This individual defined intelligence as the degree of

availability of one's experiences for the solution of present

problems and the anticipation of future ones.
A. David Wechsler
B. Robert Sternberg
C. Henry Goddard
D. Jean Piaget
Jean Piaget stated that one of the basic mental operations through
which learning occurs is assimilation which is defined as:
A. organizing new information so that it fits with existing
information.
B. changing existing information so that it fits with existing
information.
C. changing new information so that it fits with existing information.
D. rejecting existing information that does not fit with new
information.
According to him, intelligence is a word with so many
meanings that finally has none.
A. E. L. Thorndike
B. E. G. Boring
C. Francis Galton
D. Charles Spearman
When it comes to intelligence, scholars are most likely to agree
that:
A. the construct of intelligence has proven to be valuable to
psychologists in their efforts to understand and predict
human behavior.
B. the construct of intelligence has not proven to be useful in
helping psychologists understand or predict human behavior.
C. intelligence tests have not proven to be of great value in
research settings.
D. intelligence tests have not proven to be useful in applied
settings.
In his theory of intelligence, Howard Gardener defined
intrapersonal intelligence in a way that seems similar to
the definition of:
A. self-concept.
B. impression management.
C. interpersonal dependence.
D. introversion-extraversion.
The first one to hypothesize that the proportion of the
variance that a number of tests have in common accounts
for a general factor of intelligence.
A. Pearson
B. Piaget
C. Spearman
D. Galton
The concept of an alternate item was first introduced in:
A. The Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scale.
B. The Wechsler-Bellevue Intelligence Scale.
C. The Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale.
D. The Wechsler Intelligence Scale for Children.
In intelligence testing, the term “floor” refers to:
A. who has the right to speak at a case conference.
B. the easiest items of a subtest.
C. the least number of items needed to obtain a reliable
score.
D. the low end of a confidence interval.
In intelligence testing, the term “ceiling” typically refers to:
A. most difficult items of a subtest.
B. level of difficulty beyond which a test is no longer valid.
C. highest end of a confidence interval.
D. element of the test environment that contains recessed
lighting.
Intelligence tests in short form:
A. can be more reliable than the long form of the same test
B. are recommended for screening purposes only.
C. may be short on items, but they are all "long" on validity.
D. All of these
Integrative assessment may BEST be characterized by:
A. the integration of findings from a variety of instruments into one
report.
B. the integration of findings from a variety of sources into
one report.
C. the integration of findings from unobtrusive measures into the
report.
D. integrating a statement of fees for professional services into the
report.
Which of the following is not a reason for the administration of
achievement tests in school setting?
A. to gauge student progress towards instructional objectives.
B. to survey interests in various occupations and professions.
C. to compare an individual student's performance to peers.
D. to help determine what instruction might best assist students.
Which of the following is not one of the questions answered by the
administration of achievement tests for education-related
purposes? A. How much of this course material have you actually
learned?
B. What is causing problems in learning this course material?
C. Are you a candidate for the program you would like to enroll in?
D. Is sufficient shredded wheat being consumed to support
concentration?
Which of the following arguments best support the statement that
understanding what students have already mastered can help
school authorities better anticipate what content and skills they are
ready to learn?
A. aptitude tests are achievement tests in disguise.
B. achievement tests are projective tests in disguise.
C. achievement tests are dynamic tests in disguise.
D. aptitude tests are prognostic tests.
Sheila marks test items indicating how often a particular
behavior occurs. Sheila is MOST likely completing a:
A. rating scale.
B. structured interview.
C. projective inventory.
D. structured settlement.
By definition, the key difference between “personality trait”
and “personality state” is related to:
A. the extent to which personality is viewed as a physical
attribute.
B. how stable over time the characteristic is exhibited.
C. whether or not the characteristic is subject to a halo
effect.
D. the motivation of the person or persons doing the rating.
An empathy scale contains 100 statements written in an
agree/disagree format. Aurora indicates disagreement with each
one of the statements. From this limited amount of information, it
seems reasonable to say that:
A. Aurora may be trying to present herself in a favorable light.
B. Aurora may be exhibiting a non-acquiescent response
tendency.
C. Aurora may be exhibiting a response set characterized by
deviance.
D. Aurora may be responding in a socially desirable manner.
Gloria, a psychologist, has her clients rate every therapy
session on a seven-point rating scale with "helpful" on one
end, and "not helpful" on the other. Gloria is using a
method of assessment called:
A. the semantic differential.
B. forced-choice format.
C. adjective checklist format.
D. None of these
Originally, the Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory
(MMPI) was developed by Starke R. Hathaway and:
A. Robert Sessions Woodworth
B. John Charnley McKinley
C. James C. Lingoes
D. R. E. Harris
A homeless person who prefers the
environment/surroundings of the street than a shelter or
mental hospital may attempt to:
A. fake bad on a test of psychopathology.
B. fake good on a test of psychopathology.
C. respond as candidly as possible on a test of
psychopathology.
D. be cooperative with the test administrator.
A test format wherein the assessee chooses how to end
an incomplete sentence by writing-in the end of the
sentence.
A. sentence completion.
B. fill-in-the-blank.
C. free-choice.
D. All of these
Choose among the following statements which is TRUE
about personality traits.
A. They tend to stabilize in adulthood after age 40.
B. They decrease in consistency after age 30.
C. Consistency first begins at 18.
D. None of the choices
Benita constructed a 100-item true/false test of optimism
so that every True response is indicative of optimism, and
every False response is indicative of pessimism. Manuel
answers True to every item on the test. What can the test
user conclude?
A. Manuel is extremely optimistic.
B. Manuel has well documented tendencies toward
optimism.
C. Manuel may be optimistic.
D. Manuel is clearly not pessimistic.
Karen Machover stated that in the interpretation of findings
of a Draw-a-Person test, the person drawn represents the
person doing the drawing, and the paper on which it is
drawn represents:
A. the environment.
B. the individual's superego.
C. the individual's dreams and aspirations.
D. reality demands.
The utilization of projective tests decreases:
A. an assessee's attempt to fake good or fake bad.
B. the necessity for examinees to have a working knowledge of
English.
C. cross-cultural bias.
D. the need for payment by third parties such as insurers.
Which of the following is not an advantage of behavioral
assessment?
A. Behavioral assessment can provide adequate explanations
for apparently contradictory dynamics in motivation.
B. Behavioral assessment can provide behavioral baseline data.
C. Behavioral assessment can provide a record of the assessee's
behavioral strengths and weaknesses across a variety of
situations.
D. Behavioral assessment can be used to pinpoint environmental
conditions that are acting to trigger, maintain, or extinguish certain
behaviors.
Self-monitoring differs from self-report for the reason that
in self-monitoring:
A. it is up to the assessee to decide what to report.
B. behaviors are recorded at the time and place in
which they occur.
C. the responses are not recorded.
D. the assessee records all the relevant behaviors but
reports to the evaluator only selectively.
In which of the following would a clinical psychologist least
likely to use individually administered tests?
A. in order to make a differential diagnosis.
B. in cases where there are questions involving suicidal or
homicidal potential.
C. to evaluate and counsel clients regarding potential
career choices.
D. in cases in which the presenting psychopathology of a
client is difficult to diagnose.
In which of the following purpose does a mental status
examination may be best administered?
A. screen for intellectual, emotional, and neurological
deficits.
B. assess thought content and thought processes.
C. assess whether an individual is oriented "times three."
D. All of these
One of the problems with self-report measures of depression, such
as the Beck Depression Inventory, is that:
A. test takers can fake depression or fake the absence of
depression.
B. they are highly unreliable and based solely on what happened to
the test taker during the previous day or so.
C. they do not gauge the severity of depression, only its presence
or absence.
D. the theory on which they are based has been shown to be
severely flawed.
In employment settings, letters of recommendation:
A. are generally not very useful since they are all typically
favorable.
B. are generally useful in the preliminary screening of
applicants.
C. have been demonstrated to be valid and reliable tools
for employee selection.
D. are more useful if they are open-ended rather than
structured.
In determining parental custody:
A. one impartial mental health professional is always used
to assess both parents.
B. tests of intelligence or personality may be
necessary in addition to interviews.
C. the child's parental preference will not be taken into
account by the court.
D. All of these
A patient is referred to a counseling psychologist for a
general assessment. Which of the following is LEAST
likely to be part of the test battery routinely administered?
A. an intelligence test
B. a personality test
C. a perceptual-motor test
D. an acculturation measure
Which of following is likely to be a hard sign of neurological
damage?
A. headaches
B. abnormal reflex responses
C. poor attention
D. consistent difficulty sleeping
Which of the following is least likely to be employed in pre-
employment screening of job applicants for unskilled
positions in a large corporation?
A. application blanks
B. letters of recommendation
C. interviews
D. aptitude measures
If a patient report having severe visual deficits while
attempting to read a Facebook post, a neuropsychologist
would suspect damage to the:
A. occipital lobes.
B. limbic system.
C. frontal lobes.
D. Facebook server.
An assessment approach wherein a "real time, live action"
is needed, and requires assessees to demonstrate abilities
that typically are characteristic of those they might
encounter on-the-job is referred to as:
A. portfolio assessment.
B. performance assessment.
C. curriculum-based assessment.
D. authentic assessment.
If a patient exhibits disturbances in sound discrimination,
voice recognition, and auditory memory, a
neuropsychologist would suspect damage to:
A. the cerebellum.
B. the temporal lobe.
C. the occipital lobe.
D. the parietal lobe.
Using video games to test coordination and reaction time
has been proposed as a more acceptable way of
measuring impairment than drug testing. The use of video
games in such a way would best be characterized by
assessment psychologists as:
A. drug testing.
B. authentic assessment.
C. performance assessment.
D. aptitude testing.
A neuropsychologist blindfolds a patient and then moves
the patient's arms and legs in various positions. The
patient is unable to identify where his limbs are located.
The neuropsychologist would MOST likely suspect that the
patient has suffered some sort of damage to the:
A. frontal lobe.
B. temporal lobe.
C. parietal lobe.
D. occipital lobe.