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University Grants Commission

Excellence in Assessment
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quality higher education for all

UGC-NET UNIVERSITY GRANTS COMMISSION

NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY TEST

www.nta.ac.in
ugcnet.nta.nic.in BULLETIN
 Contents

IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE 3

INTRODUCTION 6
1. ABOUT NATIONAL TESTING AGENCY (NTA) 6
2. ABOUT UNIVERSITY GRANTS COMMISSION (UGC) 6
3. UNIVERSITY GRANTS COMMISSION – NATIONAL ELIGIBILITY TEST (UGC-NET) 6
4. UGC-NET DECEMBER 2022 7
4.1 MODE OF EXAMINATION 7
4.2 PATTERN OF EXAMINATION 7
4.3 SUBJECT AND SYLLABUS OF TEST 7
4.4 MEDIUM OF QUESTION PAPER 7
4.5 MARKING SCHEME 8
5. ELIGIBILITY CRITERIA FOR UGC-NET DECEMBER 2022 8
5.1. QUALIFYING EXAMINATION: 8
5.2. INSTRUCTIONS 9
5.3. EXEMPTION (ELIGIBILITY FOR ASSISTANT PROFESSOR) 9
5.4. AGE LIMIT AND RELAXATION 10
6. RESERVATIONS 10
7. PROVISIONS RELATING TO PERSONS WITH DISABILITY (PWD) 11
7.1. (A) 11
GUIDELINES FOR CONDUCTING WRITTEN EXAMINATION FOR PERSONS WITH BENCHMARK
DISABILITIES ABOVE 40% VIDE LETTER DATED 29 AUGUST 2018 FROM MINISTRY OF SOCIAL
JUSTICE AND EMPOWERMENT 11
7.1 (B) GUIDELINES FOR CONDUCTING WRITTEN EXAMINATION FOR PERSONS WITH SPECIFIED
DISABILITIES COVERED UNDER THE DEFINITION OF SECTION 2(S) OF THE RPWD ACT, 2016 BUT NOT
COVERED UNDER THE DEFINITION OF SECTION 2(R) OF THE SAID ACT, I.E. PERSONS HAVING LESS
THAN 40% DISABILITY AND HAVING DIFFICULTY IN WRITING 12
8. REGISTRATION AND APPLICATION PROCESS 13
9. ADMIT CARD FOR UGC NET DECEMBER 2022 17
10. COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) GUIDELINES 19
11. UNFAIR MEANS PRACTICES AND BREACH OF EXAMINATION RULES 19
12. DISPLAY OF PROVISIONAL ANSWER KEY FOR CHALLENGES 20
13. DISPLAY OF RECORDED RESPONSES 20
14. PROCEDURE AND CRITERIA FOR DECLARATION OF RESULT 20
15. NORMALIZATION PROCEDURE (APPENDIX – XI): 21
16. RE-EVALUATION/RE-CHECKING OF RESULT 21
17. TEST PRACTICE CENTRES (TPCS) 22
18. COMMON SERVICES CENTRES/FACILITATION CENTRES 22
19. QUERY REDRESSAL SYSTEM 22
A. CORRESPONDENCE WITH NTA 22
20. NTA WEEDING OUT RULES 23
21. LEGAL JURISDICTION 23
ANNEXURE - I 24
CERTIFICATE FOR PERSONS WITH A DISABILITY UNDER RPWD ACT, 2016 HAVING LESS THAN 40%
DISABILITY 24

1
ANNEXURE – II 25
LETTER OF UNDERTAKING FOR USING OWN SCRIBE 25
APPENDIX- I 26
PROCEDURE FOR ONLINE PAYMENT OF FEE AND HELPLINE FOR PAYMENT RELATED QUERIES 26
APPENDIX-II 29
LIST OF SUBJECTS AND THEIR CODES 29
APPENDIX- III 31
LIST OF EXAM CITIES FOR CENTRES OF UGC-NET DECEMBER 2022 31
APPENDIX - IV 41
LIST OF SUBJECT AT POST GRADUATION LEVEL AND THEIR CODES 41
APPENDIX – V 42
LIST OF POST-GRADUATION COURSES AND THEIR CODES 42
APPENDIX - VI 43
LIST OF STATES/ UNION TERRITORIES AND THEIR CODES 43
APPENDIX - VII 44
PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT) 44
APPENDIX - VIII 47
INSTRUCTIONS REGARDING COVID-19 47
APPENDIX - IX 50
TEST PRACTICE CENTRES (TPCS) 50
APPENDIX - X 51
COMMON SERVICES CENTRES/FACILITATION CENTRES 51
APPENDIX - XI 52
PROCEDURE TO BE ADOPTED FOR COMPILATION OF NTA SCORES FOR MULTI SESSION PAPERS 52
(NORMALIZATION PROCEDURE BASED ON PERCENTILE SCORE) 52
APPENDIX - XII 56
REPLICA 56
 IMPORTANT INFORMATION AND DATES AT A GLANCE
(Please refer to Information Bulletin for details)
Dates, Fee Details and Application Procedure:

EVENTS DATES

Online registration and submission of Application Form (complete 29 December 2022 to 17 January 2023
in all respect) through NTA Website: https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in (upto to 05:00 P.M)

Last date for successful transaction of Examination fee (through

Credit Card/ Debit Card/Net Banking/UPI Payment Modes 18 January 2023 (up to 11:50 P.M)
Fee Payable for UGC-NET December 2022
(Pay fee using the Payment Gateway(s) integrated to the Online Application through Net Banking Debit Card /
Credit Card / UPI )
General/Unreserved Rs. 1100/-
Gen-EWS*/ OBC-NCL** Rs. 550/-
Scheduled Caste (SC) / Scheduled Tribes (ST) / Person
with Disability (PwD) Rs. 275/-
Third gender
Applicable service/processing charges & GST over and above the Examination Fee, are to be
Paid by the candidate to the concerned Bank/ Payment Gateway Integrator. For details,Appendix -I may be
referred to.
Correction in the Particulars of Application Form online only
19 to 20 January 2023 (upto 11:50 P.M.)
Intimation of Cities of exam centres
First week of the February 2023
Downloading of Admit Card by the Candidate from NTA
Second week of the February 2023
Website
21 February 2023 to 10 March 2023
Dates of Examination
180 minutes (03 hours)
Duration of Examination
No break between Paper 1 & Paper2
First Shift: 09.00 am to 12.00 pm
Timing of Examination Second Shift: 03.00 pm to 06.00 pm
Exam Centre, Date and Shift As indicated on the Admit Card
Display of Recorded Responses and Provisional AnswerKeys on
the Website for inviting challenge(s) from Interested candidates. To be announced later on website

Declaration of Result on NTA website To be announced later on website

www.nta.ac.in , https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in
Website

*As per the OM No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice
and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters No 35-
2/2019- dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher
Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically Weaker Sections (EWSs) for
admission in Central Educational Institutions.
**OBC (Other Backward Classes)-NCL (Non Creamy Layer) as per the central list of Other Backward
Classesavailable on National Commission for Backward Classes (NCBC- Government of India website
www.ncbc.nic.in).
The candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column.
State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose General.

1. Candidate must read carefully the Instructions (including how to fill up Application Form
online) given in the Information Bulletin available on the NTA Website. Candidates not
complying with the Instructions shall be summarily disqualified.
2. Candidate can apply for UGC NET December 2022 through “Online” mode only. The
Application Form in any other mode will not be accepted.
3. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate. More than one application i.e.
multiple Application Forms submitted by a candidate will not be accepted.
4. Instructions for filling Online Application Form:
 Download Information Bulletin and Replica of Application Form. Read these carefully to
ensure your eligibility.
 Follow the steps given below to Apply Online:
Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using own Email Id and Mobile No..
Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated
Application Number. Upload scanned images of: (i) a recent photograph (file size
10Kb – 200Kb) either in colour or black & white with 80% face (without mask)
visible including ears against white background; (ii) candidate’s signature (file
size: 4kb - 30kb)
Step-3: Pay fee using SBI/CANARA/ICICI/HDFC Bank/ Debit Card/Credit Card/UPI
and keep proof of fee paid.
 Download, save and print a copy of Confirmation Page of the Application Form (which
would be downloadable only after successful remittance of fee) for future reference.
 All the 3 Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of Application
of a candidate could be considered as successful and his/her candidature would be
confirmed only on the successful transaction/receipt of the prescribed application fee from
him/her.
5. The Confirmation Page of the online Application Form will be generated only after successful
payment by the Candidate.
 In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of fee, then the
candidate should approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway (in the helpline no.
and email given in Appendix- I of the Information Bulletin) for ensuring the successful
payment or for obtaining the refund of duplicate / multiple payments.
 However, if inspite of above action payment has not been successfully made it means
that the transaction has not been completed and the amount not reflected in the NTA
account. Such amount will be refunded to concerned Credit/Debit Card/UPI within a
reasonable time. Therefore, such candidates have to pay the fee once again and
ensure the OK fee status.
6. Candidates shall ensure that the information entered by them in their respective online
Application Form is correct.
7. Information provided by the candidates in their respective online Application Forms, like,
name of candidate, contact/ address details, category, PwD status, educational qualification
details, date of birth, choice of exam cities, etc. will be treated as final. Any request for change
in such particulars after the closure of correction period will not be considered by NTA under
any circumstances.
8. NTA does not edit /modify/alter any information entered by the candidates under any
circumstances. Any request for change in information after submission of Application Form
will not be entertained. Therefore, candidates are advised to exercise utmost caution for filling
up correct details in the Application Form.
9. NTA disclaims any liability that may arise to a candidate(s) due to incorrect information
provided by him/her in his/her online Application Form.
10. Candidates must ensure that their email address and mobile number to be registered in their
online Application Form are their own, as relevant/important information/ communication will
be sent by NTA through e-mail on the registered e-mail address and / or through SMS on
registered mobile number only. NTA shall not be responsible for any non-communication /
mis-communication with a candidate in the email address or mobile number given by him/her
other than his/her own.
Candidates are advised to visit the NTA Website and check their e-mails regularly for latest
updates.
11. Candidates are also requested to download and install the SANDES application as a
secondary channel to receive time-to-time notifications from NTA.
SANDES APP can be downloaded and installed on Mobile Device by following the below-
listed steps:
• Visit the Google Play Store on your Mobile Device.
 • Search for the “Sandes App” in the search bar.
• It then displays the app in the play store.
• Click on Install, and then the app gets downloaded to your mobile device.
• Now, mobile users can enjoy the services of the Sandes Mobile App.
12. Candidates shall appear at their own cost at the Examination Centre on the Date, Shift and
time indicated on their Admit Cards issued by the NTA in due course through its Website.
Notes:
i. The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step-2 and step-3 are not completed. Such
forms will stand rejected and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
ii. No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be entertained by NTA under any circumstances.
iii. NTA is facilitating to all candidates with an additional platform of UMANG and DigiLocker to download their documents
like Confirmation Page, Admit Card, Score Cards, etc. Instruction will be provided in subsequent phases. Candidates
are advised to visit the NTA Website and check their e-mails regularly for the latest updates.
iv. The entire application process for UGC NET December 2022 is online, including uploading of scanned images,
payment of fees, and printing of confirmation page, admit card, etc. Therefore, candidates are not required to
send/submit any document(s) including confirmation page to NTA through Post/ Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by Hand.
v. Usage of Data and Information: NTA/Government of India can use the data provided by the End Users (test taker in
this case) for internal purpose(s) including training, research and development, analysis and other permissible
purpose(s). However, this information is not for use by any third party or private agency for any other use.

Brief Advisory regarding COVID-19 Pandemic:

Candidates are advised to carry only the following with them into the Examination venue:
a) Admit Card along with Self Declaration (Undertaking) downloaded from the NTA Website (a clear printout on A4 size
paper) duly filled in.
b) A simple transparent Ball Point Pen.
c) Additional photograph, to be pasted on Attendance Sheet
d) Personal hand sanitizer (50 ml).
e) Personal transparent water bottle.
f) ID Proof
g) Sugar tablets/fruits (like banana/apple/orange) in case the candidate is diabetic.

Notes:
1. Candidate shall ensure that the information (like, his/her name. mother’s name, father’s name, gender, date of birth,
category, PwD status, mobile number, email address, photograph and signature, choice of cities for exam centre, etc.)
provided by them in their online Application Form are correct and of their own. Candidates are advised to exercise
utmost care for filling up correct details in the Application Form. Any request for change in the particulars after
the closure of correction period will not be considered by NTA under any circumstances. Corrections sent by the
candidate through Post/ Fax/WhatsApp/Email/by Hand will not be entertained by NTA.
2. In case it is found at any time in future that the Candidate has used / uploaded the photograph and signature of
someone else in his/ her Application Form / Admit Card or he/she has tampered his/her Admit Card / result, these acts
of the candidate shall be treated as Unfair Means (UFM) Practices on his/her part and he/she shall be proceeded with
the actions as contemplated under the provisions of the Information Bulletin relating to Unfair Means Practices.
Candidates are NOT allowed to carry Instruments, Geometry or Pencil box, Handbag, Purse, any kind of Paper/
Stationery/ Textual material (printed or written material), Eatables (loose or packed), Mobile Phone/ Earphone/
Microphone/ Pager, Calculator, Docu Pen, Slide Rules, Log Tables, Camera, Tape Recorder, Electronic Watches
with facilities of calculator, any metallic item or electronic gadgets/ devices in the Examination Hall/Room. Smoking,
chewing gutka, spitting etc. in the Examination Room/Hall is strictly prohibited.
If any candidate is in possession of any of the above item, his/ her candidature will be treated as unfair means and
lead to cancellation of the current Examination & also debar the candidate for future examination(s) & the material
will be seized.
 University Grants Commission-National Eligibility Test
December 2022

Introduction

1. About National Testing Agency (NTA)

The Ministry of Human Resource Development (MHRD), which is now known as Ministry of
Education (MoE), Government of India (GOI) has established the National Testing Agency
(NTA) as an independent, autonomous, and self-sustained premier testing organization under
the Societies Registration Act (1860) for conducting efficient, transparent and international
standards tests in order to assess the competency of candidates for admissions to premier
higher education institutions.

The NTA has been entrusted by the University Grants Commission (UGC) with the task of
conducting UGC-NET, which is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘Assistant
Professor’ and ‘Junior Research Fellowship and Assistant Professor’ in Indian
universities and colleges.

2. About University Grants Commission (UGC)

The University Grant Commission (UGC), is a Statuary Body of Government of India, Ministry
of Education, Department of Higher Education, constituted under the University Grants
Commission Act, 1956 (3 of 1956), vested with two responsibilities: that of providing funds and
that of coordination, determination and maintenance of standards in institutions of higher
education. The UGC`s mandate includes:

 Promoting and coordinating university education.

 Determining and maintaining standards of teaching, examination and research in
universities.
 Framing regulations on minimum standards of education.
 Monitoring developments in the field of collegiate and university education; disbursing
grants to the universities and colleges.
 Serving as a vital link between the Union and state governments and institutions of
higher learning.
 Advising the Central and State governments on the measures necessary for
improvement of university education.
3. University Grants Commission – National Eligibility Test (UGC-NET)
3.1 UGC-NET is a test to determine the eligibility of Indian nationals for ‘Assistant Professor’
and ‘Junior Research Fellowship and Assistant Professor’ in Indian universities and
colleges.

3.2 The selection of candidates for the following Fellowships will be made through the Ministry
of Social Justice and Empowerment and the Ministry of Minorities Affairs:

• National Fellowship for Scheduled Caste Students (NFSC)

• National Fellowship for Other Backward Classes (NFOBC)
• Maulana Azad National Fellowship Scheme for minorities (MANF) has been
discontinued w.e.f. Financial Year 2022-23 onwards (Letter No. SS-15/2022-
Scholarship-MoMA dated 25.11.2022 of the Ministry of Minority Affairs).

3.3 Candidates aspiring for the Fellowships listed above, shall also have to apply for the Test.
4. UGC-NET December 2022

The UGC NET December 2022 will be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode in
multi shifts as per the time schedule specified in the Information at a glance, in the Subjects
given at Appendix -III in selected Cities spread across the Country (Appendix -IV).

4.1 Mode of Examination

The Examination shall be conducted in Computer Based Test (CBT) mode only.

4.2 Pattern of Examination

The Test will consist of two papers. Both the papers will consist of objective type,
multiple choice questions. There will be no break between papers.
Paper Marks Number of MCQ Total
Questions duration
The questions in Paper I intends to
assess the teaching/ research
aptitude of the candidate. It will 03 hours
primarily be designed to test (180
I 100 50
reasoning ability, reading minutes)
comprehension, divergent thinking without any
and general awareness of the break.
Candidate. All the
This is based on the subject questions
II 200 100 selected by the candidate and will are
compulsory.
assess domain knowledge.

4.3 Subject and Syllabus of Test

The List of Subjects and their Codes for UGC-NET December 2022 of UGC NET are
given at Appendix -III. A new subject “Indian Knowledge System” (Subject code
103) has been introduced among the list of subjects vide letter no. F.No.4-
1/2018(NET/Policy) dated: 25.10.2022, received from NET Bureau of UGC w.e.f.
UGC-NET December 2022.

The candidates may note that the syllabus has been modified and the new syllabus
applicable from June 2019 onwards has also been notified through a Public Notice on
NTA website.

Updated Syllabus for all NET Subjects can be downloaded from the UGC
website: https://www.ugcnetonline.in/syllabus-new.php.

National Testing Agency will not provide the copy of syllabus to any candidate.

4.4 Medium of Question Paper

(i) The medium of Question Paper shall be in English & Hindi only.
(ii) Option of medium of Question Paper should be carefully chosen by the Candidate,
while filling the Application Form online. The option once exercised cannot be
changed.
(iii) Candidates opting for Hindi medium in the Application Form will be given bilingual
paper, but candidates opting for English medium will be given English version only.
(iv) Candidates are required to answer in the medium as per option exercised in the
Application Form.
(v) In case of any ambiguity in translation/construction of a question in the exam, its
English version shall be treated as final and the decision of NTA shall be final in
this regard.
 4.5 Marking Scheme
(i) Each question carries 02 (two) marks.
(ii) For each correct response, candidate will get 02 (two) marks.
(iii) There is no negative marking for incorrect response.
(iv) No marks will be given for questions un-answered/un-attempted/marked for
Review.
(v) To answer a question, the candidate needs to choose one option as correct
option.
(vi) If a question is found to be incorrect/ambiguous or has multiple correct answers,
only those candidates who have attempted the question and chosen one of the
correct answers would be given the credit.
(vii) If a question is found to be incorrect and the Question is dropped, then two marks
(+2) will be awarded to only to those candidates who have attempted the question.
The reason could be due to human error or technical error.

5. Eligibility Criteria for UGC-NET December 2022

5.1. Qualifying Examination:

(i) General/Unreserved/General-EWS candidates who have secured at least 55%
marks (without rounding off) in Master’s Degree or equivalent examination from
universities/institutions recognized by UGC (available on the website:
www.ugc.ac.in in Humanities and Social Science (including languages),
Computer Science and Applications, Electronic Science etc. are eligible for this
Test. List of subjects at Post Graduation level is attached as Appendix -V. The
Other Backward Classes (OBC) belonging to Non-Creamy Layer/Scheduled Caste
(SC)/Scheduled Tribe (ST)/Persons with Disability (PwD)/Third gender category
candidates who have secured at least 50% marks (without rounding off) in Master’s
degree or equivalent examination are eligible for this Test.
(ii) Candidates who are pursuing their Master’s degree or equivalent course or
candidates who have appeared for their qualifying Master’s degree (final year)
examination and whose result is still awaited or candidates whose qualifying
examinations have been delayed may also apply for this test. However, such
candidates will be admitted provisionally and shall be considered eligible for award
of JRF/eligibility for Assistant Professor only after they have passed their Master’s
Degree or equivalent examination with at least 55% marks (50% marks in case of
OBC-NCL/ SC / ST / PwD / Third gender category candidates). Such candidates
must complete their Master’s degree or equivalent examination within two years
from the date of NET result with required percentage of marks, failing which they
shall be treated as disqualified.
(iii) Candidates belonging to the Third gender category are eligible to draw the same
relaxation in fee, age and Eligibility Criteria for NET (i.e. JRF and Assistant
Professor) as are available to SC/ST/PwD categories. The subject-wise qualifying
cut-offs for this category would be the lowest among those for SC / ST / PwD /
OBC–NCL / General-EWS categories in the corresponding subject.
(iv) The Ph.D. degree holders whose Master’s level examination have been completed
by 19 September 1991 (irrespective of date of declaration of result) shall be eligible
for a relaxation of 5% in aggregate marks (i.e. from 55% to 50%) for appearing in
NET. The list of Post-Graduation courses and their codes is given at Appendix -
VI.
(v) Candidates are advised to appear in the subject of their Post-Graduation only. The
candidates, whose Post Graduation subject is not covered in the list of NET
subjects attached as Appendix -V, may appear in a related subject.
(vi) Candidates are neither required to send any certificates/documents in support of
their eligibility nor printout of their Application Form or Confirmation Page to NTA.
However, the candidates, in their own interest, must ensure themselves about their
eligibility for the test. In the event of any ineligibility being detected by the UGC/NTA
at any stage, their candidature will be cancelled and they shall be liable for legal
 action. NTA does not verify the information provided by the candidates during
online registration and hence candidature will be purely provisional subject to the
fulfillment of eligibility criteria.
(vii) Candidates with post-graduate diploma/certificate awarded by Indian University/
Institute or foreign degree/diploma/certificate awarded by the foreign University/
institute should in their own interest, ascertain the equivalence of their
diploma/degree/ certificate with Master’s degree of recognized Indian universities
from Association of Indian Universities (AIU), New Delhi (www.aiu.ac.in).
5.2. Instructions

(i) The eligibility for ‘Assistant Professor’ or for ‘Junior Research Fellowship and
Assistant Professor’ will depend on the performance of the candidate in both the
papers of UGC-NET in aggregate. However, the candidates qualifying exclusively
for Assistant Professor will not be considered for the award of JRF. Candidates
appearing in UGC-NET should thoughtfully select in the Application Form whether
they are applying for ‘Assistant Professor’ or ‘Junior Research Fellowship (JRF)
and Assistant Professor’. Candidates who qualify the Test for eligibility for Assistant
Professor will be governed by the rules and regulations for recruitment of Assistant
Professor of the concerned Universities / Colleges/ State governments, as the case
may be.
(ii) The candidates who qualify for the award of JRF are eligible to pursue research in
the subject of their post-graduation or in a related subject and are also eligible for
Assistant Professor. The universities, institutions, IITs and other national
organizations may select the JRF awardees for full time research work in
accordance with the procedure prescribed by them.
(iii) Junior Research Fellowship: Candidates qualifying for the award of JRF will be
eligible to receive fellowship of UGC under various schemes, subject to their finding
placement in universities/IITs/Institutions. The validity period of the offer will be
three years w.e.f. the date of issue of JRF Award Letter. However, for those
candidates who have already joined M. Phil. / Ph.D., the date of commencement
of Fellowship shall be from the date of declaration of NET result or date of their
joining, whichever is later.
(iv) The National Fellowship for Scheduled Caste Students (NFSC) and National
Fellowship for Other Backward Classes (NFOBC) shall be governed by the
guidelines available on the official websites of the concerned Ministries and/or the
UGC.

5.3. Exemption (Eligibility for Assistant Professor)

(i) NET/SET/SLET shall remain the minimum eligibility condition for recruitment and
appointment of Assistant Professors in Universities/Colleges/ Institutions. In this
regard, exemption from NET/SET/SLET will be governed by UGC regulations and
amendments notified in the Gazette of India from time to time.
(ii) The candidates who have passed the UGC/CSIR/ JRF examination prior to 1989
are also exempted from appearing in NET.
(iii) For SET Candidates: The candidates who have cleared the States Eligibility Test
(SET) accredited by UGC for Assistant Professor held prior to 1st June 2002, are
exempted from appearing in NET, and are eligible to apply for Assistant Professor
anywhere in India. For SET held from 1st June 2002 onwards, the qualified
candidates are eligible to apply for the post of Assistant Professor only in the
universities/colleges situated in the State from where they have cleared their SET.
 5.4. Age Limit and Relaxation
(i) JRF: Not more than 30 years as on 1st day of the month in which the
examination is concluded i.e. 01.02.2023.
A relaxation of upto 5 years is provided to the candidates belonging to OBC-NCL
(as per the Central list of OBC available on website: www.ncbc.nic.in)
/SC/ST/PwD/Third gender categories and to women applicants. Relaxation will
also be provided to the candidates with research experience, limited to the period
spent on research in the relevant / related subject of post-graduation degree,
subject to a maximum of 5 years, on production of a certificate from appropriate
authority, which should be a recognized Indian university / Institute of National
Importance / foreign university which is duly approved / recognized / accredited
in its own Country / Public Sector Undertaking of Government of India / State
Government in India. The research should not have been carried out towards
completion of graduation or post-graduation degree(s). Three years relaxation in
age will be permissible to the candidates with L.L.M. degree. A relaxation of upto
5 years is provided to the candidates who have served in the armed forces
subject to the length of service in the armed forces upto the first day of the month
in which the concerned UGC-NET is, conducted, i.e., 01.12.2023. Total age
relaxation on the above ground(s) shall not exceed five years under any
circumstances.
(i) Assistant Professor: There is no upper age limit in applying for UGC-NET for
Assistant Professor.

6. Reservations
6.1. Reservation Policy of the Government of India is applicable to UGC-NET According to
this, in the Central Universities and Institutions which are deemed to be Universities, the
reservation of seats shall be as follows:
i. 15% of the seats for Scheduled Caste (SC) candidates.
ii. 7.5% of seats Scheduled Tribe (ST) candidates.
iii. 27% of the seats for Other Backward Classes (OBC) Non-Creamy Layer (NCL)
candidates as per the Central List*
iv. 10% of the seats for General-Economically Weaker Sections (General- EWS)
candidates.
v. 05% of the seats in the above mentioned categories for Persons with Disabilities
(PwD) with 40% or more disability shall be reserved horizontally’ (Note:- The
percentage has been increased from 4% to 5 %, vide Decision dated 05.04.2022
of the Commissioner under Section 32 of the Rights of Persons with Disabilities
Act, 2016).
Notes:
The benefit of reservation for admission to Central Educational Institutions (CEIs) shall be
given only to those classes/castes/tribes which are in the respective CentralList published
by the Government of India from time to time.
Other Backward Classes - Non-Creamy Layer (OBC–NCL) are as per the Central listof
Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward Classes(NCBC),
Government of India website www.ncbc.nic.in Thus, the candidates falling inthis list may
mention OBC in the Category Column. State list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-
NCL (Central List) must not choose OBC-NCL.
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) - This provision would be regulated as per theOM
No. 20013/01/2018-BC-II dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of SocialJustice
and Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the Letters
No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and 15.02.2019 of MHRD
Department of Higher Education regarding implementation of reservation for Economically
Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions (CEIs).
7. Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD)
7.1. (a) Guidelines for conducting written examination for Persons with
Benchmark Disabilities above 40% vide letter dated 29 August 2018
from Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
Provisions relating to Persons with Disability (PwD):
As per Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, “Persons with Disability (PwD)” means a person with
long-term physical, mental, intellectual, or sensory impairment which, in interaction with
barriers, hinders his full and effective participation in society equally with others.

According to Section 2(r) of the RPwD Act, 2016, “persons with benchmark disabilities”
means a person with not less than forty percent (40%) of a specified disability where
specified disability has not been defined in measurable terms and includes a person with
disability where specified disability has been defined in measurable terms, as certified by
the certifying authority.
Facilities for PwD candidates to appear in the exam
As per the guidelines issued by the Department of Empowerment of Persons with
Disabilities (Divyangjan) under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment issued from
time to time on the subject: “Written Examination for Persons with Benchmark Disabilities”,
for the candidate with one of the benchmark disabilities [as defined in Section 2(r) of RPwD
Act, 2016], holding a Disability Certificate in the prescribed format in the Rights of Person
with Disabilities Rules ,2017
(https://upload.indiacode.nic.in/showfile?actid=AC_CEN_25_54_00002_201649_151780732
8299&type=rule&filename=Rules_notified_15.06.pdf ).
a. The facility of Scribe, in case he/she has a physical limitation and a scribe is essential
to write the examination on his/her behalf, being so certified in the aforesaid format by
a CMO/Civil Surgeon/ Medical Superintendent of a Government Health Care
Institution.
b. Compensatory time of one hour for examination of three hours duration, whether such
candidate uses the facility of Scribe or not.
Services of a Scribe
As per the office memorandum of the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
(Reference: F.No. 34-02/2015-DD-III dated August 29, 2018), the PwD candidates who are
visually OR dyslexic (severe) impaired OR have a disability in the upper limbs OR have lost
fingers/hands thereby preventing them from properly operating the Computer Based Test
platform may avail the services of a scribe (amanuensis).

The scribe will help the Candidate in reading the questions and/or keying in the answers as
per the directions of the Candidate. A scribe will NEITHER explain the questions NOR
suggest any solutions.

PwD candidates who desire to avail the services of a scribe need to opt for this during the
online registration of UGC NET December-2022. Annexure II

It is to be noted that the Scribe may be provided by the National Testing Agency (NTA), if
requested in the Application Form.

If it is found at any stage that a candidate has availed the services of a scribe and/or availed
the compensatory time, but does not possess the extent of disability that warrants the use
of a scribe and/or grant of compensatory time, the candidate will be excluded from the
process of evaluation. In case such a candidate has already been issued certificate or award
letter, the candidature of the candidate will be cancelled.
The NTA does not guarantee any change in the category or sub-category (PwD status)
after the submission of the Online Application Form, and in any case, no change will be
entertained by NTA after the declaration of NTA Score for UGC NET December-2022.
The category/sub-category (PwD status) entered in the UGC NET December 2022 will
be considered final. Therefore, the candidates are advised to fill in the category/sub-
category column very carefully.
 Note:
a. The minimum degree of disability should be 40% (Benchmark Disability) in order to be
eligible for availing reservation for persons with specified disability.
b. The extent of “specified disability” in a person shall be assessed in accordance with
the “Guidelines for the purpose of assessing the extent of specified disability in a
person included under the Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, 2016 (49 of 2016)”
notified in the Gazette of India by the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment
[Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities (Divyangjan)] on 4 January
2018.
c. No change in the category will be entertained after the last date specified by NTA for
UGC NET December-2022 Registration.

Candidates must note that the benefit of reservation will be given to them subject to verification
of documents. If it is discovered at any stage that a candidate has used a false/fake/incorrect
document, or has furnished false, incorrect, or incomplete information, in order to avail the
benefit of reservation, then, Such a Candidates shall be excluded from all admission processes.
In can such a candidates has already been given admission, the admission shall stand
cancelled.

7.1 (b) Guidelines for conducting written examination for persons with specified
disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s) of the RPwD Act,
2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the said Act,
i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in writing
I. These guidelines may be called as Guidelines for conducting written examination
for persons with specified disabilities covered under the definition of Section 2(s)
of the RPwD Act, 2016 but not covered under the definition of Section 2(r) of the
said Act, i.e. persons having less than 40% disability and having difficulty in
writing.
II. The facility of scribe and/or compensatory time shall be granted solely to those
having difficulty in writing subject to production of a certificate to the effect that
person concerned has limitation to write and that scribe is essential to write
examination on his/her behalf from the competent medical authority of a
Government healthcare institution as per proforma at Annexure-I.
III. The medical authority for the purpose of certification as mentioned in point (II)
above should be a multi-member authority comprising the following:-
a) Chief Medical officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical
Officer.....Chairperson
b) Orthopaedic/PMR specialist
c) Neurologist, if available*
d) Clinical Psychologist/Rehabilitation Psychologist/ Psychiatrist/Special
Educator
e) Occupational therapist, if available*
f) Any other expert based on the condition of the candidate as may be nominated
by the Chairperson. (* the Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District
Medical Officer may make full efforts for inclusion of neurologists, occupational
therapist from the nearest District or the Medical College/Institute, if the same
is not available in the District)"
g) Compensatory time not less than 20 minutes per hour of the examination
should be allowed for persons who are eligible for getting scribe. In case the
duration of the examination is less than an hour, then the duration of the
compensatory time should be allowed on pro-rata basis. Compensatory time
should not be less than 5 minutes and should be in the multiple of 5.
8. Registration and Application Process

Instructions for filling Online Application Form

8.1. Candidates have to apply for UGC NET December 2022 “Online” ONLY by accessing the
website: https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in/ . The Application Form other than online mode would
not be accepted in any case. Only one application is to be submitted by a candidate. More
than one application i.e. multiple Application Forms submitted by a candidate will be
rejected.

8.2. It is suggested that the candidate should keep the following ready before starting the filling
of the Application Form:

Before beginning the process of filling the Online Application Form, read Information Bulletin
carefully, keep ready required documents and follow the following instructions:

Copy of Board/ University Certificate for Candidate’s Name, Mother’s Name,

Father’s Name and Date of Birth

Type of Identification – Bank A/c passbook with photograph/ Passport Number/ Ration
Card/ Aadhaar Card Number/Voter ID Card Number/ Other Govt ID
Qualifying Degree Certificate or last semester marks sheet
Your Mailing Address as well as Permanent Address with Pin Code (Refer Appendix- VI
for State Code)
Four cities for Centres of your choice (Refer Appendix-III for Codes)
Code of NET Subject (Refer Appendix-II for Code)
Code of subject at Post Graduation level (Refer Appendix-IV for Code)
Code of Post-Graduation Course (Refer Appendix-V for Code)
Category Certificate, if applicable
Economically Weaker Section (EWS) Certificate, if applicable
Person with Disability (PwD) Certificate, if applicable
e-mail address and Mobile Number of candidate
Scanned images in JPG/JPEG format only:

8.3. Information Bulletin should be downloaded and read carefully by the candidate to be sure
about his/her eligibility and acquaint themselves with requirements for submission of Online
Application Form.
8.4. In order to avoid correction in the particulars in later stage, the candidate should exercise
utmost caution while filling up correct details.
8.5. Following Steps may be followed to Apply Online:
Step-1: Apply for Online Registration using own Email Id and Mobile No.
Step-2: Fill in the Online Application Form and note down the system generated Application
Number. Upload scanned images of: (i) the recent photograph (file size 10Kb –
200Kb) either in colour or black & white with 80% face (without mask) visible
including ears against white background; (ii) candidate’s signature (file size: 4kb -
30kb)
Step-3: Pay fee using SBI/ CANARA/ ICICI/ HDFC Bank/Debit Card/Credit Card/UPI and
keep proof of fee paid.
All the 3 Steps can be done together or at separate timings. The submission of
Application of a candidate could be considered as successful and his/her
candidature would be confirmed only on the successful transaction/receipt of the
prescribed application fee from him/her.
 Note:

(i) The final submission of Online Application Form will remain incomplete if Step
- 2 and Step-3 are not completed, such Application Forms will stand rejected
and no correspondence on this account will be entertained.
(ii) No request for refund of fee once remitted by the candidate will be
entertained.
(iii) The entire application process of UGC-NET December 2022 is online,
including uploading of scanned images, Payment of Fees and Printing of
Confirmation page. Therefore, candidates are not required to send/submit
any document(s) including Confirmation page to NTA through Post/Fax/By
Hand/E-mail.
(iv) Candidates are advised to keep visiting the NTA’s website regularly for latest
updates and to check their e-mails.
(v) The NTA can make use of the data generated for the purpose of research
and analysis.
(vi) All the candidates who have submitted the online application and paid the
Examination fee till last date will be allowed to appear in UGC-NET December
2022 and their Admit Cards will be uploaded on the website as per schedule.
(vii) NTA does not verify the information filled by the candidates in the Application
Form nor verifies any certificate of category/educational qualification for
deciding the eligibility of candidates.
(viii) The certificates of educational qualification and category (if applied under
reserved category) will be verified by the concerned institution. The
candidates are, therefore, advised to ensure their eligibility and the category
(if applying under reserved category).
(ix) The NTA will, in no way, be responsible for any wrong/incorrect information
furnished by the candidate(s) in his/her Online Application Form. The
letter/emails/WhatsApp Message/Public Grievance in this regard will not be
entertained by the NTA.

8.6. Procedure for Filling Application Form

Part I: Registration Page
Fill in the basic information and note down the system generated
Application No.
(i) Candidate’s Name/ Mother’s Name/ Father’s Name as given in the Senior
Secondary School Examination or equivalent Board/ University Certificate in
capital letters
(ii) Date of Birth in dd/mm/yyyy format as recorded in Secondary School
Examination or equivalent Board/ University certificate.
(iii) Mobile Number and e-mail Address - Candidates must provide own Mobile
Number and e-mail address.
Note: Only one registered e-mail address and one Mobile Number are valid for
correspondence.

PART II: Fill in the complete Application Form

Fill in the complete Application

Note:
i. Other Backward Classes (OBC) - Non Creamy Layer as per the Central List of
Other Backward Classes available on National Commission for Backward
Classes (NCBC), Government of India website (www.ncbc.nic.in). Thus, the
candidates falling in this list may mention OBC in the Category Column. State
list OBC Candidates who are not in OBC-NCL (Central List) must choose
General.
 ii. Economically Weaker Section (EWS) - As per the OM No. 20013/01/2019-BC-II
dated January 17, 2019 issued by the Ministry of Social Justice and
Empowerment and the OM No. 12-4/2019-U1 dated 17.01.2019 as well as the
Letters No 35-2/2019-T.S.I dated 21.01.2019, 01.02.2019, 04.02.2019 and
15.02.2019 of MHRD Department of Higher Education (which is now known as
Ministry of Education) regarding implementation of reservation for Economically
Weaker Section (EWS) for admission in Central Educational Institutions.
iii. Provide complete postal address with PIN Code (Correspondence Address as
well as Permanent Address) for further correspondence. PIN code of
Correspondence Address should be given in the space provided for this
purpose.
Note: The NTA shall not be responsible for any delay/loss in postal transit or
for an incorrect Correspondence address given by the Applicant in the
Application Form.
Choice of Cities for Examination Centres: The City of Examination Centres where the
test shall be conducted are given at Appendix-III. It is mandatory for candidates to
select four cities of their choice while filling Online Application Form of UGC NET
December 2022. Effort will be made to allot Centre of Examination to the candidates
in order of the City choice opted by them in their Application Form. However, due to
administrative reasons, a different city of nearby area may be allotted.

Uploading of scanned images

(i) Candidate’s Photograph: to be uploaded

• Photograph should not be with cap or goggles. Photograph should cover 80%
face (without mask) visible including ears against white background.
• Spectacles are allowed if being used regularly.
• Polaroid and Computer generated photos are not acceptable.
• Applications not complying with these instructions or with unclear
photographs are liable to be rejected.
• Candidates may please note that if it is found that photograph uploaded is
fabricated i.e. de- shaped or seems to be hand-made or computer made, the
form of the candidate will be rejected and the same would be considered as
using unfairmeans and the candidate would be dealt with accordingly.
• Application without photograph shall be rejected. The photograph need not
be attested. Candidates are advised to take 6 to 8 passport size colored
photographs with white background.
 Note: Passport size photograph is to be used for uploading on Online
Application Form and also for pasting on Attendance Sheet at the
Examination centre.
The candidate should scan his/her passport size photograph for
uploading. File size must be between 10 kb to 200 kb.

(ii) Candidate’s Signature : to be uploaded

The candidates are required to upload the full signature in running hand writing in the
appropriate box given in the Online Application Form. Writing full name in the Box
in Capital letters would not be accepted as signature and the Application Form
would be rejected. Further, unsigned Online Application Forms will also be rejected.
The candidate should put his full signature on white paper with Blue/Black Ink pen and
scan for uploading.

File size must be between 04 kb to 30 kb.

Note: Candidate must ensure that the uploaded images are clear and proper.
8.7. Check List for filling the Online Application Form:
The candidates are advised to ensure the following points before filling the Online
Application Forms:
(i) Whether they fulfill the eligibility conditions for the Test as prescribed under
the heading ‘Conditions of Eligibility’.
(ii) That they have filled their gender and category viz General/OBC (Non-
Creamy Layer)/SC/ ST/Gen-EWS/ Male/Female/Third gender, in the
relevant column correctly.
(iii) That they have filled their Subject and City of Examination in the relevant
column correctly.
(iv) That the Person with Disability (PwD) candidate has filled the relevant
column in the Online Application Form. Only PwD candidates have to fill
this column and the others have to leave it blank.
(v) Whether they have kept a Printout of Application Form (confirmation page)
for their own record.

8.8. Important Points to Note:

i. The Candidates should fill their complete postal address with PIN Code
for further correspondence.
ii. The Candidate must ensure that e-mail address and Mobile Number
provided in the Online Application Form are their own (which cannot be
changed later) as communication may be sent by NTA through e-mail or
SMS.
iii. The Candidate should not give the postal address, Mobile Number or e-
mail ID of Coaching Centre in the Online Application Form.
iv. In order to appear in UGC-NET December 2022, the candidates are
required to apply ‘online’. The Application Form other than online mode
shall not be accepted. No change will be accepted through offline mode
i.e. through fax/application including e-mail etc.
v. Online submission of application may be done by accessing the NTA
official website: ugcnet.nta.nic.in.
vi. Online Application Form cannot be withdrawn once it is submitted
successfully.
vii. Application Form of candidates who do not fulfill the eligibility criteria shall
be rejected.
viii. A candidate is allowed to submit only one Application Form. If a candidate
submits more than one Application Form, the candidature is likely to be
cancelled.
ix. Request for change in any particular in the Application Form shall not be
entertained after closing of the correction window.

Note: However, a chance will be given to the candidates to

correct/modify/edit some of the particular(s) of the Application Form
online only, after submission of Application Form. Candidates are
advised to keep visiting the NTA website regularly for any updates.
x. The City of Examination Centres where the test shall be conducted are
given in the Information Bulletin. The Cities indicated for the entrance
Examination should be carefully chosen by the candidate, as no change
will be allowed once application is submitted.
 xi. Selection of a candidate in the test is provisional, subject to being found
otherwise eligible for admission.
xii. In case a candidate is found providing incorrect information or the identity
is proved to be false at any time in the future, the candidate shall face
penal action as per the law.
xiii. The Candidates are not required to send/ submit the confirmation page of
Online Application Form to the NTA. However, he/she is advised to retain
the following documents with them as reference for future
correspondence:

 At least four printouts of the Confirmation Page of Online Application

Form.
 Proof of fee paid
 Photographs (same as uploaded on the Online Application Form) –6
to 8 passport size photographs need to be kept aside.
 The name on the photo identification must match with the name as
shown on the Admit Card. If the name has been changed due to events
such as marriage, candidate must show the relevant document at the
time of exam. Marriage Certificate / Divorce / Decree / Legal Name
Change Document.

8.9. Provision of Aadhaar:

The Aadhaar number is only one of the types of identification and is not mandatory.
Candidates may also enter Passport number, Ration Card number, Election Card
(EPIC No.), Bank Account number or any other valid Government identity number.

9. Admit Card for UGC NET December 2022

9.1 The Admit Card would be issued provisionally to the candidates of UGC NET December
2022, subject to fulfilment of eligibility criteria.
9.2 The candidate has to download the Admit Card from the NTA website and appear for the
Examination at the given Centre on date, shift, time and discipline as indicated in his/her
Admit Card.
9.3 No candidate will be allowed to appear at the examination centre, on Date and Timings
other than that allotted to them in their Admit card.
9.4 In case a candidate is unable to download Admit Card from the website, he/she may
approach the Help Line of NTA between 09:30 am to 5:30 pm or write to NTA at:
[email protected]
9.5 The candidates are advised to read the Instructions given in the Admit Card carefully in
advance of the exam day and follow them during the conduct of the examination.
9.6 In case of any discrepancy in the particulars of the candidate or his/her photograph and
signatures shown in the Admit Card and Confirmation Page, the candidate may
immediately approach the Help Line between 09:30 am to 5:30 pm. In such cases,
candidates would appear in the Examination with the already downloaded Admit Card.
However, NTA will take necessary action to make correction in the record later.
 Note:

Candidate may please note that Admit Cards will not be sent by post.
In no case, the duplicate Admit Card for UGC-NET December 2022 would be issued at
the Examination Centre(s).
Candidate must not mutilate the Admit Card or change any entry made therein.
Candidates are advised to preserve their Admit Cards in good condition for future
reference.
No Admit Card shall be issued to the candidates whose Applications are found to be
incomplete for any reasons (including indistinct/ doubtful photographs/unsigned
Applications) or who do not fulfil the eligibility criteria for the examination.
Issue of Admit Cards, however, shall not necessarily mean acceptance of eligibility
which shallbe further scrutinized at subsequent stages of admission process.

9.7 Conduct of Exam

Candidates are advised to go through the instructions given in the Admit Cardcarefully
before going for the Examination.

9.7.1 Documents to be brought to the Examination Centre

 Candidates must bring the following documents to the Test Centre

 Printed copy of Admit Card downloaded from NTA website.
 One passport size photograph (same as uploaded on the Online Application
Form) for pasting on the specific space in the Attendance Sheet at Centre
during the Examination. Any one of the authorized photo IDs (must be original,
valid andnon- expired) – PAN card/ Driving License/ Voter ID/ Passport/
Aadhaar Card (With photograph)/ Aadhaar Enrolment No/ Ration Card). The
name on the photo identification must match with the name as shown on the
Admit Card.
If the name has been changed due to events such as marriage, candidate must show
the relevant document at the time of exam. Marriage Certificate/ Divorce/ Decree/
Legal Name Change Document.

 PwD certificate issued by the Competent Authority, if claiming the relaxation under
PwD category.

9.7.2 Reporting Time and other Important Instructions

i. The candidates shall report at the Examination Centre two hours before the
commencement of the examination so as to complete the frisking and registration
formalities well before time. Registration desk will be closed 30 minutes prior to
the examination.
ii. Candidates shall not be permitted to enter in the Examination Centre after 8.30
am in First Shift and after 2.30 pm in Second Shift.
iii. Candidates are also advised to report at the Examination Hall/Room in the
Examination Centre by 8.45 am in the First Shift and by 2.45 pm in the Second
Shift.
iv. The candidates are advised to read the instructions on the Admit Card carefully
and follow them during the conduct of the examination.
v. Candidates should take their seat immediately after opening of the Examination
Hall. If the candidates do not report in time due to any reason i.e. traffic jam,
train/bus delay etc, they are likely to miss some of the general instructions to be
announced in the Examination Rooms/Halls. The NTA shall not be responsible for
any delay.
 vi. The candidate must show, on demand, the Admit Card downloaded/printed from
the NTA website for admission in the examination room/hall. The Test Centre
Staff on duty is authorized to verify the identity of candidates and may take steps
to verify and confirm the identify credentials. Candidates are requested to extend
their full cooperation. A candidate who does not possess the valid Admit Card
shall not be permitted for the examination under any circumstances by the Centre
Superintendent.
vii. A seat indicating Roll Number will be allotted to each candidate. Candidates
should find and sit on their allocated seat only. In case of a candidate who
changes room/hall or the seat on his/her own other than the one allotted,
candidature shall be cancelled and no plea would be accepted for it.
viii. The candidate should ensure that the question paper available on the computer
is as per his/her opted subject indicated in the Admit Card. In case, the subject
of question paper is other than his/her opted subject, the same may be brought
to the notice of the Invigilator concerned.
ix. Candidate may approach the Centre Superintendent/Invigilator in the room for
any technical assistance, first aid emergency or any other information during the
course of examination. For any queries or issues regarding Computer Based Test,
the candidates may contact on Helpline Numbers available on UGC NET website.
x. For those who are unable to appear on the scheduled date of test for any reason,
re-test shall not be held by the NTA under any circumstances.

10. Computer Based Test (CBT) Guidelines

The CBT Guidelines are provided at Appendix-VII. Please read them carefully and
practice the same with Mock Test through: https://www.nta.ac.in/Quiz

11. Unfair Means Practices and Breach of Examination Rules

Definition: Unfair Means Practice is an activity that allows a candidate to gain an unfair
advantage over other candidates. It includes, but is not limited to:

a) Being in possession of any item or article which has been prohibited or can be used
for Unfair Practices including any stationery item, communication device,
accessories, eatable items, ornaments or any other material or information relevant
or not relevant to the Examination in the paper concerned;
b) Using someone to write Examination (impersonation) or preparing material for
copying;
c) Breaching Examination rules or any direction issued by NTA in connection with UGC
NET examination;
d) Assisting other candidate to engage in malpractices, giving or receiving assistance
directly or indirectly of any kind or attempting to do so;
e) Writing questions or answers on any material given by the Centre Superintendent for
writing answers;
f) Contacting or communicating or trying to do so with any person, other than the
Examination Staff, during the Examination time in the Examination Centre;
g) Threatening any of the officials connected with the conduct of the Examination or
threatening any of the candidates;
h) Using or attempting to use any other undesirable method or means in connection
with the examination;
i) Manipulation and fabrication of online documents viz. Admit Card, Rank Letter, Self-
Declaration, etc.;
j) Forceful entry in /exit from Examination Centre/Hall;
k) Use or attempted use of any electronic device after entering the Examination Centre;
l) Affixing/uploading of wrong/morphed photographs/signatures on the Application
Form/Admit Card/Performa;
 m) Creating obstacles in smooth and fair conduct of examination;
n) Any other malpractices declared as Unfair Means by the NTA.

Disclaimer- The decision of NTA shall be final and binding for declaration of any person /
candidate guilty of foregoing or such offence as shall be classified as Unfair Means Case
(UMC).

12. Display of Provisional Answer Key for Challenges

12.1. The NTA will display Provisional Answer Key of the questions on the NTA website
ugcnet.nta.nic.in to provide an opportunity to the candidates to challenge the
Provisional Answer Key. The Answer Keys are likely to be displayed for two to
three days.
12.2. The Candidates will be given an opportunity to make a challenge online against
the Provisional Answer Key on payment of Rs. 200/- per question challenged as a
non-refundable processing fee.
12.3. Key Challenge procedure- Only paid challenges made during stipulated time
through key challenge link will be considered. Challenges without justification/
evidence and those filed on any other medium other than the prescribed link will
not be considered.
12.4. The NTA decision on the challenges shall be final and the result will be declared
on the basis of final answer keys.

13. Display of Recorded Responses

The NTA will display the Question Paper and attempted recorded responses by the candidates
on the NTA website ugcnet.nta.nic.in prior to declaration of result. The Question paper attempted
and recorded responses are likely to be displayed for two to three days.

14. Procedure and Criteria for declaration of result

14.1. The following steps will be followed:

Step I: The number of candidates to be qualified (total slots or Eligibility for Assistant
Professor) shall be equal to 6% of the candidates appearedin both the papers of
NET.

Step II: The total slots shall be allocated to different categories as per the reservation
policy of Government of India.

Step III: In order to be considered for ‘JRF and Eligibility for Assistant Professor’ and
for ‘Assistant Professor’, the candidate must haveappeared in both the papers
and secured at least 40% aggregate marks in both the papers taken together for
General (Unreserved) / General-EWS category candidates and at least 35%
aggregate marks in both the papers taken together for all candidates belonging
to the reserved categories (viz., SC, ST, OBC (belonging to Non- Creamy Layer),
PwD and Third gender).
Step IV: The number of candidates to be declared qualified in any subject for a particular
category is derived as per the methodology illustrated below:

Example: Number of candidates belonging to SC

Number of candidates to be declared category who secure at least 35% aggregate
qualified for Eligibility for Assistant marks in both the papers taken together for
Professor in the subject ‘Economics’ for SC category for ‘Economics’ (x) Total slots
the Scheduled Caste (SC)category derived for SC category as per Step II (÷)
Total number of candidates belonging to SC
category over all subjects who secure atleast
35% aggregate marks in both the Papers
taken together.
 The aggregate percentage of the two papers corresponding to the number of slots arrived
at, shall determine the qualifying cut-off for Eligibility for Assistant Professor ‘in
‘Economics’ for the SC category.
Similar yardstick shall be employed for deriving the subject-wise qualifying cut- offs for all
categories.
Step V: All candidates who had applied for ‘Eligibility for JRF & Eligibility for Assistant
Professor both’ out of the total number of qualified candidates derived as per
Step IV, shall constitute the considerationzone for JRF.
Step VI: The total number of slots available for awarding JRF is allocated among different
categories as per the reservation policy of Government of India. The procedure
for subject wise cum category-wise allocation of JRF slots is illustrated below:

Number of candidates belonging to ST category who

Example: have opted for JRF and have qualified for Eligibility
Number of candidates to be declared for Assistant Professor in thesubject ‘Economics’ (x)
qualified for JRF & Eligibility for Assistant Total JRF slots available for ST category (÷) Total
Professorboth in the subject ‘Economics’ number of candidates belonging to ST category over
forthe Scheduled Tribe (ST) category all subjects who have opted for JRF and have
Qualified for Eligibility for Assistant Professor.

The aggregate percentage of the two paper scores corresponding to the number of JRF
slots arrived at, shall determine the qualifying cut-off for JRF in ‘Economics’ for the ST
category.
Similar procedure is used for all subjects and categories.
It may be noted that the above qualifying criteria decided by UGC is final and binding.
Result of the examination shall be hosted on NTA website https://ugcnet.nta.nic.in/ . The
candidates will not be individually intimated about their result.

15. Normalization procedure (Appendix – XI):

a) For multi-shift papers, raw marks obtained by the candidates in different
shifts/sessions will be converted to NTA Score (percentile).
b) The detailed procedure on NTA Score being adopted is available on NTA website
under Normalization procedure based on Percentile Score.
c) In case a subject test is conducted in multi-shifts, NTA Score will be calculated
corresponding to the raw marks obtained by a candidate. The calculated NTA Score
for the Raw Marks for all the shifts/sessions will be merged for further processing
for deciding the allocation.
d) In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the
lowest will be the eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In the examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to
a Percentile score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above
78 percentiles (Percentile score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in
General Category. Similar method will be adopted for the other categories to
determine eligibility cut-offs. In case the examination is held in a greater number of
shifts the same principle shall apply.

16. Re-Evaluation/Re-Checking of result

There shall be no re-evaluation/re-checking of result. No correspondence in this regard shall
be entertained.
17. Test Practice Centres (TPCs)
As per the guidelines of the Ministry of Education, NTA has set up, established and created a
network of Test Practice Centres for candidates, especially in remote and rural areas to enable
them to practice and be comfortable in taking a Computer Based Test (CBT). Details mentioned
in the APPENDIX-IX.

18. Common Services Centres/Facilitation Centres

Candidates, who are not well conversant with the processes of submitting the online application
due to various constraints, can use the services of Common Services Centre, Ministry of
Electronics and Information Technology, Government of India under the Digital India initiatives
of Hon’ble Prime Minister. The Common Services Centre (CSC) scheme is a part of the
ambitious National e – Governance Plan (NeGP) of Government of India and is managed at
each village panchayat level by a Village level Entrepreneur (VLE).

There are more than 1.5 lakhs Common Services Centres (CSC) across the country which will
provide the desired support to candidates from urban as well as rural areas in online submission
of Application Form and payment of fee through he-wallet. The list of the Common Services
Centre is available on website: www.csc.gov.in. Detailed information is given at APPENDIX -
X.

19. Query Redressal System

National Testing Agency (NTA) has established a Query Redressal System (QRS), an online
web-enabled system developed by NTA. QRS is the platform based on web technology which
primarily aims to enable submission of queries/grievances by the Registered Candidate(s) of
UGC NET December 2022 Examination with (24x7) facility for speedy redressal of the
queries/grievances. A Unique Registration Number will be generated for tracking the status of
the queries/grievances.

The Registered Candidate(s) are advised to use the online facility for speedy response before
mailing their queries on the official email id of UGC-NET December 2022. i.e.
[email protected].

a. Correspondence with NTA

All the correspondence should be addressed by e-mail to NTA on [email protected] .The email
query shall be addressed only if it is not anonymous and contains the name,
Registration/Application No, postal address and contact number of the sender. An email
containing vague or general queries and other queries as contained in the Information Bulletin
shall not be entertained. Queries shall not be entertained from person claiming to be
representatives, associates or officiates of the applicant candidate. The following information
shall not be revealed by phone or email:
a. Internal documentation/status.
b. Internal decision making process of NTA. Any claim/counter claim thereof.
c. Dates & venue of internal meetings or name of the staff/officers dealing with it.
d. Any information which in the opinion of NTA cannot be revealed.
20. NTA Weeding Out Rules

The record of UGC NET December 2022 will be preserved upto 90 days from the date of
declaration of result.

21. Legal Jurisdiction

All disputes pertaining to the conduct of UGC NET December 2022. Examinations including
Results shall fall within the jurisdiction of Delhi/New Delhi only. Further, any legal question
arising out of the Examination shall be entertained only when raised within 30 days from the
declaration of result.

The Director (Administration) of the NTA shall be the official by whose designation the NTA
may sue or be sued.
 ANNEXURE - I
Certificate for persons with a disability under RPwD Act, 2016 having less than
40% disability

This is to certify that, we have examined Mr/Ms/Mrs …………. (name of the candidate), S/o /D/o
……………………, a resident of………………(Vill/PO/PS/District/State), aged …………….. yrs, a
person with ……………………. (nature of disability/condition), and to state that he/she has limitation
which hampers his/her writing capability owing to his/her above condition. He/she requires support
of scribe for writing the examination.

The above candidate uses aids and assistive device such as prosthetics & orthotics, hearing aid
(name to be specified) which is /are essential for the candidate to appear at the examination with
the assistance of scribe.

This certificate is issued only for the purpose of appearing in written examinations conducted by
recruitment agencies as well as academic institutions and is valid upto __________ (it is valid for
maximum period of six months or less as may be certified by the medical authority)

Signature of medical authority

(Signature & (Signature & Name) (Signature & (Signature & (Signature &
Name) Name) Name) Name)

Orthopaedic / Clinical Psychologist/ Neurologist Occupational Other

PMR Rehabilitation (if therapist Expert, as
specialist Psychologist/Psychiatrist available) (if available) nominated
/ Special Educator by the
Chairperson
(if any)
(Signature & Name)

Chief Medical Officer/Civil Surgeon/Chief District Medical Officer………Chairperson

Name of Government Hospital/Health Care Centre with Seal

Place:

Date:
 ANNEXURE – II

Letter of Undertaking for Using Own Scribe

I __________________________, a candidate with_______________________(name of

the disability) appearing for the ___________________________(name of the examination)

bearing Application No. __________________at_____________________ (name of the

centre) in the District __________, ______________________________ (name of the

State). My qualification is ___________________________.

I do hereby state that_________________________________(name of the scribe) will

provide the service of scribe/reader/lab assistant for the undersigned for taking the

aforesaid examination.

I do hereby undertake that his qualification is _________________________________. In

case, subsequently, it is found that his qualification is not as declared by the undersigned

and is beyond my qualification, I shall forfeit my right to the admission and claims relating

thereto.

(Signature of the candidate with disability)

Place:
Date:
Photograph of Scribe

(Self-Attested Photograph)

Name of Scribe ID of the Scribe ID Number

 APPENDIX- I
Procedure for Online Payment of Fee and Helpline for Payment related Queries
1. Processing Charges and Goods and Service Taxes (GST) and Procedure for Payment
of Fee Mode of Payment of Fee/ Service Provider and Service/Processing charges &
GST
S. Mode of
ICICI BANK HDFC BANK CANARA BANK STATE BANK OF INDIA
No Payment
Canara SBI
ICICI NIL Charge HDFC NIL Charge NIL Charge
Net Bank Rs
1
Banking Other Other Other Other 5.00+GST
4.00 + GST 4.00 + GST 5.00 + GST
Banks Banks Banks Banks
Trans Transaction
action 0% upto Nil
upto Rs 2000/- 0
Rs %
Rupay Card
ICICI 2000/
HDFC or of Canara
Debit or -
2 Other Bank or Nil Charge
Cards Other Trans 0.5 % + Transaction
Banks Other
Banks action GST above 0
Banks
above Rs 2000/- %
Rs
2000/
-
0.80% +
Dom 0.40%of 0.80% +
Domestic 0.40% + GST Domestic Domestic GST
estic Transaction value GST
3.50% of
Credit
3 International Fee+
Cards Intern
2.35%of Internatio 2.35% + GST
ation Nil Charge International
Transaction value nal GST (Minimu
al
m Rs
11/-)
Trans
action 0%
upto
Rs
Unified ICICI 2000/
Payment or - NIL Charge
4 Nil Charge NIL Charge
Interface other Trans 0%
(UPI) banks action + GST
above
Rs
2000/
-

Prescribed Examination Fee (please see the Information at a Glance) can be paid through any
Bank/Payment Gateway in any Payment Mode [service/processing charges per transaction &
GST applicable @ 18 % are to be paid by the candidate, except for payment made through debit
card (Visa/Master):

2. Helplines:
(a) If Paying through State Bank of India (SBI):
Level Name Email ID Contact Number
1 Helpdesk [email protected] 18004253800
2 Helpdesk3 [email protected] 08026599990
3 Customer [email protected] 1800112211
Care
4 Through SMS UNHAPPY (add text) 8008202020
 (b) If Paying through Canara Bank:
Level Name Email ID Contact No.
1 Help Desk [email protected] (022)61060524/ 8700098336/
/[email protected] / 7428206788/ 9535293631
[email protected]
2 Complaint [email protected] (022)61060524/ 8700098336 /
Management /[email protected] / 7428206788/ 9535293631
Services [email protected]

3 Customer [email protected] (022)61060524/ 8700098336 /

Care /[email protected] / 7428206788/ 9535293631
[email protected]

4 Through SMS --- (022)61060524/ 8700098336/

7428206788/ 9535293631

(c) If Paying through HDFC Bank:

Level Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Shri Vikram Singh [email protected] 9799810080

2. Amit Singh [email protected] 7428869770
3 Shri Ripon Bhattacharjee [email protected] 9625031697

(d) If Paying through ICICI Bank:

Level Name Email ID Contact Number

1 Vikas Dwivedi [email protected] 9599533577
2 Nitin Sharma [email protected] 9870101521

(e) NTA Helpdesk Contact details (incase the payment related issues are not
resolved through the above-mentioned Helplines of the concerned
Bank/Payment Gateway Integrator)

Email: [email protected].

Phone No.: 011-40759000

3. Procedure to raise payment related Grievance:

After (successful completion of all the Steps, Confirmation Page of the Application Form,
should be downloaded and a printout of the same may be retained for future reference. The
Confirmation Page of the online Application Form could be generated only after
successful payment by the Candidate.

In case the Confirmation Page is not generated after payment of prescribed Fee, then the
candidate should approach the concerned Bank/Payment Gateway integrator (in the
helpline number and email given in APPENDIX- I of the Information Bulletin), for ensuring
the successful payment.

Inspite of above, if successful transaction is not reflected on the Portal, the candidate may
contact NTA Helpline. If the payment issue is still not resolved, the candidate may pay
second time.
 However, any duplicate payment received from the candidate by NTA in course of said
transactions will be refunded through the same payment mode through which the duplicate
payment is received, after fee reconciliation by NTA.

4. Information to be provided by the Candidate while raising any payment related

query/grievance through QRS/email/Helplines: -

a. Name of the Bank and /or payment Gateway.

b. Date and time of the transaction
c. Transaction Number
d. Bank Reference Number
e. Proof of transaction
f. Screenshot from the payment portal (incase of payment failure)
 APPENDIX-II
List of Subjects and their Codes
Note: Syllabi for all NET Subjects can be downloaded from the
UGC website: https://www.ugcnetonline.in/syllabus-new.php

National Testing Agency will not send the syllabus to individual candidates.
S.No. Subject
Subject
Code
1 Adult Education/ Continuing Education/ Andragogy/ Non Formal Education. 46
2 Anthropology 07
3 Arab Culture and Islamic Studies 49
4 Arabic 29
5 Archaeology 67
6 Assamese 36
7 Bengali 19
8 Bodo 94
9 Buddhist, Jaina, Gandhian and Peace Studies 60
10 Chinese 32
11 Commerce 08
12 Comparative Literature 72
13 Comparative Study of Religions 62
14 Computer Science and Applications 87
15 Criminology 68
16 Defence and Strategic Studies 11
17 Dogri 33
Economics / Rural Economics /Co-operation / Demography / Development
18 Planning/ 01
Development Studies / Econometrics/ Applied Economics / Development Economics
/Business Economics
19 Education 09
20 Electronic Science 88
21 English 30
22 Environmental Sciences 89
23 Folk Literature 71
24 Forensic Science 82
25 French (French Version) 39
26 Geography 80
27 German 44
28 Gujarati 37
29 Hindi 20
30 Hindu Studies 102
31 History 06
32 Home Science 12
33 Human Rights and Duties 92
34 Indian Culture 50
35 ***Indian Knowledge System 103
36 Japanese 45
37 Kannada 21
38 Kashmiri 84
39 Konkani 85
Labour Welfare / Personnel Management / Industrial Relations/ Labour and
40 55
Social Welfare / Human Resource Management
41 Law 58
42 Library and Information Science 59
S. No. Subject Subject
Code
43 Linguistics 31
Maithili 18
44
45 Malayalam 22
46 Management (including Business Admn. Mgt./Marketing / Marketing Mgt. / Industrial
Relations and Personnel Mgt. / Personnel Mgt. / Financial Mgt. /Co-operative 17
Management)
47 Manipuri 35
48 Marathi 38
49 Mass Communication and Journalism 63
50 Museology & Conservation 66
51 Music 16
52 Nepali 34
53 Oriya 23
54 Pali 83
55 Performing Art - Dance/Drama/Theatre 65
56 Persian 42
57 Philosophy 03
Physical Education 47
58
59 Political Science 02
60 Politics including International Relations/International Studies including Defence /
Strategic Studies, West Asian Studies, South East Asian Studies, African Studies, South 90
Asian Studies, Soviet Studies, American Studies.
61 Population Studies 15
62 Prakrit 91
63 Psychology 04
64 Public Administration 14
65 Punjabi 24
66 Rajasthani 43
Russian 41
67
68 Sanskrit 25
69 Sanskrit traditional subjects (including Jyotisha/Sidhanta Jyotish/ Navya Vyakarna/
Vyakarna/ Mimansa/ Navya Nyaya/ Sankhya Yoga/ Tulanatmaka Darsan/ Shukla 73
Yajurveda/ Madhav Vedant/ Dharmasasta/ Sahitya/ Puranotihasa /Agama).
70 Santali 95
71 Sindhi 101
72 Social Medicine & Community Health 81
73 Social Work 10
74 Sociology 05
75 Spanish 40
76 Tamil 26
77 Telugu 27
78 Tourism Administration and Management. 93
79 Tribal and Regional Language/Literature 70
80 Urdu 28
81 Visual Art (including Drawing & Painting/Sculpture Graphics/Applied Art/History of Art) 79
82 Women Studies 74
83 Yoga 100
The candidates with Master’s Degree in Geography (with specialization in Population Studies) or
Mathematics/ Statistics are also eligible to appear in the subject “Population Studies” (Code 015).
‘**’ The candidates with Master’s Degree in Humanities (including languages) and Social Sciences
are eligible to appear in subject “Women Studies” (Code 074).
‘***’ ““Indian Knowledge System” (Subject code 103) has been introduced among the list of subjects
vide letter no. F.No.4-1/2018(NET/Policy) dated: 25.10.2022, received from NET Bureau of UGC w.e.f.
UGC-NET December 2022.
Note: General Paper on Teaching and Research Aptitude (Paper-I) is compulsory for all.
 APPENDIX- III
LIST OF EXAM CITIES for Centres of UGC-NET December 2022
Examination will be held at the following cities, provided there are sufficient numbers of candidates in
the city.
City
S. No. State District City
Code
Andaman & Nicobar
1 South Andaman Port Blair AN01
Islands (UT)
2 Andhra Pradesh Guntur Amaravathi AP24

3 Andhra Pradesh Anantapur Anantapur AP01

4 Andhra Pradesh West Godavari Bhimavaram AP03

5 Andhra Pradesh Prakasam Chirala AP04

6 Andhra Pradesh Chittoor Chittoor AP05

7 Andhra Pradesh West Godavari Eluru AP06

8 Andhra Pradesh Nellore Gudur AP26

9 Andhra Pradesh Guntur Guntur AP07

10 Andhra Pradesh Ysr Kadapa Kadapa AP08

11 Andhra Pradesh East Godavari Kakinada AP09

12 Andhra Pradesh Kurnool Kurnool AP10

13 Andhra Pradesh Machilipatnam Machilipatnam AP27

14 Andhra Pradesh Mangalagiri Mangalagiri AP28

15 Andhra Pradesh Kurnool Nandyal AP29

16 Andhra Pradesh Guntur Narasaraopet AP20

17 Andhra Pradesh Nellore Nellore AP11

18 Andhra Pradesh Prakasam Ongole AP12

19 Andhra Pradesh YSR Kadapa Proddatur AP21

20 Andhra Pradesh East Godavari Rajahmundry AP13

21 Andhra Pradesh Srikakulam Srikakulam AP14

22 Andhra Pradesh East Godavari Surampalem AP23

23 Andhra Pradesh West Godavari Tadepalligudem AP30

24 Andhra Pradesh West Godavari Tanuku AP31

25 Andhra Pradesh Chittoor Tirupathi AP16

26 Andhra Pradesh Krishna Vijayawada AP17

27 Andhra Pradesh Vishakapatnam Visakhapatnam AP18

28 Andhra Pradesh Vizianagaram Vizianagaram AP19

Itanagar/Naharlag
29 Arunachal Pradesh Papum Pare AL01
un
30 Assam Kamrup Metropolitan Guwahati AM02

31 Assam Jorhat Jorhat AM03

32 Assam Cachar Silchar(Assam) AM04

33 Assam Sonitpur Tezpur AM05

34 Bihar Araria Araria BR21

35 Bihar Bhojpur Arrah BR09

36 Bihar Arwal Arwal BR22

37 Bihar Aurangabad Aurangabad(Bihar) BR01
38 Bihar Banka Banka BR23

39 Bihar Begusarai Begusarai BR13

 City
S. No. State District City
Code
40 Bihar West Champaran Bettiah BR20

41 Bihar Kaimur Bhabua BR24

42 Bihar Bhagalpur Bhagalpur BR02

43 Bihar Darbhanga Darbhanga BR04

44 Bihar Gaya Gaya BR05

45 Bihar Gopalganj Gopalganj BR10

46 Bihar Vaishali Hajipur BR26

47 Bihar Jamui Jamui BR27

48 Bihar Katihar Katihar BR29

49 Bihar Khagaria Khagaria BR30

50 Bihar Madhepura Madhepura BR32

51 Bihar Madhubani Madhubani BR15

52 Bihar East Champaran Motihari BR14

53 Bihar Munger Munger BR33

54 Bihar Muzaffarpur Muzaffarpur BR06

55 Bihar Nalanda Nalanda BR11

56 Bihar Patna Patna BR07

57 Bihar Purnea Purnea BR08

58 Bihar Samastipur Samastipur BR12

59 Bihar Rohtas Sasaram BR17

60 Bihar Sitamarhi Sitamarhi BR18

61 Bihar Siwan Siwan BR19

62 Bihar Supaul Supaul BR36

63 Bihar Vaishali Vaishali BR37

Chandigarh/Mohali
64 Chandigarh (UT) Chandigarh CH01
/Panchkula
65 Chhattisgarh Sarguja Ambikapur CG04

66 Chhattisgarh Durg Bhilai Nagar/Durg CG01

Bilaspur(Chhattisg
67 Chhattisgarh Bilaspur CG02
arh)
68 Chhattisgarh Bastar Jagdalpur CG08

69 Chhattisgarh Korba Korba CG10

70 Chhattisgarh Raipur Raipur CG03

71 Dadra & Nagar Haveli (UT) Dadra & Nagar Haveli Silvassa DN01

72 Daman & Diu (UT) Daman Daman DD01

73 Daman & Diu (UT) Diu Diu DD02

74 Delhi Delhi Delhi/New Delhi DL01

75 Goa North Goa Ponda GO02

Ahmedabad/Gand
76 Gujarat Ahmedabad GJ01
hinagar
77 Gujarat Amreli Amreli GJ18

78 Gujarat Vallabhvidyanagar Anand GJ02

79 Gujarat Banaskantha Banaskantha GJ19

80 Gujarat Bhavnagar Bhavnagar GJ03

81 Gujarat Gandhidham Gandhidham GJ22

 City
S. No. State District City
Code
82 Gujarat Panchmahal Godhra GJ24

83 Gujarat Sabarkantha Himatnagar GJ14

84 Gujarat Jamnagar Jamnagar GJ06

85 Gujarat Junagadh Junagadh GJ07

86 Gujarat Navsari Navsari GJ15

87 Gujarat Porbandar Porbandar GJ29

88 Gujarat Rajkot Rajkot GJ10

89 Gujarat Surat Surat GJ11

90 Gujarat Surendranagar Surendranagar GJ30

91 Gujarat Vadodara Vadodara GJ12

92 Gujarat Valsad/Vapi Valsad/Vapi GJ13

93 Haryana Ambala Ambala HR01

94 Haryana Faridabad Faridabad HR03

95 Haryana Gurugram Gurugram HR04

96 Haryana Kurukshetra Kurukshetra HR07

97 Himachal Pradesh Chamba Chamba HP12

98 Himachal Pradesh Hamirpur Hamirpur (HP) HP03

99 Himachal Pradesh Kullu Kullu HP10

100 Himachal Pradesh Mandi Mandi HP08

101 Himachal Pradesh Shimla Shimla HP06

102 Himachal Pradesh Sirmaur Sirmaur HP11

103 Himachal Pradesh Una Una HP09

104 Jammu & Kashmir Anantnag Anantnag JK05

105 Jammu & Kashmir Baramulla Baramulla JK01

106 Jammu & Kashmir Jammu Jammu JK02

107 Jammu & Kashmir Pulwama Pulwama JK06

108 Jammu & Kashmir Srinagar Srinagar (J & K) JK04

109 Jammu & Kashmir Udhampur Udhampur JK10

110 Jharkhand Bokaro Steel City Bokaro JH01

111 Jharkhand West Singhbhum Chaibasa JH08

Deoghar
112 Jharkhand Deoghar JH10
(Jharkhand)
113 Jharkhand Dhanbad Dhanbad JH02

114 Jharkhand Dumka Dumka JH11

115 Jharkhand Hazaribagh Hazaribagh JH05

116 Jharkhand East Singhbhum Jamshedpur JH03

117 Jharkhand Koderma Koderma JH14

118 Jharkhand Ranchi Ranchi JH04

119 Karnataka Bagalkot Bagalkot KK19

120 Karnataka Ballari Ballari KK03

Belagavi
121 Karnataka Belagavi KK02
(Belgaum)
122 Karnataka Bengaluru- Rural Bengaluru KK04

123 Karnataka Bengaluru- Urban Bengaluru- Urban KK20

 City
S. No. State District City
Code
124 Karnataka Bidar Bidar KK05

125 Karnataka Chamarajnagar Chamarajnagar KK21

126 Karnataka Chikaballapur Chikaballapur KK22

127 Karnataka Chikmagalur Chikmagalur KK23

128 Karnataka Chitradurga Chitradurga KK24

129 Karnataka Davangere Davangere KK06

130 Karnataka Dharwad/Hubli Dharwad KK10

131 Karnataka Gadag Gadag KK25

Gulbarga/Kalaburg
132 Karnataka Kalaburagi KK08
i
133 Karnataka Hassan Hassan KK09

134 Karnataka Haveri District Haveri KK26

135 Karnataka Hubli Hubli KK27

136 Karnataka Uttara Kannada Karwar KK28

137 Karnataka Kodagu Kodagu KK29

138 Karnataka Kolar Kolar KK30

139 Karnataka Mandya Mandya KK18

Mangaluru
140 Karnataka Dakshina Kannada KK12
(Mangalore)
141 Karnataka Mysore Mysuru (Mysore) KK14

142 Karnataka Raichur Raichur KK32

143 Karnataka Ramanagara Ramanagara KK33

Shivamoga
144 Karnataka Shimoga KK15
(Shimoga)
145 Karnataka Tumkur Tumakuru KK16

146 Karnataka Udupi Udupi/Manipal KK17

147 Karnataka Yadgir Yadgir KK35

Alappuzha/Cheng
148 Kerala Alappuzha KL01
annur
149 Kerala Angamaly Angamaly KL20
Ernakulam/Moovat
150 Kerala Ernakulam KL04
tupuzha
151 Kerala Idukki Idukki KL05

152 Kerala Kannur Kannur KL07

153 Kerala Kasaragod Kasaragod KL08

154 Kerala Kollam Kollam KL09

155 Kerala Kottayam Kottayam KL11

156 Kerala Kozhikode Kozhikode/Calicut KL12

157 Kerala Malappuram Malappuram KL13

158 Kerala Palakkad Palakkad KL15

159 Kerala Pathanamthitta Pathanamthitta KL16

160 Kerala Kannur Piyyannur KL21

Thiruvananthapura
161 Kerala Thiruvananthapuram KL17
m
162 Kerala Thrissur Thrissur KL18

163 Kerala Wayanad Wayanad KL19

164 Lakshadweep Kavaratti Kavaratti LD01

165 Leh & Ladakh Leh Leh LL01

 City
S. No. State District City
Code
166 Madhya Pradesh Ashok Nagar Ashok Nagar MP21

167 Madhya Pradesh Balaghat Balaghat MP01

168 Madhya Pradesh Betul Betul MP02

169 Madhya Pradesh Bhind Bhind MP23

170 Madhya Pradesh Bhopal Bhopal MP03

171 Madhya Pradesh Chhatarpur Chhatarpur MP24

172 Madhya Pradesh Chhindwara Chhindwara MP05

173 Madhya Pradesh Damoh Damoh MP25

174 Madhya Pradesh Datia Datia MP26

175 Madhya Pradesh Dewas Dewas MP19

176 Madhya Pradesh Gwalior Gwalior MP06

177 Madhya Pradesh Hoshangabad Hoshangabad MP17

178 Madhya Pradesh Indore Indore MP07

179 Madhya Pradesh Jabalpur Jabalpur MP08

180 Madhya Pradesh Khandwa Khandwa MP29

Khargone (West
181 Madhya Pradesh Khargone (West Nimar) MP18
Nimar)
182 Madhya Pradesh Morena Morena MP31

183 Madhya Pradesh Neemuch Neemuch MP32

184 Madhya Pradesh Ratlam Ratlam MP33

185 Madhya Pradesh Rewa Rewa MP11

186 Madhya Pradesh Sagar Sagar MP12

187 Madhya Pradesh Satna Satna MP13

188 Madhya Pradesh Ujjain Ujjain MP15

189 Madhya Pradesh Vidisha Vidisha MP20

190 Maharashtra Ahmednagar Ahmednagar MR01

191 Maharashtra Akola Akola MR02

192 Maharashtra Amravati Amravati MR03

193 Maharashtra Aurangabad Aurangabad (MH) MR04

194 Maharashtra Beed Beed MR30

195 Maharashtra Bhandara Bhandara MR31

196 Maharashtra Buldhana Buldhana MR32

197 Maharashtra Chandrapur Chandrapur MR09

198 Maharashtra Dhule Dhule MR10

199 Maharashtra Gondia Gondia MR35

200 Maharashtra Jalgaon Jalgaon MR13

201 Maharashtra Kolhapur Kolhapur MR14

202 Maharashtra Latur Latur MR15

Mumbai/Navi
203 Maharashtra Mumbai City MR16
Mumbai
204 Maharashtra Nagpur Nagpur MR17

205 Maharashtra Nanded Nanded MR18

206 Maharashtra Nandurbar Nandurbar MR36

207 Maharashtra Nashik Nashik MR19

208 Maharashtra Osmanabad Osmanabad MR37
 City
S. No. State District City
Code
209 Maharashtra Palghar Palghar MR33

210 Maharashtra Parbhani Parbhani MR38

211 Maharashtra Pune Pune MR22

212 Maharashtra Raigad Raigad MR23

213 Maharashtra Ratnagiri Ratnagiri MR24

214 Maharashtra Sangli Sangli MR25

215 Maharashtra Satara Satara MR26

216 Maharashtra Sindhudurg Sindhudurg MR39

217 Maharashtra Solapur Solapur MR27

218 Maharashtra Thane Thane MR28

219 Maharashtra Wardha Wardha MR29

220 Maharashtra Yavatmal Yavatmal MR34

221 Manipur Imphal Imphal MN01

222 Meghalaya Shillong Shillong MG01

223 Mizoram Aizawl Aizawl MZ01

224 Nagaland Dimapur Dimapur NL01

225 Nagaland Kohima Kohima NL02

226 Odisha Angul Angul OR10

227 Odisha Balangir Balangir OR20

Balasore
228 Odisha Balasore OR02
(Baleswar)
229 Odisha Baragarh Baragarh OR21
Baripada/Mayurba
230 Odisha Mayurbanj OR12
nj
Berhampur /
231 Odisha Ganjam OR03
Ganjam
232 Odisha Bhadrak Bhadrak OR11

233 Odisha Khordha Bhubaneswar OR04

234 Odisha Cuttack Cuttack OR05

235 Odisha Dhenkanal Dhenkanal OR06

236 Odisha Jagatsinghpur Jagatsinghpur OR17

237 Odisha Jajpur Jajpur OR13

238 Odisha Koraput Jeypore(Odisha) OR19

239 Odisha Jharsuguda Jharsuguda OR22

240 Odisha Kendrapara Kendrapara OR14

Kendujhar
241 Odisha Kendujhar (Keonjhar) OR15
(Keonjhar)
242 Odisha Malkangiri Malkangiri OR23
Paralakhemundi
243 Odisha Paralakhemundi (Gajapati) OR24
(Gajapati)
Phulbani
244 Odisha Phulbani (Kandhamal) OR25
(Kandhamal)
245 Odisha Puri Puri OR16

246 Odisha Rayagada Rayagada OR26

247 Odisha Sundergarh Rourkela OR08

248 Odisha Sambalpur Sambalpur OR09
249 Puducherry Puducherry Karaikal PO02

250 Puducherry Puducherry Puducherry PO01

251 Punjab Amritsar Amritsar PB01

 City
S. No. State District City
Code
252 Punjab Bhatinda Bhatinda PB02

253 Punjab Fazilka Fazilka PB15

254 Punjab Firozpur Firozpur PB16

255 Punjab Hoshiarpur Hoshiarpur PB13

256 Punjab Jalandhar Jalandhar PB04

257 Punjab Ludhiana Ludhiana PB05

258 Punjab Pathankot Pathankot PB07

Patiala/Fatehgarh
259 Punjab Patiala PB08
Sahib
260 Punjab Rupnagar Rupnagar PB18
Sahibzada Ajit
261 Punjab Sahibzada Ajit Singh Nagar PB12
Singh Nagar
262 Punjab Sri Muktsar Sahib Sri Muktsar Sahib PB19

263 Rajasthan Ajmer Ajmer RJ01

264 Rajasthan Alwar Alwar RJ02

265 Rajasthan Barmer Barmer RJ19

266 Rajasthan Bharatpur Bharatpur RJ16

267 Rajasthan Bhilwara Bhilwara RJ12

268 Rajasthan Bikaner Bikaner RJ05

269 Rajasthan Chittorgarh Chittorgarh RJ20

270 Rajasthan Dausa Dausa RJ17

271 Rajasthan Hanumangarh Hanumangarh RJ23

272 Rajasthan Jaipur Jaipur RJ06

273 Rajasthan Jhunjhunu Jhunjhunu RJ13

274 Rajasthan Jodhpur Jodhpur RJ07

275 Rajasthan Kota Kota RJ08

276 Rajasthan Sikar Sikar RJ09

277 Rajasthan Sirohi Sirohi RJ26

278 Rajasthan Sriganganagar Sriganganagar RJ10

279 Rajasthan Udaipur Udaipur RJ11

280 Sikkim Gangtok Gangtok SM01

281 Tamil Nadu Ariyalur Ariyalur TN24

282 Tamil Nadu Chengalpet Chengalpet TN25

283 Tamil Nadu Chennai Chennai TN01

284 Tamil Nadu Coimbatore Coimbatore TN02

285 Tamil Nadu Cuddalore Cuddalore TN03

286 Tamil Nadu Dharmapuri Dharmapuri TN26

287 Tamil Nadu Dindigul Dindigul TN27

288 Tamil Nadu Erode Erode TN28

289 Tamil Nadu Kanchipuram Kanchipuram TN05

Kanyakumari/Nag
290 Tamil Nadu Kanyakumari TN06
ercoil
291 Tamil Nadu Karur Karur TN29

292 Tamil Nadu Krishnagiri Krishnagiri TN21

293 Tamil Nadu Madurai Madurai TN08

294 Tamil Nadu Nagapattinam Nagapattinam TN30

 City
S. No. State District City
Code
295 Tamil Nadu Namakkal Namakkal TN10

296 Tamil Nadu Pudukkottai Pudukkottai TN31

297 Tamil Nadu Ramanathapuram Ramanathapuram TN32

298 Tamil Nadu Salem Salem TN11

299 Tamil Nadu Sivaganga Sivaganga TN33

300 Tamil Nadu Thanjavur Thanjavur TN12

301 Tamil Nadu Thiruvallur Thiruvallur TN34

302 Tamil Nadu Thoothukudi Thoothukudi TN13

303 Tamil Nadu Tiruchirappalli Tiruchirappalli TN14

304 Tamil Nadu Tirunelveli Tirunelveli TN15

305 Tamil Nadu Tirupur Tiruppur TN22

306 Tamil Nadu Tiruvannamalai Tiruvannamalai TN35

307 Tamil Nadu Nilgiris Udhagamandalam TN36

308 Tamil Nadu Vellore Vellore TN18

309 Tamil Nadu Villupuram Viluppuram TN23

310 Tamil Nadu Virudhanagar Virudhunagar TN20

311 Telangana Hayathnagar Hayathnagar TL14

Hyderabad/Secun
312 Telangana Ranga Reddy TL01
derabad
313 Telangana Jagtial Jagtial TL15

314 Telangana Jangaon Jangaon TL16

315 Telangana Karimnagar Karimnagar TL02

316 Telangana Khammam Khammam TL03

317 Telangana Bhadradri Kothagudem Kothagudem TL17

318 Telangana Mahabubabad Mahabubabad TL10

319 Telangana Mahbubnagar Mahbubnagar TL04

320 Telangana Medak Medak TL19

321 Telangana Medchal Medchal TL20

322 Telangana Nalgonda Nalgonda TL05

323 Telangana Nizamabad Nizamabad TL08

324 Telangana Sangareddy Sangareddy TL21

325 Telangana Siddipet Siddipet TL11

326 Telangana Suryapet Suryapet TL09

327 Telangana Warangal(Rural) Warangal TL07

328 Tripura West Tripura Agartala TA01

329 Uttar Pradesh Agra Agra UP01

330 Uttar Pradesh Aligarh Aligarh UP02

Allahabad/Prayagr
331 Uttar Pradesh Prayagraj UP03
aj
332 Uttar Pradesh Ambedkar Nagar Ambedkar Nagar UP25
333 Uttar Pradesh Azamgarh Azamgarh UP19

334 Uttar Pradesh Bahraich Bahraich UP47

335 Uttar Pradesh Ballia Ballia UP20

336 Uttar Pradesh Banda Banda UP26

337 Uttar Pradesh Barabanki Barabanki UP27

 City
S. No. State District City
Code
338 Uttar Pradesh Bareilly Bareilly UP04

339 Uttar Pradesh Bijnor Bijnor UP21

340 Uttar Pradesh Bulandshahr Bulandshahr UP29

341 Uttar Pradesh Chandauli Chandauli UP41

342 Uttar Pradesh Ayodhya Faizabad UP06

343 Uttar Pradesh Fatehpur Fatehpur UP49

344 Uttar Pradesh Firozabad Firozabad UP22

345 Uttar Pradesh Ghaziabad Ghaziabad UP07

346 Uttar Pradesh Ghazipur Ghazipur UP23

347 Uttar Pradesh Gorakhpur Gorakhpur UP08

Hapur
348 Uttar Pradesh Hapur (Panchsheel Nagar) (Panchsheel UP51
Nagar)
349 Uttar Pradesh Hathras Hathras UP53

350 Uttar Pradesh Jaunpur Jaunpur UP24

351 Uttar Pradesh Jhansi Jhansi UP10

352 Uttar Pradesh Kanpur Rural Kanpur UP11

353 Uttar Pradesh Kaushambi Kaushambi UP54

354 Uttar Pradesh Lucknow Lucknow UP12

355 Uttar Pradesh Mathura Mathura UP13

356 Uttar Pradesh Mau Mau UP35

357 Uttar Pradesh Meerut Meerut UP14

358 Uttar Pradesh Moradabad Moradabad UP15

359 Uttar Pradesh Muzaffarnagar Muzaffarnagar UP16

360 Uttar Pradesh Siddharthnagar Naugarh UP57

Noida/Greater
361 Uttar Pradesh Gautam Buddha Nagar UP09
Noida
362 Uttar Pradesh Pratapgarh Pratapgarh UP43

363 Uttar Pradesh Raebareli Raebareli UP37

364 Uttar Pradesh Rampur Rampur UP58

365 Uttar Pradesh Saharanpur Saharanpur UP38

366 Uttar Pradesh Sitapur Sitapur UP17

367 Uttar Pradesh Sonbhadra Sonbhadra UP42

368 Uttar Pradesh Sultanpur Sultanpur UP40

369 Uttar Pradesh Unnao Unnao UP59

370 Uttar Pradesh Varanasi Varanasi UP18

371 Uttarakhand Almora Almora UK09

372 Uttarakhand Dehradun Dehradun UK01

373 Uttarakhand Haldwani Haldwani UK02

374 Uttarakhand Haridwar Haridwar UK03

375 Uttarakhand Nainital Nainital UK04

376 Uttarakhand Tehri Garhwal New Tehri UK10

377 Uttarakhand Pantnagar Pantnagar UK05

378 Uttarakhand Pauri Garhwal Pauri Garhwal UK08

379 Uttarakhand Roorkee Roorkee UK06

 City
S. No. State District City
Code
Udham Singh
380 Uttarakhand Udham Singh Nagar UK07
Nagar
381 West Bengal Paschim Bardhaman Asansol WB01

382 West Bengal Bankura Bankura WB16

Burdwan(Bardham
383 West Bengal Purba Bardhaman WB02
an)
384 West Bengal Darjeeling Darjeeling WB18

385 West Bengal Durgapur Durgapur WB04

386 West Bengal Hooghly Hooghly WB06

387 West Bengal Howrah Howrah WB07

388 West Bengal Jalpaiguri Jalpaiguri WB19

389 West Bengal Nadia Kalyani WB08

390 West Bengal Kolkata Kolkata WB10

391 West Bengal Malda Malda WB20

392 West Bengal Murshidabad Murshidabad WB21

393 West Bengal North 24 Parganas North 24 Parganas WB12

Paschim
394 West Bengal Paschim Medinipur WB13
Medinipur
395 West Bengal Purba Medinipur Purba Medinipur WB14

396 West Bengal Siliguri Siliguri WB11

South 24
397 West Bengal South 24 Parganas WB15
Parganas
398 West Bengal Birbhum Suri WB22
 APPENDIX - IV
List of Subject at Post Graduation Level and their Codes
 APPENDIX – V

LIST OF POST-GRADUATION COURSES AND THEIR CODES

Post Graduation Courses Code
Master of Ayurvedacharya (Ayurvedacharya) 01
Master of Acharya (Acharya) 02
Master of Law (LLM) 03
Master of Architecture (M. Arch.) 04
Master of Commerce (M.Com) 05
Master of Dance (M. Dance) 06
Master of Education (M.Ed.) 07
Master of Library Science (M. Lib. Sc.) 08
Master of Literature (M.Litt.) 09
Master of Music (M.Mus) 10
Master of Pharmacy (M.Pharm.) 11
Master of Business Administration (MBA) 12
Master of Computer Applications (MCA) 13
Master of Financial Management (M.F.M.) 14
Master of Human Resource Development (M.H.R.D.) 15
Master of International Business (M.LB) 16
Master of Marketing Management (M. Mkt. M.) 17
Master of Optometry (M. Optom.) 18
Master of Hospital Administration (MHA) 19
Master of Journalism and Mass Communication (MJMC) 20
Master of Mass Communication (MMC) 21
Master of Occupational Therapy (MOT) 22
Master of Public Health (MPH) 23
Master of Social Work (MSW) 24
Master of Planning (M. Plan) 25
Master of Science (M.Sc.) 26
Master of Statistics (M. Stat.) 27
Master of Technology (M.Tech.) 28
Master of Veterinary Science (M.V.Sc.) 29
Master of Arts (MA) 30
Master of Foreign Trade (M.E.T.) 31
Master of Physical Education (M.P.Ed.) 32
Master of Tourism Management (MTM) 33
Master of Physical Education and Sports Sciences (MPES) 34
CA/CS/ ICWA 35
Other 36
 APPENDIX - VI
LIST OF STATES/ UNION TERRITORIES AND THEIR CODES
 APPENDIX - VII
PROCEDURE FOR APPEARING IN COMPUTER BASED TEST (CBT)
(a) A computer terminal (node) indicating Roll Number will be allocated to each candidate. Candidates
should find and sit on their allocated computers only. Any candidate found to have changed
room/hall or the computer on their own rather than the one allotted would be liable to cancellation
of candidature and no plea in this regard would be entertained.

(b) The computer terminal allotted to the candidate will display Welcome login screen, Candidate’s
photograph and subject opted by the candidate. For login, the candidate will have to enter login-
ID and password.

(c) After logging in, the candidate shall be able to see the detailed instructions for the examination.
Candidates are advised to go through the instructions carefully regarding the type of questions
and Marking Scheme. At the designated time of start of the examination, the candidates will be
able to proceed and see the questions on the computer screen.

The keyboard attached to the computer, if any, will be disabled during the entire duration of the
examination. Depending on the type of question, the answers to questions can either be entered
by clicking on the virtual on-screen keyboard (numeric or otherwise) using the computer mouse or
by clicking the chosen option(s) using the computer mouse.

Candidates will have the option to change/modify answers already entered anytime during
the entire duration of the examination.

In case the computer/mouse allotted to any candidate malfunctions anytime during the test, the
candidate will be immediately allotted another computer system and the time lost due to this will
be adjusted in the server so as to give the candidate the full allotted time.

(d) The on-screen computer clock counter of every candidate will be set at the server. The countdown
timer in the top right side of computer screen will display the time remaining (in minutes) available
for the candidate to complete the examination. When the timer reaches zero, the examination will
end by itself. Candidate will not be required to end or submit the examination.

(e) The Question Palette displayed on the right side of screen will show the status of each question
using one of the following text/color codes/symbols.

You have not visited the question yet.

You have not answered the question.

You have answered the question.

You have NOT answered the question but have marked the question for review.

The question(s) “answered and marked for Review” will be considered for evaluation.

The question(s) “Answered and Marked for Review” status for a question indicates that candidate
would like to have a relook at that question again. A candidate has the option of answering a
question and simultaneously placing it under “Marked for Review”, these answers will be
considered for evaluation. However, if a candidate has simply put “Marked for Review” for a
question without answering it, the corresponding question ‘Marked for Review’ without an answer
will not be considered for evaluation. It may be noted that a candidate can return to any “Marked
for Review” question any time during the examination by clicking on the corresponding question
number icon displayed on the Question Palette of the corresponding section.
(f) Candidate can click on an arrow/symbol which appears to the left of question palette to collapse
the question palette thereby maximizing the question viewing window. To view the question palette
again, candidate can click on arrow/symbol which appears on the right side of question window.

(g) Candidate can click to navigate to the bottom and to navigate to the top of the question area,
without scrolling. Using the computer mouse the candidate can scroll up and down the question
viewing area for viewing the entire question.

(h) The full paper can be viewed by clicking the “Question Paper” icon on the top right corner of the
screen.

(i) Blank Sheets for doing rough work/calculations shall be provided to the candidates. The Blanks
Sheets would have a Header page for the candidates to write down his/her Name and Roll
Number. All calculations/writing work are to be done only in the Blank Sheets provided at the
Centre in the Examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test, candidates must hand over
the rough sheets to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
(j) Navigating to a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:

(a) Click on the question number in the Question Palette at the right of the screen to go to that
numbered question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save the answer to the
currently displayed question.

(b) Click on “Save & Next” to save the answer of any question. Clicking on “Save & Next” will
save the answer for the current question and the next question will be displayed on the
candidate’s computer screen.

(c) Click on “Mark for Review & Next” to mark a question for review (without answering it) and
proceed to the next question.

(k) Answering a Question

To navigate between questions within a Paper, candidate needs to do the following:

(i) Procedure for answering a multiple choice type question:

(a) To select the option(s), click on the corresponding button(s) of the option(s).
(b) To deselect the chosen answer, click on the button of the chosen option again or click on
the “Clear Response” button.

(c) To save the answer, the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next” button.

(d) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.

(l) Navigating through sections:

(a) Sections in the question paper are displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in
a section can be viewed by clicking on the section name. The section in which candidate
is currently viewing will be highlighted.

(b) After clicking the “Save & Next” button on the last question for a section, candidate will
automatically be taken to the first question of the next section.
 (c) Candidate can shuffle between sections and questions within sections any time during
the examination as per the convenience only during the time stipulated.

(d) Candidate can view the corresponding section summary as part of the legend that
appears in every section above the question palette.

(m) Procedure for answering questions that require inputs from on-screen virtual key
board (numeric or otherwise):

(a) Candidate will have to use the on-screen virtual keyboard (that would be displayed just
below the question statement of these type of questions) and the attached computer
mouse to enter his/her answer in the space provided for answer.

(b) The answer can be changed, if required, anytime during the test. To save the answer,
the candidate MUST click on the “Save & Next “button.

(c) To mark the question for review (without answering it), click on the “Mark for Review &
Next” button.

Candidate will have the option to change previously saved answer of any question,
anytime during the entire duration of the test. To change the answer to a question
that has already been answered, first select the corresponding question from the
Question Palette, then click on “Clear Response” to clear the previously entered
answer and subsequently follow the procedure for answering that type of question.

(n) Rough Work:

All calculations/writing work is to be done only in the rough sheet provided at the Centre in the
examination Room/Hall and on completion of the test candidates must hand over the rough sheets
to the invigilator on duty in the Room/Hall.
 APPENDIX - VIII
INSTRUCTIONS REGARDING COVID-19

NTA will implement Social Distancing measures as per Government of India Guidelines in current
scenario of COVID-19 to ensure health & safety of the candidates. Adequate measures are
implemented for safety of all without compromising the high standards, sanctity, and fairness in conduct
of the examination. Candidates are also required to adhere to Guidelines and new process for Social
Distancing and hygiene to ensure safety & health of their own and fellow candidates.
For safety purposes, candidates are advised not to bring anything other than permitted items.

PREPARATION AT CENTRE

a) Standard Operating Procedures for implementing safety precautions and for maintaining
required standard of hygiene will be implemented. Before the exam starts, Seating Area will be
thoroughly sanitized- exam rooms, desk, chair etc. All door handles, staircase railing, lift
buttons, etc. will be disinfected.

b) Gap between 2 seats will be maintained as per GOI guidelines.

c) Hand Sanitizer will be available at entry and inside the exam venue at various places for
candidates and Centre staff to use.

d) Thermo guns will be available to check body temperature of candidates.

e) The room/hall number will be informed to the candidates at the registration room.

f) It is ensured that all the processes are touch free, to the maximum possible extent, to ensure
Social Distancing norms.

g) Candidate is required to reach Centre as per the Reporting/Entry time at Centre given in the
Admit Card to avoid any crowding at the Centre at the time of entry and to maintain social
distancing.

h) All exam functionaries will wear mask and gloves at all points of time.

i) 5 sheets of paper are to be placed on the desk of each candidate for doing rough work.

PRE-EXAM PREPARATION

a) Candidate to check Reporting/ Entry time at Centre given in the Admit Card and to reach Centre
as per Reporting Time only to avoid any crowding at the Centre at the time of entry and to
maintain social distancing.

b) Candidate should fill Admit card and Undertaking thereon as per instructions contained in the
admit card, completely and properly.

c) Candidates will be permitted to carry only the permitted items with them into the venue.
AT TIME OF ENTRY

a) Candidates should avoid coming with more than one escort (parent/guardian).

b) Candidates need to maintain a space of at least 6 feet from each other at all times. Queue
manager / ropes and Floor Marks will be arranged outside the Centre.

c) Room number will not be displayed outside the Centre to avoid any crowding at any one place
in any situation.

d) Candidates will be required to sanitize hands by washing with soap and with Hand Sanitizer
before entry in Centre. Hand sanitizer will be available at various locations in the Centre

e) Candidate should bring duly filled in Admit Card and Undertaking thereon as per instructions
contained in the admit card.

f) They should not bring prohibited items to exam Centre as there are no arrangements available
for their safe keeping.

g) Candidates are permitted to carry drinking water in a transparent water bottle, a small bottle
of sanitizer (50 mg), face masks and gloves.

h) Candidates will be ushered in batches of 10 Candidates.

i) Thermal scanning will be carried out at the entry.

j) If the body temperature is higher than the COVID-19 norms, candidate would be required to
take the exam in a separate room. Candidates are required to strictly adhere to instructions
provided by Centre staff.

k) Contact free frisking will be carried out using Hand Held Metal Detectors.

l) Candidate will display the following documents for verification to the exam functionary
(invigilator on duty) standing across the table.

 Admit card along with the undertaking with passport size photograph and thumb
impression affixed thereon
 Original and valid Identity proof
 One additional photograph for affixing on the attendance register

m) Candidate will be offered a fresh 3 Ply mask before entry. In order to stop chances of any UFM
being used in the examination, the candidate is expected to wear the freshly provided mask
at the Centre. The candidate will be required to remove the mask worn by him/ her from home
and use only the mask provided at Centre, in the exam hall. He/she may keep his/her mask
worn from home, in their pocket or dispose them off as per their convenience.
n) Invigilator on duty insider at the registration desk would check the admit card, ID proof etc and
direct the candidate to his exam room in batches of 5 each to maintain safe distance as per
the social distancing norms.

o) A candidate will be denied permission to appear in the examination, if he/ she violate the
COVID-19 directives/advisories of Government (Central/State) applicable on the day of exam
and instructions mentioned in the Admit Card.
DURING EXAMINATION

a) Before the exam starts, Seating Area will be thoroughly sanitized –exam rooms, desk, chair
etc. Candidates can further sanitize the same with sanitizers that will be made available in the
examination lab/room/hall.

b) Candidates are required to paste passport size photograph and sign on the Attendance Sheet
after sanitizing hands with sanitizer.

c) They are required to use only the sheets provided in the exam centre for any rough work and
are not allowed to do the rough work on any other material. They should write their roll number
and their name on the rough sheets.

AFTER EXAMINATION
a) On completion of the exam, the candidates will be permitted to move out in an orderly manner,
one candidate at a time maintaining a safe distance from each other. They are required to wait
for instructions from invigilator and are not to get up from their respective seats until advised.

b) Candidate must drop the Admit Card and the rough sheets used by them in the drop box after
the conclusion of the exam, while leaving. If any candidate fails to do so, action (which also
includes disqualification from the exam) can be taken against him/her.
 APPENDIX - IX
TEST PRACTICE CENTRES (TPCs)

What is a Test Practice Centre (TPCs)?

The Ministry of Education has mandated the NTA to set up, establish and create a network of Test
Practice Centres for candidates, especially in remote and rural areas to enable them to practice and be
comfortable in taking a Computer Based Test (CBT). This facility is completely free of cost. Candidates
can register online (on NTA website) where they are provided a convenient TPC near to their location
to practice on a given computer node. This facilitates and eases the process of being able to take a
Computer Based Test (CBT). The entire experience of using a computer is close to the actual
experience of taking a CBT. All efforts are made to provide practice tests and questions so that
candidates can familiarize themselves with logging into the system, go through the detailed instructions
regarding the test, use the mouse or numeric keyboard on screen (virtual) for attempting each question,
scroll down to the next question, navigate between questions, review and edit their options and submit
questions.

The objective of TPCs is primarily to organize test practice for the upcoming NTA examinations.
 APPENDIX - X
COMMON SERVICES CENTRES/FACILITATION CENTRES

Candidates, who are not well conversant to submit the online application due to various constraints,
can use the services of Common Services Centre, Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology,
Government of India under the Digital India initiatives of Hon’ble Prime Minister. The Common Services
Centre (CSC) scheme is a part of the ambitious national e-Governance Plan (NeGP) of Government of
India and is managed at each village panchayat level by a Village level Entrepreneur (VLE)

There are more than 1.5 lakhs Common Services Centres (CSC) across the country which will provide
the desired support to candidates from urban as well as rural areas in online submission of Application
Form and payment of fee through e-wallet. The list of the Common Services Centre is available on
website: www.csc.gov.in.

The Common Services Centre will be providing following services on the rates
indicated against each:
S. No. Services Service Charges per transaction
(GST applicable @ 18%)
1 Preparing e-mail, Submission of Application Rs 25/-+GST
Form & Printout till Fee Payment (Including
uploading of Scanned Images)
2 Uploading of Scanned Images only Rs 10/-+GST
3 Online payment of Fee Rs 0.5% of Fee +GST
4 Downloading of Admit Card/ OMR Answer Rs 10+GST
Sheet/Answer Key
5 Online claim for Responses/ Answer Key Rs 25+GST
6 Printout per page Rs 5+GST

Note: To know nearest Common Services Centre, please open link

http://gis.csc.gov.in/locator/csc.aspx
 APPENDIX - XI
National Testing Agency (NTA)

PROCEDURE TO BE ADOPTED FOR COMPILATION OF NTA SCORES FOR

MULTI SESSION PAPERS
(NORMALIZATION PROCEDURE BASED ON PERCENTILE SCORE)

NTA may conduct examinations on multiple dates, generally in two sessions per day. The candidates
will be given different sets of questions per session and it is quite possible that in spite of all efforts of
maintaining equivalence among various question papers, the difficulty level of these question papers
administered in different sessions may not be exactly the same. Some of the candidates may end up
attempting a relatively tougher set of questions when compared to other sets. The candidates who
attempt the comparatively tougher Examination are likely to get lower marks as compared to those who
attempt the easier one. In order to overcome such a situation, “Normalization procedure based on
Percentile Score” will be used for ensuring that candidates are neither benefitted nor disadvantaged
due to the difficulty level of the examination. With the objective of ensuring that a candidate’s true merit
is identified, and that a level playing field is created in the above context, the Normalization Procedure,
set out below shall be adopted, for compiling the NTA scores for multi session papers.

The process of Normalization is an established practice for comparing candidate scores across
multi session papers and is similar to those being adopted in other large educational selection
tests conducted in India. For normalization across sections, NTA shall use the percentile
equivalence.

Percentile Scores: Percentile scores are scores based on the relative performance of all those who
appear for the examination. Basically the marks obtained are transformed into a scale ranging from 100
to 0 for each session of examinees.
The Percentile Score indicates the percentage of candidates that have scored EQUAL TO OR
BELOW (same or lower raw scores) that particular Percentile in that examination. Therefore the
topper (highest score) of each session will get the same Percentile of 100 which is desirable.
The marks obtained in between the highest and lowest scores are also converted to appropriate
Percentiles.

The Percentile score will be the Normalized Score for the Examination (instead of the raw marks
of the candidate) and shall be used for preparation of the merit lists.

The Percentile Scores will be calculated up to 7 decimal places to avoid bunching effect and
reduce ties.

The Percentile score of a Candidate is calculated as follows:

100 X Number of candidates appeared in the ‘Session’ with raw score EQUAL TO OR LESS than the candidate

Total number of the candidates appeared in the ’Session’

Note: The Percentile of the Total shall NOT be an aggregate or average of the Percentile of individual
subject. Percentile score is not the same as percentage of marks obtained.
Example: Suppose a test was held in 4 sessions of examinees as per details given below: -
(Allocation of Days and shifts were done randomly)
(a) Distribution of candidates were as follows:
Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2, Session-3: Day-2 Shift-1 and
Session-4: Day-2 Shift-2
Session Day/Shift No of Candidates Marks

Absent Appeared Total Highest Lowest

Session-1 Day-1 Shift-1 3974 28012 31986 335 -39

Session-2 Day-1 Shift-2 6189 32541 38730 346 -38

Session-3 Day-2 Shift-1 6036 41326 47362 331 -49

Session-4 Day-2 Shift-2 9074 40603 49677 332 -44

Total 25273 142482 167755 346 -49

(Session-1 to Session-4)

In this method of scoring the HIGHEST RAW SCORE in each paper (irrespective of the raw scores)
will be the 100 Percentile indicating that 100% of candidates have scores equal to or lesser than the
highest scorer/ topper for that session.

Highest Raw Score and Percentile Score: All the highest raw scores will have normalized
Percentile Score of 100 for their respective session.

Session Total Highest Candidates who Percentile Score Remarks

Candidates scored EQUAL
Appeared Raw OR LESS THAN
Score Highest Raw
Score

Session-1 28012 335 28012 100.0000000 i.e. all the highest

[(28012/28012)*100] raw scores would be
Session -2 32541 346 32541 100.0000000 normalized to 100
[(32541/32541)*100] Percentile Score for
Session -3 41326 331 41326 100.0000000 their respective
[(41326/41326)*100] session.
Session -4 40603 332 40603 100.0000000
[(40603/40603)*100]

Lowest Raw Score and Percentile Score: Percentile Score of all the lowest raw scores will depend on the total
number of candidates who have taken the Examination for their respective session.

Session Total Lowest Candidates who Percentile Score Remarks

Candidates scored EQUAL
Appeared Raw OR LESS THAN
Score Lowest Raw
Score

Session -1 28012 -39 1 0.0035699 i.e. Percentile Score

[(1/28012)*100] of all the lowest raw
Session -2 32541 -38 1 0.0030730 scores are different
[(1/32541)*100] i.e. Percentile Score
Session -3 41326 -49 1 0.0024198 depend on the total
[(1/41326)*100] number of candidates
Session -4 40603 -44 1 0.0024629 who have taken the
[(1/40603)*100] Examination for their
respective session.
The following is a further explanation of the interpretation of the raw scores and Percentile Score
in Session-3 (Day-2 and Shift-1) with 41326 candidates who have taken the examination.

Candidate Percentile Score No of Raw Remark

Score
Candidates

A 100.0000000 1 331 Indicates that amongst those appeared,

[(41326/41326)*100] 100% have scored either EQUAL TO OR
LESS THAN the candidate A (331 raw
score).
It also indicates that no candidate has
scored more than the candidate A (331 raw
score).
B 90.1224411 77 121 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
[(37244/41326)*100] 90.1224411% have scored either EQUAL
TO OR LESS THAN the candidate B (121
raw score).
It also indicates that remaining candidates
have scored more than candidate B (121
raw score).
C 50.4549194 381 41 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
[(20851/41326)*100] 50.4549194% have scored either EQUAL
TO OR LESS THAN the candidate C (41
raw score).
It also indicates that remaining those
appeared have scored more than candidate
C (41 raw score).
D 31.7040120 789 25 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
[(13102/41326)*100] 31.7040120% have scored either EQUAL
TO OR LESS THAN the candidate D (25
raw score)
It also indicates that remaining candidates
have scored more than candidate D (25 raw
score).
E 1.1034216 100 -15 Indicates that amongst those appeared,
[(456/41326)*100] 1.1034216% have scored either EQUAL TO
OR LESS THAN the candidate E (-15 raw
score)
It also indicates that remaining candidates
have scored more than candidate E (-15
raw score)

STEP-BY-STEP PROCEDURE FOR NORMALIZATION AND PREPARATION OF RESULT:

Step-1: Distribution of Examinees in two shifts:

Candidates have to be distributed into two sessions randomly so that each session has
approximately equal number of candidates. These two sessions would be as follows:

Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1, Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2

In the event of more number of days or less number of shifts, the candidates will be divided
accordingly.

This will ensure that there is no bias in the distribution of candidates who shall take the
examination. Further, with a large population of examinees spread over the entire country the
possibility of such bias becomes remote.
Step-2: Preparation of Results for each Session:

The Examination results for each session would be prepared in the form of

 Raw Scores
 Percentiles Scores of Total raw scores.

The Percentiles would be calculated for each candidate in the Session as follows:

Let TP1 be the Percentile Scores of Total Raw Score of that candidate.

No. of candidates appeared from the session with raw score EQUAL
Total Percentile (TP1) : 100 X TO OR LESS than T1 score

Total No. of candidates appeared in the session

Step-3: Compilation of NTA score and Preparation of Result:

The Percentile scores for the Total Raw Score for all the sessions (Session-1: Day-1 Shift-1,
Session-2: Day-1 Shift-2) as calculated in Step-2 above would be merged and shall be
called the NTA scores which will then be used for compilation of result and further
processing for deciding the allocation.

In the events of the percentiles for the multi-shifts being dissimilar / unequal, the lowest will be
the eligibility cut-off for that category for all candidates (i.e. all shifts).

For Example: In the Examination held in two shifts, if the 40% marks correspond to a Percentile
score of 78 in Shift 1 and 79 in Shift 2, then all those equal to or above 78 percentiles (Percentile
score of 100 to 78) in both shifts will become eligible in General Category. Similar method will
be adopted for the other categories to determine eligibility cut-offs. In case the Examination is
held in more number of shifts the same principle shall apply.
 APPENDIX - XII
REPLICA
 011-40759000

National
Testing
Agency
(An autonomous organization under the Department of
Higher Education, Ministry of Education, Government of India)

Address for Correspondence

First Floor, NSIC-MDBP Building,
Okhla Industrial Estate, New Delhi - 110020
Help Line: For Technical support, contact following
during working days between 10.00 a.m. to 5.00 p.m.

www.nta.ac.in
ugcnet.nta.nic.in