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1. Overdose of which medication can cause bradycardia and hypotension?

a. morphine sulfate
2. Below what age should cuffed endotracheal tubes not be used?
a. 8 years
3. Which of the following conditions is appropriate for use of an oropharyngeal airway?
a. unconscious with no gag reflex
4. Which of the following is an acceptable method of selecting an appropriately sized
oropharyngeal airway?
a. measure from the corner of the mouth to the angle of mandible
5. What is the appropriate ventilation strategy for prevention of hyperventilation in an adult
patient?
a. 1 breath every 5 to 6 seconds
6. The patient needs defibrillation for ventricular fibrillation. Your defibrillator is biphasic. What will
be the dose of energy used for termination of the given rhythm?
a. 120-200J
7. What will be the flow of oxygen for nonrebreathing mask?
a. 10-15 L/min
8. What is the recommended second intravenous dose of Amidaron for adult patient with
refractory ventricular fibrillation?
a. second – 150 mg
b. first – 300 mg
9. Adult patient develops hypotension during induction of anesthesia. Blood pressure is 70/50
mmHg. The monitor shows wide complex tachycardia. What is appropriate next intervention?
a. synchronized cardioversion
10. What is the recommended first intravenous dose of Amidaron for adult patient with refractory
ventricular fibrillation?
a. 300mg
11. You are treating a patient with elevated intracranial pressure. The patient is intubated and
mechanically ventilated. Which of the following should be the target for mechanical ventilation?
a. Set PaCO2 between 30-35 mmHg
12. A patient after induction of anesthesia develops sinus bradycardia and hypotension. The patient
is intubated and mechanically ventilated. Bradycardia is not responding to ventilation with 100%
oxygen and fluid administration. Heart rate is 40 beats per/min. What is the first step of
treatment for this patient?
a. Atropine IV push
13. Which medication cannot be administered via endotracheal tube?
a. sodium bicarbonate
14. During a pause in CPR you see an organized rhythm on the monitor. The patient has no pulse.
What is the next action?
a. Resume chest compressions
15. Shock is best defined as:
a. widespread inadequate perfusion to the tissues
16. Morphine affects all organ systems except:
a. musculoskeletal

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17. How many times potent is Fentanyl than Morphine?
a. 100 times
18. Difficult airways will be considered in a patient with:
a. Mallampati class III and IV
b. small mandible
c. neck injury
19. Which drug will be used to reverse the effects of neuromuscular blocking agents?
a. Neostigmine
20. What is the average depth of insertion of endotracheal tube in men?
a. 23 cm
21. Which sign will not be present in early stage of herorrhagic shock?
a. cold skin
22. What will be the single dose of epinephrine for 10kg child?
a. 1ml
23. IV/IO drug administration during CPR should be:
a. given rapidly during compressions
24. What is the drug of choice for anesthesia of patient with traumatic brain injury?
a. Thiopental
25. What is the depth of insertion of 6mm size endotracheal tube to the child?
a. 18 cm
26. Which are signs of neurogenic shock?
a. bradycardia, hypotension, flushed, warm skin
27. Which is preferred adjunct device for verifying placement of endotracheal tube in a patient with
a perfusing rhythm?
a. end-tidal CO2 monitoring (capnography)
28. A patient receiving intravenous morphine should be closely monitored for which one of the
following?
a. respiratory status
29. Which of the following is used for opioid overdose?
a. naloxone
30. A 6 year-old-child is in cardiac arrest. Two-rescuer CPR is started. The patient is not intubated.
Which compression-to-ventilation ratio is used?
a. 15:2
31. A 4 year-old child is in cardiac arrest. High quality CPR is started. The cardiac monitor displays
ventricular fibrillation. What is the dosage of initial defibrillation for 20 kg patient?
a. 40J
32. What is the appropriate fluid bolus to administer for a child with hypovolemic shock with
adequate myocardial function?
a. 20ml/kg normal saline
33. Adult patient develops cardiac arrest. High quality CPR is started. ECG reveals ventricular
fibrillation. What is appropriate next intervention?
a. amiodarone 6mg IV push

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34. Hyperventilation can lead to all of the following except:
a. metabolic acidosis
35. What is the appropriate ventilation strategy for prevention of hyperventilation in pediatric
patient?
a. 1 breath every 3 to 5 seconds
36. What is the recommended next step after defibrillation attempt?
a. resume CPR, starting with chest compression
37. Which action is an element of high quality CPR?
a. Allowing complete chest recoil after each compression
38. What is the recommended compression rate for performing CPR?
a. 100-120 per minute
39. Which is the drug of choice to reverse benzodiazepine overdose?
a. Flumazenil
40. How chest compression and breaths will be delivered in intubated patient during CPR?
a. Continuous chest compressions and one breath every 6 second

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