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 UI POST UTME C.R.K QUESTIONS

UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN 3. "Let the waters under the

C.R.K QUESTIONS
heavens be gathered together
1. "Behold, the people of Israel into one place, and let the dry
are too many, come let us deal land appear. In the statement
shrewdly with them, lest they above the dry land and the water
multiply..." In the statement, the refer to
first step by the new king of Egypt
was to A. earth and oceans
B. firmament and seas
A. cast all Hebrew male children C. firmament and oceans
into the Nile D. earth and seas
B. impose heavy tax on them
C. kill all Hebrew male children 4. "Seek out for me a woman who
D. set taskmasters over them to is a medium that I may go to her
afflict them with burdens and inquire of her." Saul made
the statement above when he was
2. "I will go out as at other times, confronted by the
and shake myself free." When
Samson made the statement A. Philistines
above, he was not aware that B. Ammonites
C. Amalekites
A. the Philistines were upon him D. Moabites
B. he was bound with bronze
fetters 5. "Why did you bring trouble on
C. the LORD had left him us? The LORD brings trouble on
D. his eyes had been gouged out. you today” What happened to
Achan after the statement above

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by Joshua? C. a stiff-necked people
D. an unrighteous people
A. He was buried alive
B. He was put in chain 9. God blessed the seventh day
C. He was stoned to death and made it holy because
D. He was flogged publicly. A. He rested on that day from all
His work
6. An unwise decision of Solomon B. Adam gave names to all living
was the issue of the creatures on that day
C. it was a Sabbath day
A. building of the palace D. human beings were recreated
B. building of the temple on that day.
C. felling of timber
D. forced labour 10. God called Abraham when he
was how many years old?
7. David was anointed king over
Judah at ……… A. 75 years old
B. 90 years old
A. Zuph. C. 100 years old
B. Bethlehem D. 120 years old
C. Hebron
D. Gibeon. 11. In order for the people of
Israel to be ready to meet the
8. For worshipping the molten LORD by the third day at Mount
calf, God described the Israelites Sinai, they were
as
A. not to drink alcohol
A. a stubborn nation B. to wear white garments
B. an unholy nation C. to wash their garments

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 everyday 15. The first person that revealed
D. not to go near a woman to Eli the evil that would come to
his home was
12. Joseph was put in prison in
Egypt by Potiphar because A. Joel
A. he slept with Potiphar’s wife B. a man of God
B. he was very lazy C. a prophet from Shiloh
C. Potiphar’s wife lied against D. Samuel.
Joseph
D. he stole Pharaoh’s cup 16. The rainbow as the sign of
God's covenant with Noah implies
13. Samuel's lack of parental
responsibility led to A. Providence
B. Reconciliation
A. The demand for a king in Israel C. mercy
B. His untimely death at Ramah D. Redemption
C. The defeat of the Israelites in
battle 17. What did Gideon call the altar
D. The anointing of David as king. which he built to the LORD?

14. Solomon attempted to kill A. The LORD is merciful

Jeroboam because Jeroboam B. The LORD is peace
C. Jehovah Jireh
A. Was more popular than him D. The LORD is great
B. Was not faithful as the officer
in charge of labour 18. What punishment did God
C. Did not report what was give Solomon for his unwise
prophesied concerning him Policies?
D. Was a threat to the throne.

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A. Jeroboam was empowered by D. go with Aaron who would
God to conquer him speak for him
B. He caused Rezon to demolish
the high place which he built 21. When Moses struck the rock
C. He raised up Hadad, the Edo twice for water instead of
mite as an adversary against him speaking to it, God said to him
D. The kingdom was torn from that he
him and given to his servant
A. would no longer see Him face
19. What was Samson's major to face
achievement as Israel's leader? B. would not bring the Israelites
to the promise land
A. He suppressed the Philistines C. would not see His holiness
B. He captured the city of Jericho D. would roam in the wilderness
C. He saved the Israelites from for thirty years
the Amorites
D. He secured permanent 22. When the Israelites left Egypt,
independence for Israel God did not let them use the
shorter route through the land of
20. When God called Moses to the Philistines because
deliver the Israelites, he resisted
because he could not speak and A. the Philistines were waiting in
he was told to ambush for them
B. they might go back if they
A. perform some signs with his faced war
rod C. He wanted to confuse the
B. wait for a sign from God Egyptian king
C. go with Joshua who would D. He wanted them to suffer and
speak for him appreciate Him

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23. Why did God accept David to me to cure a man of his
who killed Uriah and took his wife leprosy..." Prophet Elisha
but rejected Saul who spared King responded to the king's reaction
Agag? in the statement above by

A. David was from the favoured A. directing the nation of Israel to

tribe of Judah while Saul was from pray and fast
Benjamin B. requesting the leper to come
B. David was a man after God's to his house
heart while Saul was His enemy C. directing the leper to go to
C. David was a singer of praises River Jordan
while Saul was not D. asking the leper to offer a
D. David humbled himself when sacrifice
he realized his sin but Saul was
stubborn 26. "Behold, I am the LORD, the
God of all flesh; is anything too
24. "...And in the last days it shall hard for me..." The statement
be, God declares, that I will pour above suggests that God is
out my Spirit upon all flesh..."
Peter quoted the statement above A. merciful
from the prophecy of B. awesome
C. most powerful
A. Ezekiel D. not changeable.
B. Joel
C. Jeremiah 27. "Behold. I am the LORD, the
D. Isaiah. God of all flesh; is anything too
hard for me" The statement
25. "Am I God, to kill and to make above suggests that God is
alive, that this man sends words

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A. merciful to eat and water to drink..." In
B. most powerful the statement above, Daniel was
C. awesome talking to
D. not changeable.
A. King Darius
28. "Do you understand what you B. the chief of the eunuchs
are reading?" Philip asked the C. the steward of the chief eunuch
Ethiopian eunuch the question D. King Artaxerxes.
above when he found him reading
the book of 31. According to Amos, what did
the Israelites do after God smote
A. Hosea them with blight and mildew?
B. Ezekiel
C. Jeremiah A. They still did not return to him
D. Isaiah. B. They repented of their sins
C. They fasted and prayed for
29. "My spirit shall not abide in healing
man forever, for he is flesh". D. They cried unto the LORD.
When God made the statement,
He concluded that man's days 32. According to Prophet
shall be Jeremiah, one of the promises of
God was that He would give the
A. one hundred years Israelites
B. one hundred and fifty years
C. eighty years A. new priests
D. one hundred and twenty years. B. new commandments
C. kings after His own heart
30. "Test your servants for ten D. shepherds after His own heart.
days; let us be given vegetables

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33. According to Proverbs, a son D. Return from captivity.
that is attentive to a father's
instruction will 36. God had pity on the people of
Nineveh because
A. be rich
B. have eternal life A. they listened to Jonah's
C. gain insight message
D. be forgiven his sins B. the king punished all the
violent people in the land
34. Consequent upon the murder C. they turned from their evil
of Naboth by Ahab and Jezebel, way.
God declared that D. they made sacrifices of sin
offering to God.
A. He would require the blood of
Naboth from Ahab’s hand 37. Immediately after the contest
B. Ahab's descendants would on Mount Carmel, Elijah prayed
never ascend the throne in Israel and God answered him with
C. dogs would lick Ahab's blood
where they had licked Naboth A. thunder
D. the sword would not depart B. rainfall
from the house of Ahab C. a whirlwind
D. a heavy storm
35. Ezekiel said that when the
people of Israel turned away from 38. In addition to the declaration
all their sins, they would of freedom to the exiles in
Babylon, King Cyrus ordered for
A. Surely live and not die
B. Be free from attack A. free will offering for the house
C. Lead mankind to God of God in Jerusalem

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B. the release of Jewish, slaves in 41. Prophet Amos told Israel to
the empire hate evil, love good and establish
C. security check on the Jews justice in the gate so that God
before departure would
D. support from craftsmen in
Babylon A. heal their diseases
B. give them good leaders
39. Joab and his soldiers entered C. be gracious to them
the city quietly after defeating D. multiply their descendants
their enemy because
42. Prophet Hosea named his
A. Absalom and his soldiers were second child Not Pitied because
defeated God would no more pity the
B. of the shameful death of
Absalom A. kings of Judah
C. the king grieving for his son B. kings of Israel
D. the king Was annoyed with C. house of Judah
them D. house of Israel

40. Obadiah showed his great 43. Prophet Hosea named his
reverence for the LORD by second child Not Pitied because
God would no more pity the
A. Handing over five hundred Baal
prophets for slaughter A. kings of Judah
B. Falling on his face before Elijah B. kings of Israel
C. Hiding Elijah in a cave for two C. house of Judah
years D. house of Israel
D. Feeding the prophets of the
LORD with bread and water. 44. Prophet Isaiah received his

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vision and call when had on King Nebuchadnezzar and
his subjects was that they
A. King Uzziah was deposed
B. King Uzziah died A. Refrained from persecuting the
C. King Uzziah began to reign Jews in exile
D. Israel was in Babylonian B. Were converted
captivity C. Forsook their gods
D. Believed that there was no
45. Saul learnt from Samuel's other god able to deliver.
spirit that the LORD would
48. The Kingdom of Israel was
A. give the Philistines into his divided because the
hands
B. afflict him with sickness A. kingdom was too large to be
C. bless Isaac's future wife administered
D. pardon his iniquity B. leadership wanted to create
more nations
46. The destruction of Jerusalem C. followership wanted more
by Nebuchadnezzar was a nations
consequence of D. last two kings made unwise
policies.
A. Hezekiah's death
B. Josiah's reforms 49. The pronouncement of God on
C. Israel's stubbornness to God Josiah for being penitent was that
D. Zedekiah's rebellion against
Babylon A. God would support him to
repair the Temple
47. The effect that the faith of B. Josiah would conquer all his
Shadrach, Meshach and Abednego enemies

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C. God would gather him to his him to rebuild. Jerusalem
grave in peace B. They informed Sanballat and
D. Josiah would have a peaceful Tobiah about his plans
reign. C. They were hostile to him and
he became discouraged
50. The scroll given to Ezekiel to D. They encouraged one another
eat at his call contained to rise up and build the walls. .

A. Both praises and condemnation 53. "...but should write to them to

B. Words of lamentation and abstain from the pollutions of
mourning idols and from unchastity and
C. Prescription for Temple worship from what is strangled and from
D. The expected type of sacrifice. blood..."' The statement above
was made at the Council of
51. What did Asa do that was Jerusalem by
right in the eyes of the Lord?
A. Philip
A. He removed all the idols of his B. Simon
father. C. James
B. He killed all the priests of Baal; D. Peter
C. His reign was peaceful.
D. He killed all the Baal 54. "...His office let another
worshippers. take..." The statement above
refers to
52. What did the Jews do when
Nehemiah told them about his A. Ananias
mission in Jerusalem? B. Judas Iscariot
C. Barnabas
A. They praised God for sending D. John Mark.

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55. "...Truly, I say to you, not C. Pontius Pilate
even In Israel have I found such D. the Pharisees and Sadducees.
faith..." The statement above by
Jesus was made when He healed 58. "If you are the Son of God,
the throw yourself down from here;
for it is written, 'He will give his
A. leper angels charge of you…" According
B. blind man to Luke, the statement above was
C. demoniac made by Satan during Jesus'
D. centurion's servant.
A. third temptation
56. "Depart from me, for I am a B. crucifixion
sinful man, O Lord." This C. Transfiguration
statement was uttered by Peter at D. second temptation.
the
59. "Teacher, do you not care if
A. last supper we perish?" Where was Jesus
B. garden of Gethsemane Christ when this question was
C. call of the disciples asked?
D. transfiguration
A. On the sea, walking.
57. "If I tell you, you will not B. In the wilderness.
believe; and if I ask you, you will C. On the Mount of Olive
not answer..."' Jesus' statement D. In the ship, asleep
above was in response to a
request by 60. "Truly, I say to you, today you
will be with me in paradise...'"
A. King Herod Jesus made the statement above
B. the chief priests and scribes to one of the criminals because he

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A. respected Him 63. "You son of the devil, you
B. praised Him enemy of all righteousness, full of
C. rebuked his partner all deceit and villainy" This
D. was repentant statement of Paul was addressed
to
61. "Unbind him, and let him go."
The statement was made by Jesus A. Elymas, the magician
when B. Paulus, the proconsul
C. Simon, the Magician
A. He raised to life the dead D. Demetrius, the silversmith
Lazarus
B. He healed the son of the widow 64. ‘As long as I am in the world,
at Nain I am the light of the world.’ Jesus
C. He healed the centurion's made the statement above on the
servant occasion of
D. a boy bound by Satan was
brought to Him. A. healing the man born blind
B. raising Lazarus from the dead
62. "Unless you are circumcised C. restoring sight to blind
according to the custom of Moses, Bartimaeus
you cannot be saved" The D. walking on the sea before day
statement above by some men break.
from Judea necessitated the
convening of the 65. According to Luke, the Last
Supper took place
A. church in Jerusalem
B. council of elders A. on Mount Olive
C. church in Judea B. In Jerusalem
D. council in Jerusalem. C. in Jordan

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D. in Bethlehem. 69. According to the Gospel of
John, Jesus is the true vine while
66. According to Luke, when the vinedresser is
Moses and Elijah appeared during
the transfiguration, they spoke of A. the Holy Spirit
Jesus’ B. His father
C. the gardener
A. departure D. His mother
B. resurrection
C. second coming 70. 'And, they arrested them and
D. trials put them in custody until the
morrow, for it was already
67. According to Matthew, the evening.' In the statement above,
stone on the tomb of Jesus was the imprisoned persons were
removed by
A. Paul and John Mark
A. an angel B. Peter and Barnabas
B. Mary Magdalene C. Peter and Paul
C. a Roman soldier D. Paul and Barnabas.
D. Peter and John.
71. Angel Gabriel told Zachariah
68. According to Romans, that he would become dumb until
salvation is for those who John was born because he

A. call upon the name of the Lord A. looked down on the Angel
B. are true worshippers of God B. was advanced in age
C. work in the Lord's vineyard C. disagreed with Elizabeth, his
D. Are persecuted for wife
righteousness D. did not believe God's words.

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72. Following the death of B. be comforted on the last day
Stephen, the only group of C. inherit the kingdom of heaven
believers not scattered by the D. inherit the earth
great persecution was the
75. In Luke, at the Last Supper,
A. deacons Jesus revealed His
B. apostles
C. prophets A. resurrection
D. disciples. B. imminent sufferings
C. love for His disciples
73. Following the resurrection of D. ascension
Jesus, the Chief Priest and elders
took counsel and bribed the 76. In the country of the
guards to Gerasene’s, Jesus healed the

A. say that the disciples stole the A. man possessed of demons

body of Jesus B. paralytic at the pool
B. keep the information away C. leper
from His disciples D. blind man
C. keep the matter among
themselves 77. In the mission of the seventy,
D. report the matter immediately Jesus told them that they were
to the rulers. being sent out as sheep among
wolves, implying that they would
74. In His Sermon on the Mount,
Jesus said that the poor in spirit A. be sent to live among wolves
are blessed for they would B. be as meek as sheep
C. be properly equipped for the
A. be satisfied mission

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D. encounter difficulties. your God"'
D. "...You shall worship the Lord
78. In the story of the your God..."
Transfiguration, Moses and Elijah
represented the 81. Jesus told the parable of the
lost sheep in order to illustrate
A. glory of God that
B. old Testament saints
C. Law and the prophets A. every believer ought to rejoice
D. end of the age. with those who rejoice.
B. no person can hide from God
79. Jesus raised to life the son of C. God's love is unlimited
the widow of Nain because He D. there is joy in heaven over a
sinner who repents
A. wanted the whole of Judea to
know about him 82. Jesus was at the wedding in
B. wanted to show that He was a Cana of Galilee because
great prophet
C. had compassion on the mother A. He wanted to demonstrate His
D. loved the young man that power
died. B. He was invited to the ceremony
C. the groom was His relation
80. Jesus' reply to the devil's first D. the groom ran out of wine
temptation of Him was
83. Jesus was tempted by the
A. "...Him only shall you serve" devil so as to
B. "...Man shall not live by bread
alone..." A. fulfil all righteousness
C. "You shall not tempt the Lord B. show His power over forces of

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nature buy food
C. show that no one is above C. They had gone to the
temptation mountain to pray
D. test the devil's power D. They had gone to wait for Him.

84. The Hebrew word Rabboni 87. According to Ephesians,

means children who obey their parents in
the Lord will
A. disciple
B. priest A. be happy
C. master B. go to heaven
D. Teacher. C. have long life
D. be great
85. The impact of Jesus' miracle
of turning water into wine was 88. According to Peter, God shows
that the no partiality, but in every nation
anyone who fears Him is
A. servants were astonished
B. master of ceremony believed A. diligent before Him
C. disciples believed more in Him B. acceptable to Him
D. people glorified God. C. holy before Him
D. righteous before Him.
86. Where were the disciples of
Jesus when He had a conversation 89. According to Romans, the new
with the Samaritan woman? life is comparable to Jesus'

A. They had gone to the city to A. resurrection

preach the gospel B. ministry
B. They had gone to the city to C. ascension

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D. crucifixion. B. righteousness
C. grace
90. According to Thessalonians, D. faith.
the day of the Lord will not come
unless the 93. In Paul's arrangement of the
spiritual gifts in Corinthians, the
A. living die first last is
B. scoffers come first
C. dead rise first A. the utterance of wisdom
D. rebellion comes first. B. interpretation of tongues
C. gifts of healing
91. Busy bodies and those living D. various kinds of tongues
in idleness in the church at
Thessalonica were admonished to 94. In Romans, Paul condemned
sin taking over mortal bodies in
A. pray for those in authority for the new life as instruments of
peace
B. do their work in quietness and A. greediness
earn a living B. wickedness
C. appeal to those in authority to C. sadness
create jobs D. foolishness
D. endure persecution from their
masters 95. In Timothy Paul urges
Christians to pray for kings and
92. In his teaching on partiality, those in authority for the
James declares that mercy achievement of
triumphs over
A. a successful Christian life
A. judgment B. godly and acceptable life

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C. peace and exaltation in life A. evil will be destroyed
D. quiet and peaceable life B. there will be no more
corruption
96. Paul in Romans enjoins all C. there will be perfection
Christians to cast off works of D. righteousness dwell.
darkness end put on the
99. What does Paul advise Roman
A. armour of light Christians to do to those who
B. armour of faith persecute them?
C. works of grace
D. works of light. A. Give them drink when thirsty
B. Forgive them
97. Peter admonishes that C. Bless them
Christians should endure suffering D. Feed them when hungry.
because anyone who has suffered
in the flesh 100. Which of the following are
opposed to each other according
A. shall live the rest of his life in to Galatians?
peace
B. shall clothe himself with A. Believers and unbelievers
humility B. Freedmen and salves
C. has ceased from sin C. Jews and Gentiles
D. has overcome death. D. Flesh and Spirit.

98. Peter enjoins Christians to ANSWERS TO CRS QUESTIONS

wait in expectation of the new
heavens and the new earth in 1. D 2. C 3. D 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. C
which 8. C 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. C 13. A
14. D 15. B 16. C 17. B 18. D

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 UI POST UTME ECONOMICS QUESTIONS

UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN A. numerous wants

ECONOMICS B. enough money to undertake
effective demand
1. is the term that describes C. scale of preference
the cost of one product in terms D. human wants being numerous
of forgone production/acquisition but the time, money and influence
of others. to satisfy them are limited.
E. needs
A. Marginal cost
B. Production/acquisition cost 4. Economics is best defined as
C. Optimum cost
D. Opportunity cost
E. Implicit cost A. the study of allocation of
resources to satisfy human wants
2. An activity does not have a B. the study of human behaviour
cost when in the process of buying and
selling
A. the activity does not require C. study of how nations grow and
the giving up of any other activity improve their welfare
or thing D. the study of how to allocate
B. the government pays for it scarce resources to satisfy human
C. it is carried out by a non- wants
governmental organization E. all of the above.
D. it is not priced
E. it is easy to undertake. 5. Economics may be described as

3. Choices arise on account of

A. the study of demand and

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supply of things in our B. a study of the ways man
environment devices to satisfy his unlimited
B. the study of production and wants from limited resources
distribution C. cost of one product in terms of
C. the study of human behaviour forgone production of others
in the allocation of scarce D. the mandatory equivalent of
resources the utility of a commodity
D. the study of the employment E. cost related to an optimum
of labour, capital, land and capital level of production
E. the study of money and
banking. 8. Scarcity in economics means

6. From an economics point of

view, an activity does not have A. a period of scarce things
cost when B. when things are costly to
acquire
A. someone else pays for it C. monopolisation of available
B. the returns are greater than resources by a few
costs D. nationalisation of natural
C. the choice involves given up resources such as petroleum in
nothing Venezuela
D. government pays for it E. none of the above.
E. it is paid for from gift
9. Which of these is the real cost
7. Opportunity cost is a term of satisfying any want in the
which describes sense of the alternative that has
to be forgone?
A. initial cost of setting up a
business venture A. variable cost

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B. opportunity cost C. variance
C. total cost D. range
D. prime cost E. mean
E. marginal cost
13. A normal good with close
10. Economic analyses and substitutes is likely to have its
conclusions can be divided into price elasticity of demand

A. consumption and production A. between zero and one

B. positive and normative B. equal to unity
C. microeconomics and C. greater than unity
macroeconomics D. less than unity
D. demand and supply E. none of the above
E. none of the above
14. Demand for a factor of
11. Which of the following is NOT production is
a measure of central tendency?
A. A composite demand
A. mean B. a joint demand
B. median C. a derived demand
C. Mode D. an elasticity of demand
D. average E. cross elasticity of demand
E. standard deviation
14. Given Demand function: Qd =
12. Which of the following is NOT 5P + 10; Supply function: Qs =
a measure of dispersion? 7P – 5. If the price is at ₦5, the
excess demand is
A. standard deviation
B. mean deviation A. 35

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B. 30 price of commodity A on the
C. 10 quantity demanded of commodity
D. 5 B is best explained using the
E. 65 concept of

15. If an increase in the price of a A. price-elasticity of demand

commodity leads to an increase in B. cross-price elasticity of demand
total revenue, then it follows that C. income elasticity of demand
the demand for the commodity is D. elasticity of substitution
D. A-price elasticity of demand for
A. normal B
B. elastic
C. inelastic 18. The change that is due to a
D. abnormal movement from one supply curve
E. unitary to another along the same price is
called
16. If the price of a commodity
rises, the quantity demanded of A. change in supply
the commodity remains the same, B. change in quantity supplied
then the demand for the C. elasticity change
commodity is D. control price effect
E. change in equilibrium quantity
A. static
B. infinitely elastic 19. When the supply of a
C. externally determined commodity is fixed, its price
D. perfectly inelastic elasticity of supply is said to be
E. perfectly elastic
A. perfectly elastic
17. The impact of a change in the B. perfectly inelastic

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C. undefined intersects in more than one point
D. elastic B. the excess in the market can
E. inelastic be conveniently stored
C. excess demand is positive
20. Given Demand function: Qd = D. demand and supply curves
5P + 10; Supply function: Qs = intersect
7P – 5. The equilibrium quantity is E. excess demand is negative

A. 50 23. The basic feature of a market

B. 55 economy is
C. 75.5
D. 47.5 A. the reduction in the power of
E. 55.5 sellers
B. the enthronement of consumer
21. In market economies, sovereignty
resources are allocated through C. the dismantling of barriers to
the trade
D. the perfectly elastic price for
A. government authorities every transaction
B. price system E. the intersection of demand and
C. banking system supply curves
D. central planning bureau
E. revenue allocation formula 24. The following are the
conditions that must be fulfilled
22. In the operation of market for price determination EXCEPT
forces, the market is in
equilibrium at the point where
A. market merger
A. demand and supply curve B. market segmentation

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C. demand elasticities A. their factor prices are equal
D. product differentiation B. their marginal products are
E. none of the above equal to the factor prices
C. their marginal products are
25. The main function of price each equal to zero
mechanism is to D. the ratios of their marginal
product equals the ratio of their
A. limit consumer demand prices
B. enable producers make profits E. none of the above
C. allocate scarce resources
among competing ends 28. A production possibility curve
D. ensure consumer sovereignty shows
E. achieve excess capacity
A. how much of resources a
26. When government intervenes society uses to produce a
in price- setting, the regulated particular commodity
price is usually B. the rate of inflation
C. the rate of unemployment in
A. higher than the last price an economy
B. lower than the last price D. the various combinations of
C. higher than the equilibrium the commodities that can be
price produced
D. lower than the equilibrium E. all of the above
price
E. higher than the ceiling price 29. A rightward shift in the
production possibility frontier may
27. A firm achieves least cost in be due to
production by substituting factors
until A. use of inferior inputs

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B. inefficiency A. doubling inputs brings about
C. improvement in production more than proportionate increase
techniques and practices in output
D. changes in the product mix B. doubling inputs leads to a
E. changes in consumer taste doubling of output
C. doubling input brings about
30. Direct payment incurred for less than proportionate increase
producing a commodity is called in output
D. decrease in profit
E. increase in revenue
A. implicit cost
B. real cost 33. Economic efficiency means
C. opportunity cost
D. due cost
E. explicit cost A. obtaining maximum output
from available resources
31. Diseconomies of scale can be B. equitable distribution of
caused by the following EXCEPT nation’s resources
C. carrying out production without
any waste
A. managerial inefficiency D. producing the maximum
B. increased resource-cost output from available resources at
C. large market the lowest possible cost
D. inefficient business E. efficient utilisation of the
environment nation’s resources.
E. technology
34. External economies are
32. Diseconomies of scale
operates when A. the advantages accruing to

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firm as a result of its expansion C. Goods and services are
B. the advantages accruing to one produced by the government
firm as a result of the existence of D. Prices are fixed for goods and
other firms in the same locality services
C. benefits derived by a firm as a E. Goods and services finally
result of its own external reach the consumer
economies policy
D. economies reaped only by 37. In the study of economics,
firms that are externally focused land, labour, capital and
E. bound to increase the cost of entrepreneur are referred to as
production factors of production. These
factors produce commodities only
35. If a firm doubles its output if they are
and its costs increase by 60%,
the firm is experiencing A. profitable to the production
process
A. increasing costs B. purchased for the purpose of
B. economies of scale production
C. decreasing returns C. combined in the production
D. decreasing costs process
E. none of the above D. produced adequately for the
production process
36. In economics, production is E. brought into factory
complete when
38. Production that takes place
A. Goods are produced in the within the production possibility
factories curve is said to be
B. Goods are sold to the
wholesaler A. inefficient

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B. possible A. price of labour or its wage
C. with increased output B. price of labour, machinery and
D. x-efficient other inputs
E. pareto-compliant C. price of machinery
D. price of other inputs
39. The act of combining factor E. type of machinery
inputs in order to obtain specific
output is known as 42. The concept of economic
efficiency primarily refers to
A. factor procurement
B. manufacturing A. obtaining the maximum output
C. investment from available resources at the
D. industrialization lowest possible cost
E. production B. conservation of our petroleum
resources
40. The additional output obtained C. equity in the distribution of the
by using one more unit of a factor nation’s wealth
is called D. producing without waste
E. none of the above
A. marginal income
B. additional product 43. The law of diminishing returns
C. marginal revenue often operates in the
D. average product
E. marginal physical product A. long run
B. short run
41. The amount of labour a C. medium term
producer hires relative to other D. small scale production
factor input depends on the E. none of the above

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44. The main economic objective D. total fixed cost plus marginal
behind the production of goods cost
and services in an economy is to E. total variable cost divided by
output

A. maximise profits 47. Average fixed cost is a

B. satisfy human wants rectangular hyperbola,
C. become self-reliant
D. create job opportunities A. since unit cost increases as
E. make people wealthy output increases
B. unit cost increases as output
45. The residual of production decreases
which accrues to the ownership of C. unit cost decreases as output
land after all other expenses have increases
been met is called D. unit cost remains the same as
output increases
A. wages E. none of the above
B. profit
C. rent 48. Long run cost is U-shaped
D. interest because of the operation of
E. discount
A. economies of scale on the left-
46. Average fixed cost is hand side and diseconomies of
scale on the right-hand side
A. average total cost less the sum B. diseconomies of scale on the
of average variable cost left- and right-hand sides
B. half the sum of all costs C. economies of scale on the left-
C. total fixed cost divided by the and right- hand sides
level of output D. constant return to scale

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E. diseconomies of scale of the 51. Which of the following is used
left-hand side and economies of to describe a payment
scale of the right-hand side representing a surplus in excess
of transfer earnings?
49. Marginal cost is the cost
A. interest rates
A. the lowest cost of producing B. opportunity costs
goods C. economic rent
B. the cost of production of the D. indirect costs
most efficient firm in an industry E. wages
C. the cost of production of the
most inefficient firm in an 52. A perfectly competitive firm
industry produces the most profitable
D. the cost of production of the output where its
last unit of goods produced by a
firm A. marginal revenue equals
E. the cost of production at which average cost
minimum profit is obtained by the B. price equals average cost
firm C. price equals marginal cost
D. marginal cost equals marginal
50. Which of the following is NOT revenue
part of the fixed cost of a firm? E. average revenue equals
average cost
A. interest on loans
B. rent on buildings 53. Advertising is the main
C. depreciation reserves technique used for effecting in a
D. management expenditure monopolistic competition in
E. wages
A. market segmentation

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B. product differentiation B. demand is infinitely elastic
C. price C. marginal cost is falling
D. profit D. price is greater than marginal
E. supply cost
E. price is less than marginal cost
54. Output of a monopolist is
usually determined at a point 57. The difference between gross
where national product and net national
product is equal to
A. P=MC
B. MR=MC A. Gross investment
C. AR=AC B. Net investment
D. marginal cost is rising C. Net foreign income
E. marginal revenue is rising D. Capital depreciation
E. Net and gross
55. Product homogeneity is one of
the characteristics of 58. The difference between the
Gross Domestic Product and the
A. perfect competition Gross National Product is the
B. monopoly
C. monopolistic competition A. Allowance for total depreciation
D. oligopoly B. Total interest payments
E. competition C. Total tax and interest
payments
56. Which of the following is D. Net income from abroad
compatible with a firm in a purely E. none of the above
competitive market?
59. The multiplier is defined as
A. demand is inelastic

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A. The ratio of the change in E. substitutes like ATMs, cheques
income to the change in and bank draft.
investment
B. The change in investment 62. The ability of deposit money
divided by the change in income banks to create money is mainly
C. 1/(MPC) affected by
D. 1/(1-MPS)
E. Process of multiplying initial A. reserve ratio
increase in income B. liquidity ratio
C. capital base
60. A decrease in aggregate D. monetary policy rate
spending in an economy will E. all of the above
ultimately lead to
63. A document that shows the
A. Boom details of government revenue
B. Deflation and expenditure in a year is called
C. Inflation
D. Recession
E. stagnation A. budget
B. development plan
61. Money serves well as a store C. rolling plan
of value in an environment devoid D. perspective plan
of E. financial plan

A. unemployment 64. The basic fiscal relation that

B. bank robbery exists among the three tiers of
C. development-oriented central / government in Nigeria is
reserve bank
D. inflationary pressure A. national budget appropriation

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B. State-Local Government joint A. Economic growth
account B. Economic development
C. revenue allocation from the C. Structural change
federation account D. Stagflation
D. federal road projects E. Sustainable income growth
E. federal character principle
68. In recent years, Nigerian
65. The biggest source of economy has been registering a
government revenue in Nigeria is spectacular growth in sector in
the last ten years.

A. Mining rents and royalties A. agriculture

B. Company income tax B. education
C. Import duties C. telecommunication
D. Export duties D. transport
E. Petroleum profits tax E. distribution

66. A major obstacle to economic 69. Nigeria, being a developing

development is African country in the sub-Sahara,
has put together a development
A. A rise in industrial output blue-print called Vision 20:2020
B. Low farm productivity which can ensure that the country
C. Free trade becomes
D. Ineffective trade unions
E. corruption A. one of the 20 developed
countries by the year 2020
67. A sustained increase in the B. an African economic ‘Tiger’ by
per capita income of a country the year 2020
over a period of time is called C. one of the 20 largest

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economies in the world by the C. Nutritional levels
year 2020 D. Population growth rate
D. one of the 20 largest E. International development
economies in sub- Saharan Africa index
by the year 2020
E. one of the 20 largest 72. Which is NOT a direct effort to
economies in the developing increase agricultural production in
world by the year 2020 Nigeria?

70. The major objective of A. Operation Feed the Nation

economic growth is to B. Nigerian Youth Service Corps
C. Increased loans to farmers and
A. Redistribute income and other cooperatives
benefit of growth D. Research in Agriculture and
B. Equalize opportunity for extension services
education and employment E. Mechanization of agriculture
C. Increase aggregate
expenditure on goods and 73. Which of the following sectors
services of the economy is estimated to be
D. Increase the real per capita the largest employer of labour in
income the country?
E. Increase access to education
A. Construction
71. The most common index used B. Agriculture
for measuring development is C. Distribution
D. Mining and petroleum
E. Transport and communications
A. The level of literacy
B. Per capita income 74. Industries contribute to

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national economic development A. Consumer goods originally
because they imported
B. Machinery for industries
A. Utilize local raw material C. More goods for exports
B. Employ an increasing number D. More goods for domestic
of labour consumption
C. Provide recreational facilities E. Increasing export of goods
D. Use modern machines which needed in developed countries
replace human labour
E. All of the above 77. Which of the following is NOT
an advantage of localization of
75. Infant industries are industries?

A. Baby food and baby clothing A. Reaping of external economies

factories B. Development of a pool of
B. Those which are introducing skilled labour for the industry
new products C. Development of subsidiary
C. Cases of arrested development industries
D. Industries temporarily D. Development of organized
protected by tariffs barriers until markets
mature enough to compete on E. Growth of conurbations
world markets
E. Industries that are allowed to 78. The crucial factors which
remain permanent cases of determines the location of
adolescence petroleum refineries in Nigeria are
availability of raw materials and
76. The export-promotion
strategy is aimed at producing A. Capital
B. Political consideration

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C. Nearness to source of power B. Distributed freely
D. Labour C. Advertised to members of the
E. Availability of seaports public for subscription
D. Disposed off by the Chief
79. The petroleum industry in Executive
Nigeria is E. none of the above

A. The sole source of the nation’s 81. The advantage of the sole
revenue proprietorship is as follows:
B. The oldest industry in the
country A. It is always successful
C. The mainstay of the economy B. Continuity is no problem
D. A factor in the decline in the C. Control and supervision is
nation’s foreign reserves under one man
E. In the hand of NNPC D. Funds are easy to obtain
E. Inter-generational equity is
79. In a limited liability company, assured
the greatest risk is borne by
82. The maximum number of
A. Shareholders debentures shareholders for a limited liability
B. Company executives company is
C. Ordinary shareholders
D. Preference shareholders A. Twenty
E. Board of directors B. Seven
C. Five
80. In a public company, shares D. Infinite
are E. Limited to the number of
individuals that are interested
A. Sold to one person only

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83. Population density refers to A. It is possible for a densely
populated country to be under-
populated if it has insufficient
A. Densely populated urban labour to make the most effective
centres use of its other factors
B. The total area divided by the B. The quantity of labour, which
total population combines with other factors, gives
C. Densely populated rural areas the minimum output, is known as
D. The total population divided by optimum population
the total area C. The quantity of labour, which
E. All of the above combined with the other factors,
gives the maximum output, is
84. To calculate the annual known as optimum population
natural growth rate of a country’s D. The test of over-population is
population, one has to know the whether it exceeds the optimum
country’s annual birth rate and E. It is possible for a thinly
populated country to be over-
A. The size of that country populated if it has a poor supply
B. The rate of immigration into of other factors
that country
C. The population census of that 86. Which of the following is the
country standard concept of measuring
D. The annual death rate and analyzing population growth?
E. The gross domestic product
(GDP) of the country A. The rate of natural increase
B. The net migration rate
85. Which of the following is not C. The rate of population increase
true of the theory of optimum D. The fertility rate
population? E. All of the above

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87. Which of these would NOT villages
increase the population of a B. Exchange of goods for money
country? C. International trade
D. Exchange of goods for goods
A. Increase in death rate E. The trade of the Middle Ages
B. Decrease in birth rate
C. Emigration 90. Gains from trade depends on
D. Migration
E. Better medical facilities
A. Comparative advantage
88. An improvement in the B. Absolute advantage
Nigeria’s terms of trade should C. Distributive cost advantage
D. Absolute cost advantage
A. Lead to a fall in cost of her E. None of the above
imports in terms of what she must
sacrifice to obtain them 91. International and inter-
B. Make made-in-Nigeria goods regional trade differ primarily
cheaper to buy because
C. Increase Nigeria’s domestic
output of commodities A. Comparative advantage is
D. Lead to an increase in her relevant to the former but not to
exchange rates the latter
E. Lead to an increase in Nigeria’s B. Products flow easily within
exports of petroleum regions of a country
C. There are different resource
89. By ‘trade by barter’, we mean supplies among countries of the
world
D. Of regulations from GATT
A. Trade done by people in the E. None of the above

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92. Surplus in the balance of E. unit price
payments lead to
95. Under a system of freely
A. Inflation or increasing prices floating exchange rates, an
generally increase in the international value
B. Increase in foreign reserves of a country’s currency will cause
C. Decrease in foreign reserves
D. Government budget surplus
E. None of the above A. its exports to rise
B. its imports to rise
93. The expression ‘Terms of C. gold to flow into that country
Trade’ is used to describe D. its currency to be in surplus
E. devaluation
A. The quality of exports
B. The direction of foreign trade 96. When a currency loses its
C. Terms of purchase on deferred value due to a government action
payment basis to fix the quantity of the currency
D. The rate at which exports that exchanges for another
exchange for imports currency, there is
E. Import licensing
A. devaluation
94. The quantity of a currency B. depreciation
that exchanges for a unit of C. inflation
another currency is called its D. fiscal deficit
E. none of the above
A. exchange value
B. barter value 97. Which of the following items
C. exchange rate in the Balance of Payments
D. market price Account is an invisible

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transaction? 31. E 32. C 33. C 34. D 35. B
36. B 37. E 38. C 39. A 40. E
A. Imports of cars 41. E 42. B 43. A 44. B 45. A
B. Export of cocoa 46. C 47. C 48. C 49. A 50. D
C. Export of crude petroleum
D. Tourism 51. E 52. C 53. D 54. B 55. B
E. Import of building materials 56. A 57. B 58. D 59. D 60. A
61. B 62. D 63. A 64. A 65. C
98. A major trading problems 66. E 67. B 68. A 69. C 70. C
facing ECOWAS is 71. D 72. B 73. B 74. B 75. B

A. The absence of common 76. D 77. C 78. E 79. B 80. C

currency 81. C 82. C 83. C 84. D 85. D
B. Political instability 86. D 87. B 88. E 89. A 90. A
C. High poverty level 91. D 92. A 93. B 94. B 95. D
D. Non-implementation of 96. C 97. B 98. A 99. D 100. A
decisions
E. Trade-related political crisis in
Ivory coast

ANSWERS TO ECONOMICS
QUESTIONS

1. D 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C 6. C 7. C
8. E 9. B 10. B 11. E 12. E 13. C
14. C 15. D 16. C 17. D 18. B
19. A 20. B 21. D 22. B 23. D
24. B 25. A
26. C 27. D 28. B 29. D 30. C

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 UI POST UTME ACCOUNTING QUESTIONS

UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN A. the same person

ACCOUNTING QUESTIONS B. having business relationship
C. separate legal entities
1. A financial analyst needs D. partners.
accounts information to
4. One of the major features of
A. maintain the production bookkeeping is that it
section of the business
B. know why transactions cause A. provides permanent records for
increases and decreases in asset all financial transactions
C. advice on how to manage the B. is futuristic in nature
business C. accepts responsibility for all
D. know how to record wrong posting
transactions in T account. D. does not give room for double
entry procedure
2. Creditors use accounting
information for the purpose of 5. The accounting principle which
states that for every debit entry,
there is a corresponding credit
A. planning sales to a company entry is recognized as concept.
B. controlling a company's affairs
C. investing in a company A. realization
D. assessing a company's liquidity B. entity
C. going concern
3. In preparing accounting D. duality
records, the owners of a business
and the business are treated as 6. The art of collecting, recording,
presenting and interpreting

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accounting data is 9. Which of the following
accounting conventions suggests
A. cost accounting that accountants should use a
B. management accounting method of valuation that
C. financial accounting understates rather than
D. data processing overstates results?

7. The assumption that a A. Conservatism

business has perpetual existence B. Historical
is recognized by C. Monetary
D. Cost
A. entity concept
B. periodicity concept 10. Which of the following
C. going concern concept concepts is expected to hold when
D. realization concept a proprietor makes a drawing of
goods or cash from the business?
8. The most important reason for
studying accounting is that A. Business entity
B. Realization
A. the information provided by C. Going concern
accounting is useful in making D. Dual-aspect
decisions
B. accounting plays an important 11. A payment of cash of ₦20 to
role in a society John was entered on the receipt
C. the study of accounting leads side of the cash book in error and
to a challenging career credited to John's account. Which
D. accounting provides gross of the following journal entries
profit Information. can be used to correct the error?

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A. John: ₦40 Dr, Cash: 40 Cr. bought. If he sent in a cheque for
B. Cash: ₦40 ₦500, UTC would send him a
C. John: ₦20 Dr, Cash: ₦20 Cr.
D. Cash: 20 Dr, John: ₦20 Cr. A. credit note
B. debit note
12. A Sales Day Book is used for C. journal voucher
recording D. way bill.

A. credit sales 15. Books of original entry are

B. sales returns used for
C. hire purchase
D. cash sales A. recording business transactions
B. the adjustment of accounts
13. A trial balance is usually C. reminding the book keeper to-
prepared by an accountant from post transactions in the ledger
account balances in the ledger for D. informing the bookkeeper
the purpose of about the state of affairs.

A. classifying in the ledger. 16. If salary account is debited

B. Testing arithmetical accuracies instead of stationery account, the
of the ledger account balance error committed is that of
C. identifying the balance sheet
items A. commission
D. providing a basis for B. omission
establishing the accountant's C. principle
competence. D. compensation

14. Bola, UTC's regular customer, 17. Ledger account is mainly

owed ₦1000 on account of a radio classified into

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A. nominal, real and personal that is of permanent nature is the
accounts
B. fixed and current accounts
C. management, financial and A. personal account
public sector accounting B. real account
D. bank and cash accounts C. nominal account
D. cash account
18. One major advantage of a
ledger is that it 21. The document that is used to
acknowledge the acceptance of
A. is a book of original entry the return of goods by the seller
B. is only accessible to from the buyer is known as
shareholders during distribution
C. removes the need for A. credit note
preparing a balance sheet after B. debit note
each transaction C. invoice
D. can be used by any type of D. voucher.
business.
22. The effect of payment of a
19. Return inwards is also known liability is that it
as
A. increases both assets and
A. purchases returns liabilities
B. sales returns B. increases assets and decreases
C. goods on sale or return. liabilities
D. goods in transit C. decreases assets and increases
liabilities
20. The account which refers to D. decreases both assets and
the tangible assets of a company liabilities.

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23. The term posting in A. Assets = Capital + Liabilities
accounting refers to B. Capital = Assets + Liabilities
C. Liabilities = Assets + Capita
A. recording entries in the journal D. Assets = Liabilities – Equity
B. transferring the balances in the
ledger to the trial balance 27. A system where a separate
C. tracing amounts from the cash book is maintained for small
journal to the ledger to find errors payments is
D. transferring entries to the
ledger from the journal. A. single entry
B. imprest
24. Which of the following is not a C. float
real account? D. reimbursement

A. Buildings account 28. An analytical cash book is

B. Motor vehicle account used to …….
C. Patents account
D. Furniture account A. indicate sources of cash
received
25. Which of the following is not a B. Categorise petty cash payment
revenue account? C. separate cash and bank
balance
A. Sales D. analyse amounts due from
B. Purchases debtors
C. Discount received
D. Interest received 29. The sum of money given to a
petty cashier out of which small
26. Which of the following is the payments are made is called
basic accounting equation? A. bonus

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B. loan processing is
C. advance
D. float A. input → process → output
B. input → output → process
30. A rent of ₦250,000 was paid C. process → input → output
by John to his landlord by cheque. D. process → output → input
The double entry in John’s books
is 33. When a sum of money
appears on the credit side of the
A. debit Rent account, credit Bank cash book, but not on the debit
account side of the bank statement, the
B. debit Rent account, credit sum is regarded as
John’s account
C. debit Bank account, credit Rent A. uncredited cheques
account B. dishonoured cheques
D. debit John’s account, credit C. direct remittance to the bank.
Rent account D. unpresented cheques.

31. Items in the bank statement 34. Which of the following is not a
of a business but not in the cash data processing method?
book before preparation of bank
reconciliation statement do not A. Manual
include? B. Mechanical
C. Electronic
A. Bank charges D. Formatting
B. Standing order
C. presented cheque 35. Fatima withdraws goods from
D. interest on overdraft the business for personal use. The
32. The correct sequence in data accounting treatment is to debit

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 cost of an intangible asset over its
useful life is known as
A. stock account and credit profit
and loss account A. depreciation
B. drawings account and credit B. extraction
stock account C. depletion
C. Profit and loss account and D. amortization.
credit drawings account
D. Stock account and credit 39. The profit of a sole trader
drawings account increases his

36. Given N - Net Profit ₦25,000,

A. stock
Cost of sales ₦25,000, Sales
B. asset
₦85,000, Determine the total
C. liability
expenses.
D. capital

A. ₦45,000
40. The recording of wages due
B. ₦35,000
but not yet paid is an example of,
C. ₦25,000
an adjustment for
D. ₦15,000

37. The objective of a trading A. apportionment of revenue

account is to establish the between two periods
B. recognizing accrued expenses
A. cost of goods sold C. recognizing unaccounted
B. gross profit revenue
C. manufacturing profit D. recognizing prepaid expenses.
D. net profit
38. The process of allocating the 41. The trial balance showed

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wages, ₦2,500 and a note stated A. To cover some expenses of the
that ₦500 wages were due but following year.
unpaid. When preparing final B. To ascertain the actual
accounts and balance sheet, it is expenses during the year.
required to debit profit and loss C. To show the provisions made
account with during the year.
D. To show the total expenses
A. ₦3,000 and show wages paid and income received during
accrued ₦500 in the balance sheet the year.
B. ₦2,000 and show ages accrued
₦500 in the balanced sheet. 44. A seller of vegetables and
C. ₦3,000 and show wages fruits should be encouraged to
prepaid ₦500 in the balance value his stock at the end of a
sheet. period using the
D. ₦2,000 and show wages paid
in advance ₦500 in the balance A. weighted average method
sheet. B. simple average method
C. FIFO method
42. Which of the following is the D. LIFO method
effect of an increase in the
provision for discount allowed? 45. Stock valuation is useful
because it informs the sales
A. Increase in net profit department on the
B. Decrease in gross profit
C. Decrease in net profit A. prices of the competing goods
D. Increase in gross profit B. prices that will affect
profitability
43. Why are adjustments in the C. number of goods to produce
profit loss account necessary? D. number of goods to sell

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46. Which of the following stock 49. The difference in the sales
valuation methods is suitable ledger control account is
under inflationary conditions? transferred to the

A. FIFO A. profit and loss account

B. LIFO B. sales account
C. Simple average C. balance sheet
D. Weighted average. D. trading account

47. In the absence of a sales day 50. The following represents

book or sales account, credit sales extracts from the trading account
can be computed from of a retail outlet for a given
month: Opening stock − ₦2,400;
A. creditor control account Closing stock − ₦6,400; Other
B. debtors' control account expenses − ₦2,000; Sales −
C. opening figures of the balance ₦11,000; Profit − ₦900. What is
sheet the purchase figure for the
D. closing figures of the balance month?
sheet.
A. ₦13,000
48. Sales ledger control account B. ₦12, 100
contains the total amount in C. ₦12,000
respect of D. ₦11,200

A. Creditors 51. The objective of the purchases

B. Debtors ledger control account is to
C. Investors establish the
D. Shareholders.
A. credit purchases

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B. net profit 54. The total of the creditors at
C. total purchase the beginning of the year was
D. gross profit ₦4,600 and at the end of the year
₦5,250. During the year, ₦26,500
52. The principal use of control was paid to suppliers and ₦130
accounts is to was received in discounts from
these suppliers. The purchases for
A. localise errors within the the year Would be
ledgers
B. prevent fraud A. ₦26,630
C. Increase Sale B. ₦27,038
D. record assets and liabilities. C. ₦27,150
D. ₦27,280
53. The purchases ledger control
account of a company had an 55. Tunde purchased goods from
opening balance of ₦45,600 and Femi by cash worth ₦1,000 with
closing balance of ₦72,600 credit. 10% cash discount Tunde’s
The company made payments of purchases ledger control account
₦437,000 to credit suppliers it to be
during the period; and had
discount received of ₦18,600 on A. debit by ₦100
this account. What were the credit B. credited by ₦100
purchases for the period? C. credited by ₦1,000
D. debited by ₦1,000
A. ₦509,600
B. ₦482,600 56. Which of the following
C. ₦428,600 conditions best represents the net
D. ₦418,400 effect of discount allowed on
credit sales on the accounts of a

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business? A. ₦ 760,000
B. ₦ ₦744,800
A. Decrease in the closing balance C. ₦ 744,000
of sales ledger control account D. ₦ 784,000
B. Increase in net profit.
C. Increase in the value of sales. 59. The starting point for the
D. Decrease in the value of production of accounts from
purchases in the trading account. incomplete records is to ……..

57. Given: N - Capital at the A. ascertain the total sales.

beginning − ₦20,000, Drawings B. compute the opening stock of
− ₦3,000, Capital at end − goods sold.
₦30,000, New capital introduced C. verify the total purchases
− ₦8,000. What is the profit for D. prepare an opening statement
the period? of affairs.

A. ₦4,000 60. A factory cost excluding prime

B. ₦5,000 cost is
C. ₦6,000
D. ₦8,000 A. overhead
B. material cost
58. Sundry debtors in the balance C. fixed cost
sheet of Onoja Bakery and Sons D. administration cost
totalled ₦800,000. A provision of
2%was made for discount and 5% 61. Given: N - Prime cost −
provision for bad and doubtful ₦220,000, Factory cost −
debts. Find the amount for sundry ₦32,000, Work in progress at
debtors after provision. beginning − ₦25,000, Work In
progress at close − ₦19,000,

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Administrative expenses − account does
₦21,000 , Determine the C. is concerned with the cost of
production cost. production, the trading account is
not.
A. ₦296,000 D. is not concerned with stock of
B. ₦277,000 raw materials, the trading account
C. ₦258,000 is.
D. ₦246,000
64. The factory cost of goods
62. Given: N - Direct material − produced is made up of
₦10,000, Direct labour −
₦5,000, Direct expenses − A. prime cost and factory
2,000, Factory overhead − overhead
4,000. What is the prime cost? B. prime cost and office overhead
C. raw materials consumed and
A. ₦21,000 fixed cost
B. ₦17,000 D. raw materials and
C. ₦15,000 administrative overhead.
D. ₦6,000
65. The following information is
63. The difference between a provided for Amusa Company Ltd
trading account and a a manufacturer: N- Prime cost −
manufacturing account is that ₦999,000, Manufacturing
while manufacturing account overhead − ₦132,000, Closing
work in progress − ₦75,000,
A. has no particular period, the Value of finished goods
trading account has transferred to the Trading
B. does not consider cost of Account – ₦1,116,000, If included
goods involved, the trading in the manufacturing overhead

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were rents of ₦5,000 paid in 66. The manufacturing account is
advance, what is the opening prepared to determine the cost of
work in progress for the period?

A. ₦85,000 A. trading
B. ₦80,000 B. production
C. ₦70,000 C. factory overhead
D. ₦65,000 D. raw materials used

67. Subscription in arrears are how well the organization is doing

is the

A. credited to the income and A. appropriation account

expenditure account and shown B. balance sheet
as a liability in the balance sheet C. income and expenditure
B. debited to the income and account.
expenditure account and shown D. receipt and payment account.
as an asset in the balance sheet
C. credited to the income and 69. Departmental accounts are
expenditure account and shown maintained to ascertain the
as an asset in the balance sheet
D. debited to the income and A. profits of the entire
expenditure account and shown organization
as a liability in the balance sheet. B. contribution of each
department
68. Where a non-profit C. expenses of each department
organization prepares the D. sales of each department.
accounts using accruals basis of
reporting, the statement showing 70. The gross profit disclosed in

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the branch stock adjustment which they are entitled to interest
account represents at 5% per annum. The profit for
the year before charging interest
A. Head office profit on capital amounts to ₦5,500.
B. unrealized profit Calculate the profit for Adamu.
C. estimated profit
D. branch profit A. ₦583
B. ₦1,000
71. A partnership on admitting a C. ₦1,167
new member, revalued the D. ₦1,750
business' land and building from
₦30,000 to ₦70,000. The 73. In a partnership business, the
difference of ₦40,000 should be net profit serves as opening figure
for

A. credited to land and building A. trading account

account B. profit and loss account
B. debited to asset revaluation C. current account
account D. appropriation account
C. credited to asset revaluation
account 74. In the absence of a
D. credited to profit and loss partnership agreement, profits
appropriate account. and losses are shared

72. Adamu, Babaji and Chukwu A. in the ratio of capital

are in a partnership and they B. equally
share profit and losses on ratio C. in the ratio of drawings
3:2:1. Their respective capitals D. according to services rendered
are ₦20,000, ₦15,000, ₦5,000 on

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75. Interest on a partner's indefinite.
drawings is debited to the B. The owners are liable
personally for all debts of the
A. partner's current account and business.
credited to the profit and loss C. The transfer of ownership
appropriate account interest is frequent and easy to
B. profit and loss appropriation accomplish
account and credited to the D. The partnership is complex to
partner's current account form because of many legal and
C. profit and loss account and reporting requirements.
credited to the partner's account
D. partner's current account and 78. A bond, acknowledging a loan
credited to the profit and loss to a company under the
account. company’s seal, bearing a fixed
rate of interest is known as
76. Partners’ share of profit is
credited to ……… A. certificate
B. agreement
A. a partner’s current account C. bank loan
B. a partner’s capital account D. debenture
C. the profit and loss account
D. the profit and loss 79. Alabede (Nig.) Limited issued
appropriation account 50,000 ordinary shares if 1 each
at a market value of ₦2.50 each,
77. Which of the following is a the share premium is
strong feature of partnership? A. ₦125,000
B. ₦100,000
A. The life of the partnership is C. ₦75,000
generally assumed to be D. ₦50,000.

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80. All but one of the following which is not meant for liability or
are examples of capital reserves. contingency are

A. Share premium A. dividends

B. Revaluation surplus B. provisions
C. Pre-incorporation profit C. retained profits
D. debenture premium D. reserves

81. Holders of ordinary shares do 84. Which of the following attracts

not have the right to a fixed rate of dividend?

A. participate in additional issue A. Ordinary shares

of shares B. Founders’ shares
B. vote at annual general C. Preference shares
meetings D. Deferred shares
C. elect the board of directors
D. receive dividend at a 85. Which Of the following ratios
predetermined rate gives an idea of the liquidity of a
firm?
82. In company accounts, profit
after tax is shared in the account. A. Turnover ratio
B. Quick ratio
A. appropriation C. Debt ratio
B. revaluation D. Dividend yield.
C. current 86. A pension granted to any past
D. profit realization president or vice-president shall
be charged to the
83. The amount set aside out of
profits earned by a company A. consolidated revenue fund

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B. special pension fund 90. Adama's bank account
C. contingency fund showed an overdraft of ₦600 on
D. development fund 31st March. On going through the
account, it was discovered that
87. Public sector accounting is the ₦1,080 paid into the account
practiced in .
on 29th march had not been
credited. What should be the
A. public limited companies
balance in Adama’s cash
B. government organizations
accounts.
C. profit making organizations
D. public trading companies
A. ₦1,680 Dr.
B. ₦1,080 Cr.
88. The basis of accounting which
C. ₦600 Dr.
eliminates debtors and creditors is
D. ₦480 Cr.

ANSWERS TO FINANCIAL
A. cash basis
ACCOUNTING QUESTIONS
B. accrual basis
C. fund basis
1. C 2. D 3. C 4. A 5. D 6. C 7. C
D. commitment basis
8. A 9. A 10. A 11. A 12. A 13. B
14. A 15. A 16. A 17. A 18. D
89. Which of the following is a
19. B 20. B 21. A 22. D 23. D
source of revenue to a local
government authority?
24. C 25. B 26. A 27. B 28. B
A. Poll tax
29. D 30. A 31. C 32. A 33. D
B. Excise duty
34. D 35. B 36. B 37. B 38. D
C. PAYE tax
39. D 40. B 41. A 42. C 43. B
D. Value added tax
44. C 45. B 46. A

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47. B 48. B 49. B 50. B 51. A
52. A 53. B 54. D 55. A 56. A
57. B 58. B 59. D 60. A 61. C
62. B 63. C 64. A 65. D 66. B
67. C 68. C 69. B

70. D 71. C 72. D 73. D 74. B

75. A 76. A 77. B 78. D 79. C
80. D 81. D 82. A 83. D 84. C
85. B 86. B 87. B 88. A 89. A
90. D

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 UI POST UTME GOVERNMENT QUESTIONS

UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN organizations

GOVERNMENT QUESTIONS C. Public corporations are
financed and controlled by
1. A key characteristic of the civil government
service is D. Public corporations are not
involved in production of tangible
A. Merit system. goods
B. Patriotism.
C. Quota system. 4. A primary agency of political
D. Transparency. socialization is:

2. A major cause of inefficiency in A. the government

public corporations is B. the family
C. the mass media
A. inadequate patronage by D. the School
members of the public
B. absence of an enabling Act or 5. A process that seeks to transfer
law ownership and control of public
C. political interference corporations to private individuals
D. competition from private firms or organizations is called

3. A major distinction between A. Indigenization

public corporations and private B. Commercialization
companies is that C. Privatization
D. Acquisition
A. Public corporations provide
important services 6. Adult male suffrage means that
B. Public corporations are large

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A. All men who pay tax can vote. the US presidential system
B. All adult males can vote.
C. All men can vote. A. absolutely separated
D. All adults can vote. B. fused
C. absolutely fused
7. All of the following are D. separated
obligations of citizens, except
11. In a democracy, franchise is
A. Obedience to laws. limited by
B. Voting.
C. Giving alms to beggars. A. Age.
D. Payment of taxes. B. Sex.
C. Wealth.
8. An electoral district is D. Education.

A. A local government area. 12. In the civil service, anonymity

B. A ward. means that civil servants must
C. A polling booth.
D. A constituency.
A. Not receive the credit or blame
9. Fascism was practiced in Italy for any good.
under: B. Serve any government
impartially.
A. Benito Masollini C. Avoid nepotism and
B. Benito Mubarak favouritism.
C. Benito Mussolini D. Be politically neutral.
D. Benito Mandela
13. In which of the following set
10. Governmental powers are in of countries is a dominant two-

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party system operated. source of constitution?

A. Nigeria and Ghana. A. Customs and conventions

B. The United States and the B. civil service regulations
United Kingdom. C. historical documents
C. France and Germany. D. judicial precedents.
D. India and China.
17. One of the objectives of a
14. One of the advantages of multiparty system is to
direct election is that:
A. Eliminate corruption.
A. it is too expensive and difficult B. Prevent rigging.
to conduct C. Provide alternatives.
B. illiterates vote intelligently for D. Avoid ethnicity.
their leaders
C. it makes representatives 18. Political sovereignty lies with:
accountable to the electors
D. it offers an opportunity to the A. Head of State
electorate to demand for money B. Head of Government
C. the Parliament
15. One of the following is not a D. the electorate
feature of a modern state
19. Public corporations are
A. Territorial landmass established principally to
B. Population of People
C. Defined Territory A. compete with private firms
D. Sovereignty B. Raise revenue for the
government
16. One of the following is not a C. provide essential services for

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the public persons
D. Promote public accountability B. Separation of governmental
powers and Separation of persons
20. Public opinion helps a C. Separation of persons only
government to D. Separation of powers of
government only
A. Monitor its socio-cultural
policy. 23. The assent of the President is
B. Monitor the economic situation required to convert a/an to law
in the country.
C. Punish opposition to its A. Bill
policies. B. Edict
D. Develop the country in line C. Proclamation
with the people’s aspirations. D. Decree

21. Roles that are expected to be 24. The branch of Government

performed by an individual in a that sets agenda for other organs
country are is known as:

A. Elections. A. the bureaucracy

B. Duties. B. the legislature
C. Rights. C. the executive
D. Services. D. the mass media

22. Separation of powers denotes 25. The capitalist economy is

dictated by:

A. Separation of governmental A. Government economic

powers but not separation of blueprint

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B. Consumers’ requirements D. Clerical cadre.
C. Diminishing returns
D. the forces of demand and 29. The law of libel limits a
supply citizen’s right to freedom of

26. The central Legislative body in A. Association.

Britain is referred to as B. Expression.
C. Worship.
A. National Assembly D. Movement.
B. Knesset
C. Parliament 30. The major advantage of the
D. Congress secret ballot is that

27. The chairman of the A. It ensures the anonymity of

committee that reviewed the each voter.
1988 civil service commission was B. It is faster than other systems.
C. Nobody can be prevented from
voting.
A. Chief P.C Asiodu. D. It extends the franchise to all
B. Chief Edwin Clerk. adults.
C. Chief Allison Ayida.
D. Chief Simeon Adebo. 31. The permanent executive
includes:
28. The highest grade in the civil
service is known as A. Civil servants and not public
servants
A. Executive cadre. B. Civil servants and politicians
B. Administrative cadre. C. all career officers that serve
C. Technical cadre. any government in power

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D. elected and appointed C. Flexible
politicians D. Federal

32. The pressure group that 35. Which of the following best
resorts to unconventional describes a sovereign state?
methods to achieve its objectives
is called A. a member of the African Union
B. Freedom from economic control
A. Institutional group C. Geographical contiguity
B. Interest group D. Military, political and economic
C. Promotional group independence
D. Anomic group
36. Which of these is an element
33. The three fundamental rights of state power?
of citizens are
A. Geographical location,
A. Life, liberty and property. population & economic resources
B. Salvation, property, freedom of B. Geographical location, elite
thought. interests & economic resources
C. Employment, property and C. Geographical location, ethnicity
social security. & economic resources
D. Free education, employment D. Geographical location, political
and property. crisis & economic resources

34. When a constitution is not 37. Which of these is not a

difficult to amend, it is said to be: method of election?

A. Rigid A. Simple majority.

B. Systematic B. Proportional representation.

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C. Primary election. C. Council of Chiefs.
D. Co-option. D. Assembly of lineage heads.

38. plays rule adjudication 41. Educated elites in Nigeria did

role in Nigeria not like the system of indirect rule
because it
A. The Civil Service
B. The Legislature A. Did not make provisions for
C. The Executive them.
D. The Judiciary B. Was exploitative and
cumbersome.
39. A two-party system of C. Made traditional rulers too
government is one in which powerful.
D. Was undemocratic and
A. only one party performs oppressive.
multiparty functions
B. the elite dominate political 42. Federalism in Nigeria is best
parties seen as a way of promoting
C. only few parties are allowed to
operate by law A. Rapid economic development
D. There are two major parties B. unity in diversity
and other minor parties C. even national development
D. democracy
40. An important agency for social
control in the Igbo traditional 43. In Nigeria, the civil service
society was the was first regionalized by the

A. Age-grade. A. Independence constitution.

B. Ozo-title holders. B. Richard constitution.

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C. Clifford constitution. A. Of the expulsion of Kwane
D. Lyttleton constitution. Nkrumah from Britain.
B. Of the return of the educated
44. In the Hausa pre-colonial elite from abroad.
political system, sovereignty was C. Prices of commodities fell
located in the below expectation.
D. Africans were nominated to the
A. Alkali executive council.
B. Emir
C. Waziri 47. Nigeria started to operate a
D. Galadima real federal structure with the
introduction of the
45. In the pre-Colonial
Hausa/Fulani system, the A. 1922 Clifford constitution.
appointment of an Emir in the B. 1946 Richard constitution.
caliphate was approved by C. 1953 London conference.
D. 1954 Lyttleton constitution
A. Sultan of Sokoto and the Emir
of Gwandu. 48. Nigeria’s First Constitution
B. Galadima and the Waziri.
C. Sardauna of Sokoto and the A. Lyttleton constitution.
Alkali. B. Clifford constitution.
D. Sheu of Bornu and the C. Macpherson Constitution.
Galadima D. Independence constitution.

46. Nationalist activities in British 49. One of the fundamental

West Africa increased after the changes recommended by
second World War because Adedotun Philips commission is

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A. Frequent movement of staff 52. The breakdown of the
B. Standardization Macpherson constitution was
C. Professionalization partly caused by the crisis within
D. Stagnation the

50. One of the fundamental A. NCNC

reversals made by the B. AG
commission that reviewed the C. NPC
1988 reform of the civil service D. NNDP
was
53. The First Executive president
A. Change of Director General to of Nigeria was
Permanent Secretaries.
B. Change from Permanent A. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe.
Secretary to Director General. B. Sir Abubakar Tafawa Balewa
C. Change from Director General C. General Yakubu Gowon
to Permanent Administrators. D. Alhaji Sheu Shagari
D. Permanent Professionals.
54. The first military coup in
51. The Local government Nigeria took place on
reforms recognized local
government as the third tier of A. July 15, 1966
government B. July 27, 1967
C. January 15, 1966
A. 1963 D. January 13, 1966
B. 1976
C. 1988 55. The first three political parties
D. 1989 to be registered in the Fourth
Republic were

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A. ACN, ANPP and PDP Union
B. AD, APP and PDP D. United Middle Belt Congress
C. PPA, PDP, CAN
D. APGA, CAN and PDPB 59. The state created in Nigeria
before 1966 was
56. The imposition of unitary form
of administration by General A. East central state
Ironsi in 1966 led to B. Lagos state
C. Mid- Western state
A. More military institutions D. North central state
B. Return to civilian rule
C. Independence from British rule 60. The1964 federal election was
D. civil unrest in the North contested by two major alliances
of political parties among these:
57. The institution that preserves
civil liberty in Nigeria is the A. All Progressive Grand Alliance
and the Northern People’s Alliance
A. Law Court. B. Nigerian National Alliance and
B. Civil Service Commission. United Progressive Grand Alliance
C. Police Affairs Commission. C. National Democratic Coalition
D. Public Complaints Commission. and Nigerian People’s Alliance
D. National Democratic Alliance
58. The main opposition party and Northern Elements
during the First Republic was the Progressive Union

61. Under the 1999 constitution

A. Northern People’s Congress of the Federal Republic of Nigeria
B. Action Group there are a total of Local
C. Northern Element Progressive government councils

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A. 334 Federal System of government?
B. 620
C. 724 A. Cultural diversities
D. 774 B. Security consideration
C. Economic consideration
62. Which of the following ethnic D. Limited resources.
groups had the best egalitarian
traditional political system? 65. Which of the following is not
an example of a public
A. Hausa/ Fulani. corporation in Nigeria?
B. Yoruba.
C. Igbo. A. Nigerian Railway Corporation
D. Edo. B. Federal Radio Corporation of
Nigeria
63. which of the following is not a C. Federal Mortgage Bank of
major problem of local Nigeria
government in Nigeria? D. National Deposit Insurance
Corporation
A. Insufficient funding and limited
internally generated revenue 66. Which of the following
B. Interference and control by statements is true about the 1963
higher levels of government and 1979 Constitutions?
C. Lack of competent and
qualified staff A. Both had provisions for the
D. lack of sufficient number of office of the president.
local governments B. Both had provision for the
office of the constitutional
64. Which of the following is not a president.
reason for the adoption of a C. Both provided for the offices of

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prime minister and president. B. ECOWAS Treaty
D. Both had provision for the C. Nuclear Test Ban Treaty
office of an executive president. D. Anglo–Nigeria Defence Pact

67. Which of these former 70. The circumstance that led to

Nigerian Heads of State was the establishment of ECOWAS
instrumental to the establishment Monitoring Group (ECOMOG ) was
of ECOWAS?
A. the bloody civil war in Nigeria
A. Sani Abacha B. the bloody civil war in Liberia
B. Yakubu Gowon C. the bloody civil war in Sudan
C. Olusegun Obasanjo D. the bloody civil war in all West
D. Tafawa Balewa African countries

68. In 1975, Nigeria had a 71. The head of Nigeria’s foreign

strained relationship with one of mission in a Commonwealth
the following countries over the nation is best known and
crisis in Angola. addressed as

A. Britain A. Ambassador
B. Israel B. Envoy
C. USA C. High commissioner
D. Mexico D. Representative

69. Nigeria’s non–aligned posture 72. What determines Nigeria’s

was criticized on ground of the relations with other countries?

A. Its national interest

A. Non–Proliferation Treaty B. Its level of democratization

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C. Its citizens political sagacity D. Abubakar regime
D. Its political culture
75. Which of these is an example
73. Which of the following best of Nigeria’s external cultural
defines foreign policy? relations?

A. The ways in which some actors A. Exchange of students with

on the domestic scene translate friendly nations
available power into policies B. Trade relationships with other
designed to bring positive countries
outcomes C. Financial and economic
B. The actions of a state towards assistance to needy countries
the celestial environment D. Establishment of diplomatic
C. A set of objectives with missions in other countries
regards to the world beyond the
borders of a given state and a set 76. Which of these is correct
of strategies and tactics designed about Nigeria’s foreign policy
to achieve these objectives between 1960 and 1966?
D. The protection of the territorial
integrity of a state A. It was pro-British
B. It was pro-American
74. Which of the following military C. It was pro-Soviet
regimes was credited with a D. It was pro-French
dynamic foreign policy?
77. Which of these is NOT part of
A. Gowon administration a country’s core or vital interests?
B. Murtala Mohammed
administration A. Economic viability
C. Sani Abacha regime B. Political independence

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C. Territorial integrity B. 1963
D. Political brouhaha C. 1960
D. 1961
78. Which of these is NOT the
essence of foreign policy? 81. A major weakness of the
Commonwealth is
A. Promotion and defence of a
nation’s vital interest A. lack of commitment by
B. Protection and promotion of a member states
nation’s strategic interest B. lack of quorum at annual
C. Protection and promotion of summits
the interest of the political leaders C. poverty among member states
of a country D. lack of democratic leadership
D. Promotion and defence of the
economic interest of a nation 82. An essential principle that
guides the works of the United
79. Which of these Nigerians has Nations
ever played a leading role in the
operation of OPEC? A. The regulation of international
trade
A. Alhaji Rilwanu Lukman B. The protection of the United
B. Prof Joe Garba States of America against
C. Prof Joy Ogwu terrorism
D. Gen. Ike Nwachukwu C. Respect for sovereign equality
of member states
80. Which year was the Anglo- D. The transfer of technology to
Nigerian defence pact abrogated? developing countries

A. 1962 83. In which of these

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International Organisations is with in international politics
African membership NOT B. world economic depression
possible? brought about fall in oil price
C. there is a declining loyalty of
A. ECOWAS its members
B. EU D. there are challenges posed by
C. OPEC non–OPEC members
D. Commonwealth
86. One of the following groups of
84. Membership of the states are all members of the
Commonwealth of Nations means ECOWAS

A. recognition of the Queen as A. Nigerian Ghana and Zaire

the Head of the commonwealth B. Guinea, Togo and Cameroun
and the republican states C. Guinea Bissau, Burkina Faso
B. recognition of the Queen as and Cape Verde
the Head of the commonwealth D. Liberia Benin and Ethiopia
and not of the Republican States
C. recognition of the Queen as 87. The AU was formed by
the Head of the independent members of OAU
states and the republican states
D. recognition of the Queen as A. On 8th July 2002 at Durban,
the Head of all independent states South Africa

B. On 8th July 2003 at Abuja,

85. One major achievement of
Nigeria
OPEC is that
C. On 8th July 2003 at Tripoli

D. On 8th June 2002 at Accra,

A. member nations are now
Ghana
formidable forces to be reckoned

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88. The first nation to become a 91. The OAU adopted NEPAD
republic within the during its summit held in
Commonwealth of Nations is
A. Abuja
A. Nigeria B. Lusaka
B. Cyprus C. Tunis
C. Ghana D. Cairo
D. India
92. The organ charged with the
89. The first summit of the African responsibility of approving the
Union (AU) took place annual budget of UNO is

A. On February 2, 2004 at Addis A. The Security Council

Ababa, Ethiopia B. The International Court of
B. On February 3, 2003 at Addis Justice
Ababa, Ethiopia C. the General Assembly
C. On February 3, 2003 at Abuja, D. The Trusteeship Council
Nigeria
D. On February 2, 2004 at Lagos, 93. To which of these blocs did
Nigeria Nigeria belong before the
establishment of the OAU?
90. The Non-aligned Movement
was established at in . A. Casablanca group
B. Monrovia group
A. Bombay,1955 C. Pan African group
B. Bandung, 1955 D. African and Malagasy group
C. Lagos, 1972
D. Addis Ababa, 1955 94. What is the full meaning of
ECOWAS?

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A. Economic Community for A. The Assembly Conference
Western African States B. The Executive Council
B. Economic Community of C. African Court of Justice
Western African States D. The Commission
C. Economic Community of West
African States 98. Which of the following is an
D. Economic Community for West apt definition of the
African States Commonwealth of Nations?

95. Where and when was the A. voluntary association of the

African Union inaugurated? independent countries of the
former British Colonies
A. Durban, 2000 B. association of free nations
B. Addis Ababa, 1963 enjoying equal rights under the
C. Lagos, 1972 British
D. Tripoli, 2001 C. a free association of sovereign
independent African States
96. Which of the following is a D. a voluntary association of
functionally specialized global countries that were formerly in
international organization? the French colonial empire

A. Organization of African Unity 99. Which of the following is NOT

B. United Nations a principal organ of the UNO?
C. Food and Agriculture
Organization A. UNICEF
D. African Union B. Security Council
C. Secretariat
97. Which of the following is a D. General Assembly
specialized agency of the AU?

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100. Which of the following 71. C 72. A 73. C 74. B 75. A
metamorphosed into the United
Nations? 76. A 77. D 78. C 79. A 80. A
81. A 82. C 83. B 84. B 85. A
A. International Labour 86. C 87. A 88. D 89. B 90. B
Organization 91. D 92. C 93. B 94. C 95. A
B. League of Nations 96. C 97. C 98. A 99. A 100. B
C. UNESCO
D. OAU
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 UI POST UTME HISTORY QUESTIONS

UNIVERSITY OF IBADAN C. Chad

HISTORY QUESTIONS D. Morocco

1. is the name of the 4. Oba is the name of the

political head of Zaria political head of

A. Obi A. Benin
B. Emir B. Kano
C. Oba C. Bornu
D. Alaafin D. Sokoto

2. was the state which was 5. The Amazon (female warriors)

thrown into anarchy and turmoil Participated actively in defending
as a result of the opening of the which of these kingdoms
Muni, the sacred heritage by the
king under the prompting of A. Oyo empire
Muslim Missionaries. B. Benin empire
C. Dahomey Kingdom
A. Kanem D. Ghana
B. Salem
C. Njimi 6. The Form of economy of pre-
D. Chad colonial Nigerian peoples was

3. Before getting to Nigeria, River

Niger passed across A. capitalist
B. socialist
A. Mali C. communist
B. Kanem D. subsistence

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7. The Fulani Jihadists were A. Hausa
halted in 1840 at the battle of B. Kush
C. Mereo
D. Fulfude
A. Tondibi
B. Ngala 11. The leader of the Jihad that
C. Adowa took place in northern Nigeria
D. Oshogbo between 1804 and 1805 was

8. The god of thunder and A. Uthman dan Fodio

lightning in the Yoruba Pantheon B. Elkenemi
is called C. Ahmadu Bello
D. Tafawa Balewa
A. Oduduwa
B. Oramiyan 12. The longest Dynasty in West
C. Sango Africa was
D. Afonja

A. Saifawa of Kanem-Born
9. The Igbo in the pre-colonial era
B. Umayid of Arab
had ……….
C. Oranmiyan of Oyo
D. Bayajidda of Daura
A. dictatorial government
B. government of chiefs
13. The name of the traditional
C. no central government
head of Nupe is called
D. warrant chiefs

A. Etsu
10. The language of the Fulani is
B. Emir
C. El Kanem

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D. Obong A. Oba
B. Alaafin
14. The old Oyo empire had as its C. Obi
capital in D. Emir

A. Katunga 18. The provinces and towns

B. Ijabe under Oyo were headed by local
C. Igboho chiefs known as the
D. Sepeteri
A. Oyo Mesi
15. The original home of the B. Baale
Fulani was C. Oba
D. Baba kekere
A. Niger
B. Senegambia 19. was the capital of the
C. Egypt Western Region in the colonial
D. Chad period.

16. The original home of the A. Ife

Kanuri people in Borno is said to B. Ibadan
be in C. Oyo
D. Abeokuta
A. Kenem
B. Buganda 20. It was through the activities
C. Kenya of that the Niger area became a
D. Zulu British sphere of influence

17. The political head of Yoruba A. Lord Lugard

towns is known as B. The United Africa Company

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C. Herbert Macaulay 24. The first nationalist political
D. The Royal Niger company. party in post- world war II Nigeria
was
21. Nigeria as we know it today is
a product of amalgamation of A. NEPU
northern and southern B. NPC
protectorates in the year C. NCNC
D. AG.
A. 1906
B. 1910 25. The First railway in Nigeria
C. 1912 was constructed in
D. 1914
A. 1916
22. Nigeria became a Republic in B. 1898
C. 1914
D. 1960
A. 1960
B. 1963 26. The headquarters of
C. 1965 Department of Agriculture in
D. 1962 colonial Nigeria was

23. Palm Produce was heavily A. Kaduna

concentrated in B. Sokoto
C. Ibadan
A. Northern Nigeria D. Lagos
B. North Eastern Nigeria
C. North western Nigeria 27. The missionary responsible for
D. Southern Nigeria. the abolition of killing of twins in
Calabar was

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A. Mary Slessor B. Lord Lugard, Sir Arthur
B. Magaret Thatcha Richards and Sir John Macpherson
C. Lindsa Lisau C. Herbert Macaulay, Earnest Ikoli
D. Judith By field and Okonkwo Nkem
D. Alhaji Isa Kaita, Dr. K.O.
28. The Nigerian Youth Movement Mbadiwe and chief S.L Akintola
was founded in
31. The trading company which
A. 1920 conquered most of the northern
B. 1922 Nigeria was
C. 1936
D. 1937 A. UAA
B. Royal Niger Company
29. The system of administration C. PZ
used by the British in Nigeria was D. John Holt
rule.
32. The University College,
A. direct Ibadan was established in
B. indirect
C. divide and A. 1960
D. warrant B. 1958
C. 1948
30. The three well known D. 1900
nationalist leaders in Nigeria
between 1948 and 1966 were 33. Who was the first woman to
drive a car in Nigeria?
A. Dr. Nnamdi Azikiwe, Chief
Obafemi Awolowo and Alhaji A. Dora Akunyuli
Ahmadu Bello B. Farida Waziri

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C. Laila Dongoyaro 37. Nigeria was divided into 12
D. Funmilayo Ransome kuti states in

34. was not part of the policy A. 1960

of General Gowon’s administration B. 1963
immediately after the Nigerian C. 1967
Civil War. D. 1970

A. redistricution 38. Oodua people’s Congress is a

B. rehabilitation cultural organization in
C. reconciliation
D. reconstruction A. Southwestern Nigeria
B. Southeastern Nigeria
35. National Institute of Social C. North Central Nigeria
and Economic Research is located D. North eastern Nigeria
in
39. The Attorney General of the
A. Abuja Federation that was assassinated
B. Ibadan in Nigeria during Obasanjo’s
C. Lagos Administration was
D. Enugu
A. Bola Ige
36. Nigeria became a federation B. Babawale Idowu
of 19 states in C. Patrick Ndoka
D. Dele Olawale.
A. 1875
B. 1976 40. The capital of Taraba state is
C. 1967
D. 1978

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A. Duts 44. The Lingua franca of the
B. Jalingo peoples of Nigeria is
C. Yola
D. Damaturu A. English
B. Yoruba
41. The first Governor-General of C. Hausa
Independent Nigeria was D. French

A. Okoti Eboh 45. The Niger Delta

B. Nnamdi Azikwe Environmentalist that was killed
C. Tafawa Balewa with eight others in Nigeria is
D. Obafemi Awolowo

42. The former Capital of Nigeria A. Leedum mitee

was ……… B. Ken Saro wiwa
C. Isaac Boro
A. Calabar D. Nana olomu
B. Lagos
C. Abuja 46. The question of the Nigerian
D. Ibadan civil war was raised for the first
time at the meeting of the OAU in
43. The head of the electoral body September 1967 in
that conducted the June 12, 1993
Election was A. Kampala
B. Kinshasa
A. Humphrey Nwosu C. Nairobi
B. Ovie whiskey D. Lagos
C. Eme Awa
D. Dagogo Jack 47. The winner of annulled

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election of 1993 was B. Gen. shehu Yaradua
C. Gen. Murthala Muhammed
A. Alhaji Bashiru Tofa D. Major Gen. Aguiyi Ironsi
B. Chief M.K.O. Abiola
C. Dr. Alex Ekwueme 51. Acculturation in colonial
D. Fashola administration was associated
with the
48. War against indiscipline was a
brainchild of A. French policy of Assimilation
B. British policy of direct rule
A. Ibrahim Babangida C. French policy of Association
C. Sani Abacha D. British indirect rule system
C. Gen. Muhammadu Buhari
D. Aminu Kano 52. Banjul is the capital of

49. Who was the military Head of A. Niger Republic

State that transferred power to B. Britain
Civilian regime in 1999? C. France
D. Gambia
A. Ibrahim Babangida
B. Sani Abacha 53. ECOMOG is a peace
C. Abubakar Abdul Salam monitoring organ of the
D. Yakubu Gowon
A. ECOWAS
50. Who was the military Head of B. UNO
State that was killed in the second C. AU
bloody coup of 1966 in Nigeria? D. EU

A. Gen. Sani Abacha 54. Ghana and Mali were known

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for production before B. Morocco
European incursion. C. Tunisia
D. Egypt
A. basket
B. gold 58. Mansa Musa is the name of
C. tin the king of
D. salt
A. Tekular
55. Gold Coast was the former B. Gobir
name of which of these countries? C. Mali
D. Kanem
A. Nigeria
B. Namibia 59. Nationalist movements
C. Mozambique started late in French West Africa
D. Ghana because

56. Idris Aloma was a revered A. Africans were allowed to enlist

king of …………. in the army
B. Africans felt they were free
A. Kebbi C. France suppressed political
B. Katsina associations and parties
C. Kanem-Borno D. France did not allow Africans to
D. Zauzau travel abroad.

57. Maghrib is a name used to 60. Policy of assimilation was

describes countries in North Africa used in West Africa by the
except
A. French
A. Algeria B. British

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C. Dutch 64. The French policy of
D. Italians Assimilation in West Africa was a
form of
61. The Berlin Conference of 1884
was convened at the instance of A. Indirect rule
B. direct rule
A. Winston Churchill C. democracy
B. Otto von Bismarck D. monarchy
C. Woodrow Wilson
D. Mussolini 65. The Italians were defeated by
the Ethiopians at the battle of
62. The first Country to regain Adowa under the leadership of
Independence in West Africa is

A. Emperor Theodore
A. Cameroon B. Emperor Yoahnes
B. Senegal C. Emperor Menelik
C. Ghana D. Emperor Jesuit
D. Gambia
66. The Mande speaking people
63. The first European explorers could be found in
to navigate the shores of the
Atlantic Ocean into the West A. Gambia
African coasts were the B. Sierra Leone
C. Mali
A. Swedish D. Nigeria
B. Dutch
C. Portuguese 67. The militant group formed by
D. Spanish Abdullahi Ibn Yacin was known as

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the C. Italy and Morocco
D. Italy and Tunisia.
A. Almorarids
B. Sijilmesa 71. The use of forced labour was
C. Tartars one of the features of
D. Mameluks
A. British Colonial polic
68. The pioneered institution of B. French colonial policy
Higher Education in West Africa is C. American colonial policy
D. Japanese colonial policy

A. Fourah Bay college 72. Which of the following

B. Baptist Academy countries was not involved in the
C. Birch Freeman peace–keeping effort in Liberia?
D. Hope Waddel Institute.
A. Sierra Leone
69. The Suez Canal in Egypt was B. Togo
constructed in C. Nigeria
D. Cameroon
A. 1840
B. 1875 73. Who was the king of the Mali
C. 1869 empire that displayed wealth in
D. 1890 Gold in the Middle East while on
pilgrimage to Mecca?
70. The treaty of Ucayali was
signed between and A. Muhmmed Askia
B. Sonni Ali
A. Italy and Libya C. Mansa Musa
B. Italy and Ethiopia D. Sundiata

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74. In the mid nineteen century,
the king of Buganda that
accommodated the first Arab and A. Zulu land
Swahili traders was B. Ndebele
C. Mexico
A. Kaberaga D. Tripoli.
B. Kabaka
C. Katriko 78. The majority of the slaves
D. Lat Dior were taken from all but except
one of these African countries
75. In the Nineteenth Century
Gold and Diamonds were A. Gold Coast
discovered in commercial B. Dahomey
quantities in which of these C. Nigeria
territories in Africa? D. Zambia

A. Nairobi 79. The progress in the Economy

B. Lagos of Zanzibar in the first decade of
C. Kimberley the nineteenth century is
D. Cairo synonymous with

76. Namibia is a country in A. Sayyid Said

B. Mamoud Iraq
A. Europe C. Kabir Muktar
B. Asia D. Muhammed Ali
C. North America
D. Africa 80. Food and Agricultural
Organisation (FAO) is one of the
77. Shaka was a brave warrior in specialised agencies of the

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A. AU D. Archaeology
B. UNO
C. ECOWAS 84. Sahara Desert was maintained
D. EEC during the trans-Saharan trade by
the
81. How many Continents are in
the world? A. Berbers
B. Tuaregs
A. 10 C. Fulanis
B. 7 D. Marauders
C. 8
D. 9 85. The explorer who discovered
the new world was
82. Indirect rule as a British
Colonial policy was first A. Christopher Columbus
introduced in B. Henry the Navigator
C. Queen Isabela
A. India D. John Cabot
B. Uganda
C. Ghana 86. The headquarters of the
D. Nigeria International Court of Justice is at

83. One of these could be used as

a tool to understand the African A. New York
past. B. Geneva
C. The Hague
A. Microscope D. Moscow
B. Satellite
C. Internet 87. The most spoken language in

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Africa is executed by the

A. Igbo A. secretariat
B. Hausa B. council of ministers
C. Yoruba C. secretary general
D. Ki-Swahili D. commission of mediation

88. The place in the desert where 91. The second most-spoken
travellers stop by to refresh language in Africa is
themselves is called
A. Hausa
A. Oasis B. Yoruba
B. Eldorado C. Igbo
C. Paradise D. Ki-Swahili
D. Aso Rock
92. The Second World War ended
89. The principle of non-alignment in
means that a country
A. 1944
A. is neutral in international trade B. 1945
B. does not belong to any world C. 1950
organization D. 1960
C. does not belong to any of the
power blocs 93. The United Nations
D. has no diplomatic missions Organisation has its headquarters
abroad in

90. The resolutions and A. British

programmes of the AU are B. USSR

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C. USA B. Switzerland
D. China C. China
D. Canada
94. Which of the following bodies
is the most representative organ 97. Which of the following
of the United Nations countries is a permanent member
Organization? of the security council of the
UNO?
A. The Security Council
B. The Trusteeship council A. India
C. The General Assembly B. Canada
D. The International Court of C. China
Justice D. Italy

95. Which of the following 98. Which of the following was not
countries did not join the League a colony of Britain in Africa?
of Nations?
A. Nigeria
A. France B. Gambia
B. Britain C. Sierra Leone
C. Spain D. Senegal.
D. USA
99. Which of the following was
96. Which of the following once Nigeria’s Permanent
countries have the right to veto Representative at the United
the decision of the Security Nations?
Council?
A. Professor Bolaji Akinyemi
A. Australia B. Major General Ike Nwachukwu

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C. Professor Jubril Aminu 61. B 62. C 63. C 64. B 65. C
D. Major General Joseph Garba 66. B 67. A 68. A 69. C 70. B
71. B 72. B 73. C 74. B 75. C
100. Within the United Nations,
the veto power is exercised by 76. D 77. A 78. D 79. A 80. B
81. B 82. A 83. D 84. B 85. A
86. C 87. D 88. A 89. C 90. B
A. UNESCO 91. A 92. B 93. C 94. C 95. D
B. WHO 96. C 97. C 98. D 99. D 100. D
C. General Assembly
D. Security Council

ANSWERS TO HISTORY
QUESTIONS

1. B 2. A 3. A 4. A 5. C 6. D 7. D
8. C 9. C 10. D 11. A 12. A 13. A
14. A 15. B 16. A 17. A 18. B
19. B 20. D 21. D 22. B 23. D
24. B 25. B

26. C 27. A 28. C 29. B 30. A

31. B 32. C 33. D 34. A 35. B
36. B 37. C 38. A 39. A 40. C
41. B 42. B 43. A 44. A 45. B
46. B 47. B 48. C 49. C 50. D

51. A 52. D 53. A 54. B 55. D

56. C 57. D 58. C 59. C 60. A

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