340 ITEMS ENGLISH MAJOR REVIEWER - Vol.2

License_Sure ENGLISH MAJOR LET REVIEWER
VOLUME 2
1. REMEDIAL INSTRUCTION IN ENGLISH

1.1 Take into consideration student inadequacies in language and literature
competencies purposes
1. In misuse analysis, which category of graphic similarity does the teacher illustrate in this
situation?
Text:
The project encouraged the use of imagination.
Child read aloud:
The project encouraged the use of inauguration.
Miscue record:
H
Inauguration
a. High graphic similarity
b. Some graphic similarity
c. Low graphic similarity
d. No graphic similarity
2. Which type of retelling does the situation exemplify?

Teacher: “You told me that Isabelle couldn‟t find a seat when she got on the school bus,
why not?”
Victor: “I think the other kids, you know the animals, didn‟t want her to sit with them
because she was small and plus the bus driver was mean so she didn‟t want to sit near
him.”
A, Unaided retelling
b. Aided retelling
c. Half-aided retelling
d. Fully-aided retelling
3. While reading orally, John‟s word error range is from 2 to 5 word calling errors per 100 words
of text (95% accuracy or better), with at least 80 percent comprehension on simple recall
questions about the story. In what level does his reading ability belong?
a. Independent Reading level
b. Successful Reading level
c. Frustration Reading level
d. Instructional Reading level
4. Don, a Grade 4 pupil reads saw for was, says a b is a d, skips, omits, or adds words when he
reads out loud. Rite 41 for 14, shows no difference between 1 2 3 and 123, act and car, + and
X, and between OIL and 710. What learning difficulty does he suffer from?
a. Dyscalcula
b. Dyslexia
c. Dysgraphia
d. Reading miscues
5. What should teachers avoid in order to help pupils with learning difficulties remediate their
challenges?
a. For a child with difficulty in speaking, allow extra time for the child to respond instead of
hurrying him up to give an answer, teach vocabulary words clearly, practice sentence building
and sequencing, introduce „talking partners‟ and use speaking frames.
b. For a child who has difficulty in planning, organizing ideas and formulating language,
provide sequencing, idea/concept mapping activities, use reading sessions to explore meaning,
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cause and effect, and teach and guide pupils how to use colored pens to highlight different sorts
of information for note-taking, revision, etc.
c. For the child who has difficulty with interaction, use auditory aids, repeat an instruction of
requested, phrase questions carefully, and use open-ended questions requiring elaboration
(„what do you like to drink?‟), that close indicating a preference („Do you want orange or milk?‟)
d. For a child who has reading difficulty, use imitative, repeated and impress methods which
are characterized by the use of more than one physical sense.
6. Fe, a Grade 5 pupil has difficulty completing school work, using in writing in everyday
situations, producing letters on paper, and may not understand the relationship between letters,
words, and sounds, shows weaknesses in understanding letter sound connections, and in fine
motor skills. What learning difficulty does she suffer from?
a. Dyscalcula
b. Dyslexia
c. Dysgraphia
d. Digraph
7. Self-monitoring and paying attention belong to which category of learning strategies identified
by Oxford in 1989?
a. Metacognitive
b. Affective
c. Compensation
d. Social
8. Which of the following statements does not describe correctly the given illustration of miscue
analysis?
Text:
The parachute did not seem to be working.
Child read aloud:
The film did not seem to be working.
Miscue record:
N
film
The parachute did not seem to be working.
a. There is no graphic similarity.
b. It is syntactically incorrect.
c. It is semantically correct.
d. It is syntactically correct.
9. Which of the following characterizes a “strategic reader”?

a. Refers to the dictionary when an unfamiliar word is encountered in the text.
b. Chooses reading materials that are easier to read.
c. Previews a selection and rereads difficult passages.
d. Refrains from taking notes while reading.
10. Which of the following statements accurately describes the Bottom-Up Model of Reading?
a. Suggests that the reader constructs meaning from all available sources.
b. The primary focus of instruction should be the reading of whole selections
c. Reading is driven by the text, not the reader.
d. The emphasis is on comprehension, not decoding.
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11. Don, a grade three pupil finds it difficult to relate his thoughts and feelings through speaking
and writing. He may find it hard to recall the right word and may try to communicate using
gestures and sound effects. When he does speak it will often be in short phrases or sentences
which may show incorrect grammar or tense. After undergoing diagnosis, Don is found to suffer
from ___________________.
a. expressive disorder
b. receptive disorder
c. auditory processing disorder
d. phonological difficulty
2. ENGLISH for SPECIFIC PURPOSES

2.1 Apply content-based principles and strategies in developing language
proficiency for specific disciple
12. Which of these words is an example of slang?

a. Spyware
b. Goalie
c. Ammo
d. Scrub suit
13. Which among the list of activities below should be least prioritized or used in an ESP class?
a. Simulation
b. Feasibilities studies
c. Case studies
d. Research
14. Which item is an example of an ESP needs analysis?

a. Psychoanalysis
b. Material-based Analysis
c. Advocacy Analysis
d. Target Situation Analysis
15. The following statements characterized ESP in the context of English language teaching,
EXCEPT _______________.
a. it is designed to meet specified needs of the learner.
b. it is related in content to particularly disciplines, occupations and activities.
c. it is centered on the language appropriate to those activities in syntax, lexis, discourse,
semantics, etc., and analysis of this discourse
d. it is in contrast with General English
16. Which is a jargon of academe?

a. Pedagogy
b. Leverage
c. Deficit
d. Bureaucracy
17. Which is an example of a course for English for Occupational Purposes (EOP)?
a. English for Counseling
b. English for Classroom Application
c. English for Technicians
d. English for Social Advocacy
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18. Slang expressions are any of the following EXCEPT _____________.

a. expressions that are not considered standard in the speaker‟s language or dialect
b. considered acceptable in certain social settings
c. widely used in informal and formal speech and writing
d. very short and momentary expressions
3. LANGUAGE CURRICULUM FOR SECONDARY SCHOOLS

3.1 Exhibit clear understanding of the design, development, and dissemination of
a language curriculum
19. Which of the following written outputs does NOT qualify as a product of English for
Academic Purposes (EAP)?
a. Annual Reports
b. Financial Reports
c. Laboratory reports
d. Thesis abstracts
20. Which of the following K to 12 features of English language teaching in secondary level is
NOT true?
a. Focus on common areas of difficulty in grammar
b. Sequential teaching of language forms
c. Common errors included in standard and international English proficiency tests
d. Use of literacy and informative tests
21. Which approach to language teaching anchors on the behaviorist assumption that language
learning is the acquisition of a set of correct language habots and whose goal is to use the
target language communicatively, overlearn it, so as to be able to use it automatically?
a. Grammar-Translation Method
b. Direct Method
c. Suggestopedia
d. Audio-Lingual Method
22. The curriculum goes through the stages of curriculum planning, curriculum implementation
and curriculum evaluation, the production of instructional materials falls under
_______________.
a. curriculum planning and implementation
b. curriculum planning and evaluation
c. curriculum planning
d. curriculum evaluation
23. An important step in ensuring the relevance of the instructional materials to the rest of the
curriculum is to keep a list of ______________.
a. policies issued by DepEd
b. vision and mission of school
c. goals and objectives of the curriculum
d. curriculum standards
24. Which type of syllabus is given examples by the following activities: writing notes and
memos, reports, agendas, letters to companies, and reply letters?
a. Situational syllabus
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b. Grammatical syllabus
c. Task-based syllabus
d. Topical syllabus
25. Which is NOT a goal of K to 12 language teaching in the secondary level?

a. To link life, literature, and language and to integrate themes, texts and tasks.
b. To gain mastery of language forms and rules of usage.
c. To hone independent study strategies through prescribed tasks.
d. To use differential instruction to accommodate varied learners‟ strategies
26. The primary aim of second language teaching using the audiolingual method is?
a. reading comprehension
b. vocabulary development
c. literary appreciation
d. oral proficiency
27. Which of the following concepts is/ are correctly defined?

I. A curriculum includes the philosophy, purposes, design and implementation of a
whole program.
II. A course is an integrated series of teaching learning experiences, whose ultimate aim
is to lead the learners to a particular state of knowledge.
III. A syllabus is the specification and ordering of content of a course or courses.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I, II
d. I, II, III
28. A teaching practice which is compatible with Communicative Approach is one that
___________.
a. derives and makes explicit the grammatical rules of the language
b. addresses the needs of the target learners
c. follows the listen-speak-read-write sequence of skills
d. gives priority to oral proficiency
29. The K to 12 language teaching in secondary school can be described as follows EXCEPT is
____________.
a. is literature-based and genre-focused
b. uses literary and informative texts
c. uses culminating performance tasks
d. focuses on common areas of difficulty in grammar
30. Newspaper articles, advertisement, radio announcement, etc. in the rreal world when used
in the classroom situations are classifies as ____________.
a. authentic materials
b. mass communication materials
c. audio-visual aids
d. recycled materials
31. A plan of what to be achieved through the teaching and learning process which contains the
course description, objectives, the prerequisites, the requirements, and the topics to be taight is
the ____________.
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a. course outline
b. curriculum guide
c. course syllabus
d. lesson plan
32. Which of the following DOES NOT characterize the direct method of language teaching?
a. It allows error and these errors are addressed by self-correction.
b. The teaching illustrates and demonstrates meaning.
c. The target language is used as an auxiliary/support language.
d. The language is viewed as spoken then written
33. The content of the language teaching in this type of syllabus is a collection of specific
abilities that may play a part in using language. Which is referred to?
a. Skill-based syllabus
b. Task-based syllabus
c. Content-based syllabus
d. National-functional syllabus
34. The Teacher uses a contemporary and highly relevant song in presenting a lesson on
conditional clauses. She provides activity sheets in which students indicate their regretful
experiences and the possible outcome had they not done a certain regretful acts. Then, the
students were assigned in pair to share with a partner what they have written. The use of the
song, the worksheet, the pair group, the teacher and the students‟ talk are provisions of which
hypothesis in Krashen‟s Monitor Model?
a. Affective Filter
b. Monitor Output
c. Comprehensible Output
d. Natural Order
THEORETICAL FOUNDATIONS OF LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

4. INTRODUCTION TO LINGUISTICS
4.1 Demonstrate understanding of the structural aspect of language: i.e.,
phonology, morphology, syntax, semantics, and pragmatics
35. Which conversational maxim is violated in this utterance? In the classroom, the students are
noisy, the teacher spoke loudly, “Class, I really appreciate your behaving quietly today. You see
we can smoothly and clearly discuss our lesson.”
a. Quality
b. Quantity
c. Relation
d. Manner
36. The aspect of communicative competence that deals with the appropriate use of
communication and coping strategies is known as __________ competence.
a. discourse
b. sociolinguistic
c. grammatical
d. strategic
37. Which generalization in the area of phonology can be drawn from the following linguistic
data: table, attack, can, paper, space, accordion?
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a. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it begins a syllable of a stressed vowel.

b. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it follows a stressed vowel.
c. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it is in between a consonant and a tense vowel.
d. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it is in between a stressed vowel and a voiced consonant.
38. Which of the following has a global segment?

a. Hot
b. Sad
c. Mat
d. Dam
39. The study of illocutionary acts is an area of _________.

a. pragmatics
b. semantics
c. morphology
d. syntax
40. Mary thinks that she is the only girl who can sing the song. Obviously, “she” refers to Mary
. What concept in referential semantics explains the italicized word?
a. Deixis
b. Anaphora
c. Coreference
d. Prototype
41. What truth relation is exemplified in this pair of sentences: “Sentence A: The fisherman
caught a fish.” “Sentence B: The fishermen caught a milkfish.”?
a. Sentence A presupposes Sentence B.
b. Sentence B presupposes Sentence A.
c. Sentence A entails Sentence B.
d. Sentence B entails Sentence A.
42. What is the classification of the morpheme in each of the following linguistic date: invert,
covert, revert, subvert, divert?
a. Grammatical bound morpheme
b. Lexical free morpheme
c. Grammatical free morpheme
d. Lexical bound morpheme
43. Why does the word “take” when pronounced is different from the words “fake”, “vase” and
“thank”?
a. All the three expressions have initial fricative segment.
b. All the three expressions have initial affricative segment.
c. All the three expressions have final voiced consonant.
d. All the three expressions have final voiceless stops.
44. The vowels in the words “per”, “but”, “say” and “sew” are _____________.
a. [+high]
b. [+low]
c. [-high] and [-low]
d. [-tense]
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45. Let‟s surviel the place. The morpheme surviel is an example of ____________.
a. root creation
b. derivation
c. back formation
d. clipping
46. What is morphological error in the following sentence: “The boys‟ in the camp exercise are
held in the morning.”?
a. The derivational morphemes are used in the noun [boy].
b. The derivational morpheme is used before the inflectional morpheme.
c. Two inflectional morphemes are used in the head noun of the noun phrase.
d. The inflectional morpheme is used before the derivational morpheme.
47. Which of the following is CORRECT?

a. A noun phrase must always have an adjective and a prepositional phrase.
b. A determiner and a noun are obligatory components of a noun phrase.
c. A noun phrase must constitute a determiner, a quantifier or a verb phrase before a head
noun.
d. A noun in the noun phrase may have an adjective before it, or a determiner, or may be
followed by a prepositional phrase.
48. In the phrase structure rules, a prepositional phrase consists of a preposition, followed by a
___________.
a. noun
b. objective pronoun
c. noun phrase
d. clause
49. Which is a sense property in which two words have the same sense, or same values for all
of their semantic features? Example: “teacher” and “instructor”
a. Hyponomy
d. Deixis
c. Anaphora
d. Synonym
50. American: Are you a Filipino?

Filipino: Yes, I am.
American: So you must be a nurse.
What concept explains the conversation above?
a. Referent
b. Extension
C. Prototype
d. Stereotype
51. After supper, the wife asked the husband, “Should I get you some ice cream?” The husband
responded, “Am I diabetic?” What conversational maxim is violated?
a. Manner
b. Relation
c. Quality
d. Quantity
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52. What can be said about a polite expression such as, “Can you give me a glass of water?”
a. It is an indirect illocutionary act.
b. It is a direct illocutionary act.
c. It is an implied locutionary act.
d. It is a non-literal locutionary act.
4.2 Apply concepts and principles of language learning, teaching and language ysein
specific contexts for language acquisition and learning
53. In second language acquisition, what is the route to pidginization and fossilization of errors?
a. Nativization and assimilation
b. Nativization and accommodation
c. Denativization and assimilation
d. Denativization and accommodation
54. Teacher Betty justifies the inclusion of grammar in her lessons. According to her, it should
be an integral part of the curriculum. What theory of second language acquisition explains
Teacher Betty‟s justification?
a. Nativization Model
b. Accommodation Theory
c. Communicative Language Teaching
d. Monitor Model
55. Teacher Judy examines the reading selection that she will discuss in her class. She reads
the selection to check whether the language and vocabulary might be too difficult for the
students to understand? What theory explains this?
a. i+1 hypothesis
b. Scaffolding hypothesis
c. Readability test
d. emergent literacy
56. A Filipino family migrated to the U.S. After 5 years, the child‟s accent typically Filipino. He
did not learn the accent of the Americans. When his mother was asked why his son did not
acquire the accent and facility to communicate in English, the mother responded, “He didn‟t
want to mingle other children in the U.S. He was always home.” What explains this
phenomenon?
a. Accommodation theory
b. Monitor Model
c. Discourse Theory
d. Nativization Model
57. Which of the following classes promotes the desired learning environment discussed in the
learning acquisition hypothesis of Monitor Model?
a. Teacher Judith teaches substitution drills after a discussion on grammatical structure.
b. Teacher Michael conducts a speech choir, emphasizing correct intonation and pronunciation.
c. Teacher Ben shows a news clip from CNN and asks students questions.
d. Teacher Lovely tells the class to write a letter following the correct formal and structure.
58. The goals of this language teaching approach are learn grammar, vocabulary and culture.
Teacher is the authority. He/ She make use of translation, deductive study of grammar,
memorization of vocabulary. Which approach of language teaching described?
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a. Grammar-translation approach
b. Natural approach
c. Community language learning approach
d. Direct approach
59. Which of the following does NOT justify the use of communicative language teaching?
a. Within a social context, people need to perform certain tasks and functions.
b. Students perform well in class, but they are unable to perform communicative tasks outside
the classroom.
c. Within a social context, people need to develop their cognitive abilities through authentic textx
and content in language.
d. Students need to develop communicative competence as they enhance their linguistic
competence.
60. Teacher Mary learned in her graduate degree class that language learning should also be a
result of cognitive processes, of the act of knowing something. Which of the following is a result
of this principle?
a. Content-based instruction
b. Desuggestopedia
c. Peripheral learning
d. Total physical response
61. Teacher Peter uses small group games and tasks, he also asks students to actively listen to
music, songs, or any conversation in the class. Which of the following explains Teacher Peter‟s
practices?
a. Cognitive approach
b. Communicative approach
c. Counseling-learning approach
d. Task-based English language teaching
62. Teacher Minnie reads about desuggestopedia. Which of the following activities is a practice
of desuggestopedia?
a. Drills and substitution drills
b. Language games and quiz bees
c. Doing tasks such as writing letters, composing poems, and watching movies
d. Role play
63. Which of the following illustrates “positive transfer” in interlanguage?

a. A Filipino student constructs a sentence in English: “Beautiful is Mary.”
b. A Filipino student pronounces “bag” correctly.
c. A Filipino student writes a sentence: “The book is new.”
d. A Filipino student tells, “We ate pish (fish) last night.”
64. The teacher considers feelings of anxiety, fear, and shame that may hinder second
language acquisition. Which method can help the teacher address the concern?
a. CL/CLL
b. Task-based language teaching
c. Communicative language teaching
d. CBI
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65. Teacher Eric believes that if the students in school would force their habit of speaking in
English in the manner they speak Kapampangan, including accent and vocabulary, it might lead
to fossilization of errors and eventually lead to linguistic phenomenon known as __________.
a. codemixing
b. codeswitching
c. depidginization
d. pidginization
66. In which class is codeswitching allowed?

a. Audio-lingual class
b. Communicative classroom
c. Grammar-translation class
d. TBLT
67. In which class is CLIL practiced?

a. The class visited a museum in order to create a brochure promoting local tourism.
b. The class was divided into small group in order to brainstorm on a topic for process writing.
c. The teacher used an authentic task for group performance.
d. The teacher used graphic organizers to aid comprehension.
68. What is an indication of hypothesis testing in language learning?

a. Acculturation
b. Error
c. Input
d. Utterance
69. Which of the following is a manifestation of covert grammar teaching?

a. Audio lingual method
b. Communicative language teaching
c. Task-based language teaching
d. Silent way
70. Which of the following supports English for Specific Purposes?

a. Competency-based education
b. Organizational competence
c. Peripheral learning
d. Scaffolding in language education
4.3 Draw implications of the theories of linguistic, psycholinguistic, and sociolinguistic

to language teaching and learning
71. What is the implication of “mutually intelligible” in teaching English?

a. Students cannot distinguish any difference in the different varieties of the language.
b. Students may still understand different varieties of English.
c. Students should not be given different varieties of the English language.
d. Students will find it hard to understand s different variety of the English language.
72. Based on principles of first language acquisitions, which of the following should taught first
to students?
a. Plural regular
b. Possessive
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c. Present progressive
d. Simple present
73. In the language acquisition, the following are considered language developmental milestone
during the pre-linguistic stages, EXCEPT _________.
a. babbling
b. cooing
c. crying
d. echolalia
74. What semantic change is reflected in the word “queer”? “ A queer case was solved by
Sherlock Holmes.” “He is such a queer.”
a. Association
b. Metaphor
c. Pejoration
d. Taboo
5. STRUCTURE OF ENGLISH
5.1 Demonstrate the understanding of grammatical concepts by being able to
describe and analyze the form, meaning and use of various language structures.
75. Which of the following sentence/s is/ are incorrect?

a. The safety of students while on a school field trip is something for which teachers are
responsible for.
b. The safety of students while on a school field trip is something for which teachers are
responsible.
c. The safety of students while on a school field trip is something which teachers are
responsible for.
d. Sentences B and C.
76. Which of the following sentences is incorrect?

a. The infamous attack on the World Trade center happened on September 11, 2001.
b. The infamous attack on the World Trade Center happened on 11 September 2001.
c. The infamous attack on the World Trade Center happened on 11th of September, 2001.
d. The infamous attack on the World Trade Center happened on 11 September, 2001.
77. Noun phrases joined by and are plural. This rule does not apply when and is followed by
not. Which of the following statement is CORRECT?
a. Love and not hate makes the world go round.
b. Love and not hate make the world go round.
c. People and not policy is the focus of this analysis.
d. Policy and not people are the focus of this analysis.
78. Which of the following quantifiers sodify plural nouns?

a. Many
b. Each
c. Every
d. Many a
79. The following statements are TRUE about sentence structure EXCEPT _______.
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a. Two words (lexis) that belong to the same category (lexical category) can substitute each
other in a sentence.
b. Each word has a limitless range of possible functions.
c. There are restrictions on how the words can combine to form grammatical phrases.
d. Lexical categories can expand into bigger strings of words called “phrasal categories”.
80. The word “off” functions as an adverbial particle in which structure?

a. Their on and off relationship.
b. We put it off too long.
c. Off with you!
d. You‟re off the book.
81. Which of the following is an example of a sentence fragment?

a. They fought
b. A family just moved in
c. The boy and the girl‟s uncle
d. Quit it
82. In which of the following sentences does the verb “be” (is) function as the intensive verb or
copula?
a. Don is annoying.
b. Don is fooling around.
c. Don is annoying me.
d. Don is going out of control.
83. Which of the following are “optional constituents” of this sentence? “The kind history teacher
surprised us with an extraordinary reward.”
a. Kind, history, Teacher
b. kind, surprised, extraordinary
c. Kind, teacher, reward
d. Kind, history, extraordinary
84. Which of the following is the correct definition of a “phrase”?

a. A sequence of words that can function as a sentence constituent.
b. A sequence of words that contains only a subject and no predicate.
c. A sequence of words that contains only a predicate and no subject.
d. A sequence of words that contains a subject and a predicate.
85. Which of the following CANNOT function as intensive verbs?

a. Make
b. Seem
c. Turn
d. Remain
86. What is the function of the underlined constituent in the following sentence: “Jake dreads
wild animals in the zoo”?
a. Obligatory Compliment
b. Optional Modifier
c. Indirect Object
d. Optional Compliment
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87. Which of the following statements best qualifies as a “complex” sentence?

a. Don‟t make any comment unless you are fully aware of the issue.
b. I didn‟t start this dispute and I don‟t want to have anything to do with it.
c. You can wallow in your miseries or you can start over and move on.
d. Jen likes hew new house, but she doesn‟t like the front yard.
88. Which of the following sentence structure is “syntactically ambiguous”?

a. The mayor invited all city hall employees to his birthday dinner.
b. The columnist writes feature articles on antique writing desks.
c. The man with a tall hat sits rather uncomfortably at the dinner table.
d. The valet looks imposing in his purple velvet vest.
89. In Chromsky‟s Transformation Grammar, to what does a sentence‟s “deep structure” refer?
a. The version of a sentence that we articulate and hear
b. The outward form of a sentence
c. The final stage in the syntactic representation of a sentence
d. The abstract representation of a sentence
90. Which of the following concepts is NOT a concern of syntax?

a. Lexical categories
b. Smaller units called constituents
c. Structural analysis
d. Distribution and function
91. Which of the following statements is TRUE with regard to the use of the present perfect
tense?
a. A statement which was true in the past and still relevant to the present.
b. A statement which was true in the past but no longer, or not necessarily, true at the moment
of speaking
c. A statement which was true, or an action which was completed before another past action
d. A statement which became true in the past.
92. Which of the following types of words does NOT fit into the category of determiners?
a. Articles
b. Possessives
c. Prepositions
d. Demonstratives
93. Which of the following sentence/s depict/s a dative case?

a. Marga gave a donation to charity.
b. The charity received a donation from Marga.
c. The university accepted an award from the accrediting organizations.
d. Sentences B and C are dative.
94. The following are basic simple sentence patterns in English EXCEPT __________.
a. subject + verb
b. subject + verb + object
c. subject + verb + indirect object + direct object
d. subject + object + verb
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95. The following are linguistic mechanisms that Halliday and Hassan (1976) point in order for
text to have cohesion EXCEPT _______________.
a. reference
b. ellipsis
c. substitution
d. genre
96. What lexical process is exemplified by the following?

Jo removed dust from the desk. = Jo dusted the desk.
a. Compounding
b. Conversion
c. Polysemy
d. Derivational affixation
97. Which of the following is grammatical?

a. The burglar lurked.
b. It fascinated the alarm clock.
c. I don‟t like these books.
d. Anyone who is a good friend must be trustful.
98. The following sentences are considered ungrammatical EXCEPT _____________.

a. William has bought it last Sunday.
b. I‟m believing you.
c. Help! I will fall.
d. Janice has lived with her parents for ten years.
99. Which approach to grammar refers to the structure of a language as it is actually used by
speakers and writers?
a. Reference Grammar
b. Pedagogical Grammar
c. Descriptive Grammar
d. Prescriptive Grammar
100. This sentence structure contains a “ditransitive verb group”.

a. Max had replied to my letter.
b. Max has turned a subtle shade of red.
c. Max hates huge spiders.
d. Max is giving his boss a headache.
6. INTRODUCTION OF STYLISTICS
6.1 Use the conceptual framework and schemea of linguistic and literature in
understanding literary language
101. Which is the correct description of motif in literary writing?

a. The main insight, central idea, or universal truth found in a literary work
b. An image or idea repeated throughout a work or several works or literature
c. The element of surprise in a work of fiction, such as twist ending
d. The writing style adopted by the author which is revealed in his/her word choice
102. Which of the following defines stylistic correctly?

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a. It deals with expressive means which secures the desirable effect of the utterance.
b. It is the study of literary discourse from a linguistic orientation.
c. It explicates the message to interpret and evaluate literary writings as works of art.
d. It is the study of language structure, sounds, and meaning.
103. Which of the following best illustrates the figure of speech “understatement”?
a. “That‟s wrong, Poe.” (Addressing somebody who does not know the answer)
b. “I think our comments differ slightly,” (“I do not agree with at all.”)
c. “I‟m so thirsty I could drink a pail of water.”
d. “That sounds not intriguing.”
104. What stylistic device was employed in “And breaths were gathering sure/For that last
onset, when the king/He witnessed in his power” (Emily Dickinson)?
a. Paradox
b. Irony
c. Antithesis
d. Oxymoron
105. In stylistic parlance, which term refers to the appropriateness of a work to intended subject,
genre, and audience?
a. Diction
b. Tone
c. Point of View
d. Decorum
106. Which of the following excerpts is an example of the figure of speech “paradox”?
a. “The child is father of the man.” (Waordsworth)
b. “O hateful love, o loving hate! I burn and freeze like ice!” (Shakespeare)
c. “At the drunkard‟s funeral, four of his friends carried the bier.”
d. Don‟t we all love peace and hate war?”
107. What figure of speech did Nathaniel Hawthorne use in making Rev. Dimmensdale
metaphorically dim as the novel progresses while making Chillingworth have chilled heart?
a. Symbol
b. Charactonym
c. Allusion
d. Pun
108. Which of the following exemplifies the device “allusion”?

a. Shakespeare is a literary titan.
d. Death, be not proud.
c. Philippines, O Pearl of the Orient
d. Not yet, Rizal, not yet.
109. What technique were used in the excerpt “Sea nymphs hourly ring his knell/Ding-dong.
Hark!/Now I hear them – Ding-dong bell”?
a. Consonance and rhythm
b. Onomatopoeia and rhyme
c. Assonance and rhyme
d. Onomatopoeia and assonance
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110. What device did Ovid use in the excerpt “And learus, hi son, stood by and watched him/Not
knowing he was dealing with his downfall/Stood by and watched, and raised hi shiny face/To
boy will, always Whenever a father tries to get some work done”?
a. Flashback
b. Foreshadowing
c. Frame Story
d. Epiphany
111. What device did N.V.M. Gonzales use in the excerpt “After Longos River, the trail to
Mauhaw climbs the Hill of the White Cows and for ten kilometers or so wanders about the rolling
cogon country before finally entering the woods. Only then may one get glimpses of the sea,
heart-warming pictures framed in by palma-brava and dao trees. Mauhaw Bay itself comes after
woods, the winding trail, after the resin-fragrant winds that strum the buri leaves as though
theses were guitars.”
a. Simili
b. Local Color
c. Allusion
d. Personification
112. What device did Alexander Pope use in the excerpts “Here thou, great Anna, whom three
realms obey/Dost sometimes counsel take, and sometimes tea”?
a. Oxymoron
b. Paradox
c. Irony
d. Anticlimax
7. LITERARY CRITICISM
7.3 Demonstrate understanding, of the basic approaches to problems in critical
theory from the classical to modern times as applied to literary works
113. Which literary theory can give a meaningful criticism of the following poem?
“Hope” is the thing with feather –
That perches in the soul –
And sings the tune without the words –
And never stops – at all –
And sweetest – in the Gale – is heard –

And sore must be the storm –
That could abash the little Bird –
That kept so many warm –
I‟ve heard it in the chilliest land –

And on the strangest Sea –
Yet – never – in Extremity,
It asked a crumb – of me.
a. New criticism
b. Realism
c. Naturalism
d. New historicism
114. Which of the following is the focus of medieval literary period?

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a. Secular and individualistic

b. Aesthetic and social
c. Mundane and symbolic
d. Divine and spiritual
115. Which of the following does NOT characterize deconstructive reading of text?
a. Authorial intention fallacy renders meaning uncertain.
b. Language is a fixed system of signs.
c. A text is a combination of multiple shades of contradicting meaning.
d. It is a reading which analyses a text‟s critical difference from its intended meaning
116. Which is an example of the error ex machine?

a. The protagonist saw and talk to God.
b. The antagonist changed and turned to God.
c. The conflict is related to religion.
d. The plot with divine-intervention like way.
117. Which of the following is NOT true?

a. Romanticism emphasizes human subjectivity and imagination.
b. Post-modernism is highly structural, objective and empiricist.
c. Realism draws from the objective and referential aspect of language and art.
d. The Renaissance movement brought about the other-worldly disposition in art and literature.
118. Which of the following is NOT true?

a. Marxism as a literary theory rejects the idea of “art for art‟s sake.”
b. Formalism is criticism for meaning.
c. New Criticism promotes close reading and interpretation.
d. Psychoanalytic theory in literature attempts to interpret symbols in literature.
119. Which is known as the science of interpretation?

a. Hermeneutics
b. Textual exegesis
c. Literary appreciation
d. Documentary analysis
120. Which of the following does NOT allow intertextual reading of literature?
a. Feminism Criticism
b. Marxism Criticism
c. New Criticism
d. Post-Colonial Criticism
121. Which of the following is valid in the context of the science of interpretation?
a. Every individual‟s preconception and prejudice is destructive and unproductive in the reading
and analysis of texts.
b. A person cannot factor out his prejudices but he can compromise and find a common ground
between his prejudices and the author‟s historical horizon.
c. Prejudices are productive because they allow rich and valid interpretations of the significance
of literary texts.
d. Truth is always what the reader thinks, and not what the author attempts to convey in the
texts.
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122. Which of the following may be accepted by a Reader-Reception critic?

a. All interpretations and meaning are correct.
b. Interpretations should ultimately be aligned with the author‟s intention, not the reader‟s
perception.
c. No interpretation can be objective, truthful and accurate.
d. Interpretations are governed by the language and convention of the texts, and the literary
competence of the reader.
123. What is common among the following literary criticism theories: Marxism, Post-Colonialism,
Gender and Feminism, New Historicism?
a. Literature is a product of an ideology or social constructs.
b. Literature affects human behavior in a given society.
c. Literature is independent from other texts and factors external to the text.
d. Literature is a creative.
124. Which of the following can be the subject matter of humanism literature?
a. Faith
b. Poverty
c. Sacred
d. Salvation
125. Which is characterized by a re-examination and imitation of the classical models, literary
styles and values of the ancient Greet and Roman authors?
a. Neoclassicism
b. Neo-Platonism
c. Renaissance
d. Romanticism
126. Which movement reacted against the stylistic excess and superfluous artistry and
ornamentation of Renaissance writers?
a. Neoclassicism
b. Realism
c. Aestheticism
d. Romanticism
127. Which literary movement is characterized by logical thinking and freedom which are vital in
making choices that relate to moral and social choices?
a. Enlightenment
b. Neoclassicism
c. Post-Modernism
d. Renaissance period
128. Which was characterized by two broad events: French Revolution and the Industrial
revolution?
a. Humanism revolution
b. Modern period
c. Post-Modernism
d. Renaissance period
129. In which literary period was peom analysis done within the framework of human subjectivity
and its expression and evaluation of nature?
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a. Naturalism
b. Neoclassicism
c. Realism
d. Romanticism
130. “Shall I compare thee to a summer‟s day?” This sonnet from William Shakespeare may be
interpreted in terms of its allusion to the beauty of nature, its metaphor, and the feelings that
nature and human evoke upon the reader. Which literary movement advocates this critical
approach?
a. Empiricism
b. Neoclassicism
c. Realism
d. Romanticism
131. Which literary movement is characterized by the avoidance of what is fantastical,

imaginary, and mythical or supernatural?
a. Naturalism
b. Neoclassicism
c. Realism
d. Romanticism
132. This movement adheres to the requirements of probability and shuns impossible or
improbable literary subjects and themes, with characters and incidents from all social strata,
included. Which of the following literary selection can be studied using this critical theory of
Realism?
a. Animal Farm by George Orwell
b. The Grapes of Wrath by John Steinbeck
c. The House of the Spirits by Isabel Allende
d. The Hunger Games by Suzanne Collins
133. The following characterize realism, EXCEPT ____________.

a. it considered the human experiences of the present time, and the topics from contemporary
life rather than longing for some idealized past
b. it emphasized the social rather than individual or seeing the individual or seeing the individual
as a social being
c. it emphasized logical reason, and empiricism in the presentation of events and characters
d. it is focused on contemporary life, and not about some classical events in the past
134. Which emphasizes the hereditary psychological components of characters and

experimenting the connections between human psychology and external environment?
a. Naturalism
b. Neoclassicism
c. Realism
d. Romanticism
135. As an extreme form of Realism, which literary movement emphasizes the use of the
methods of the physical sciences and principles of causality, using highly detailed methods of
description to present the natural occurances of things in the literary text?
a. Enlightenment
b. Magic Realism
c. Naturalism
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d. Romanticism
136. Known as the era of “decadence,” which literary movement was a reaction against realism
and naturalism, and highly structured poetry?
a. Aestheticism
b. Classicism
c. Enlightenment
d. Symbolism
137. Which literary movement rejected the idea that language was referential, or that the
signifiers automatically refer to their accurate signified?
a. Naturalism
b. Post-Modernism
c. Realism
d. Symbolism
138. Which literary movement emphasizes a more suggestive, allusive, and cannotative
language that would enrich and evoke feelings of awareness and aesthetic experience?
a. Naturalism
b. Post-Modernism
c. Realism
d. Symbolism
139. Which literary movement states that art exists for its own sake, or for the sake of beauty,
disregarding moral or political considerations, and advocating freedom of art from idealistic,
educational, and moralistic functions?
a. Aestheticism
b. Humanism
c. Renaissance
d. Structuralism
140. Which literary movement would give productive interpretations and criticisms of Jose
Garcia Villa‟s comma or punctuation poems?
“In, my, undream, of, death,

I, unspoken, the, Word.
Since, nobody, had, dared,
With, my, own, breath,
I, broke, the, cord!
a. Aestheticism
b. Realism
c. Structuralism
d. Symbolism
141. Which characterized hermeneutics during the Middle Age?

a. Interpretation became significantly important in the field of religion.
b. Invention of literary forms give rise to the science of interpretation in secular texts.
c. Meaning became terribly difficult in literature.
d. Philosophical ideas were so abstract that people had to invent the science of interpretation.
Read the poem below then answer question no. 142.

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Then said Almitra, Speak to us of Love.

And he raised his head and looked upon the people, and there fell a stillness upon them,
And with a great voice he said:
When love beckons to you, follow him,
Though his ways are hard and steep.
And when the wings enfold you yield to him,
Though the sword hidden among his pinions may wound you.
And when he speaks to you believe in him,
Though his voice may shatter your dreams as the north wind lays waste the garden.
For even as love crowns you so shall he crucify you. Even as he is for your growth so is
he for your pruning.
Even as he ascends to your height and caresses your tenderest branches that quiver in
the sun,
So shall he descends to your roots and shake them in their clinging to the earth.
Like sheaves you make you naked.
He sifts you to free you from your husks.
He grinds you to whiteness.
He kneads you until you are pliant;
And then he assigns you to his sacred fire, that you may become sacred bread for God‟s
sacred feast.
142. Which of the following is a potential meaning from a feminist literary critic as he/she reads
the poem?
a. A woman has selfless dreams for humanity.
b. The poem justifies the patriarchal idea that a woman is the symbol of love and affection and
the laws of nature.
c. The poem presents a universal truth and symbol that a woman must learn how to respect her
husband.
d. The poem presents a woman as the object of love, a martyr for the cause of love presented
as man.
143. The following are post-colonial critical approaches, EXCEPT ___________.

a. it analyzes how a superior culture influences as inferior community.
b. it pushes for the appreciation of the literary creativity of the post-modern era
c. it recognizes how history shaped the lives and beliefs of people of a former colony
d. it studies the impact of colonial culture upon a community through literature
144. Which of the following is NOT a process or principle of formalist criticism?

a. Close reading and non-intertextual interpretation are approaches in the study of literary texts.
b. Defamiliarization creates the literary experience
c. Meaning is the essence of literature
d. The dominant quality and literary device shape the nature and form of literature.
145. Intertextuality believes that _______________.

a. accurate meaning can be achieve through close reading of the text itself.
b. heteroglossia or multiple meanings does not exist, nor can accurate or valid interpretation be
possible
c. heteroglossia or multiple meaning exist
d. meaning is the sole responsibility of the author; therefore, interpretation should be aligned
with what the author meant in the text
146. Which of the following is NOT true about signs?

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a. Iconic signs-the signifier resembles the signified

b. Indexes-signifier indicates the signified
c. Signs-signifier as the concept is represented by the sound image or signified
d. True symbol-signifier is arbitrarily assigned to refer to signified
147. How does a Marxist literary critic view literature?

a. A product of a class struggles and economic history
b. A product of the author‟s view of society and the world
c. A receptacle of symbol
d. An art which exists for its own sake
148. Which of the following represents the philosophical belief of a New Historicism scholar?
a. History exists as the only accurate text of the post-structuralism.
b. It does not allow intertextual reading.
c. It examines how readers are influenced by their prejudice or personal view of the world.
d. There is no history, but a version of the author‟s view of the historical facts.
149. Which of the following relates Psychoanalytic theory in literary criticism?

a. Art is decadent, and self-indulging.
b. Literary criticism is giving judgment of the behavior and prejudices of readers during the
reading act.
c. The literary text is the product of the author‟s repressed dreams and fantasies, and literary
interpretation is a form of dream interpretation and psychoanalysis.
d. The text is a rich symbol of the author‟s personal, and psychological view of the world and its
people.
150. Which approach to literary criticism highlights how meaning, interpretations, frameworks,
systems, and structural beliefs break apart?
a. Hermeneutics
b. Post-structuralism
c. Semiotics
d. Structuralism
151. The idea of the “death of the author” by M. Bakhtin can be associated with which principle
of reader-reception theory?
a. Reading is a process of dialogue between the reader and the author mediated by the text.
b. The reader is the author of the text.
c. There cannot be only one interpretation; however, there can be many valid and competent
interpretations.
d. There is no accurate and meaningful interpretation in a text that can be ascertained by the
reader.
LITERATURE
8. MYTHOLOGY AND FOLKLORE
8.1 Use literary concepts in interpreting and analyzing various literary texts
152. Even before the invention of the printed page in the middle of the 15th century, oral
literature had been in circulation by word-out-mouth for centuries. Epics, myths, legends and
fables which were told hundreds of years ago may be said to be fall under what literary genre?
a. Essay
b. Drama
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c. Poetry
d. Fiction
Read this poem, then answer question no. 153.

Fog
The fog comes
on little cat feet.
it sits looking
over harbor and city
on silent haunches
and then moves on.
Carl Sandburg
153. Among the “senses of the mind,” which one is predicted in the poem above?
a. Sense of touch
b. Sense of smell
c. Motion sense
d. Thermal sense
154. The image projected in “Fog” is ____________.

a. the silent, graceful, hardly noticeable and nonchalant coming of the fog
b. the fog‟s quiet lifting off towards some unknown direction as it gets dispersed
c. the fog‟s obvious lifting off towards some unknown direction as it gets dispersed
d. both A and B
155. The figure of speech found in the same poem is ______________.

a. personification
b. simile
c. metonymy
d. hyperbole
156. Which character or force in conflict with a main character, e.g. the extreme cold in Jack
London‟s “To Build a Fire?”
a. Protagonist
b. Antagonist
c. Hero/heroine
d. supernatural power
157. Which is a body of stories, legends, myths, ballads, songs, riddles, sayings, and other
works arising out of the oral traditions of people around the world?
a. Folk literature
b. Pop culture
c. Epics
d. Folk pop
158. What tone color is exemplified by the underlined words in the following lines taken from
“The Raven?”
Once upon a midnight dreary, while I pondered weak and weary
Over a many quaint and curious volume forgotten lore
While I nodded nearly napping suddenly there came a tapping,
As of someone gently rapping, rapping at my chamber door…”
Edgar Allan Poe
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a. Rhyme
b. Consonance
c. Assonance
d. Alliteration
159. Which is an all-knowing point of view in which the author tells of the thoughts and feelings
of each character in the story?
a. Third person omniscient POV
b. Third person limited POV
c. First person POV
d. Third person central character POV
160. The expression, “and they lived happily ever after” is included as a segment of the
___________.
a. resolution
b. setting
c. theme
d. plot
Read this stanza, then answer questions no. 161 and 162.
Twilight
Is a young bird
In gorgeous plumes,
Seeking refuge
Under the soft wings
Of its Mother Night.
By Epifanio T. Ramos
161. Which figure of speech is exemplified in the first three lines?
a. Personification
b. Metaphor
c. Apostrophe
d. Allusion
162. The short poem describes the __________.

a. onset of night
b. rising of sun
c. high noon
d. plumes
163. A word that means “a shelter or protection from danger or distress” is ____________.
a. night
b. refuge
c. wings
d. plumes
164. In mythology, Zeus, the ruler of Olympus has two brothers: one who ruled the sea and the
other who ruled the underworld. The two were _________.
a. Apollo and Artemis
b. Poseidon and Hades
c. Hermes and Ares
d. Achilles and Aeschylus
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165. Three monstrous sisters with snakes for hair, teeth like the tusks of a wild boar, hands of
brass and bodies covered with impenetrable scales. They turned to stone all who looked on
them. The most famous of the three was Medusa. Which is described?
a. Gigantes
b. Furies
c. Gorgons
d. Fates
166. Son of Zeus and Alemene, he was renowned for his superhuman strength and courage.
Sometimes called Aleides, he has often represented with a bow of club wearing a lion skin. Who
is referred to?
a. Oedipus
b. Odyssues
c. Androcles
d. Hercules or Heracles
167. Half-human and half-bull, he/it was confined in the labyrinth, where he/she is received an
annual tribute of seven youths and seven maidens from Athens. Which referred to?
a. Minotaur
d. Pegasus
c. Midas
d. Medea
168. A king of Corinth condemned in the Underworld to roll a huge stone up a hill. Just as he
reached the top, the stone would roll down, forcing him to begin the task again. Who is referred
to?
a. Sisyphus
b. Sphinx
c. Spartacus
d. Stentor
169. Which is the substitution of a term considered inoffensive for one that might bring the
reader or listener too close to an uncomfortable reality?
a. Euphemism
b. Imagery
c. Translation
d. Bathos
170. Which term is borrowed from art criticism and applied to a kind of fiction that mixes realism
with flights of myth and fantasy. It is associated with Latin American writers such as Gabriel
Garcia Marquez?
a. Metaphor
b. Masque
c. Magic realism
d. In medias res
171. Which is the subject in Mythic history portrayed in “Musee des Beaux Arts” painting?
a. Daedalus and Icarus
b. Iliad and Odessey
c. Farewell of Hector and Andromache
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d. Encounter with Polyphemus
172. The following are examples of Situational Irony EXCEPT _______.

a. Abduction of Helen
b. Oedipus fled Corinth
c. Death of Acrissius in the hands of Perseus
d. The quest to expose Laius‟ murderer
173. Philosophic-religious belief in reincarnation is based on which mythical character?

a. Orpheus
b. Paris
c. Achilles
d. Agamemnon
174. The following are typical characteristics of an epic hero, EXCEPT __________.
a. immortality
b. superiority
c. bravery
d. fame
9. AFRO-ASIAN LITERATURE
9.3 Identify characteristics, motifs, archetypes, and symbols of different literary
texts
10. ENGLISH AND AMERICAN LITERATURE

10.1 Identify characteristics, motifs, archetypes, and symbols of different literary
texts
175. A Japanese Folklore entitled “The Story of the Aged Mother speaks about all,” EXCEPT
________.
a. the fate of the common people under s despot is grim
b. the Daimyo‟s unreasonable order is seemingly a boast of his power
c. a citizen‟s disobedience towards a cruel mandate ends tragically
d. it is an exhibit of the saying with a crown of snow, there cometh wisdom
176. It is a significant truth about life and human nature that is exhibited by the words, actions
and decisions of characters. This element of fiction is known as ___________.
a. setting
b. point of view
c. plot
d. theme
177. A mechanism by which a narrative sequence of events (story) is structured and organized
is called ____________.
a. point of view
b. plot
c. literary device
d. denouement
178. Characterization may be revealed or gleaned by all of the following EXCEPT

___________.
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a. what the character says, thinks and does

b. what the readers say and think about the character
c. what the author says about the character
d. what the other character say about the character being described
179. A great deal of the oldest literature of which we have written records is in verse. Which
genre of literature may well be considered the oldest literary form?
a. Fiction
b. Poetry
c. Drama
d. Essay
180. Which represents the various social overtones, cultural implications or emotional meanings
associated with a sign?
a. Denotation
b. Connotation
c. Syntax
d. Euphemism
181. Which is direct address to someone absent, long dead or even to an inanimate object, e.g.
“Pack, clouds, away; and welcome, day!”
a. Metonymy
b. Personification
c. Metaphor
d. Apostrophe
182. A figure of speech uses words having sounds that imitate what they denote, e.g. bang,
whoosh, buzz?
a. Onomatopoeia
b. Allusion
c. Metaphor
d. Synecdoche
183. Memoirs, which are first-person accounts of personally or historically significant events,
may be classified under ____________.
a. biography
b. autobiographical writing
c. fiction
d. drama
184. Ernest Hemingway is noted for a simple prose style. Style includes every feature of a
writer‟s use of language such as word choice. Word choice is better known as _______.
a. description
b. dialogue
d, diction
d. vocabulary
185. The term thespian was taken from Thespis, a 6th B.C. poet who was said to have been the
founder of Greek drama and the first actor. Thespian means ____________.
a. actor
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b. orator
c. speaker
d. teacher
186. A stanza is a group of lines whose metrical pattern is repeated throughout the poem. A
stanza of six lines is called __________.
a. couplet
b. octave
c. quatrain
d. sestet
187. The one through whose eyes we “see” the story is the ____________.
a. author
b. narrator
c. character
d. reader
188. The following make a good idea for an essay EXCEPT ___________.
a. it is true but arguable
b. it is limited enough in scope
c. it comes with available evidence
d. it has probable setting
189. What is the intention of a drama?

a. To have a script
b. To be performed before an audience
c. To transform society
d. To present an argumentation
190. Essay may be provisional in its appraisal of the subject but unlimited in point of view. Is this
true?
a. True
b. False
c. Maybe
d. Cannot tell
Answer questions 191-194 according to the elements of fiction.
191. What difference identifies the eating habits of the typical Filipino of the countryside from the
more affluent city families?
a. Character
b. Setting
c. Plot
d. Theme
192. What instructive principle of right conduct can one draw out from a story?
a. Character
b. Setting
c. Plot
d. Theme
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193. For what the villain be condemned? Point out his personality, chief traits and
characteristics.
a. Character
b. Setting
c. Plot
d. Theme
194. How has the author structured the selection? Did he use literary devices to break the
normal movement of the story?
a. Character
b. Setting
c. Plot
d. Theme
195. His crowning achievement was the Aeneid, an epic poem in 12 books recounting the story
of Aeneas. Who is referred to?
a. Euripides
b. Aristophanes
c. Homer
D. Virgil
196. What is the novel about the education and development of the young hero?
a. Burlesque
b. Bildungsroman
c. Aestheticism
d. Allegory
197. Which is a figure of speech in which apparently contradictory terms appear in conjunction?
a. Oxymoron
b. Metonymy
c. Antithesis
d. Parody
198. In which type of novel are real people represented in the guise of fictional characters?
a. Picaresque novel
b. Epistolary novel
c. Roman a clef
d. Deux ex machine
199. Which work of Dante Alighieri narrates his journey through Hell (the Inferno), Purgatory
and finally, Paradise?
a. Canterbury Tales
b. Animal Farm
c. Elegy Written in a Country Churchyard
d. Divine Comedy
200. Which among the four basic types of assessment task in speaking requires “parroting”
back words, phrases, and sentences, which students hear?
a. Imitative
b. Extensive
c. Interactive
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d. Responsive
201. Ms. Roallos, an English teacher, divided the class into groups and gave a problem-solving
activity entitled “Lost in a Desert Island”. She wanted to provide her students with an activity that
would allow them to signal that one wanted to speak. What specific speech routine used in
conversation did Ms. Roallos adhere to?
a. Feedback
b. Initiating the task
c. Interaction
d. Turn-taking
202. Which mandates that “for purposes of communication and instruction, the official
languages of the Philippines are Filipino, and until otherwise provided by law, English?”
a. 1987 Philippine Constitution
b. Education Act of 1982
c. R.A. 10533
d. R.A. 10157
203. Ms. Comia gave her class a group assignment. The class must come up with possible
solutions to the growing number of vandalism in their school. Each group is expected to come
up with a proposal. What kind of assessment task in speaking is she using?
a. Intensive
b. Responsive
c. Extensive
d. Interactive
204. Which type of situation in speaking involves face-to-face conversations and telephone
calls, in which participants are alternately listening and speaking, and in which they have a
chance to ask for clarification, repetition, or slower speech from their conversation partner?
a. Interactive
b. Non-interactive
c. Partially interactive
d. extensively interactive
205. The principal reminded the teacher, “Make sure your tasks have a linguistic (language –
based) objective, and seize the opportunity to help students to perceive and use meaningfully
the building blocks of language.” What principle in teaching speaking will the teacher follow?
a. Focus on both fluency and accuracy
b. Give students opportunities to initiate oral communication
c. Capitalize on the natural link between speaking and listening
d. All of the above
206. To help the students to get process information received, which of the following
expressions should the teacher model?
a. Asking for clarification (What did you say?)
b. Asking someone to repeat something (Pardon me, please?)
c. Using fillers (uh, I mean, Hmm)
d. Getting someone‟s attention (Hey, say, so)
207. Which of the following actions should the teacher do in order to encourage the students to
participate in any speaking activities?
I. Provide oral or written test/prompt before engaging the learners in the speaking task.
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II. Let the students write reflections about the activity.

III. Ask the students to share their ideas right away.
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I, II and III
208. In teaching speaking, particularly when teachers aim to provide appropriate feedback and
correction to the learners who make an error because they have not had sufficient chance to
observe the correct form or to develop sufficient knowledge of the language system, the teacher
should ___________.
I. not correct the learners but give more models and opportunities to observe the correct
language form
II. correct the learners right away and teach the accurate, correct, and appropriate language
form
III. Let the learners‟ errors remain for they will learn to correct them as they grow older
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I, II and III
209. The teacher lets the students listen to a recorded oral text that provides students models
on how to use “uh-huh, right, OK, Hmm”, etc. Which speaking strategy does the teacher
emphasize and develop?
a. Asking for clarification
b. Using conversation maintenance cues
c. Getting someone‟s attention
d. Asking someone to repeat
11. THE TEACHING OF SPEAKING, LISTENING, READING

11.1 Demonstrate understanding of the nature of the four language macro-
components (listening, speaking, reading, and writing, including grammar) and the
theoretical bases, principles, methods, and strategies in teaching theses components
210. To illustrate the principle, “Encourage the use of authentic language.” Which of the
following should teachers AVOID?
a. Provide texts used in a particular discipline such as weather report, news report
b. Design tasks such as interviewing for employment purposes, asking information in a
particular place, advertising a product or place, etc.
c. Prepare audio-visual aids such as maps, globes, radio, books, references, etc.
d. Use labels of any item, community announcements, speeches, etc.
211. When focused on accuracy, the teacher lets the students realize the importance of
language form and usage given emphasis in the speaking tasks by showing two videos: 1) a
video featuring a subject who uses the language erroneously, and 2). A video showing people
who use the language correctly. Which act is demonstrated by the teacher to make the students
reflect and become more aware of what to look for to learn the language?
a. Error correction
b. Consciousness raising
c. Error analysis
d. Reflective thinking
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212. In teaching speaking for beginners, the teacher demonstrates this principle. “personalize
the speaking activities whenever possible.” Which activity/ies should the teacher provide?
I. Ask the learners to complete the prompt, “On my way to school, I saw ________.
II. Ask the learners to read in chorus the list of words on the board.
III. Let the learners bring pictures of their family members, trips to different places, etc. and ask
them to share a story about the picture.
IV. Let the learners recite the dialogue by rote.
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. II and III
d. I and III
213. A student shows unwillingness to participate in any speaking activity because when he
reported in one subject, he was laughed at when he mispronounced some words such as
“stimulose” for “stimulus”, “ipikt” for effect, etc. Which may be the reason of his problem in
speaking?
a. Has nothing to say
b. Naturally shy and timid
c. L1 interference
d. Uneven participation
214. Canale and Swain (1980) proposed that the teaching of speaking must aim at the
development of the communicative competence; hence learners must be able to communicate
freely and spontaneously. In this regard, what should speaking classics feature?
a. Must be structured around functional uses of language forms and structures
b. Should emphasize language forms and structures
c. Must be replete with translations, repetitions of drills using building blocks of language
d. Should emphasize meaning only
215. In teaching speaking, which of the following statements should the teacher observe to
demonstrate the principles in teaching pattern drills?
a. For beginners, introduce stress and intonation to pure imitation.
b. Start by letting the students to be on their own in saying polite expressions like Hello!, Good
Morning!, Good Afternoon, etc.
c. Ask students to use the expressions in meaningful discourse in chorus or individually.
d. Illustrates the meaning of the expressions through translations, direct instruction, and
dictation.
216. Which of the following is/are an area involved in speaking?

I. Form and Mechanics including pronunciations, grammar, and vocabulary which are the
components in using the right words in the right order with the correct pronunciation.
II. Functions such as transactions and interaction which require knowing when clarity of
message is essential (transaction/information exchange) and when precise understanding is not
required (interaction/relationship building).
III. Social and cultural rules and norms including turn-taking, rate of speech, length of pauses
between speakers, relative roles of participants, and understanding how to take into account
who is speaking to when whom, in what circumstances, about what, and for what reason.
a. I only
b. I and II
c. II and III
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d. I, II and III
217. In a speaking class, the teacher facilitates the lesson by observing this procedure
presenting a weather report, causing interaction by asking questions related to the text (weather
report), taking notes of the students responses in the form of content and grammar points (Verb
Tense), providing exercises individually or collaboratively for mastery of what have been
presented, and letting the students perform a task (preparing a brochure on what to do during
inclement weather conditions. Which of the following describe‟s the teacher‟s instructional
procedure?
I. Provide a language input that is both content and form-oriented.
II. Uses structured output focused on sound and word formation
III. Designs a communicative output to complete a task that integrates language form and
functions
a. I and II
b. II only
c. II and III
d. I and III
218. Which of the following is NOT true about the language input used in speaking?
a. Comes in the form of teacher talk, listening activities, reading passages, and the language
heard and read outside of class
b. Give learners the material they need to begin producing the language orally
c. May be content oriented or form oriented
d. Presents the type of discourse/task designed by the teacher for the students to do at the end
of the teaching session
219. In teaching speaking, the teacher should recognize that ______________.

a. all communicative output may in turn be a language input; hence, tasks must be carefully
planned.
b. all language input must be spoken: thus there must be available materials to use.
c. Processing language input must be limited to form; therefore, the teacher must be a good
model/source of language learning.
d. all structured output must be done on individual basis; hence, group work must be avoided.
220. Using Gap Information Activity for beginners, the teacher uses prompts such as: “Is my
dress green?, Do I have long hair?, Are there thirty students in the class?, Are we Filipino?”, etc.
Which of the following describes the teaching procedure?
I. The teacher uses referential questions to help students discover unknown information.
II. The teacher uses questions to promote student speaking, or to prompt them to remember
certain known information.
III. The teacher uses both referential and display questions.
IV. The teacher helps the learners know and use the language.
a. I and III
b. II and III
c. II and IV
d. I and IV
221. Considering the principles in teaching minimal pair drills, which of the following should the
teacher AVOID?
a. Proceed from the known sound to the new one, e.g. from /p/ to /f/.
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b. Pronounce the word pairs with the sane intonation so as not to confuse the students with
differences other than the sound contrast being illustrated, e.g. pit vs fit.
c. Provide over drill and spend more time in the production of sound in similar contexts.
d. Use familiar words if possible and present one pronunciation problem at a time, e.g. /I/ vs /i/
in bit-beat first before ship and sheep.
222. In using Think-Pair-Share strategy in a speaking class, which should be the teacher
AVOID?
I. Initiate the task by posing a question, wait for a single student to respond, evaluate,
and provide feedback.
II. Pose a question, give students time to think or consider the question, discuss their
responses with partners, and share their answers with the entire class.
III. Use any question of interest that may resemble these ones: “What do you consider
as the most effective time of studying your lessons?”, “How can you challenge students‟
apprehension to speak?”, “When was the last time you lied?”, “What makes you laugh or
smile?”, “An eye for an eye will make the world blind.”, etc.
a. I only
b. II only
c. II and III
d. I and II
223. Games are effective strategies to use in speaking classes. Which of the following principles
is VIOLATED in using games?
a. Games can be great tools for reviewing the lesson and help students recall what they have
learned such as vocabulary and grammar rules.
b. Games to be presented must require minimal language use, outright elimination, complicated,
with elaborate set-up/procedures to stimulate challenge, or must be overly simple especially
with young adult and older learners.
c. Games can provide both rehearsed and extemporaneous, language practice.
d. Games, if done right, can increase motivation making the students enjoy and be productive in
acquiring and learning the language.
224. This teacher aims to develop in the students the ability to hear sounds accurately and to
produce these sounds correctly and automatically. In doing pronunciation drill in a speaking
class, which is the correct sequence of activities?
I. Let students listen to the teacher/tape for the individual sounds, and sound of words,
and in phrases and sentences.
II. Ask students to produce the sound contrasts in words, phrases, and sentences.
III. Let students listen to the sound of a word in contrast with another sound/s in words,
phrases, and in sentences.
IV. Ask students to produce the sound of sounds and words, and in phrases and
sentences.
a. I-II-III-IV
b. I-IV-II-I
c. I-IV-III-II
d. II-III-IV-I
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12. TEACHING OF LITERATURE

12.1 Apply principles, skills, and strategies gained to literary instruction
225. Which strategy is for reading literature where the reader responds to the literary and
cultural impact of the text by identifying images and themes and writing marginal notes about
them?
a. Previewing
b. Highlighting
c. Annotating
d. Reading
226. Literature is language in use: as such, language become the mediumor the tool of
literature. Therefore, language is _____________.
a. separable from literature
b. inseparable from literature
c. beyond literature
d. the development of more that linguistic ability
227. Which is an engaging task of recording experiences, ideas, insights or reflections on a

regular basis that encourages students to articulate their minds than merely restating
information about a text?
a. Role play
b. Brainstorming
c. Journal writing
d. Pantomime
228. The reading and teaching of literature must yield not only enjoyment but also
___________.
a. understanding
b. knowledge
c. information
d. pleasure
229. In teaching literature, the task of the teacher is not just to provide the students with
information. Therefore, he/she should NOT do the following EXCEPT __________.
a. tell what each piece of literature is about
b. prescribe interpretations; do character studies
c. make a synopsis; dictate notes
d. enable his/her students to discover for themselves what the work is about; giving
encouragement, when and where needed
230. Which of the following pairs of words do NOT rhyme?

a. Cry-buy
b. Face-race
c. Write-right
d. Cunning-running
231. Which is an approach to literature and the other arts that stresses reason, balance, clarity,
ideal beauty and orderly form in limitation of the arts of ancient Greece and Rome?
a. Realism
b. Classicism
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c. Romanticism
d. Imagism
232. The play “Oedipus the King” by Sophocles starts with a crisis: The bans are suffereing from
a plague caused by the murder of the former king. Oedipus, the present and trusted leader, in
his search for truth finally found out that he himself was the killer he is looking for. What
approach to starting a drama is illustrated here?
a. Accretive plot
b. Unfolding plot
c. En medias res
d. Linear plot
223. Which of the following element of a short story refers to the struggle of forces that makes
the story move its plot?
a. conflict
b. characters
c. climax
d. denouement
234. The statement: “Once upon a time in a distant land” exemplifies the ___________.
a. setting of the story
b. place of the setting
c. time of the setting
d. local color
235. Which benefit is derived from literature as we engage ourselves in a continuing process of
refining our capabilities to use language and our sensibilities to good language use?
a. Wisdom
b. Exploration of a world view
c. Cultural function
d. Language enhancements
236. Which is an early 20th movement in literature and the arts that broke with traditional forms,
conventions and expectations, challenging accepted notions of the relationship between art and
everyday life, and experimenting with new techniques and new modes of presenting reality?
a. Modernism
b. Postmodernism
c. Scientific realism
d. Realism
13. PREPARATION AND AVALUATION OF INSTRUCTIONAL MATERIALS

13.1 Apply knowledge of principles and processes involved in developing and
evaluating various types of instructional materials for language and literature instruction,
including the use of technology for assisting instruction and independent language
learning
237. The curriculum goes through the stages of curriculum planning, curriculum implementation
and curriculum evaluation. The production of instructional materials fall under _______.
a. curriculum planning and implementation
b. curriculum planning and evaluation
c. curriculum planning
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d. curriculum evaluation
238. An important step in ensuring the relevance of the instructional materials to the rest of the
curriculum is to keep a list of _____.
a. policies issued by DepeD
b. goals and objectives of the curriculum
c. provisions in the constitution of the PTA
d. visions and mission of the school
239. Which materials are used to help students organize information through the use of a
combination of shapes, figures, and lines?
I. Graphic organizers
II. Material organizer
III. Pocket organizer
a. I only
b. II only
c. I and II
d. I, II and III
240. Which of the following qualifies as an authentic material?

a. A label of a can good
b. A list of isolated sentences
c. A paragraph from the book
d. A series of vocabulary words
241. Which teaching strategies in K to 12 curriculum addresses the issue on irrelevance of

instructional materials?
I. Localization
II. Authentication
III. Contextualization
a. I only
b. II only
c. I, II
d. I, II and III
242. Which of the following qualities does NOT describe a teacher in the preparation, selection,
and utilization of instructional materials?
a. Creative
b. Resourceful
c. Fashionable
d. Culture-sensitive
243. The following materials are used to activate students‟ scheme or prior knowledge,
EXCEPT ______.
a. opinionaire
b. story impression
c. anticipation guide
d. story star
244. To illustrate the use of a comprehensible input in language teaching to grade 4 students,
the teacher may use the following texts EXCEPT ______.
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a. recorded song
b. video clip
c. a written weather report
d. a journal article
245. IN K to as curriculum, which two types of text are prescribed to facilitate and enrich
learning?
I. Literary text as primary text
II. Informative text as parallel text
III. Literary text as parallel text
IV. Informative text as primary text
a. I and II
b. II and IV
c. I and II
d. III and IV
14. LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE ASSESSMENT

14.1 Use basic concepts in language and literature testing in assessing language
proficiency and achievement and literary competence
246. One primary consideration of instruction materials‟ use is to link the materials to the _____.
a. curriculum
b. policies
c. current issues
d. textbook board
247. Which of the following should Teacher Jessica use if she wishes to answer the question,
“What do the scores tell me about what students have learned?
a. Test
b. Evaluation
c. Assessment
d. Measurement
248. One of the prerequisites to entry to University A is based on the general knowledge or
skills of the application. Which of the following text types should it administer?
a. Diagnostic Test
b. Placement Test
c. Proficiency Test
d. Achievement Test
249. What type of test is based on the amount of learning the students have accomplished with
very specific reference to a particular course?
a. Diagnostic Test
b. Placement Test
c. Proficiency Test
d. Achievement Test
250. If a language teacher aims to group his/her students with similar ability levels so he/she
could focus on the problems and learning points appropriate for that level of students, which
type of test will be appropriate?
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a. Diagnostic Test
b. Placement Test
c. Proficiency Test
d. Achievement Test
251. Which type of test is administered at the beginning or middle of the term and are aimed at
fostering achievement by promoting strengths and eliminating the weaknesses of individual
students?
a. Diagnostic Test
b. Placement Test
c. Proficiency Test
d. Achievement Test
252. Which of the following is NOT an objective of a diagnostic test?

a. Determine what existing knowledge, skills, attitudes, interests and needs the students had
b. Determine the range of individual differences
c. Determine what program or modifications are required to meet the needs of individuals
d. Determine the level of study that the student would benefit from
253. The following questions all pertain to validity EXCEPT ______.

a. do all the items to be measuring the same thing?
b. does the test cover all aspects of what it claims to measure?
c. do the test items look like realistic, authentic uses of what is being measured?
d. does the test meet the limits of existing resources including time and test administration?
254. Who among the following teachers is doing formative assessment?

a. Ms. Canlas who asked series of questions I nthe middle of the lecture to determine if students
understood the concepts
b. Mr. Galang who gave a test at the end of the grading period to determine if the goals of the
program are met
c. Ms. Tulabut who gave a test to determine what students know before the unit begins
d. Ms. Jaochico who gave a test at the end of the semester to determine if the course outsomes
are met
255. The effect of testing on teaching and learning is known as ________.

a. wash back
b. construct
c. auditability
d. credibility
256. Ms. Cruz wants to measure the language abilities of her students using the direct testing.
Which of the following is NOT recommended?
a. Writing letters
b. Role-play
c. Cloze test
d. Information gap task
257. The following are examples of discrete point testing EXCEPT ______.
a. essay writing
b. spelling test
c. yes/no question
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d. true-false answer
258. Dr. Tubera uses alternative methods of assessment. Which will he NOT likely use?
a. Multiple Choice Test
b. Reflective Journal Writing
c. Oral Presentation
d. Developing Portfolios
259. Mrs. David is going to construct a test in English. What must she do first?
a. Write the test items
b. List down the test objectives
c. Let an expert validate the test
d. Prepare a table of specifications
260. Which of the following is an example is an example of a beneficial backwash?

a. If the skill of writing is tested only by multiple choice items, there is a great pressure to
practice such items.
b. If teachers ignore the subjects and activities which do not contribute directly to passing the
exam.
c. If a test is regarded as important, preparation for it can dominate teaching activities.
d. If what is assessed becomes what is valued and what is valued becomes what is taught.
261. A test pretended to measure pronunciation ability but did not require the test taker to speak
might be thought to lack of _______.
a. concurrent validity
b. content validity
c. test-rater reliability
d. test-administration reliability
15. LANGUAGE RESEARCH

15.3 Apply principles and approaches to find answers to questions in language
and literature teaching and learning
262. Which of the following explains why research is empirical?

a. Research to based on data perceived by the senses.
b. Research follows procedures.
c. Research must be based on facts.
d. Research makes use of tools.
263. Which of the following explains why research is systematic?

a. Research to based on data perceived by the senses.
b. Research follows procedures.
c. Research must be based on facts.
d. Research makes use of tools.
264. Which is NOT a research tool?

a. Questionnaires
b. Checklist
c. Test
d. Grades
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265. If researchers test the feasibility of using cell phone as vocabulary gadget, what purpose of
research are they NOT likely to achieve?
a. Discover a substance.
b. Improve a product.
c. Validate generalizations.
d. Verify existing knowledge.
266. If researchers want to know if most English majors have English as their favorite subject,
what purpose of research are they likely to achieve?
b. Improve a product.
c. Validate generalizations.
d. Verify existing knowledge.
267. Which research problem is clearly directive in nature?

a. What Topic to Have in the Next Seminars
b. How to Improve Services in the Canteen
c. Why Students Wear Glasses
d. Which Sectioning Scheme to Follow
268. Which research has classroom as its locale?

a. Experimental
b. Descriptive
c. Action
d. Analytical
269. If the research is quantitative, which finding should it focus on?

a. Fifty six of students do not pass assignments requiring reading.
b. Two out of 69 participants abide by the English Only Policy.
c. Teachers slowly tap the shoulders of their students while consoling them.
d. An interview said that he usually has nightmares when he sleeps right after eating.
270. If researcher want to know why teacher do not erase writings on the board to make them
eventually erase, what type of research are they into?
a. Propriety
b. Pure
c. Behavioral
d. Communication
271. Which type of research is likely to lead to the discovery of a new theory?
a. Experimental
b. Phenomenological
c. Holistic
d. Scholarly
272. What is the aim of a research proposal?

a. To present an entire research
b. To defend findings
c. To suggest a planned study
d. To find solution to a research problem
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273. What are the key terms or variables in a research titled “lived Experiences of Student
Leader-Scholars in Maintaining Grades”?
a. Lived and Experiences
b. Student Leader-Scholars and Lived Experiences
c. Lived Experiences and Grades
d. Student Leader-Scholars and Grades
274. Which term refers to approaches and/or principles that explain variables in a study?
a. Hypothesis
b. Thesis
c. Theoretical Basis
d. Problem
275. Which documentation style does the following example follow?

Palo, R. (2015). Research designs. Pasay: Lorimar.
a. Modern Language Association
b. American Psychological Association
c. Chicago Style
d. International Phonetic Association
276. Which term proves there is a gap of knowledge about the research topic?
a. Blank Spot
b. Research Local
c. Blind Spot
d. Research Instrument
277. Which notetaking category is most applicable for a study?

a. Quoting
b. Paraphrasing
c. Viewing
d. Summarizing
16. CAMPUS JOURNALISM
16.3 Apply principles and strategies in writing the various parts (e.g. editorial,
news, feature story, etc.) of a campus paper
278. Which is a news peg among the parts of an editorial below?

a. The SONA is characterized by achievements of the administration.
b. The SONA delivered on July 27, 2015 is Pinoy‟s last.
c. The SONA commended lavishly cabinet secretaries.
d. The SONA subtly endorsed Mar Roxas as presidential bet.
279. Which is a staccato lead among the following?

a. The American artist faced allegations following his non-appearance in a concert.
b. Fearless. Objective. Impactful.
c. “I resigned for delicadesa,” said former CHED Chairman Rose Agapito.
d. He was quiet until he learned he won jackpot in the lottery.
280. Which is the correct new headline among the following?

a. Reyes, Santos quit SC
b. Reyes and Santos quit SC
c. Reyes & Santos resigned
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d. Reyes, Santos resigned
281. Which is the correct new headline among the following?

a. Santiago: “I was there”
b. Santiago: „I was there‟
c. I was there said Santiago
d. “I was there,” said Santiago
282. Which among the following is least important to mention in a summary lead for sports?
a. Winner
b. Score
c. Venue
d. Audience
283. Which rule I followed in using quotations and paraphrases in news?

a. Use either.
b. Alternate them.
c. Start with paraphrase.
d. Avoid them.
284. Which is NOT true about editorial writing?

a. It must be short.
b. It must be based on news.
c. It must be opinionated.
d. It must be written by the editor-in-chief.
285. Which is abeat among the following?

a. Police Station
b. 30-word introduction
c. Space economy
d. Subhead
286. What is the meaning of the underlined phrase in the excerpt? “As of press time, the
senator is abroad and has not issued a statement.”
a. As of now
b. Before the publication
c. After the writing of the article
d. As of yesterday
287. Which is NOT TRUE about quoted statements of people in articles?

a. They must be corrected using brackets when there are grammatical errors.
b. There must be insertions for clarifications in the event they are unclear.
c. They must be verbatim.
d. They must be paraphrased.
288. Which is TRUE about editorial cartoons?

a. They must contain familiar symbolisms.
b. They must be related to the editorial.
c. They must be abstract.
d. They must not contain words.
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289. Which is a CORRECT photo overrun in Journalism?

a. Barrack Obama is in black.
b. Obama shakes hands with APEC attendees.
c. Obama opens APEC in Malaysia Sunday.
d. Barrack Obama delivers his opening remarks last Sunday.
290. Which statement/s is/are libelous when no evidence is presented?

I. Funds were released when needed but liquidation documents were missing.
II. The recipients denied receiving the supplies and materials.
III. Bidding procedures were violated with fake signatures.
a. I only
b. II only
c. I, II, and III
d. II and III
291. Which statement is a clear distinction between news and features?

a. Length
b. Topic
c. Events
d. Treatment
292. If an inaccuracy is brought to the attention of the paper, it should immediately publish any
of the following EXCEPT _______.
a. rectification
b. erratum
c. correction
d. verification
293. In writing the new story, the following are to be avoided EXCEPT ___________.
a. padding
b. coloring
c. playing up the dominant point
d. editorializing
294. The instinct of a reporter to identify or sort out news froman array of facts is a skill that is
called the newsman‟s sixth sense and referred to as _________.
a. expertise
b. nose for news
c. watchdog function
d. objective journalism
17. TRANSLATION AND EDITING OF TEXT

17.1 Apply the rules of discourse and rhetoric in editing various kinds of written
materials
17.2 Demonstrate understanding of basic theories and concepts as applied to the
writing and editing of various types of texts
17.3 Apply principles and strategies in translating texts of various types from
English to another language or from another language to English
295. Which word is erroneous in the sentence “Who do you choose to lead the nation”?
a. Who
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b. Choose
c. Lead
d. Nation
296. Which type of error is evident in the sentence “I came, I saw, I conquered”?
a. Parallelism
b. Spelling
c. Capitalization
d. Punctuation
297. Which of the following components are required by most translation perspectives?
a. Sensitivity to style and faithfulness to content
b. Sensitivity to style and faithfulness to register
c. Faithfulness to register and avoidance of utopia
d. Faithfulness to content and avoidance of domestication
298. Which perspective considers the speaker and his/her background when translating text?
a. Communicative
b. Philological
c. Linguistic
d. Socio-semiotic
299. What techniques does a translator utilize when s/he uses generic terms to culturally
sensitive words such as “pasma” and “tampo” without direct equivalent?
a. Closest Equivalence
b. Cultural Equivalence
c. Idiomatic Translation
d. Generic Correspondence
300. Which is the best translation for the verse “For He gave order and perfection to seven
firmaments” (Koran 2:29)?
a. Dahil Siya ang nagbigay kaayusan at kagalingan sa pitong kalangitan
b. Sapagkat Siya ang nagbigay kaayusan at kagalingan mula sa pitong kalangitan
c. Dahil Siya ang nagbigay kaayusan at kagalingan hanggang sa pitong kalangitan
d. Sapagkat Siya and nagbigay kaayusan at perpeksyon mula sa pitong kalangitan
301. Which is the translation of the term “kikay” according to Oxford English Dictionary?
a. Vain
b. Flirtation
c. Seductive
d. Fabulous
302. When translating Derrida‟s work, writers need to observe abusive fidelity. Which of the
following may be added while maintaining Derrida‟s syntax, lexicon, and pun?
a. Coordinating Conjunctions
b. Adjectives
c. Adverbs
d. Prepositions
303. Which of the following elements of the works of Stephen Kung, Banielle Steel, and John
Grisham may NOT be translated into French?
VOLUME 2
a. Genre
b. Song
C. Characterization
d. Theme
18. SPEECH AND STAGE ARTS

18.1 Demonstrate understanding of the process of oral communication and the
various forms of speech arts from public speaking and group discussions to debate, oral
interpretation, and dramatics
304. Which of the following can a translator add to translation to clarify through definitions and
citations?
a. Interpretation
b. Comments
c. Version
d. Annotation
305. Which is NOT an example of visualization before performing literary text?

a. Mentally outlining performance
b. Mentally reacting to possible threats of performance
c. Imagining oneself walking on stage
d. Imagining oneself finishing the performance
306. Which is NOT an example of “exigence” of literary piece to be staged?

a. Autism
b. Child Labor
c. Crush
d. Morning Sun
307. Which is NOT covered by ethical use of literature when cutting and adopting?
a. Adding scenes
b. Eliminating Characters
c. Rewriting text
d. Shortening of text
308. Which of the following is an example of metatext?

a. The literary allusion in “Anna in the Tropics”
b. The reviews on “Anna in the Tropics” published online
c. The translation of “Les Miserables”
d. The analysis of stock figures and archeotypes in “Anna Karenina”
309. Which is an example of a cross of the fourth wall?

a. Shakespeare‟s characters saying an aside to the audience
b. Hamlet‟s soliloquy
c. Narrator being detached from characters
d. Characters doing apostrophe with God as addressee
310. Which is NOT an example of cultural story?

a. Aesop‟s fable
b. Little Red Riding Hood
c. The Parable of Talents
VOLUME 2
d. The Good Earth (P.S. Buck)
311. Which is an example of spectacle in a stage play?

a. The set
b. The audience
c. The budget
d. The twist
312. Which of the following actors uses emotional memory?

a. An actor who is stereotyped for a dramatic role
b. An actor who is an understudy but performs better
c. An actor who uses related incident to relieve feelings
d. An actor who analyses character‟s motives to internalize
313. Which of the following is ignored in color-blind casting?

a. Popularity of non-theater actors
b. Talent fees of veteran actors
c. Nationality of actors
d. Preference of director
314. Which scene requires gaze on the part of actors?

a. Lovers preparing for a kiss
b. Witnesses seeing a crime
c. Protagonists having an intense argument
d. Antagonist delivering monologue
315. Which is the study of literature through the oral performance of a speaker who creates and
recreates the meaning and mood of the selection?
a. Declamation
b. Oral Interpretation
c. Poetry Interpretation
d. Public Speaking
19. CREATIVE WRITING

19.3 Apply theories, concepts and skills in creative writing to include biographical
sketches, fiction creative non-fiction and poetry
316. Which pleasure in writing may relatives of deceased writers likely enjoy?
a. Popularity
b. Royalty
c. Readership
d. Self-Expression
217. Which benefit of writing do bylines provide?

a. Popularity
b. Royalty
c. Readership
d. Self-Expression
318. Which kind of journal did John Steinbeck keep before publishing Grapes of Wrath?
a. Working
VOLUME 2
b. Idea
c. Common Place
d. All aspect
319. Which figure of speech does a writer use when s/he describes his or her condition as
horribly fine?
a. Pun
b. Oxymoron
c. Portmanteau
d. Hyperbole
320. Which point of view is used in autobiography?

a. First person
b. Third person
c. Second person
d. Stream of consciousness
321. Which of the following is portmanteau word?

a. Black gold
b. E-book
c. FAN-ny
d. Thin and tiny
322. Which criterion in effective diction is met when a writer uses Pantene instead of shampoo?
a. Denotation
b. Connotation
c. Concreteness
d. Accuracy
323. What type of diction error is in the next sentence? The dirty, filthy kitchen is the prime
suspect for diarrhea among the household members.
a. Over modification
b. Excessive variation
c. Use of archaic form
d. Use of highfalutin word
324. When pre-requisite to writing did the writers Herman Melville (Moby Dick), Juan
Crisostomo Soto (Lidia), and Dan Brown do (Angels and Demons) before writing their stipulated
celebrated works?
a. Immersion
b. Research
c. Imagination
d. Journaling
325. Which character is created to contradict another character and invite audience to rethink?
a. Antagonist
b. Protagonist
c. Foil
d. Flat
326. What type of exposition is used in the excerpt below?

VOLUME 2
“Dr. Jekyll reiterated to Mr. Utterson that his decision was final regarding the will, that nothing
could change it. „I hope you understand that I really have great interest in poor Hyde…”‟
a. Flashback
b. Foreshadowing
c. Epiphany
d. Scene
327. Which words in the following excerpt observe the quality verisimilitude?
“He asked his girlfriend why she is unusually quiet. She answered, „Nothing‟.”
a. Asked and answered
b. He and girlfriend
c. Quiet and nothing
d. He and she
328. Which is the problem of narration evident in the next excerpt? “mon was desperate for a
weapon to defend himself and instantly found the knife resting and tempting.”
a. Needless complication
b. Sudden comfort
c. Sudden omniscience
d. Pogo Stick
329. What type of point of view is used in the next excerpt?

“Michael is a pitiful specimen. Permanent shaving rash, whiny voice. He looks crumpled and
pale as a parched mushroom. I used to have a fantasy about him living his eventless little life in
the small cupboard under my stairs.”
a. Detached Autobiography
b. Interior Monologue
c. Dramatic Monologue
d. Unreliable
330. What is the poetic problem in the next excerpt? “Midhoary trees her shadows could be
seen”
a. Anonymous Voice
b. Archaic Diction
c. Appealing Abstraction
d. For the sake of rhyme
331. What type of rhyme can be associated with assonance and consonance?
I. End rhyme
II. Internal rhyme
III. Eye rhyme
a. I only
b. II only
c. III only
d. I, II and III
332. Which type of fiction has distinct themes such as Mark Twain‟s “The Adventures of
Huckleberry Finn and The Adventure of Tom Sawyer?”
a. Mainstream
b. Category
c. Science Fiction
VOLUME 2
d. Modern Fiction
333. What is the usual type of a main character according to description?

a. Round
b. Flat
c. Protagonist
d. Antagonist
334. What kind of character is a stepmother such that in Cinderella?

a. Foil
b. Stock
c. Dynamic
d. Static
335. What type of characterization is used in the next excerpt?

“Sheryl‟s hair was always unkempt. She does not devote precious time to comb the tangled
strands busying herself with her reading.”
a. Direct
b. Indirect
c. Implied
d. Understood
336. What style in dialogue is evident in the next excerpt? “‟Itay,‟ Pablo said while putting
together in his head the next consoling words.”
a. Local Color
b. Formality
c. Stating the Obvious
d. Contraction
337. What problem in dialogue may be encountered when an author uses detailed eulogy in the
wake of an accomplished man?
a. Dialect
b. long Speech
c. Swearing
d. Lack of verisimilitude
338. Which prerequisite to research did Cornelia Funke do by living with street thieves to write
her book “The Thief Lord”?
a. Documentation
b. Immersion
c. Portfolio
d. Interview
339. Which technique does a writer use when s/he describes something while tapping different
senses?
a. Figures of Speech
b. Idiomatic Expression
c. Imagery
d. Local Color
VOLUME 2
340. Which technique does a writer use when s/he refers to a sight of an ugly picture as “a blast
from the past”‟?
a. Pun
b. Litotes
c. Simile
d. Metaphor
Answer Key
1. b 42. d 83. d 124. b 165. c 206. c 247. d

2. b 43. a 84. a 125. a 166. d 207. a 248. c
3. d 44. c 85. a 126. a 167. a 208. a 249. d
4. b 45. c 86. b 127. a 168. a 209. b 250. b
5. c 46. c 87. a 128. b 169. a 210. c 251. a
6. c 47. d 88. b 129. d 170. c 211. b 252. d
7. a 48. c 89. d 130. d 171. a 212. d 253. d
8. b 49. d 90. a 131. c 172. a 213. c 254. a
9. c 50. c 91. a 132. b 173. a 214. a 255. a
10. c 51. c 92. c 133. b 174. a 215. a 256. c
11. a 52. a 93. a 134. a 175. a 216. d 257. a
12. c 53. a 94. d 135. c 176. d 217. d 258. a
13. a 54. d 95. d 136. d 177. b 218. d 259. b
14. d 55. a 96. b 137. d 178. b 219. a 260. d
15. c 56. a 97. c 138. d 179. b 220. b 261. b
16. a 57. c 98. d 139. a 180. b 221. c 262. a
17. c 58. a 99. d 140. a 181. d 222. a 263. b
18. c 59. c 100. d 141. a 182. a 223. b 264. d
19. a 60. a 101. a 142. d 183. b 224. c 265. a
20. b 61. c 102. b 143. b 184. c 225. c 266. c
21. d 62. d 103. b 144. c 185. a 226. b 267. b
22. c 63. c 104. d 145. c 186. d 227. c 268. c
23. c 64. a 105. a 146. c 187. b 228. a 269. a
24. c 65. d 106. a 147. a 188. d 229. d 270. c
25. c 66. b 107. d 148. d 189. b 230. c 271. b
26. d 67. d 108. a 149. c 190. b 231. b 272. c
27. d 68. b 109. b 150. b 191. b 232. b 273. d
28. c 69. a 110. b 151. b 192. d 233. a 274. c
29. a 70. a 111. d 152. d 193. a 234. a 275. b
30. a 71. b 112. d 153. c 194. c 235. d 276. a
31. c 72. c 113. a 154. d 195. d 236. a 277. d
32. c 73. d 114. d 155. a 196. b 237. c 278. b
33. a 74. d 115. b 156. b 197. a 238. b 279. b
34. c 75. a 116. d 157. a 198. c 239. a 280. b
35. a 76. d 117. b 158. d 199. d 240. a 281. b
36. d 77. a 118. b 159. a 200. a 241. d 282. d
37. a 78. a 119. a 160. d 201. b 242. c 283. b
38. a 79. b 120. c 161. b 202. a 243. d 284. d
39. a 80. b 121. b 162. b 203. c 244. d 285. a
40. b 81. c 122. d 163. a 204. a 245. c 286. b
41. d 82. a 123. a 164. b 205. a 246. a 287. d
VOLUME 2
288. a 338. b
289. c 339. c
290. c 340. d
291. d
292. d
293. c
294. b
295. a
296. d
297. a
298. d
299. b
300. a
301. b
302. a
303. b
304. d
305. b
306. c
307. a
308. b
309. a
310. d
311. a
312. c
313. c
314. a
315. b
316. b
317. a
318. a
319. b
320. a
321. c
322. c
323. a
324. b
325. c
326. d
327. a
328. b
329. d
330. b
331. c
332. b
333. a
334. b
335. b
336. a
337. b

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License_Sure ENGLISH MAJOR LET REVIEWER

1. REMEDIAL INSTRUCTION IN ENGLISH

2. Which type of retelling does the situation exemplify?

9. Which of the following characterizes a “strategic reader”?

2. ENGLISH for SPECIFIC PURPOSES

12. Which of these words is an example of slang?

14. Which item is an example of an ESP needs analysis?

16. Which is a jargon of academe?

18. Slang expressions are any of the following EXCEPT _____________.

3. LANGUAGE CURRICULUM FOR SECONDARY SCHOOLS

25. Which is NOT a goal of K to 12 language teaching in the secondary level?

27. Which of the following concepts is/ are correctly defined?

THEORETICAL FOUNDATIONS OF LANGUAGE AND LITERATURE

a. A voiceless stop is aspirated if it begins a syllable of a stressed vowel.

38. Which of the following has a global segment?

39. The study of illocutionary acts is an area of _________.

47. Which of the following is CORRECT?

50. American: Are you a Filipino?

63. Which of the following illustrates “positive transfer” in interlanguage?

66. In which class is codeswitching allowed?

67. In which class is CLIL practiced?

68. What is an indication of hypothesis testing in language learning?

69. Which of the following is a manifestation of covert grammar teaching?

70. Which of the following supports English for Specific Purposes?

4.3 Draw implications of the theories of linguistic, psycholinguistic, and sociolinguistic

71. What is the implication of “mutually intelligible” in teaching English?

75. Which of the following sentence/s is/ are incorrect?

76. Which of the following sentences is incorrect?

78. Which of the following quantifiers sodify plural nouns?

80. The word “off” functions as an adverbial particle in which structure?

81. Which of the following is an example of a sentence fragment?

84. Which of the following is the correct definition of a “phrase”?

85. Which of the following CANNOT function as intensive verbs?

87. Which of the following statements best qualifies as a “complex” sentence?

88. Which of the following sentence structure is “syntactically ambiguous”?

90. Which of the following concepts is NOT a concern of syntax?

93. Which of the following sentence/s depict/s a dative case?

96. What lexical process is exemplified by the following?

97. Which of the following is grammatical?

98. The following sentences are considered ungrammatical EXCEPT _____________.

100. This sentence structure contains a “ditransitive verb group”.

101. Which is the correct description of motif in literary writing?

102. Which of the following defines stylistic correctly?

108. Which of the following exemplifies the device “allusion”?

And sweetest – in the Gale – is heard –

I‟ve heard it in the chilliest land –

114. Which of the following is the focus of medieval literary period?

a. Secular and individualistic

116. Which is an example of the error ex machine?

117. Which of the following is NOT true?

118. Which of the following is NOT true?

119. Which is known as the science of interpretation?

122. Which of the following may be accepted by a Reader-Reception critic?

131. Which literary movement is characterized by the avoidance of what is fantastical,

133. The following characterize realism, EXCEPT ____________.

134. Which emphasizes the hereditary psychological components of characters and

“In, my, undream, of, death,

141. Which characterized hermeneutics during the Middle Age?

Read the poem below then answer question no. 142.