Exam A:

1. Which one of the following answers describes a test condition?

 b) A testable aspect of a component or system identified as a basis for testing (From
glossary)
2. Which of the following statements is a valid objective for testing?
 b) To validate whether the test object works as expected by the users and other
stakeholders (This is one objective of testing)
3. Which of the following statements correctly describes the difference between testing and
debugging?
 b) Dynamic testing shows failures caused by defects; debugging eliminates the defects,
which are the source of failures (Dynamic testing can show failures that are caused by
defects in the software. Debugging eliminates the defects, which are the source of failures)
4. Which one of the statements below describes the most common situation for a failure
discovered during testing or in production?
 a) The product crashed when the user selected an option in a dialog box (A crash is clearly
noticeable by the user)
5. Mr. Test has been testing software applications on mobile devices for a period of 5 years. He has
a wealth of experience in testing mobile applications and achieves better results in a shorter
time than others. Over several months, Mr. Test did not modify the existing automated test
cases and did not create any new test cases. This leads to fewer and fewer defects being found
by executing the tests. What principle of testing did Mr. Test not observe?
 c) Repeating of same tests will not find new defects (Principle #5 says “If the same tests are
repeated over and over again, eventually these tests no longer find any new defects. To
detect new defects, existing tests and test data may need changing, and new tests may need
to be written.” Automated regression testing of the same test cases will not bring new
findings)
6. In what way can testing be part of Quality Assurance?
 b) Testing reduces the risk of poor software quality (Testing contributes to the achievement
of quality in a variety of ways, e.g., such as reducing the risk of inadequate software quality)
7. Which of the following activities is part of the main activity "test analysis" in the test process?
 d) Evaluating the test basis for testability (This activity is performed during the test analysis
activity (test analysis))
8. Match the following test work products (1-4) with the right description (A-D).
1. Test suite
2. Test case
3. Test script
4. Test charter
A. A set of test scripts to be executed in a specific test run
B. A set of instructions for the execution of a test
C. Contains expected results
D. Documentation of test activities in session-based exploratory testing
-> a) 1A, 2C, 3B, 4D
9. How can white-box testing be applied during user acceptance testing?
  c) To check if all work process flows have been covered (For acceptance testing, tests are
designed to cover all workflows defined in the functional requirements documents.)
10. Which of the following statements comparing component testing and system testing is TRUE?
 b) Test cases for component testing are usually derived from component specifications,
design specifications, or data models, whereas test cases for system testing are usually
derived from requirement specifications or use cases (Examples of work products that can
be used as a test basis for component testing include detailed design, code, data model,
component specifications. Examples of work products for system testing include system and
software requirement specifications (functional and non-functional) use cases)
11. Which one of the following is TRUE?
 c) The purpose of regression testing is to detect unintended side effects, while the purpose
of confirmation testing is to check if the original defect has been fixed (See reasons from
incorrect answers)
12. Which one of the following is the BEST definition of an incremental development model?
 a) Defining requirements, designing software and testing are done in phases where in each
phase a piece of the system is added (Incremental development involves establishing
requirements, designing, building, and testing a system in pieces)
13. Which of the following should NOT be a trigger for maintenance testing?
 a) Decision to test the maintainability of the software (This is maintainability testing, not
maintenance testing)
14. Which of the following options are roles in a formal review?
 d) Author, Moderator, Review leader, Reviewer, Scribe
15. Which activities are carried out within the planning of a formal review?
 c) Definition and Verification of fulfillment of entry criteria for the review (The checking of
entry criteria takes place in the planning of a formal review)
16. Which of the review types below is the BEST option to choose when the review must follow a
formal process based on rules and checklists?
 c) Inspection (Inspection is a formal process based on rules and checklists)
17. Which of the following statements about static testing are MOST true?
 a) Static testing is a cheap way to detect and remove defects (Defects found early are often
much cheaper to remove than defects detected later in the lifecycle)
18. You will be invited to a review. The work product to be reviewed is a description of the in-house
document creation process. The aim of the description is to present the work distribution
between the different roles involved in the process in a way that can be clearly understood by
everyone. You will be invited to a checklist-based review. The checklist will also be sent to you. It
includes the following points:
i. Is the person who performs the activity clearly identified for each activity?
ii. Are the entry criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iii. Are the exit criteria clearly defined for each activity?
iv. Are the supporting roles and their scope of work clearly defined for each activity?

In the following we show an excerpt of the work result to be reviewed, for which you should use
the checklist above:
 "After checking the customer documentation for completeness and correctness, the software
architect creates the system specification. Once the software architect has completed the
system specification, he invites testers and verifiers to the review. A checklist describes the
scope of the review. Each invited reviewer creates review comments - if necessary - and
concludes the review with an official review done-comment."

Which of the following statements about your review is correct?

 d) Point i) of the checklist has been violated because it is not clear who is providing the
checklist for the invitation to the review (It is described that a checklist is available, but who
provides the checklist?)
19. What is checklist-based testing?
 c) An experience-based test technique whereby the experienced tester uses a list of items to
be noted, checked, or remembered, or a set of rules or criteria against which a product must
be verified
20. Which one of the following options is categorized as a black-box test technique?
 d) A technique based on formal requirements (Black-box test techniques are based on an
analysis of the appropriate test basis (e.g., formal requirements documents, specifications,
use cases, user stories))
21. The following statement refers to decision coverage:
“When the code contains only a single ‘if’ statement and no loops or CASE statements, and its
execution is not nested within the test, any single test case we run will result in 50% decision
coverage.”
Which of the following statement is correct?
 b) The statement is true. Any single test case would cause the outcome of the “if” statement
to be either true or false (Since any test case will cause the outcome of the “if” statement to
be either TRUE or FALSE, by definition we achieved 50% decision coverage)
22. Which one of the following is the description of statement coverage?
 b) It is a metric, which is the percentage of statements in the source code that have been
executed (Statement testing exercises the executable statements in the code. Statement
coverage is measured as the number of statements executed by the tests divided by the
total number of executable statements in the test object, normally expressed as a
percentage)
23. Which statement about the relationship between statement coverage and decision coverage is
true?
 a) 100% decision coverage also guarantees 100% statement coverage (The statement is
true. Achieving 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage)
24. For which of the following situations is exploratory testing suitable?
 c) When testers are available who have enough knowledge of similar applications and
technologies (Exploratory tests should be performed by experienced testers with knowledge
of similar applications and technologies)
25. An employee’s bonus is to be calculated. It cannot be negative, but it can be calculated down to
zero. The bonus is based on the length of employment:
• Less than or equal to 2 years
• More than 2 years but less than 5 years
 • 5 to 10 years inclusively
• Longer than 10 years
What is the minimum number of test cases required to cover all valid equivalence partitions for
calculating the bonus?
 d) 4 (The 4 equivalence partitions correspond to the description in the question, i.e., at least
one test case must be created for each equivalence partition:
1. Equivalence partition: 0 ≤ employment time ≤ 2
2. Equivalence partition: 2 < employment time < 5
3. Equivalence partition: 5 ≤ employment time ≤ 10
4. Equivalence partition: 10 < employment time)
26. A speed control and reporting system has the following characteristics:
• If you drive 50 km/h or less, nothing will happen.
• If you drive faster than 50 km/h, but no more than 55 km/h, you will be warned.
• If you drive faster than 55 km/h but not more than 60 km/h, you will be fined.
• If you drive faster than 60 km/h, your driving license will be suspended.
• The speed in km/h is available to the system as an integer value.
Which would be the most likely set of values (km/h) identified by applying the boundary value
analysis, where only the values on the boundaries of the equivalence classes are selected?
 d) 50, 51, 55, 56, 60, 61 (The following partitions can be identified:
1. <= 50, boundary value 50
2. 51 – 55 boundary values 51, 55
3. 56 – 60 boundary values 56, 60
4. >=61 boundary value 61
Boundary value according to glossary V.3.2: A minimum or maximum value of an ordered
equivalence partition.)
27. A company's employees are paid bonuses if they work more than a year in the company and
achieve a target which is individually agreed before.
These facts can be shown in a decision table:

Test-ID T1 T2 T3 T4
Condition1 Employment for more YES NO NO YES
than 1 year?
Condition2 Agreed target? NO NO YES YES
Condition3 Achieved target? NO NO YES YES
Action Bonus payment NO NO NO YES

Which of the following test cases represents a situation that can happen in real life, and is
missing in the above decision table?
 d) Condition1 = NO, Condition2 = YES, Condition3 = NO, Action= NO (The test case describes
the situation that the too short period of employment and the non-fulfilment of the agreed
target leads to nonpayment of the bonus. This situation can occur in practice but is missing
in the decision table)
28. Which of the following statements about the given state transition diagram and table of test
cases is TRUE?
  b) The given test cases represent all possible valid transitions in the state transition diagram
(Proposed test case covers all five possible single valid transitions in the given state diagram
(S1->S2, S2->S1, S2->S3, S3->S2, and S3->S1).
Because all valid transitions are covered)
29. A video application has the following requirement: The application shall allow playing a video on
the following display resolution:
1. 640x480
2. 1280x720
3. 1600x1200
4. 1920x1080
Which of the following list of test cases is a result of applying the equivalence partitioning test
technique to test this requirement?
 c) Verify that the application can play a video on each of the display sizes in the requirement
(4 test cases) (This is a case where the requirement gives an enumeration of discrete values.
Each enumeration value is an equivalence class by itself; therefore, each will be tested when
using equivalence partitioning test technique)
30. Which of the following statements BEST describes how tasks are divided between the test
manager and the tester?
 b) The test manager plans, coordinates, and controls the testing activities, while the tester
automates the tests
31. Which of the following metrics would be MOST useful to monitor during test execution?
 a) Percentage of executed test cases (Test case execution (e.g., number of test cases run/not
run, and test cases passed/failed))
32. Which of the following can affect and be part of the (initial) test planning?
 a) Budget limitations (Making decisions about what to test are documented in the test plan.
This means when you are planning the test and there are budget limitations, prioritizing is
needed; what should be tested and what should be omitted)
33. Which of the following lists contains only typical exit criteria from testing?
  a) Reliability measures, test coverage, schedule and status about fixing defect and remaining
risks
34. Which one of the following is NOT included in a test summary report?
 a) Defining pass/fail criteria and objectives of testing (This information has been defined
earlier in the test project)
35. The project develops a "smart" heating thermostat. The control algorithms of the thermostat
were modeled as Matlab/Simulink models and run on the internet connected server. The
thermostat uses the specifications of the server to trigger the heating valves.
The test manager has defined the following test strategy/approach in the test plan:
1. The acceptance test for the whole system is executed as an experience-based test.
2. The control algorithms on the server are checked against standard of the energy saving
regulation.
3. The functional test of the thermostat is performed as risk-based testing.
4. The security tests of data / communication via the internet are executed together with
external security experts.
What four common types of test strategies/approaches did the test manager implement in the
test plan?
 b) Analytical, standard-compliant, consultative, and reactive
(The possible mappings of points 1 to 4 can be justified as follows:
1. Approach 3 is analytical: Risk-based testing is an example of an analytical approach,
where tests are designed and prioritized based on the level of risk
2. Approach 2 is standard-compliant: The control algorithms is checked against industry-
specific standard of the energy saving regulation.
3. Approach 4 is consultative: This type of test strategy is driven primarily by the advice,
guidance, or instructions of stakeholders, business domain experts, or technology experts,
who may be outside the test team or outside the organization itself
4. Approach 1 is reactive: Exploratory testing is a common technique employed in reactive
strategies, whereby the explorative testing is assigned to the experience-based testing
category)
36. Which one of the following is the characteristic of a metrics-based approach for test estimation?
 a) Budget which was used by a previous similar test project (The metrics-based approach:
estimating the testing effort based on metrics of former similar projects or based on typical
values)
37. As a test manager you are responsible for testing the following parts of requirements:
• R1 - Process anomalies
• R2 - Synchronization
• R3 - Approval
• R4 - Problem solving
• R5 - Financial data
• R6 - Diagram data
• R7 - Changes to the user profile
Notation: Logical requirement dependencies (A -> B means, that B depends on A):
 Which one of the following options structures the test execution schedule according to the
requirement dependencies?
 c) R1 ; R3 ; R2 ; R5 ; R6 ; R4 ; R7 (The tests are specified in a sequence that takes the
dependencies into account)
38. You are testing a new version of software for a coffee machine. The machine can prepare
different types of coffee based on four categories. i.e., coffee size, sugar, milk, and syrup. The
criteria are as follows:
• Coffee size (small, medium, large)
• Sugar (none, 1 unit, 2 units, 3 units, 4 units)
• Milk (yes or no)
• Coffee flavor syrup (no syrup, caramel, hazelnut, vanilla)
Now you are writing a defect report with the following information:
• Title: Low coffee temperature.
• Short summary: When you select coffee with milk, the time for preparing coffee is too long
and the temperature of the beverage is too low (less than 40 °C).
• Expected result: The temperature of coffee should be standard (about 75 °C).
• Degree of risk: Medium
• Priority: Normal
What valuable information was omitted in the above defect report?
 b) Identification of the tested software version (When testing different versions of software,
identifying information is necessary)
39. Which one of the following is MOST likely to be a benefit of test execution tools?
 d) It is easy to run regression tests (Reduction in repetitive manual work (e.g., running
regression tests, environment set up/tear down tasks, re-entering the same test data, and
checking against coding standards), thus saving time)
40. Which one of the following test tools is mostly suitable for developers rather than testers?
 c) Static analysis tools (Static analysis tools are especially suitable for developers)
Exam B:
1. Which of the following provides the definition of the term test case?
 b) A set of preconditions, inputs, actions, expected results and post conditions, developed
based on test conditions (Based on definition from Glossary)
2. Which of the following is a typical objective of testing?
 a) To find defects and failures (One of the major objectives of testing)
3. Which of the following is an example of a failure in a car cruise control system?
 c) The system stops maintaining a set speed when the radio volume is increased or
decreased (This is a deviation from the expected functionality - a cruise control system
should not be affected by the radio)
4. Which of the following is a defect rather than a root cause in a fitness tracker?
 c) An incorrect configuration variable implemented for the GPS function could cause
location problems during daylight saving times (The incorrect configuration data represents
faulty software in the fitness tracker (a defect), that may cause failures)
5. As a result of risk analysis, more testing is being directed to those areas of the system under test
where initial testing found more defects than average.
Which of the following testing principles is being applied?
 d) Defects cluster together (If clusters of defects are identified (areas of the system
containing more defects than average), then testing effort should be focused on these
areas)
6. Given the following test activities and tasks:
A. Test design
B. Test implementation
C. Test execution
D. Test completion

1. Entering change requests for open defect reports

2. Identifying test data to support the test cases
3. Prioritizing test procedures and creating test data
4. Analyzing discrepancies to determine their cause

Which of the following BEST matches the activities with the tasks?
 a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
7. Which of the following BEST describes how value is added by maintaining traceability between
the test basis and test artifacts?
 b) It is possible to determine if a new test case has increased coverage of the requirements
(If all test cases are linked with requirements, then whenever a new test case (with
traceability) is added, it is possible to see if any previously uncovered requirements are
covered by the new test case)
8. Which of the following qualities is MORE likely to be found in a tester’s mindset rather than in a
developer’s?
 b) Ability to see what might go wrong (Developers are often more interested in designing
and building solutions than in contemplating what might be wrong with those solutions)
9. Given the following statements about the relationships between software development
activities and test activities in the software development lifecycle:
1. Each development activity should have a corresponding testing activity
2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding development
activity
4. Testing activities should start in the early stages of the software development lifecycle

Which of the following CORRECTLY shows which are true and false?
 d) True – 1, 4; False – 2, 3
(2. Reviewing should start as soon as final versions of documents become available. FALSE –
it should start as soon as drafts are available
3. The design and implementation of tests should start during the corresponding
development activity. FALSE – the analysis and design of tests should start during the
corresponding development activity, not the implementation)
10. Given that the testing being performed has the following attributes:
• Based on interface specifications
• Focused on finding failures in communication
• The test approach uses both functional and structural test types

Which of the following test levels is MOST likely being performed?

 a) Integration testing
(Considering the scenario:
1. ‘testing is based on interface specifications’ – the test basis for integration testing
includes interface specifications (along with communication protocol specification), while
these are not included for any of the other test levels
2. ‘testing is focused on finding failures in communication’ - failures in the communication
between tested components is included as a typical failure for integration testing, but
failures in communication is not included for any of the other test levels
3. ‘the test approach uses both functional and structural test types’ - functional and
structural test types are both included as possible approaches for integration testing, and
would also be appropriate for any of the other test levels, although they are only otherwise
explicitly mentioned in the syllabus for system testing)
11. Which of the following statements about test types and test levels is CORRECT?
 c) It is possible to perform functional, non-functional and white-box testing at any test level
(It is possible to perform any of the test types (functional, nonfunctional, white-box) at any
test level)
12. Which of the following statements BEST compares the purposes of confirmation testing and
regression testing?
 b) The purpose of confirmation testing is to check that a previously found defect has been
fixed, while the purpose of regression testing is to ensure that no other parts of the system
have been adversely affected by the fix (The descriptions of both confirmation and
regression testing match the intent of those in the syllabus)
13. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY describes a role of impact analysis in
Maintenance Testing?
 a) Impact analysis is used when deciding if a fix to a maintained system is worthwhile
(Impact analysis may be used to identify those areas of the system that will be affected by
the fix, and so the extent of the impact (e.g., necessary regression testing) can be used when
deciding if the change is worthwhile)
14. Which of the following statements CORRECTLY reflects the value of static testing?
 d) Since we started using static analysis, we find coding defects that might have not been
found by performing only dynamic testing (This is a benefit of static analysis)
15. Which of the following statements on the use of checklists in a formal review is CORRECT?
 d) As part of the review initiation, the reviewers receive the checklists needed for the review
(Initiating the review (“Kick-off”) involves distributing the work product and other materials,
like checklists)
16. Which of the following CORRECTLY matches the roles and responsibilities in a formal review?
 a) Manager – Decides on the execution of reviews (The management decides about
performing the review)
17. The reviews being used in your organization have the following attributes:
• There is a role of a scribe
• The purpose is to detect potential defects
• The review meeting is led by the author
• Reviewers find potential defects by individual review
• A review report is produced
Which of the following review types is MOST likely being used?
 b) Walkthrough
(Considering the attributes:
• There is a role of a scribe – specified for walkthroughs, technical reviews, and inspections;
thus, the reviews being performed cannot be informal reviews
• The purpose is to detect potential defects – the purpose of detecting potential defects is
specified for all types of review.
• The review meeting is led by the author – this is not allowed for inspections and is typically
not the author for technical reviews, but is part of walkthroughs, and allowed for informal
reviews
• Reviewers find potential issues by individual review - all types of reviews can include
individual review (even informal reviews)
• A review report is produced - all types of reviews can produce a review report, although it
would be less likely for an informal review)
18. You have been asked to take part in a checklist-based review of the following excerpt from the
requirements specification for a library system:

Librarians can:
1. Register new borrowers
2. Return books from borrowers
3. Accept fines from borrowers
4. Add new books to the system with their ISBN, author and title
 5. Remove books from the system
6. Get system responses within 5 seconds

Borrowers can:
7. Borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time
8. View the history of books they have borrowed/reserved
9. Be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks
10. Get system responses within 3 seconds
11. Borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4 weeks
12. Reserve books (if they are on-loan)

All users (librarians and borrowers):

13. Can search for books by ISBN, author, or title
14. Can browse the system catalogue
15. The system shall respond to user requests within 3 seconds
16. The user interface shall be easy-to-use

You have been assigned the checklist entry that requires you to review the specification for
inconsistencies between individual requirements (i.e., conflicts between requirements).
Which of the following CORRECTLY identifies inconsistencies between pairs of requirements?
 b) 6-15, 9-11
(Considering the potential inconsistencies:
• 6-10 – If librarians should get system responses within 5 seconds, it is NOT inconsistent for
borrowers to get system responses within 3 seconds.
• 6-15 - If librarians should get system responses within 5 seconds, it is inconsistent for all
users to get system responses within 3 seconds.
• 7-12 – If borrowers can borrow a maximum of 3 books at one time it is NOT inconsistent
for them to also reserve books (if they are on-loan).
• 9-11 – If a borrower can be fined for failing to return a book within 3 weeks it is
inconsistent for them to also be allowed to borrow a book at no cost for a maximum of 4
weeks – as the length of valid loans are different.
Of the potential inconsistencies, 6-15 and 9-11 are valid inconsistencies.)
19. Which of the following provides the BEST description of exploratory testing?
 b) An approach to testing whereby the testers dynamically design and execute tests based
on their knowledge, exploration of the test item and the results of previous tests (Glossary
definition)
20. Which of the following BEST matches the descriptions with the different categories of test
techniques?
1. Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test object
2. The processing within the test object is checked
3. Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their distribution
4. Deviations from the requirements are checked
5. User stories are used as the test basis
 Using notation for the following 4 options:

Black - Black-box test techniques

White - White-box test techniques
Experience - Experience-based test techniques

 a) Black – 4, 5 White – 1, 2; Experience – 3

(The correct pairing of descriptions with the different categories of test techniques is:
• Black-box test techniques Deviations from the requirements are checked (4) User stories
are used as the test basis (5)
• White-box test techniques Coverage is measured based on a selected structure of the test
object (1) The processing within the test object is checked (2)
• Experience-based test techniques Tests are based on defects’ likelihood and their
distribution (3))
21. A fitness app measures the number of steps that are walked each day and provides feedback to
encourage the user to keep fit.
The feedback for different numbers of steps should be:
Up to 1000 - Couch Potato!
Above 1000, up to 2000 - Lazy Bones!
Above 2000, up to 4000 - Getting There!
Above 4000, up to 6000 - Not Bad!
Above 6000 - Way to Go!

Which of the following sets of test inputs would achieve the BEST equivalence partition
coverage?
 d) 666, 999, 2222, 5555, 6666
22. A daily radiation recorder for plants produces a sunshine score based on a combination of the
number of hours a plant is exposed to the sun (below 3 hours, 3 to 6 hours or above 6 hours)
and the average intensity of the sunshine (very low, low, medium, high).
Given the following test cases:

Hours Intensity Score

T1 1.5 (1) v.low (4) 10
T2 7.0 (3) Medium (6) 60
T3 0.5 (1) v.low (4) 10

What is the minimum number of additional test cases that are needed to ensure full coverage of
ALL VALID INPUT equivalence partitions?
 b) 2
(The following valid input equivalence partitions can be identified:
• Hours
1. Below 3 hours
2. 3 to 6 hours
3. Above 6 hours
• Intensity
 4. Very low
5. Low
6. Medium
7. High
Thus, the missing valid input equivalence partitions are: (2), (5) and (7). These can be
covered by two test cases, as (2) can be combined with either (5) or (7).)
23. A smart home app measures the average temperature in the house over the previous week and
provides feedback to the occupants on their environmental friendliness based on this
temperature.
The feedback for different average temperature ranges (to the nearest °C) should be:

Up to 10°C - Icy Cool!

11°C to 15°C - Chilled Out!
16°C to 19°C - Cool Man!
20°C to 22°C - Too Warm!
Above 22°C - Hot & Sweaty!

Using BVA (only Min- and Max values), which of the following sets of test inputs provides the
highest level of boundary coverage?
 c) 10°C, 16°C, 19°C, 22°C, 23°C
(For the input equivalence partitions given, the above used boundary value technique yields
the following 8 coverage items:
10°C, 11°C, 15°C, 16°C, 19°C, 20°C, 22°C, 23°C.)
24. Decision table testing is being performed on a speeding fine system. Two test cases have already
been generated for rules R1 and R4, which are shown below:

Rules R1 R4
Conditions Speed > 50 T F
School zone T F
Actions $250 Fine F F
Driving license withdrawal T F

Given the following additional test cases:

Rules DT1 DT2 DT3 DT4

Input Speed 55 44 66 77
School zone T T T F
Expected Result $250 Fine F F F T
Driving license withdrawal T F T F

Which two of the additional test cases would achieve full coverage of the complete decision
table (when combined with the test cases that have already been generated for rules R1 and
R4)?
 c) DT2, DT4
 (To achieve full coverage, test cases covering rules 2 and 3 are needed. DT4 satisfies the
constraints of rule 2, while DT2 satisfies the constraints of rule 3.)
25. Given the following state model of a battery charger software:

Which of the following sequences of transitions provides the highest level of transition coverage
for the model?
 d) WAIT → TRICKLE → CHARGE → HIGH → CHARGE → TRICKLE → WAIT → OFF → WAIT

26. Which of the following statements BEST describes how test cases are derived from a use case?
 a) Test cases are created to exercise defined basic, exceptional and error behaviors
performed by the system under test in collaboration with actors (This explains that each use
case specifies some behavior that a subject can perform in collaboration with one or more
actors. It also (later) explains that tests are designed to exercise the defined behaviors
(basic, exceptional and errors))
27. Which of the following descriptions of statement coverage is CORRECT?
 b) Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of executable statements in the
source code exercised by tests (Statement coverage is a measure of the proportion of
executable statements exercised by tests (normally presented as a percentage))
28. Which of the following descriptions of decision coverage is CORRECT?
 d) Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes in the source code
exercised by tests (Decision coverage is a measure of the proportion of decision outcomes
exercised (normally presented as a percentage))
29. Which of the following BEST describes the concept behind error guessing?
 c) Error guessing involves using your knowledge and experience of defects found in the past
and typical mistakes made by developers (The basic concept behind error guessing is that
the tester tries to guess what mistakes may have been made by the developer and what
defects may be in the test object based on past-experience (and sometimes checklists))
30. Which of the following BEST explains a benefit of independent testing?
  d) When specifications contain ambiguities and inconsistencies, assumptions are made on
their interpretation, and an independent tester can be useful in questioning those
assumptions and the interpretation made by the developer (Specifications are never
perfect, meaning that assumptions will have to be made by the developer. An independent
tester is useful in that they can challenge and verify the assumptions and subsequent
interpretation made by the developer)
31. Which of the following tasks is MOST LIKELY to be performed by the test manager?
 a) Write test summary reports based on the information gathered during testing (One of the
typical tasks of a test manager)
32. Given the following examples of entry and exit criteria:
1. The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent
2. 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining tests
are now out of scope
3. The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified
4. Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high-priority ones
5. The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked
6. The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing.

Which of the following BEST categorizes them as entry and exit criteria:
 d) Entry criteria – 3, 5, 6; Exit criteria – 1, 2, 4
(The correct pairings of examples to entry and exit criteria are:
• Entry criteria
o (3) The trading performance test environment has been designed, set-up and verified –
example of the need for a test environment to be ready before testing can begin
o (5) The autopilot design specifications have been reviewed and reworked – example of the
need for the test basis to be available before testing can begin
o (6) The tax rate calculation component has passed unit testing – example of the need for a
test object to have met the exit criteria for a prior level of testing before testing can begin
• Exit criteria
o (1) The original testing budget of $30,000 plus contingency of $7,000 has been spent –
example of spending the testing budget being a signal to stop testing
o (2) 96% of planned tests for the drawing package have been executed and the remaining
tests are now out of scope – example of all the planned tests being run being a signal to stop
testing (normally used alongside the exit criteria on outstanding defects remaining)
o (4) Current status is no outstanding critical defects and two high priority ones – example of
the number of outstanding defects achieving a planned limit being a signal to stop testing
(normally used alongside the exit criteria on planned tests being run).)
33. Given the following priorities and dependencies for these test cases:

Test Case Priority Technical Logical dependency

dependency on: on:
TC1 High TC4
TC2 Low
TC3 High TC4
TC4 Medium
 TC5 Low TC2
TC6 Medium TC5

Which of the following test execution schedules BEST considers the priorities and technical and
logical dependencies?
 b) TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6
(The test cases should be scheduled in priority order, but the schedule must also take
account of the dependencies.
The two highest priority test cases (TC1 and TC3) are both dependent on TC4, so the first
three test cases should be scheduled as either TC4 – TC1 – TC3 or TC4 – TC3 – TC1 (we have
no way to discriminate between TC1 and TC3).
Next, we need to consider the remaining medium priority test case, TC6. TC6 is dependent
on TC5, but TC5 is dependent on TC2, so the next two three cases must be scheduled as TC2
– TC5 – TC6.
This means there are two possible optimal schedules:
• TC4 – TC1 – TC3 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6 or
• TC4 – TC3 – TC1 – TC2 – TC5 – TC6)
34. Which of the following statements about test estimation approaches is CORRECT?
 c) With the expert-based approach, the test managers responsible for the different testing
activities predict the expected testing effort (Test Managers, who will be leading testers
doing the testing, are considered experts in their respective areas and suitable for
estimating the necessary resources needed)
35. Which of the following BEST defines risk level?
 c) Risk level is determined by a combination of the probability of an undesirable event and
the expected impact of that event
36. Which of the following is MOST likely to be an example of a PRODUCT risk?
 a) The expected security features may not be supported by the system architecture (If the
expected security features are not supported by the system architecture, then the system
could be seriously flawed. As the system being produced is the problem here, it is a product
risk)
37. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be an example of product risk analysis CORRECTLY
influencing the testing?
 b) Testing has found the quality of the network module to be higher than expected, so
additional testing will be performed in that area (As less defects than expected have been
found in the network module, the perceived risk in this area should be lower, and so less
testing should be focused on this area, NOT additional testing. Thus, product risk analysis
has NOT CORRECTLY influenced the testing in this situation)
38. You are performing system testing of a train reservation system. Based on the test cases
performed, you have noticed that the system occasionally reports that no trains are available,
although this should be the case. You have provided the developers with a summary of the
defect and the version of the tested system. They recognize the urgency of the defect and are
now waiting for you to provide further details.

In addition to the information already provided, the following additional information is given:
 1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect
2. Identification of the test object
3. Details of the test environment
4. Urgency/priority to fix
5. Actual results
6. Reference to test case specification
Which of this additional information is most useful to include in the defect report?
 d) 3, 5, 6
(Considering each of the pieces of information:
1. Degree of impact (severity) of the defect – the developers are already aware of the
problem and are waiting to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information.
2. Identification of the test object – as the developers are already aware of the problem and
you are performing system testing, and you have already provided the version of the system
you are testing you can assume they know the object that was being tested, so this is a less
important piece of information.
3. Details of the test environment – the set-up of the test environment may have a
noticeable effect on the test results, and detailed information should be provided, so this is
an important piece of information.
4. Urgency/priority to fix – the developers are already aware of the problem and are waiting
to fix it, so this is a less important piece of information.
5. Actual results – the actual results may well help the developers to determine what is
going wrong with the system, so this is an important piece of information.
6. Reference to test case specification – this will show the developers the tests you ran,
including the test inputs that caused the system to fail (and expected results), so this is an
important piece of information.)
39. Given the following test activities and test tools:
1. Performance measurement and dynamic analysis
2. Test execution and logging
3. Management of testing and test ware
4. Test design

A. Code coverage tools

B. Dynamic analysis tools
C. Test data preparation tools
D. Defect management tools
Which of the following BEST matches the activities and tools?
 c) 1 – B, 2 – A, 3 – D, 4 – C
40. Which of the following is MOST likely to be used as a reason for using a pilot project to
introduce a tool into an organization?
 a) The need to evaluate how the tool fits with existing processes and practices and
determining what would need to change