ASSIGNMENT

Structure of Atom
1. Which is not basic postulate of Dalton’s atomic theory?
(a) Atoms are neither created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction
(b) In a given compound, the relative number and kinds of atoms are constant.
(c) Atoms of all elements are alike, including their masses.
(d) Each element is composed of extremely small particles called atoms.
2. The number of electrons in a neutral atom of an element is equal to its :
(a) atomic weight (b) atomic number
(c) equivalent weight (d) electron affinity
3. The e/m for positive rays in comparison to cathode rays is :
(a) very low (b) high (c) same (d) none
4. Which has highest e/m ratio?
(a) He2+ (b) H+ (c) He+ (d) H
5. Cathode rays have :
(a) mass only (b) charge only
(c) neither mass nor charge (d) mass and charge both
6. Mass of neutron is .............. times the mass of electron.
(a) 1840 (b) 1480 (c) 2000 (d) None of these
7. Positive rays or canal rays are :
(a) electromagnetic waves
(b) a steam of positively charged gaseous ions
(c) a stream of electrons
(d) neutrons
 Ch arg e
8. Assertion (A) : ratio of anode rays is found different for different gases.
Mass
Reason : Proton is the fundamental particle present in the gases.
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If reason is true but assertion is false.
9. The minimum real charge on any particle, which can exist is :
(a) 1.6 × 10–19 coulomb (b) 1.6 × 10–10 coulomb
(c) 4.8 × 10–10 coulomb (c) zero
10. The ratio of specific charge (e/m) of an electron to that of a hydrogen ion is :
(a) 1 : 1 (b) 1840 : 1 (c) 1 : 1840 (d) 2 : 1
11. When a gold sheet is bombarded by a beam of α-particles, only a few of them get
deflected whereas most of them go straight, undeflected. This is because
(a) The force of attraction exerted on the α-particles by the oppositely charged electrons
is not sufficient.
(b) A nucleus has a much smaller volume than that of an atom.
(c) The force of repulsion acting on the fast moving α-particles is very small.
(d) The neutrons in the nucleus do not have any effect on the α-particles.
12. Discovery of the nucleus of an atom was due to the experiment carried out by
(a) Bohr (b) Moseley (c) Rutherford (d) Thomson
13. Rutherford’s scattering experiment is related to the size of the
(a) Nucleus (b) Atom (c) Electron (d) Neutron
14. The ratio of e/m, i.e., specific charge for a cathode ray:
(a) has the smallest value when the discharge tube is filled with H 2
(b) is constant
(c) varies with the atomic number of gas in the discharge tube
(d)varies with the atomic number of an element forming the cathode
15. Assertion: Cathode rays are produced only when the pressure of the gas inside the
discharge tube is very low.
Reason: At high pressure, no electric current flows through the tube as gases are poor
conductor of electricity.
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If reason is true but assertion is false.
16. Assertion: α-Particles are helium nuclei.
Reason: They are deflected slightly towards the negative plate and hence carry positive
change.
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If reason is true but assertion is false.
17. Match the following:
Column I Column II
(A) Plum Pudding model (P) 1.6022 × 10–19 C
(B) Planetary model of atom (Q) Thomson’s model
(C) Atoms are indivisible (R) Rutherford’s model
(D) Charge on electron (S)  1/ 2
(E) The spin of electron is (T) Dalton theory
(a) A - Q; B - R; C - R; D - P; E – S
(b) A - S; B - R; C - R; D - P; E - Q
(c) A - Q; B - R; C - R; D - R; E – S
(d) A - Q; B - P; C - R; D - P; E - S
18. Assertion: When α-rays hit a thin foil of gold, only a few α-particles are deflected back.
Reason: Within an atom, there is a very small positively charged heavy body is present.
(a) If both assertion and reason are correct and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion.
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false. (d) If reason is true but assertion is false.
19. The specific charge of cathode rays (a) depends on the nature of the gas.
(b) depends on the material of the discharge tube.
(c) depends on the potential difference between cathode and anode.
(d) is a universal constant.
20. The cathode rays experiment demonstrated that
(a) α-particles are the nuclei of He atoms.
(b) the e/m ratio for the particles of the cathode rays varies gas to gas.
(c) cathode rays are streams of negatively charged particles.
(d) the mass of an atom is essentially all contained its very small nucleus.
21. The e/m ratio of anode rays produced in the discharge tube, depends on the
(a) nature of the gas filled in the tube (b) nature of anode material
(c) nature of cathode material (d) all of these
22. The ratio of specific charges of a–particle and deuteron is
(a) 1:2 (b) 2:1 (c) 1:1 (d) 4:1
23. Atoms have void spaces. It was first suggested by
(a) Rutherford (b) Thomson (c) Lenard (d) Dalton
24. Rutherford’s experiment, which established the nuclear model of the atom, used a beam
of
(a) βb-particles, which impinged on a metal foil and got absorbed.
(b) γ-rays, which impinged on a metal foil and ejected electrons.
(c) helium atoms, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered.
(d) helium nuclei, which impinged on a metal foil and got scattered.
25. Which of the following is not a conclusion of Rutherford’s atomic model?
(a) Most of the part inside an atom is empty.
(b) Almost all mass of an atom is concentrated in the nucleus.
(c) The size of nucleus is very small in comparison to the size of atom.
(d) Electron revolves round the nucleus in definite orbits.
26. α-particles are projected towards the nucleus of following metals, with the same kinetic
energy. Towards which metal, the distance of closest approach will be minimum?
(a) Cu (Z = 29) (b) Ag (Z = 47) (c) Au (Z = 79) (d) Ca (Z = 20)
27. A radio station emits the radiations of 400 kHz. The metre band of station is
(a) 400 (b) 750 (c) 1333.33 (d) 7.5
28. Two electromagnetic radiations have wave numbers in the ratio 2:3. Their energies per
quanta will be in the ratio
(a) 3:2 (b) 9:4 (c) 4:9 (d) 2:3
29. A photon of 400 nm is absorbed by a gas molecule and then the molecule re-emits two
photons. One re-emitted photon has wavelength 500 nm. Assuming that there is no
change in the energy of molecule, the wavelength of second re-emitted photon is
(a) 100 nm (b) 2000 nm (c) –100 nm (d) 900 nm
30. A dye emits 50% of the absorbed energy as fluorescence. If the number of quanta
absorbed and emitted out is in the ratio 1:2 and it absorbs the radiation of wavelength ‘x’
Å, then the wavelength of the emitted radiation will be
(a) x Å (b) 0.5 x Å (c) 4x Å (d) 0.25 x Å
31. Wavelength of photon which have energy equal to average of energy of photons with λ1
= 4000 Å and λ2 = 6000 Å will be
(a) 5000 Å (b) 4800 Å (c) 9600 Å (d) 2400 Å
32. A photo sensitive surface is receiving light of wavelength 5000 Å at the rate of 10−7 J/s.
The number of photons received per second is
(a) 2.5 × 1011 (b) 3.0 × 1032 (c) 2.5 × 1018 (d) 2.5 × 109
33. Bohr’s model may be applied to
(a) Na10+ ion (b) He atom (c) Be2+ ion (d) C6+ ion
34. If the radius of first orbit of H–atom is x Å, then the radius of the second orbit of Li2+ ion
will be
4X 9x
(a) x Å (b) Å (c) Å (d) 4x Å
3 2
35. The ratio of spacing between the third and fourth orbit to the spacing between sixth and
seventh orbit of H–atom is
(a) 7:13 (b) 13:7 (c) 16:49 (d) 1:1
+
36. The ratio of circumference of third and second orbits of He ion is
(a) 3:2 (b) 2:3 (c) 9:4 (d) 4:9
37. Suppose the mass of electron decreased by 25%. How will it affect the Rydberg constant?
(a) It remains unchanged.
(b) It becomes one-fourth.
(c) It reduces to 75% of its original value.
(d) It is doubled.
38. The charge on the electron and proton is reduced to half. Let the present value of the
Rydberg constant is R. What will be the new value of the Rydberg constant?
(a) R/2 (b) R/4 (c) R/8 (d) R/16
39. The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of electron and proton moving with the same speed is
about
(a) 1836:1 (b) 1:1836 (c) 1:1 (d) 1:2
+
40. The circumference of the third orbit of He ion is x m. The de-Broglie wavelength of
electron revolving in this orbit will be
(a) x/3 m (b) 3x m (c) x/9 m (d) 9x m
41. If λ be the de-Broglie wavelength of a thermal neutron at 27°C. The wavelength of the
same neutron at 927°C is
(a) λ (b) 0.5λ (c) 2λ (d) 0.25 λ
42. The size of an orbital is given by
(a) principal quantum number (b) azimuthal quantum number
(c) magnetic quantum number (d) spin quantum number
43. The orbital angular momentum of an electron is 2s orbital is
1 h h h
(a)  . (b) 0 (c) (d) 2
2 2 2 2
44. The number of orbitals of g-type
(a) 5 (b) 7 (c) 9 (d) 11
45. Which of the following set of quantum numbers is permissible?
(a) 4, 1, +2, +1/2 (b) 4, 2, –1, +1/2 (c) 4, 0, 0, 1 (d) 4, 4, +2, –1/2
46. Number of orbitals represented by n = 3, l = 2 and m = +2 is
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4
47. The number of nodal planes in 2px orbital is
(a) zero (b) 1 (c) 2 (d) infinite
48. The number of radial nodes of 3s, 3p and 3d electrons are, respectively,
(a) 0, 1, 2 (b) 2, 1, 0 (c) 2, 2, 2 (d) 1, 3, 5
49. Bohr’s atomic model can not explain
(a) Stability of an atom
(b) Planck's quantum theory
(c) Dual nature of electrons as wave and particle
(d) Results of Zeeman and Stark effects
50. Which is the correct statement in case of Hund's rule?
(a) It states that if more than one atomic orbital of the same energy is available, electrons
will occupy different atomic orbitals with parallel spins, as far as possible, in the
configuration of lowest energy
(b) Total energy of many electron atom with more than one electron occupying a set of
degenerate orbitals is lowest, if as far as possible, electrons occupy different atomic
orbitals and have parallel spins
(c) Hund's rule forbids any configuration that does not violate the Pauli's exclusion
principle
(d) Hund's rule simply tells on which of the possible configurations is lowest in energy
and other configurations are those of excited states, higher in energy than the ground state
51. What can be the possible number of electrons having the same spin in an atom with n + I
= 4?
(a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 0
52. Select the pair of atoms having the same number of electrons in their outermost shell.
(a) Na, Ca (b) Na, Fe (c) As, Bi (d) Pb, Sb
53. In the ground state, an element has 13 electrons in its M-shell. The element is
(a) Manganese (b) Chromium (c) Nickel (d) Iron
54. The ratio of velocities of an electron in the 4th orbit of Be+3 and Li+2 cannot be
(a) 4:3 (b) 3:4 (c) 2:3 (d) 3:2
55. The energy of an electron in the first Bohr orbit of H− atom is –13.6 eV. The possible
energy value(s) of the excited state(s) for electrons in Bohr orbits to hydrogen is
(a) –3.4 eV (b) –10.2 eV (c) –1.51 eV (d) -0.85 eV
56. As an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit in Be3+ ion, its
(a) K.E. increases (b) speed increases
(c) frequency of revolution increases (d) P.E. decreases
57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct about the Bohr model of hydrogen
atom?
(a) The acceleration of the electron in the n = 2 orbit is more than that in the n = 1 orbit.
(b) The angular momentum of the electron in then n = 2 orbit is more than that in the n =
1 orbit.
(c) The kinetic energy of electron in the n = 2 orbit is less than in the n = 1 orbit.
(d) The centripetal force on electron in n = 2 orbit is more than that in the n = 1 orbit.
58. A sample of hydrogen atoms in ground state is exposed to electromagnetic radiations of
1028 Å. The wavelengths of the induced radiation(s) is/are
(a) 1028 Å (b) 1218.4 Å (c) 6579.2 Å (d) 190.4 Å
59. Some hydrogen-like atoms in ground state absorbs ‘n’ photons having same energy and
on de-excitement, it emits exactly ‘n’ photons. The energy of absorbed photon may be
(a) 91.8 eV (b) 40.8 eV (c) 48.4 eV (d) 54.4 eV
60. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct?
(a) The ratio of the radii of the first three Bohr orbits of hydrogen atom is 1:8:27.
(b) The ratio of magnitude of total energy:kinetic energy:potential energy for electron in
any orbit of hydrogen atom is 1:1:2.
(c) The frequency of a green light is 6 × 1014 Hz, then its wavelength is 500 nm.
(d) The ratio of de-Broglie wavelength of a H-atom, He-atom and CH4-molecule moving
with equal kinetic energy is 4:2:1.
 Answer Key
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (d)
6. (a) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (b) 15. (a)
16. (b) 17. (a) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (c)
21. (a) 22. (c) 23. (c) 24. (d) 25. (d)
26. (d) 27. (b) 28. (d) 29. (b) 30. (c)
31. (b) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (b) 35. (a)
36. (c) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (a) 40. (c)
41. (b) 42. (a) 43. (b) 44. (c) 45. (b)
46. (a) 47. (b) 48. (b) 49. (c,d) 50. (a,b)
51. (a,b,c) 52. (c) 53. (a,b) 54. (b,c,d) 55. (a,c,d)
56. (a,c,d) 57. (a,b,c,d) 58. (a,b,c) 59. (a,b) 60. (b,c,d)