CBSE Social Science Class 10

Sample Paper 2 Page 1

Sample Paper 3
Social Science (Code 087)
Class X Session 2022-23
Time: 3 Hours Max. Marks: 80
General Instructions:
i. Question paper comprises five Sections – A, B, C, D and E. There are 37 questions in the question
paper. All questions are compulsory.
ii. Section A – From question 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
iii. Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 2 marks each.
Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
iv. Section C contains Q.25to Q.29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying 3 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 60 words
v. Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5 marks each. Answer to
each question should not exceed 120 words.
vi. Section-E - Questions no from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub questions and are of 4
marks each.
vii. Section F – Question no. 37 is map based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a from History (2 marks)
and 37b from Geography (3 marks).
viii. There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice has been provided in few
questions. Only one of the choices in such questions have to be attempted.
ix. In addition to this, separate instructions are given with each section and question, wherever necessary.

SECTION-A

Multiple Choice Questions (Q 1 to 20) 2X4=8

1. Which one of the following option best signifies this picture?

(a) Indian workers march in south Africa 1913.

(b) The Boycott of foreign cloths 1922.
(c) Chauri Chaura Movement.
(d) Dandi March lead by Mahatma Gandhi.
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Page 2 Sample Paper 2 CBSE Social Science Class 10

2. How much span of time can be referred for globalisation?

(a) Since the last 25 years
(b) Since the last 50 years
(c) Since the last 75 years
(d) Since the last 100 years

3. Which of the following are perfectly matched :

List I List II
(a) Gomasthas Official who acted as company’s agent
(b) Spinning Jenny Richard Arkwright
(c) Steam engine James Hargreaves
(d) Cotton mill James Watt

4. Match the following items given in column I with those in column II.
Column I Column II
A. Rashsundari Debi 1. Chhote Aur Bade Ka Sawal
B. Sudarshan Chakra 2. Kesari
C. Kashibaba 3. Amar Jiban
D. Bal Gangadhar Tilak 4. Sacchi Kavitayen
Select the correct option :
(a) A " 1, B " 2, C " 3, D " 4
(b) A " 4, B " 1, C " 2, D " 3
(c) A " 2, B " 3, C " 4, D " 1
(d) A " 3, B " 4, C " 1, D " 2

5. Arrange the following options in the correct sequence-

1. Press came to be made out of metal.
2. Offset press was developed.
3. Gutenberg perfected the system by olive press.
4. China first introduced hand-printing technology into Japan.
Option :
(a) 2, 4, 3, 1
(b) 4, 3, 1, 2
(c) 3, 4, 1, 2
(d) 2, 3, 1, 4

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6. Study the given pie-chart and answer the following questions :

Figure : Production of Manganese showing state-wise share

Which state is the largest producer of manganese in India ?
(a) Odisha.
(b) Karnataka
(c) Madhyapradesh
(d) Andrapradesh

7. Complete the table with correct information-

National Waterways Between Length (in km)
The Ganga river ? 1620
Choose correct option :
(a) Kanpur - Patna,
(b) Allahabad - Haldia,
(c) Patna - Haldia,
(d) Allahabad - Haldwani

8. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that:

A. It ensures the stability of political order.
B. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
C. It gives a fair share to minority.
D. It is the very spirit of democracy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B
(b) A, C and D
(c) All are correct
(d) A, B and C

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9. The picture portrays about the :

(a) Uneven Dispersal of power between the Centre and State.

(b) Lack of harmonization between Centre and State.
(c) The states plead for more power.
(d) Demand for power by the states can never be met.

10. Identify the person who said that:

• Religion can never be separated from Politics.
• Politics can be guided by ethics drawn from religion
• Those who believe religion and politics aren’t connected don’t understand either.
• Nations are born out of travail and suffering
Select the appropriate option from the following.
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawahar Lal Nehru
(d) Sardar Vallabh Bhai Patel

11. Assertion : The economic strength of the country is measured by the development of manufacturing
industries.
Reason : India’s prosperity lies in diversifying its manufacturing industries.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.

12. Assertion : Belgium and Spain has ‘holding together’ federation.

Reason : A big country divides power between constituent states and national government.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.

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13. What are the kinds of routes through which federations have been formed?
(a) One route involves independent states coming together on their own to form a bigger unit.
(b) The second route is where a large country decides to divide its powers between the states and
the national government.
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of these

14. Rule of law is the feature of which form of government?

(a) Dictatorship
(b) Democracy
(c) Monarchy
(d) All of these

15. What would be the most appropriate aspiration of a prosperous farmer from Punjab?
(a) local school is able to provide quality education for their children
(b) there is no social discrimination
(c) able to pursue her job in abroad.
(d) proper supply for irrigation

16. Identify the feature of the unorganised sector.

(a) Rules and regulations are followed.
(b) Workers enjoy security of employment.
(c) Employment is not secure.
(d) It follows some formal processes and procedures.

17. Read the information given below and select the correct option:
A shoe manufacturer, M. Salim has to make a payment to the leather supplier, Prem and writes a cheque
for a specific amount. This means that the shoe manufacturer instructs his bank to pay this amount to
the leather supplier. The leather supplier takes this cheque, and deposits it in his own account in the
bank. The money is transferred from one bank account to another bank account in a couple of days. The
transaction is complete without any payment of cash.
How are cheques beneficial against demand deposits?
(a) DDs share the essential features of money.
(b) Cheques are linked to the working of modern banking system.
(c) There is direct settlement of payments without the use of cash.
(d) Cheques are the best means of payment against deposits.

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Page 6 Sample Paper 2 CBSE Social Science Class 10

18. The following table shows source of rural households in India in the year 2003.
Source Share
Money lender 30%
Co-operative societies 27%
Commercial Bank 25%
Other (Merchant, Relative etc.) 18%
Analyzing the table above, what is the share of formal sector in total credit?
(a) 25%
(b) 27%
(c) 52%
(d) 18%

19. Consider the following statements regarding unorganized sector and identify the incorrect one from the
following.
(a) Small and scattered units which are largely outside the control of the government.
(b) There are rules and regulations but these are not followed.
(c) Jobs here are high-paid and often not regular.
(d) No provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, leaves due to sickness

20. From the given option select the functioning activity of the Tertiary sector.
(a) goods that are produced would need to be transported by trucks or trains and then sold in
wholesale and retail shops
(b) this sector gradually became associated with the different kinds of industries
(c) activities in which natural products are changed into other forms through ways of manufacturing
(d) produce a good by exploiting natural resources

SECTION-B

Very Short Answer Question (Q 21 to 24) 2X4=8

21. Why did the elite of Britain prefer hand made goods in the mid-nineteenth century? Explain.


o
How has the ever increasing number of industries in India made worse position by exerting pressure on
existing fresh water resources? Explain.

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CBSE Social Science Class 10 Sample Paper 2 Page 7

22. Describe any three main features of ‘Rabi crop season.’

23. Explain the three components of political party.

24. What do you understand by globalisation ? Explain in your own words.

SECTION-C

Short Answer Based Question (Q 25 to 29) 3X5=15

25. Describe the implications of First World War on the economic and political situation of India.

26. Describe the economic conditions of Britain after the ‘First World War’.

27. What is the meaning of rain-water harvesting ? State any four points that should be kept in mind for
efficient management of water.


o
Scarcity of which resource is shown in the picture and how is it shown ? Suggest methods to reduce the
scarcity of this resource.

28. How did people belonging to different communities, regions or language groups develop a sense of
collective belonging in the nineteenth century India? Explain.

29. Imagine yourself to be XYZ, a member of a women Self- Help Group. Analyse the ways through which
your group provides loan to the members.

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SECTION-D

Long Answer Based Question (Q 30 to 33) 5X4=20

30. Why was the period of 1848 considered as phase of the revolution of the Liberals in Europe ?


o
“The first clear expression of nationalism came with the ‘French Revolution’ in 1789.” Examine the
statement.

31. What is Human Development ? Explain its indicators.

o
Imagine yourself as one of the heads of the states attending the International Earth Summit at Rio-de
Janeiro, Brazil and suggest some methods for environment protection.

32. ‘Power sharing is the essence of a democratic government.’ Examine the statement.


o
What do you mean by Majoritarianism ? How did it cause ‘Civil War’ in Sri Lanka ?

33. Is it correct to say that environmental degradation is not just a national issue ? Illustrate with examples.


o
“Advancement of international trade of a country is an index of economic development”. Justify the
statement.

SECTION-E

Case Based Question (Q 34 to 36) 4X3=12

34. Read the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as permanent forest estates maintained for the
purpose of producing timber and other forest produce, and for protective reasons. Madhya Pradesh
has the largest area under permanent forests, constituting 75 percent of its total forest area. Jammu
and Kashmir, Andhra Pradesh, Uttarakhand, Kerala, Tamil Nadu, West Bengal, and Maharashtra have
large percentages of reserved forests of its total forest area whereas Bihar, Haryana, Punjab, Himachal
Pradesh, Odisha and Rajasthan have a bulk of it under protected forests.
Some estimates suggest that at least 10 percent of India’s recorded wild flora and 20 percent of its
mammals are on the threatened list. Many of these would now be categorised as ‘critical’, that is on the
verge of extinction like the cheetah, pink-headed duck, mountain quail, forest spotted owlet, and plants
like madhuca insignis (a wild variety of mahua) and hubbardia heptaneuron, (a species of grass). In
fact, no one can say how many species may have already been lost.
The world’s fastest land mammal, the cheetah (Acinonyx jubantus), is a unique and specialised member
of the cat family and can move at the speed of 112 km./hr. The cheetah is often mistaken for a leopard.
Its distinguishing marks are the long teardrop shaped lines on each side of the nose from the corner

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CBSE Social Science Class 10 Sample Paper 2 Page 9

of its eyes to its mouth. Prior to the 20th century, cheetahs were widely distributed throughout Africa
and Asia. Today, the Asian cheetah is nearly extinct due to a decline of available habitat and prey. The
species was declared extinct in India long back in 1952.
Questions:
1. Which Indian state cover 75% total forest area in India?
2. How many percent of mammals are on the threatened list in India?
3. How can we distinguish Cheetah from leopard?

35. Read the extract and answer the questions that follow:
A second test for Indian federation is the language policy. Our Constitution did not give the status of
national language to any one language. Hindi was identified as the official language. But Hindi is the
mother tongue of only about 40 per cent of Indians. Therefore, there were many safeguards to protect
other languages. Besides Hindi, there are 21 other languages recognised as Scheduled Languages by
the Constitution. A candidate in an examination conducted for the Central Government positions may
opt to take the examination in any of these languages.
States too have their own official languages. Much of the government work takes place in the official
language of the concerned State.
Unlike Sri Lanka, the leaders of our country adopted a very cautious attitude in spreading the use
of Hindi. According to the constitution, the use of English for official purposes was to stop in 1965.
However, many non-Hindi speaking states demanded that the use of English continue. In Tamil Nadu,
this movement took a violent form. The central Government responded by agreeing to continue the use
of English along with Hindi for official purposes. Many critics think that this solution favoured the
English-speaking elite. Promotion of Hindi continues to be the official policy of the Government of
India. Promotion does not mean that the Central Government can impose Hindi on States where people
speak a different language. The flexibility shown by Indian political leaders helped our country avoid
the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in.
Questions:
1. How many official languages recognised as scheduled Languages by the constitution?
2. How does Constitution of India safeguard the other languages?
3. How does India avoid the kind of situation that Sri Lanka finds itself in?

36. Study the sources given below and answer the questions that follows:
Over a long time (more than hundred years), and especially because new methods of manufacturing
were introduced, factories came up and started expanding. Those people who had earlier worked on
farms, now began to work in factories in large numbers. People began to use many more goods that were
produced in factories at cheap rates. Secondary sector gradually became the most important in total
production and employment. Hence, over time, a shift had taken place. This means that the importance
of the sectors had changed.
The unorganised sector is characterised by small and scattered units which are largely outside the
control of the government. There are rules and regulations, but these are not followed. Jobs here are
low-paid and often not regular. There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays, leave due to
sickness etc. Employment is not secure. People can be asked to leave without any reason. When there is
less work, such as during some seasons, some people may be asked to leave. A lot also depends on the
whims of the employer. This sector includes a large number of people who are employed on their own

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Page 10 Sample Paper 2 CBSE Social Science Class 10

doing small jobs such as selling on the street or doing repair work. Similarly, farmers work on their own
and hire labourers as and when they require.
More than half of the workers in the country are working in the primary sector, mainly in agriculture,
producing only a quarter of the GDP. In contrast to this, the secondary and tertiary sectors produce
three fourth of the products whereas they employ less than half of the people. Does this mean that the
workers in agriculture are not producing as much as they could? What it means is that there are more
people in ag-riculture than is necessary. So, even if you move a few people out, production will not be
affected. In other words, workers in agricultural sector are underemployed.
Questions:
1. This means that the importance of the sectors had changed. Which sector has lost its prior
importance?
2. Why do most people engage in unorganized sector in spite of it’s bad working conditions?
3. “What it means is that there are more people in agriculture than is necessary. So, even if you move
a few people out, production will not be affected”. What type of employment or unemployment
situation is referred by this statement?

SECTION-F

Map Skill Based Question (Q 37a and 37b) 2+3=5

37. (1) Two places (a) and (b) are marked on the given political outline map of India. Identify them and
write their correct names on the lines drawn near them.
(a) A place where cotton mill workers organised Satyagraha.
(b) An incident took place here due to which the Non-cooperation movement was called off.
(2) On the same outline map of India, locate and label any three of the following:
(a) Coimbatore - Cotton textile centre in Tamil Nadu
(b) Bhilai - Iron and steel plant in Chhattisgarh
(c) Marmagao - A major port in Goa
(d) Naraura - A thermal power plant

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