answer: Option D Aggregate marks obtained by Sajal = [ (90% of 150) + (60%
Explanation: Required percentage of 130) + (70% of 120)+ (70% of 100) + (90% of 60) + (70%
of 40) ]
= [ 135 + 78 + 84 + 70 + 54 + 28 ]
= 449.

4) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option A
Explanation: We shall find the overall percentage (for all the
seven students) with respect to each subject. The overall
5) Answer & Explanation: percentage for any subject is equal to the average of
Answer: Option B percentages obtained by all the seven students since the
Explanation: Required percentage maximum marks for any subject is the same for all the
students. Therefore, overall percentage for:

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 = (No. of students scoring 30 and above marks in Chemistry) -
(Number of students scoring 30 and above marks in
aggregate)
= 27 - 21
= 6.

2) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
We have 60% of 50 = (60/100)x50 = 30.
Therefore Required number
= No. of students scoring 30 and above marks in Physics
= 32

3) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Number of students getting at least 60% marks in Chemistry
= Number of students getting 30 and above marks in
Chemistry
= 21.
Number of students getting at least 40% marks in aggregate
= Number of students getting 20 and above marks in
aggregate
= 73.
Required percentage = (21/73)x100%
= 28.77% ~= 29%.

4) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
We have 40% of 50 = (40/100)x50 = 20
Therefore Required number
= Number of students scoring less than 20 marks in
aggreagate
= 100 - Number of students scoring 20 and above marks in
aggregate
= 100 - 73 = 27.

5) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Since 66 students get 20 and above marks in Chemistry and
5) Answer & Explanation:
out of these 21 students get 30 and above marks, therefore to
Answer: Option C
select top 35 students in Chemistry, the qualifying marks
Explanation: Aggregate marks obtained by Tarun
should lie in the range 20-30.
= [ (65% of 150) + (35% of 130) + (50% of 120) + ((77% of
100) + (80% of 60) + (80% of 40) ]
Table Set 5: Solution
= [ 97.5 + 45.5 + 60 + 77 + 48 + 32 ]
1) Answer & Explanation:
= 360.
Answer: Option A
The maximum marks (of all the six subjects)
Explanation: The average number of candidates selected over
= (150 + 130 + 120 + 100 + 60 + 40)
the given period for various states are:
= 600.
Therefore Overall percentage of Tarun = (360/600) x 600 =
60%

Table Set 4: Solution

1) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Required difference from the table chart

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 5) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option B
Explanation: The percentages of candidates selected from
U.P. over those qualified from U.P. during different years are:

2) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The percentages of candidates qualified from
Punjab over those appeared from Punjab during different
years are:

6) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

3) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation: The percentages of candidates selected over the
candidates appeared in 1997, for various states are:

Bar chart Set 1: Solution

1) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

2) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
4) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

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 Answer: Option A
Explanation:
There is an increase in foreign exchange reserves during the
years 1992 - 1993, 1994 - 1995, 1996 - 1997, 1997 - 1998 as
compared to previous year (as shown by bar-graph).
The percentage increase in reserves during these years
compared to previous year are:

3) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Average sales (in thousand number) of branches B1, B3 and
B6 in 2000

4) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
Average foreign exchange reserves over the given period
4) Answer & Explanation: = [ 1/8 x (2640 + 3720 + 2520 + 3360 + 3120 + 4320 + 5040
Answer: Option B + 3120) ] million US $
Explanation: = 3480 million US $.
Average sales of all the six branches (in thousand numbers) Foreign exchange reserves in 1996 - 1997 = 4320 million US
for the year 2000 $.
= 1/6 x [80 + 75 + 95 + 85 + 75 + 70] Therefore Required percentage
= 80. = ( 4320/3480 x 100 ) %
= 124.14%
5) Answer & Explanation: ~= 125%.
Answer: Option D
Explanation: 5) Answer & Explanation:
Total sales of branches B1, b2 and B5 for both the years (in Answer: Option A
thousand numbers) Explanation:
= (80 + 105) + (95 + 110) + (75 + 95) Foreign exchange reserves in 1997 - 1998 = 5040 million US
= 560. $.
Foreign exchange reserves in 1993 - 1994 = 2520 million US
Bar chart Set 2: Solution: $.
1) Answer & Explanation: Therefore Increase = (5040 - 2520) = 2520 US $.
Answer: Option C Therefore Percentage Increase = ( 2520/2520 x 100 ) % =
Explanation: 100%.
Average foreign exchange reserves over the given period = The bar graph given below shows the data of the production of
3480 million US $. paper (in lakh tonnes = One Lakh is equal to One Hundred
The country had reserves above 3480 million US $ during the Thousand (100,000)) by three different companies X, Y and Z
years 1992-93, 1996-97 and 1997-98, i.e., for 3 years and over the years.
below 3480 million US $ during the years 1991-92, 1993-94,
1994-95, 1995-56 and 1998-99 i.e., for 5 years. Bar chart Set 3: Solution
Hence, required ratio = 3 : 5. 1) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option A
2) Answer & Explanation: Explanation: Percentage change (rise/fall) in the production
Answer: Option D of Company Y in comparison to the previous year, for different
Explanation: years are:
Required ratio
= 5040/3360
= 1.5.

3) Answer & Explanation:

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Hence, The maximum percentage rise/fall in the production of
Company Y is for 1997.

2) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation: Average production of Company X in the period 5) Answer & Explanation:
1998-2000 Answer: Option D
Explanation: Percentage increase in the production of
Company Y from 1996 to 1999

6) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Required difference
3) Answer & Explanation:
= [(45 - 25) x 1,00,000] tons
Answer: Option D
= 20,00,000 tons.
Explanation: Average production (in lakh tons) in five years
for the three companies are:
Bar chart Set 4: Solution:
1) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option C
Explanation: The differences between the amount invested in
raw material and the value of sales of finished goods for
various years are:
For 1995 = Rs. (200 - 120) lakhs = Rs. 80 lakhs.
For 1996 = Rs. (300 - 225) lakhs = Rs. 75 lakhs.
For 1997 = Rs. (500 - 375) lakhs = Rs. 125 lakhs.
For 1998 = Rs. (400 - 330) lakhs = Rs. 70 lakhs.
For 1999 = Rs. (600 - 525) lakhs = Rs. 75 lakhs.
For 2000 = Rs. (460 - 420) lakhs = Rs. 40 lakhs.
4) Answer & Explanation: Clearly, maximum difference was during 1997.
Answer: Option A
Explanation: The percentages of production of Company Z to 2) Answer & Explanation:
the production of Company Z for various years are: Answer: Option D
Explanation:

3) Answer & Explanation:

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Answer: Option D
Explanation: Required difference

4) Answer & Explanation: Bar chart Set 5: Solution

Answer: Option B 1) Answer & Explanation:
Explanation: By analyzing the data you can see that the Answer: Option C
percentage change in the amount invested in raw-materials Explanation:
and in the value of sales of finished goods for different years Required percentage
are: Percentage change in Amount invested in raw-material: = (45-60)/60%
= -25%.
Therefore There is a decline of 25% in production from 1997
to 1998.

2) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:

3) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Required percentage
5) Answer & Explanation: = (80-25)/25 %
Answer: Option A = 220%.
Explanation: The percentage increase in the amount invested
in raw-materials as compared to the previous year, for 4) Answer & Explanation:
different years are: Answer: Option D
Explanation: The percentage increase in production compared
to previous year for different years are:

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 5) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:

6) Answer & Explanation:

Clearly, there is maximum percentage increase in production Answer: Option D
in 1996. Explanation:
Central angle of 18 o = (18/360) x 100% of the total
5) Answer & Explanation: expenditure
Answer: Option D = 5% of the total expenditure.
Explanation: From the given chart it is clear that:
Average production (in 10000 tons) over the given years Out of the given combinations, only in combination (d) the
= 1/8x(25 + 40 + 60 + 45 + 65 + 50 + 75 + 80) difference is 5% i.e.
= 55. Paper Cost - Printing Cost = (25% - 20%) of the total
Therefore the productions during the years 1997, 1999, 2001 expenditure
and 2002 are more than the average production. = 5% of the total expenditure.

Pie chart Set 1 Solution: 7) Answer & Explanation:

1) Answer & Explanation: Answer: Option B
Answer: Option C Explanation:
Explanation: Clearly, S.P. of the book = 105% of C.P.
Let the amount of Royalty to be paid for these books be Rs. r. Let the selling price of this edition (of 12500 books) be Rs. x.
Then, 20 : 15 = 30600 : r => r = Rs. (30600 x 15)/20 Then, 15 : 105 = 281250 : x => x = Rs. (105 x 281250)/15=
= Rs. 22,950. Rs. 1968750.
Therefore S.P. of one book = Rs. 1968750/12500
2) Answer & Explanation: = Rs. 157.50 .
Answer: Option C
Explanation: 8) Answer & Explanation:
Central angle corresponding to Royalty = (15% of 360) o Answer: Option B
= (15/100) x 360 o Explanation:
= 54 o. Let the Promotion Cost for this edition be Rs. p.
Then, 25 : 10 = 56250 : p => p = Rs. (56250 x 10)/25
3) Answer & Explanation: = Rs. 22,500.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 9) Answer & Explanation:
Clearly, marked price of the book = 120% of C.P. Answer: Option A
Also, cost of paper = 25% of C.P Explanation:
Let the cost of paper for a single book be Rs. n. Central angle of 108 o = (108/360) x 100% of the total
Then, 120 : 25 = 180 : n => n = Rs. (25 x 180)/120 expenditure
= Rs. 37.50 . = 30% of the total expenditure.
From the pie chart it is clear that:
4) Answer & Explanation: Binding Cost + Transportation Cost = (20% + 10%) of the
Answer: Option A total expenditure
Explanation: = 30% of the total expenditure.
For the publisher to earn a profit of 25%, S.P. = 125% of C.P. Therefore Binding Cost and Transportation Cost together have
Also Transportation Cost = 10% of C.P. a central angle of 108 o.
Let the S.P. of 5500 books be Rs. x.
Then, 10 : 125 = 82500 : x => x = Rs.(125 x 82500)/10= Rs. Pie Chart Set 2: Solution
1031250. 1) Answer & Explanation:
Therefore S.P. of one book = Rs. 1031250/5500= Rs. 187.50 . Answer: Option B

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Explanation: ~= 11486 Yen
(40 + 10) = 50% (from first chart) 11486 Yen is the amount of funds to be arranged through
2) Answer & Explanation: External Assistance.
Answer: Option B
Explanation: 2) Answer & Explanation:
40:15 = 8:3 Answer: Option C
Explanation:
Pie Chart Set 3: Solution Shortage of funds arranged through External Assistance
1) Answer & Explanation: Therefore = (11486 - 9695) Yen = 1791 Yen
Answer: Option A Therefore Increase required in Market Borrowing = 1791 Yen
Explanation: Percentage increase required = (1791/29952) x 100% =
Total percentage = (10 / 24) x 100 5.98% ~= 6%.
= 41.6666667 %
3) Answer & Explanation:
2) Answer & Explanation: Answer: Option C
Answer: Option D Explanation:
Explanation: Amount permitted = (Funds required from Toll for projects of
20 + 10 = 30% is made up of either bones or skin. Phase II) + (10% of these funds)
Hence, 70% is made up of neither. = 4910 Yen+ (10% of 4910) Yen
= (4910 + 491) Yen
3) Answer & Explanation: = 5401 Yen
Answer: Option D
Explanation: 4) Answer & Explanation:
It cannot be determined since the respective distributions are Answer: Option C
not known. Explanation:
Central angle corresponding to Market Borrowing =
Pie Chart Set 4: solution (29952/57600) x 360 o = 187.2 o
1) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option D 5) Answer & Explanation:
Explanation: Answer: Option B
Although it seems to be Commodore, the answer cannot be Explanation:
determined due to the fact that we are unaware of the break-up Required ratio = 4910/29952
of the sales value and volume of companies compromising the = 1/6.1
other categories. ~ 1/6

2) Answer & Explanation: Line Graph Set 1 Solution:

Answer: Option A 1) Answer & Explanation:
Explanation: Answer: Option D
If we assume the total sales to be 100 in the first year, IBM's Explanation:
sales would go up by 50% (from 28 to 42) contributing an Total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z together,
increase of 14 to the total sales value. during various years are:
Similarly, Apple's increase of 15% would contribute an In 1993 = (30 + 80 + 60) = 170
increase of 2.1 to the total sales value. The net change would In 1994 = (60 + 40 + 90) = 190
be 14 + 2.1 on 100. (i.e., 16.1%) In 1995 = (40 + 60 + 120) = 220
In 1996 = (70 + 60 + 90) = 220
3) Answer & Explanation: In 1997 = (100 + 80 + 60) = 240
Answer: Option D In 1998 = (50 + 100 + 80) = 230
Explanation: In 1999 = (120 + 140 + 100) = 360
By looking at the pie chart we can see that Clearly, the total exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z
IBM accounts for 28% of the share by value and 10% of the together are same during the years 1995 and 1996.
share by volume.
28% of 1650000 = 28 x 1650000/100 = 462000 2) Answer & Explanation:
10% of 1500 = 10 x 1500/100 = 150 Answer: Option D
Therefore, average unit sale price = 462000/150 Explanation:
= 3080. Analysis of the graph: From the graph it is clear that
1. The amount of exports of Company X (in Pesetas) in the
Pie Chart Set 5: Solution years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 30,
1) Answer & Explanation: 60, 40, 70, 100, 50 and 120 respectively.
Answer: Option B 2. The amount of exports of Company Y (in Pesetas.) in the
Explanation: years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 80,
20% of the total funds to be arranged = (20% of 57600) Yen 40, 60, 60, 80, 100 and 140 respectively.
= 11520 Yen

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3. The amount of exports of Company Z (in Pesetas) in the Therefore Imports in the year 1999 = 420
years 1993, 1994, 1995, 1996, 1997, 1998 and 1999 are 60,
90,, 120, 90, 60, 80 and 100 respectively. 2) Answer & Explanation:
Average annual exports (in Pesetas) of Company Y during the Answer: Option C
given period Explanation:
= 1/7 x (80 + 40 + 60 + 60 + 80 + 100 + 140) = 560/7= 80. The imports are minimum proportionate to the exports implies
Average annual exports (in Pesetas) of Company Z during the that the ratio of the value of imports to exports has the
given period minimum value.
= 1/7 x (60 + 90 + 120 + 90 + 60 + 80 + 100) = (600/7 ) . Now, this ratio has a minimum value 0.35 in 1997, i.e., the
80 imports are minimum proportionate to the exports in 1997.
Therefore Required percentage = ( 600 × 100) % ≅
( )
7
93.33% 3) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option D
3) Answer & Explanation: Explanation:
Answer: Option C The graph gives only the ratio of imports to exports for
Explanation: different years. To find the percentage increase in imports
The difference between the exports from the Companies X and from 1997 to 1998, we require more details such as the value
Y during the various years are: of imports or exports during these years.
In 1993 = (80 - 30) = 50 Hence, the data is inadequate to answer this question.
In 1994 = (60 - 40) = 20
In 1995 = (60 - 40) = 20 4) Answer & Explanation:
In 1996 = (70 - 60) = 10 Answer: Option B
In 1997 = (100 - 80) = 20 Explanation:
In 1998 = (100 - 50) = 50 Ratio of imports to exports in the year 1996 = 0.85.
In 1999 = (140 - 120) = 20 Let the exports in 1996 = x
Clearly, the difference is minimum in the year 1996. Then, 2 720 000 000/x= 0.85 => x = 2 720 000 000/0.85 =
320.
4) Answer & Explanation: Therefore Exports in 1996 = 3 200 000 000
Answer: Option C
Explanation: 5) Answer & Explanation:
Average exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z in 1993 Answer: Option D
= [ 1/3 x (30 + 80 + 60) ] = ( 170/3) Explanation:
Average exports of the three Companies X, Y and Z in 1998 The exports are more than the imports imply that the ratio of
= [1/3 x (50 + 100 + 80) ] = (230/3) value of imports to exports is less than 1.
Difference [ ( 230/3) - ( 170/3) ] Now, this ratio is less than 1 in years 1995, 1996, 1997 and
= ( 60/3) = 20 2000.
Thus, there are four such years.
5) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option C Line Graph Set 3: Solution
Explanation: 1) Answer & Explanation:
Average annual exports of Company Z during the given period Answer: Option D
= 1/7 x (60 + 90 + 120 + 90 + 60 + 80 + 100) Explanation:
= ( 600/7) = 85.71 Required difference = (128000 - 107000) = 21000.
From the analysis of graph the exports of Company Z are
more than the average annual exports of Company Z (i.e., 2) Answer & Explanation:
85.71) during the years 1994, 1995, 1996 and 1999, i.e., Answer: Option C
during 4 of the given years. Explanation:
From the line-graph it is clear that the productions of
Line Graph Set 2: Solution: Company X in the years 1997, 1998, 1999, 2000, 2001 and
1) Answer & Explanation: 2002 are 119000, 99000, 141000, 78000, 120000 and 159000
Answer: Option D and those of Company Y are 139000, 120000, 100000,
Explanation: 128000, 107000 and 148000 respectively.
The ratio of imports to exports for the years 1998 and 1999 Total production of Company X from 1997 to 2002
are 1.25 and 1.40 respectively. = 119000 + 99000 + 141000 + 78000 + 120000 + 159000
Let the exports in the year 1998 = x = 716000.
Then, the exports in the year 1999 = (500 - x) and total production of Company Y from 1997 to 2002
Therefore 1.25 = 250/x => x = 250/1.25 = 200 [Using ratio = 139000 + 120000 + 100000 + 128000 + 107000 + 148000
for 1998] = 742000.
Thus, the exports in the year 1999 = (500 - 200) = 300 Difference = (742000 - 716000) = 26000.
Let the imports in the year 1999 = y
Then, 1.40 = y/300 => y = (300 x 1.40) = 420. 3) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option A

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Explanation:
Average number of vehicles manufactured by Company X 3) Answer & Explanation:
= 1/6 x (119000 + 99000 + 141000 + 78000 + 120000 + Answer: Option D
159000) Explanation: Let the incomes of each of the two Companies X
= 119333. and Y in 1999 be x.

4) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The difference between the productions of Companies X and Y
in various years are:
For 1997 (139000 - 119000) = 20000.
For 1998 (120000 - 99000) = 21000.
For 1999 (141000 - 100000) = 41000.
For 2000 (128000 - 78000) = 50000.
For 2001 (120000 - 107000) = 13000.
For 2002 (159000 - 148000) = 11000.
Clearly, maximum difference was in 2000.
5) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
Line Graph Set 5: Solution:
1) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option B
Explanation:
The differences between the percentages of candidates
Line Graph Set 4:Solution
qualified to appeared for the give pairs of years are:
1) Answer & Explanation:
For 1994 and 1995 = 50 - 30 = 20.
Answer: Option C
For 1998 and 1999 = 80 - 80 = 0.
Explanation:
For 1994 and 1997 = 50 - 30 = 20.
Let the income in 2000 of the companies X and Y be 3x and 4x
For 1997 and 1998 = 80 - 50 = 30.
respectively.
For 1999 and 2000 = 80 - 60 = 20.
And let the expenditure in 2000 of companies X and Y E1 and
Thus, the maximum difference is between the years 1997 and
E2 respectively.
1998.
Then, for company X we have:
2) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The graph gives the data for the percentage of candidates
qualified to appeared and unless the absolute values of
number of candidates qualified or candidates appeared is
know we cannot compare the absolute values for any two
years.
Hence, the data is inadequate to solve this question.

3) Answer & Explanation:

Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The number of candidates appeared in 1998 be x.
2) Answer & Explanation: Then, 80% of x = 21200 => x = (21200x100)/80= 26500
Answer: Option B (required number).
Explanation:
4) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option D
Explanation:
The total number of candidates qualified in 1996 and 1997
together, cannot be determined until we know at least, the
number of candidates appeared in any one of the two years
1996 or 1997 or the percentage of candidates qualified to
appeared in 1996 and 1997 together.
Hence, the data is inadequate.

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5) Answer & Explanation:
Answer: Option C
Explanation:
The number of candidates qualified in 1999 = (80% of 26500)
= 21200.
Therefore Number of candidates qualified in 2000 = (33500 -
21200) = 12300.
Let the number of candidates appeared in 2000 be x.
Then, 60% of x = 12300 => x = (12300x100)/60 = 20500.

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 Sol.
Logical Reasoning 2 → O 4 → S 8 → R 10 → T
01) Alphabet Test Only one meaningful word is possible i.e. „SORT’

The letters of English alphabet can be written as : Type IV:

ABCDEFGHI J K L M NO P Q R S T U V WX (1) If the 1st , 2nd , 3rd and 4th letter and so on of the word
Y Z „REPRESENTATION’ are interchange then which is the 7th
letter from the right end.
From left side: 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 Sol. R E P R E S E N T A T I O N
19 20 21 22 23 24 25 26 ERRPSENEATITNO
7 6 5 4 3 2 1 ← Right end
From right side: 26 25 24 23 22 21 20 19 18 17 16 15 14 13 12 7th letter from right end is ‘E’.
11 10 9 8 7 6 5 4 3 2 1
Type V:
The sum of letter of English alphabet from left side & right side (1) In the English alphabet which is the 4th letter to the left of the
is 27 11th letter from the left.
Sol. K - 4 = 11 – 4 = 7
Following formula is helpful in learning the order of letters of From left side i.e. A to Z
English alphabet. G is the 7th letter.
E J O T Y (2) Which letter is the middle of 8th letter from left side & 9th
↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ ↓ letter from right end in English alphabet?
5 10 15 20 25 Sol. It’s „M’

Basically our left side is alphabet’s left side and our right side is
alphabet’s right side. Trick →
Questions based on Alphabet:- Now middle letters is k & position from left end or position from
right end
Type I:
(1) Arrange the following word according to English dictionary
and which third letter among them is. Now, middle letter is 5 + 8 = 13th letter from left i.e. ‘M’.
HAT, HEAT, HEAD, HEARD, HATE
Sol. According to eng. Dictionary arrangement is Type VI:
HAT, HATE, HEAD, HEARD, HEAT (1) If the first half of English alphabet is written in reverse order
So third word is “HEAD” and rest are written in same order. Then which is the 6th letter to
the left of 17th left from the left.
Type II: Sol. M L K J I H G F E D C B A / N O P Q R S T U V W X Y Z
(1) In the word „APPLE’ how many such pair of letters are there 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17
which have exactly same numbers letter between them as in the Q – 6 = 17 – 6 = 11
English alphabet. So 11th letter from left is C.

Type VII:
In the type of question a mix-matched letter series is given
Sol. (1) D E F M P B M E F D E F M F E P M E F B M E P F
Only one such pair i.e. A – E In the given series how many E’s are there having M as a
preceding & F as a succeeding letter.
(2) In the word „NOVEL’ how many pair are there between the Sol. only 2 (M E F)
letters having same numbers letter between them as in English (I) Which of the word cannot be formed from the given word
alphabet. (1) S U P E R I T E N D E N T
(a) P E R T I N E N T (b) T E N E N T
(c) R E T E N T I O N (d) D E N T I S T
Sol. RETENTION because it has letter ‘O’
Sol.
2 pairs N – O and O – L. (2). U N I V E R S I T Y
(a) N E V E R (b) R I V E R
Type III: (c) V I R U S (d) T R U E
(1) How many meaningful words can be made from the 2nd , 4th , Sol. : NEVER has 2 E’s
9th and 10th letters of the word „ORIENTATION’
Sol. 2nd letter - R, 4th letter – N, 9th letter – I, 10th letter – O (II) Which of the word can be formed from the given word.
Only one meaningful word is possible i.e., IRON. (1) R E C U R I U T M E N T
(2) How many meaningful words can be formed from the 2nd , 4th (a) C E M E N T E (b) R T I R E M N T
, 8th & 10th letter of word „CONSIDERATION’ (c) U N I T E (d) T I R E

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Sol. : U N I T E (e) None of these

Practice set: 12. In the following alphabets, which letter is seventh to the right
of the thirteenth letter from the right end?
Directions: In each of the following questions, five words are YZABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWX
given. Which of them will come in the middle if all of them are (a) H (b) R (c) S (d) T
arranged alphabetically as in a dictionary? (e) None of these
1. (a) Fraught (b) Fray (c) Fraud
(d) Franchise (e) Frappe 13. The positions of how many digits in the number 213659487
will remain same when the digits are arranged in ascending
2. (a) Generate (b) Generalize (c) Genepool order?
(d) Genealogist (e) Generality (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
(e) Four
3. (a) Halt (b) Hake (c) Hairy
(d) Hair-net (e) Hale 14. G H I J K L M N
Which letter is fourth to the right of the letter immediately to the
4. (a) Electric (b) Elector (c) Elect left of the letter immediately to the left of the letter which is third
(d) Electrode (e) Electron to the right of the letter immediately to the left of the letter H?
(a) K (b) L (c) J (d) I
5. (a) Length (b) Lenient (c) Legacy (e) None of these
(d) Legal (e) Legible
Directions: If letters from A to M were written leaving space
Directions: Each of the following questions is based on the for one letter between every two letters, and then the remaining
following alphabet series: letters were inserted, beginning with N and ending the service
ABCDEFGHIJKLMNOPQRSTUVWXYZ with Z after, M, answer the following questions:
6. If the alphabet is written in the reverse order and every 15. Which letter would be fourth to the right of the ninth letter
alternate letter starting with Y is dropped which letter will be from the left?
exactly in the middle of the remaining letters of the alphabet? (a) C (b) F (c) S (d) G
(a) M (b) N (c) O (d) M or (e) None of these
O
(e) None of these 16. Which letter would be exactly between Q and X?
(a) S (b) T (c) H (d) W
7. Suppose the first and the second letters of the English alphabet (e) None of these
changed places, also the third and the fourth, the fifth and the
sixth, and so on. In the new alphabet series, thus formed which 17. Which letter would be exactly in the middle of the nineteenth
letter would be the 16th? letter from the beginning and eighteenth from the end?
(a) H (b) K (c) O (d) M (a) S (b) T (c) G (d) H
(e) None of these (e) None of these

8. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number Directions : If all the letters from A to Z were written as
8314629 each of which has as many digits between them in the A_C_E_G_ upto Y, i.e. dropping each alternative letter, leaving
number as after arranging the digits in ascending order ? blank spaces and then all the blanks were filled in with
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three remaining letters in reverse order, i.e., A Z C X E V…. ending
(e) None with B, answer the following questions :
18. Which letter is to the right of fifteenth letter from the left
9. If in the English alphabet every third letter is replaced by the corner?
symbol (*), which of the following would be sixth to the left of (a) M (b) N (c) Q (d) L
the sixteenth element from the left? (e) None of these
(a) G (b) H (c) T (d) J
(e) None of these 19. Which letters are exactly in the middle of the nineteenth letter
10. If 1st and 26th , 2nd and 25th , 3rd and 24th and so on, letters of from the left and fifteenth letter from the right end ?
the English alphabet are paired, then which of the following (a) MN (b) NO (c) OL (d) PM
pairs is correct ? (e) None of these
(a) GR (b) DW (c) IP (d) EU
(e) None of these 20. Which letter would be placed between H and F ?
(a) H (b) J (c) L (d) U
11. If every alternative letter of English alphabet from B (e) None of these
onwards (including B) is written in lower case (small letters) and
the remaining letters are capitalized, then how will the second 21. How many pairs of letters in the series are old neighbors
month of the second half of the year be written? from regular alphabetical order?
(a) July (b) August (c) July (d) (a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four
August (e) None of these

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 Coding is a method of transmitting a message between the
22. Which letters would be to the right and left of R ? sender and the receiver that no third person can understand it.
(a) P and N (b) R and T (c) F and H (d) K and The coding and decoding one’s ability of deciphering the rule
I and breaking the code to decipher the message will be tested to
(e) None of these know.

Directions: Study the following arrangement of the English Approach:

alphabet and answer the questions given below: 1) Observe alphabets or numbers given in the code keenly.
FJMPOWRNBEYCKAVLDGXUHQISZT 2) Find the sequence it follows whether it is ascending or
descending.
23. Which letter is fifth to the right of the letter which is exactly 3) Detect the rule in which the alphabets/numbers/words follow.
in the middle of F and D ? 4) Fill the appropriate letter/number/word in the blank given.
(a) D (b) V (c) A (d) K
(e) None of these e.g. → AMAN → BNBO or CPES

24. Four of the following five are alike in a certain way based Decoding: The method of converting a non-meaningful
on their position in the above arrangement and hence form a word/letter/number in a meaningful word by a certain rule is
group. Which one does not belong to that group ? called de-coding.
(a) BRY (b) ECN (c) HXI (d) OMR CPES→AMAN
(e) KYV
Example:
25. JPM : ZIS in the same way as MPO : ? If in a certain language ‘GOAL’ is coded as HPBM, how is
(a) IZS (b) ZSI (c) ISQ (d) ISZ ‘POST’ coded in same language.
(e) SIQ Sol. :

26. If each of the odd digits in the number 54638 is decreased by

1 and each of the even digits is increased by 1, then which of the
following will be the sum of the digits of the new number?
(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 28 (d) 29 Type I : Coding based on eng alphabets.
(e) none Ex.(1) If code for RADIO is SBEJP. What is code for CAMERA
Ans. : CAMERA → DBNFSB
27. If each letter is attached a value equal to its serial number in
the above arrangement starting from your left, then what will be Type II: Coding based on group words
the sum of the numbers attached to all the vowels in the Ex. In a certain code language
arrangement ? Dev Das ji means good little frock (→ mean)
(a) 50 (b) 58 (c) 63 (d) 73 Ram Kishan ji means behaves good
(e) None of these Durga Lal Kishan means makes mischief
Das Raj Kishan means little girl feel
28. In the given series of letters, how many A’s are preceded and What is code for frock
followed by A ? Ans. Dev
PAPAAPPAPAPPPqqPAPAAPPPA
(a) 0 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 Type III: Coding based on conversion of name of words.
(e) None of these Ex. ‘man is coded as ‘woman’, woman is coded as ‘girl’, ‘girl’
29. In the following series of letters how many P’s are there is coded as ‘boy’, ‘boy’ is coded as ‘worker’ then 6 years female
which do not have ‘Y’ preceding them and also do not have T is known as?
following them? Ans.: 6 years female = girl, but ‘girl’ is coded as ‘boy’.
ZQSTPYMNQNYTUVXYPTASPTQYSPT Hence answer = boy.
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
(e) None of these Type IV: Coding based on numbers.
Ex. 1 If in a coded language A is coded as 1, B as 2 and so on
30. The positions of the second and the eight digits of the number then what is code for MAGGI.
39128564 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the fourth Sol. MAGGI → 131779
and the fifth digits are interchanged. The positions of the first Ex. 2 If BEAUTIFUL is coded as 573041208 and RUBBER is
and the sixth digits are interchanged and the positions of the coded as 905579 then what is code for TEAR.
third and the seventh digits are interchanged. Which of the Sol. TEAR → 4739.
following will be the third digit to the left of 3 after the
rearrangement? Ex. 3 Apple is coded as 25563, Rung is coded as 7148. Then
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 6 (d) 8 purple is coded as
(e) 9
02 Coding And Decoding:

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 7. If in a certain language, EXPLAINING is coded as
PXEALNIGNI, then how is PRODUCTION coded in that
language?
Sol. (a) ROPVDECDPOV (b) ORPUDECDROJ
PURPLE – 517563 (c) ORPBUDECQUI (d) ORPUDTCNOI
Answer = 517563. (e) None of these

Ex. 4 If RAM is coded as 4 and SHYAM as 6 what is code for 8. In a certain code language, TERMINATION is written as
KARAN IMTRENOAIT. How is COMPETITIVE written in that code?
R→I→9 K → P → 16 S→H→ (a) OMCPETTIIVE (b) EPCMOTEVIIT
8 (c) OMEPCTIIVET (d) PEMCOTVEITI
A → Z → 26 A → Z → 26 H→S→ (e) None of these
9
M → N → 14 R → I → 09 Y → B 9. In a certain code, INTRODUCTION is written as
→2 UCODTITRONIN. How is KARUNAKARANA written in that
49 A → Z → 26 A → Z code ?
→26 (a) AKNUARRANKA (b) KANARARUNAKA
N → M → 13 M → N → 14 (c) NKKRANKRAUK (d) RURNKAAUNAK
90 69 (e) None of these
4 + 9 = 13  1 + 3 = 4
10. If PERSUATION is written as NOTIAURSEP, then which
9+0=9
letter will be in the fifth place when counted from the left if
69 = 6 + 9 = 15 = 6
CONTRIBUTE is written in the same way ?
(a) R (b) I (c) A (d) L
Type V: Coding based on symbols.
(e) None of these
Ex. 5 If a certain code language TRAIN means $ ? @ = £, ACE
means @ % #. What is the meaning of CERTAIN
11. In a certain code NECKLACE is written as EDBMLDFN.
Sol. CERTAIN → % # ? $ @ = £
How is MEDICINE written in the same code
(a) EOJDEJFM (b) EOJDJEFM (c) MFEDJJOE
Practice set :
(d) MFEJDJOE (e) None of these
1. In a certain code language, WINDOW is coded as 452364,
12. In a certain code, COVALENT is written as BWPDUOFM
SHADE – 17839. Then HIDDEN is coded as?
and TEAR is written as FUSB. How will DESIRE be written in
(a) 763392 (b) 743392 (c) 765595
that code ?
(d) 756696 (e) 753392
(a) ETFSJE (b) TEFFSJ (c) TFEFSJ (d)
EFTJSE
2. If RUBBER is coded as QUCCER, the code for DINNER will
(e) None of these
be
(a) DIOPER (b) CINNRE (c) CIOOER
13. In a certain code language, TRIANGLE is written as
(d) DIOOER (e) None of these
BHSSFKHM. How is COMPUTER written in that code ?
(a) QLPBSDUT (b) LQBPBSTU
3. If in a certain language, MOBILE is coded as NQEMQK, then
(c) BPLQSDUT (d) TUDSBPLQ
how is MIRACLE coded in that language?
(e) None of these
(a) JDOCMFE (b) NKUEHRL (c) NJQBBMN
(d) AELGMNB (e) None of these
14. In a certain code, SUPREME is written as DLDSRTO. How
is RESERVE written in that code?
4. If DONE is coded as EOOE, ROSE is coded as SOTE, how
(a) DLDSTVQ (b) DUQFQDR
would you code TAKE?
(c) QUDFRDQ (d) DUQFRDQ
(a) TBKF (b) UALE (c) UBLE
(e) None of these
(d) UBLF (e) None of these
15. In a certain code language :
5. In a certain code language, DOOR is written as CPNSR and
(i) mint bio tee zro → her town is manpuri
LACK is written as KBBLK. How will the word GRID be written
(ii) neep mint kap tee oro → her first love is maths
in that code language?
(iii) oro gret tee mint pki → maths collection is her hobboy
(a) FSHCD (b) HSJED (c) FOHCD
Then which word in that language represent “maths” ?
(d) FSHED (e) None of these
(a) mint (b) bio (c) oro (d) gret
(e) none of these
6. If SUMMER is written as USMMRE in a certain code, how
16. In a certain code language NATURE is written as AOUUES.
would WINTER be written in that code?
How will ANSWER be written in that code?
(A) IWERNT (b) IWRNTE (c) IWNTRE
(a) NBXSSE (b) NBWRPF (c) MAVSPE
(d) IWTNRE (e) None of these
(d) NBWTRF (e) None of these

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 (a) CMBEH (b) CMBHE (c) CBMEH
17. In a certain code language, PURSE is written as KFIHV, (d) EBMHE (e) None of these
then what will be the code of CHAIR?
(a) IRSZX (b) IRZSX (c) SZXIR 27. If MIRACLE is written as QBSTUZW and GAMBLE is
(d) XSZRI (e) None of these written as ATQCZW, then how will REAL be written in the same
code?
18. In a certain code language, FATHER is written as IVSGZU. (a) TZWS (b) SWZT (c) WSTZ
How will CRUELTY be written in that code language? (d) SWTZ (e) None of these
(a) VOCVZRL (b) VPCVZRL (c) VPVCZRL
(d) BGOVFIX (e) None of these Directions (28-30) : Study the following letters and their
corresponding digit codes followed by certain conditions of
19. If in certain language, BROUGHT is coded as CSPVHIV, coding and answer the questions given below them by finding
which word would be coded as GBNPVT? out which of the digit combinations given in (a), (b), (c) and (d)
(a) FARMER (b) HCOQWU (c) FRAMES is the coded form of the letter-groups given in each question
(d) FARMES (e) FAMOTH and mark your answer accordingly.
Letter: P N A J I R E B U K
20. In a certain code, EVOLUTIONARY is coded as Code: 4 2 7 0 5 6 3 9 1 8
YRANOITULOVE. Which word would be coded as
NOITINUMMA? Conditions :
(a) ANMOMIUTNI (b) AMNTOMUIIN (1) If both the first and the last letters in the group are vowels,
(c) AMMUNITION (d) NMMUNITIOA both should be coded as *.
(e) None of these (2). If both the first and the last letters in the group are
consonants, both should be coded as £.
21. In a certain code language :
(i) “nip zip tip” means “summer is hot”. 28. EIJAKU
(ii) “to tip de” means “winter is cold”. (a) #70892 (b) 350781 (c) *5078*
(iii) “de nip doo” means “winter or summer”. (d) £50734 (e) None of these
(iv) “to the da” means “nights are cold”.
Which word in that language represent “winter” 29. RPBJNI
(a) nip b) de (c) zip (d) da (a) 803917 (b) 462095 (c) *4902*
(e) None of these (d) 649025 (e) None of these

22. In a certain code, NOVEMBER is written as ERMBVENO. 30. NREKIA

Which word will be written as IEUAACEV in that code? (a) 362875 (b) 263857 (c) 86385£
(a) VACUATEA (b) CAVEETAU (d) *6385* (e) None of these
(c) EVACUAIE (d) VECAAUET
(e) None of these

23. If in a certain code, S is written as O, N as P, E as M, I as A,

D as E, U as C, T as S, R as N then how will INDUSTRIES be
written in that code ?
(a) CPEAOMNASO (b) APCESOANMO
(c) APECOSNAMO (d) PACEOSNAMO
(e) None of these

24. If the word REVERSE be written as APUPATP in coded

form, how can RESERVE be written following the same coding
?
(a) RQPUPMN (b) SQRPUVW
(c) PATAPUP (d) APTPAUP
(e) None of these

25. If in a certain code, R is written as S, E as P, F as Q, I as M,

G as N, A as B, T as Z, O as Y then how will REFRIGERATOR
be written in that code ?
(a) PSQSNMSPZBSY (b) QSSPPSMNBZYS
(c) SPQSMNPSBZYS (d) PSBZYSSPQSMN
(e) None of these

26. In a certain code, TABLE is written as PBCME and GRADE

as QSBHE. Following the same rule of coding, what should be
the code for the word BLADE?

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 03 Blood Relation
This type of test is to test candidate’s ability about blood
relation. In this type of test, questions are given such that the
relation of two persons is given and the relation of the other is
to be found out.
For this, we use family tree. To build a family tree, certain (c) C is D’s uncle
standard notations are used to indicate a relationship between (d) A has only two children F and C, one male and one female.
the members of the family.
Notifications
1. A is a male A+
2. A is a female A-
3. Sex of A not known A
4. A and B are married to each other A↔B
5. A and B are siblings A=B

6. A and C are B’s Children

(e) E is C’s father
To make a family tree from the given duties we will first identify
the males and the females in the family and then try to put each
member in their respective position in the tree.

Ex.1 : A, B, C, D, E and F are related to each other as given

here. B is f’s daughter in law D is A’s only grandchild. C is D’s
only uncle. A has only 2 children F and C, one male and one
female. E is the father of C.
(i) Who is the grandmother of D ?
(ii) Who is the mother-in-law of B ?

Step I : Identify the sex of A, B, C, D, E and F.

Question I and II can be answered easily by looking at the family
(a) B is f’ daughter in law → B-
tree. A is the grandmother of D and F is the mother in law of B.
(b) C is D’s only uncle C+
(c) A has 2 children F and C, one male and one female, since C
Ex 2 : Meena is Pankaj’s daughter. Reena is Pankaj’s sister.
is male, F is female.
Reena’s daughter is Diya and Reena’s Son is Ram. Tina is
→ F-
Diya’s only maternal aunt.
(d) E is the father of C.→ E+
Q. 1: Meena is Tina’s
(a) aunt (b) niece (c) uncle
Step II :
(d) none of these
Use the conditions to arrange A, B, C, D, E and F is these tree
generations.
Q. 2: Diya is Pankaj’s :
(a) nephew (b) niece (c) uncle
(d) can’t be say

Q. 3: Ram is Tina’s :
(a) niece (b) aunt (c)
(a) B is F’s daughter in law nephew
(d) none of these

Solutions :

(b) D is A’s only grand child

Ans. 1 :
(d) Meena is Tina’s daughter

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Ans. 2: (b) niece Hence the mother of the portrait is the wife of Mohan.

Ans. 3: (c) nephew Ex. 5 : Introducing a lady, a man said, “Her mother is the only
daughter of my mother-in- law”. What is the man to the lady.
Ex. 3 : If (i) P + Q means, P is the mother of Q (A) Son (B) Brother (C) Uncle (D)
(ii) P – Q means, P is the brother of Q Father
(iii)P  Q means, P is the father of Q.
(iv) P  Q means, P is the sister of Q. Sol. :
Which of the following shows the relation that X is a paternal (D) Since the mother-in-law of the man is the mother of the
uncle of Y ? mother of the lady, therefore, the lady is the daughter of the man.
(A) X – M + N  Y (B) Y  M + N × X
(C) X – M – N × Y (D) X – M × N  Y

Solutions :
(A) X – M + N  Y

Practice Set:

1. Rohan is the brother of Sohan, and Mohan is the father of

Rohan, Raman is the brother of Diya and Diya is daughter of
Sohan. Who is the uncle of Raman ?
(a) Sohan (b) Mohan (c) Rohan
(A) It is not necessary to check B, because X in the extreme right (d) can’t be determined (e) none of these
of the statement, and we can not know about his gender. 2. If L is the husband of M and N is the mother of O and M, what
is N to L ?
(B) X – M – N  Y (a) Mother (b) Sister (c) Aunt
X + = M + = N- = Y (d) Mother in law (e) none of these
3. Pointing at a photo, Jagdish said, “His father is the only son
(C) X – M  N  Y of my mother”. The photo belongs to –
(a) Jagdish (b) Jagdish’s brother
(c) Jagdish’s father (d) Jagdish’s son (e) none of
these

4. P is the mother of Q and R. If S is the husband of R, what is P

to S ?
So, in this statement, X is the paternal uncle of Y. (a) Mother (b) Sister (c) Mother-in-law
(d) Aunt (e) none of these
Ex. 4 :
Looking at a portrait of a man, Mohan said, “His mother is the 5. Introducing a lady, a man said, “Her mother is the only
wife of my father’s son”. Brothers and sisters I have none”. At daughter of my mother-in-law”. What is the man to the lady?
whose portrait was Mohan looking. (a) Son (b) Brother (c) Uncle
(A) His son (B) his nephew (d) Husband (e) Father
(C) his cousin (D) his uncle 6. If X is the brother of Y, Z is the sister of X, P is the brother of
J and J is the daughter of Y, who is the uncle of P?
Sol. : (a) Y (b) Z (c) J (d) X
(e) none of these

7. A man said to a lady, “The son of your only brother is the

brother of my wife”. What is the lady to the man?
(a) Mother (b) sister (c) Sister of father-in-law
(d) Grandmother (e) Maternal aunt
8. If L is the brother of M and A, B is the mother of M and C is
the father of L. Which one of the following statement is not
definitely true?
(a) M is the brother of A (b) L is the father of A
Since Mohan has neither a sister nor brother, therefore Sanjay (c) L is the son of B (d) B is the wife of C
is the only son of his father. (e) L is the son of C

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 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 6 (d) 9
9. Pointing to a man, a woman said, “His mother is the only (e) None of these
daughter of my mother”. How is the women related to the man?
(a) Mother (b) Daughter (c) Grandmother 20. A is the husband of B, I is the only grandson of F, M is the
(d) Sister (e) None of these father in law of B. How is A related to F?
(a) Sister (b) Mother-in-law (c)
10. If (i) B * C means B is the brother of C (ii) B • C means B is Mother
the daughter of C (iii) B ∆ C means B is the sister of C. Which (d) Wife (e) None of these
one of the following shows the relation that X is the maternal
uncle of Y? 21. X’s father is Y’s son. O is the paternal uncle of X and R is
(a) X∆Z•Y (b) X*Z•Y (c) Y•Z∆X the brother of Y. How is R related to O?
(d) Y•Z*X (e) none of these (a) Brother (b) Nephew (c)
Cousin
11. Pointing to a boy, Mukesh said, “His only brother’s mother (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
is my father’s wife”. How is Mukesh related to that boy?
(a) Uncle (b) Father (c) Nephew 22. S, the son-in-law of P, is the brother-in-law of Qwho is the
(d) Brother (e) none of these brother of R. How is Q related to P?
(a) Brother (b) Son (c)
12. If X’s mother was Y’s mother’s daughter. How was Y related Father
to X? (d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
(a) Father (b) Sister (c) Brother
(d) Paternal Uncle (e) Maternal uncle 23. Pointing to a photograph a woman said, “She is the only
daughter of my mother’s father”. How is the woman related to
13. Introducing a woman, a man said, “Her mother’s husband’s the person in the photograph?
sister is my aunt”. How is the man related to the woman? (a) Mother (b) Grandmother
(a) Nephew (b) Father (c) Brother-in-law (c) Daughter (d) Cannot be determined
(d) Cousin (e) Uncle (e) none of these

14. M and N are brothers. O and P are sisters. M’s son is P’s Directions (24 - 25): Read the following statement carefully
brother. How is N related to O? and answer the following questions.
(a) Father (b) Brother (c) Uncle X is the father of Z. But Z is not his son. E is the daughter of Z.
(d) Grandfather (e) none of these F is the spouse of X. G is the spouse of Y. H is the father of G. Y
is brother of Z. D is the son of Y.
15. Old man’s son is my son’s uncle, then what relation has the 24. Who is the Grandmother of D ?
old man to me? (a) H (b) X (c) Z (d) F
(a) Brother (b) Father (c) Grandfather (e) None of these
(d) Uncle (e) none of these
25. Who is the son of F ?
16. If (1) A + B means „A is the sister of B’ ; (2) A – B means (a) Y (b) Z (c) E (d) D
„A is the father of B’ ; (3) A  B means „A is the brother of B’. (e) None
Which of the following means „X is the aunt of Y’? Directions (26-28) : Read the information given below to
(a) X + M – Y (b) X – M  Y (c) M – M + Y answer these questions :
(d) X  M – Y (e) none as there is no symbol for aunt. Isha and Rohan are a married couple having two daughter,
Naina and Diya. Diya is married to Abhay who is the son of
Direction (Q.17-18): Read the following information carefully Kiran and Varun. Vandana is the daughter of Abhay. Payal, who
and answer the questions given below : is Abhay’s sister, is married to Harshit and has two sons, Nanu
Soni is son of Vivek’s father’s sister. Manish is son of Bhakti who and Banku. Banku is the grandson of Kiran and Varun.
is mother of Mayank and grandmother of Vivek. Mukesh is father 26. What is the relationship between Nanu and Vandana ?
of Manu and grandfather of Soni. Bhakti is wife of Mukesh. (a) Cousins (b) Husband –Wife (c) Father –
17. How is Soni related to Bhakti? Daughter
(a) Nephew (b) Grandson (c) Son (d) Uncle –Niece (e) None of these
(d) Date inadequate (e) None of these
27. How is Payal related to Diya?
18. How is Mayank’s wife related to Manu? (a) Aunt (b) Sister-in-law (c) Sister
(a) Niece (b) Sister (c) Sister-in-law (d) Mother (e) None of these
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
28. Which of the following is true ?
19. In a joint family, there are father, mother, 3 married sons (a) Varun is Diya’s maternal uncle
and one unmarried daughter. Of the sons, two have 2 daughters (b) Nanu is the son of Naina
each, and one has a son. How many female members are there (c) Kiran is Harshit’s mother-in-law
in the family? (d) Vandana is the cousin of Payal
(e) None of these

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 04 Number Series
29. Mr. A is a Police Officer. B is the brother in law of C’s sister
D. D is the wife of her brother’s boss A. What is the relationship In these type of questions, given a series of numbers. The terms
of C and B with A ? in the series follows a particular pattern (rule) throughout the
(a) Brother and brother in law (b) Brother in law and series. We are required to study the series and identify the
brother pattern for completing the series.
(c) Subordinate and brother in law (d) Friend and brother in
law Ex.1] 5, 1, 6, 7, 13, 20, 33, ?
(e) None of these (a) 50 (b) 53 (c) 55 (d) 58
(e) None of these
30. Pointing towards someone said, “She is my father’s sister
and she is the only daughter”. How many children had my Sol.(b)
grandfather?
(a) Two sons
(b) One daughter
(c) One son and one daughter
(d) Cannot be determined
(e) None of these
Ex.2] 5, 2, 6, 4, 7, 8, 8, ?, 9
(a) 10 (b) 15 (c) 16 (d) 18
(e) None of these

Sol.(c):

Ex.3] 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, ?

(a) 100 (b) 121 (c) 144 (d) 169
(e) None of these

Sol.(b):1 9 25 49 81 ….
12 32 52 72 92 112
2
= 11 = 121

Ex.4] 160, 80, 40, ____, 10

(a) 20 (b) 15 (c) 25 (d) 35
(e) None of these

Sol.(a):

Ex.5] 111, 100, 87, ____, 55, 36

(a) 83 (b) 64 (c) 72 (d) 78
(e) None of these
Sol.(c):

Practice set:

1. 3125, 625, ________ ,25, 5,1

(a) 50 (b) 55 (c) 125 (d) 124

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(e) None of these 17. 36, 20, 12, 8, 6 ____
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 5
2. 8, 13, 22, 39, 72, _____ (e) None of these
(a) 137 (b) 135 (c) 133 (d) 131
(e) None of these 18.
(a) (b) (c)
3. 0.6, 0.06, 0.006, ______ 0.00006 :
(a) .06 (b) .00006 (c) .006 (d) .0006 (d) (e) None of these
(e) None of these
19. 7,11,13,17,19 __ , __ 29,31.
4. 302 : 502 : : 601 : ______ (a) 26 (b) 23 (c) 24 (d) 25
(a) 401 (b) 702 (c) 701 (d) 802 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
20. 1, 9, 25, 49, 81, _____
5. _____, 3219, 5231, 7243, 9255. (a) 101 (b) 103 (c) 111 (d) 121
(a) 1226 (b) 2226 (c) 1216 (d) 1207 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
21. 4: 16 :: 16 : _______ ?
6. 8 : 16 : : ____ : 24. (a) 32 (b) 12 (c) 4 (d) 256
(a) 3 (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 12 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
22. 6: 84 :: 7 _______ ?
7. 12, 78, 13, 91, 14, ____, 15 (a) 98 (b) 92 (c) 89 (d) 91
(a) 100 (b) 102 (c) 98 (d) 105 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
23. 295, 259, 234, ___ 209, 205
8. 7,15,31,55, _____, 127 (a) 220 (b) 218 (c) 225 (d) 230
(a) 41 (b) 77 (c) 47 (d) 87 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
24. 5, 6, 14, 45, ________ 925.
9. 7, 26, 63, ____, 215, 342. (a) 90 (b) 180 (c) 184 (d) 525
(a) 105 (b) 104 (c) 124 (d) 13 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
25. 169 : ________ :: 361 : 289
10. 1, 5, 14, 30, 55, _____ (a) 196 (b) 169 (c) 144 (d) 121
(a) 88 (b) 91 (c) 72 (d) 56 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
26. 412, 387, 362, 337, ______
11. 45, 44, 42, 39, ?, ?: (a) 302 (b) 312 (c) 300 (d) 217
(a) 35, 29 (b) 35, 30 (c) 38, 36 (d) 35, 28 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
27. -4, -1, 4, 11, 20, _____
12. 3, 7, 13, 21, ?, ?: (a) 30 (b) 31 (c) 32 (d) 33
(a) 30, 41 (b) 30, 45 (c) 31, 43 (d) 35, 48 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
28. 15, 16, 20, 29, 45, 70, _______
13. 3 : 4 : 5 : : 9 : ____ : 41. (a) 106 (b) 96 (c) 102 (d) 76
(a) 35 (b) 40 (c) 45 (d) 12 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
29. 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, _________
14. 18, 2, 36, 3, 108, 4, _____ ? (a) 30 (b) 35 (c) 34 (d) 32
(a) 228 (b) 256 (c) 456 (d) 432 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
30. 1,8, 27, 64, 125, 216 ______
15. 7, 12, 22, 37, 57, ____ ? (a) 512 (b) 342 (c) 343 (d) 334
(a) 69 (b) 77 (c) 82 (d) 89 (e) None of these
(e) None of these

16. Find the missing no. of the series : 0, ?, 10, 18, 28.
(a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (d) 4
(e) None of these

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 05 Letter Series
6. AB, EF, IJ, MN, ____
In this series given alphabets follow a particular sequence or (a) WX (b) YZ (c) QR (d) XY
order. We have to detect the pattern from the given alphabets (e) None of these
and find missing alphabet or the next alphabet to continue the
pattern. 7. 2B2, 5E5, 8H8, ______, 14N14
(a) 8 G 8 (b) 11K11 (c) 11 I 11
Ex. 1 : ABZ, BCY, CDX, DEW, ……. (d) 9K9
(a) EFV (b) DEF (c) FEV (e) None of these
(d) DEV
(e) None of these 8. MOST, MOTS, MSTO, MSOT, MTOS, _____
Sol.(a) : EFV (a) MTSO (b) MOST (c) MSOT (d) TSOM
(e) None of these
Ex. 2 : ……., PSV, EHK, TWZ, ILO
(a) BEH (b) ADG (c) IMP (d) ZCF 9. AEWS, BFXT, ______, DHZV
(e) None of these (a) CGTX (b) CGXT (c) CGYU (d) CTXG
Sol.(b) : ADG (e) None of these

Ex. 3 : C, F, J, O, U, …… 10. BDF, CFI, DHL, ____

(a) D (b) B (c) A (d) E (a) EJN (b) EJO (c) EIN (d) EIO
(e) None of these (e) None of these
Sol. (b) : Sequence in the given series is moving forward with
+3, +4, +5, +6, +7 and so on steps. 11. SUW, UWY, WYA, ____
(a) YZC (b) YAC (c) YBC (d) CYA
(e) None of these

12.
(a) Q/P (b) Q / S (c) Q / I (d) Q / W
(e) None of these
Ex. 4 : ba __ b __ aab __ a __ b
13. ABC, CEF, EHI, GKL, ____
(a) baab (b) abba (c) abaa (d) babb
(a) IJK (b) GHI (c) IKL (d) INO
(e) None of these (e) None of these
Sol.(b) : Pattern is baab / baab / baab
14. Y B : V E : : S H : ______
Ex. 5 : a __ ba __ cbaac __ aa __ ba
(a) UL (b) CR (c) PK (d) NM
(a) cabb (b) cabc (c) bbcc (d) cbcb
(e) None of these
(e) None of these
Sol.(b): Pattern is acba / acba / acba / acba
15. P O T A T O : T P O O A T : : 1 2 3 4 3 2 : ______ ?
(a) 312214 (b) 123456 (c) 321124 (d)
Practice set:
312243
(e) None of these
1. OE, NF, MG, LH, ____
(a) QL (b) KI (c) OK (d) GK
16. BD, EH, IM, NS, ?
(e) None of these
(a) UY (b) UZ (c) TY (d) TZ
(e) None of these
2. 11C, 24E, 37G, 50I, 63K, _____
(a) 61M (b) 69M (c) 76M (d) 71M
17. Z, X, U, Q, L, ?
(e) None of these
(a) F (b) M (c) N (d) F
(e) None of these
3. AT, CR, EP, GN, ____
(a) LI (b) IN (c) IL (d) MN
18. DEFG : HJLN : : GHIJ : ____
(e) None of these
(a) NPRT (b) NPTR (c) NPRQ (d) NPOT
(e) None of these
4. A, I, Y, W, ____
(a) Z (b) A (c) C (d) Y
19. X, N, G, C, ____
(e) None of these
(a) B (b) A (c) Y (d) W
(e) None of these
5. BC, EF, HI, KL, ____
(a) HN (b) NM (c) NO (d) ON
20. AD : N : : BC : _____
(e) None of these

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(a) U (b) V (c) W (d) P 06 Clock & Calendar:
(e) None of these
A clock has 2 hands : Hour hand and Minute hand. It has 12
21. BCD, DFH, HKN, NRV, ____ hours and 60 minutes.
360
(a) ZKU (b) ZKV (c) VAF (d) VAE In one hour, hour hand makes an angle = = 30°
12
(e) None of these 360
In one minute, minute hand makes an angle = = 6°
60
30 1
22. Y, T, U, Q, Q, N, M, K, __, __ In one minute hour hand makes an angle = = °
60 2
(a) J, I (b) I, H (c) H, J (d) K, L In every hour, both the hand coincide once
(e) None of these In a day, the hands coincides 22 times
In every 12 hours, the hands coincides 11 times
23. MH, NI, OJ, ? In every 12 hour the hands of clock are in opposite direction 11
(a) PT (b) PK (c) SP (d) KP times
(e) None of these In every 12 hour the hands of clock are at right angle 22 times
In every hour, the two hand are at right angle twice.
24. BUCZH, DSEXJ, FQGVL, HOITN, ? 5
Both the hand coincides at an interval of 66 mins.
(a) MQORN (b) JMRKP (c) JMKRP 11

(d) KMRKP (e) None of these

CALENDAR :
25. Q1H, S2G, U6F, W21E, ? Earth takes 365 days, 5 hours, 48 mins and 47 ½ sec to complete
(a) Y44D (b) Y88D (c) Y88B (d) Y44B one revolution.
(e) None of these An ordinary years have 365 days i.e. 52 weeks and 1 odd days
leap years have 366 days i.e. 52 weeks and 2 odd days.
26. K6M, I10P, G14S, E18V, ? The first and last day of an ordinary year is same.
(a) C17Y (b) C22Y (c) C66Y(d) D23Y e.g. → If on 15 august 2010, its Sunday
(e) None of these then on 15 august 2011, its Monday
& on 15 august 2009 its Saturday.
27. CFE, G __ I, K __ M Leap year → The year which is divisible by 4 is called leap year.
(a) H L (b) J N (c) D J (d) N K e.g. → 1996, 2000, 20 04, 2008, 2012 etc.
(e) None of these Leap century → The year which is divisible by 400 is called Leap
century.
28. V, S, __, N, L e.g. → 1600, 2000, 2400 etc
(a) S (b) P (c) Q (d) R Odd – days out
(e) None of these 100 years contains (76 ordinary years & 24 leap year) 5 odd
days.
29. Z, X, S, I, R, R, ?, ? 200 years contains 3 odd days
(a) J I (b) J K (c) G I (d) G H 300 years contain 1 odd days
(e) None of these 400 years contain 0 odd days.
The month having 31 days contains (4 x 7 + 3) 3 odd days
30. T1C, Q3E, N9G, K31I, ? The month having 30 days contains (4 x 7 + 2) 2 odd days.
(a) H31K (b) K119H (c) H129K (d) K121I In an ordinary year February have no odd days.
(e) None of these In a leap year it has 1 odd days.
The day on 31 December 1600 is Sunday

Ex. 1:
What is the angle between hour hand and minute hand when it
was 5 : 45 pm

Ex. 2:
What was day on 23rd march 1931.
Sol. 31 Dec. 1600 its Sunday and 31 Dec. 1900 its Monday.
No. of odd days 31 Dec. 1900 to 23 march 1931 = 42
42
→ reminder = 0
7
On 23rd March 1931 it was Monday.

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Ex. 3: At what time between 5.30 & 6 will the hands on a clock (a) 66 times (b) 48 times (c) 44 times
be at right angle. (d) 96 times (e) None of these
Sol.: At 5 both the hands are 25 mins apart & to be at right both
the hands have to be 15 min apart shown in fig. 1 & fig. 2 7. Which day of week was on 30th June 1996
(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Tuesday
(d) Wednesday (e) None of these

8. Which day of week was on 17th April 2008?

(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Thursday
(d) Wednesday (e) None of these

9. If 19th March 1992 was Monday then which day of the week
Now, min hand has to travel 25+15 = 40 min So, 55 min space on 7th April 1999?
60
is gained in 60 mins.40 min space is gained in × 40 = (a) Monday (b) Tuesday (c) Wednesday
55
7 (d) Thursday (e) None of these
43 𝑚𝑖𝑛
11
7
Both the hands are at right angle at 43 𝑝𝑎𝑠𝑡 5 10.If find number of days from 18th Jan to 27th March?
11
(a) 69 (b) 68 (c) 67
Ex. 4: If on 15th Jan 1993 its Monday then what day of the week (d) cannot be determined (e) None
will be on 17 Aug. 2004.
Sol. No. of odd days = (2004 - 1993) + 2 + 19 = 32 11. Find the number of days from 29th June to 18th September?
32 (a) 81 (b) 82 (c) 80
→ reminder = 4
7 (d) cannot be determined (e) None
On 17th Aug. 2004 it was Friday.
12. If 14 November 1999 was Wednesday then which day of week
Ex. 5: It is Sunday on 13th Jan 1980, then on 13 Jan 2012 what was on 14th February 2003?
will be the day of week. (a) Wednesday (b) Thursday (c) Friday
Sol. No. of odd days = (2012 - 1980) + 8 = 40 (d) Saturday (e) None of these
32
→Remainder = 5
7
On 13 Jan 2012 it will be Friday 13. In a clock the time is 9:48 then what will be time if we see
that clock in mirror?
Practice set: (a) 3:12 (b) 3:15 (c) 3:48 (d) 2:52
(e) None of these
1. What will be the angle between hands of a clock at 7:40?
(a) 15° (b) 10° (c) 20° (d) 25° 14. What will be angle between hands of clock at 8:35.
(e) None of these 1° 1° 1° 1°
(a) 72 (b) 87 (c) 25 (d) 105
2 2 2 2
(e) None of these
2. What will be the angle between the hands of a clock at 3:07?
1° 1° 1°
(a) 51° (b) 51 (c) 52 (d) 55 15. If today is Monday then what will be the day of week after 49
2 2 2
(e) None of these days?
(a) Friday (b) Saturday (c) Sunday (d)
3. At what time between 2 & 3 O’clock the hands of a clock will Monday
be coincide? (e) None of these
5 10 1
(a) 2:5 (b) 2:10 (c) 2:19 (d)
11 11 11 16. If 19 Jan was Tuesday then which day of the week will be on
5
2:25 19th March?
11
(e) None of these (a) Saturday (b) Friday (c) Sunday (d) A or B
(e) Can’t be determine
4. At what time between 9 & 10 O’clock the hands of a clock will
be in opposite direction? 17. After 1997 which year has the same calendar as year 1997?
10 5 2 (a) 1999 (b) 2003 (c) 2007
(a) 9:10 (b) 9:5 (c) 9:18 (d)
11 11 11
4 (d) Can’t be determine (e) None
9:16
11
(e) None of these 18. In mirror a clock shows the time 5:18 then what will be the
actual time?
5. How many times hands of clock will be at right angle in 3 (a) 7:42 (b) 6:42 (c) 11:18 (d) 10:18
days? (e) None of these
(a) 198 times (b) 66 times (c) 132 times
(d) 144 times (e) None of these 19. At a time minute hand is at 5 and the difference between
6. How many times hands of a clock will be in opposite direction 1°
minute and hour hand is 47 then what would be time.
in 2 days? 2

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(a) 1: 25 (b) 2:25 (c) 3:25 (d) 4:25 07 Ranking
(e) None of these
Questions on counting are based on height, weight, distance,
20. What will be the angle between hands of a clock at 2:38? number, rank, obtained marks etc. of a person, place or things.
(a) 210° (b) 150° (c) 175° (d) 185° On the basis of these information we arrange the given data and
(e) None of these then solve the question given.

21. At 9 O’ Clock, the hour hand points towards south. then in Type I :
which direction will the minute hand point at 7:30 pm. Formula → Ranking from one end = [Total number – Ranking
(a) North (b) South (c) South East (d) East from other end] + 1
(e) None of these
Ex. 1 In a class of 27 students Rank of M is 14 th . Find his Rank
22. In which day of the week did India got its independence. from other end.
(a) Monday (b) Sunday (c) Friday Sol. : Rank from other end = (27 - 14) + 1 = 14
(d) Saturday (e) None of these
Ex. 2 The Rank of Mohit and Rohit is 15th & 16th respectively. In
23. If on 13 Jan 2012 its was Friday then what day will be on 17 a class of 51 students. Find their rank from other end.
June 2012. Sol. Mohit’s Rank = 51 – 15 + 1 = 37th
(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Wednesday Rohit’s Rank = 51 – 16 + 1 = 36th
(d) Tuesday (e) None of these
Type II
24. If there are 5 Monday in June month of a year then what day
Formula used → Total No’s of students = [Rank from one end
of the week will be on 1 June.
+ Rank from other end] – 1
(a) Saturday (b) Sunday (c) Friday
(d) Tuesday (e) None of these
Ex. 1 In a row of students, the Rank of Ram is 8 th from left and
29th from right. How many students are there in the row.
25. It on 25 Dec. it was Sunday then which month of that year
Sol. No. of students = (8 + 29) – 1 = 36
will have Sunday on 25th.
(a) October (b) November (c) September (d)
Ex. 2 In a class, the Rank of Mohan is 8 th from top and Rohan is
January
19th from the bottom. How many students are there in the class.
(e) None of these
Sol. As we do not know the number of student between Mohan
and Rohan.
26. Which of the following year have 29 days in February?
So we cannot find the Number of students in the class.
(a) 1978 (b) 1900 (c) 1834 (d) 2010
(e) None of these
Type III
Ranking based on comparison of person / things / place
27. What day of the week will be on 13 Jan 2013.
(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Tuesday
Ex. 1 Veena is younger than Rina but elder than Tina. Riya is
(d) Saturday (e) None of these
younger than Priya but elder than Rina. Who is youngest among
them.
28. Aniket was born on 24 October 2010 what will be the day of
Sol. Rina > Veena > Tina
week when he will be of 18 years.
Priya > Riya > Rina
(a) Sunday (b) Monday (c) Tuesday
 Priya > Riya > Rina > Veena > Tina
(d) Saturday (e) None of these
So, Tina is the youngest one.
29. Yashi was born on 03 July 1981. It was Friday on which day
Ex. 2 Dhruv, who is larger than Sohan, who is shorter than Rishi.
of week will she be of 13 years 5 months 18 days.
Bablu is shorter than Sohan but larger than Kamal. Rishi is
(a) Tuesday (b) Thursday (c) Friday
shorter than Dhruv. Who is the largest one.
(d) Wednesday (e) None of these
Sol.
Dhruv > Sohan
30. Which month begins and ends on the same day of the week.
Sohan < Rishi
(a) February (b) April (c) Dec. of the year
Sohan > Bablu > Kamal
(d) Feb. of the leap year (e) None
Dhruv > Rishi
 Dhruv > Rishi > Sohan > Bablu > Kamal
So Dhruv is the largest one.
Ex. 3 Out of 5 river P, Q, R, S and T. P is shorter than Q but
larger than T. R is the longest one, S is shorter than Q but a
longer than P. Which is the shortest river ?
Sol. T < P < Q and P < S < Q and R is the longest
T<P<S<Q<R
T is the shortest river.

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Type IV 3. How many 8’s immediately preceded by 7 but not immediately
followed by 5 are there in the following series ?
Ex. 1 In a row of students, Rohit’s rank is 7th from left and 85287537843489538782507853
Rahul’s rank is 12th from right. There are 15 students in between (a) One (b) Two (c) Four (d) Six
Rohit and Rahul. Find the no. of student in the row, they (e) None of these
interchange their position.
4. In the series given below, count the number of 7’s, each of
which is not immediately preceded by 8 but is immediately
followed by either 1 or 3. How many such 7’s are there?
27168735373187173451275
(a) One (b) Three (c) Five (d) Six
(e) None of these
Sol.
5. How many 1’s are there preceded by 9 but not followed by 3.
3573249126791643289143832569139582
0489163
(a) Three (b) Four (c) Five (d) Six
(e) None of these

6. If the following series is written in the reverse order, which

number will be third to the right of the sixth number from the
left?
6, 2, 1, 0, 5, 11, 13, 7, 3, 9, 7, 0, 3, 8, 4
Total no. of student = [Position of Rohit from left + Position of
(a) 13 (b) 5 (c) 9 (d) 0
Rohit from right] – 1
(e) None of these
= 22 + 12 – 1 = 33
7. In the following sequence of instructions, 1 stands for Win, 2
Trick → Total no. of student = [Interchanged position of Rohit
stands for Loss, 3 stands for Tie, 4 stands for Draw and 5 stands
+ Initial position of Rahul]– 1
for Cancel. If the sequence were continued, which instruction
will come next ?
Ex. 2 In a row of students Naman’s rank is 16th from left and
44545345314531245453453
Suresh’s rank is 16th from right. If there are 1/3rd of total students
(a) Cancel (b) Draw (c) Tie (d) Loss
between them. What is total number of students.
(e) Win
Sol.
8. In a school, the following codes were used during physical
exercise. „1’ means „start playing’, „2’ means „keep waiting’,
„3’ means „start logging at the same spot’, „4’ means „sit
relax’. How many times will a student who perform the following
sequence without error from the beginning to the end have to
relax. ?
But total no. of student be x 123423144322124314412
Then x = 16 + x/3 + 16 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
 x = 48 (e) None of these

Practice Set: 9. Thirty six vehicle are parked in a parking lot in a single row.
After the first Scorpio, there is one Bike. After the second
1. How many 6’s are there in the following number sequence Scorpio, there are two Bikes. After the third Scorpio, there are
which are immediately preceded by 8 and immediately followed three Bikes and so on. Work out the number of Bikes in the
by 7 ? 8 6 6 9 4 6 8 7 4 6 9 7 8 6 7 8 7 4 3 2 6 7 8 7 second half of the row.
(a) One (b) Two (c) Three (d) Four (a) 12 (b) 10 (c) 15 (d) 16
(e) None of these (e) None of these

2. How many 8’s are there in the following number series, each Directions (Q. 10-12) : Read the following information
of which is immediately preceded by 2 or 7 and immediately carefully to answer the questions given below :
followed by 4 or 6 ? A person is asked to put in a basket one Orange when ordered
1845783168243284627861428734126852 “One”, one Kiwi when ordered “Two”, one Mango when
84 ordered „Three’ and is asked to take out from the basket one
(a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three range and one Kiwi both when ordered “Four”. The order
(e) None of these sequence executed by the person is as follows:
12332142314223314113234

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10. How many fruits will be there in the basket at the end of the 20. The positions of how many digits in the number 213654987
above order sequence? will remain same when the digits are arranged is ascending
(a) 10 (b) 11 (c) 12 (d) 13 order?
(e) None of these (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
(e) Four
11. How many Kiwis will be there in the basket at the end of the
above order sequence? 21. How many such digits are there in the number 587296341,
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 each of which is as far away from the beginning of the number
(e) None of these as when the digits are arranged in descending order?
(a) Four (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
12. How many Oranges will be there in the basket at the end of (e) None of these
the above order sequence?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 1 22. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number
(e) None of these 7514632 each of which has as many digits between them in the
number as after arranging the digits in descending order?
13. If the first and second digits in the sequence 4567932413 are (a) None (b) One (c) Two (d) Three
interchanged, also the third and fourth digits, the fifth and sixth (e) None of these
digits and so on, which digit would be the sixth counting from
your left? 23. How many such pairs of digits are there in the number
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 9 84153726 each of which has as many digits between them in the
(e) None of these number as when they are arranged in ascending order?
(a) Two (b) Three (c) Four (d) Five
14. The positions of the second and the eight digits of the number (e) More than three
30892574 are interchanged. Similarly, the positions of the fourth
and the fifth digits are interchanged. The positions of the first 24. If it possible to make a number which is perfect square of a
and the sixth digits are interchanged and the positions of the two-digit number with the second, the six and the ninth digits of
third and the seventh digits interchanged. Which of the following the number 147682593, which of the following is the digit in the
will be the third digit to the left of 3 after the rearrangement? unit’s place of that two-digit number ?
(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 8 (a) 2 (b) 8 (c) 6
(e) 9 (d) No such number can be made (e) None of these

15. The positions of the first and the fifth digits in the number 25. If it is possible to form a number which is perfect square of
98032546 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the a two-digit odd number using the second, the fourth and the
second and the sixth digits are interchanged and so on. Which of seventh digits of the number 793142658 using each only once,
the following will be the second to the right of the fifth digit from which of the following is the second digit of that two-digit odd
the right end after rearrangement? number?
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 7 (d) 9 (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 7
(e) None of these (e) None of these

16. If the positions of the first and the sixth digits of the number 26. Which of the following three-digit numbers will be second
8127965430 are interchanged. Similarly the positions of the largest among them after 2 is subtracted from the middle digit of
second and the seventh digits are interchanged and so on, which each number and the positions of the first and the third digits are
of the following will be the third to the left of eighth digit from interchanged ?
the left end? (a) 863 (b) 984 (c) 275 (d) 358
(a) 0 (b) 1 (c) 7 (d) 8 (e) 479
(e) None of these
17. What will be the difference between the sum of the even digits Directions (Q. 27 - 29) : The digits of each of the following five
and the sum of the odd digits in the number 875621? numbers are written in reverse order and five new number are
(a) 0 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 4 obtained :
(e) None of these 614 827 593 956 249
27. Which of the following will be the middle digit of the third
18. If each of the odd digits in the number 72456 is decreased by number from the top when the new numbers are arranged in
1 and each of the even digits is increased by 1, then which of the descending order ?
following will be the sum of the digits of the new number? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 5 (d) 9
(a) 25 (b) 26 (c) 28 (d) 29 (e) None of these
(e) None of these
19. How many times will you write even digits if you write all the 28. Which of the following original numbers retains the same
numbers from 491 to 500? position from the top when arranged in descending order even
(a) 11 (b) 13 (c) 15 (d) 17 after the positions of the digits are reversed?
(a) 249 (b) 593 (c) 614 (d) 827
(e) 956

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29. Which of the following will be the third digit of the second 08 Direction Sense Test
highest new number?
(a) 1 (b) 5 (c) 9 (d) 8 The main objective of these types of question is to check the
(e) None of these direction sense ability in students preparing for various
competitive exams.
30. In the numbers from 100 to 1000, how many times digit 2
comes at the ten’s place? There are 4 main direction namely – North, South, East and West
(a) 9 (b) 10 (c) 90 (d) 900 As shown in fig.
(e) None of these

If a person is standing on a point then

On his top – North
On bottom – South
On right side – East
On left side – West

These 4 directions are perpendicular to each other

There are 4 cardinal directions also namely – North east, North
west, South east, South-west.

These directions are also perpendicular to each other.

Main direction and cardinal direction’s makes an angle of 45°

• We should be aware of left and right of each directions.

If we are moving towards any directions then

Our right is Direction’s Right
Our left is Direction’s left.

To determine the minimum distance

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Pythagoras formula is very helpful

H² = P² + B²
H = Hypotenuse, P = Perpendicular, B = Base

Ex. 1 : A walks 30m towards east direction and then turns to the
north and walk 40m. how far is he from his original position
Sol.

Pankaj is10 km away from his house and in the North direction.

Ex. 4 : Pankaj moves 10 km towards South and then turns right

and after walking a particular directions, he again turns right
and walk 10 km. In which direction should he moves to reach his
original position.
Sol.

AC² = AB² + BC²

= (30)² + (40)²
AC = 50m

Ex 2 : A man walks 20m towards north and then he turns left and
walks 10m. he again turns left and walks 20m now he turns right
an walks another 15m. How far is he from his original position.
Sol. Pankaj should walk towards east to reach his original position.

Practice set:

1. If East becomes North-West, North becomes South-West and

so on, What will North-East become ?
(a) East (b) West (c) South (d) North
(e) None of these

2. Rohit faces towards north. Turning to his right, he walks 15

metres. He then turns to his left and walks 25 metres. Next, he
moves 15 metres to his right. He then turns to his right again and
walks 40 metres. Finally, he turns to the right and moves 20
metres. In which direction is he now from his starting point?
(a) South west (b) South (c) North west
(d) South east (e) None of these

3. Raj walks 15 km towards North. From there he walks 11 km

towards South. Then, he walks 3 km towards East. How far and
in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?
(a) 5 km west (b) 7 km west (c) 7 km east
(d) 5 km north-east (e) None of these

Ex. 3 : Pankaj moves 10km towards east from his house and then 4. Mr. Roy left for his office in his car. He drove 20 km towards
turns towards left and walks 10km, he again takes a left turn and north and then 12 km towards west. He then turned to the south
walks 10km. How far is he now & in which direction from his and covered 8 km. Further, he turned to the east and moved 8
house. km. Finally, he turned right and drove 12 km. How far and in
which direction is he from his starting point?
(a) 2 km west (b) 5 km east (c) 4 km west
(d) 3 km east (e) None of these

5. While standing on his head, Shobhit’s face is towards South.

In which direction will his right hand point?
(a) North-East (b) North (c) East
(d) South-East (e) North-West

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6. I am standing at the center of a circular field. I go down south and then starts walking to her house. In which direction is she
to the edge of the field and then turning left I walk along the walking now?
boundary of the field equal to three-eights of its length. Then I (a) North-west (b) North (c) South-east
turn and go right across to the opposite point on the boundary. (d) East (e) None of these
In which direction am I from the starting point?
(a) North-west (b) North (c) South-west 15. Six students A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a row. B is
(d) West (e) None of these between F and D. E is between A and C. A does not stand next
to either F or D. C does not stand next to D. F is between which
7. Raina walked 30 meters towards North, took a left turn and of the following pair of students?
walked 10 meters. She again took a left turn and walked 30 (a) B and D (b) B and A (c) B and E
meters. How far and in which direction is she from the starting (d) B and C (e) C and A
point?
(a) 10 m East (b) 20 m North (c) 10 m West 16. Six persons, A, B, C, D, E and F are living in houses in a
(d) 20m South (e) None of these row. B has D and F as neighbours, E has A and C as neighbours.
A does not live next to either F or D. If C does not live next to D,
8. A man leaves for his shop from his house. He walks towards who are F’s next door neighbours?
East. After moving a distance of 25 m, he turns South and walks (a) B and F (b) B and D (c) only B
15 m. Then he walks 35 m towards the West and further 5 m (d) B and C (e) Impossible to tell
towards the North. He then turns towards East and walks 10 m.
What is the straight distance (in meters) between his initial and 17. The town of Khajuri is located on Green lake. The town of
final positions? Rajan is west of Khajuri. Slkanpur is east of Rajan but west of
(a) 0 m (b) 5 m (c) 10 m Khajuri. Tekari is east of Antri but west of Slkanpur and Rajan.
(d) can’t be determined (e) None of these If they are all in the same district, which town is the farthest west
?
9. A rat runs 15 feet towards East and turns to right, runs 10 feet (a) Slkanpur (b) Tekari (c) Khajuri
and again turns to right, runs 8 feet and again turns to left, runs (d) Antri (e) None of these
6 feet and then turns to left, runs 20 feet and finally turns to left
and runs 8 feet. Now, which direction is the rat facing? 18. Two ladies and two men are playing cards and are seated at
(a) East (b) West (c) South North, East, South and West of a table. No lady is facing East.
(d) North (e) None of these Persons sitting opposite to each other are not of the same sex.
One man is facing South. Which directions are the ladies facing?
10. Vasant walked 40 meters towards East, took a right turn and (a) East and West (b) South and East
walked 50 meters. Then he took a left turn and walked 40 meters. (c) North and East (d) North and West
In which direction is he now from the starting point? (e) None of these
(a) North-East (b) East (c) South East
(d) South (e) None of these 19. The station is to the east of the office while my house is to the
south of the office. The market is to the north of the station. If the
11. A boy went to meet his uncle in another village situated 5 km distance of the market from the post office is equal to the distance
away in the North-east direction of his own village. From there of my house from the office, in which direction is the market with
he came to meet his brother in law living in a village situated 4 respect to my office?
km in the south of his uncle’s village. How far away and in what (a) North (b) East (c) North east
direction is he now from the starting point? (d) South west (e) None of these
(a) 3 km in the North (b) 3 km in the East
(c) 4 km in the East (d) 4 km in the West Directions: Study the information given below carefully and
(e) None of these answer the questions as follow :
On a play ground, Rahul, Ketan, Himanshu, Atul and Ashutosh
12. Dhruv walks 15 meters towards the South. Turning to the left, are standing as described below facing the North.
he walks 30 meters and then moves to his right. After moving a (i) Ketan is 40 meters to the right of Atul.
distance of 25 meters, he turns to the right and walks 30 meters. (ii) Rahul is 60 meters to the south of Ketan.
Finally, he turns to the right and moves a distance of 12 meters. (iii) Himanshu is 25 meters to the west of Atul.(iv) Ashutosh is
How far and in which direction is he from the starting point? 90 meters to the north of Rahul.
(a) 28 m North (b) 20 m South (c) 28 m South 20. Who is to the north-east of the person who is to the left of
(d) 20m South (e) None of these Ketan ?
13. A man walks 1 km towards East and then he turns to South (a) Rahul (b) Himanshu (c) Atul
and walks 6 km. Again he turns to East and walks 2 km, after this (d) Either Himanshu or Rahul (e) None of these
he turns to North and walks 10 km. Now, how far is he from his
starting point? 21. If a boy walks from Himanshu, meets Atul followed by Ketan,
(a) 3 km (b) 4 km (c) 5 km Rahul and then Ashutosh, how many meters has he walked if he
(d) 7 km (e) None of these has traveled the straight distance all through?
(a) 155 m (b) 185 m (c) 215 m (d) 245 m
14. Going 60 m to the South of her house, Meenu turns left and (e) None of these
goes another 25 m. Then, turning to the North, she goes 45 m

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Directions: These questions are based on the following 30. A man is facing North-East. He turns 90° in the anticlockwise
information: direction and then 135° in the clockwise direction. Which
Seven village P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are situated as follows: direction is he facing now?
T is 2 km to the west of Q. (a) West (b) North (c) South (d) East
U is 2 km to the north of P. (e) None of these
R is 1 km to the west of P.
S is 2 km to the south of V.
V is 2 km to the east of R.
S is exactly in the middle of Q and T.
22. P is in the middle of :
(a) T and R (b) T and V (c) T and V (d) V and
R
(e) None of these

23. Which two villages are the farthest from one another?
(a) S and R (b) U and T (c) U and Q (d) V and
T
(e) None of these

24. How far is T from U (in km) as the crow flies?

(a) 4 (b) √20 (c) 5 (d) √26
(e) None of these

25. I start from my home and go 3 km straight. Then I turn

towards my right and go 2 km. I turn again towards my right an
go 2 km again. If I am north-west from my house, then in which
direction did I go in the beginning?
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West
(e) None of these

26. A direction pole was situated on the crossing. Due to an

accident the pole turned in such a manner that the pointer which
was showing East, started showing South. One traveler went to
the wrong direction thinking it to be West. In what direction
actually he was traveling?
(a) North (b) South (c) East (d) West
(e) None of these

27. Kapil goes towards East five km, then he takes a turn to
South-West and goes five km. He again takes a turn towards
North-West and goes five km with respect to the point from
where he started, where is he now ?
(a) At the starting point (b) In the west
(c) In the east (d) In the North-East
(e) In the South-East.

28. Mr. Verma started walking towards South. After walking 20

m, he turned to the left and walked 20 m. he again turned to his
left and walked 20 m. how far is he from his original position
and in which direction?
(a) 15 m, North (b) 15 m, South
(c) 30 m, East (d) 15 m, West
(e) None of these

29. Rohan travelled 4 km straight towards south. He turned left

and traveled 6 km straight, then turned right and traveled 4 km
straight. How far is he from the straight point?
(a) 8 km (b) 10 km (c) 12 km (d) 18 km
(e) None

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 09 Eligibility Test 3. Yatendra Tomar has six acres of cultivated land. He has
obtained a recommendation letter from the Panchayat Pradhan.
In such type of test, a vacancy is declared. The necessary He doesn’t have any unpaid loan from the bank. He grows two
qualifications required in the candidates coming up to fill the crops in his entire land. He can produce collateral of more than
vacancy are provided and merits of the candidates mentioned. Rs. 5 lakhs.
In these questions we have to decide the course of action to be
taken upon a candidate who has applied for a vacancy or 4. Bhupendra Tomar was born on 11 th October, 1959. He has
allotment to an institution, keeping in mind essential requisites obtained a recommendation letter from the Panchayat Pradhan.
and the data given for the candidate. He has Three acres of cultivable land with two crops in each
piece of land. He can pledge Rs. 8 lakhs as collateral. He has no
Practice set: outstanding loan from the bank.

Directions (1-10) : Study the following information carefully 5. Rajan Yadav has obtained a recommendation letter from the
and answer the questions given below Panchayat Pradhan. He has six acres of cultivable land and can
Following are the conditions for granting advance of Rs. 15 produce collateral of Rs. 9 lakhs. He was born on 5th July, 1958.
lakhs to the farmers for purchasing tractor, by a Nabard Bank. He doesn’t have any outstanding loan from the bank ?
The farmer must –
(i) have at least five acres of cultivable land. 6. Bablu Rana was born on 10th April, 1959. He can produce a
(ii) be able to produce collateral of at least Rs. 8 lakhs. recommendation letter from the Panchayat Pradhan. He does
(iii) not be more than 50 years old as on 1.12.2008 not have any outstanding loan. He has a fixed deposit of Rs. 6
(iv) not have any outstanding unpaid loan from the bank. lakhs in addition to his collateral of Rs. 8 lakhs. He has four
(v) Be able to produce a recommendation letter from the acres of cultivable land with only one crop.
Panchayat Pradhan.
In the case of a farmer who satisfies all other criteria except – 7. Jatin Seth was born on 8th June, 1959. He has nine acres of
(A) at (i) above, but is able to cultivate more than one crop in cultivable land. He can produce a recommendation letter from
each piece of land, the case is to be referred to Chairman of the the Panchayat Pradhan. He can give collateral of more than Rs.
bank; 8 lakhs. He grows two crops on half of his total land.
(B) at (iv) above, but has Fixed Deposits of at least Rs. 4 lakhs
with the bank, the case is to be referred to the General Manager 8. Rajesh Pathak was born on 10th July 1960. He has obtained a
of the bank. recommendation letter from the Panchayat Pradhan. He has
Seven acres of cultuivable land and can pledge collateral of Rs.
In each question below, detailed information of one farmer is 8 lakhs in addition to his fixed deposit of Rs. 5 lakhs. He has an
given. You have to carefully study the information provided in outstanding loan of Rs. 4 lakhs.
each case and take one of the following courses of actions based
on the information and conditions given below. You are not to 9. Mohan Pal can produce a recommendation letter from the
assume anything other than the information provided in each Panchayat Pradhan. He can produce collateral of Rs. 8 lakhs.
question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.12.2005. You He has outstanding loan of Rs. 5 lakhs from the bank and also
have to indicate your decision by marking answers to each has fixed deposit of Rs. 2 lakhs with the bank. He was born on
question as follows: 10th June, 1960.

Mark answer 10. Aasif Khan has Seven acres of cultivable land and he doesn’t
(a) if the advances not to be granted ; have any outstanding loan from the bank. He can produce a
(b) if the case is to be referred to the General Manager of the recommendation letter from the Panchayat Pradhan. He can
bank; produce collateral of Rs. 9 lakhs. He was born on 20 th March
(c) if the data provided is not adequate to take a decision; 1960.
(d) if the advance is to be granted ;
(e) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman of the bank. Directions (11-20): Study the following information carefully
to answer these questions :
1. Ram Sharma was born on 16th February 1959. He has Seven Following are the criteria for selection of IT Officer in an
acres of cultivable land. He has submitted a recommendation organization :
letter issued by the Panchayat Pradhan. He can pledge
collateral of more than Rs. 8 lakhs. He doesn’t have any unpaid The candidate must –
loan from the bank. (i) be a Computer Engineer or MCA with first class having
minimum 65% marks
2. Mohit Verma was born on 16th September 1961. He has Four (ii) have secured at least 50% marks in the selection test.
acres of cultivable land. He can produce a recommendation (iii) have secured at least 40% marks in the interview
letter from the Panchayat Pradhan. He can give collateral of Rs. (iv) not be less than 21 years and not more than 30 years of age
9 lakhs and does not have any outstanding loan from the bank. as on 1.10.2010.
He grows two crops in each piece of his land. In case of a candidate who satisfies all other criteria except :
(A) At (i) above but is an Electronics Engineer with 70% marks,
the case may be reffered to the GM, Recruitment.

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(B) at (ii) above but is having at least 2 year’s experience of the Selection Test and 58% marks in the interview. He has got
working as a Systems Analyst, the case may be referred to the the work experience as programmer for 2½ years.
Chairman, Recruitment Committee.
20. Saurabh Sharma is an IT Engineer passed out with 87%
In each of the following questions, information about one marks in 2005 at the age of 22 years. He scored 70% marks in
candidate is given. You have to analyze it with reference to the the Selection Test and 76% marks in the interview.
above criteria and conditions and then decide the appropriate
course of action. You are not to assume anything other than the Directions (21-30) :Study the following information carefully
given information. All these cases are given to you as on to answer these questions :
1.10.2005.
Following are the conditions for selecting Deputy Personal
Mark Answer Managers in an organization :
(a) if the candidate is to be selected ; The candidate must –
(b) if the candidate is not to be selected ; (A) be a graduate in any subject with at least 60% marks
(c) if the case is to be referred to the Chairman, Recruitment (B) be at least 25 years and not more than 35 years old as on
Committee ; 1.12.2011.
(d) if the case is to be referred to the GM, Recruitment (C) have post-qualification work experience of at least four
(e) if the data provided are inadequate to take a decision. years in the Personal department in an organization.
(D) have obtained post graduate degree/diploma in management
11. Neha Chawla is a Computer Engineer with 78% marks. She with at least 55% marks
scored more than 60% marks in the interview and the Selection (E) have secured at least 50% marks in interview.
Test. In the case of a candidate who satisfies all the criteria except –
(i) at (A) above, but has secured at least 65% marks in post
12. Rohini Chaturvedi a Computer Engineer, passed out with graduate degree diploma in management, his/her case in to be
68% marks in the final examination at the age of 22 years in referred to VP Personnel.
2008. She secured 62% marks in the Selection Test and 56% (ii) at (C) above, but has post-qualification work experience of
marks in the interview. at least two years as Assistant Personnel Manager in an
organization, his/her case is to be referred to SVP Personnel.
13. Sachin scored 72% marks in B.Sc. (IT) and 76% marks in
Electronics Engineering. His scores at the Selection Test and the In each question below is given the detailed information of one
interview are 58% and 52% respectively. He has been working candidate. You have to take one of the following courses of
as a System Analyst since 2001. His date of birth is 19.6.1979. action based on the information provided in each case and
conditions and sub-conditions given above. You are not to
14. Rishi Agrawal is an Electronics Engineer with 71% marks. assume anything other than the information provided in each
His score in interview as well as Selection Test is 56%. He was question. All these cases are given to you as on 1.6.2006.
24 years old in 2005 at the time of passing the engineering
degree examination. Mark Answer
(a) if the candidate is to be selected ;
15. Aman Sharma is a Mechanical Engineer with 75% marks. (b) if the candidate is not to be selected ;
He was born on 8th July, 1981. (c) if the data provided are not adequate to arrive at a decision
He scored 66% marks in the Selection Test and 52% marks in „
the interview. (d) if the case is to be referred to VP-Personnel ;
(e) if the case is to be referred to SVP-Personnel.
16. Aditi Verma is MCA with 68% marks and is working as a
programmer for the last three years. She secured 48% marks in 21. Jatin Tohra was born on 30th November 1982. He has been
the Selection Test and 58% marks in the interview. working in the Personnel department of an organization for the
past four years after obtaining his post-graduate degree in
17. Rahul Chouhan is MCA with 76% marks. He has been management with 60% marks. He has secured 50% marks in
working as a System Analyst in an Engineering firm since 20 th interview and 63% marks in graduation.
November, 2008. He scored 72% marks in the Selection Test and
65% marks in the interview. His date of birth is 25 th October, 22. Mohita Singh has secured 57% marks in graduation and
1983. 60% marks in interview. She has been working in the Personnel
department of an organization after obtaining her post graduate
18. Rajeev Goyal did MCA in 2003 with 67% marks at the age degree in management with 68% marks. She was born on 8 th
of 22 years. He scored 52% marks in interview and 45% marks November, 1981.
in the Selection Test. He joined an IT company in 2004 as a
programmer and got promoted as Systems Analyst in December 23. Nitika Roy has secured 67% marks in graduation. She has
2007. also secured 60% marks in her post-graduate diploma in
management. She has been working an Assistant Personnel
19. Sujoy Bose is an Electronics Engineer passed out in 2004 at Manager for the past three years in an organization after
the age of 23 years with 82% marks. He scored 64% marks in completing her post-graduate diploma. She has secured 65%
marks in the interview. She was born on 16th October, 1982.

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24. Dimple Sharma was born on 9th March, 1980. He has 10 Seating Arrangement
secured 55% marks in interview. He has been working for the
past six years in the Personnel department of an organization. In such types of problems candidates required to arranging the
He has secured 60% marks in the post-graduate degree in things may usually there are two types of arrangement asked in
management. He has also secured 65% marks in graduation. exam.
(1) In a row
25. Nishant Garg has been working as Assistant Personnel (2) Around a circle or square
Manager in an organization for the past two years after
completing his post-graduate diploma in management with 60% In a row → (1) If we have to arrange the objects in a row then
marks. He has secured 63% marks in graduation and 50% marks consider right end of your right hand side & left end your left
in interview. hand side.
Left end Right end
26. Nidhi Tomar was born on 27th July, 1985. He has been
working for the past five years in the Personnel department of If we have to go right then go your right hand side & if we have
an organization after securing his post graduate management to go left then go your left hand side.
degree with 65% marks. He has secured 50% marks in the For example : (i) A is third to the left of B
interview.

27. Kunal Kapoor has secured 60% marks in graduation. He

was born on 2nd June, 1978. He has been working as Assistant
Personnel Manager for the past four years in an organization (ii) C is second to the right of D
after completing his post-graduate degree in management with
61% marks. He has secured 55% marks in interview.

28. Rajendra Barua was born on 10th June, 1980. He has secured
50% marks in graduation. He has been working for the past four
years in the Personnel department in an organization after (2) If there are number of persons (or objects) are sitting in two
completing his post-graduate degree with 62% marks. He has rows facing towards each
secured 56% marks in interview. other then left & right end of these two rows are opposite to each
other.
29. Lakhan Pandey Patel has secured 52% marks in the 1st row → Left end
interview. He has been working in the Personnel department of Right end
an organization for the past five years after completing his post 2nd row → Right end
graduate degree in management with 66% marks. He was born Left end
on 16th August, 1983. He has secured 58% marks in graduation.
Around a circle :
30. Rohit Gupta has secured 50% marks in the interview. He has If few persons are sitting around a circular table facing towards
been working in the Personnel Department of an organization the center then for left go clockwise & for right go anticlockwise.
for the past five years after completing his post graduate diploma i.e. : B is sitting second to the right of C
in management with 62% marks. He was born on 13th May, 1981.
He has secured 55% marks in graduation.

D is third to the left of A

Ex.1 :
A, B, C, D, E, F, G & H are sitting around a circular table facing
towards the center, A is third to the left of B & second to the right
of D. C is neighbor of F but not neighbor of A & B. E is third to
the right of H.

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(i) Who is sitting immediate right of D ? 2. Who occupy the extreme ends of the row ?
(a) A (b) C (c) G (d) H (a) Mohan and Kapil (b) Mohan and Ram
(e) None of these (c) Ram and Priya (d) Rahim and Kapil
(ii)Which of the following pair is immediate neighbor of B ? (e) None of these
(a) FE (b) DA (c) HG (d) EG
(e) None of these 3. Sohan stands between
(a) Priya and Rahim (b) Priya and Mohan
Sol. (c) Priya and Kapil (d) Kapil and Ram
(e) None of these

Direction (4-9) : Read the information carefully and answer

the questions given below.
Kabir, Kanha, Kiran, Manoj, Maya, Yash, Pradeep and Ram are
sitting around a circle facing towards center, Kiran is sitting
third to the left of Kabir and second to the right of Maya. Kanha
is sitting second to the right of Kiran, Manoj is second to the
right of Yash. Who is second to the right of Kabir. Pradeep is not
a neighbor of Kiran.
(i) d
4. Who is sitting next to the right of Karan ?
(ii) a
(a) Ram (b) Pradeep (c) Manoj
(d) Data insufficient (e) None of these
Ex. 2 :
Nidhi, Rohan, Kunal and Mukesh are to be seated in a row. But
5. Who is sitting next to the left of Ram?
Kunal and Mukesh cannot be together. Also, Rohan cannot be at
(a) Manoj (b) Pradeep (c) Kabir
the third place.
(d) Data insufficient (e) None of these
(i) Which of the following must be false?
(a) Nidhi is at the first place
6. Who is sitting next to the left of Manoj?
(b) Nidhi is at the second place
(a) Kiran (b) Ram (c) Yash
(c) Nidhi is at the third place
(d) Maya (e) Data insufficient
(d) Nidhi is at the fourth place
(e) None of these
7. Who is sitting third to the right of Ram?
(a) Maya (b) Yash (c) Manoj
(ii) If Nidhi is not at the third place, then Kunal has which of the
(d) Pradeep (e) None of these
following options?
(a) The first place only
8. Who is sitting second to the right of Pradeep?
(b) The third place only
(a) Kabir (b) Manoj (c) Maya
(c) The first and third place only (d) Any of the places
(d) Data insufficient (e) None of these
(e) None of these
Sol. (i) (a).: Since Kunal and Mukesh cannot be together, they
9. In which of the following first person is sitting in between
can occupy either of the seates
second & third person?
(1st and 3rd ), (1st and 4th ) or (2nd or 4th ), in the last two cases
(a) Kanha, Ram, Kabir (b) Kiran, Ram, Kanha
since Rohan cannot be in the 3rd place, Nidhi will have to be
(c) Maya, Manoj Kiran (d) Maya, Yash, Pradeep
there. Hence Nidhi can never be in the 1st place.
(e) none of these
(ii) (c) : Since neither Nidhi nor Rohan can be at 3 rd place, this
place has to be occupied by either Mukesh or Kunal. And if
Directions (10 - 12) : Seven friends A, B, C, D, X, Y, Z are
either of them occupies this place, the other one has to occupy
seated in a row as follows :
the 1st place (since Kunal and Mukesh cannot be together).
(i) A and B have one letter between them
Hence Kunal can only occupy either 1st or 3rd place only.
(ii) C is to the right of X.
(iii) Y is to the immediate left of B.
Practice set:
(iv) There is one letter between Z and X.
(v) Z is not C’s neighbour.
Directions (1 - 3) : Read the information and answer the
(vi) C and B have two letters between them.
questions :
10. Which letter is second to the left of letter X ?
Six persons Ram, Rahim, Sohan, Mohan, Kapil and Priya are
(a) C (b) Y (c) Z (d) A
standing in a row. Rahim stands between Mohan and Priya. Ram
(e) B
does not stand next to either Priya or Mohan. Sohan does not
stand next to Mohan. Kapil stands between Ram and Sohan.
11. Which letter will be exactly in the middle of the letter series
1. Priya stands between
so obtained?
(a) Rahim and Sohan (b) Kapil and Ram
(a) Z (b) X (c) A (d) B
(c) Mohan and Rahim (d) Ram and Sohan
(e) None
(e) Can’t be determined
12. Which pair of the letters is adjacent to the letter Y ?

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(a) XC (b) CA (c) AB (d) CX
(e) None 22. L is facing whom?
(a) M (b) I (c) N (d) O
Directions (13-15) : (e) None of these
Nine hockey fans are watching a match in a stadium. Seated in
one row, they are A, B, C, D, E, F, G, H and I. C is the right of 23. Who are immediate neighbours of I?
D and at third place at the right of E. B is at one end of the row. (a) N and O (b) L and M (c) L and O
H is immediately next to F and G. F is at the third place to the (d) M and O (e) None of these
left of B. A is immediate left of F.
13. Who is sitting in the center of the row? Directions (24-27) : 7 girls Roma, Rama, Riya, Rekha, Renu,
(a) C (b) F (c) A (d) H Priya and Payal are sitting in a row facing north, Roma is sitting
(e) None third to the right of Rama. Renu is sitting second to the right of
Priya. Who is at one end. Riya is next to the right of Roma. Rekha
14. Who is at the other end of the row? is not a neighbour of Renu.
(a) I (b) A (c) G (d) E 24. Who is sitting in between of Rama and Payal?
(e) None (a) Priya (b) Riya (c) Renu
(d) Rekha
15. Which of the following statements is true? (e) none of these
(a) I and G are neighbours
(b) There is one person between C and F 25. Who are sitting at the two ends of row?
(c) D is at one extreme end (a) Priya & Payal (b) Rekha & Priya
(d) E is two seats away from A (c) Riya & Priya (d) Data insufficient
(e) None (e) none of these

Directions (16-20) : 6 peoples L, M, N, O, P & Q are sitting on 26. What is the place of Roma in reference of Rekha?
the ground in hexagonal shape. (a) Second to the right (b) Second to the left
All the sides of the hexagone so formed are of same length. L is (c) Third to the right (d) Third to the left
not adjacent to M or N ; O is not adjacent to P; M and N are (e) none of these
adjacent; Q is in the middle of O and N?
16. Which of the following is not a correct neighbour pair? 27. Which of the following statement is definitely true?
(a) L & Q (b) O & Q (c) M & P (a) Roma is sitting third to the left of Riya.
(d) N & Q (e) None of these (b) Rama is sitting second to the right of Priya.
(c) Renu is sitting fourth to the right of Rekha.
17. Who is at the same distance from O as P is from O? (d) Payal is sitting third to the left of Priya.
(a) M (b) N (c) O (d) Q (e) None of these.
(e) None of these
Direction (28-30) :
18. Which of the following is in the right sequence? Read the following information carefully and answer the
(a) L, Q, M (b) Q, L, P (c) M, N, Q (d) O, L, questions given below.
M Five friends P, Q, R, S & T are sitting on a bench.
(e) None of these (i) P is sitting next to Q
(ii) R is sitting next to S
19. If one neighbour of L is O, who is the other one? (iii) S is not sitting with T
(a) M (b) N (c) P (d) Q (iv) T is on the left end of the bench.
(e) None of these (v) R is on second position from right
(vi) P is on the right side of Q and to the right side of T.
20. Who is placed opposite to P? (vii) P and R are sitting together.
(a) M (b) N (c) O (d) Q
(e) None of these 28. At what position is P sitting ?
(a) Between Q and R (b) Between S and R
Direction (21-23) : Read the following information carefully (c) Between T and S (d) Between R and T
and answer the questions given below. (e) None
Four girls H, I, J, K and four boys L, M, N, O are sitting in a
circle around a table facing each other. 29. Who is sitting at the centre?
(i) No two girls or two boys are sitting side by side. (a) P (b) Q (c) R (d) S
(ii) J, who is sitting between N and L, is facing K (e) T
(iii) M is between K and H and is facing N
(iv) O is to the right of I. 30. What is the position of Q?
(a) Second from right (b) Centre (c) Extreme left
21. Who is sitting to the left of H ? (d) Second from left (e) none
(a) L (b) M (c) N (d) O
(e) None of these

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 11 Syllogism I. Some rooms are home II. Some stores are rooms.
Sol.
Syllogism is originally a word, it means inference or deduction. First we draw Venn diagram and then choose the appropriate
Let us begin by looking at the format in which the problem conclusion
appears in the competitive examination. Format of the questions.

Direction : In the following type of question, two statements

are being provided followed by two conclusions A and B. you
have to study the two statements and then decide whether, from
those two statements.
(a) only A follows (b) only B follows
(c) Both A , B follows (d) Either A or B follows Conclusions :
(e) Neither A nor B follows 1. Some rooms are home.
All stores are home and some rooms are stores then some rooms
1. Statement : are also home.
(1) All trees are sky (2) All sky are beautiful 2. Some stores are rooms.
Conclusions : Some rooms are stores then some stores are rooms.
(A) All trees are beautiful (B) Some beautiful are trees.
2. Statement : Ex. 2 :
(1) All dog are cat (2) No cat is rat Statement :
Conclusion : 1. All roads are poles. 2. No pole is a house
(A) Some dog are rat. (B) Some cat are not dog Conclusions :
For solving this type of problems we use Euler’s circle or Venn I. Some roads are houses II. Some houses are poles.
diagram. Sol.

There is a pictorial way of representing the propositions. Then

there are four way in which the relation could be made
according to the propositions.
Type I :
All S are P.

Conclusions:
I : Some roads are houses.
No, because by the given statement no pole is a house and all
roads are pole, so no roads is a house. I conclusion is not
follows.
II. : Some house are pole
Type II : No, because no pole is a house so no house is a pole.
No S are P
Ex. 3 :
Statement :
1. All fruits are flowers. 2. All flowers are tree.
Conclusions :
Type III : I. All trees are fruits. II. All fruits are trees.
Some S are P. Sol.

Type IV :
Some S are not P.
Conclusions:
I : No, because some tree are fruits.
II: Yes, because All fruits are flower and all flower are trees.
Ex. 4 :
Statement:
Ex. 1 : 1. Some girls are flowers 2. Some flowers are books
Statement : Conclusions :
(1) Some rooms are stores (2) All stores are home I. Some girls are books II. No book is a flower.
Conclusion : Sol.

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 Conclusions :
I. Some chalks are frames. II. Some frames are chalks.

8. Statements :
All doctors are nurses. Some nurses are teachers.
Conclusions :
I. No doctor is a teacher. II. Some teachers are
doctors.
Conclusions :
I. Some girls are books 9. Statements :
No, because there is no direct relation between them. We cannot Some authors are teachers. No teacher is a lady.
say exactly, it may be or not. Conclusions :
II. No, because some flowers are books, so some books are also I. Some authors are not ladies. II. Some ladies are teachers.
flower.
10. Statements :
Practice set: All books are pens. All pens are boxes.
Conclusions :
Directions (Q.1-15) : In each question below are given two I. All books are boxes. II. All pens are books.
statements followed by two conclusions numbered I and II. You
have to take the two given statements to be true even if they seem 11. Statements :
to be at variance with the commonly known facts and then decide All writers are teachers. All readers are teachers.
which of the given conclusions logically follows from the two Conclusions :
given statements, disregarding commonly known facts. I. Some teachers are readers. II. Some readers are
Give answer writers.
(a) if only conclusion I follows;
(b) if only conclusion II follows; 12. Statements :
(c) if either or II follows; All cats are rats. Some rats are lizards.
(d) if neither I nor II follows; and Conclusions :
(e) if both I and II follow. I. Some cats are lizards. II. Some lizards are cats.
1. Statements :
Most pens are pencils. Some pencils are rubbers. 13. Statements :
Conclusions : All lawyers are cheats. Some women are cheats.
I. Some rubber are pencils. II. Some pens are rubbers. Conclusions :
I. Some women are cheats. II. All cheats are women.
2. Statements :
All cars are jeeps. Some parents are jeeps. 14. Statements :
Conclusions : All hill-stations have a sunset point. Y is a hill-station.
I. Some cars are parents. II. Some parents are cars. Conclusions :
I. Y has a sunset point. II. Places other than hill-
3. Statements : stations do not have sunset points.
All horses are cows. All cows are cats.
Conclusions : 15. Statements :
I. All horses are cats. II. All cats are horses. Some boys are pens. Some flowers are pens.
Conclusions :
4. Statements : I. Some boys are pens. II. No pens is a boys.
Some books are pens. Some pens are pencils. Directions (16-30) :
Conclusions :
I. Some books are pencils II. Some pencils are books. 16. Statements:
All tables are windows. All chairs are windows. All cars are
5. Statements : chairs
All stars are erasers. All books are erasers. Conclusions:
Conclusions : I. All cars are windows II. Some cars are tables
I. All stars are books. II. Some books are stars. III. Some windows are cars.
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow
6. Statements : (c) Only I and III follow (d) All follow
Some cakes are mobiles. All mobiles are chocolates. (e) None of these
Conclusions :
I. Some chocolates are mobiles. II. Some mobiles are not 17. Statements :
cakes. All apples are vegetables. All pens are vegetables. All vegetables
are rains.
7. Statements : Conclusions :
Some chalks are wires. Some wires are frames. I. All apples are rains II. All pens are rains

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III. Some rains are vegetables. Some pens are books. All schools are books. Some colleges are
(a) None of follows (b) Only I and II follow schools.
(c) Only II and III follow (d) Only I and III follow Conclusions :
(e) All follow I. Some colleges are pens II. Some pens are schools
III. Some colleges are books
18. Statements : (a) Only I and II follow (b) Only II and III follow
All girls are trees. Some trees are roads. All roads are mountains (c) Only I and III follow (d) All follow (e) None of these
Conclusions :
I. Some mountains are girls II. Some roads are girls 25. Statements :
III. Some mountains are trees All tigers are trees. No trees is bird. Some birds are rains
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows Conclusions :
(c) Only III follows (d) Both I and II follow I. No rain is tree II. Some rains are trees
(e) None of follows III. No bird is tiger.
(a) Only I and II follow (b) Only III follow
19. Statements : (c) Only either I or II, and III follow (d) All follow
Some hills are rivers. Some rivers are rings. All rings are roads (e) None of these
Conclusions :
I. Some roads are rivers II. Some roads are hills 26. Statements :
III. Some rings are hills All flowers are hills. Some hills are trees. Some angles are trees.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows Conclusions :
(c) Only I and II follow (d) Only II and III follow I. Some angles are hills II. Some trees are flowers
(e) All follow III. Some flowers are angles.
(a) None follow (b) Only I follows
20. Statements : (c) Only II follow (d) Only III follow
Some blades are hammers. Some hammers are knives. Some (e) Only I and III follow
knives are axes.
Conclusions : 27. Statements :
I. Some axes are hammers II. Some knives are blades All trains are buses. No houses is bus. All boats are houses
III. Some axes are blades Conclusions :
(a) None of follows (b) Only I follows I. No boat is train II. No bus is boat
(c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows III. No train is house
(e) None of these (a) None follows (b) Only I and II follow
(c) Only II and III follow (d) Only I and III follow
21. Statements : (e) All follow
All trees are flowers. No flower is leaves. All branches are leaves
Conclusions : 28. Statements :
I. Some branches are trees II. No leaf is tree No horse is lion. Some rabbits are lions. All horse are chairs
III. No tree is branch Conclusions :
(a) None of follows (b) Only either I or III follows I. Some chairs are lions II. Some rabbits are horses
(c) Only II follows (d) Only either I or III, and II follow III. No lion is chair.
(e) None of these (a) None follows (b) Only either I or III follows
(c) Only II and III follow (d) Only III follows
22. Statements : (e) None of these
All tigers are lions. No dog is lion. Some cats are dogs
Conclusions : 29. Statements :
I. Some lions are cats II. No cat is tiger Some mountains are hillocks. Some mountains are rivers. Some
III. Some tigers are dogs mountains are valley
(a) None of follows (b) Only I follows Conclusions :
(c) Only II follows (d) Only III follows I. All mountains are either hillocks or rivers or valleys
(e) Either I or III follows II. No valley is river III. Some river are valleys
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows
23. Statements : (c) Only either II or III follows (d) Only III follows
Some tables are chairs. No chairs is soap. All soaps are cats. (e) None of these
Conclusions :
I. Some cats are chairs. II. No cat is chair 30. Statements :
III. Some tables are soaps. Some boxes are pens. Some pens are beads. All beads are rings
(a) None follows (b) Only either I or II follows Conclusions :
(c) Only II follows (d) Only I and III follow I. Some rings are pens II. Some pens are boxes
(e) None of these III. Some rings are boxes.
(a) None follows (b) Only I follows
24. Statements : (c) Only I and II follow (d) Only II and III follow
(e) All follow

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 12 Venn Diagram Sol. 18 + 9 + 8 + 4 = 39.

The term Venn-diagram is test of reasoning relates to the (iii) How many persons are either married or educated?
different figures drawn to represent relationship between two or Sol. 18 + 9 + 8 + 4 + 2 + 12 = 53.
more objects.
(iv) How many male are there who are educated but not
(1) An object is called a subset of another object, if former is a married?
part of latter & such relation is shown by two concentric circle Sol. 9
& can be represented by figure.
Ex. 3 : In a serve of 2400 people of city, it was found that 31%
people read newspaper A, 22% people read newspaper B. 27%
people read newspaper C. 8% people read both A & B. 7%
people read both B & C & 10% people read both C & A. if 2%
people read all the three newspaper then.
(i) How many people read none of the newspaper?
(a) 1032 (b) 994 (c) 806 (d) 1225
(2) An object is said to have an intersection with another object (e) None of these
when two objects share something in common & relationships (ii) How many read both the newspaper A & B but do not read
can be represented by figure. C.
(a) 196 (b) 144 (c) 156 (d) 142
(e) None of these
(iii) How many people read at last two newspapers?
(a) 504 (b) 242 (c) 296 (d) 302
(e) None of these
(3) Two objects are said to be disjoint when neither one is subset
of another nor they share anything in common & can be
Sol.
represented by figure.

Ex. 1: How can we represent electron, proton & atom in Venn

diagram ?
Sol. :
(i) (a) 43% of 2400 = 1032
(ii) (b) 6% of 2400 = 144
(iii) (a) 21% of 2400 =504

Practice Set:
Electron & Proton both are different but both are parts of atom.
In this type of questions, geometrical figures are given that Direction (1-10) : Each of the questions given below contains
represent different classes. This different classes share some three groups of things. You have to choose from the following
common relationship. Students are then asked question based on five numbered diagrams, the diagram that depicts the correct
such relationship. relationship among the three groups of things in each
Ex. 2 : Study the given diagram carefully & answer the question question.
given below of it.

A) B)

C) D)
(i) How many male are there, who are married?
Sol. 8 + 2 = 10

(ii) How many persons are educated?

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 (a) Uneducated rich boys who do not help in family business
(b) Educated rich boys employed in service
(c) Uneducated boys who help in family business
(d) Educated rich boys who help in family business
E) (e) None of the above

1. Pop, Songs, Classical 14. Which number represents that section of rich boys who are
(a) C (b) E (c) D (d) A (e) B neither educated nor are in any employment or have any family
business?
2. Wheat, Sugarcane, Crops (a) 4 (b) 13 (c) 1 (d) 11 (e) 5
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
15. Boys who are neither educated nor rich but have employment
3. Birds, Owls, Tigers as well as a family business are represented by the number.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E (a) 8 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 (e) 13

4. Pineapple, Grapes, Papaya Direction (Q.16-20) : Study the figure given below and answer
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E the following questions.

5. Asia, Colombo, Srilanka

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

6. Lawyers, Men, Doctors

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

7. Brinjal, Glass, Plate

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E

8. Pencil, Stationery, Powder

(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
16. Find out the number of families which have all the four things
9. Vehicle, Car, Auto mentioned in the diagram.
(a) 40 (b) 30 (c) 35 (d) 20 (e) none
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
17. Find out the number of families which have Motor Cycles
10. Year, Month, Day
(a) 145 (b) 100 (c) 188 (d) 240 (e) none
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D (e) E
18. Find out the number of families which have TV and Freez
Direction (Q.11-15) : Read the following information carefully
both.
and answer the questions based on them.
(a) 84 (b) 24 (c) 104 (d) 129 (e) None
The circle represents rich boys, the square educated boys, the
triangle represents the boys who are employed somewhere and
19. Find out the number of families which have only one thing,
the rectangle represents those who help in the family business.
i.e., either TV or Freez or Motor Cycle or Car.
Each section of the diagram is numbered. Now answer the
(a) 160 (b) 184 (c) 225 (d) 254 (e) None
questions given below on the basis of the study of this diagram.
20. Find out the number of families which have Freez and Motor
Cycle both but have neither TV nor Car.
(a) 15 (b) 30 (c) 4 (d) 50 (e) None

Directions (Q.21-26) : Read the following information

carefully to answer these questions.
A sample poll of 200 votes revealed the following information
concerning three candidates P, Q and R of a certain party who
11. Which numbers represents those rich boys, who help in were running for three different offices.
family business but are not educated or employed elsewhere? 26 in favour of both P and Q
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 11 (d) 13 (e) 7 98 in favour of P or Q but not R
40 in favour of Q but not P or R.
12.Which number represents the group of educated rich boys 122 in favour of Q or R but not P
who are employed somewhere but do not help in family 66 in favour of R but not P or Q
business? 14 in favour of P and R but not Q
(a) 12 (b) 3 (c) 11 (d) 2 (e) none 21. How many voters were in favour of all the three candidates?
(a) 14 (b) 6 (c) 20 (d) 16 (e) none
13.Which section does number 10 represent?

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22. How many voters were in favour of P irrespective of Q or R? 13 Puzzle
(a) 78 (b) 64 (c) 42 (d) 56 (e) none
We can solve the questions based on puzzle test with the help of
23. How man voters were in favour of Q irrespective of P or Q? a chart
(a) 78 (b) 63 (c) 46 (d) 85 (e) none Under, this, data have to be represented on the table. The
questions are based on various other topics like – classification,
24. How many voters were in favour of R irrecptive of P or Q? blood relation, direction, ranking, sitting arrangement,
(a) 78 (b) 102 (c) 88 (d) 86 (e) none comparing quantities etc.

25. How many voters were in favour of P and Q but not R? Ex. 1 :
(a) 8 (b) 20 (c) 14 (d) 16 (e) none Read the instruction carefully and answer the question given
below.
26. How many voters were in favour of only one of the (i) A, B, C, D, E & F are six members of a family. Who are
candidates? Doctor, Lawyer, Manager, Jeweler, Engineer and Teacher?
(a) 85 (b) 87 (c) 105 (d) 144 (e) none (ii) Doctor is grandfather of F who is Teacher.
(iii) Manager D is married with A
Direction (Q.27-30) : In the diagram given below : (iv) C, who is jeweler is married to Lawyer
The circle represents professors in a Engineering College, the (v) B is mother of E and F
triangle stands for Poets while the rectangle represents the Story (vi) There are 2 married couple in the family.
writer. 1. What is the profession of A ?
(a) Manager (b) Teacher (c)
Jeweler
(d) Doctor (e) None

2. The no. of female members in family is

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3
(d) Data inadequate (e) None

3. Which is the pair of married couple?

(a) AD (b) AC (c) AB
27. Professors who are also poets are represents by (d) can’t determine (e) None
(a) Y (b) C (c) D (d) X (e) none
4. How is B related to C?
28. Poets who are also Story writer but no Professors are (a) B is wife of C (b) B is Mother of C
represented by (c) B is Sister of C (d) B is Daughter of C
(a) X (b) Y (c) Z (d) B (e) none (e) None

29. College professor who are also Story writer are represented Sol.
by Profession Relation
(a) Y (b) X (c) Z (d) A (e) none A+ Doctor Grand father
B- Lawyer Mother
30. ‘B’ represents C+ Jeweller Father
(a) Professors who are not Story writers D- Manager Grand mother
(b) Professors who are not Poets
E Engineer Kid/child
(c) Professors who are neither Story writers nor surgical Poets
F Teacher Kid/child
(d) Story writers who are neither professors nor Poets
(e) None of these
1.(d) A is doctor
2.(d) It is not clear that E & F are son or daughter of B & C. So
we can’t find the no. of
female members in the family.
3.(a) A & D are married couple
4.(a) B is wife of C.

Ex. 2 :
Read the instructions carefully to answer the questions that
follows
(i) P, Q, R, S, T & U are six member of a family having 2 married
couples. There are 2 teachers, 1 doctor, 1 advocate and 2
engineer. Both the teacher are male candidate.
(ii) P and R are in same profession

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(iii) Doctor is married to teacher and one engineer is married to Q- Doctor Wife of T
advocate who is female. R+ Engineer Husband of S
(iv) Engineer P and teacher T are unmarried. S- Advocate Wife of R
(v) Q is wife of U. T Teacher Unmarried
1. Who is advocate in the family? U+ Teacher Husband of Q
(a) P (b) Q (c) R
(d) can’t determine (e) None 1.(e) None (S-)
2.(c) Teacher (U)
2. Doctor is married to 3.(b) Doctor
(a) Q (b) S (c) U 4.(a) R+ - S - and U + - Q -
(d) Can’t determine (e) None
Ex. 3 :
3. What is profession of Q? Read the instruction and answer the question based on them.
(a) Advocate (b) Doctor (c) (i) P, Q, R, S, T & U are six friends. Each play separate games
Teacher among football, cricket,
(d) Engineer (e) None Tennis, Basketball, Volleyball, Badminton
(ii) T who is longer (height wise by) P and S, play Tennis
4. Which of the option represent married couple? (iii) The person who is longest play basketball
(a) R-S, U-Q (b) T-Q, R-U c) P-R, S- (iv) R shortest one play volley ball
T (v) Q and S neither play volleyball nor basketball
(d) Q-T, U-R (e) None (vi) Height wise T is in between „Q’ who plays football and P.
1. Which sport do S play?
Sol. (a) Badminton (b) Cricket
1.(d) A is doctor (c) Football (d) Cricket or badminton
2.(d) It is not clear that E & F are son or daughter of B & C. So
we Can’t find the no. of female members in the family. 2. Who is longer than R but shortest than P
3.(a) A & D are married couple (a) Q (b) S (c) T (d) U
4.(a) B is wife of C.
3. Who play basketball
Ex. 2 : (a) R (b) S (c) U (d) P
Read the instructions carefully to answer the questions that
follows 4. Which is in correct statement
(i) P, Q, R, S, T & U are six member of a family having 2 married (a) T, is longer R (b) S in shortest than Q
couples. There are 2 teachers, 1 doctor, 1 advocate and 2 (c) U is longer than Q (d) S in longer than Q
engineer. Both the teacher are male candidate.
(ii) P and R are in same profession Sol.
(iii) Doctor is married to teacher and one engineer is married to Player Game
advocate who is female. P Cricket, Badminton
(iv) Engineer P and teacher T are unmarried. Q Football
(v) Q is wife of U.
R Volleyball
1. Who is advocate in the family?
S Cricket,
(a) P (b) Q (c) R
Badminton
(d) can’t determine (e) None
T Tennis
U Basket ball
2. Doctor is married to
(a) Q (b) S (c) U
Descending order of height of 6 friends are U > Q > T > P > S
(d) Can’t determine (e) None
>R
1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d)
3. What is profession of Q?
(a) Advocate (b) Doctor (c)
Ex. 4 :
Teacher
The following question are based on information given below.
(d) Engineer (e) None
Branches of five banks A, B, C, D & E are as follows:
(i) A, B, C are in Agra & Kanpur
4.Which of the option represent married couple?
(ii) A, B & E are in Agra & Jhansi
(a) R-S, U-Q (b) T-Q, R-U c) P-R, S-
(iii) B, C & D are in Kanpur & Allahabad
T
(iv) A, E & D are in Jhansi & Lucknow
(d) Q-T, U-R (e) None
(v) C, E & D are in Allahabad & Lucknow
1. Branch of which is in Agra but not in Allahabad ?
Sol.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
Profession Relation
P Engineer Unmarried

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2. Branch of which bank is in Allahabad and Agra but not in (i) Marchillego car was on the immediate right of Rolls-Royce
Kanpur. (ii) Rolls-Royces was fourth to the right of B.M.W
(a) D (b) C (c) E (d) A (iii) Ferrari car was between Lamborghini and Hummer
(iv) B.M.W. which was third to the left of Lamborghini car, was
3. Branch of which bank is in all places except Jhansi. at one of the ends.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D 6. Which of the following was the correct position of the Jaguar?
(a) Immediate left of Marchillego
4. In which city there is no branch of Bank B ? (b) Immediate left of Hummer
(a) Agra (b) Kanpur (c) Jhansi (c) Between Hummer and Rolls-Royce
(d) Allahabad (e) Lucknow (d) Fourth to the right of Ferrari
(e) None of these
Sol.
City : Agra A B C X E 7. Which of the following is definitely true?
Jhansi A B X D E (a) Rolls-Royces car is between Lamborghini and B.M.W
Kanpur A B C D X (b) Marchillego car is on the immediate left of Jaguar.
Lucknow A X C D E (c) Rollsroyee is on the immediate right of Marchillego
Allahabad X B C D E (d) Ferrari is fourth to the right of Jaguar.
1. (a) Bank A (e) None of these
2. (c) Bank E
3. (c) Bank C 8. Which cars are on the immediate either sides of the
4. (e) Lucknow Marchillego car?
(a) Lamborghini and Ferrari
Practice set: (b) Ferrari and B.M.W
(c) B.M.W and Jaguar
Directions (1 - 5): Study the following information carefully (d) Lamborghini and Rolls-Royce
and answer the questions given below: (e) None of these
There is a family of six persons P, Q, R, S, T and U. They are
Businessman, Doctor, Teacher, Manager, Engineer and 9. Which of the following is definitely true?
Accountant. There are two married couples in the family. S, the (a) Ferrari is to the immediate left of Lamborghini
Manager, is married to the Doctor. The Businessman is married (b) Hummer is to the immediate left of B.M.W
to the Lady Teacher. U, the Engineer, is the son of Q and brother (c) Hummer is at one of the ends
of T. R the Teacher, is the daughter-in-law of P. T is the (d) B.M.W is second to the right of Ferrari
unmarried Accountant. P is the grandmother of U. (e) None of these
1. How is T related to U?
(a) Brother (b) Sister (c) Directions (10-14) : Read the following information carefully
Cousin and answer the questions given below:
(d) Can’t be determined (e) None of these There are six persons A, B, C, X, Y and Z in a school. Each of
the teachers teaches two subjects, one compulsory subject and
2. What is the profession of Q? the other optional subject. X’s optional subject was Civics while
(a) Teacher (b) Doctor three others have it as compulsory subject. Y and Z have
(c) Businessman (d) Can’t be determined Geography as one of their subjects. Z’s compulsory subject is
(e) None of these Mathematics which is an optional subject of both C and Y. Civics
and English are A’s subjects but in terms of compulsory and
3. What is the profession of P? optional subjects, they are just reverse of those of X’s. History is
(a) Businessman (b) Teacher (c) an optional subject of only one of them. The only female teacher
Doctor in the school has English as her compulsory subject.
(d) Can’t be determined (e) None of these 10. What is C’s compulsory subject?
(a) Civics (b) Geography (c)
4. Which of the following is one of the couple? History
(a) T and S (b) S and Q (c) T and (d) English (e) Mathematics
P
(d) Q and R (e) None of these 11. Who is a female member in the group?
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) X
5. How is S related to T? (e) Y
(a) Grandfather (b) Father (c) Uncle
(d) Brother (e) None of these 12. Which of the following has the same compulsory and
optional subjects as those of Z’s?
Directions (6 - 9) :Read the following information carefully (a) X (b) B (c) A (d) C
and answer the questions given below : (e) None of these
In a car exhibition, seven cars of seven different companies, viz.
Marchillego, Lamborghini, B.M.W., Ferrari, Jaguar, Hummer
and Rolls-Royces were displayed in a row, facing east such that:

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13. Disregarding which is the compulsory and which is the 21. Who is the badminton player ?
optional subject, who has the same two-subject combination as (a) T (b) R (c) S (d) Q
Z? (e) P
(a) A (b) B (c) Y (d) X
(e) None of these 22. Who is the volleyball player ?
(a) S (b) P (c) T (d) R
14. Which of the following groups has History as the compulsory (e) Q
subject?
(a) A, C and X (b) B, C and X (c) C and X 23. Who is the wife of T ?
(d) A, B and C (e) None of these (a) P (b) Q (c) S (d) R
(e) Data inadequate
Directions (15 - 19): Read the following statements and answer
the questions given below: 24. The three ladies are
Of the six men of literature A, B, C, D, E and F being considered (a) P, Q and R (b) Q, R and S
here, two belonged to the 18th century, three to the 20th and one (c) P, Q and S (d) P, R and S (e) None of these
to the 21th. Four were recognized as great Poet, three as great
novelists and three as great dramatists. One contributed to Directions (25-30) : Read the following information carefully
Gujarati literature, two to Telugu, two to Punjabi and one to and answer the given answers.
Bengali. The 21th century writer wrote poetry only and P, Q, R, S, T, U and V are seven members of a family. There are
contributed to Punjabi literature and the other Punjabi writer three female members. Each of them has a different profession –
contributed to poetry, novel and drama. One Telugu writer and Lawyer, Chartered Accountant (CA), Engineer, Teacher,
the only Bengali writer belonged to the 20th century. The former Doctor, Novelist and Writer. No lady is either Writer or
contributed to poetry and novel while the latter to novel and Chartered Accountant. Each of them has a different monthly
drama. The Gujarati novelist belonged to the 18th century and income. The Chartered Accountant earns the most. S, the
contributed to poetry only. A belonged to the 21th century, B engineer, earns less than U, the doctor. R, the teacher, earns
wrote drama only, C contributed to Punjabi literature, D was a more than P and less than S. V’s wife earns the least. T is an
Telugu poet and novelist belonged to the 20 th century. E also unmarried lady lawyer and she earns less than P and more than
belonged to the 20th century, and F contributed to poetry only. only Q. The Writer’s income is not to lowest.
15. To which language did B contribute? 25. Who earns the least?
(a) Gujarati (b) Telugu (c) (a) P (b) Q (c) P or Q (d) R
Punjabi (e) None of these
(d) Bengali (e) None of these
26. Which of the following pairs of professions represents the
16. Among these, who was the Bengali writer? professions of husband and wife?
(a) A (b) B c) E (a) Writer, Novelist
(d) F (e) None of these (b) Chartered Accountant, Novelist
(c) Engineer, Writer
17. To which branch of literature did A contribute? (d) Chartered Accountant, Engineer
(a) Poetry (b) Novel (c) (e) None of these
Drama
(d) All the three (e) None of these 27. Which of the following statement is false?
(a) The Novelist earns more than the Lawyer.
18. Among these, who was the Gujarati writer? (b) The Teacher earns less than the Engineer
(a) A (b) B (c) E (d) F (c) The Doctor earns more than the Engineer
(e) None of these (d) The Writer earns more than the Lawyer
(e) None of these
19. To which branch of literature did C contribute? 28. What is P’s profession?
(a) Poetry (b) Drama (c) Novel (a) Writer (b) Lawyer (c)
(d) All the three (e) None of these Teacher
(d) Data inadequate (e) None of these
Directions (20 - 24) : Study the following information and
answer the questions given below: 29. How many members earn less than the Doctor?
There are five persons P, Q, R, S and T. One is a cricket player, (a) Two (b) Three (c) Four
one is a volleyball player and one is a badminton player. P and (d) Five (e) None of these
S are unmarried ladies and do not participate in any game. None
of the ladies plays volleyball or cricket. There is a married 30. Which of the following represents the three female members
couple in which T is the husband. Q is the brother of R and is of the family?
neither a volleyball player nor a badminton player. (a) PTQ (b) TRQ (c) UTQ
20. Who is the cricket player? (d) UTR (e) Data inadequate
(a) P (b) R (c) Q (d) T
(e) S

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 14 Inference 5. Disinvestment of public sector is a part of economic
restructuring.
In this type of questions a passage is given which is either a part
of news information or an economic report. Some inference are Ans.
given followed by the passage (there are usually five inference). 1.(b) Probably true. The tone of the first sentence is such that it
The candidate is asked to decide whether a given inference means that reforms affect mainly private sector and also, to some
follows or not in the light of the given passage. extent, public sector.
2.(a) Definitely true.
Some Important Points : 3.(e) Definitely false. Although the last sentence may give an
(1) In order to evaluate an inference, first of all check whether it impression that the inference is true, you must also see the first
can be evaluated with the help of the passage directly. sentence as well as the fact that disinvestment in public sector
(2) If an inference cannot be directly related with the passage has already began.
check if you can justify or contradict it with the help of an 4.(e) Definitely false. The second sentence says that many people
additional assumption. The only condition is that the assumption treat reforms as a equivalent of privatization. But the first
you make should be justifiable and universally acceptable. sentence contradict this belief by claiming that reforms have
(3) You can also evaluate an inference with the help of some key affected the public sector too.
words used in the passage like all, some, none, never, always etc. 5.(a) Definitely true.
(4) To avoid confusion between the choices “probably true” and
“data inadequate”, check if it is possible to make an extra Practice Set:
assumption to take the inference as “probably true”. If you can
make a reasonable extra assumption the answer would be Directions (1-30) :
“probably true”. The same strategy could be used to avoid Below is given a passage followed by several possible
confusion between the choices “probably false” and “data inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the
inadequate” passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the
context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or
Directions Ex. (1-5) : falsity. Mark answer
Below is given a passage followed by several possible
inferences which can be drawn from the facts stated in the (a) if the inference is “definitely true”, i.e. it properly follows
passage. You have to examine each inference separately in the from the statement of facts given.
context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or (b) If the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely
falsity. Mark answer true” in the light of the facts given.
(f) If the “data are inadequate”, i.e. from the facts given you
(a) If the inference is “definitely true”, i.e. it properly follows cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
from the statement of facts given. (d) If the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely
(b) If the inference is “probably true” though not “definitely false” in the light of the facts given.
true” in the light of the facts given. (e) If the inference is “definitely false”, i.e. it cannot possibly be
(c) If the “data are inadequate”, i.e. from the facts given you drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts.
cannot say whether the inference is likely to be true or false.
(d) If the inference is “probably false” though not “definitely According to the latest figures, the core sector saw drastic (6.5
false” in the light of the facts given. percent) growth recently. This could be a statistical aberration
(e) If the inference is “definitely false”, i.e. it cannot possibly be or a flash in the pan. But steel prices are climbing and this could
drawn from the facts given for it contradicts the given facts. be the sign of genuine core sector demand. It will be interesting
to watch if steel prices do maintain this upward trend. That
“The economic reforms programme will affect private industrial would be a confirmation of sustainability. If steel is indeed in a
sector as well as the public sector. Many people relates situation of great demand, it is given that downstream
economic restructuring programme with privatization. This is manufacturing will be doing well. Core sector industries such as
one area of economic reforms where India has chosen to tread heavy construction, mining, steel, etc. are classified as cyclical.
cautiously. The process of privatization has been set in motion However, the downtrend has lasted so long that one was afraid
why the disinvestment campaign in the public sector. Public that these industries were in permanent decline. One doesn’t
sector industries in India have been characterized by know whether the current improvement will translate into rising
inefficiency, and many of them have been incurring heavy losses stock prices over the long period.
over long periods while their counterparts in the private sector
are generating profits. The economic reforms programme in 1. The downstream manufacturing units are expected to have a
India will be incomplete without a restructuring of the public slowdown in near future.
sector undertaking”. 2. For the last few years the core sector has projected a modest
growth.
1. The greater emphasis of reforms in on the private sector. 3. The growth in core sector in the recent past was much below
2. India’s approach towards reforms is cautions 4 percent
3. The reforms have not intended to restructure the public sector 4. The steel prices will show continuous increase during next few
units. months.
4. Economic restructuring programme means privatization. 5. The price of steel depends on the activities in the core sector.

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Directions (6-10) : where it is due, concerted efforts by exporters have played
important.
Logically these are rules of behavior. Every country has listed
down comprehensive series of practical rules for citizens for 16. The percentage growth in exports during 2005-2006 was
resolving mutual contradictory rights and interests. Most of mainly due to the decreased volume of exports during 2004-
these rules have been listed down to sustain social activities. For 2005.
instance, many nations have listed down rules to protest against 17. The efforts put in by the Indian exporters were comparatively
such crimes as theft, attack and murder. These rules are backed less than their counterparts in developed countries.
by judicial system and executor institutions, which look after the 18. There has been substantial increase in the extent of trade all
citizens who obey the rules and also who violate the rules. over the world during the last financial year.
Wherever the human behavior is involved such rules are not only 19. During 2004-2005, the quantum of the country’s exports was
for namesake there but are necessary also. about three-fourths of that in 2005-2006.
20. There has been a consistent drop in quantum of exports
6. There are no need to have any machinery to ensure strict during last three years.
adherence to the rules by citizens.
7. There is no need of any rules if individuals do not have to Directions (21-25) :
interact with each other.
8. Human beings are susceptible to violate rules. One of the promising features of the current market is that
9. Without rules, human behavior degenerates into anarchy. domestic institutions seem to have turned buyers after very long
10 There are no rules in countries where citizens interests and duration. They have been net buyers this month with inflows
rights do not contradict. exceeding by Rs. 60 crore till early this month. That’s admittedly
a small amount, but its significance lies in the fact that domestic
Directions (11-15) : institutions have been net sellers every month this financial year
except in August when their net purchases amounted to a
The Indian economy, despite not so strong monsoons, is expected microscopic Rs. 25 crore. This financial year’s net sales by
to be among the faster growing economies of globally. The domestic institutions amounted to Rs. 3214 crore, which has
Indian equity markets are currently attractively poised with the substantially offset the net inflows of Rs. 3476 crore by FIIs. The
sensex at low P/E of about 14, making valuations very attractive. net purchases by domestic institutions could indicate that money
Interest rates are at all time low and may probably go further is once again flowing into equity funds, eager not to miss the
down, with plenty of surplus liquidity in the system, improvement widely expected rally. Part of this reason could be a change in
in business fundamentals and a growing interest in the investor portfolios, as people lighten up on debt and put that
disinvestment programme. However, despite these positive money into equity.
factors, the Indian equity markets have shown negative growth
on account of concerns on the US economy and markets and also 21. Domestic institutions have been consistently selling only in
due to the persisting supply demand mismatch in the market all the months in this financial year.
despite good liquidity in the system. 22. FIIs bought more than what was sold by domestic institutions
this financial year.
11. The low interest rates have resulted in availability of more 23. The equity market is expected to experience a subdued
funds to be deployed in the equity market. activity in near future.
12. Indian equity market has never been so attractive to foreign 24. The activities in equity market has direct relationship with
investors in the past. the debt market.
13. Low interest rare regime has considerably weakened the 25. It is expected that in the early next financial year the gap
strength of business establishments in India. between the net sales and net purchases will reduce
14. The Indian economy is largely dependent on the status of US substantially.
economy.
15. There have been few takes in the equity markets in the recent Directions (26-30) :
past.
One of the avowed goals of primary education is improving
Directions (16-20) : learner achievement, apart from access and retention. This is a
essential area of concern to planners and educationists as
From the beginning of the new year, the good news continues on investment in primary education has not been giving extent
the economic front. Following on the heels of encouraging GDP returns. The scenario with regard to learner achievement has
growth figures for the second quarters, we now have happy been pretty bleak over the decades. Two national surveys of
tidings on the trade front as well. November 2005 saw the achievement of primary school children conducted by NCERT
country’s exports record a healthy 20% increase compared to are a case in point. The survey on achievement in mathematics
the corresponding period last year. With this, the growth rate in was conducted in 1968-69. The second on attainment in
exports for the first eight months of the current fiscal now stands language and mathematics was conducted in 1992.
at a robust 20%. Of course part of the reason for the apparently
encouraging performance is because of the base effect – exports 26. Retention is not an avowed goal of primary education.
actually fell 0.6% during 2004-2005. But that is only part of the 27. Primary education is an investment as well as a duty of the
reason. For the rest, recovery in foreign trade and to give credit government

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28. Planners have not paid due attention to learner achievement 15 Cause & Effect
while planning primary education schemes.
29. NCERT is the only body related with the schemes of primary It is a basic property of nature that events do not just happen,
education. they happen because there was a cause behind them. These
30. The rate of learner achievement has improved very causes are the conditions under which these effects happen.
marginally after 1992. In order to solve these types of problems, we have to find –
(i) Events are related to each other or not.
(ii)If events are related to each other, then which one is cause
and which one is effect.
(iii) Cause in principal cause or not.
• Immediate Cause: It means a cause that immediately precedes
the effect.
• Principal Cause: It means a cause that was the most important
reason behind the effect.

Solved Examples
Ex. 1 : Event A : Rama died while on way to the hospital
Event B : A bus dashed into the scooty Rama was driving.
Answer :
So, Event A is the effect and B is its immediate and principal
cause, Rama died because of the accident.

Ex. 2 : Event A : Mohan succeeded

Event B : Mohan worked hard.
Answer :
Event A is effect and B is its immediate and principal cause,
because we take hard work to be sufficient cause for success.

Ex. 3 : Event A : Ravi failed

Event B : Ravi did not buy books of xyz institute.
Answer :
There is no link between the two statements, they are
uncorrected.

Ex. 4 : Event A : The private engineering colleges have increased

the tuition fees in the current year by 150% over the last year’s
fees to meet the expenses.
Event B : The government engineering colleges have not
increase their fees in spite of prize escalation.
Answer :
The increase in the fees of the private colleges and there being
no increase in the same in government colleges seem to be policy
matters undertaken by the individual decisive boards at the two
levels.

Practice set:

Directions (Q. 1-30) : Given below are pairs of event ‘A’ and
‘B’. You have to read both the events ‘A’ and ‘B’ and decide
their nature of relationship. You have to assume that the
information given in ‘A’ and ‘B’ is true and you will not
assume anything beyond the given information in deciding the
answer. Mark answer.

(a) If „A’ is the effect and „B’ is its immediate and principal
cause
(b) If „A’ is the immediate and principal cause and „B’ is its
effect
(c) If „A’ is an effect but „B’ is not its immediate and principal
cause

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(d) If „B’ is an effect but „A’ is not its immediate and principal Event B : Subsidies on diesel results in a extra burden on the
cause. government treasures.
(e) None of these
13. Event A : Sunanda Pushkar is said to have had illicit
1. Event A : The prices of petrol dropped marginally last week. relations with the MOS for external affairs.
Event B : The State Govt. reduced the tax on petrol last week. Event B : A lot of journalists are reporting interviews of Monica
Lewinsky and giving her media attention.
2. Event A : Majority of the people in the locality belong to
higher income group. 14. Event A : ABC Co. has benefited immensely by the Finance
Event B : The sales in the local supermarket are comparatively ministry’s decision to free naphtha from import duty.
much higher than in other localities. Event B : The turnover of ABC co. has almost doubled in the last
financial year.
3. Event A : A major fire destroyed part of the oil refinery owned
by a private company. 15. Event A : Japan is very prone to earthquakes.
Event B : Govt. has decided to increase the supply to retailers Event B : According to seismologists, there is a lot of tectonic
from the public sector refineries. activity going on the belt below Japan.

4. Event A : The Govt. management college has decided to 16. Event A : The US crushed Iraq in the gulf war.
increase the number of seats in undergraduate course from the Event B : The US had almost total Global support in the gulf
next academic session. war.
Event B : The Govt. has decided to withdraw its grant from all
the Govt. management colleges from the next academic session. 17. Event A : India won the world cup cricket in 1983 despite
being the underdogs.
5. Event A : Every year a large number of people spend their Event B : Kapil Dev played very well in the 1983 world cup.
vacation in various historical places within the country.
Event B : Every year large number of people spend their 18. Event A : Dhirendra Singh has been expelled from the
vacation in various historical places outside the country. Election party.
Event B : Dhirendra Singh was the founder member of Election
6. Event A : Party „A’ won clear majority in the recently held party.
state assembly election.
Event B : Of late, there was unrest in public and also among the 19. Event A : Sushil Kumar has been awarded the Arjuna Award
members of the power party in of the state. for excellence in Sports.
Event B : Sushil Kumar is a very dedicated wrestler.
7. Event A : Professors of the university decided to go on strike
in protest during the Examinations. 20. Event A : Ramlal succeeded.
Event B : The university administration made all the Event B : Ramlal worked hard.
arrangements for smooth conduct of examination with the help
of outsiders. 21. Event A : Rahul failed.
Event B : Rahul did not buy books of XYZ Publishing House.
8. Event A : In the university examination, overall performance
of students from college „A’ was better than that of students from 22. Event A : Dharmendra Singh has been expelled from Party.
college „B’. Event B : Dharmendra Singh was planning to form a new party,
Event B : Majority of the students depend upon tuitions for it was heard some time back.
university examinations.
23. Event A : The crowed pelted stones at the policemen.
9. Event A : The Government of state „A’ decided to ban working Event B : The policeman resorted to lathi-charge.
of women in night shifts and also in late evening hours.
Event B : The percentage of working women has a significant 24. Event A : There has been a communal riot in the city
rise in the last one decade. following rumours that an important Muslim leader has been
assassinated.
10. Event A : Frequent loots in jewellery shops were recorded in Event B : The collector has declared curfew in the city.
distant small towns of the city.
Event B : Shop owners in the small towns demanded 25. Event A : Annual production of diamonds (for which this city
improvement in security situation from the police authorities. is famous) is going to drop.
Event B : Curfew has been declared in the city.
11. Event A: The second World War stopped after the US
dropped two atomic bombs in Japan. 26. Event A : People in Uttaranchal take bath early in the
Event B : Hitler never surrendered during or after the War. morning even if is very cold.
Event B : In Uttaranchal cleanliness is valued more tha.n in the
12. Event A : The Government has announced that it will take rest of the India.
measures to remove subsidies on diesel in a phased manner.

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27. Event A : The doctor has advised Rani to take Vitamin C 16 Coded Inequalities
tablets.
Event B : Rani complained of cough and cold. The problem involves essentially a combination of two
elementary problems.
28. Event A : Pakistan’s proposal for a third party mediation in (i) Inequalities
Kashmir has been rejected by India. (ii) Coding
Event B : India considers Kashmir to be a purely bilateral issue.
Some important points for solving such types of problems.
29. Event A : Ram Verma has been expelled from Party. (1) Two inequalities can be combined if and only if they have a
Event B : Verma has formed a new Party. common term.
(2) Two inequalities can be combined if and only if the common
30. Event A : There is hardly any visible activity in the city and term is greater than (or “greater than or equal to”) one and less
the shops are closed. than (or “less than or equal to”) the other.
Event B : Curfew has been declared in the city.
i.e. i) B < A, B ≥ C
Sol. B < A, B ≥ C. Here, common term B is less than one term,
A; and greater than (or
equal to) the other term, C. Hence, combination is possible.
Combined inequalities : A > B ≥ C
ii) A ≥ B, B < C
Sol. A ≥ B, B < C. Here, common term B is less than (or equal
to) both terms, No combination possible.

(3) The conclusion-inequality will have an „≥’ sign (or a „≤’

sign) if and only if both the signs in the combined inequality were
„≥’ (or „≤’; as the case may be)

Ex. 1 : Statements :
A > B, P = A, Q < B, P ≤ R
Conclusions :
I. A < R
II. P > B
Sol. : Conclusion I : P = A, P ≤ R combining, we get A ≤ R. This
does not match the given conclusion, A < R.
Conclusion II : A > B, P = A combining we get P > B. Hence
only conclusion II follows.

Ex. 2 : Statements :
E = F, A < E, F ≥ G, B > E
Conclusions :
I. E > G
II. A = E
Sol. : Conclusion I : E = F, F ≥ G. combining we get E ≥ G. This
does not match the given conclusion, E > G
Conclusion II : A < B, B > E combining we get A < E. This does
not match with A = E.
Hence both conclusions are rejected.

Ex. 3 :
Statements : L ≥ A, O = N, L < H. A = O
Conclusions :
I. L = N
II. L > N
Sol. : Conclusion I : O = N, A = O, L ≥ A. combining we get A
= N combining this with
L ≥ A. we get L ≥ N. This means conclusion I does not follow.
Conclusion II : L ≥ N this is different from L > N. So conclusion
II does not follow.

Ex. 4 :
Statements : Z ≤ Y, K = L, Y < X, Z > K

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Conclusions : ‘A© B’ means ‘A is neither greater than nor smaller than B’.
I. Y > L
II. Y = L 6. Statements : P # Q, Q % H, H @ F
Sol. : Conclusion I : Z ≤ Y, Z > K, K = L combining we get Y > Conclusions : I. H @ P II. F © P
K. now combining it with
K=L. we get Y > L. so conclusion I follow. 7. Statements : A $ B, B @ M, J % M
Conclusion II : Y = L which is not true, Y > L. Conclusions : I. A @ M II. B @ J

Ex. 5 : 8. Statements : F © D, D # V, V @ P
Statements : Q < I, S = C, S ≥ I, C > O Conclusions : I. F © P II. V © F
Conclusions :
I. C < I 9. Statements : P $ R, R @ Q, Q % H
II. S > Q Conclusions : I. P $ Q II. P © H
Sol. : Conclusion I : S = C and S ≥ I combining we get C ≥ I this
means conclusion I is not true 10. Statements : A © B, B # W, W % R
Conclusion II : Q < I and S ≥ I. combining we get Q < S. So Conclusions : I. A # R II. B % R
conclusion II follows.
Directions (Q.11-15) : In the following questions, the symbol
Practice set:  , © =, @ and @ are used with the following meaning :
M  N means M is greater than N.
Directions (Q. 1-30) : M © N means M is either greater than or equal to N.
In all the questions that follow different symbols have been M = N means M is the equal to N.
used with different meanings. For each set of questions you M @ N means M is smaller than N.
have to assume given statements to be true and then decide M # N means M is either smaller than or equal to N.
which of the two given conclusions is/are definitely true.
(a) if only I is true 11. Statements : A @ L, S  P, A = N, S # N
(b) if only conclusion II is true Conclusions : I. A  S. II. A = S
(c) if either conclusion I or II is true
(d) if neither I nor II is true 12. Statements : B @ N, T = Q, R © N, T # R
(e) if both are true Conclusions : I. B @ R II. N = Q

Directions (Q. 1-5) : In which following questions, the symbols 13. Statements : X @ Y, D # E, C = D, C © Y
@, $, =, ©, % are used with the following meaning : Conclusions : I. E  Y. II. Y = E
Please Note : @ = $, © = %
14. Statements : M  U, Y = P, Z @ Y, P © M
A @ B means A is greater than B.
Conclusions : I. Z = M II. P  Z
A $ B means A is either greater than or equal to B.
A © B means A is smaller than B.
15. Statements : R © A, U  L, A = H, H © U
A % B means A is either smaller than or equal to B.
Conclusions : I. H = L II. L@ H
A = B means A is equal to B.
Directions : (Q. 16-20) : In the following questions the symbols
1. Statements : E $ F, F © G, G © H
$, @, *, ** and # are used with the following meaning:
Conclusions : I. E @ H. II. G = H
P $ Q means P is greater than Q
P @ Q means P is either greater than or equal to Q.
2. Statements : J © I, K © L, I = K
P ** Q means P is smaller than Q.
Conclusions : I. L @ J II. I © L
P # Q means P is either smaller than or equal to Q.
P * Q means P is equal to Q.
3. Statements : O @ M, N % R, M = N
16. Statements : A @ B, M # N, N ** B
Conclusions : I. O @ R. II. M = R
Conclusions : I. A $ M II. N # A
4. Statements : A $ B, R % S, S = B
17. Statements : P ** Q, F @ Y, P $ F
Conclusions : I. S © A. II. S = A
Conclusions : I. Q @ Y II. Y # P
5. Statements : X % Y, K =X, Y % L, H $ Y
18. Statements : A ** Q, S $ T, A @ T
Conclusions : I. Y = L. II. X % H
Conclusions : I. S * A II. T ** Q
Directions (Q. 6-10) : in these questions symbols @, #, $, % and
19. Statements : P * Q, X $ W, P ** W
© are used with different meaning as follows :
Conclusions : I. W $ Q II. P ** X
‘A @ B’ means ‘A is smaller than B’
‘A # B’ means ‘A is greater than B’
20. Statements : G $ H, J # K, H * K
‘A % B’ means ‘A is either greater than or equal to B’
Conclusions : I. H $ J II. J * H
‘A $ B’ means ‘A is either smaller than or equal to B’

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 17 Input-Output
Directions (Q. 21-25) : in the following questions, the symbols
 , !, =, @ and * are used with the following meanings : In input-output problems you are asked to imagine that there is
X  Y means X is greater than Y. some kind of computer or a word-processing machine & this
X ! Y means X is either greater than or equal to Y. machine performs some operation on a given input. These
X @ Y means X is smaller than Y. operations are performed repeatedly as per a prefixed pattern &
X * Y means X is either smaller than or equal to Y. subsequently we have different output in different steps.
X = Y means X is equal to Y. There are two basic types of questions that are usually asked.
They are
21. Statements : K * V, M = Z, K ! Z, F  V (1) Shifting - In this type of questions, we usually shift the given
Conclusions : I. M = K II. K  M words (or numbers) of the given input as per a fixed pattern.
(2) Arranging – In this type of questions, the words or the
22. Statements : A @ R, E  D, F ! R, D = F numbers are arranged as per a fixed order. This order can be an
Conclusions : I. A @ E II. E  F alphabetical order in case of words. It can be an increasing or
decreasing order in case of numbers.
23. Statements : M = X, L @ O, N  M, L * X * Shifting goes on endlessly arranging ends as some as the order
Conclusions : I. N  L II. X @ O intended is achieved.

24. Statements : A  O, R ! A, P = R, J @ P Example Based on Shifting

Conclusions : I. P = A II. P  A Direction (Q 1 to 5) : A word arrangement machine, when
given a particular input, rearranges it following a particular
input. The following is the illustration of the input & the steps
25. Statements : P * Q, K @ P, B=K, R  B
of arrangement.
Conclusions : I. Q  K II. K @ R
Input : cry end yes stay che.
Step I : yes che cry end stay
Directions (Q 26-30) : in the following questions, the symbols
Step II : yes che stay end cry
 , © , =, @ and @ are used with the following meaning :
Step III : stay cry yes che end
X  Y means X is greater than Y. Step IV : stay cry end che yes
X © Y means X is either greater than or equal to Y. And so on goes the machine, study the logic & answer the
X = Y means X is equal to Y. question that follows.
X @ Y means X is smaller than Y.
X & Y means X is either smaller than or equal to Y. Ex. 1 : If step VII of an input is ‘over the pre new bone’ what is
step IV of that input ?
26. Statements : A @ B, L  A, K = L, B = D (a) bone the pre over new (b) the pre bone new over
Conclusions : I. L = B II. D  A (c) the bone pre over new (d) pre bone the over new
(e) none of these
27. Statements : M © A, T @ E, A = T, G  M
Conclusions : I. A @ E II. G  A Ex. 2 : Given the following input – ‘sym reach lad photo cal’
What step will be the following arrangement?
28. Statements : L = I, A  L, S & I, S = K Arrangement: reach lad photo sym cal.
Conclusions : I. L = K II. K @ L (a) VI (b) V (c) IV (d) III
(e) none of these
29. Statements : A & B, D @ A, E = C, B  E
Conclusions : I. B  C. II. A = B Ex. 3 : If Step VI of a given input be ‘map ind pak rus eng’. What
would be the input ?
30. Statements : Y  N, R © O, N @ D, O = Y (a) ind map pak rus eng (b) ind map end rus pak
Conclusions : I. N @ R. II. Y = D (c) eng rus ind pak map (d) rus map ind eng pak
(e) none of these

Sol. : We can see in the direction a certain pattern is repeated

after every two steps.

For convenience, we plot the movement of each word in each

step by the numbers assigned to them in the input. i.e. cry-1, end-
2, yes-3, stay-4, che-5.
Input : 1 2 3 4 5
Step 1 : 3 5 1 2 4
Step 2 : 3 5 4 2 1
Step 3 : 4 1 3 5 2
Step 4 : 4 1 2 5 3
Step 5 : 2 3 4 1 5

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Step 6 : 2 3 5 1 4 (e) none of these
Step 7 : 5 4 2 3 1
Step 8 : 5 4 1 3 2 8. If the code for the input is “tod tex til ide nol lus ros”, what
Steo 9: 1 2 5 4 3 would be the code for the third step?
Step 10 : 1 2 3 4 5 (a) ide tod tex til nol lus ros (b) ide lus tod tex til nol ros
(c) ide lus nol ros tod tex til (d) ide lus nol ros tex tod til
1.(c) From the table the numbers in step VII are (e) none of these
5 4 2 3 1
over the pre new bone Answers (4-8) : The logic is very simple it is a alphabetical
In step IV, we have numbers rearranged as arrangement.
4 1 2 5 3 4.(a) 2nd step : cen fro hum gin turn in tee
The bone pre over new 3rd step : cen fro gin hum turn in tee
4th step : cen fro gin hum in turn tee.
2.(b) From the table the numbers in input are
1 2 3 4 5 5.(d) 1st step : amb dek dah pai con sem ned.
Sym reach lad photo cal 2nd step : amb con dek dah pai sem ned
Now the given arrangement is 3rd step : amb con dah dek pai sem ned
reach lad photo sym cal This is the last step of above arrangement.
2 3 4 1 5
Which is step (V) 6.(d)

3.(d) 7.(d) step II : ato fir har waj neh rus mot
Step III : ato fir har mot waj neh rus
Example based on Arrangement Step IV : ato fir har mot neh waj rus
Direction (Q. 4-8) :
A word arrangement machine arranges the given input of 8.(e) Input : tod tex til ide nol lus ros.
words in a particular manner. The following is the illustration Step I : ide tod tex til nol lus ros
of the input & the steps of arrangement. Step II: ide lus tod tex til nol ros
Input : fam mus tan san vic div ith Step III: ide lus nol tod tex til ros

Step 1 : div fam mus tan san vic ith Practice set:
Step 2 : div fam ith mus tan san vic.
Step 3 : div fam ith mus san tan vic. Directions (Q. 1-5) : A number and word arrangement
This is the final arrangement & Step III is the last step for this machine, when given a particular input, rearranges it
input. following a particular rule. The following is the illustration of
the input and the steps of arrangement:
4. If second step of a given input is “cen fro hum gin turn in tee” Input : Wap 33 72 Victory 25 New Dog 18.
then what would be the fourth step? Step I : 72 Wap 33 Victory 25 New Dog 18.
(a) cen fro gin hum in turn tee Step II : 72 Dog Wap 33 Victory 25 New 18.
(b) cen fro gin hum in tee turn Step III : 72 Dog 33 Wap Victory 25 New 18.
(c) cen fro gin in hum tee turn Step IV : 72 Dog 33 New Wap Victory 25 18.
(d) cen fro gin hum turn in tee Step V : 72 Dog 33 New 25 Wap Victory 18.
(e) none of these Step VI : 72 Dog 33 New 25 Victory Wap 18.
Step VII : 72 Dog 33 New 25 Victory 18 Wap.
5. If the code for the first step is “amb dek dah pai con sem ned”
what would be the code for the fifth step? 1. The IInd step of an input is : 52 brown 21 34 49 cloud sky red
(a) amb con dah dek pai sem ned How many more steps will be required to get the final output
(b) amb con dek dah pai sem ned from the following input
(c) amb con dah dek ned pai sem (a) three (b) four (c) five (d) six
(d) there would be no fifth step (e) None of these
(e) none of these
2. The IIIrd step of a given input is : 57 dine 42 19 tower silver
6. Which of the following could be the code for the input if the mat 24
step 4 is “do ele mex reh tem tru”? What will be the step VI for the input?
(a) do reh ele tem tru mex (b) reh tru do ele tom mex (a) 57 dine 42 mat 24 silver 19 tower
(c) reh ele tem tru do mex (d) Can’t be determined (b) 57 dine 42 mat 24 19 tower silver
(e) none of these (c) 57 dine 42 mat 19 tower silver 24
(d) Can’t be determined
7. If the code for the second step is “ato fir har waj neh rus mot”. (e) None of these
Which of the following step read as “ato fir har mot neh waj
rus”? 3. Input : 84 22 90 case over for 42 win
(a) fifth (b) third (c) sixth (d) fourth What will be the final step of the following input?

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(a) four (b) seven (c) five (d) six Step II : Care 10 truck 40 36 mass 27 lot
(e) None of these Step III : Care 10 lot truck 40 36 mass 27
Step IV : Care 10 lot 27 truck 40 36 mass
4. Step IV : 62 car 52 eyes 20 30 store lane Step V : Care 10 lot 27 mass truck 40 36
Following is step IV for an input, What will be the input? Step VI : Care 10 lot 27 mass 36 truck 40
(a) eyes car 20 62 52 store lane Step VI is the last step for the given input.
(b) eyes 20 car 62 52 30 store lane
(c) eyes car 52 62 30 store lane 11. Input is : is 5 matter 30 temp 16 packed 60
(d) Can’t be determined Following is the step III for an input, what will be the last step?
(e) None of these (a) is 5 matter 16 packed 60 temp 30
(b) is 5 matter 16 packed 30 temp 60
5. Input : Field eyes 90 30 house rent 40 29. (c) is 5 matter 16 temp 30 packed 60
What will be the second last step for the following input? (d) There are only 4 steps
(a) VI (b) V (c) VII (d) VIII (e) None of these
(e) None of these
12. Input : “Mini 26 solve 37 the 81 prob 64”
Directions (Q. 6-10) : The following is the illustration of the For the given input, which of the following will be the IIIrd step?
input and the steps of arrangement: (a) Mini 26 prob 37 solve 81 the 64
Input : 50 Poor 31 Star Now 20 40 Home (b) Mini 26 prob 37 solve 64 the 81
Step I: 20 50 Poor 31 Star Now 40 Home (c) Mini 26 prob 37 the 81 solve 64
Step II : 20 Star 50 Poor 31 Now 40 Home (d) Mini 26 solve 37 prob 81 the 64
Step III : 20 Star 31 50 Poor Now 40 Home (e) None of these
Step IV: 20 Star 31 Poor 50 Now 40 Home
Step V : 20 Star 31 Poor 40 50 Now Home 13. Input : “the 30 issue 48 be 8 series 20” .
Step VI : 20 Star 31 Poor 40 Now 50 Home In how many steps will the following input be fully arranged?
Step VI is the last step for the given input (a) three (b) four (c) five (d) six
(e) None of these
6. The IInd step of an input is : 17 task bea cold dish 82 62 35
How many more steps will be required to get the final output? 14. How much time it will take to rearrange the input : “you 40
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 visit 82 their 10 relative 20” If break time will not be included.
(e) None of these (a) 5 hr. 45 min (b) 5 hour (c) 5 hr. 30 min.
(d) 4 hr. 45 min (e) None of these
7. Input : 71 58 38 gone for picnic 20 job
How many more steps will be required to get the final output? 15. Given Step IV : “Mot 10 pee 20 star 82 the 30”
(a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6 Following is the step IV for an input. What will be the input?
(e) None of these (a) mot 20 pee 10 star 82 the 20
(b) mot 20 pee 10 the 82 star 30
8. Input : nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56 (c) mot 10 pee 20 the 30 star 82
For the given input, which of the following will be the IIIrd step? (d) Can’t be determined
(a) 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56 (e) None of these
(b) 12 nice 34 height 41 flower costly 56 Directions (Q. 16-20) : The following is the illustration of the
(c) 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56 input and the steps of arrangement:
(d) 12 nice flower 34 costly height 41 56 Input : 57 drow fee shy 30 60 70 off
(e) None of these Step I : 70 57 drow fee shy 30 60 off
9. The IInd step of an input is : 10 victory 18 30 53 stay look too Step II : 70 shy 57 drow fee 30 60 off
What will be the Vth step? Step III : 70 shy 60 57 drow fee 30 off
(a) 10 victory 18 too stay 30 53 look Step IV : 70 shy 60 off 57 drow fee 30
(b) 10 victory 18 too 30 stay 53 look Step V : 70 shy 60 off 57 fee drow 30
(c) 10 victory 18 too 30 53 stay look Step VI : 70 shy 60 off 57 fee 30 drow
(d) Can’t be determined Step VI is the last step for the given input.
(e) None of these
16. The IInd step of an input is : 52 wind 43 50 door lock kee 38
10. Input : Milk pot 17 28 our go 37 52 How many more steps will be required to get the final output.
What will be the second last step for the following input ? (a) 3 (b) 4 (c) 5 (d) 6
(a) VI (b) V (c) VII (d) VIII (e) None of these
(e) None of these
17. Following is the step IV for an input : 63 sour 58 sleep roam
Direction (Q. 11-15) : This rearrangement starts at 10 :00 am present 32 48
and each step takes one hour. There will be a break at 2:00 pm What will be the input?
for 1 hour after that every step take 45 minutes. (a) sour 63 sleep 58 roam present 32 48
Input : Truck 40 care 36 mass 27 lot 10 (b) sleep sour 63 58 roam present 32 48
Step I : Care truck 40 36 mass 27 lot 10 (c) 63 sour sleep 58 roam present 32 48

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(d) Can’t be determined (c) Unit 21 trading jogger 38 kill 47 73
(e) None of these (d) Can’t be determined
(e) None of these
18. Input : “Jocker fee 37 42 grow champ 21 46” .
What will be the IIIrd step for the following input ? 25. If the Ist step of an input is : “18 43 fun rule exam 31 80
(a) 42 jocker grow fee 37 champ 21 46 home”
(b) 46 jocker 42 fee grow 37 champ 21 Which of the following will be its IIIrd step?
(c) 46 jocker 42 grow 37 fee champ 21 (a) 18 rule 31 43 fun exam 80 home
(d) 46 jocker 42 fee 37 grow champ 21 (b) 18 rule 31 43 fun 80 exam home
(e) None of these (c) 18 rule 31 43 fun 80 exam home
(d) Can’t be determined
19. Following is the step II for an input : “62 sour 17 57 grapes (e) None of these
healthy 34 rise”
What will be the last step? Directions (Q. 26-30) : The following is the illustration of the
(a) IV (b) V (c) VIII (d) VII input and the steps of arrangement:
(e) None of these Input : Sun day 41 90 get 30 kite 62
Step I : 90 sun day 41 get 30 kite 62
20. Following is the step I for an input : “85 journey train 36 54 Step II : 90 day sun 41 get 30 kite 62
daily 28 mansion” Step III : 90 day 30 sun 41 get kite 62
What will be the step V? Step IV : 90 day 30 sun 62 41 get kite
(a) 85 train 54 mansion 28 journey daily 36 Step V : 90 day 30 sun 62 get 41 kite
(b) 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28 Step V is the last step for the given input.
(c) 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28
(d) There is no such step 26. If the IIIrd step of an input is : “92 go 27 man pet 42 lamp
(e) None of these 38” .
Then what will be the last step?
Directions (21-25) : The following is the illustration of the (a) VIII (b) VII (c) VI (d) V
input and the steps of arrangement: (e) None of these
Input : talk star 32 49 given 82 like 63
Step I : 32 talk star 49 given 82 like 63 27. If following is the step II : “53 at deep follow 42 17 road 33”.
Step II : 32 talk 49 star given 82 like 63 For an input, what will be the step V?
Step III : 32 talk 49 star 63 given 82 like (a) 53 at 17 road 33 deep follow 42
Step IV : 32 talk 49 star 63 like given 82 (b) 53 at 17 road 42 deep follow 33
Step V : 32 talk 49 star 63 like 82 given (c) 53 at 17 road 33 follow 42 deep
Step V is the last step for the given input. (d) There is no such step
(e) None of these
21. The step II of an input : “22 work 48 32 pee blue 27 game”
What will be the Vth step ? 28. If following is the step III : “60 daily 11 tie 40 27 foreign
(a) 22 work 27 pee 48 32 blue game urgent”
(b) 22 work 27 pee 32 48 blue game For an input then what will be the input?
(c) 22 work 27 32 pee 48 blue game (a) Foreign 60 tie urgent 11 40 27 daily
(d) 22 work 27 48 pee 32 blue game (b) Foreign 60 urgent tie 40 daily 27 11
(e) None of these (c) Foreign 60 11 urgent tie 40 daily 27
(d) Can’t be determined
22. The Step IInd of an input : “11 where 81 31 gem wap 41 ask (e) None of these
What will be the last step?
(a) VI (b) VII (c) VIII (d) IV 29. If following is the step II : “70 from 49 super itself 57 10
(e) None of these went”
For an input, So how many more step will be required to get the
23. Input : “Phone cat 31 lamp 17 70 43 dairy”. final output?
What will be the IIIrd step for the following input? (a) Five (b) Six (c) Four (d) Three
(a) 17 phone 43 lamp cat 70 31 dairy (e) None of these
(b) 17 phone 31 lamp 43 cat 70 dairy
(c) 17 phone 31 cat lamp 70 43 dairy 30. Input : “thirty days from now 33 50 88 25”. What will be the
(d) 17 phone 31 lamp cat 70 43 dairy IIIrd step for the following input?
(e) None of these (a) 88 thirty days from now 33 50 25
(b) 88 days thirty from now 33 50 25
24. If the step II is given below, which of the following was the (c) 88 days 25 thirty from now 33 50
input? (d) 88 thirty 25 days 33 from now 50
“21 unit 38 trading kill 47 73 jogger” (e) None of these
(a) Unit 21 38 jogger 47 trading 73 kill
(b) Unit trading 21 38 jogger 47 73 kill

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 18 Statement And Assumptions 1. Statement : It is desirable to put the child in the school at the
age of 4 or so.
An assumption is something which is assumed, supposed and Assumptions : I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level
taken for granted. It is the missing link of the logical structure of of development and ready to learn.
an argument, it is left unsaid and therefore, assumed. II. The school do not admit children after 4 years of age.

When an assumption is invalid : 2. Statement : Warning : Smoking is injurious to health.

(a) An assumption will be invalid if it is a restatement. Putting it Assumptions : I. Non smoking promotes health
in different words of the given statement. II. Really, this warning is not necessary.
(b) When we restate a sentence in a negative sense, which
changes its appearance but its meaning remains the same. 3. Statement : “You must refer to learn to dictionary if you want
(c) Some keywords like only, always, no other way, make the to become a good writer” – Ram advises Shyam.
sentence invalid. Assumptions : I. Only writers refer to the dictionary
II. All writers, good or bad, refer to the dictionary
Solved Examples
Ex. 1 : Statements : 4. Statement : If it does not rain throughout this month, most
The book is intended to guide the naive to study English in the farmers would be in difficulty this year.
absence of a teacher. Assumptions : I. Timely rain is essential for farming
Assumption : II. Most of the farmers are generally dependent on rains.
I. A teacher of English may not be available to everyone.
II. English can be learnt with the help of a book. 5.Statement : X advises Y, “If you want to study Maths, join
Answer : Both assumptions are correct. Institute A”
Assumptions : I. Y listens to X’s advise
Ex. 2 : Statement : Ram is clever to fail in the examination. II. Institute A provides good coaching for Maths.
Assumption : Very clever boys do not fail in the examination.
Answer : The assumption is correct. Obviously it is assumed that 6. Statement : If you bother me, I will slap you. – A mother warns
very clever boys do not fail. her child.
Assumptions : I With the warning, the child may stop bothering
Ex. 3 : Statement : Of all the mobile sets manufactured in India, her.
brand „A’ has the largest sale. II. All children are basically naughty.
Assumption : No, other brand of mobile sets has as high a sale
as brand „A’. 7. Statement : “A car is available on rent” – an advertisement
Answer : The assumption is invalid because it is a restatement. Assumptions : I. All types of vehicles are available on rent.
II. People will respond to the advertisement
Ex. 4 : Statement : “Smoking is injurious to health” – a notice
Assumption : Non-smoking promotes health. 8. Statement : Unemployed allowance should be given to all
Answer : Invalid assumption, because it is a restatement in a unemployed Indian youths above 18 years of age.
negative sense. Assumptions : I. There are unemployed youths in India who need
financial support
Ex. 5 :Statement : If you are a western dancer, we have a II. The Government has sufficient funds to provide allowance to
challenging job for you. all unemployed youth.
Assumption : I. We need a western dancer.
II. You are a western dancer. 9. Statement : Everybody loves reading comic stories
Answer : Assumption I is implicit otherwise there wouldn’t have Assumptions : I Comic stories are the only reading material
been the advertisement. But II is not necessarily implied. II. Nobody loves reading any other material

Practice set: 10. Statement : Please consult before making any decision on
export from the company.
Directions (1-17) : In each question below are given a Assumptions : I. You may take wrong decision if you don’t
statements followed by two assumptions numbered I and II. An consult me
assumption is something supposed or taken for granted. You II. It is important to take a right decision.
have to consider the statement and the following assumption
and decide which of the assumption is implicit in the statement. 11. Statement : “Do not lean out of the door of the bus” – a
Give answer warning in a school bus
(a) If only assumption I is implicit Assumptions : I. Leaning out of a running bus is dangerous
(b) If only assumption II is implicit II. Children do not pay any attention to such warnings.
(c) If either I or II implicit
(d) If neither I nor II is implicit 12. Statement : A statement in the letter to the candidates called
(e) If both I and II are implicit for written exams-“You have to bear your travel expenses.”
Assumptions : I. If not clarified, all the candidates may claim
reimbursement of travel expenses.

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II. Many organizations reimburse expenses on travel to (e) Only I is implicit
candidates called for written examination.
21. Statement : “You cannot solve geometry questions without
13. Statement : The function will start at 4 pm. You are requested consulting a diagram. Difficult questions need diagrams for
to take your seats before 4 pm. solving” – A teacher tells his students.
Assumptions : I. If the invitee is not in his seat before 4 pm, the Assumptions : I. The students are not intelligent.
function will not start. II. The problem cannot be solved.
II. Function will start as scheduled III. Geometry questions are difficult.
(a) I and II are implicit (b) II and III are implicit
14. Statement : A warning in a train compartment – “To stop (c) Only II is implicit (d) Only III is implicit
train, pull chain. Penalty for improper use Rs. 1000” (e) None is implicit.
Assumptions : I. Some people misuse the chain
II. On certain occasion, people may want to stop a running train. 22. Statement : “You should not drink Rum. You must take care
of your health” – A tells his friend
15. Statement : Lack of stimulation in the four or five years of Assumptions : I. A knows about the ill-effects of Rum.
life can have adverse consequences. II. Rum is intoxicating.
Assumptions : I. A great part of the development of observed III. Rum is not good for health.
intelligence occurs on the earliest years of life. (a) Only III is implicit (b) I and II are implicit
II. 50 percent of the measurement intelligence at 17 is (c) II and III are implicit (d) I and III are implicit
predictable by the age of four. (e) All are implicit

16. Statement : In case of any difficulty about this case, you may 23. Statement : “I have decided to cut down on tea. People tell
contact out company’s legal advisor. me that nicotine is not good for health” – X tells Y.
Assumptions : I. Each company has a legal advisor of his own Assumptions : I. Tea contains nicotine
II. The company’s legal advisor is thoroughly briefed about this II. People are correct in their views about tea.
case. III. Y may also cut down on tea.
(a) I and II are implicit (b) All are implicit
17. Statement : A good manager must draw the maximum from (c) Only I is implicit (d) Only II is implicit
each employee. (e) Only III is implicit24. Statement : “We buy used imported
Assumptions : I. It is possible to get the utmost from each items. Contact us at the earliest” – an advertisement
employee. Assumptions : I. Used imported items may not be useless
II. Managers are expected to get the best from their employees. II. There are people who are willing to sell used imported items
III. The advertisement will be read by people who may sell such
Directions : You have to consider the statement and the items.
following assumption and decide which of the assumption is (a) I and II are implicit (b) II and III are implicit
implicit in the statement. (c) I and III are implicit (d) All are implicit
(e) Only II is implicit
18. Statement : “I think that he has gone mad. Last night I saw
him barking like a dog” – Roma tells Riya about Ram. 25. Statement : “You won’t get chocolates at any cost. I will not
Assumptions : I. Ram is a friend of Roma let you eat things that are not good for your teeth” – A mother
II. Riya knows Ram. tells her child.
III. Some people do not bark like dogs. Assumptions : I. The mother cares for her child
(a) I and II are implicit (b) II and III are implicit II. Chocolate are not good for health
(c) I and III are implicit (d) All are implicit III. The mother has the authority to decide what her child is to
(e) Either I or II and III are implicit eat
(a) I and II are implicit (b) II and III are implicit
19. Statement : “I do not like to give consumer goods as a (c) I and III are implicit (d) All are implicit
birthday gift. I prefer to give cash” – X tell Y (e) None of these
Assumptions : I. X is invited to birthdays.
II. Some people give consumer goods as birthday gifts 26. Statement : “Washing powder : Chamak. For a washing that
III. Some people give useless things as birthday gifts. is brightest and cleanest. And cheap too” – an advertisement
(a) I and II are implicit (b) II and III are implicit Assumptions : I. Chamak is a good washing powder
(c) I and III are implicit (d) All are implicit II. People want cheap washing
(e) None is implicit III. People accord price a secondary importance
(a) I and II are implicit (b) II and III are implicit
20. Statement : “The Prime Minister is expected to announce an (c) I and III are implicit (d) All are implicit
expansion in his ministry shortly” – a newspaper report. (e) None of these
Assumptions : I. The newspaper has quoted authentic sources
II. The newspaper has reliable sources for the news 27. Statement : “It’s so noisy out here. How can a sincere student
III. The Prime Minister has the power to expand his cabinet. study here ?” mother of a student tells her husband.
(a) I and II are implicit (b) II and III are implicit Assumptions : I. Noise is not very conducive to children.
(c) I and III are implicit (d) All are implicit II. Noise may disturb study.

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III. The mother cares for her child’s health. 19 Course Of Action
(a) Only II is implicit (b) I and II are implicit
(c) II and III are implicit (d) Only III is implicit A Course of Action is, a step or administrative decision to be
(e) All are implicit taken for development, follow-up or further action in regard to
the problem, policy etc. on the basis of information given in the
28. Statement : “I think we will win. We have got the most statement’.
talented players on our side” – The national cricket coach in an This kind of questions thus, involve finding proper Course of
interview. Action, assuming the problem or policy being discussed about in
Assumptions : I. Talented players are crucial for any team’s the statement.
victory. In this kind of questions, a statement is given followed by two
II. Cricket is different from other sports. courses of action numbered I and II and we are required to
III. Chances of victory are different from actual occurrences of understand the statement and analyses the problem, and then
victory. decide which of the courses of action logically follow.
(a) Only I is implicit (b) Only II is implicit Solved Examples
(c) Only III is implicit (d) I and II are implicit
(e) I and III are implicit Ex. 1 : Statement : A child was caught in a bus while attempting
to steal the purse of a respectable lady.
29. Statement : “This is gun in my hand. So you better behave Course of Action :
like a good girl and bring out all your valuable things without I. The child should be severely beaten
calling the police” – A thief tells a lady II. The child, should be handed over to child welfare society.
Assumptions : I. When people see a gun they behave like good Answer : II will tend to solve the problem but I will not. Hence
girl II will follow.
II. Fear brings a sense of surrender
III. The police should not be called when people are afraid Ex. 2 : Statement : The Central Vigilance Commissions of
(a) I and II are implicit (b) II and III are implicit Investigation receives the complaint of an officer taking bribe to
(c) I and III are implicit (d) Only II is implicit do the duty he is supposed to.
(e) Only I is implicit Course of Action :
I. CVC should try to catch the officer red-handed and then take
30. Statement : “The death of the convict in the police custody a strict action against him.
was a result of excessive torture. His autopsy proves it” – An II. CVC should wait for some more complaints about the officer
advocate to the court to be sure about the matter.
Assumptions : I. The convict died in police custody Answer :
II. Autopsy can be used to find the reason of death When the CVC receives even a single complaint against an
III. An advocate is an expert on autopsy officer, it is a serious matter. The CVC should try to do
(a) Only I is implicit (b) Only II is implicit something and not wait for some more complaints. The CVC
(c) Only III is implicit (d) I and II are implicit should investigate the matter and, if possible try to catch the
(e) I and III are implicit officer red handed if he is corrupt. Hence I. follows and II does
not.

Ex. 3 : Statement : The Railway Minister submits his resignation

a month before the new budget is to be presented in the
Parliament.
Course of Action :
I. The resignation should be accepted and another person should
be appointed as the Railway Minister.
II. The resignation should not be accepted.
Answer :
We don’t have any information about the circumstances behind
his resignation and in such a case we can only take “either
follows”. Hence either I or II follows.

Ex. 4 : Statement : The Hepatitis has so far claimed 100 lives in

some tribal villages in Maharashtra during the past three weeks.
Course of Action :
I. The residents of these villages should immediately be shifted
to a non-infected area.
II. The Government should immediately send a medical squad to
this area to restrict spread of the disease.
Answer : Clearly I is vague because if infected people are shifted
to non- infected area, the infection will spread there as well . So,
only II follows.

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 I. India should suitably implement the action points of this
Ex. 5 : Statement : It is rumored that there is a bomb in the Prime conference
Minister Office. II. India should initiate in organizing this type of conference.
Course of Action :
I. The Prime Minister should be escorted to a safe area. 5. Statement : People in the locality were agitated as more than
II. A proper search of a bomb should be carried out. forty people died in a building collapse.
III. No attention should be paid to such baseless rumors. Course of Action :
Answer : I. Government should immediately announce compensations for
We cannot treat such rumors as involve the prime minister life the affect families.
as baseless. Hence III does not follows and instead I and II II. Authorities should take a strong action against builders for
follow. using substandard quality of material used.

Practice set: 6. Statement : About 20% to 30% of children, who are enrolled,
do not attend the school on any scheduled day.
Directions (1-20) : In each question below are given a Course of Action :
statements followed by two courses of action. Course of action I. More schools should be started
is a step for administrative decision to be taken for II. Reasons for this irregularity should be found out.
improvement, follow up or further action in regard to the
problem, policy, etc. On the basis of the information given in 7. Statement : With the onset of South-western monsoon all the
the statement, you have to assume everything in the statement hospitals are getting increased number of patients due to various
to be true, then decide which of the given suggested courses of seasonal diseases.
action logically follows for pursuing Course of Action :
Give answer : I. Municipal should educate the public the need for observing
(a) If only I follows minimum required hygiene.
(b) If only II follows II. Municipal authorities should make arrangements to equip the
(c) If either I or II follows hospitals with required medicines and other facilities.
(d) If neither I nor II follows
(e)If both I and II follows 8. Statement : Although the Indian economy is still heavily
dependent on agriculture, its share in global agriculture trade is
1. Statement : Misuse of aids offered to the peasants was less than the share of agriculture based exports to total exports.
observed and brought to the notice of the concerned authorities. Course of Action :
Course of Action : I. Efforts should be made to increase our agricultural production
I. Government should issue orders to the concerned officials to II. The exports of non-agricultural commodities should be
the harsh and more careful while verifying the required reduced.
documents while granting aid.
II. Government should take stringent action against those 9. Statement : More number of candidates passing SSC
making false claim of subsidy. examination has resulted into frustration among children for not
getting admissions into institutions of their choice.
2. Statement : Air export volumes have raised substantially over Course of Action :
the past decade causing accumulation and difficulties for air I. Government should permit the institutions to increase the
cargo agents because of increased demand for space and number of seats.
service. II. Students and their parents should be counseled for being
Course of Action : flexible on the choice of college.
I. Airlines and air cargo agents should jointly work out a
solution to come out of the problem 10. Statement : Large amount of resources are needed to develop
II. The reasons for the increases in the volume of air export tourist places in a country like India, which is endowed with vast
should be figured out. coastlines, rivers, forests, with rich flora and fauna temples etc
Course of Action :
3. Statement : Expensive clothes and accessories are becoming I. More tourist resorts along the coastal line only should be
a growing need among college going teenagers of middle income started.
group. II. The tourist potential of India should be developed
Course of Action :
I. Colleges should notify a dress code. 11. Statement : The Chairman stressed the need for making
II. Children should be counseled emphasizing the importance of education system more flexible and regretted that the curriculum
many other things. has not been revised in keeping with the pace of the advances
taking place
4. Statement : The world conference of “Education for All” took Course of Action :
place in 2000. members who attended conference endorsed the I. Curriculum should be reviewed and revised periodically
frame work of action for meeting the basic learning needs of all II. System of education should be made more adaptable.
kids.
Courses of Action : 12. Statement : Researchers are feeling agitated as libraries are
not equipped to provide the right information to the right users

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at the right time in the prescribed format. Even the users are not I. Government should set-up new industries
upto-date regarding the various service available for them. II. Unemployed should be issued concessional loans.
Course of Action :
I. All the information available in the libraries should be 19. Statement : The experts group on Technical Education has
digitized to provide faster services to the users. stressed that computer education should be included in the
II. Library staff should be imparted training in computer primary school curriculum. It should be implemented in urban
operations. and rural schools simultaneously
Course of Action :
13. Statement : The senator said the teachers are still not I. Government should issue directions to all schools for
familiarized with need, importance and meaning of population imparting computer education.
education in the higher education system. They are not even II. At least one teacher from each school should be imparted
clearly aware about their role and responsibilities in the training in computer operations for teaching children.
population education programme.
Course of Action : 20. Statement: The government has decided not to provide
I. Population education programme should be included in the financial aid to voluntary organizations from next five year plan
higher education. and has communicated that all such organizations should raise
II. Orientation programme should be organized for teachers on funds to meet their financial needs.
population education. Course of Action :
I. Voluntary organizations should collaborate with abroad
14. Statement: Experts Committee on Industrial Relations has agencies.
unearthed in their recent reports that not only the internal II. They should approach corporate for financial support.
problems of the organizations were successfully managed
through quality controls but also employees’ motivation level Directions (21-30) : A statement is given followed by three
was increased significantly courses of action. A course of action is taken for improvement,
Course of Action : follow-up etc. Read the statement carefully and pick the correct
I. Organization should conduct orientation programmes for answer choice.
their employees on quality control. 21. Statement: The police has failed to protect the senior citizens
II. Employees should be encouraged to join quality control of the society. Only last week three old persons were murdered
programmes. at three different places.
Course of Action :
15. Statement : If the retired professors of the same institutes are I. The police should be asked to take special care of women and
also invited to deliver on restructuring of the organization their children
contribution may be fruitful to the institute II. The Government should bring a law against the killing of
Course of Action : senior citizens.
I. Management may seek opinion of the staff before calling III. Convicts who are accused of killing senior citizens should be
retired professors. prosecuted by the state.
II. Management should involve experienced people for the (a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
systematic restructuring of the organization. (c) Only III follows (d) III and II follow
(e) None follows.
16. Statement : There are more than 100 villages in the hill area
of Orissa which are severely damaged due to cyclone and it 22. Statement: Passengers travelling by the Indian Railways
causes an extra burden of Rs.200 crore on State Government for come across a lot of hardships and inconveniences.
relief and rehabilitation work Course of Action :
Course of Action: I. Efforts should be made to improved the conditions
I. People of affected areas should be shifted to other safe places. II. Facilities for safe and pure potable water should be provided
II. State Government should ask for more financial support from III. The railway stations and platforms should be made more
Central Government. clean and hygienic
(a) I and II follow (b) II and III follow
17. Statement : Ministry of Tourism in its one of the reports (c) I and III follow (d) All follow
revealed that due to recent social disturbance in the country, the (e) None follows.
number of foreign tourists has decreased considerably, which
account for a financial loss of Rs. 100 crore. 23. Statement: It is rumored that there is a bomb in the Prime
Course of Action : minister office.
I. Government should provide financial aid to the tourism sector Course of Action :
II. Foreign tourists should be informed to visit the country at I. The Prime Minister should be escorted to a safe area.
their risk. II. A proper search of a bomb should be carried out
III. No attention should be paid to such baseless rumors.
18. Statement : Employment opportunities in private sector (a) Only III follows (b) Only I follows
industry declined from 4.50 million on December, 2001 to 4.15 (c) Only II follows (d) Either II or III follows
million in November, 2002 due to large number of „sick’ (e) I and II follow
industry- A report
Course of Action :

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24. Statement : Country has been facing the problem of child 29. Statement: The salaries of private sector employees has
labor despite several legislations. nearly increased in the past two years.
Course of Action : Course of Action :
I. Government should treat child labor as a trivial issue I. Higher income tax rate should be imposed on private sector
II. Child labor should be declared civil offence employees.
III. Children indulging in such activities should be punished. II. The wages of public sector employees should also be
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows increased.
(c) Only III follows (d) Either II or III follows III. A further rise should not be allowed.
(e) None of these (a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) Either I or II follows (d) None follows
25. Statement : After the success of films such as, Rab ne bana (e) At least one of the above follows
di Jodi’ and, Vivah’ good music and clean entertainment are
back again. 30. Statement :Some bottles of soft drinks have been found to
Course of Action : contain dead insects, flies and even lizards.
I. Movies having good music and clean entertainment should be Course of Action :
promoted I. People should be told about these incidents.
II. The two movies mentioned above should be awarded for their II. Soft drink manufacturers should be punished and imprisoned
clean entertainment for selling hazardous products.
III. The government should criticize movies that are not on the III. The sale soft drinks should be banned.
models of these two films (a) Only I follows (b) I and II follow
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows (c) Only II follows (d) II and III follows
(c) I and II follow (d) I and III follow (e) Only III follows
(e) II and III follow

26. Statement : The economic scenario of the country is

improving day by day. But some states like Madhya Pradesh
seem’s to be going from bad to worse.
Course of Action :
I. President rule should be imposed in Madhya Pradesh.
II. Heavy privatization should be pursued in such states.
III. The governments of such states should be asked to re-
evaluate their economic planning.
(a) Only II follows (b) I and II follow
(c) II and III follow (d) Only III follows
(e) Either II or III follows
27. Statement : An IAS officer has been murdered in Madhya
Pradesh by irate mobs. It is being suspected that the police
played a deliberately inert role during the incident.
Course of Action :
I. All IAS officers in Madhya Pradesh should be given tight
security.
II. The police officials concerned should be suspended.
III. The Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh should resign on
moral grounds.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) I and II follow (d) I and III follows
(e) All follow

28. Statement : The pollution level in some parts of Mumbai has

reached an alarming level. Already, one day in Mumbai means
an involuntary smoking of 24 cigarettes.
Course of Action :
I. Automobiles exceeding the pollution limit should be dealt with
severely.
II. The government should close down some of the high-pollution
industries in Mumbai.
III. Cigarettes should be rationed in Mumbai.
(a) Only I follows (b) Only II follows
(c) I and II follow (d) I and III follows
(e) II and III follows.

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 20 Arguments None is strong. First based on example. Second says that many
workers are illiterate what about the remaining one & who are
In such types of problems, question consist of a statement. The literate & whose suggestions will be of same value ?
statement is usually in the form of a suggested course of action.
Followed by two arguments one argument advocates the Example (5)
suggested course of action by pointing. Out of the positive Statement : Should government jobs in rural areas have more
features & other argument against the suggested course of incentives
action by pointing out the negative features. Our job is to Argument :
determine whether a given argument is forceful or not. (i) Yes, incentive are essential for attracting government
servants there
When argument is weak (ii) No, rural areas are already cheaper, healthier, & less
(1) In case of example & analogies argument is weak. complex than big towns. So why offer extra incentives.
(2) In case of question back argument is weak. Answer :
(3) In case of too simple argument is weak. Both are strong. Incentives do cure people. Second is also an
(4) In case of negative approach argument is weak. established fact.
(5) In case of superfluous arguments.
(6) Some keywords like only, always and no other way, make the Practice set:
sentence weak.
Directions : Each question given below is followed by two
When argument is strong arguments numbered I and II. You have to decide which of the
(1) In case of established fact arguments is a “strong” argument and which is a “weak”
(2) Logically the result is probable argument.
(3) Experience indicates this that result will follow Give answer
(a) if only argument I is strong ;
Example (1) : Statement : Should private sector be permitted to (b) if only argument II is strong ;
operate telephone services. (c) if either I or II is strong ;
Argument : (d) if neither I nor II is strong ; and
(i) Yes, they are operated in advanced western countries (e) if both I and II strong.
(ii) No, it is risking to put them in private hands. 1. Statement: Should primary school education be made free in
Answer : India ?
None is strong. First is based on example while second is Arguments:
superfluous argument. I. Yes, this is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II. No, it will add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.
Example (2) : Statement : Should so much money spent on games
or sports ? 2. Statement : Should there be complete ban on production of
Arguments : fire crackers in India?
(i) Yes, we are a rich nation & can easily spent any amount of Arguments : I. No, this will render thousands of workers jobless
money for games. II. Yes, the fire cracker producer use child labor to a large
(ii) No, our team are unable to put up a good show in extent.
international competitions.
Answer : 3. Statement : Should more universities be established in India ?
None is strong. It is not true that we are a rich nation. Similarly, Arguments : I. No, we have not yet achieved the target of
the reasons mentioned in the second are not sufficient to put a literacy.
stop on money spending. II. No, we have to face the problems of highly educated but
unemployed youths.
Example (3) : Statement : Should new big industries be started
in Delhi ? 4. Statement : Should all the state owned educational institutions
Argument : be given to private sector ?
(i) Yes, it will create new job opportunities Arguments : I. Yes, there will be upgradation of educational
(ii) No, it will further add to the pollution of the city. standard in these institutions
Answer : II. Yes, the educational standard of these institutions will
Both are correct & strong arguments. decrease.

Example (4) : 5. Statement : Should the tuition fees in all post graduate courses
Statement : Should workers be allowed to participate in the be increased considerably ?
management of factories in India ? Arguments : I. Yes, this will bring in some sense of seriousness
Arguments : among the students and will improve the quality.
(i) Yes, it is the present management theory. II. No, this will force the meritorious poor students to stay away
(ii) No, many workers are illiterate & so their contributions will from post-graduate courses
not be of any value.
Answer :

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6. Statement : Should India allow the international companies to Arguments: I. Yes, with cold war coming to an end, such
explore the resources available under sea in its vast economy organizations have no role to play
zone ? II. No, in the absence of such organizations there may be a world
Arguments : I. Yes, India do not have enough technical and war.
financial resources to conduct such explorations.
II. No, this will be threat to the sovereign status of the country 17.Statement: Should there be a complete ban on strike by public
servants in India ?
7. Statement : Should corporate be allowed to operate passenger Arguments : I. Yes, this is the only way to teach discipline to the
train services in India ? employees ?
Arguments : I. Yes, this will improve the quality of service in II. No, this deprives the citizens of their democratic rights.
Indian Railways as it will have to face severe competition
II. No, the private companies may not agree to operate in the 18. Statement : Should 5 star hotels banned in India ?
non profitable sectors. Arguments: I. Yes, they are places from where international
criminals operate.
8. Statement : Will the newly elected MP’s fulfill their promises II. No, Affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.
?
Arguments: I. Yes, otherwise their very existence will be at risk. 19. Statement : Should internal assessment in college be
II. No, elected members never seem to remember their promise removed?
and commitments. Arguments : I. Yes, this will help in reducing the possibility of
bias.
9. Statement : Should words like “smoking is injurious to health” II. No, teaching faculty will lose control over students.
necessarily appear on cigarette packs?
Arguments: I. Yes, it is a sort of brain wash to make the smokers 20. Statement: Should there be only one central university
realize they are inhaling toxic stuff. throughout India?
II. No, it hampers the enjoyment of smoking Arguments : I. Yes, This is the only way to bring about uniformity
in educational standards
10. Statement : Should poaching be banned completely ? II. No, This is administratively impossible.
Arguments : I. Yes, it has been proved to be a definite
environmental hazard. 21. Statement: Should new big industries be started in Pune?
II. No, what will poachers do ? Arguments: I. Yes, It will create new job opportunities
II. It will further add to the pollution of the city.
11. Statement : Does synonym mean exactly the same ?
Arguments : I. Yes, a rich language has many words for one 22. Statement: Should computers be used in all sectors in India?
word. Arguments : I. Yes, It will bring efficiency and accuracy in the
II. No, each so called synonym is different from the other word work
and if used in its place, it changes the meaning slightly. II. No, It will be an injustice to the monumental human resources
which are at present underutilized
12. Statement : Should the age for marriage for boys be
increased to 25 years ? 23. Statement: Should our nation not fully utilize go in for
Arguments : I. No, it is arbitrary computerization in industry?
II. Yes, it may solve the population problem. Arguments: I. No, computerization requires a lot of money. We
should not waste money on it
13. Statement: Should there be reservation of seats and posts on II. Yes, when advanced countries are introducing computers in
the basis of religion ? various areas, how can we afford to lag behind?
Arguments : I. Yes, it will check most of the inter religion basis.
II. No, ours is a secular state. 24. Statement: Should we take care of the ozone layer?
Arguments: I. Yes, it protects us from the harmful ultraviolet
14.Statement: Should there be a ban on commodity advertising rays
? II. There is no harm from it
Arguments: I. No, it is an age of advertising. Unless your
advertisement is better than your other competitors, the product 25. Statement: Should shifting agriculture be practiced?
will not be sold. Arguments: I. No, it is a wasteful practice
II. Yes, the money spent on advertising is very huge and it inflates II. Yes , modern methods of agriculture are too costly.
the cost of the product.
26. Statement: Should political parties be restricted?
15. Statement: Should be abolished the Public Distribution Arguments: I. Yes, it is necessary, to teach a lesson to the
System in India ? politicians.
Arguments: I. Yes, protectives is over everyone must get the II. No, it will lead to an end of democracy.
bread on his/her own.
II. Yes, the poor do not get any benefit because of corruption. 27. Statement: Should so much money be spent on games and
sports infrastructure?
16. Statement: Should an organization like UNO be abolished?

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Arguments: I. Yes, we are a rich nation and can easily spend any
amount of money for games and sports infrastructure.
II. No, our teams are unable to put up a good performance in
international events.

28. Statement: Should those who demand dowry, despite the

law prohibiting it, be punished?
Arguments : I. Yes, those who disobey the law must be punished
II. No, dowry system is firmly rooted in the society since time
immemorial.

29. Statement: Are small families better than joint families?

Arguments : I. No, joint families ensure security and also
reduce the burden of work.
II. Yes, small families ensure greater freedom.

30. Statement: Should taxes on Air conditioner be increased

further?
Arguments: I. Yes, air conditioner is a luxury item and only
rich people buy it.
II. No, A.C. are bought by the poor too.

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 21 NON VERBAL REASONING
TYPE - 1 SERIES

This type of problem on series consists of five figures numbered A, B, C, D and E forming the set of Problem, followed by five
other figures numbered 1,2, 3, 4 and 5 forming the set of Answer Figures. The five consecutive Problem Figures form a define
sequence and it is required to select one of the figures from the set of Answer Figures which will continue the same sequence.

So. The figure rotates 90º CW in each step and half a line segment and one complete line segment are added to the figure
alternately. Clearly, Fig. (1) is the answer.

TYPE - 2 ANALOGY

“Analogy “ implies “Corresponding”. In the problems based on analogy, a pair of related figures is provided and a similar
relationship is to be established between two other figures, by selecting one or both of them from a set of alternatives.
The various types of problems upon Analogy have been discussed with examples and exercises in this chapter.
This type of Analogy involves problems consisting of four figures marked A, B, C and D forming the Problem Set and five other
figures marked 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 forming the Answer Set. The figures A and B of the Problem set are related in a particular manner
and a similar relationship is to be established between figure C and D by choosing a figure form the Answer set which would
replace the question mark in fig. (C) or fig. (D)
Solved Examples

Direction : Figure A and B are related in a particular manner. Establish the same relationship between figures C and D by
choosing a figure from amongst the five alternatives, which would replace the question mark in fig. (D).

1.
Sol. Clearly, fig, (A) rotates through 135º CW to form fig. (B) similar relationship will give fig. (4) from fig. (C). Hence, fig (4) is
the answer.

TYPE - 3 CLASSIFICATION
In such type of problems, we are given a set of five/four figures, out of which all except one are alike in some manner. We have to
select the exclusively different figure in the given set.
Following examples will make understanding easier.

Solved Example
Ex.1

Sol. Only in fig.(c), two of the four element are oriented into each other. Hence, fig. (c) is the answer.

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 Practice set:

Direction (1–10): There are 5 design given in each question below (1), (2), (3), (4), (5), followed by 5 Answers (a),(b),(c),(d)
and (e) in which only one answer design is the next design to follow the series of given question.

1)

2)

3)

4)

5)

6)

7)

8)

9)

10)

Direction ( 11 – 20): In following questions , the first two picture below each between the shapes in question is concerned. The
answer to the third question shapes the counter a ,b ,c, d and e. Find the correct answer.

11)

12)

13)

14)

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15)

16)

17)

18)

19)

20)

Direction ( 21 – 30 ): There are 5 design given in each question. In which 4 figures are same and other one is different. Then
find the different figure.

21)

22)

23)

24)

25)

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26)

27)

28)

29)

30)

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 Logical reasoning Solutions: 16. (c) There are 13 letters between Q and X. So, the middle
letter is seventh to the right of Q, which is H.
01) Alphabet Test
17. (b) The nineteenth letter from the beginning is J, and the
1. (c) Franchise, Frappe, Fraud, Fraught, Fray eighteenth letter from the end is
E. There are 9 letters between E and J. So, the middle letter is
2. (e) Genealogist, Genepoll, Generality, Genealize, Generate T.
Questions 18 to 22
3. (b) Hair-net, Hairy, Hake, Hale, Halt The given alphabet series becomes :
AZCXEVGTIRKPMNOLQJSHUFWDYB
4. (a) Elect, Elector, Electric, Electrode, Electron
18. (d) The fifteenth letter from the left is O. Clearly, L is to the
5. (e) Legacy, Legal, Legal, Legible, Length, Lenient right of O.

6. (b) 19. (c)

Writing the given alphabet in reverse order, we have : The nineteenth letter from the left is S and the fifteenth letter
ZYXWVUTSRQPONMLKJIHGFEDCBA from the right is P. Clearly, O and L lie in the middle of S and
Cancelling every second letter, the new series becomes : Z X V P.
TRPNLJHFDB
There are 13 letters in the above series. So, the middle letter is 20. (d) U lies between H and F.
the seventh letter, i.e. N.
21. (b) Clearly, there are two pairs in the series containing
7. (c) The new alphabet series is : B A D C F E H G J I L K N letters in alphabetical order – MN and NO.
MPORQTSVUXWZY
Clearly, the 16th letter in the above series is o. 22. (d) K is to the right of R and I is to its left.

8. (e) The given number is 8314629. Arranging the digits in 23. (c)
aescending order, we get 1234689. We have the following four It is clear from the series. B is exactly middle of F&D, & A is
pairs of digits, satisfying the given conditions : 5th right of B.
Digits in given no.
46 462 4629 629 24. (b) In all other alternatives, the second letter is two steps
Digits in descending order behind the first letter, while the third letter is four steps ahead
46 432 9864 986 of the second letter, in the given arrangement.

9. (d) The new series becomes : 25. (e) The corresponding letters of the first and second groups
AB*DE*GH*JK*MN*PQ*ST*VW*YZ of each pair occupy the same positions from the beginning and
end of the given series, respectively.
10. (b) The pairing up to letters may be done as shown below :
AZ, BY, CX, DW, EV, FU, GT, HS, IR, JQ, KP, LO, MN 26. (e) The new number formed is 45729. Required sum = (4 +
5 + 7 + 2 + 9) = 27
11. (d) The new letter series becomes : A b C d E f G h I j K l M
nOpQrStUvWxYz 27. (e)
The numerical values may be allocated to the letters as shown
12. (c) The thirteenth letter from the right is L. The seventh letter below :
to the right of L is S. FJMPOWRNBEYCKAVLDGXUHQISZT
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
13. (d) Original number = 2 1 3 6 5 9 4 8 7 25 26
Number formed by arranging digits in ascending order =1 2 3 Sum of the values of the vowels = A + E + I + O + U = 14 + 10
456789 + 23 + 5 + 20 = 72.
Clearly the position of 3, 5 and 8 remain unaltered.
28. (a) Since there are no three ‘A’s in consecutive order, so no
14.(b) G is to the immediate left of H. Three places to the right such ‘A’ can be found
of G is J. I is to the immediate left of J, and H is to the immediate
left of I. Four places to the right of H is L. 29. (a) Z Q S M N Q N Y T U V X Y P T A S P T Q Y S P T

Questions 15 to 17. 30. (c) The new number formed after rearrangement is 5 4 6 8
The given alphabet series becomes: 2 3 1 9. Clearly, the third digit to the left of 3 is 6.
ANBOCPDQERFSGTHUIVJWKXLYMZ

15.(d) The nineth letter from the left is E. The fourth letter to the
right of E is G.

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 02 Coding And Decoding:
11.(b) Each letter of the word except the first and last letters, is
moved one step forward and then the order of the letters so
obtained, is reversed to get the code.

12.(c) The letters in the first half and second half of the word
are written in the reverse order and then each letter of the group
so obtained is moved one step forward to get the code. Thus,
we have :
DESIRE → DES/IRE → SED/ERI → TFE/FSJ
1.(e)
HIDDEN is coded as 753392
13.(a) The letters in the first half and second half of the word
are written in the reverse order and then in the group of letters
2. (c) The first letter of the word is moved one step backward,
so obtained, the first , third, fifth and seventh letters are each
while the two middle letters are each moved one step forward to
moved one step forward and other one step backward to get the
obtain the corresponding letters of the code.
code. Thus, we have :
COMPUTER → COMP/UTER → PMOC/RETU →
3.(b) The first, second, third, fourth, fifth, sixth and seventh
QLPBSDUT
letters in the word are moved one, two, three, four, five, six and
seven steps forward respectively to obtain the corresponding
14.(b) The last four letters of the word are written in the reverse
letters of the code.
order, followed by the first three letters in the same order. In the
group of letters so obtained, each letter except the middle letter
4. (b) Each consonant in the word is moved one step forward to
is moved one step backward while the middle letter is moved
obtain the corresponding letter of the code, while the vowels
one step forward to get the code. Thus, we have :
remain unchanged.
SUPREME → SUP/R/EME → EME/R/SUP → DLD/S/RTO
5.(d) The first and third letters are each moved one step RESERVE → RES/ERVE → EVR/E/RES → DUQ/F/QDR
backward, while the second and fourth letters are each moved
one step forward to obtain the corresponding letters of the code. 15.(c)
Finally, in the code so obtained, the last letter of the word is
inserted at the end. 16.(d)Divide the word into three groups of two letters each and
write the letters of each group in the reverse order. In the group
6. (d) The word is divided into groups of two letters each and of letters so obtained, the second, fourth and sixth letters are
then the letters of each group are written in a reverse order. each moved one step forward to get the code. Thus, we have :
AN SW ER → NA WS RE → NBWTRF
7. (d)
17.(d) If in the word, a letter is the nth letter from the beginning
of the English alphabet, then in the code the corresponding
letter is the nth letter from the end

8. (b) The middle letters remains unaltered in the code. Let us 18.(d)Each letter in the word is replaced by the letter which
label the five letters before the middle letter as well as those occupies the same position from the other end of the English
after it, from 1 to 5. Then, the code contains the letters of each alphabet, and the group of letters so obtained is then written in
group in the order 5, 4, 1, 3, 2 the reverse order to get the code. Thus, we have :
Thus we have: FATHER → UZGSVI → IVSGZU
CRUELTY → XIFVOGB → BGOVFIX

19.(b)Each letter of the word is one step forward the

9.(b) Divide the word into six sets of two letters, each and label corresponding letter of the code
these sets from 1 to 6. Then, the code contains these sets in the
order 4, 3, 5, 2, 6, 1 with the letters of sets 3, 2, 1 written in a 20.(c) The order of letters of the word is reversed in the code.
reverse order. Thus, we have : So, reverse the order of the letters in the code to get the word

21.(b)By equating statement II and III, ‘winter’ means ‘de’

10.(b)Divide the word into five sets of two letters each and label 22.(c) The word is divided into groups of two letters each and
these sets from 1 to 5. Then, the code contains these sets in the then these groups are written in the reverse order.
order 5, 4, 3, 2, 1 with the letters of sets 5, 3, 1 written in a NOVEMBER → NO/VE/MB/ER → ER/MB/VE/NO →
reverse order. Thus we have: ERMBVENO
I E U A A C E V → IE/UA/AC/ E V → EV/AC / UA / IE → E V
ACUAIE

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23.(c) Substituting the letters of the given word with their
respective codes, we have

Hence, the answer is (c)

24.(d)Observed the above question, we may notice that So the photo is son of Jagdish.
RESERVE consists of the same letters as REVERSE and the four
possible codes given as alternatives also consist of the same 4.(c) Since S is the husband of R, and P is the mother of R,
letter codes as those in the code for REVERSE. This indicates therefore P is the mother in law of S.
that this is a question on direct-coding. Thus we have :
Letter R E V S
Code A P U T

25. (c)
5.(e) Since the mother in law of the man is the mother of the
mother of the lady, therefore, the lady is the daughter of the
26. (b) Letter T A B L E
man.
G R D
Code P B C M E
Q S H
The code for BLADE is CMBHE

27.(d) Letter M I R A C
L E G B
Code Q V S T U
Z W A C 6.(d) Since P is the brother of J and J is the daughter of Y but X
The code for REAL is SWTZ. is the brother of Y therefore, X is the uncle of P.

28. (c) The desired code is *5078*.

29. (d) Clearly, the given letter-group begins with a consonant

and ends with a vowel.
The desired code is 649025
7.(c) Since the son of the only brother of the lady is the nephew
30. (b)The desired code is 263857. of the lady, therefore, the wife of the man is the niece of the lady.
Hence the lady is the sister of the father-in- law of the man. Is
03 Blood Relation the niece of the lady. Hence the lady is the sister of the father in
law of the man.
1.(c) Raman is the brother of Diya and Diya is daughter of
Sohan. Therefore Sohan is the father of Raman. Rohan is the
brother of Sohan. Therefore, Rohan is the uncle of Raman.

So Rohan is the Uncle of Raman. 8.(b) In the family C is the father whose wife is B. C has three
children L, M and A out which L is the son. Hence L cannot be
2.(d) N is the mother of M, and L is the husband of M. N is the the father of A.
mother-in-law of L .

3.(d) Since the only son of the mother of Jagdish, is Jagdish,

therefore, the photo belongs to Jagdish‘s son. 9.(a) Only daughter of my mother – Myself.

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 the two sons. Number of female members = (1 + 3 + 1 + (2 *
2)) = 9

20.(c) F is mother of A.

21.(e) X‘s father is Y‘s son. So, Y is X‘s grandfather. O is the

paternal uncle of X. So, O is the brother of X‘s father. This
means that O is also Y‘s son. R is the brother of Y. Thus, R is
the paternal uncle of X.
10.(c) Y•Z means Y is daughter of Z and Z∆X means Z is the
sister of X. Hence X is the maternal uncle of Y. 22.(b) S is the son-in-law of P and brother in law of Q. This
means that P is the father/mother of S‘s wife, and Q is the
brother of S‘s wife. Thus, Q is P‘s son.

23.(c) The person in the photograph is the daughter of maternal

grandmother of the woman who is pointing of the person in the
photograph is the mother of the woman. Hence the woman is the
11.(d) The mother of the only brother of the boy is the wife of daughter of the person in the photograph.
Mukesh‘s father. Therefore, she is mother of Mukesh. Hence
Mukesh is the brother of the boy.

12.(e) X‘s mother was the sister of Y. Hence Y is the maternal

24.(c) Y is the brother of Z and X is the father of Z. therefore, X
uncle of X.
is the father of Y and F is the mother of Y. But D is the son of Y,
hence F is the grandmother of D.
13.(d) Her mother‘s husband means her father and her father‘s
sister is man‘s aunt. Therefore, the man and woman may be
cousin.

14.(c) O and P are the daughters of M and N is the uncle of O.

15.(b) Since the old man‘s son is my son‘s uncle, therefore, old
man‘s son is my brother. Hence the old man is my father. 25.(d) Since F is the mother of Y therefore, Y is the son of F.

26.(a) Vandana is the daughter of Abhay and Nanu is the son of

Abhay‘s sister. So, Nanu and Vandana are cousins.

16.(a) X+M-Y means X is the sister of M who is the father of Y.

Therefore, X is the aunt of Y.
27.(b) Diya is Abhay‘s wife and Payal is Abhay‘s sister. So,
Payal is Diya‘s sister-in-law.

28.(c) Varun is the father of Abhay and Diya is Abhay‘s wife.

17.(b) Bhakti is wife of Mukesh, and Mukesh is grandfather of So, Vandana is Payal‘s niece.
Soni. So, Soni is Bhakti‘s grandson. Hence the answer is (b)
29.(b) The wife of A is D and C is the brother of D. B is the
18.(c) Manu is Mukesh‘s daughter, Mayank is Bhakti‘s son and brother in law of D. Hence A is the brother in law of C and the
Mukesh is Bhakti‘s husband. So, Mayank is Manu‘s brother and brother of B.
his wife is Manu‘s sister-in-law. Hence the answer is (c)
30.(d) Though it is clear that my grandfather has only one
19.(d) The female members in the family are mother, wives of daughter but this is not clear how many son he has.
married sons, unmarried daughter and 2 daughters of each of

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 04 Number Series x² = 1600  x = 40

1. (c) In the given series each no. is obtained by dividing the 14.(d) 18  2 = 36, 36  3 = 108 108  4 = 432
preceding number by 5.  req. no. = 432
625
 𝑁𝑒𝑥𝑡 𝑛𝑜. = =125 5

2.(a) 8 13 22 39 72 137
\ / \ / \ / \ / \ / 15.(c)
+5 +9 +17 +33 65  req. no. = 82.
\ / \ / \ / \ /
+4 +8 +16 +32

3.(d) The series is obtained by using one zero after decimal.

 Required no. is .0006. 16.(d)
Req. no. = 4
4.(c) In the 1st pair the 1st digit of the second no. is the sum of
the 1st and last digit of the 1st no. where the last two digit are
same as that of the 1st no. Applying the same logic in the second
pair we have the 1st digit of second no. as 6+1 = 7. 17.(d)
And last two digit as 0 & 1 in that order, so the no. is 701. Req. no. = 6 – 1 = 5

18.(d) In each sued, the whole no. part are all consecutive
primes.
Hence, in the required surd the whole no. part is 7.
5.(c)
Now, the irrational part is.
Hence, the no. is 1207.

6.(d) clearly, 8 x 2 = 16
 8 : 16
Hence, 12x2 = 24 12 : 24.

7.(d) The no‘s. at odd places, they are all consecutive natural
nos.

19.(b) The given no.s are consecutive primes.

8.(d)  After 19, the next prime is 23.

9.(c) 7 = 2³ -1 20.(d) 1 9 25 49 81 -----

26 = 3³ - 1 1² 3² 5² 7² 9² 11²
63 = 4³ - 1  11² = 121
124 = 5³ - 1
215 = 6³ - 1 21.(d) 4 : 16 :: 16 : 256
342 = 7³ - 1 NO : (NO)2 :: NO: (NO)2

10.(b) 1 + 22 = 5 22.(a) 6: 84 :: 7: 98
5 + 32 = 14 NO : NO×14 :: NO: NO×14
14 + 42 = 30
30 + 52 = 55
55 + 62 = 91

23.(b)

11.(b)

24.(c)
12.(c)
25.(d) 169: 121 :: 361 : 289
(13)2 : (11)2 :: (19)2 : (17)2
13.(b) 5² = 3² + 4²
Similarly, 41² = x² + 9²

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26.(b) 412, 387, 362, 337, 312
-25 -25 -25 -25 6.(c)

27.(b) - 4, -1, 4, 11, 20, 31 7.(b) B →2, E→5, H→8, K→11, N→14
12 – 5, 22 – 5, 32 – 5, 42 – 5, 52 – 5, 62 – 5 Now, our series is given by 2B2, 5E5, 8H8, 11K11, 14N14.
Thus missing term is 11K11.
28.(a) 15, 16, 20, 29, 45, 70, 106
+12 +22 +32 +42 +52 +62 8.(a) In the series, the 1st letters of all terms are ‗M‘, in the first
two terms ‗O‘ is the second letters. In the second two terms, ‗S‘
29.(b) 0, 3, 8, 15, 24, 35 is the second letter. So, in the last two letters terms, ‗T‘ should
(12 – 1),(22 – 1), (32 – 1), (42 – 1), (52 – 1), (62 – 1) be the
second letters.
30.(c) 1, 8, 27, 64, 125, 216, 343  From the option, MTSO is the required answer.
13, 23, 33, 43, 53, 63, 73
9.(c) 1st letter of each word, they are in alphabetical order A, B,
05 Letter Series C and D. It means missing term word should start with C.
2nd letter of each word. They are also in alphabetical order i.e.
1.(b) In this given series, the second letter of each term is E, F, G, H second missing word →G.
replaced by a letter having one more place in the alphabetical Hence, 3rd letter of missing word is Y.
order. 4th letter of each word. They are also in alphabetical order. i.e.
S, T, U, V
 Missing word is CGYU.

Now, 1st term of each term is replaced by letter having one less 10.(b) Clearly, the 1st , 2nd & 3rd letters of each term are
place in the alphabetical orders. respectively ‗moved on‘, two and three steps forward to obtain
the corresponding letter of the next term. So, the missing term,
EJO
Hence, KI should be the missing term.
11.(b) Each term consists alternative letter in the alphabetical
2.(c) In the given series no. is increased by 13. order. So in this order the term is YAC.

12.(d) In the given series, the place value of letter in each term
is
And alphabets replaced by alternate alphabet.

From the above series we refer that the difference b/w the no. is
increased by 1.
i.e. 76M is the missing term. 5 – 3 = 2, 8 – 5 = 3, 12 – 8 = 4 23 → W
17 -12 = 5, 23 – 17 = 6
3.(c) In the given series, both the letters of terms is replaced by 17 → Q , 23 → W
alternate letter in a alphabetical order such as: Q/W

13.(d) in the given series, the 1st , 2nd & 3rd letter of the term are
shifted forward by 2, 3 and 3 respectively in alphabetical order.
 the missing term is INO.
i.e. I L
14.(c) In the given analogy, the 1 st & 2nd letters of term shift
4.(c) In the given series, the place value of all the terms in the backward &forward by 3.
alphabetical order is  The missing term is PK.
A = 1, I = 9, Y = 25, W = 23
7² = 49 = 26+23
It can be inferred that it is the series of square of odd no’s.
 The missing term is at 9² = 81
= [(26 × 3) + 3] i.e. , place C
15.(d)
5.(c) The pattern of the given series is : TPOOAT=312243
BC D EF G HI J KL
So, the next group is L NO

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 22.(b) The given sequence is a combination of two series :

16.(d)
i.e. next term TZ

23.(b)

17.(a)
i.e. missing term is F.

18.(a) Consider the alphabetical position of the 1 st word and 2nd

word in the 1st ratio.
DEFG→HJLN 24.(c)
4 5 6 7 → 8 10 12 14
It means that letter D is replace by letter whose alphabetical
position is twice that of D‘s alphabetic position and all other
follow the same rule. Hence, GHIJ will follow the same rule.
GHIJ→NPRT
7 8 9 10 → 14 16 18 20
25.(b)
19.(b) In the given series
26.(b)

27.(b) The series may be divided into groups as shown :

CFE / G ? I / K ? M in the first group, me second and third letter
are respectively three and two steps ahead of me first letter. A
similar pattern would follow in the second and third groups.

28.(c)

20.(c)
29.(c)

21.(c)

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 19 March March + April

So 7th April 1999 was Monday.

10.(d) As we don‘t know whether it is a leap year or non leap

year so we can find about February so we can‘t determine
number of days.

11.(a) As we don‘t know about the year but here February is not
30.(c) included so we can easily find out the days.
So total days from 29 June to 18 Sept = 81
06 Clock : 12.(e) 14 Nov =
11
1.(b) Angle = Minutes −
2
11
30×hours= ×40−30×7=220−210=10°
2

2.(b)

12
Total odd days = =5 𝑜𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑎𝑦
3.(b) Coincide Time = 7
So 14 Feb 2003 was on Monday.
4.(d) Time =
13.(e) Mirror Time = 12:00 – Actual Time
= 12:00 – 9:48 = 2 : 12

5.(c) The hands of a clock at right angle per 22 times in 12

hours. Total No. of hours in 3 days are 72. 14.(a)
72×22
So hand of a clock will be at right angle is 72 hours = =
12
132 times

6.(c) Hands of a clock are in opposite direction for 11 times in

49
12 hours. Total no. of hours in 2 days are 48. 15.(d) =0 𝑜𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑎𝑦
7
So hands of a clock will be in opposite direction in 2 days = So after 49 days it will be Monday.
48×11
= = 44 times
12
16.(d) If its a leap year then it will be Saturday and if it is a non
7.(a) odd days up to 31 Dec. 1995 – 300 – 1 leap year then it will be Friday.
95→ 95 +23 = 128
119
=0
7
In 1996 Jan Feb Mar Apr May June
14
3 + 1 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 = =0 𝑜𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑎𝑦 17.(b)
7
So 30th June 1996 was Sunday. So 2003 has the same calender as that of 1997.
89
8.(c) odd days up to 31 Dec. 2007 = 7 = 7 +1 = 18.(b) Mirror time = 12 :00 - Actual time
7
In 2008 Jan Feb Mar Apr 5 : 18 = 12 : 00 – Actual time,
11 So Actual time = 6 : 42
3 + 1 + 3 + 3 = 10+1 = = 4 𝑜𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑎𝑦
7
So 17th April 2008 was Thursday.

9.(a) 19.(c)
So time is 3 : 25

8
=1 𝑜𝑑𝑑 𝑑𝑎𝑦
7

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20.(e) Angle = +
18 5 13
21 12 1994
on 21 – Dec. 1994 it was Wednesday.

30.(d) Feb of leap year.

07 Ranking
21.(d) 1.(a) 8 6 6 9 4 6 8 7 4 6 9 7 8 6 7 8 7 4 3 2 6 7 8 7
Minute hand will point towards east.
2.(d) 1 8 4 5 7 8 3 1 6 8 2 4 3 2 8 4 6 2 7 8 6 1 4 2 8 7 3 4 1 2 6
22.(c) 15 Aug 1947 85284
No. of odd days = No. of complete year + No. of Leap year +
Odd days of Months. 3.(b) 8 5 2 8 7 5 3 7 7 8 4 3 4 8 9 5 3 8 7 8 2 5 0 7 8 5 3
= (1946 - 1900) + 11 + 3 + 0 + 3 + 2 + 3 + 2 + 3 +1
= 74 4.(b) 2 7 1 6 8 7 3 5 3 7 3 1 8 7 1 7 3 4 5 1 6 7 5
Now 74  7 = 4 (odd days)
on 31 Dec 1946 it was Monday 5.(b) 3 5 7 3 2 4 9 1 2 6 7 9 1 6 4 3 2 8 9 1 4 3 8 3 2 5 6 9 1 3 9
So, Monday + 4 = Friday. 5
820489163
23.(a) No. of odd days 13 Jan. 2012 – 17 June 2012
Odd Jan Feb Mar Apr May June 6.(a) 4, 8, 3, 0, 7, 9, 3, 7, 13, 11, 5, 0, 1, 2, 6
days 18 29 31 30 31 17 The sixth number from the left is 9. The 3rd number to the right
= of 9 is 13.
= 156
Now 156  7 = 2 (odd days) 7.(e) The given sequence may be analysed as under :
So Friday + 2 = Sunday. 4 / 45 / 453 / 4531 / 45312 / 45 / 453 / 453
Following the above sequence, the next number is ‘1’ which
24.(b) June have 5 Mondays stands for ‘Win’.
Ie 30th June – Monday 1st June – Sunday
8.(c) Clearly, the student will have to relax down at the places
25.(c) Dec & Sept Have same Calander. marked by boxes :
123423144322124314412
26.(b) 1900/4 = 475 (leap year).
9.(c) Let S and B denote Scorpio and Bike respectively. Then,
27.(a) on 31 Dec. 2000 – Sunday the sequence of parking is
No. of odd days = No. of complete year + No. of Leap year + SBSBBSBBBSBBBBSBBB|BBSBBBBBBSBB
Odd days of Months. BBBBBS
= 12 + 3 + 13 The above sequence has been divided into two equal halves by
= 28 a line.
Clearly, number of Bikes in second half of the line = 15.
So 28  7 = 0 (odd days)
on 13 Jan 2013 it will be Sunday.
10.(b) Each time we order 1, 2 or 3, one fruit is added to the
basket but whenever we order 4, two fruits are removed from it.
28.(c) on 31 Dec. 2000 – Sunday
Aniket born on 24 Oct 2010  Number of fruits in the basket at the end of the given order
18 year on 24 Oct 2028 sequence
No. of odd days for 24 Oct 2028 is = Number of 1s + Number of 2s + Number of 3s – 2  (Number
no. of odd days = No. of complete year + No. of Leap year + of 4s)
Odd days of Months. = 6 + 6 + 7 – 2  4 = 19 – 8 = 11
= 27 + 6 + (3+1+3+2+3+2+3+3+2+3) till 24 Oct.
= 27 + 6 + 25 11.(b) Each time we order 2, one Kiwi is added to the basket but
= 58 each time 4 is ordered, one
No. of odd days = 58  7 = 2 (odd days) Kiwi is removed from it.
On 24 Oct. 2028 day is Sunday + 2 = Tuesday.  Required number = Number of 2s – Number of 4s = 6 – 4 =
2.
29.(d)
Day month year 12.(c) Each time we order 1, one Orange is added to the basket
03 July 1981 but each time 4 is ordered, one
Orange is removed from it.

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 Required number = Number of 1s – Number of 4s = 6 – 4 = 25.(a) The 2nd , 4th and 7th digits of the number 793142658 are
2 9 1 and 6 respectively. The perfect square of a two-digit odd
number, formed using these digits, is 961. And, 169 = 13² So,
13.(d) The new sequence becomes 5 4 7 6 3 9 4 2 3 1 the required odd number is 13. Clearly, its second digit is 3.
Counting from right to left, the sixth digit is 9.
Original number 863 984 275 358 479
14.(c) The new number formed after rearrangement is 5 4 7 2 9 New Number 348 469 552 833 954
380
Clearly, the third digit to the left of 3 is 7. The new numbers arranged in descending order are : 954, 833,
552, 469, 348.
15.(e) The new number formed after rearrangement is 2 5 4 6 9 Clearly, the second largest number is 833, corresponding to
803 which the original number is 358.
The fifth digit from the right end is 6. The second digit to the
right of 6 is 8. Question 27 to 30.
Original 614 827 593 956 249
16.(a) The new number formed after rearrangement is 6 5 4 3 0 number
81279 New Number 416 728 395 659 942
The eighth digit from the left end is 2. The third digit to the left
of 2 is 0.
27.(c) The new numbers, arranged descending order are : 942,
17.(b) Required difference = (8 + 6 + 2) – (7 + 5 + 1) = 16 – 728, 659, 416, 395.
13 = 3 The third number from the top is 659 and its middle digit is 5.

18.(a) The new number formed is 63547. 28.(d) Original numbers in descending order : 956, 827, 614,
 Required sum = (6 + 3 + 5 + 4 + 7) = 25. 593, 249
New numbers in descending order : 942, 728, 659, 416, 395
19.(b) The numbers are 491, 492, 493, 494, 495, 496, 497, 498, Original numbers corresponding to
499. New numbers in descending order : 249, 827, 956, 614, 593
Original Number 213654987 Clearly, 827 retains the same position in both cases.
Number formed by arranging 123456789
Digits in ascending order 29.(c) The second highest new number is 659. Its third digit is
Clearly, there are three such digits 9.

21.(a) 30.(c) The digit 2 comes at the ten‘s place in numbers from 120
Original Number 587296341 to 129; 220 to 229; 320 to
329; 420 to 429; 520 to 529; 620 to 629; 720 to 729; 820 to 829
Number formed by arranging 987654321 and 920 to 929.
Digits in descending order Required number = 10 x 9 = 90.
There are four such digits.
08 Direction Sense Test
22.(b) The given number is : 7 5 1 4 6 3 2.
Arranging the digits in descending order, we get : 7 6 5 4 3 2 1. 1.(c) If East becomes N.W. and North becomes S.W.
We have the following four pairs of digits. Satisfying the given
conditions :
Digits in given number 7514
Digits in descending order 7654

23.(c) The given number is : 84153726.

Arranging the digits in ascending order, we get : 12345678
We have the following 4 pairs of digits, satisfying the given So N.E. become South.
conditions:
{1,6},{1,3},{5,7},{3,7}. 2.(d) Rohit turns towards right from north direction. So, he
walks 15 m towards east upto B, turns left and moves 25 m upto
24.(b) The 2nd , 6th and 9th digits of the number 147682593 are C, turns right and goes 15 m upto D. At D, he turns to right
4, 2 and 3 respectively. towards the south and walks 40 m upto E. Next, he again turns
The perfect square of a two-digit number, formed using these to right and walks 20 m upto F, which is his final position. F is
digits, is 324. to
And, 324 = 18². Required number is 18 and units digit is 8.

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 7.(c) The movement of Raina are as shown in fig. (A to B, B to
C and C to D)

the South-east of A. So, he is the the south-east from his starting

point. Hence, the answer is (d)

3.(d) Clearly, Raj moves from A 15 km north wards upto B, then Clearly, ABCD is a rectangle and so AD = BC = 10 m Thus, D
moves 11 km southwards upto C, turns towards East and walks is 10 m to the west of A.
3 km upto D.
Then, AC = (AB - BC) = (15 – 11) = 4 km ; CD = 3 km 8.(c) The movements of the man from A to F are as shown in fig.
So, Raj‘s distance from starting point A= AD = 13. Clearly,
DC = AB + EF

 F is in line with A
Also, AF = (BC - DE) = 10m

9.(d) The movements of the rat from A to G are as shown in fig.

Clearly, it is finally walking in the direction FG i.e. North
Also, D is to the North-east of A. Hence, the answer is (D)

4.(c) Clearly, Mr. Roy drove 20 km from Ato B northwards and

then 12 km from B to C towards west. He then moves 8 km
southwards from C to D and 8 km eastwards upto E.
Finally, he turned right and moved 12 km upto F.
 A and F lie in the same straight line and F lies to the west of
A. So, Mr. Roy distance from the straight point A = AF = (BC- 10.(c) The movements of Vasant are as shown in fig. (P to Q, Q
DE) = (12 - 8) km = 4 km. Hence, the answer is (C) to R and R to S). Clearly, his final position is S which is to the
South-east of the starting point P.

5.(c) Since standing on his head ‗Shobhit‘s face is towards

11.(b) The villager moves from his village at O to his uncle‘s
South, therefore his right hand will be in the direction of East.
village at A and therefore to his
father-in-law‘s village at B.
6.(c) The movements are indicated in fig.

(O to A, A to B and B to C). Clearly, C lies to the South-west of 12.(c) The movements of Dhruv from A to F are as shown in fig.
O. Clearly, Dhruv‘s distance from starting point

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 Again, a man faces south, So, opposite to him will be a woman
facing north.

A to F = AF = (AB + BF) = AB + (BE - EF) = AB + (CD - EF)

= [15 + (25- 12)]
m = (40 - 12)m = 28 m Also, F lies to the South of A. So, Dhruv
is 28 meters to the south of his starting point. 19.(c) The positions of various places are as shown in the
diagram.
13.(c) The movements of the man are as shown in fig. (A to B, B
to C, C to D, D to E)
Clearly, DF = BC = 6 km

Clearly, the market is to the north-east of office.

Questions 20-21
Clearly, the arrangement of boys is as shown
EF = (DE - DF) = (10 - 6) km = 4 km
BF = CD = 2 km
AF = AB + BF = AB + CD = (1 + 2) km = 3km
 Man‘s distance from starting point A

14.(a) The movements of Meenu are as shown in fig. Clearly,

she is finally moving in the direction DA

20.(e) Clearly, Atul is to the left of Ketan and Ashutosh is to the

north-east of Atul.

21.(c) Required distance = NA + AK + KD + DP = (25 + 40 +

60 + 90) = 215 m

22.(d)
i.e. North west.
23. (c)
15.(d) All the six are standing in the following order.
24. (a)
• • • • • •
A E C F B D
25. (d)
16.(d) The position of six families is as follows : D B F C E A
26.(b)
Hence F‘s next door neighbours are B and C.

17.(d) The town of Rajan (R) is west of Khajuri (K). Slkanpur

(S) is east of Rajan but west of Khajuri, Tekari (T) is east of
Antri (A) but west of Slkanpur and Rajan. Combining all the
arrangements, we get the sequence as A, T, R, S, K.. So, farthest
west is Antri.

18.(d) No lady is facing east means a man faces east. Persons

opposite are not of same sex. So, a woman will be facing west. 27.(a) Following the instructions as given in the questions, it is
seen that finishing point and

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end point are the same.

28.(e) Mr. Verma finally reaches a point which is 20 m from the

starting point and is in East direction

29.(b) B is the finishing point and is 10 km from the point A. The

Aerial distance of A from B
is 10 km calculated as below.

* In case of Mohan, from the given information, we know that

Mohan has an outstanding loan of Rs. 5 lakhs with the bank and
an F.D. of less than Rs. 4 lakhs. So, he cannot be granted
advance even if he has adequate cultivated land.
** In case of Yatendra, we need to know whether he can pay
collateral of more than Rs. 8 lakhs or not and also his age.

30.(d)

09 Eligibility Test
We shall mark the conditions fulfilled by “√” those not fulfilled
by “×” and those about which information is not available by?
Questions 1-10

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 9. (a)

Ans. (10-12) :

10. (c) Letters Z is to the second left of letter X

11. (e) Letter C is in the middle of the letter arrangement.

12. (c) Letters A and B are just adjacent to Y.

Ans. (13-15) :

13. (c) A is sitting in the middle of the row.

14. (d) E is at the other end of the row

15. (b) There is one person between C and F.

Ans. (16-20)
10 Sitting Arrangement
Directions (Q. 1 - 3) : On the basis of the information as given
in the questions, we have the arrangement of standing as per
figure :

16. (a) Clearly, O and Q, M and P, N and Q are all neighbours

while L and Q are not.
1. (a) Priya stands between Rahim and Sohan
17.(b) P is two sides away from O in one direction and N is two
2. (b) From the figure, it is clear that Mohan and Ram occupy sides away from O in the other direction
the
extreme ends of the row, 18.(c) M, N, Q are sitting in consecutive positions

3. (c) Sohan stands between Priya and Kapil. 19.(c) O and P are the neighbours of L.

Ans. (4-9) 20.(d) Q is seated opposite to P.

4. (a) Ans. (21-23) :

5. (e)

6. (d) 21.(b) From the figure, it is clear that M is sitting to the left of
H.
7. (d)
22.(d) L is facing O.
8.( c)
23.(a) N and O are immediate neighbours of I.

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Ans. (24-27) :

24.(c)

10.(a) Here only conclusion I follows

25.(b) 11.(a) All readers are teachers Conversion some teachers are
readers.
26.(b) So, here only conclusion I follow

27.(e) 12.(d)

Ans. (28-30) :

Here neither I nor II conclusion follows.

28.(a) P is sitting between Q and R.
13.(a)
29.(a) P is sitting at the center of the row.

30.(d) Q is sitting second from the left.

11 Syllogism
1.(a) Converting of ‘some pens are rubbers’ is some rubbers are
pens, so have only conclusion I follows.
Here only conclusion I follows
2.(d)
14.(a) Here all hill station have a sunset point and Y is a hill
station so definitely Y has a sunset point, here only conclusion I
folSlows.

15.(a) Here only conclusion I follows.

here neither I nor II follows
16.(c) All cars are chairs. All chairs are windows.
3.(a)
Since both the premises are universal the conclusion must be
universal and shouldn‘t contain the middle term. So, it follows
that ‗All cars are windows‘. Thus, I follows. Also, III is the
converse of this conclusion and so it holds. All tables are
windows. All chairs are windows. Since the middle term
‘windows’ is not distributed even once in the premises, no
definite conclusion follows.
Here only conclusion I follows. All cars are windows. All chairs are windows.
Again, the middle term ‘windows’ is not distributed even once
4.(d) Here neither I nor II follows. in the premises. So, no definite conclusion follows.

5.(d) Here neither I nor II follows.

6.(a) Conversion of ‗all mobiles are chocolates‘ is ‘some

chocolates are mobiles’.

7.(d) Here neither I nor II follows.

8.(c) Conclusion I & II are complementary pair.

17.(e) III is the converse of the third premise and so it holds. All
apples are vegetables. All vegetables are rains. The conclusion
9.(a)
must be universal affirmative and should not contain the middle
term. So, it follows that ‘All apples are rains’. Thus I follows.

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All pens are vegetables. All vegetables are rains. Clearly, if Since one premises is particular and other negative, the
follows that ‘All pens are rains’ Thus II follows. conclusion must be particular negative (O type) and should not
contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some cats are not
tigers’.

23.(b) Some tables are chairs. No chair is soap.

Since one premises is particular and other negative, the
conclusion must be particular negative (O type) and should not
contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some tables are not
soap’.
No chair is soap. All soaps are cats.
18.(c) All girls are trees. Some trees are roads.
Since the middle term is distributed twice, the conclusion must
Since the middle term is not distributed even once in the
be particular. Since one premise is negative, the conclusion
premises, so no definite conclusion follows.
must be negative. So, it follows that ‘Some chairs are not cats’.
Some trees are roads. All roads are mountains.
Since I and II involve the same terms and form a complementary
Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be
pair, so either I or II follows.
particular and should not contain the middle term.
So it follows that ‘Some trees are mountains’. III is the converse
24.(e) Some pens are books. All school are books
of this conclusion follows.
Since the middle term ‘books’ is not distributed even once in the
premises, so no definite conclusion follows.
19.(b) Some hills are rivers. Some rivers are rings.
Some colleges are schools. All schools are books.
Since both the premise is particular, the conclusion must be
Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be
particular, no definite conclusion follows.
particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows
Some rivers are rings. All rings are roads.
that ‘Some colleges are books’. Thus, III follows
Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be
Some pens are books. Some colleges are books
particular and shouldn‘t contain the middle term. So, it follows
Since both the premises are particular, no definite conclusion
that ‘Some rivers are roads’.
can be drawn.
I is the converse of this conclusion and so it holds.
Hence, only III follows
Some hills are rivers. Some rivers are roads.
Again, since both the premises are particular, no definite
25.(c) All tigers are trees. No tree is bird
conclusion follows.
Since both the premises are universal and one premise is
negative, the conclusion must be universal negative (E-type)
20.(a) Since each combination of premises has two particular
and should not contain the middle term.
premises, so no definite conclusion follows
So, it follows that ‘No tiger is bird’.
III is the converse of this conclusion and so it holds.
21.(e) All trees are flowers. No flowers is leaf.
No tree is bird. Some birds are rains.
Since both the premises are universal and one premise is
Since one premise is particular and the other negative, the
negative, the conclusion must be universal negative (E type) and
conclusion must be particular negative
should not contain the middle term.
(O-type) and should not contain the middle term. So it follows
So, it follows that ‘No tree is leaf’. II is the converse of this
that ‘Some trees are not rains’
conclusion and so it follows.
Since I and II also involve the same terms and form a
All branches are leaves. No flower is leaf.
complementary pair, so either I or II follows.
Since both the premises are universal and one premise is
negative, the conclusion must be universal negative (E type) and
26.(a) All flowers are hills. Some hills are trees.
should not contain the middle term.
Since the middle term ‘hills’ is not distributed even once in the
So, it follows that ‘No branch are flower’.
premises, no definite conclusion follows.
All trees are flowers. No branch is tree
Some hills are trees. Some angles are trees.
As discussed above, it follows that ‘No tree is branch’. So, III
Since both the premises are particular, no definite conclusion
follows.
can be drawn.
Hence, both II and III follow.
27.(e) All trains are buses. No houses is bus
22.(a) All tigers are lions. No dog is lion.
Since both the premises are universal and one premise is
Since both the premises are universal and one premise is
negative, the conclusion must be universal negative (E type) and
negative, the conclusion must be universal negative (E type) and
should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘No train
should not contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘No tiger
is houses’. Thus, III follows.
is dog’.
All boats are houses. No houses is bus
Some cats are dogs. No dog is lion.
As discussed above, it follows that ‘No boat is bus’ II is the
Since one premises is particular and other negative, the
converse of this conclusion and so it holds.
conclusion must be particular negative (O type) and should not
All trains are buses. No boat is bus.
contain the middle term. So, it follows that ‘Some cats are not
Again, it follows that ‘No train is boat’. I is the converse of this
lions’
conclusion and so it, holds.
Some cats are dogs. No tiger is dog.

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28.(b) Some rabbits are lions. No horse is lion 13.(d) Number 10 is present in the space common to circle,
Since one premise is particular and the other negative, the square and rectangle, hence represents educated rich boys who
conclusion must be particular negative (O-type) and should not help in family business.
contain the middle term.
So, it follows that ‘Some horses are not rabbits’. 14.(e) Number 5 lies on that portion of circle, which is not
All horses are chairs. No horses is lion common to any other figure.
Since the middle term ‘horses’ is distributed twice, the
conclusion must be particular. Since one premise is negative, 15.(b) Number 3 represents the portion, which is common to
the conclusion must be negative. So, it follows that ‘Some chairs triangle and rectangle only. Hence it represents employed boys
are not lions.’ Since I and III involve the same terms and form engaged in family business.
a complementary pair, so either I or III follows
16.(d) Number 20 is common to all the four figures and hence,
29.(c) Since each combination of premises shall contain two it can be concluded that 20 families have all the four things.
particular premises, no definite conclusion can be drawn.
However, II and III are statements involving the extreme terms 17.(c) Numbers of families having motor cycles are represented
of the last two premises and form a complementary pair. Thus, by square and total of all the numbers present in square is 188.
either II or III follows.
18.(e) 100 families have both freeze and TV as it is the sum of
30.(c) II is the converse of first premise and so it holds. numbers present on the portion common to both the circles.
Some boxes are pens. Some pens are beads.
Since both the premises are particular, no definite conclusion 19.(c) Sum of 110, 50, 40 and 25 will represent such families as
can be drawn. all these numbers lie on the portion not common to other figure.
Some pens are beads. All beads are rings.
Since one premise is particular, the conclusion must be 20.(b)
particular and should not contain the middle term. So, it follows
that ‘Some pens are rings’. I is the converse of this conclusion Directions (21-26) : On the basis of the information given in
and so it holds. question, following Venn-diagram can be prepared.
Some boxes are pens. Some pens are rings.
Since both the premises are particular, no definite conclusion
can be drawn.

12 Venn Diagram
1.(c) A song may be classical or pop or of any other type

2.(d) Both Wheat and Sugarcane are the crops

3.(e) Owl is a Bird and Tiger is not related to both of them

21.(b) 6 voters were in favor of all the three candidates P, Q
4,(c) All the three items are unrelated to one another. and R.
5.(a) Srilanka is in Asia and Colombo is in Srilanka
22.(a) The number of voters in favor of P irrespective of Q or R
6.(b) Man share relationship with Lawyer and Doctor. = 38 + 20 + 6 + 14 = 78

7.(c) All the three items are unrelated to one another 23.(e) Number of voters in favor of Q irrespective of P and R
= 40 + 20 + 16 + 6 = 82
8.(e) Pencil is Stationery and Powder is not related to both of
them 24.(b) Number of voters in favor of R irrespective of P and Q
= 66 + 14 + 6 + 16 = 102.
9.(d) Both car and Auto are Vehicles.
25.(b) The number of voters in favor of P and Q = 20
10.(a) Year contains Months and Month contains Days.
26.(d) The number of voters in favor of only one of the
11.(d) Number 13 represents those rich boys helping family candidates = 38 + 40 + 66 =
business but are not educated or employed elsewhere because 144
it occupies the space common to circle and rectangle only.
27.(c) D is common to circle and triangle.
12.(e) No number occupies the space which is common to circle, Hence, it represents professors who are also Poets.
square and triangle only.
28.(c) Z is common to triangle and rectangle.
Hence, Z represents Poets who are also Story writer

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 One play volleyball
29.(b) X represents professors who are also One play badminton
Story writer as it is common in circle and rectangle. P & S are unmarried women { not play any game}
married couple T+ — R-
30.(d) B represents story writers only. Q is brother of R = Q+ = R-
R is female because T & Q are make & P & S are already female
13 Puzzle which is not married.
Solution for (1-5):- Persons Game
Q+ Cricket
T+ Volleyball
P- ---
S- ---
R- Badminton

( 25-30):-
There are 3 female.
Earning
Member Profession V+ CA
P Doctor U Doctor
Q Business man S Engineer
R Teacher R Teacher
S Manager P+ Writer
T Accountant T- Lawyer (Unmarried)
U Engineer Q- Novelist

1.(d) 2.(c) 3.(c) 4.(d) 5.(a) V+  Q- {Married}

25.(b) 26.(b) 27.(a) 28.(a) 29.(d) 30.(e)
(6-9):-
BMW
HUMMER
FERRARI 14 Inference
LAMBORGHINI
ROLLSROYEE 1.(d) See the sentence ―If steel is indeed in …..will be doing
MARCHIUEGO well‖. Since price of steel and its demand are rising therefore, it
JAGUAR is likely that downstream manufacturing units will perform well
6.(d) 7.(b) 8.(e) 9.(a) in near future. Hence, inference is false. But we are not sure
about it, hence probably false.
Solution for (10-14) :-
Compulsory Optional 2.(b) Since the growth in core sector has been termed as
A+ Civics English ―terrific‖ growth, the possibility is that the last few years the
B+ Civics History core sector has projected modest growth. Hence, the inference
C+ Civics Math‘s is likely to be true, i.e. probably true. [Note that ‘downtrend’
X- English Civics does not necessarily mean negative growth]
Y+ Geography Math‘s
Z+ Math‘s Geography 3.(b) The word ‘terrific’ used in the passage makes the inference
probably true.
10.(a) 11.(d) 12.(e) 13.(c) 14.(e)
4.(c) Rising steel prices at present does not necessarily means
Solution for the question (15-19):- that the trend will continue during next few months.
A Punjabi 21st poet
B Telugu — drama 5.(a)
C Punjabi 20th poet, novel, drama
6.(d) The passage says that the rules are backed by a machinery
D Telugu 20th poet, novel
– ―judicial system and executor institutions‖. So it appears
E Bengali 20th novel , drama
such a machinery is necessary.
F Gujarati 18th poet
7.(b) Rules are necessary if there is interaction. So, it appears,
15.(b) 16.(c) 17.(a) 18.(d) 19.(d)
from the tenor of the passage, they are not necessary if there is
Solution for the question (20-24):-
not interaction.
One play cricket they are man
Given that —>

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8.(a) Why is there a need for rules of behavior for human beings in primary education‖. This means that primary education is a
? The assumption is that human beings are susceptible to violate type of investment too.
rules. Hence, the inference is definitely true.
28.(b) Probably true. The failure implies that the planners
9.(a) Why is there a need for rules ? The objective is to ensure probably did not pay due attention to this aspect.
smooth and proper functioning of social life. What will happen
in the absence of rule ? A state of disorder due to lack of control. 29.(d) Probably false. The passage neither claims nor
Hence, definitely true. contradicts that NCERT is the only such body. But our
commonsense tells us that this is more likely to be false.
10.(c)
30.(c) Data inadequate. There has not been any mention of any
11.(a) Passage clearly says surplus liquidity in the system is the improvement after 1992.
result of historic low interest rates.
15 Cause & Effect
12.(c) On the one hand, we are told that ―the Indian equity
markets are currently attractively poised…..‖. on the other hand, 1.(a) Reduction in taxes affects the prices of the product. Hence
the passage ends on a negative note. ‘B’ is the cause and ‘A’ is its effect.

13.(d) No explicit relationship has been mentioned. However, 2.(b) Paying capacity of a customer plays an important role in
low interest rate regime has been treated as a ―positive factor shopping. Hence ‘A’ is the cause and ‘B’ is its effect.

14. (a) See the sentence, ―However, despite…..liquidity in the 3.(b) Destruction of an oil refinery can create problem in
system ensuring smooth availability of oils. Hence ‘A’ is the cause and
‘B’ is its effect.
15.(b) Passage says about negative growth in Indian equity
markets. This factor strengthens the possibility of few takers in 4.(a) Withdrawal of grant will increase the financial burden of
the equity market. the government management college, whereas the increase in
the number of seats will increase the revenue of the government
16.(e) According to the passage, base effect was not the main management college. Hence ‘B’ is the cause and ‘A’ is its effect.
cause behind the % growth in exports during 2005-06.
5.(d)
17.(c) The passage does not say anything regarding comparison
of the efforts put in by Indian exporters and their counterparts 6.(e) It can be safely assumed that Party A was earlier in the
in developed countries. opposition and has benefited from anti-incumbency. Both the
events are consequences of a common cause – bad governance
18.(a) We are told about ―recovery in global trade‖. by the ruling party.

19.(d) Though we do not have figure for the entire year, the 16% 7.(b) Since the Professors have gone on strike, the help of
growth in the first eight months does not seem to lead us outsiders has been sought.
anywhere near this.
8.(b) seems to have happened as A is a better college. Event B
20.(d) Robust growth in exports, and happy tidings on the trade seems to be the result of the falling standard of teaching in
front seem to make the inference probably false. college.

21.(e) See the sentence ―One of the ….long time‖ 9.(b) might have happened because harassment of women is on
the rise. While (B) seems to be the result of a change in gender
22.(a) See the sentence ―This financial…..by FIIs‖ role perception.

23.(d) Shift in investor portfolios and emerging positive 10.(b) The loots have led to a demand of improvement in
scenario make the inference probably false. security situation.

24.(b) See the last part of the passage. 11.(e) The two statements have no correlation with each other.

25.(c) 12.(a) Loss of revenue must be the main cause behind

Government‘s decision to stop subsidies.
26.(e) Definitely false. The first sentence mentions three avowed
goals of primary education: learner achievement apart from 13.(b) Obviously the media attention is (principally) caused by
access and retention. Note that apart from means in addition her alleged affair with MOS for External Affairs. Had she had
no. relations with a common man, she wouldn‘t have got so much
attention.
27.(a) Definitely true. primary education is, of course, a duty of
the government. But the second sentence mentions ―investment

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14.(b) The doubling of turnover is caused by a favorable policy 16 Coded Inequalities
15.(a) Tectonic activities underneath are the immediate and 1.(d) E @ F →E ≥ F, F © G → F < G, G © H →G < H
principal cause for the area being prone to earthquake. E≥F<G<H
I. E @ H → E ≥ H (False)
16.(c) Crushing of Iraq is an effect. One of the several causes II G = H (False)
could be the Global support US got in the war. But this does not
give a sufficient condition for victory : it is not the principal 2.(e)
cause. [The principal cause could be the US‘ technological I. @ I → J < I, K © L → K < L, I = K
supremacy and advanced weaponry.]
J<I=K<L
I. L @ J → L > J (True)
17.(c) India‘s victory is an effect but merely one persons‘ good
II. I © L → I < N (True)
performance does not give sufficient condition
for victory. So B does not constitute the principal cause. That
3.(d)
all persons played very well may be taken as a sufficient
O @ M → O > M, N © R → N  R, M = N
condition and hence as the principal cause but not the
O>M=NR
performance of merely one players.
I. O @ R → O > R (False)
II. M = R (False)
18.(e) The two events have no causative link with each other.

19.(c) The award is an effect. The cause of this effect is his 4.(c) A @ B → A ≥ B, R © S → R  S, S = B
success in various races. The cause of his success is his talent A≥B=S≥R
and his dedication. Therefore, his dedication is a cause of the I. S © A → S < A (depends)
award but it is not the immediate cause. II. S = A (depends)

20.(a) Normally, we take hard work to be a sufficient cause for 5.(b) X © Y → X  Y, K = X, Y © L → Y L, H @ Y → H ≥ Y
success. K=XYL
H≥Y
21.(e) There is no link between the two statements. Unless we I. Y = L (false)
assure that books of XYZ Publication are necessary for success II. X © H → X  H (True)
; the two statements are uncorrelated. And there is nothing for
us to make these assumptions. 6.(a) P # Q → P > Q, Q % H → Q ≥ H and H @ F → H < F
P>Q≥H<F
22.(a) Since he was planning to form a new party, he got I. H @ P → H < P (True)
expelled. II . F © P → F = P (False)

23.(b) Lathi-charge was a result of the pelting of stones. 7.(e) A $ B → A ≤ B B @ M → B < M and J % M → J ≥ M
A≤B<M≤J
24.(b) Curfew has been imposed because of the rumors I. A @ M → A < M (True)
II. B @ J → B < J (True)
25.(c) The chain of events goes like this : curfew – closure of
shops and factories drop in monthly production – drop in 8.(b) F © D → F = D, D # V → D > V and V @ P → V < P
annual production. Obviously, curfew is a cause for the drop in F=D>V<P
annual production but it is not an immediate cause I. F © D → F = P (False)
II. V @ F → V < F (True)
26.(c) If cleanliness were more valued in North Bihar, still
people would have cleaned themselves by an afternoon bath. 9.(d) P $ R → P ≤ R, R @ Q → R < Q and Q % H → Q ≥ H
Early, morning bath must be more of a tradition. Yet B must be P≤R<Q≥H
a cause of A, else people would not have bothered to take early I. P $ Q → P ≤ Q (False)
morning baths. But B is not the principal cause : principal cause II. P © H → P = H (False)
is societal tradition.
10.(a) A © B → A = B, B # W→ B >W and W % R →W ≥ R
27.(a) The doctor must have given his advice because of Rani‘s A=B>W≥R
complaint. I. A # R → A > R (True)
II. B % R → B ≥ R (False)
28.(a) B is the cause of A. If you are conversant with current
affairs, you know the answers. 11.(c) A @ L → A < L, S  P → S > P, A = N, S @ N → S  N
P<SN=A<L
29.(b) Since he was expelled, he formed a new party. I. A S → A > S
II. A = S Here either I or II is true
30.(a) Activities have gone down because of the curfew.

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12.(a) B @ N → B < N, T = Q, R © N → R ≥ N, T @ R → T  I. A @ E → A < E (true)
R II. E  F → E > F (true)
B<NR≥T=Q
I. B @ R → B < R (true) 23.(a) M = X, L @ O → L < O, N  M → N > M, L @ X → L
II. N = Q (false) X
N>M=X≥L>O
13.(c) X @ Y → X < Y, D @ E → D  E, C = D, C © Y → C ≥ I. N  L → N > L (true)
Y II. X @ O → X < O (false)
X<YC=DE
I. E  Y → E > Y 24.(c) A  O → A > O, R © A → R ≥ A, P = R, J @ P → J < P
II. Y = E Here either I on II is true J<P=R≥A>O
I. P = A[depends]
14.(b) M  V → M > V, Y = P, Z @ Y → Z < Y, P © M → P ≥ II. P  A → P > A[depends]
M Here either I or II is true
Z<Y=P≥M>V
I. Z = M (false) 25.(e) P @ Q → P  Q, K @ P → K < P, B = K, R  B → R >
II. P  Z → P > Z (true) B
R>B=K<PQ
15.(b) R © A→ R ≥ A, U  L → U > L, A = H, H © U → H ≥ I. Q  K → Q > K (true)
U II. K @ R → K < R (true)
R≥A=H≥U>L
I. H = L (false) 26.(b) A @ B → A < B, L  A → L > A, K = L, B = D
II. L @ H → L < H (true) K=L>A<B=D
I. L = B (false)
16.(a) A @ B → A ≥ B, M # N → M  N, N * * B → N < B II. D  A → D > A (True)
A≥B>N≥M
I. A $ M → A > M (true) 27.(e) M © A → M ≥ A, T @ E → T < E , A = T, G  M → G
II. N # A → N  A (false) >M
G>M≥A=T<E
17.(d) P **Q → P < Q, F @ Y → F ≥ Y, P $ F → P > F I. A @ E → A < E (true)
YF<P<Q II. G  A → G > A (true)
I. Q @ Y → Q ≥ Y (false)
II. Y # P → Y  P (false) 28.(c) L = I, A  L → A > L, S @ I → S  I, S = K
A>L=I≥S=K
18.(b) A **Q → A < Q, S $ T → S > T, A @ T → A ≥ T I. L = K[depends]
S>TA<Q II. K @ L → K < L[depends]
I. S * A → S = A (false) Here either I or II is true
II. T ** Q → T < Q (true)
29.(a) A @ B → A  B , D @ A → D < A, E = C, B  E → B >
19.(e) P * Q → P = Q, X $ W → X > W, P * * W → P < W E
X>W>P=Q D<AB>E=C
I. W $ Q →W > Q (true) I. B  C → B > C (true)
II. P ** X → P < X (true) II. A = B (false)

20.(c) G $ H → G > H, J # K → J  K, H * K → H = K 30.(a) Y  N → Y > N, R © O → R ≥ O, N @ D → N < D, O =

G>H=K≥J Y
I. H $ J → H > J [depends] R≥O=Y>N<D
II. J * H → J = H [depends] I. N @ R → N < R (true)
Here either I or II is true II. U = D (false)

21.(c)
K @ V → K  V , M = Z, K © Z → K ≥ Z, F  V → F > V 17 Input Output
For (1 to 5) :
M=ZKV<F
Arrange number‘s in descending order where as word‘s are
I. M = K [depends]
arrange in alphabetical ascending order.
II. K  M → K > M [depends]
Here either I or II is true
1.(b) Step II: 52 brown 21 34 49 cloud sky red
Step III : 52 brown 49 21 34 cloud sky red
22.(e) A @ R → A < R, E  D → E > D, F © R → F ≥ R, D =
Step IV : 52 brown 49 cloud 21 34 sky red
F
Step V: 52 brown 49 cloud 34 21 sky red
A<RF=D<E Step VI : 52 brown 49 cloud 34 red 21 sky

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Step VI is the last step For (11 to 15) : Arrange word‘s in alphabetical ascending order
whereas numbers are
2.(a) Step III : 57 dine 42 19 tower silver mat 24 are also in ascending order.
Step IV : 57 dine 42 mat 19 tower silver 24
Step V: 57 dine 42 mat 24 19 tower silver 11.(b) Step III : is 5 matter 30 temp 16 packed 60
Step VI : 57 dine 42 mat 24 silver 19 tower Step IV : is 5 matter 16 30 temp packed 60
Step V: is 5 matter 16 packed 30 temp 60
3.(c) Input: 84 22 90 case over for 42 win
Step I: 90 84 22 case over for 42 win 12.(b) Input: Mini 26 solve 37 the 81 prob 64
Step II: 90 case 84 22 over for 42 win Step I: Mini 26 prob solve 37 the 81 64
Step III : 90 case 84 for 22 over 42 win Step II: Mini 26 prob 37 solve the 81 64
Step IV : 90 case 84 for 42 22 over win Step III: Mini 26 prob 37 solve 64 the 81
Step V: 90 case 84 for 42 over 22 win
13.(d) Input: The 30 issue 48 be 8 series 20.
4.(d) Input can‘t be determined Step I: be the 30 issue 48 8 series 20.
Step II: be 8 the 30 issue 48 series 20.
5.(e) Input: field eyes 90 30 house rent 40 29 Step III: be 8 issue the 30 48 series 20.
Step I: 90 field eyes 30 house rent 40 29 Step IV : be 8 issue 20 the 30 48 series.
Step II: 90 eyes field 30 house rent 40 29 Step V: be 8 issue 20 series the 30 48.
Step III : 90 eyes 40 field 30 house rent 29 Step VI: be 8 issue 20 series 30 the 48.
Step IV : 90 eyes 40 field 30 house 29 rent
14.(c) Input: You 40 visit 82 their 10 relatives 20.
For (6 to 10) : Step I: relatives you 40 visit 82 their 10 20.
Arrange number‘s in ascending order whereas word‘s are Step II: relatives 10 you 40 visit 82 their 20.
arrange in alphabetical descending order Step III: relatives 10 their you 40 visit 82 20.
Step IV : relatives 10 their 20 you 40 visit 82.
6.(c) Step II: 17 task bea cold dish 82 62 35 Step V: relatives 10 their 20 visit you 40 82.
StepIII : 17 task 35 bea cold dish 82 62 Step VI: relatives 10 their 20 visit 40 you 82.
Step IV : 17 task 35 dish bea cold 82 62 From 10 am to 2 m it will complete 4 step and for the remaining
Step V: 17 task 35 dish 62 bea cold 82 2 step it will take 45 min + 45 min = 1 ½ hrs
Step VI : 17 task 35 dish 62 cold bea 82 Hence, Total time = 4 + 1 ½ = 5 ½ hrs.
Step VII : 17 task 35 dish 62 cold 82 bea
15.(d) Previous steps can‘t be determined
7.(d) Input: 71 58 38 gone for picnic 20 job For (16 to 20) : Arrange number‘s in alphabetical descending
Step I: 20 71 58 38 gone for picnic job order and words are also in descending order.
Step II: 20 picnic 71 58 38 gone for job
Step III : 20 picnic 38 71 58 gone for job 16.(b) II step : 52 wind 43 50 door lock kee 38.
Step IV : 20 picnic 38 job 71 58 gone for III step: 52 wind 50 43 door lock kee 38.
Step V: 20 picnic 38 job 58 71 gone for IV Step : 52 wind 50 lock 43 door kee 38.
Step VI : 20 picnic 38 job 58 gone 71 for V Step: 52 wind 50 lock 43 kee door 38.
Step VI is the last step. VI Step: 52 wind 50 lock 43 kee 38 door.

8.(a) Input: nice flower 34 12 costly height 41 56 17.(d) Previous steps can‘t be determined
Step I: 12 nice flower 34 be costly height 41 56
Step II: 12 nice 34 flower costly height 41 56 18.(c) Input : Jocker fee 37 42 grow champ 21 46
Step III: 12 nice 34 height flower costly 41 56 Step I : 46 Jocker fee 37 42 grow champ 21
Step II : 46 Jocker 42 fee 37 grow champ 21
9.(d) Step II: 10 victory 18 30 53 stay look too Step III : 46 Jocker 42 grow fee 37 champ 21
Step III : 10 victory 18 too 30 53 stay look
Step IV : 10 victory 18 too 30 stay 52 look 19.(e) Step II: 62 sour 17 57 grapes healthy 34 rise.
Step IV is the last step Step III : 62 sour 57 17 grapes healthy 34 rise.
Step IV : 62 sour 57 rise 17 grapes healthy 34.
10.(b) Input: milk pot 17 28 our go 37 52 Step V: 62 sour 57 rise 34 17 grapes healthy.
Step I: 17 milk pot 28 our go 37 52 Step VI: 62 sour 57 rise 34 healthy 17 grapes.
Step II: 17 pot milk 28 our go 37 52
Step III : 17 pot 28 milk our go 37 52 20.(c) Step I : 85 Journey train 36 54 daily 28 mansion
Step IV : 17 pot 28 our milk go 37 52 Step II : 85 train journey 36 54 daily 28 mansion
Step V: 17 pot 28 our 37 milk go 52 Step III : 85 train 54 journey 36 daily 28 mansion
Step VI: 17 pot 28 our 37 milk 52 go Step IV : 85 train 54 mansion journey 36 daily 28
Hence step V will be the second last step. Step V: 85 train 54 mansion 36 journey daily 28

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For (21 to 25) : Arrange number‘s in ascending order whereas 2.(d) None is implicit. Assumption I is a more twisted form of
words are in alphabetical descending order. the given statement. Smoking is injurious. It means that non-
smoking is not injurious. And that‘s it. It doesn‘t mean that non-
21.(b) Step II : 22 work 48 32 pee blue 27 game smoking promotes health. II obviously is just the opposite of
Step III : 22 work 27 48 32 pee blue game what is true. Public warnings are given only when they are
Step IV : 22 work 27 pee 48 32 blue game assumed to be necessary.
Step V : 22 work 27 pee 32 48 blue game
3.(d) None of the assumptions is implicit as nothing can be said
22.(a) Step II : 11 where 81 31 gem wap 41 ask definitely.
Step III : 11 where 31 81 gem wap 41 ask
Step IV : 11 where 31 wap 81 gem 41 ask 4.(e) Since the statement speaks of the essentiality and
Step V: 11 where 31 wap 41 81 gem ask requirement of rain for farmers, hence both the assumptions are
Step VI: 11 where 31 wap 41 gem 81 ask implicit in the statement

23.(d) Input : Phone cat 31 lamp 17 70 43 dairy 5.(b) Since X advises Y to join institute A to study Maths, hence
Step I: 17 Phone cat 31 lamp 70 43 dairy it is assumed that institute A provides good coaching for Maths.
Step II: 17 phone 31 cat lamp 70 43 dairy Secondly, it is also assumed that Y listens to X‘s advice.
Step III : 17 phone 31 lamp cat 70 43 dairy
6.(a) When mother gives warning to the child she must be
24.(d) Previous steps can‘t be determined. assuming that her warning would be successful. II is not
relevant to the statement made by the mother
25.(a) Step I: 18 43 fun rule exam 31 80 home
Step II: 18 rule 43 fun exam 31 80 home 7.(b) The statement says that a car is available on rent. It does
Step III: 18 rule 31 43 fun exam 80 home not say that any vehicle is available. So the statement cannot be
said to have assumed that any vehicle is available for rent. But
For (26 to 30) : Number‘s are arrange in special manner first II is obviously implicit; whenever an advertisement is made it is
greatest one and than smallest and so on. Similarly, word‘s are assumed that people will respond to it.
arrange in opposite manner first smaller alphabet word
8.(a) Assumption I, that Indian unemployed youths need
26.(b) Step III : 92 go 27 man pet 42 lamp 38 monetary support, is the solid bade for providing allowance to
Step IV : 92 go 27 pet man 42 lamp 38 all unemployed youths. However, assumption II, that
Step V: 92 go 27 pet 42 man lamp 38 Government has sufficient funds, does not give valid reasoning.
Step VI: 92 go 27 pet 42 lamp man 38 Hence, only assumption I is implicit.
Step VII : 92 go 27 pet 42 lamp 38 man
9.(d) None of the assumptions is implicit as each assumption
27.(b) Step II: 53 at deep follow 42 17 road 33 lacks proper reasoning
Step III : 53 at 17 deep follow 42 road 33
Step IV : 53 at 17 road deep follow 42 33 10.(e) It is directed in the statement that consultation is
Step V: 53 at 17 road 42 deep follow 33 necessary before making any decision on the export. It is,
therefore, assumed that person directed may take a wrong
28.(d) Previous steps can‘t be determined. decision. Secondly, it is assumed in the light of the statement
that it is important to take a right decision.
29.(c) Step II : 70 from 49 super itself 57 10 went
Step III : 70 from 10 49 super itself 57 went 11.(a) Leaning out of a running bus must be dangerous,
Step IV : 70 from 10 went 49 super itself 57 otherwise the warning would not have been there. Hence I is
Step V: 70 from 10 went 57 49 super itself implicit. But II is not implicit. If the authorities would have
Step VI: 70 from 10 went 57 itself 49 super assumed that children do not pay any attention to such warning,
they would not have put it up there.
30.(c) Input : Thirty days from now 33 50 88 25
Step I : 88 thirty days from now 33 50 25 12. (e) Specific instruction has been given in writing to prevent
Step II : 88 days thirty from now 33 50 25 chance of claim of reimbursement for traveling expenses.
Step III : 88 days 25 thirty from now 33 50 Moreover, it is also assumed that instruction has been given
because expenses are paid by other organization. Hence, both
18 Statement And Assumptions the assumptions are implicit in the statement.

1.(a) It is logical to say that at the age of 4, the child reaches 13.(b) It is mentioned in the invitation that you are requested to
appropriate level of development and ready to learn. Hence, take your seats before 4 pm. It means that functions will start as
assumption I is very much implicit in the statement. Assumption scheduled. Hence, assumption II is implicit.
II is not implicit as it is not relevant.
14.(e) It is clear that penalty will be imposed for improper use,
hence it is clear that some people misuse the chain. Hence
assumptions I and II, both are implicit.

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 assumed that people expect that aspect : Remember this rule].
15.(a) What the statement says has no direct correlation with The ad does assume that price is of secondary importance to
assumption II. Assumption I directly follows from the statement. people because otherwise they would have highlighted the
Percentage amount makes the assumption II doubtful as it can cheapness of the product and not its quality. So III is implicit
be more or less than 50%
27.(a) The mother is concerned because the noise may disturb
16.(b) It is not necessary that every company has a legal her son‘s study. Hence II is implicit. But there is nothing which
advisor. So, assumption I is not implicit. Since it is advised in can suggest that noise is not conducive to children in general.
the statement that for any difficulty about the case consult All that we can infer from the statement is that noise is not
company‘s legal advisor. It is, therefore, assumed that conducive to their study; that‘s all. Also, we may not be able to
company‘s legal advisor is thoroughly briefed about the case. conclude from the statement that the mother cares for her
Hence, assumption II is implicit. child‘s health: in the statement the mother has shown concern
not for her child‘s health, but for her study.
17.(e) Both the assumption are clearly implicit in the statement.
28.(a) I is obvious. But there is nothing to suggest that cricket
18.(b) Since Roma is telling Riya about Ram in a matter-of-fact is a different game or that chances of victory are different from
tone, this much may be assumed that both of them know Ram. actual victories. So II and III are not implied.
But is not certain whether this acquaintance is to the extent of
friendship. Hence I is not implicit while II is. III, of course, is 29.(d) The thief uses the gun to arouse fear. This fear brings a
the whole logic on the basis of which Roma reaches his sense of command or compulsion. Hence II is implicit. But I is
conclusion (that Ram has gone mad). not. The thief uses the phrase ―behave like a good girl‖ in a
tone of sarcasm only : we should not take it in a literal sense.
19.(a) I is implicit because X(x) cannot give birthday gifts Similarly, III is also not implicit.
without being invited to birthdays. II is implicit because x
wouldn‘t have raised the point of ―consumer goods‖as birthday 30.(b) I is not an assumption; it is merely a restatement. II is
gifts. III is not implicit because x never mentions consumer implicit; if the advocate cites autopsy to prove that the cause of
goods as ―useless‖ gifts. death was torture, he must be assuming that autopsy can help
in determining the cause of death. III is not implicit : it is not
20.(b) The newspaper must have had authentic and reliable told that the advocate performed the autopsy himself.
sources to publish such news but it is no where mentioned that
it has quoted such sources. Hence I is not implicit but II is. III 19 Course Of Action
is obvious.
1.(e) It is clear from the statement.
21.(d) The teacher does not mean that the students are not
intelligent. He only says that questions are difficult and need 2.(a) The problem faced by the airlines and cargo agents is the
additional strategy. Hence I is not implicit but III is. II is not non-availability of cargo space. Therefore, right course of
implicit; in fact, the teacher says that the problem can be solved action is to tackle the problem.
if you have drawn suitable diagrams.
3.(b) II is the right course of action because we have to tackle
22.(d) I and III are obvious. But ―intoxicating effect‖ of Rum the problem not to restrict them.
has never been mentioned.
4.(a) Implementation of such action plans, as framed by the
23.(a) I is obvious by the way the two sentences have been put conference, is a right course of action as it will give an
together. II is obvious. If x thought that people‘s view about tea immediate and effective impact on the standard of education for
(that it was bad for health) was not correct, why would he decide the children.
to cut down on it ? But Y may or may not act on X‘s line of action
: III may or may not follow. It is not sure whether Y drink tea at 5.(a)
all.
6.(b) Reasons for this irregularity should be found out as it will
24.(d) I is obvious from the very fact that there are some persons help to check such phenomena of absence of students from the
who want to buy used imported items. II is obvious because had class.
there been no such people willing to sell such items, the
advertisers wouldn‘t have place the ads. For the same reason, 7.(b)
III is also implicit.
8.(a) Only by increasing our agricultural production, we can
25.(d) I is obvious, in fact, it is taken as a universal truth. II is have a better position in international agricultural based trade.
obvious because the mother forbids chocolates as they are not Reduction in non-agricultural commodities will further worsen
―good for teeth‖. III is obvious by the tone of the author‘s our position. So only, I is the right course of action.
language.
9.(e)
26.(d) I is obvious in the advertisement. II is obvious [ Whenever
an advertisement highlights ant aspect of a product it is

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10.(b) As per statement, India is already endowed with tourist 22.(d) All the recommendations would be positive steps towards
spots. Therefore, these existing potential should be improved solving the problem, i.e., hardships and inconvenience to
and cashed. passengers. Hence, all follow.

11.(e) Statement speaks of inadequacies of the education system 23.(e) We cannot treat such rumors that involve the Prime
and emphasizes the need for adaptability and revision. Hence, Minister‘s life as baseless. Hence III does not follow and
both the actions are right courses of action to update the instead, I and II follow.
curriculum.
24.(e) I is of course rubbish: it talks of escaping from a problem.
12.(e) Statement points out the un-efficient working of libraries II is not proper civil offence means that we are making it lighter
with regard to providing right information. Computerization because it is a criminal offence presently. III is also not proper.
will help in organizing the information systematically. To stop child labor we must stop and punish those who employ
Secondly, library staff should be trained to make efficient use of children. To punish the innocent children themselves would be
computers. Hence, both the actions are right course of action. inhuman.

13.(b) Statement point out the unacquaintance of the teachers 25.(c) I and II are proper courses of action. Good things must
with population education, hence orientation programme be (i) promoted and (ii) rewarded. III is not proper: we cannot
should be organized for teachers. Hence, action (II) is the right criticize a movie only because it is not similar to a particular
course of action. movie. [On these grounds even a Pather Panchali would be
banned !!!]
14.(e) Statement emphasizes the benefits and effectiveness of
quality control. Hence, it is advisable that quality control 26.(d) Both I and II are questionable. I is not acceptable; it is
should be encouraged in the organization and at the same time an stringent action and some effort to looking to the situation
employees should be persuaded to join it. Hence, both the under the popularly elected government must precede it. II
actions are right courses of action. appears without any explanation; why should one take
privatization to be the remedy of all evils ? III is proper; the
15.(b) Valuable suggestions from the retired professors will be governments concerned must be asked to re- evaluate their
helpful for restructuring of organization. Hence, management system and correct the faults.
should involve such experienced people, Seeking permission
from the staff is not the right course of action. 27.(a) That IAS officers should be given more security is
obvious. Police officials should be suspended only if their
16.(e) Affected people should be shifted to the safe place. involvement is proved. Currently, it is only proved. The Chief
Secondly, affected State should ask for more financial help from Minister may or may not resign and it is an individual decision;
Central Government to accelerate the relief task. however, it must be understood that a Chief Minister is very
remotely responsible for such incidents and hence his
17.(d) Financial support to the tourism sector is not a fixed resignation is not a must.
solution. Secondly, constant risk for the foreign tourists will
never encourage tourism in the country. Hence, neither of the 28.(a) I is obvious: all those violating the pollution norms
actions is the right solution in this direction. should be severely dealt with. II is an extreme action : before
closing down a unit the government should check if its pollution
18.(e) Both are the right courses of action as each of the courses level can be minimized. III is ridiculous: if pollution is
of action improves the chance of employment opportunity. equivalent to cigarettes, it is not a fault of cigarettes.

19.(e) Both are the right courses of action for effective 29.(d) None follows. Why higher income tax rate ? If they are
implementation of computer education at primary level in urban earning more, they will automatically pay more taxes because
and rural schools. taxes are proportional to income. Similarly, wages of public
sector employees can‘t be increased: there are many differences
20.(b) Obviously, if government has decided to stop financial between a private sector employee and a public sector
aid to voluntary organizations, these organizations should find employee. The latter enjoys many hidden perks such as free
other sources of financial aid, Hence (II) is the right course of medical facilities, free house, gratuity, etc. His working
action. conditions may not be as tough as those of a private sector
employees. Also, he has a greater security of job. Before raising
21.(e) This question is slightly tricky. I does not follow because his salary these factors should also be borne in mind. III also
the problem mentions senior citizens and not women and does not follow because it is an irrational action and no causes
children. II and III are proper courses of action, yet they do not have been given.
follow because such provisions are already there. Murdering
elderly people is a punishable offense under while convicts as a 30.(a) Obviously, people should be made aware of these
rule are prosecuted by the state. II and III are not new possibilities so that they are not under the impression that soft
suggestions. They are already in practice. drinks are always safe; they must know the reality. II does not
follow: you cannot subject anyone to imprisonment for a
incident which may, after all, be an accident. It is for the law to
decide. III is an extreme action; a better action would be to take

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protective measures and to ensure that no such incidents occur 14.(e) Clearly, it is the advertisement which makes the customer
in the future. aware of the qualities of the commodity and customer leads to
buy it. So, argument I is valid, But on the contrary advertising
20 Arguments of any commodity on various media has become a costly matter
and the expenses on it add to the price of commodity. So,
1. (b) Argument I is not strong because word ‗only‘ makes the argument II is also strong.
argument weak as it is not the real and practical solution to
improve the level of literacy. Argument II is strong as it describe 15.(d) The PDS is indeed necessary to provide basic amenties
the practical problem which may arise out of the decision of to the proper sections of society. So, argument is not clear. Also,
making education free in India, hence (b) is our answer. if the objectives and purposes of any system are not fulfilled
because of corruption then getting rid of the system is not a
2. (e) Both the arguments refer to the practical consequences of proper solution, efforts should be made to end corruption and
the action mentioned in the statement and hence are strong. we should extend its benefit to the needful people. So, argument
Therefore, (e) is the correct answer. II is also not valid.

3. (d) Both the arguments are not related to be statement. 16.(b) UNO is meant to maintain peace and harmony all over
the world and it will always serve to prevent conflicts and wars
4. (a) Private sector is supposed to be more disciplined and among member countries. So, its role never ends. So, argument
efficient than Govt. sector, hence argument I is strong. I is not strong. Lack of such type of organization may in future
lead to increased mutual conflicts and international wars. So,
5. (b) Argument I is irrelevant. Argument II is strong because argument II is strong.
poor and deserving students will be affected by such increase in
the fee. 17.(b) Clearly, strike is not a means of indiscipline but only a
practice and tool in which the peoples of any particular country
6. (a) Only argument I is strong because Indian has the plenty exercise their fundamental rights. So, argument I is not clear
resources but does not have technical skill for exploration. So, and argument II is valid.
India should go for foreign help. Secondly, India‘s sovereign
status does not get affected at all by doing so. 18.(b) Clearly, the 5 star hotels of any country, are a mark of
country‘s standard and place for staying the affluent people of
7. (a) Argument I is strong as entry of corporate sector will that country as well as foreign tourists. So, argument II is
certainly improve the services of existing Govt. sector because strong. But, on the contrary, argument I is not strong because
of the healthy competition. Argument II is weak because we are ban on hotel is not a proper way to end the success of
here concerned with inviting corporates in Railways sector international criminals.
only.
19.(a) Removing the internal assessment would surely reduce
8. (e) Both the arguments are strong. Elected MP‘s have to face favouritism on personal grounds because the teachers of that
the electorates after each completion of their term as their college would not be involved in examination system so that they
existence is decided by people. Secondly, at the time of cannot extend personal benefit to anyone whom they like. So,
elections, so many commitments are made which are hardly argument I is strong. But it will not affect the control of teaching
fulfilled faculty on students because still the teachers would be teaching
them. So, argument II is not clear.
9. (a) Argument I is strong because the smokers will be
cautioned of its ill-effects by such wordings. Argument II is a 20.(b) Second is strong. First is weak because it is not correct.
weak argument as such wording do, in no way, reduce the (It is the only way ? ) Second is perhaps correct, on logical
enjoyment of smoking thinking

10.(a) Logically, only argument I is strong. 21(e) Both are correct and strong arguments.

11.(b) Second argument is strong because synonyms do not have 22.(e) Both are strong. Using computer does have the positive
exact meaning of given word. It is nearest in the meaning to the feature as mentioned in I but the negative feature as mentioned
word. in II.

12.(d) Both the arguments are weak. 23.(d) None is strong. We do not ‗waste‘ money if we invest in
computers. The second is based upon example.
13.(b) Clearly, reservations on the basis of religion will widen
inter communal biases. So, argument I is not clear. Also, it will 24.(a) Argument one is strong. Argument two has no substance,
be against out secular policy. According to which no communal reject able in preminary screening.
group is given preference over the others. So, only argument II
is strong. 25.(a) First is strong in the sense that it is an established fact
that a lot of resource are wasted in shifting agriculture. Second
is not a strong argument as it is, to begin with, debatable if other

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methods are really more expensive in the long run than why the 9.(e) For each next figure that contains 4 designs inside it, 2
resource – cropping shifting agriculture. designs among those 4 designs interchange their positions from
left to right starting with arrow.
26.(b) Second is strong. First is rejected in preliminary
screening. 10.(a) Double line rotates at 90 0 (i.e. along the
perpendicular)anticlockwise. Design “‖ “ moves in the bottom
27.(d) None is strong. It is not true that we are a rich nation. right, center, upper left positions and design “?” rotates in
Similarly, the reasons mentioned in the second are not sufficient center, upper right, lower left and follow the same.
to put a stop on money spending (lack of proper relation).
Type 2 Analogy
28.(a) Only, first is strong. Second is weak. Even if dowry
system is deep-rooted, it is still illegal and hence punishable. 11.(c) Both circular shapes become mirror images of each other
while interchanging the positions of arrows and circles present
29.(e) Both are strong. Both talk of certain features of joint at the corners of the lines.
families and small families respectively and both the features
are desirable in themselves. 12.(d) From fig. (I) to fig.(II) the shape is inverted and at the
same time short line becomes long and long line becomes short
30.(d) None is strong. First is debatable. AC may or may not be and the shape below moves towards the top, joining the lines.
a luxury item. The second argument does not talk about AC. The same process is repeated with fig.(III) fig.(IV).

21 Non Verbal Reasoning 13.(b) The shape at top right corner moves to the bottom left
corner and inverts itself. The shape at bottom left corner moves
to center in left and inverted itself. And the shape in the center
Type 1 Series of the figure moves to top left corner and inverted center itself.
1.(c) Triangle rotates anticlockwise at 135 and 90 0
alternatively. Whereas outer design enters into the triangle and 14.(e) The shape at right moves to left and the shape at left
a new design which is in question figure (the square), at each moves to right and transform into a new shape. Rest of the
step exits from the triangle, which rotates anticlockwise at ½ 1 shapes remain same.
½ 2 ½ 2 position of the side of the square.
15.(c) All the shapes move in clockwise direction and occupy
2.(b) In the question figure from 1 to 3 respectively, inner two each other‘s place and after coming on their respective places
figures enlarge without changing its sequence and the outer they rotate at 900 in anticlockwise direction.
figure shrinks to the innermost figure.
16.(b) Both shapes from top exchange their places and both
3.(d) Symbols in the series rotate anticlockwise at 90 0 ,450, 900 shapes at bottom interchange their places.
respectively from figure 1 to 2. The right most symbol moves to
3rd place and displaces 2 symbols to the right whereas the left 17.(d) Shape at bottom right corner moves to the center and the
most symbol is replaced with a new symbol. shape at the shape the center moves to the bottom left corner
and inverts itself. And at top- middle and bottom right corners,
4.(b) In figure from 1 to 2, two symbols move from left side to new shapes are formed.
the right side and both the designs from the right side move to
the left side. Again, in figure from 2 to 3 one symbol from left 18.(e) The shape which is in the middle from left and the shape
move to right and the three symbols move towards left. This which is in middle from top exchange their places. The shape
process follows for the next figures. which is at top left corner moves to the top right corner and the
top left corner is occupied by a new shape.
5.(d) Lower side designs change their positions and shift to the
upper side diagonally. At each next step two new designs appear 19.(c) The shape at the top right corner is shifted to the bottom
on lower side. left corner and the shape at bottom left corner moves to top right
corner and becomes black in color. Both shapes in the middle
6.(c) All the designs rotate anticlockwise and at each step one exchange their places and rotates 1800.
new symbol appears on the upper and lower section of the block
alternately. 20.(c) The symbol of arrow is inverted. Therefore in the fourth
figure also the symbol of arrow will be inverted.
7.(d) Upper designs in the blocks move to the lower side and the Type 3 Classification
lower left shape moves to the upper right corner and the lower
right symbol while shifting to the upper left corner is replaced 21.(c) In question figure c only, three circular turns are in same
with a new symbol. direction. However none of the figure shows this pattern.

8.(d) In the figure from 1 to 2, two designs from right swap their 22.(a) Two lines originate from one of the angle of hexagon and
positions. Again in figure from 2 to 3, two designs from the left they meet into two different angles of Hexagon which are
swap their positions. The process goes on. separated by one untouched angle i.e. there is maximum

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possible angle of deviation between them. But in figure (a) this
pattern is not followed.

23.(e) In question figure (e), a line divides the whole shape in

two equal parts. However, this pattern is not followed by others.

24.(e) In all other figures the difference in blank blocks between

an arrow and dark block is in ratio of 5 :2 but in figure (e) this
difference is 4 : 3.

25.(d) In all other figures there is a circle which is third to the

left of an arrow. But in figure d it is in right.

26.(c) Except option c, in all other figures the difference in the

side of two compound Polygons is two.

27.(d) Only in this figure the ‗dot‘ is in the rectangular part of

the figure. Where as in other figures it is located in different
regions of the figure.

28.(e) In all the figures the sum of ‘dots’ inside and outside is
an even number. But in the figure e, it is an odd number.

29.(c) The question figure (c) is not a shape having five sides.

30. (d) In all the other figures number of “black dark blocks”‖
are in odd number. But in the option d, they are in even number

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 Logical Reasoning Handout
Homework- Solution
Blood Relation
We use notations to denote the relations between the persons
+ve = Male
-ve = Female Sana and Vinay went for shopping in a mall and there they meet
==(Double Line) = We use double line in between Husband- Bipin who is husband of Sana's mother's father-in-law's only
Wife daughter, who is mother of Vinay. So, Bipin is father of vinay.
---(Single Line) = We use single line in between siblings.
Directions for Questions 6 to 10

From the information given in the question relation between A,

B, C, D, E, F, G and H is,
We use notations to denote the relations between the persons
+ve = Male
1) -ve = Female
Kanchan's sister's only brother's wife's mother -in-law is mother ==(Double Line) = We use double line in between Husband-
of Kanchan and her siblings. Wife
So, Answer is mother. ---(Single Line) = We use single line in between siblings.

Now we will arrange them around a circle.

2) D and F are married couples. D, the wife of F, sit second to the
A as the person who is the daughter of B's mother's only brother's left of her husband.
father's daughter-in-law. Daughter-in-law is wife of Brother and
their daughter is A. Parents of A and B are siblings.
So, A and B are cousins.

3)

E, a bachelor, sits third to the right of his uncle A, but neither to

the opposite nor to the immediate left of his father C and A is not
an immediate neighbour of his mother D. So, we will place A and
E.
Total Three cases are possible by which we can place A and E
Namita is daughter of Ajay and Vijay's paternal uncle. In that
photograph Vijay is standing with Namita's only brother Anuj
and Anuj's wife Pallavi. Pallavi's father-in-law is Paternal uncle
of Ajay

4)
Ms. Vidya's boss Mr. Gupta is the only child of his parents and
A and B are two son's of Mr. Gupta. A and B are siblings of
There is only one person sitting between C and his niece G, but
Vidya. So, Mr. Gupta is father of A, B and Ms. Vidya.
that person is not G's father i.e. A.
C and his sister-in-law i.e. H are immediate neighbour.
Now we will place C, G and H.
5)

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 2)

From the above 3 cases we cancel out the second case because Horizontal distance between Friend's house and Neeru's house
in that A i.e father of G is in between G and C, But in the = 5+5+25 = 35 km
information its written as A should not be immediate neighbour Vertical distance between Friend's house and Neeru's house =
of G and C. 24 - 6 - 6 = 12 km
Now we will place remaining person B around the circle.

By Pythagoras theorem we can find out the distance between

3 females should not be together. In the 1st case 3 females are Friend's house and Neeru's house.
sitting together so we eliminate the 1st case. So, final Distance = √352 + 122 = 37 km
arrangement is,
3) At 12 o'clock minute and hour hand will point towards 12 hour
mark
A wall clock is place in such a way that at 12 o'clock the minute
hand points towards the south.
So, 12 hour mark is towards south direction
Remaining directions are as shown in the clock below,
At 3 o'clock minute hand will point toward 3 hour mark and hour
Direction sense hand will point towards 12 hour mark. So hour hand will point
1) towards west.

If we joint starting point and A. then distance between Starting

point and A we have find out.
Now total Horizontal distance travelled = 35 meter and vertical 4) One evening, Bipin and Lalit were standing facing each other,
distance travelled = 10 meter. it was observed that the shadow of Bipin was falling to his left.
In the evening sun is in the west direction and remaining
directions are shown in the diagram.

By Pythagoras we can fond out distance between starting point

and A
Distance = √102 + 352 = 5√53

So, Lalit is facing towards North.

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 Minute hand 60 in 1 minute.
So, in that 56 minutes minute hand move by 6×56 = 3360

5) At time 8 hours x minutes minute and hour hand makes angle

of 360
So, we use the formula.
11
𝜃= M - 30H
2
Where,
M= x minutes(This we have to find out)
H= 8 hours
𝜃= Angle between Minute Hand and Hour Hand = 36 0
11
5) 36 = ×x - 30× 8
2
Akash walked 30 ft towards north, then took a left turn and
walked 15 ft. He again took a left turn and walked 30 ft. After After removing mod sign we get value as +180 or -180.
that Akash is 15 ft to the North from starting point. So,
11
+36 = × 𝑥 - 30× 8
Clock 2
552 2
1) We use the formula x = = 50
11 11
11
𝜃= M - 30H
2 11
Where, − 36 = × 𝑥 - 30× 8
2
M= 30 minuutes 408 1
x= = 37
11 11
H= 6 hours
So, in between 8 and 9, two times angle between minute hand and
𝜃= Angle between Minute Hand and Hour Hand( This we have
hour hand would be 360.
to find out)' 2 1
After putting and solving we get the value if 𝜃 =150 Timings are 8 hour 50 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠 and 8 hour 37 𝑚𝑖𝑛𝑢𝑡𝑒𝑠
11 11
Answer for the question is option d.
2) We use the formula
11 Calendar
𝜃= M - 30H
2
Where,
1) In first century to third century, number of leap years and
M= 34 minutes
ordinary years in every century are 24 and 76 respectively. Only
H= 2 hours
in fourth century leap years are 25 and ordinary years are 75.
𝜃= Angle between Minute Hand and Hour Hand(This we have
Each leap year contains 2 odd days and ordinary year contains
to find out)
1 odd day.
After putting and solving we get the value if 𝜃 = 1270
In four hundred years odd days are 0. So 400 years before
3) Suppose at time 3 hours x minutes angle between minute and
current year must be the same day.
hour hand be 1800 i.e. they are exactly opposite to each other.
Now we use the formula
11
𝜃 = M - 30H
2
Where,
M= x minutes(This we have to find out)
H= 3 hours
𝜃= Angle between Minute Hand and Hour Hand = 180 0
11
180 = × 𝑥 - 30× 3
2
After removing mod sign we get value as +180 or -180.
So,
11
+180 = × 𝑥 - 30× 3
2 So, day on 27th February 1603 = Thursday
540 1
x= = 49
11 11
11 2) From January 1, 2005 to Jan. 1, 2006 number of days are 365.
− 180 = × 𝑥 - 30× 3
2
− 270 6 Odd days in between that two dates = 1
x= = - 24 Day on Jan. 1, 2006 = Sunday
11 11
Negative value for minutes is not possible so we will consider
1
value of x = 49 minutes 3) From January 1, 2007 to Jan. 1, 2011 one leap year and 3
11
So, in between 3 and 4, two times angle between minute hand and ordinary years are there.
hour hand would be 1800. Odd days in between that two dates = 5
Day on Jan. 1, 2011 = Saturday
4) Hour hand move 10 in 2 minutes.
To move 280 hour hand takes 56 minutes. 4) Odd days in 57 days = 1

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Next day of Friday i.e Saturday. 1) Code for you = bi
So, after 57 days Saturday must be there.
2) Code for hot ta/da
5) Odd days in 94 days = 3 So, answer is cannot be determine.
Next third day of Sunday i.e Wednesday.
So, after 94 days Wednesday must be there. 3) ri is code for too.

6) Centurion year must be divisible by 400 to be a leap year. 500 4) code for too bad = ri ma / ma ri
is not divisible by 400 so it is not a leap year. Order for these code can be anything because code for the words
are in jumbled up order.
7) From 16th Nov, 2009 to 16th Nov, 2010 number of days are =
365. 5) In code section code for this and is i.e sa and ni must be
Odd days in between that two dates = 1 present.
We are moving 1 year back so, Code used for cold is something different than we have used all
Day on 16th Nov, 2009 = Wednesday the codes.
So, code for 'this is cold' = si ni ga i.e. option e
8) January 1, 2010 was Friday.
From January 1, 2010 to Jan. 1, 2011number of days are = 365. 6) In a certain code ALPHABET is written as YJNFYZCR.
Odd days in between that two dates = 1 Every letter is coded as previous second letter.
Day on Jan. 1, 2011= Saturday So code for word CHILDREN = AFGJBPCL

9) On 14th Feb, 2009 it was Saturday. 7) In a certain code BUSINESS is written as FSWGRCWQ.
From 14th Feb, 2008 to 14th Feb, 2009 number of days are = Letters at odd places coded with next fourth letter and letters at
366. even places coded with previous second letter.
Odd days in between that two dates = 2 So, BANGALORE coded as FYREEJSPI
Day on 14th Feb, 2008 = Thursday
8) In a certain code GUNPOWDER is written as DEGNOPRUW.
10) January 1, 2008 is Tuesday. Letters of the word GUNPOWDER are arranged in alphabetical
From January 1, 2008 to Jan 1, 2009 number of days are = 366. order.
Odd days in between that two dates = 2 In that manner word HOSTPITAL is coded as AIOHLPST.
Day on Jan. 1, 2011= Thursday
9) In a certain code REASONING is written as ASREONGNI.
11) Calendar for the that year is same as 2011 when day on 1st Coding pattern is as shown bellow,
January of that year and 1st January of 2011 is same. For that
odd days between 2011 and that year must be 0 or multiple of 7.
So in between year 2011 and 2022 odd days are 14.
Calendar of 2022 is same as 2011. So word FRIZZLING coded as following the same pattern as
IZFRZNGLI
13) On 5th December 1993, Nirmala and Raju celebrated their
anniversary on Sunday. 10) In a certain code SENSITIVE is written as HVMHRGREV.
In between 1993 and 1997, one leap year and 3 ordinary years If we arrange all alphabets in row then coding pattern is
are there. whatever position of letter from left is same position from right
So, odd days in between that 2 years = 5 is also there and vice versa.
In 1997 Nirmala and Raju celebrate there anniversary on friday. So, word HYDROGEN is coded as SBWILTVM.

Coding Decoding 11) In a certain code BIOLOGY is written as XFNKNHA.

Question 1 to 5 Encoding pattern is shown bellow
Codes used for the words they are not in the sequential order
they are in jumbled up order.

In the same manner CHEMISTRY is coded as XQSRHLDB.

12) If QKKQUGQL is the code for OMISSION.

Letters at the odd places are coded by previous second letter and
letters at even places are coded by next second letter this is the
encoding logic.
Hence word RYVIWZB is coded as PATKUBZ.

Decision Making

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1) Girish is born and brought up in the state of Kerala. He scored any corporate
70% marks in the entrance examination conducted by the college company, then
as well as in his graduation. Girish was born in 1994 and he did he\she is to be
his graduation in the state of Delhi. referred to the
Primary Criteria Alternate Criteria Decision taken Principal of the
(a) The candidate If the candidate has Then he/she is to college.
should have been done his be referred to
born and brought graduation in the Chairman of
up in the state of Maharashtra. (Not the college. All the primary criteria are fulfilled hence candidate may be
Maharashtra. (Not Fulfilled) admitted in to the course.
Fulfilled)
(b) Have scored at 3) The date of birth of Arun is August 7th, 1993. He is born and
least 65% marks in brought up in Maharashtra. He has scored 70% marks in his
graduation. graduation and 80% marks in the entrance examination
(Fulfilled) conducted by the college.
(c) Have scored at Primary Criteria Alternate Criteria Decision taken
least 60% marks in (a) The candidate If the candidate has Then he/she is to
the entrance should have been done his be referred to
examination born and brought graduation in the Chairman of
conducted by the up in the state of Maharashtra. the college.
collage. (Fulfilled) Maharashtra.
(d) Not be more If the candidate has Then he/she is to (Fulfilled)
then 22 years old , experience of at be referred to (b) Have scored at
as on 1st June least six months as the Principal of least 65% marks in
2014. (Fulfilled) a team leader in the college. graduation.
any corporate (Fulfilled)
company, then (c) Have scored at
he\she is to be least 60% marks in
referred to the the entrance
Principal of the examination
college. conducted by the
collage. (Fulfilled)
(d) Not be more If the candidate has Then he/she is to
1st primary criteria and alternate criteria of that is not fulfilled then 22 years old , experience of at be referred to
hence candidate would not get admission. as on 1st June least six months as the Principal of
2014. (Fulfilled) a team leader in the college.
2) is born and brought up in Mumbai(Capital of Maharashtra). any corporate
She scored 80% marks in her graduation as well as in the company, then
entrance examination conducted by the college. Her date of birth he\she is to be
is 22nd June, 1993. referred to the
Primary Criteria Alternate Criteria Decision taken Principal of the
(a) The candidate If the candidate Then he/she is college.
should have been has done his to be referred to
born and brought up graduation in the Chairman of
in the state of Maharashtra. the college. All the primary criteria are fulfilled hence candidate may be
Maharashtra. admitted in to the course.
(Fulfilled)
(b) Have scored at 4) Romeo has work experience of one year in a corporate
least 65% marks in company as a Team Leader. He is born and brought up in the
graduation. Maharashtra. He scored 65% marks in his graduation and 80%
(Fulfilled) marks in the entrance examination conducted by the college.
(c) Have scored at Primary Criteria Alternate Criteria Decision taken
least 60% marks in (a) The candidate If the candidate Then he/she is
the entrance should have been has done his to be referred
examination born and brought up graduation in to the
conducted by the in the state of Maharashtra. Chairman of
collage. (Fulfilled) Maharashtra. the college.
(d) Not be more then If the candidate Then he/she is (Fulfilled)
22 years old , as on has experience of to be referred to (b) Have scored at
1st June at least six months the Principal of least 65% marks in
2014.(Fulfilled) as a team leader in the college.

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 graduation.
(Fulfilled)
(c) Have scored at
least 60% marks in
the entrance
examination
conducted by the
collage.(Fulfilled)
(d) Not be more then If the candidate Then he/she is
22 years old , as on 1st has experience of to be referred
June 2014.(Don't at least six months to the Principal
have any information as a team leader of the college.
about date of birth) in any corporate
company, then
he\she is to be
referred to the
Principal of the
college.

We dont have any information about the date of birth of the

Romeo hence data is inadequate to take any decision.

5) Sarathi was born in the state of Uttar Pradesh in the year

1994. He did his graduation in the state of Maharashtra. He
scored 70% marks in graduation and 85% marks in the entrance
examination conducted by college X. Input Output
Primary Criteria Alternate Criteria Decision taken
(a) The candidate If the candidate has Then he/she is Step Number
should have been done his to be referred to Input 53 54 29 jam can man ban 15
born and brought graduation in the Chairman of 86 90 63 van tan den
up in the state of Maharashtra. the college. Step 1 van 53 54 29 jam can man
Maharashtra. (Not (Fulfilled) ban 15 86 90 63 tan den
Fulfilled) Step 2 van 53 54 29 jam can man
(b) Have scored at ban 15 86 63 tan den 90
least 65% marks in Step 3 tan van 53 54 29 jam can man
graduation. ban 15 86 63 den 90
(Fulfilled) Step 4 tan van 53 54 29 jam can man
(c) Have scored at ban 15 63 den 86 90
least 60% marks in Step 5 man tan van 53 54 29 jam can
the entrance ban 15 63 den 86 90
examination Step 6 man tan van 53 54 29 jam can
conducted by the ban 15 den 63 86 90
collage. (Fulfilled) Step 7 jam man tan van 54 53 29 can
(d) Not be more If the candidate has Then he/she is to ban 15 den 63 86 90
then 22 years old , experience of at be referred to the Step 8 jam man tan van 53 29 can
as on 1st June least six months as Principal of the ban 15 den 54 63 86 90
2014. (Fulfilled) a team leader in college. Step 9 den jam man tan van 53 29
any corporate can ban 15 54 63 86 90
company, then Step 10 den jam man tan van 29 can
he\she is to be ban 15 53 54 63 86 90
referred to the Step 11 can den jam man tan van 29
Principal of the ban 15 53 54 63 86 90
college. Step 12 can den jam man tan van ban
15 29 53 54 63 86 90
Step 13 (This is Last step and ban can den jam man tan van
Hence 1st primary criteria is not fulfilled but alternate criteria called as output) 15 29 53 54 63 86 90
for that gets fulfilled hence he/she is to be referred to the
Chairman of the college.

Inequality 1) Which of the following is the last step for the given input?

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a) Step 10 b) Step 9 c) Step 11 24+16 = 40
d) Step 13 e) None of these 40+24 = 64
64+32 = 96
2) Which is the fourth element from the left end in step 7? 96+40 = 136
a) can b) tan c) van d) 53 e) 54 So wrong number in the series is 98, at that place 96 must be
there.
3) How many elements are there between 'tan' and 'can' in step
10 of the given input? 7) 78, 81, 86, 93, 102, 117
a) two b) five c) seven d) nine e) None of these 78+3 = 81
81+5 = 86
4) Which step number is the following rearrangement? 86+7 = 93
'jam man tan van 53 54 29 can ban 15 den 63 86 90' 93+ 11 = 104
a) Step 5 b) Step 7 c) Step 8 104+13 = 117
d) Step 9 e) No such step Prime number is get added in the current tern to get the next
5) In the second last step, in a certain way 'den' is related to '86' term.
and 'tan' is related to '53' in the same way, 'van' is related to. So, wrong term is 102, at that place 104 must be there.
a) 54 b) man c) 29 d) 15 e) ban
Questions 8 to 10
Letter and Number Series 8) Ajay is sitting in a row of thirty six people. He shifted seven
places towards the left end. Now he becomes sixth from the left
Direction for Questions 1 to 5 end. What is his present position from the right end?
Find Out the Missing number in the following series. Ajay is sixth form the left end so 5 persons must be there to the
1) 343, 64, 81, 100, 1331, 144, 2197, 196, ____ left of Ajay and remaining 30 persons must be to the right of Ajay.
In this series composite numbers square and prime numbers cube So his position from the right end is 31st.
is there.
Next number must be 152 (Composite number)= 225 9) In a row of boys facing south, Ravi is 8th from the left end and
2) 2000, 1996, 1980, 1944, 1880, ____ Raghav is 5th to the left of Ravi and 16th from the right end of
2000 - 4(22) =1996 the row. What is the total number of boys in the row?
1996 -16(42) =1980 Ravi is 8th from the left end, so 7 persons are there to the left of
1980 - 36(62) = 1944 Ravi,
1944 - 64(82) = 1880
1880 - 100(102) = 1780
Raghav is 5th to the left of Ravi, so in between Raghav and Ravi
3) 2, 10, 24, 98, 200, ____, 1608
4 persons are there,
2×4+2 = 10
10× 2+4 = 24
24×4+2 = 98 Raghav is 16th from the right end of the row so 15 persons must
98×2+4 = 200 be to the right of Raghav.
200 ×4+2 = 802 Already 5 persons are there to the right of Raghav so remaining
4) NQF, LOD, JMB, HKZ, ____ 10 persons must be to the right of Ravi.
See the first letter of each term, so first letter in the next term
must be F
See the second letter of each term, so second letter in the next Total 18 boys are there in the row.
term must be G
See the third letter of each term, so third letter in the next term 10) In a queue, nine members are standing behind Anjali, seven
must be Y members are ahead of Meena and six members are in between
Next term must be FGY Anjali and Meena. How many members are standing in the
5) TMCI, VJGD, XGKY, ZDOT, ____ queue?
See the first letter of each term, so first letter in the next term There are two cases in the first case Anjali is ahead of Meena
must be B and in the second case we consider Meena is Ahead of Anjali.
See the second letter of each term, so second letter in the next
term must be A Case 1 (Anjali is 7th ahead of Meena)
See the third letter of each term, so third letter in the next term
must be S
So total 10 members are there in a queue.
See the fourth letter of each term, so fourth letter in the next term
must be Q
Case 2 (Meena is 7th Ahead of Anjali)
Next term must be BASQ

Direction for Questions 6 and 7 So tatal 24 members are there in the queue
Each of these Questions consist a series with one wrong number.
Find the wrong number. Two answers we are getting so answer is cannot be determine.
6) 16, 24, 40, 64, 98, 136
16+8 = 24 Venn Diagram

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 Candidate appearing for exactly one exam = 24%+25%+17% =
Direction for the questions 1 to 5 66%
Read the following information carefully and answer the 100%---300
following question. 66%----198
In a batch of 300 candidates, 45% of the candidates are a) 200 b) 216 c) 198 d) 194 e) 208
appearing for SSC exam, 43% of the candidates are appearing
for PO exam and 40% of the candidates are appearing for UPSC 3) What is the percentage change in number of candidates
exam. 10% candidates are appearing for both SSC and PO, 12% appearing for exactly two exams when total changes from 300 to
candidates are appearing for both UPSC and PO, 15% 450?
candidates are appearing for both SSC and UPSC. 5% Total number of candidates = 300
candidates are not appearing for any exam. Candidates passed in exactly 2 exams = 25%
100% corresponds to 300
25% corresponds to 75

If total number of candidates = 450

Candidates passed in exactly 2 exams = 25%
100% corresponds to 450
25% corresponds to 112.5

percentage change in number of candidates appearing for

37.5
exactly two exams when total changes from 300 to 450 =
75
× 100
= 50%
a) 10% b) 20% c) 30% d) 40% e) 50%

4) What is the ratio of the number of candidates appearing for

SSC but not for PO to the number of candidates appearing for
PO but not for SSC?
𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑑𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑆𝑆𝐶 𝑏𝑢𝑡 𝑛𝑜𝑡 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑃𝑂 35
=
𝑛𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑎𝑛𝑑𝑖𝑑𝑎𝑡𝑒𝑠 𝑎𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑎𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑔 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑃𝑂 𝑏𝑢𝑡 𝑛𝑜𝑡 𝑓𝑜𝑟 𝑆𝑆𝐶 33
a) 33:35 b) 35:33 c) 31:33
d) 33:31 e) 35:31

5) What percent of candidates are appearing for at least two

exams?
Candidates are appearing for at least two exams = Candidate
appearing for exactly 2 exams + Candidates appearing for
exactly 3 exams
= (11% + 6% + 8%) + 4%
= 31%
a) 25% b) 29% c) 27% d) 31% e) 26%

6) How many candidates are appearing for at most two exams?

Candidates are appearing for at most two exams = Candidates
appearing exactly 2 exams + Candidates appearing exactly 1
exams + Candidates appearing for none of the exams
= (11% + 6% + 8%) + (24%+25%+17%) + 5%
= 96%
a) 94% b) 91% c) 90% d) 71% e) 96%

Cubes

Direction : A solid cube of 12 cm been painted green , blue and

yellow on pairs of opposite faces . it is then cut in cubical blocks
of each side 3 cm.
1) How many candidates are appearing for all the three exams?
Total candidates appearing for all the 3 exams = g = 4%
So, 100% corresponds to 300, then 4% corresponds to 12.
a) 12 b) 13 c) 14 d) 15 e) 16

2) How candidates are appearing for exactly one exam?

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 1) A only 2) B & C 3) A & B
4) None of these

1. How many cubes have only one face painted?

Number of cubes only one face is painted = Pieces along a face
except the corner pieces and pieces along the edges × 6(Total
number of faces of cube)
= 4 × 6 = 24
1) 8 2)16 3)24 4) 28

2. How many cubes have only two faces painted?

Number of cubes only two faces is painted = Pieces along a edge
except the corner pieces × 12(Total number of edges of cube)
= 4 × 6 = 24
1) 8 2)16 3)20 4) 24

3. How many cubes have only three faces painted?

Number of cubes Exactly three faces is painted = Pieces which
are at the corners = 8
1) 0 2) 4 3) 6 4) 8

4. How many cubes have no face painted?

= Total number of pieces - Number of pieces whose at least one
face is painted(Number of cubes only one face is painted+
Number of cubes only two faces is painted+ Number of cubes
Exactly three faces is painted)
= 64 - ( 24+24+8)
=8

OR
Total number of pieces of bigger cube = 6× 6 × 6 = 64
If we remove the outer layer then number of pieces inside that
cube = 2 × 2 × 2 = 8
1) 0 2) 4 3) 8 4)12

5. How many cubes have at most one face painted?

Number of pieces whose at most one face is painted = Total
number of pieces - Number of pieces whose exactly two or three
faces are painted
= 64 - (8+24)
= 32
1) 24 2) 32 3) 30 4) 36

6. How many cubes have two faces painted yellow and green and
all other faces unpainted?
There are four edges where exactly two faces of piece get painted
by yellow and green colour.
cubes have two faces painted yellow and green and all other
faces unpainted = Number of pieces along that single edge × 4
=2×4=8
1) 4 2) 8 3)16 4) 32

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