1. Who coined the term ‘mental quotient’?

A. Francis Galton
B. Edward Titchner
C. William Stern
D. Raymond Cattell
2. Wilhelm Wundt established his
experimental psychology laboratory in?
A. Leipzig, Germany in 1852
B. Leipzig, Germany in 1879
C. Vienna, Austria in 1853
D. Venice, Italy in 1860
3. Identify the first theory of intelligence and its
proponent. It talks about abilities that are
required for all kinds of mental tests as well as
those limited to only one kind.
A. Fluid and Crystallized Intelligence by
Raymond Cattell
B. Multiple Intelligences Theory by Howard
Gardner
C. Two-Factor Theory of Intelligence by Charles
Spearman
D. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence by Robert
Sternberg
4. Previous learning does not affect
one’s performance in non-verbal
intelligence tests. These kinds of tests
primarily measure?
A. Visual-Spatial Intelligence
B. Convergent Thinking
C. Crystallized Intelligence
D. Fluid Intelligence
5. He translated the Binet-Simon scales
into English.
A. Lewis Terman
B. Arthur Otis
C. Henry Goddard
D. Robert Yerkes
6. These are a group of intellectuals and
theorists that believe in the ideology that
individuals who are mentally ill or have
psychological problems should not be
allowed to reproduce as not to spread
their ‘defective’ genes.
A. Purists
B. Genetic Engineers
C. Eugenicists
D. Gene-cleansing Collective
 BRIEF HISTORY
• CHINA
- Select those who can work for the
government
• MIDDLE AGES
- ‘Diagnostic’ testing to determine those who
were in league with the devil
• CHARLES DARWIN
- Higher forms evolved partially because of
differences among individual forms of life
- Adaptive characteristics were important for
survival
- Emphasized individual differences
 BRIEF HISTORY
• FRANCIS GALTON
- Contributed greatly to the field of
measurement
- Developed many tools and methods to
measure individual differences
- Introduced concept of regression and
correlation
• WILHELM WUNDT
- Father of psychology
- Established the first experimental psych.
laboratory in Leipzig, Germany in 1879
- Focused on similarities and standardization
 BRIEF HISTORY
• JAMES MCKEEN CATTELL
- Coined the term ‘mental test’
• ALFRED BINET AND THEODORE SIMON
- Developed the Binet-Simon Scales, the first
measure of intelligence (for children)
• DAVID WECHSLER
- Developed an intelligence test for adults
• ROBERT YERKES
- Pioneered the first group intelligence test,
the Army Alpha and Beta, which was used
by the military
 BRIEF HISTORY
• ROBERT WOODWORTH
- Worked on the Personal Data Sheet (adjustment
and emotional stability) and on the Woodworth
Psychoneurotic Inventory (first self-report
personality test)
• PROJECTIVE TESTING
- Herman Rorschach (Inkblots), Henry Murray and
Christina Morgan (TAT)
• HENRY GODDARD
- Found most immigrants to be ‘mentally deficient’
(culture-sensitivity of tests)
- Eugenics – improving qualities of a breed through
interventions with factors related to heredity
 TWO-FACTOR THEORY OF INTELLIGENCE
• CHARLES SPEARMAN
- Introduced the first theory of intelligence
General ability (g)
- A ‘mental energy’ that is required to perform all kinds
of mental tasks
- Underlies the specific abilities
Specific ability (s)
- Abilities required to perform on only one kind of
mental test
PRIMARY MENTAL ABILITIES
• LOUIS LEON THURSTONE
- Intelligence is composed of 7 primary mental abilities
(verbal comprehension, word fluency, number, space,
associative memory, perceptual speed, and general
reasoning
 FLUID AND CRYSTALLIZED INTELLIGENCE
• RAYMOND CATTELL
Fluid Intelligence (Primary Reasoning Ability)
- Ability to see relationships in analogies, letter and
number series
- Innate and decreases with age
Crystallized Intelligence (Factual Intelligence)
- Acquired knowledge and skills from learning and
experience
- Increases with age
MULTIPLE INTELLIGENCES THEORY
• HOWARD GARDNER
- Visual-spatial, Linguistic-verbal, Bodily-kinesthetic,
Interpersonal, Intrapersonal, Existential, Logical-
mathematical, Musical, and Naturalist
 GV AND GQ
• JOHN HORN
Vulnerable Abilities – declines with age and does
not recover to normal levels after brain damage
Maintained Abilities – does not decline with age and
may return to normal levels after brain damage
THREE STRATUM THEORY
• JOHN CARROLL
- Hierarchical approach to conceptualizing
intelligence
- Spearman + Horn + Cattell
I. General Intelligence (g)
II. Broad Abilities (8)
III. Specific Level
 CHC MODEL
• MCGREW AND FLANAGAN
- Cattell + Horn + Carroll
- General intelligence, Board abilities (10), Narrow
Abilities (70)

TRIARCHIC THEORY OF INTELLIGENCE

• ROBERT STERNBERG
Academic/Analytical Intelligence – Analytical and
problem solving skills, able to see unique solutions
Practical Intelligence – Street smarts
Creative Intelligence – Ability to deal with novel
situations using previous experiences and current
skills
7. This procedure involves answering referral
questions through exploring the uniqueness of
an individual or group. It is usually an expensive
process that requires a professional who has
knowledge in the appropriate choice of tests
and tools for evaluation as well as in the
integration of data.
A. Psychological Testing
B. Psychological Assessment
C. Psychotherapy
D. Battery Testing
Test – A measurement device or technique used to
quantify behavior or aid in understanding and
predicting behavior
Item – A specific stimulus to which a person
responds overtly
Battery – selection of tests and assessment
procedures to measure different variables
Psychological Test – set or items that are designed
to measure characteristics of human beings that
pertain to behavior
Overt behavior – observable activity
Covert behavior – not directly observable
Measurement – assigning quantitative principles to
arrive at a score or value
 PSYCHOLOGICAL PSYCHOLOGICAL
TESTING ASSESSMENT
 Obtain a  Answer a referral
score/gauge an question/arrive at a
ability or attribute decision
 Nomothetic  Idiographic
 Individualized/group  Individualized
 Technician-like skills  Knowledge of tools
and evaluation
 Shorter period of  Longer period of
time time
 Less expensive  More expensive
8. When you need to ask a client a sensitive
question (e.g questions about health or sexual
history), what would be the best way to do it?
A. Ask the client over the phone
B. Ask the client during the intake interview so
that it would be a face-to-face interaction.
C. Give the client a questionnaire he/she can
answer by himself/herself regarding the
matter.
D. Ask the client’s companion, friend or
guardian.
9. Clients, patients and other individuals
that are given psychological tests are
called?
A. Test Users
B. Test Takers
C. Test Sample
D. Standardized Sample
 TEST AUTHORS/DEVELOPERS
- Create/develop tests and methods of
assessment
TEST PUBLISHERS
- Publishes, markets, sells, and controls the
distribution of tests
TEST USERS
- Professionals that use tests or other methods for
assessment
TEST SPONSORS
- Contract publishers for testing services (e.g.
private organizations, government)
TEST TAKERS
- Those who are taking the test/ being assessed
10. The Thematic Apperception Test is
categorized under?
A. Maximal Performance Test – Aptitude
B. Maximal Performance Test –
Intelligence
C. Typical Performance Test – Structured
Personality Test
D. Typical Performance Test –
Unstructured Personality Test
11. The NMAT is a test used to determine
individuals who are qualified to study medicine
with each institution having its own standard. The
first part of the test includes verbal, perceptual
acuity, quantitative and inductive reasoning. The
second part has biology, chemistry and more.
Results are reported in percentile ranks. How
would the NMAT and more specifically its first part
be categorized?
A. Criterion-referenced Test – Achievement
B. Criterion-referenced Test – Aptitude
C. Norm – referenced Test – Achievement
D. Norm – referenced Test – Aptitude
12. These are tests that can determine
the presence, extent and location of
potential brain damage in clients.
A. Projective Tests
B. Diagnostic Tests
C. Neuropsychological Tests
D. All of the above
13. Individuals who are applying to be
clerks or secretaries are usually given tests
that involve typing and filing documents.
Their success is usually measured by how
much they accomplish given a time limit.
These tests are?
A. Power tests
B. Speed tests
C. Physical acuity tests
D. Both A and B
TYPES OF TESTS
• Paper – and pencil tests
GROUP • Large number of examinees at the same time
TESTS + More economic
- Cannot observe individual behavior
• One on one administration
INDIVIDUAL
+ Can establish rapport & observe relevant behavior
TESTS
- More expensive and time consuming

• Requires the examinee to complete as many items

SPEED
as possible in a limited amount of time
TESTS • Items are generally easy

• Requires the examinee to exhibit the depth of his

POWER
understanding and skill in a particular area
TESTS • Items are generally more difficult
 • Utilizes written or spoken language
VERBAL
either in the instructions, in the
TESTS
responses to the test, or both.

NONVERBAL • Examinees respond without the use of

TESTS language

NORM –
• Raw scores are converted into
REFERENCED
standard scores
TESTS
CRITERION –
• Raw scores are referenced to
REFERENCED
specific cut-off scores
TESTS
 • INTELLIGENCE TESTS – potential to solve
problems, adapt to changing circumstances
and profit form experience
TESTS OF
• APTITUDE TESTS – predict success in an
ABILITIES/
occupation, training course or educational
MAXIMAL
endeavor
PERFORMANCE
• ACHIEVEMENT TESTS – previous learning
and the effectiveness of an educational or
training program
• PERSONALITY TESTS – individual
dispositions; Standardized or Projective
TESTS OF
TYPICAL • INTEREST INVENTORIES – likes and dislikes
PERFORMANCE • ATTITUDE TESTS – elicit personal beliefs
and opinions
14. Felicity is assessing a transferee student
who wants to enroll in the HUMSS strand of
their school. She believes that he might have
some difficulty in this strand since his battery of
assessment tests showed poor results in social
sciences. Felicity recommends that he go to
the ABM strand instead. How was the
psychological test used in this case?
A. Selection
B. Placement
C. Screening
D. Certification
15. Victor’s Secret Inc. gives all its new
applicants a short test in order to
determine which applicants meet the
minimum requirements to qualify for further
testing. How was the test used in this case?
A. Selection
B. Placement
C. Screening
D. Classification
 USES OF PSYCHOLOGICAL TESTS:
A. CLASSIFICATION
PLACEMENT
- sorting/placing individuals into programs/positions
depending on their needs/skills
SCREENING
- Quick method to identify people who have
specific characteristics or needs or those who are
qualified
CERTIFICATION
- Determining individuals with minimum proficiency
in some activity
SELECTION
- Confers privileges or opportunities to gain
employment, attend an institution etc.
 B. DECISION MAKING
- Determine the bases upon which to select,
place, classify, diagnose, or otherwise deal with
individuals, groups, organizations,
or programs
C. RESEARCH
- Provide well-recognized methods of studying the
nature, development, and inter-relationships of
cognitive, affective, and behavioral traits
D. SELF-UNDERSTANDING & PERSONAL
DEVELOPMENT
- Provide clients with information to promote self-
understanding and positive growth
- counseling and psychotherapeutic settings
16. This is a more economic practice in
testing with regards to hiring new
employees wherein the number of
applicants is reduced with every step of
the hiring process?
A. Multiple cut-off
B. Multiple hurdle
C. Hierarchical testing
D. Passing scores
17. This scale of measurement denotes
categories and usually operates on
frequencies.
A. Nominal
B. Ordinal
C. Interval
D. Ratio
18. Viola was rushed to the hospital due to serious
injuries. While she was being treated, a doctor
asked her to indicate how much pain she was in
by using a 1 to 10 scale where 10 would mean
extreme pain. What scale of measurement is
being used and what characteristic does it lack?
A. Interval: Absolute Zero
B. Interval: Equal Intervals, Absolute Zero
C. Nominal; Magnitude, Equal Intervals, Absolute
Zero
D. Ordinal: Equal Intervals
E. Ordinal: Equal Intervals, Absolute Zero
 SCALES OF MEASUREMENT
Properties:
MAGNITUDE |
‘moreness’, one is more than the other
EQUAL INTERVALS |
differences between two points are the same
ABSOLUTE ZERO |
‘zero’ is the absence of the variable
Scale of
Magnitude Equal Intervals Absolute Zero
measurement
NOMINAL _ _ _

ORDINAL  _ _

INTERVAL   _

RATIO   
 No numerical value; not
Non- quantitative; categories
NOMINAL parametric Eg. Male or female,
cellphone number
Rankings, has magnitude but
Non- difference between values
ORDINAL parametric are not represented
Eg. Sizes, Likert Scale
Equally splits each value,
arbitrary zero
INTERVAL Parametric
Eg. Degrees Fahrenheit and
Centigrade
Has all the properties
RATIO Parametric
Eg. Weight, Degrees Kelvin
19. Jeremy received a survey that had a
listing of detergent brands. Under each
brand was a seven-point rating scales that
had bipolar labels (‘effective’ and
‘ineffective’) at each end. What kind of
scale was used in the survey Jeremy
received?
A. Likert Scale
B. Rank Order Scale
C. Semantic Differential Scale
D. Visual Analogue Scale
20. After completing a personality inventory,
Gerard’s results show that he is a more private
person than a social one. It also showed that he has
tendencies to be highly cautious as compared to
being carefree. With these results, what could be
said about the scoring method used?
A. The personality test used a Guttman scale
B. The personality test provides ipsative scores
C. The personality test provides a cumulative score
that is compared to a norm
D. The personality test is a diagnostic test that shows
how one compares to the general population.
 COMPARATIVE SCALES
I. Paired Comparison
- Asked to select one alternative from two
choices considering a particular criteria
II. Rank Order
- Several items are presented simultaneously
and are ranked in order of priority
III. Continuous Sum
- Allocate a sum of units among a set of
objects based on some criteria
IV. Q-sort Technique
- Many items/statements are given and
respondents are asked to sort them into
piles
PAIRED COMPARISONS

RANK ORDER
CONTINUOUS SUM

Q-SORT
 NON - COMPARATIVE SCALES
I. Continuous Rating Scales
- Rate objects by marking a continuous line that
runs between to extremes of a criterion
II. Itemized Rating Scales
- Select from categories that have brief descriptions
that best describes something
III. Likert Scale
- Indicate degree of agreement with statement by
checking corresponding boxes
IV. Visual Analogue Scale
- 100 mm line where magnitude of belief or
experience is indicated
V. Semantic Differential Scale
- Seven-point rating scale with bipolar labels on
each end
CONTINUOUS RATING SCALE

LIKERT SCALE
 VISUAL ANALOGUE SCALE

SEMANTIC DIFFERENTIAL SCALE

21. Of all the following developmental
norms, which ones are the most
universally applicable?
A. Theory-based ordinal scales
B. Mental Age norms
C. Natural sequences
D. Grade-based norms
22. This is the group of individuals on
whom the test is administered to
develop the test norms as well as
establish uniform administration and
scoring procedures.
A. Standardization sample
B. Normative sample
C. Reference group
D. Group norm
23. According to Barry’s teacher, he
managed to get 65% of his 120-item History
test correct which equates to a raw score
of 78 points. His score is the second highest
score in his class. What did the teacher
give Barry?
A. A percentile score
B. A percentage score
C. A standardized score
D. A probability score
NORMS
- Represents the test performance of the
standardization sample that allows for the
interpretation of scores

I. DEVELOPMENTAL NORMS
- Indicates how far along the developmental
path the individual has progressed

II. WITHIN-GROUP NORMS

- Individual performance is evaluated in terms
of the performance of the standardization
group
DEVELOPMENTAL NORMS

I. AGE NORMS/MENTAL AGE

- Individual’s performance is compared with
the performance of the average group of a
representative sample at different age levels
II. GRADE NORMS
- Locating the performance of test takers
within the norms of the students at each
grade level in the standardization sample
DEVELOPMENTAL NORMS

III. INTELLIGENCE QUOTIENT (IQ)

Mental Age
IQ = Chronological Age (100)
- Not possible to compare different outcomes of
persons of different chronological ages due to
varying standard deviations

IV. ORDINAL SCALES

- Designed to identify the stage reached by a
child in the development of specific behavior
functions
WITHIN GROUP NORMS
I. PERCENTILE NORMS
- Percentage of people whose score falls on a
particular raw score
- Relative position in a distribution of scores but
not the amount of difference between scores

II. STANDARD SCORES

- Shows distance from the mean in terms of the
standard deviation of the distribution

III. DEVIATION INTELLIGENCE QUOTIENT

- A standard score with a mean of 100 and sd of
15/16
24. Dahlia knows that the other test-takers
graduated with Latin honors and
distinctions. Despite having excellent
grades herself, Dahlia believes that she is
the worst among the group. This situation is
explained by?
A. Flynn Effect
B. Golem Effect
C. Frog Pond Effect
D. Drift
25. Suppose you are taking your Theories of
Personality board exam which is a 100-item
multiple choice exam with 4 choice alternatives
and you do not know the answer to all of the
questions. What would be your level of chance
performance or how many items will you get
right if you were to guess them all?
A. 20 correct items
B. 25 correct items
C. 30 correct items
D. 50 correct items
EXPECTED LEVEL OF CHANCE PERFORMANCE

1
X no. of items
no. of alternatives

1
X 100 = 25 items
4
26. Which is NOT a culture fair test?
A. RPM
B. PNLT
C. NEO-PI R
D. CFIT
26. Which is NOT a culture fair test?
A. RPM Ravens Progressive Matrices (NV)
B. PNLT Purdue Non-Language Test (NV)
C. NEO-PI R NEO Personality Inventory Revised
D. CFIT Culture-Fair Intelligence Test (NV)
27. After dictating the instructions, a
psychometrician said ‘I know you’ll do well
in this IQ test. Your parents and I expect
good results’. Later on, it appeared that
the test takers performed better than in
their previous tests. This is an example of?
A. Flynn Effect
B. Reactivity
C. Halo Effect
D. Pygmalion Effect
FLYNN EFFECT
- Higher level of performance typically seen in the
normative groups of newer versions of general
intelligence tests compared to their older
counterparts

FROG POND EFFECT

- Evaluation of self deteriorates when one is
grouped with higher performing individuals

REACTIVITY
- Presence of an evaluator modifies performance

PYGMALION EFFECT
- Administrator’s positive expectations increases
performance
GOLEM EFFECT
- Administrator’s negative expectations decreases
performance
LENIENCY ERROR
- Being too insufficiently critical or forgiving

SEVERITY ERROR
- Being overly critical

CENTRAL TENDENCY
- Ratings that cluster in the middle and reluctance
to rate in the extremes
HALO EFFECT
- Ascribe positive attribute independent of
observed behavior and failure to discriminate
28. When using parametric data, what is
the best measure of central tendency to
use?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Standard Deviation
29. Which of the following is a
disadvantage of using the mean in data
analysis?
A. It is affected by extreme values
B. It can only be used for discrete data
C. It provides the sum of least squares
D. It is limited to distributed data
30. Clary wants to use gender and social
status in her research study. What would
be the best measure of central
tendency to use considering Clary’s
variables?
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Standard Deviation
 STATISTICS
- a branch of mathematics dedicated to
organizing, depicting, summarizing,
analyzing, and otherwise dealing with
numerical data
Descriptive Statistics
-numbers and graphs are used to describe,
condense, or represent data
Inferential Statistics
- data are used to estimate population
values based on sample values or to test
hypotheses
 FREQUENCY DISTRIBUTIONS
- Displays scores on a variable or a
measure to reflect how frequently each
value was obtained
Normal Distribution Curve
Characteristics:
1. Bell-shaped
2. Bilaterally symmetrical
3. Mean, median and mode are equal
4. Unimodal
5. Asymptotic - asymptotes (tails) do not
touch the abscissa (x-axis)
 Mean
Mode
Median
 MEASURES OF CENTRAL TENDENCY
I. Mean
- Arithmetic average of a distribution
- Sum all the values in a distribution and divide
the total by the number of cases in the
distribution
- Most influenced by extreme scores
- Most appropriate for interval or ratio data
II. Mode
- Most frequently occurring value in a distribution
- Categorical variables
III. Median
- Value that divides a distribution that has been
arranged in order of magnitude into two halves
- Appropriate for ordinal, interval, and ratio data
31. This gives an approximation of the
average deviation around the mean in
a distribution.
A. Range
B. Standard Deviation
C. Variance
D. Skewness
 MEASURES OF VARIABILITY
I. Range
- Distance between the highest and lowest value
II. Interquartile Range
- Equal to the difference between Q3 and Q1
- Semi-Interquartile Range (IR divided by 2)
III. Standard Deviation
- Approximation of the average deviation around
the mean in a distribution
- Provides a single value that is representative of
the individual differences or deviations in a data
set
IV. Variance
- Square of standard deviation
32. If all the test takers that are included
in the lower-scoring half answered an
item correctly that no one in the higher-
scoring half of the examinees answered,
what is the item discrimination index?
A. 0
B. +1
C. -1
D. Cannot be determined
33. Positively skewed distributions show?
A. Low item difficulty
B. High item difficulty
C. Platykurtic kurtosis
D. Both B and C
34. When a test has high item difficulty, it
can be expected that?
A. A lot of test takers will get low scores
B. The reliability and validity will be high
C. The distribution curve will likely turn
out normal
D. The median will likely be greater than
the mean
 SKEWNESS (Lack of symmetry)
• Negatively Skewed
- most values are at the top end of the scale and the
longer tail extends toward the bottom
- The test is easy (high item difficulty),lacks test ceiling
• Positively Skewed
- most values are at the bottom and the longer tail
extends toward the top of the scale
- The test is difficult (low item difficulty), lacks test
flooring
 KURTOSIS
• Platykurtic
- Greatest amount of
dispersion
- Relatively flat distribution
• Leptokurtic
- Least amount of
dispersion
- Relatively peaked
distribution
• Mesokurtic
- Intermediate amount of
dispersion
- Normal distribution
35. In item analysis, this is the degree to
which an item differentiates correctly
among examinees with regards to what
the test is measuring.
A. Item difficulty
B. Item discrimination
C. Item differentiation
D. Item divergence
36. Item difficulty and item discriminability
indices are ____ for pure speed tests than
they are for pure power tests.
A. More appropriate
B. Less appropriate
C. Just as appropriate
D. It depends on the items
 ITEM ANALYSIS
- Part of test construction wherein the strengths
and flaws of test items are determined in terms of
difficulty, discriminability, reliability and validity
- Effectiveness of alternatives

ITEM DIFFICULTY
Item-difficulty Index (p)
- Defines the proportion of examinees that
answered an item correctly
- The easier the item, the larger the proportion and
vice versa
- Indicated by skewness
Item-endorsement Index – for personality tests
 ITEM DISCRIMINATION
Item-discrimination Index (d)
- Defines how adequately an item separates or
discriminates between high scorers and low
scorers on an entire test
- An item is good if most of the high scorers
answer correctly and most of the low scorers
answer incorrectly
- the higher the value of d, the better
*interview examinees to understand better the
basis for a choice and then appropriately revise
(or eliminate) the item
 Qualitative
Item Difficulty
Interpretation
0.00 – 0.20 Very Difficult Unacceptable
0.21 – 0.40 Difficult Acceptable
0.41 – 0.60 Moderate Highly Acceptable
0.61 – 0.80 Easy Acceptable
0.81 – 1.00 Very Easy Unacceptable

Item Qualitative
Discrimination Interpretation
Below .19 Very Difficult Item Unacceptable
0.10 – 0.19 Difficult Item Unacceptable
0.20 – 0.29 Fair Item Revise
0.30 – 0.39 Good Item Acceptable
0.40 and above Very Good Item Highly Acceptable
37. In psychological testing, raw scores
are?
A. Meaningless
B. Worthless
C. Interpreted for comparison purposes
D. Indicators of an individual’s relative
standing
38. Which of the following pairings is
incorrect?
A. T score; mean – 15, sd – 10
B. Z – score; mean – 1, sd - .5
C. CEBB; mean – 500, sd – 100
D. All of the above
39. Magda got a score of 89 on her Math test
that had100 items and a score of 50 on her
Science test which had 20 items less than the
Math exam. Later that week, she got a score
of 70 in her History test which was 90 items in
total. Arrange her performance on her tests
from best to worst.
A. History, Science, Math
B. Math, History, Science
C. Math, Science, History
D. NOTA
40. A test was administered to 300 students and
resulted to a mean score of 85 and a standard
deviation of 12. Galahad and Gorio obtained a
z-score of -2 and 3 respectively. What can be
said about their raw scores?
A. Their raw scores show that they both did
relatively well in the test
B. Gorio’s raw score is closer to the mean score
than Glahad’s
C. Galahad scored 60 points lower than Gorio
D. Their raw scores cannot be determined
41. Suppose that all the test scores in Farrah’s
English class is distributed normally and that
she garnered a z score of 2. What statement
would hold FALSE?
A. She is in the top half of her class in terms of
their test scores
B. She did better than 84% of her classmates
in the test
C. 2.3% of her classmates did much better
than Farrah
D. All of the above
E. NOTA
41. Suppose that all the test scores in Farrah’s
English class is distributed normally and that
she garnered a z score of 2. What statement
would hold FALSE?
A. She is in the top half of her class in terms of
their test scores
B. She did better than 84% of her classmates
in the test 98%
C. 2.3% of her classmates did much better
than Farrah
D. All of the above
E. NOTA
50% 47.72% 97.72%
 RAW SCORE
- Direct numerical report of performance
- Most basic level of information
- Meaningless

STANDARD SCORE
- A raw score that has been converted from
one scale to another scale that has some
arbitrarily set mean and standard
deviation
- Expresses individual’s distance from the
mean in terms of standard deviation of the
distribution
 A. Linearly Derived
- Standard scores retain the exact numerical
relations of the original raw scores
- Shape of distribution of the raw scores does
not change
• Z – scores
- Transforms data into standardized units that
are easier to interpret

Z= X–X
SD
40. A test was administered to 300 students and
resulted to a mean score of 85 and a standard
deviation of 12. Galahad and Gorio obtained a z-
score of -2 and 3 respectively. What can be said
about their raw scores?
C. Galahad scored 60 points lower than Gorio
Z= X–X X = (Z x SD) + X
SD
Galahad (-2) Gorio (3)
X = [(-2)(12)] + 85 X = [(3)(12)] + 85
X = (-24) + 85 X = (36) + 85
X = 61 X = 121
 B. Normalized
- Renders scores on different tests/dissimilarly
shaped distributions comparable
- Obtained by stretching a distribution to
make it nearly normal, then changing
these to a standard-score scale
- Standard Score = SD (z) + Mean
 Mean SD
T – Score/McCall’s T 50 10
Army General Classification Test
100 20
(AGCT) Score
College Entrance Examination
Board (CEEB),
Scholastic Aptitude Test (SAT), 500 100
Graduate Record Examination
(GRE)
Standard Nine (STANINE) Scores 5 2
Standard Ten (STEN) Scores 5.5 2
Deviation Intelligence Quotient
100 15/16
(DIQ)
42. Dennis and Gale are of the same
age. As they got older they noticed that
they grew taller at almost the same rate
of 2 inches every six months. This
example exhibits the concept of?
A. Collinearity
B. Tracking
C. Flynn effect
D. Predeterminism
 Tracking
- Tendency to stay at about the
same level of growth or
performance relative to peers
of the same age
CORRELATION &
REGRESSION
 INFERENTIAL STATISTICS
Parametric vs. Non-Parametric Test
Parametric Non-Parametric
Any distribution /
Must be normally
No assumption can be
distributed
made
Homogenous variance
Homogenous variance
is not required
Interval or Ratio Ordinal or Nominal
Mean Median
43. Who formally developed the first
statistical models of correlation and
regression?
A. Galton
B. Karl Pearson
C. Charles Spearman
D. Henry Goddard
 Correlation
- Identifying relationships between variables
Correlation Coefficient (r)
- Mathematical index that describes the direction
and magnitude of a relationship
- 1 to -1
Positive Correlation - As one variable increases, the
other variable also increases and vice versa
Negative Correlation – As one variable increases,
the other variable decreases
Positive relationship Negative relationship No relationship
 Regression
- Statistical technique used to make predictions
about scores on one variable from knowledge
of scores on another variable
Scatter Diagram
- Picture of the relationship between two
variables
Regression Line
- Best-fitting straight lines through a set of points in
a scatter diagram
Regression Coefficient (b)
- Slope of the regression line
Residuals
- Difference between predicted and observed
scores
 RESIDUALS

INTERCEPT
SLOPE OUTLIERS
44. You want to assess the relationship
between passing or failing the board
examination and your scores in your
review drills. What statistical analysis
should you use?
A. Pearson r
B. Point-biserial r
C. Biserial r
D. Phi-coefficient
 Correlation Coefficients for Prediction
Continuous – can take on any value over a range of
values (height, weight)
Artificial Dichotomous – reflect an underlying
continuous scale forced into dichotomy
(passing/failing)
True Dichotomous – naturally form two categories
(dead/alive, male/female)
Variable X
Artificial True
Variable Y Continuous
Dichotomous Dichotomous
Continuous Pearson r Biserial r Point Biserial r
Artificial
Biserial r Tetrachoric r Phi
Dichotomous
True
Point Biserial r Phi Phi
Dichotomous
45. A research study wanted to establish
the difference between males and
females in their preference of either sex
or chocolates. What analysis should be
used?
A. One-way ANOVA
B. Mann Whitney U-test
C. Paired T-test
D. Friedman F-test
46. You want to analyze the difference
between males and females with
regards to their scores in a hopelessness
scale. What statistical treatment is most
appropriate?
A. One-tailed t-test
B. Two-tailed t-test
C. ANOVA -Repeated measures
D. Pearson product correlation
47. A mattress company contacted you and
your group of friends to assist them in
determining which type of mattress is most
comfortable. They made you sleep in a
waterbed, in a flat and firm mattress, and in a
fluffy and bouncy mattress. What would be
the best statistical treatment to use in this
experiment?
A. Independent samples t-test
B. One-way ANOVA
C. ANOVA Repeated Measures
D. Levene’s Test
 Start

Correlation Difference

Is there a significant Is there a significant

relationship difference
between… between…

Two groups Three groups or

more
 Correlation

Relation Prediction

P NP
Regression
Pearson Spearman Analysis
r Rho
 Difference (two groups)

Paired/Dependent Unpaired/Independent
Samples Samples

P NP P NP

Paired/ Wilcoxon Unpaired/ Mann

Dependent Signed Independent Whitney U
Samples Rank Test Samples Test
t-test (W test) t-test
 Difference (three groups or more)

Matched Unmatched
groups groups

P NP P NP

Repeated Friedman One-way Kruskal

Measures Test /Two-way Wallis Test
ANOVA ANOVA
48. When testing for normality, what is
most appropriate to use for a sample
size not greater than 50?
A. Kolmogorov-Smirnov Test
B. Shapiro – Wilk Test
C. Chupika Test
D. Angoff Method
48. When testing for normality, what is
most appropriate to use for a sample
size not greater than 50?
A. Kolmogorov-Smirnov Test N > 50
B. Shapiro – Wilk Test N ≤ 50
C. Chupika Test
D. Angoff Method
49. Also known as ‘same variance’, this
concept in correlation and regression
indicates that the variance of the
residuals should all be the same across
all the predicted scores.
A. Linearity
B. Normality
C. Heteroscedasticity
D. Homoscedasticity
50. In a correlation analysis that you
conducted, your correlation coefficient is
.70 and your p-value is .06. How would you
interpret your findings?
A. Your variables have a significant
moderate positive correlation.
B. Your variables have a significant strong
positive correlation.
C. Your variables have an insignificant
correlation.
D. No interpretation can be made
Correlation
Qualitative Interpretation
Coefficient
+ 1.00 Perfect positive relationship
Perfect negative
- 1.00
relationship
Very high/very strong
.85 to .99
relationship
.70 to .84 High/strong relationship
.40 to .69 Moderate relationship
.20 to .39 Low/weak relationship
Very low/very weak
.10 to .19
relationship
0.00 No relationship
Cohen and Holliday (1982)
51. In a research study that you are conducting
with a partner, you are confused by why your
correlation coefficient is .98. What is the
problem and what could remedy the issue?
A. The sample size is to small, add more
respondents
B. Correlation is not appropriate, use regression
analysis
C. The variables are multicollinear, change
them
D. There is no issue, the correlation is nearly
perfect and is highly significant
52. You found in your research that courage is
significantly related to life satisfaction with a
correlation coefficient of -.62. Which statement
is TRUE in interpreting your result?
A. The courage that an individual feels will
result to significantly less life satisfaction.
B. The more that an individual feels courage,
the more satisfied he/she is with his life.
C. As the courage of a person grows, he/ she
will likely be less satisfied with his/her life.
D. Individuals who are more satisfied with their
life exhibit greater or an increase in courage.
53. If a person were to take a test over
and over again, what would estimate
the range of scores that he/she will get?
A. Standard Error of Estimate
B. Standard Error of Measurement
C. Coefficient of Determination
D. Correlation Coefficient
54. What is the relationship between reliability
coefficients and the standard error of
measurement?
A. The standard error of measurement increases
as the reliability coefficient gets bigger.
B. The standard error of measurement
decreases as the reliability coefficient gets
bigger.
C. The standard error of measurement is almost
always equal to the reliability coefficient
D. The standard error measurement is not
related to reliability coefficients.
 Standard Error of Measurement (SEM)
- Measures the precision of an observed test
score and
• Standard errorestimates the extent to which it
of measurement
deviates from a true score
- The standard deviation of a theoretically
normal distribution of test scores obtained by
one person
- The higher the reliability of a test (or individual
subtests within a test), the lower the SEM

SEM = sd √ 1 - r
55. Sano garnered a raw score of 40 in a
measure of narcissism. It was established
that the standard error of the test is 5.
You are 95% sure that his true ability will
fall under what range?
A. 35 – 45
B. 35 – 50
C. 30 – 50
D. 25 – 55
Score = 40
SEM = 5
CI = 95%

68%
95%
99%

25 30 35 40 45 50 55
-5 -5 -5 +5 +5 +5
56. If all the citizens in Baguio City where
to undergo an IQ testing, assuming that
the distribution will be normal, what
percentage of the examinees would
have an IQ of 85 to 115?
A. 50
B. 68
C. 95
D. 99
IQ (M = 100, SD = 15)
IQ Scores = 85 to 115

68%
95%
99%

55 70 85 100 115 130 145

-15 -15 -15 + 15 + 15 + 15
57. Dr. Gerart established that there is a significant
relationship between the number of years one has been
breast-fed and self-esteem. In his findings, it appeared
that there is a positive correlation between the two
variables. What should Dr. Gerart do next if he wishes to
determine whether the number of years one has been
breast-fed can be a good predictor of future self-
esteem?
A. Determine the predictive validity of the criterion
variable which is the number of years one has been
breast-fed
B. Use regression analysis on his variables
C. Determine whether his data has outliers or has
multicollinear variables
D. Establish whether his data is reliable and conduct his
study again after a significant period of time.
58. I. The coefficient of determination is simply the
correlation coefficient squared.
II. Factor analysis is a data-reduction technique
III. Range restriction when using Pearson r results to an
increased correlation coefficient.
IV. Residuals are the difference between the obtained
values and the predicted values in regression
A. All are TRUE
B. All are FALSE
C. I, II and IV are TRUE
D. II, III and IV are TRUE
E. I and III are FALSE
 Coefficient of Determination (r²)
- Indicates how much variance is shared by
• Coefficient of determination
two variables
- Estimate of the percentage of variation in Y
that is known as a function of knowing X
- (to what extent does X predict Y)
- Obtained by squaring the obtained
correlation coefficient, multiplying by 100

e.g. r = 0.6 ~ r² = 0.36 x 100 = 36%

X explains 36% of the variance in Y
 Coefficient of Alienation

- Index of nonassociation between two

variables

(1 - r²) x 100

e.g. (1 - r²) x 100 = (1 - .36) x 100 = 64%

The remaining 64% in the variance of Y is
explained by other factors
59. Strictly speaking, psychometricians can only
administer?
A. Level A and B tests – individual / group
intelligence or structured personality tests only
B. Level A, B and C tests – individual / group
intelligence, structured and unstructured
personality tests
C. Level A and B tests – group intelligence or
structured personality tests only
D. Level A, B and C tests – individual / group
intelligence, structured and unstructured
personality tests with supervision.
 QUALIFIED
LEVEL DESCRIPTION TESTS
ADMINISTRATOR
Responsible Educational
Can be A,S,I with a
nonpsychologists, achievement
A manual and a general
psychometricians, test, vocational
orientation
psychologists proficiency tests
Some technical
Group
knowledge of test
psychometricians intelligence
B construction and use,
and psychologists tests, Structured
statistics and
personality tests
psychology
Substantial
Individual
understanding of
intelligence
testing and
Experienced tests,
C psychological topics
psychologists Unstructured
together and
personality
experience in the use
tests/projectives
of the tools
60. Which is not a global factor in 16PF?
A. Tough Mindedness
B. Anxiety
C. Extraversion
D. Dominance
E. NOTA
16 PERSONALITY FACTORS

FACTOR DESCRIPTION
Warmth Desire for close relationships
Reasoning Solve numerical and verbal problems
Emotional How calmly one responds to life’s
Stability demands
Assert influence and control over
Dominance
others
How freely and spontaneously one
Liveliness
expresses self
Rule How much value is placed on
Consciousness externally imposed rules
Social Boldness Ease one feels in social situations
Sensitivity How emotions influence judgement
16 PERSONALITY FACTORS

FACTOR DESCRIPTION
Extent of cautiousness over other’s
Vigilance
motives
Attention given to abstract
Abstractedness
observations
Private Keeping personal information to the self
Apprehension Proneness to criticism
Openness to Enjoyment of new situations and
Change experiences
Enjoyment of one’s company and trust
Self-reliance
in one’s judgement
Perfectionism Reliance on structure
Tension Frustration over situations
16 PERSONALITY FACTORS – GLOBAL FACTORS
LOW RANGE GLOBAL FACTOR HIGH RANGE
Extraverted,
Introverted,
EXTRAVERSION Socially
Socially inhibited
Participative
High anxiety,
Low anxiety,
ANXIETY emotionally
emotionally stable
unstable
Open-minded,
TOUGH- Tough-minded,
Receptive,
MINDEDNESS resolute, apathetic
Intuitive
Accommodating, Independent,
INDEPENDENCE
Agreeable Persuasive, Willful
Unrestrained, Self-controlled,
SELF-CONTROL
Impulsive inhibits urges
61. This states that the obtained score for
each test taker almost always differs
from his/her true ability or characteristic?
A. Item Response Theory
B. Classical Test Score Theory
C. Domain Sampling Model
D. Information Processing Theory
62. What does it mean when a test is
reliable?
A. It is also valid
B. It measures what it intends to measure
C. It will produce consistent results
D. It is most affected by systematic errors
63. A reliability coefficient of .80 is?
A. Acceptable for both social and natural
sciences
B. Acceptable only for natural sciences
C. Unacceptable only for natural sciences
D. Unacceptable for both social and
natural sciences
 RELIABILITY
- Dependability and consistency of
measurement
- Estimates the range of possible random
fluctuations that can be expected in an
individual’s score

Reliability Coefficient
- +1 to -1
- A proportion that indicates the ratio between
the true score variance on a test and the total
variance
 Classical Test Score Theory
- The true score of an individual can be obtained
if there were no errors in measurement
*Observed scores almost always differs from the
true score because error cannot be totally avoided
Observed Score (X) = True Score (T) + Error (E)
Systematic Error – Predictable errors that occur
consistently
(e.g. A weighing scale always adds an extra kg)
Random Error – leads to inaccuracy in repeated
measures
(e.g weighing scale adds different number of kgs
per measurement)
*Standard error of measurement
 Domain Sampling Model

Domain – extremely large collection of items

- Considers the problems created by using a

limited number of items to represent a larger
and more complicated construct
- As the sample of items gets larger, the more
the domain is represented accurately

- e.g. testing vocabulary using only 5000 words

from a domain containing a million words
 Item Response Theory

- Computer is used to focus on the range of

item difficulty that helps assess the
individual’s ability

-Results in a more reliable estimate of ability

using a shorter test with fewer items

e.g. An individual answers no. 5 incorrectly,

the computer will pick an easier item for
item no.6
64. A psychometrician is establishing the
reliability of a test by administrating it to a
group of high school students and
correlating two scores from two equivalent
divisions of the test. What kind of reliability is
used?
A. Parallel forms
B. Test-retest
C. Split-half
D. Internal consistency
65. This type of reliability is the most
appropriate to use when measuring time
as well as content sampling errors.
A. Internal Consistency – Coefficient
Alpha
B. Test – Retest Reliability
C. Alternate Form Reliability – Delayed
D. Split-Half Reliability
66. After the psychometrician from no. 64
correlated the two scores, what statement would
hold TRUE?
A. The psychometrician would need to administer
the test again after 6 months
B. The psychometrician needs to use the
Spearman-Brown formula since the correlation
coefficient only gave reliability for half of the test.
C. The psychometrician needs to distribute the
test to subject-matter experts to strengthen the
reliability.
D. The psychometrician needs to apply Horst’s
Modification to establish the reliability range
67. Harry is having a difficult time establishing the
reliability of his assessment tool for his company which
involves answering as many low difficulty items as
possible in a given time limit. What would you advise him
to do?
A. Make another test since reliability cannot be
established for time-limited tests for they are designed to
prevent test takers from answering all the items
B. Harry needs to establish the validity coefficient first to
have an idea of the extreme values of his reliability
coefficient.
C. Harry may be using single-trial reliability coefficients
such as odd or even split-half and Kuder-Richardson
technique which is not appropriate.
D. Harry may be using test-retest reliability which is not
appropriate for low-difficulty and time-limited tests.
68. What method of establishing internal
consistency is appropriate for a test that
has right or wrong answers?
A. Kuder-Richardson 20
B. Coefficient Alpha
C. Kappa coefficient
D. Spearman-Brown
 SOURCES OF ERROR
TIME SAMPLING: TEST – RETEST METHOD
Compare two scores obtained
from two successive
Method
measurements of the same
individual
Only applies to traits
Requirements (characteristics that do not
change over time)
Carryover effect – first testing
session influences scores from the
second session
Considerations
Practice effect – type of carryover
effect wherein an examiner scores
better because of practice
 ITEM SAMPLING:
PARALLEL FORMS
(means & variances of scores are equal)
ALTERNATE FORMS
(different versions of the same test)
Compare two equivalent forms of
Method a test that measures the same
attribute
Tests items on two versions should
Requirements
be of the same difficulty level
When the tests are administered at
Considerations different times (Delayed), time
sampling error also applies
* Difficult to develop two comparable forms of the
same test
 INTERNAL CONSISTENCY: SPLIT-HALF METHOD
A test is given and divided into
Method halves and scored separately.
Their results are correlated
Method of dividing should
Considerations depend on progression of
difficulty of the items in the test
• Coefficient is only the reliability of half of the
test
Spearman - Brown formula – Estimates the
correlation between two divisions that have
equal variances if each half had been the length
of the whole test
 INTERNAL CONSISTENCY:
KUDER-RICHARDSON 20
Considers all possible ways of
Method
splitting the items
- Test items should be
dichotomous (right and wrong)
Requirements - Requires the proportion of
people who answers correctly
for each item
*usually more valuable than a split-half
estimate
Kuder-Richardson 21 – Procedure for when all
the items are of equal difficulty or the average
difficulty level is 50%
 INTERNAL CONSISTENCY:
CRONBACH’S COEFFICIENT ALPHA
Estimates the internal consistency of tests in
which the items are not dichotomous
Provides the lowest estimate of reliability for
the test wherein the two halves have either
equal or unequal variances
Most general method of estimating reliability
through internal consistency
 OBSERVER DIFFERENCES: INTER-RATER RELIABILITY
Estimates the degree of
agreement between raters who
Method
simultaneously observe and record
behavior
Used for behavioral observation
Requirements studies, creativity, and projective
test
Test statistic to use depends on the
Considerations
number of raters
Kappa statistic – agreement between two raters
who rate using nominal scales
Fleiss’ Kappa – agreement between any number
of raters
How to increase reliability?
1. Add more items
- The larger the sample of items, the more likely
the test will represent the true characteristic
2. Use Factor Analysis
- Tests are more reliable when the items are
homogenous and unidimensional
3. Discriminability Analysis
- Examine the correlation of each item to the
total score and either remove or revise items
that have low correlations
4. Correction for Attenuation
- Estimates the correlation between two
measures if they had been measured without
error
69. A judge questioned a test that claimed to
measure psychopathic tendencies since a
person who scored high on the test complained
that he was not psychopathic in any way and
that the test items were misleading and
confusing. This is an issue of?
A. Test standardization
B. Test administration
C. Test reliability
D. Test validity
E. Both C and D
70. When establishing this kind of validity,
subject matter experts are involved.
A. Content Validity
B. Construct Validity
C. Criterion-Related Validity
D. All of the above
71. Samantha is sure that she will graduate college
with Latin honors because she graduated high school
with good grades and did well in the entrance
examination. A few years later she is disappointed
with herself because she is struggling academically
and her grades have been either low or average. This
shows that?
A. Her basis for saying she will graduate with Latin
honors has low construct validity
B. Her basis for saying she will graduate with Latin
honors is not reliable but has high Content validity.
C. Her basis for saying she will graduate with Latin
honors has low criterion-related validity.
D. It is impossible to statistically establish future success
in something based on current and available data.
72. Some researchers usually remove the
middle choice in a scale which is
sometimes labeled as ‘neither agree nor
disagree’ or ‘neutral’ to avoid this kind
of test-taking behavior.
A. Leniency Error
B. Proximity Error
C. Central Tendency Error
D. Contrast Effect
73. You notice that the items in your board
examination for Theories of Personality only covers
Sikolohiyang Pilipino and Behavioral Theories
despite the table of specifications indicating that
all personality theories would be covered. This
would illustrate that the exam has?
A. Low face validity
B. Low reliability but high criterion-related validity
C. Low content validity
D. High reliability but low criterion-related and
content validity
74. Kazu is developing a test on narcissism.
During his readings on previous literature, he
saw that narcissism is often differentiated with
passive-aggressive behavior. He finds a
measure of this variable and correlates his test
with it. What did he establish?
A. Convergent validity
B. Divergent validity
C. Content validity
D. Both A and B
 VALIDITY
- Meaningfulness of measurements
- The degree to which all the accumulated
evidence supports the intended
interpretation of test scores
- The extent to which a test measures what it
purports to measure
- Provides evidences for inferences made
about the test score

Validation – process of gathering and

evaluating evidence about validity
 FACE VALIDITY
• Least scientific
• Superficial appearance of what a test measures
from the perspective of a test taker or any other
naive observer
• Judgment concerning how relevant the test items
appear to be
• Desirable feature of tests that promotes rapport and
acceptance of testing and test results on the part of
test takers

I find it easy to produce new

ideas.
__Agree
___Neither Agree nor Disagree
___Disagree
 CONTENT VALIDITY
- How adequately test items are representative of
the universe of behavior that the test was
designed to sample
- Test Blueprint - a plan regarding the types of
information to be covered by the items, the
number of items tapping each area of coverage,
the organization of the items in the test, and so
forth
- Quantified by experts and not by statistical
procedures
Construct underrepresentation – failure to capture
important components of a construct
Construct-irrelevant variances – scores are
influenced by factors irrelevant to the construct (e.g.
test anxiety, illness)
 CRITERION-RELATED VALIDITY
- How well a test corresponds with a particular criterion
Criterion – standard against which a test is compared
Useful in making decisions (e.g. recruitment,
admittance to a university)
I. Predictive Validity
- Index of the degree to which a test score predicts
some criterion measure
- Measures the relationship between test scores and a
criterion measure to be obtained at a future time
II. Concurrent Validity
- index of the degree to which a test score is related to
some criterion measure obtained at the same time
- extent to which test scores may be used to estimate
an individual’s present standing on a criterion
 CONSTRUCT VALIDITY
- Appropriateness of inferences drawn from test scores
regarding individual standings on a variable called a
construct
- Construct - an informed, scientific idea developed or
hypothesized to describe or explain behavior (e.g.
intelligence, anxiety)
- If the test is a valid measure of the construct, then high
scorers and low scorers will behave as predicted by the
theory
- Covers all types of validity
I. Evidence of Homogeneity
- How uniform test is in measuring a single construct
II. Evidence of Changes of Age
- When a change occurs in a construct that could be
expected to vary over time, then the test score, too,
should show the same progressive changes with age
III. Evidence of Pretest-Posttest Changes
- Evidence that test scores change as a result of some
experience between a pretest and a posttest
IV. Evidence from Distinct Groups
- Demonstrate that scores on the test vary in a
predictable way as a function of membership in some
group
V. Convergent Evidence/Validity
- Evidence of construct validity if scores on the test being
validated tend to correlate highly with scores on older,
more established, and already validated tests designed
to measure the same (or a similar) construct
VI. Discriminant/Divergent Evidence/Validity
- A validity coefficient showing little relationship between
test scores and/or other variables with which scores on
the test being construct-validated should not
theoretically be correlated
75. Say you are constructing a test that measures
heartbreak and you find that your items are all highly
correlated to each other with coefficients ranging rom
.97 to .99. What could be concluded about your test
items?
A. The test items are desirable because they will
produce reliable and valid results when administered.
B. The test items are desirable since they are
homogenous and measure one construct
C. The test items are undesirable because the items are
most likely redundant
D. The test items are undesirable because very high
correlations mean that they are all equal in both
difficulty and discriminability which will not produce a
normal distribution of scores.
76. Hans, a high school teacher, was confused by
the test scores of the two sections of Grade 9
students. He is wondering why Section A has very
low marks while Section B has nearly perfect
scores. He knows that the students in both classes
are of relatively equal standing and that the same
items were administered to both classes. He thinks
it is because the sections had different proctors
who gave the exam. In psychometrics, this is a
problem of?
A. Test-taker behavior
B. Reliability and validity
C. Standardization
D. Test construction
77. What does the Yerkes-Dodson Law
propose with regards to test-taking behavior?
A. An individual will perform at his/her best
when there is no mental or physical arousal.
B. Test performance is largely affected by the
locus of control of the individual.
C. When a person is anxious during a test,
he/she is highly likely to fail.
D. NOTA
78. Traditionally, this term refers to the
extent to which an individual has had
experiences or has practice in taking
tests.
A. Test Coaching
B. Test Sophistication
C. Practice Effect
D. Carryover Effect
79. Which of the following is NOT an
advantage of selected-response test
items?
A. They are easy to prepare
B. They are easier to quantify than
constructed-response items
C. They make use of testing time more
efficiently
D. They are less prone to scoring errors
80. After conducting an item tryout, you
discovered that all the individuals who
scored high on your test answered number
50 incorrectly. Which of the following would
hold TRUE?
A. Immediately remove item no. 50.
B. Higher scorers may have misinterpreted
item no. 50, interview them
C. The distractors are too obvious
D. All of the above
81. What should NOT be established during
test conceptualization?
A. Who is the test intended for?
B. Will the interpretation of the test be criterion
or norm referenced?
C. What are the attributes, characteristics or
theoretical concepts that the test aims to
measure?
D. What are the reliability and validity
procedures to be used?
E. NOTA
 Assumptions about Psychological Testing
and Assessment
1. Psychological Traits and States Exist
• Trait - any distinguishable, relatively enduring way
in which one individual varies from another
• States - also distinguish one person from another
but are relatively less enduring

2. Psychological Traits and States Can Be Quantified

and Measured

3. Test-Related Behavior Predicts Non-Test-Related

Behavior
 Assumptions about Psychological Testing
and Assessment
4. Tests and Other Measurement Techniques
Have Strengths and Weaknesses

5. Various Sources of Error are Part of the

Assessment Process

6. Testing and Assessment Can Be Conducted in

a Fair and Unbiased Manner

7: Testing and Assessment Benefit Society

Test Conceptualization

Test Construction

Test Tryout

Analysis

Revision
 Test Conceptualization
What is the test designed to measure?
What is the objective of the test?
Is there a need for this test?
Who will use this test?
Who will take this test?
What content will the test cover?
How will the test be administered?
What is the ideal format of the test?
Should more than one form of the test be developed?
What special training will be required of test users for
administering or interpreting the test?
What types of responses will be required of test takers?
Who benefits from an administration of this test?
Is there any potential for harm as the result of an
administration of this test?
How will meaning be attributed to scores on this test?
 • Determine objectives, definitions of variables,
population, scale and scaling method to use, test
format
Item Format - Variables such as the form, plan,
structure, arrangement, and layout of individual test
items
A. Selected-response Format
- require test takers to select a response from a set
of alternative responses (e.g. Multiple-choice,
true-false, matching)
B. Constructed-response Format
- Require test takers to supply or to create an
answer (e.g. Completion item, short answer,
essay)
 Test Construction
- Writing and formatting the items and determining
scoring rules
Item Pool - The reservoir or well from which items will or
will not be drawn for the final version of the test
Guidelines:
1. One central thought or concept per item
2. Be precise and provide necessary details
3. Be brief and concise
4. Use correct and appropriate grammar
5. Avoid double negatives
Giveaway Item - An item inserted near the beginning of
an achievement test to spur motivation and a positive
test taking attitude and to lessen test takers’ test-related
anxiety
 Test Tryout
- Test should be tried out on people who are
similar in critical respects to the people for
whom the test was designed
- In general, the more subjects in the tryout the
better
- Test tryout should be executed under
conditions as identical as possible to the
conditions under which the standardized test
will be administered (instructions, time limits,
atmosphere of the test site)
 Item Analysis
• Index of the item’s difficulty
• Index of the item’s reliability
• Index of the item’s validity
• Index of item discrimination
 Item Revision
- Some items from the original item pool will be
eliminated / rewritten
- After initial revision, the test developer is then to
administer the revised test under standardized
conditions to a second appropriate sample
- The steps of revision, tryout, and item analysis
are repeated until the test is satisfactory and
standardization can occur
*Test Standardization - The process of
administering a test to a representative sample of
test takers for the purpose of establishing norms
82. A random drug test was conducted in the city
hall of King’s Landing. Jeffrey and Peter, who are
maintenance men, tested positive and were
promptly fired. It was later proved that Peter was
addicted to milk of the poppy but Jeffrey had
never taken drugs. The drug test indicated which
of the following?
A. A false positive for both Jeffrey and Peter
B. A false negative for Jeffrey and a true positive
or Peter
C. A true positive for Jeffrey and a false negative
or Peter
D. A false positive for Jeffrey and a true positive
for Peter
 Condition is Condition is
present absent
Positive True False
Result Positive Positive
Negative False True
Result Negative Negative
83. Melanie recruits Gaspar and Rohelio to
be her participants in a research study
because she knows that they have
experiences with hazing, which is the
research topic. What sampling method is
Melanie using?
A. Non-probability sampling – convenience
B. Probability sampling – random stratified
C. Non-probability sampling – purposive
D. Probability sampling – snowballing
84. How are experimental and quasi-
experimental research designs different?
A. Experimental research design does not have
a control group
B. There is no random assignment in quasi-
experimental design
C. Experimental design has both pre and post
tests while quasi experimental only has a post
test
D. The term ‘Experimental’ is more commonly
used in the clinical setting while the term ‘Quasi’
is added when it is used in the industrial setting.
85. This kind of validity in research refers
to whether the results of an experiment
can be generalized to the general
population.
A. Inferential Validity
B. Construct Validity
C. Internal Validity
D. External Validity
HYPOTHESIS Educated guess or statement

RESEARCH Plan for testing the hypothesis that

DESIGN considers the problem and logistics

DEPENDENT
Measured; Changed or influenced
VARIABLE

INDEPENDENT Manipulated; Influences the

VARIABLE change

INTERNAL Extent to which results can be

VALIDITY attributed to the IV

EXTERNAL Extent to which results can be

VALIDITY generalized
 PROBABILITY SAMPLING

Every member of the population

SIMPLE
has the same chance of being
RANDOM
included in the sample

Dividing the population into few

STRATIFIED homogenous subgroups and
RANDOM randomly selecting representatives
from each subgroup

Members of the population are

CLUSTER selected at random, from naturally
occurring groups called clusters
 NON-PROBABILITY SAMPLING
Selecting individuals who are readily
CONVENIENCE
available/accessible

Selected individuals identify

SNOWBALL additional members to be included in
the sample

Participants are selected based on

PURPOSIVE specific requirements/characteristics

Subgroups are identified first before

convenience sampling is employed to
QUOTA select participants based on specified
proportions
 EXPERIMENTAL METHOD
- Manipulation of an IV to answer the question
of causality
- Involves random assignment and the use of a
control group
Control Group – group who is almost similar in
every way to the experimental group but is not
exposed to the IV
Quasi-Experimental Method – Alternative to
experiments when it is not feasible wherein there
is no use of random assignment for selecting
nonequivalent groups
86. What is TRUE of the relationship between
happiness, the predictor, and ambitiousness, the
criterion, if the coefficient of determination is .60.
A. 60% of the variance in the level of one’s
ambition is explained by one’s happiness
B. 60% of the variance in one’s happiness is
explained by the level of one’s ambition
C. 40% of the variance in one’s ambitiousness is
explained by one’s happiness
D. The coefficient of determination is not strong
enough for happiness to sufficiently predict the
level of one’s ambition.
 Coefficient of Determination (r²)
- A value indicating how much variance is
• Coefficient
shared byoftwo variables being calculated
determination
- Estimate of the percentage of variation in Y
that is known as a function of knowing X
- (to what extent does X predict Y)
- Obtained by simply squaring the obtained
correlation coefficient, multiplying by 100

e.g. r = 0.6 ~ r² = 0.36 x 100 = 36%

X explains 36% of the variance in Y
87. This is a test given to illiterate recruits
during World War I.
A. Army Alpha
B. Army Beta
C. Woodcock-Johnson
D. DAP
88. Which psychological test is not
anchored on a personality theory?
A. EPPS
B. TAT
C. Rorschach Inkblots
D. MMPI
88. Which psychological test is not
anchored on a personality theory?
A. EPPS Edwards Personal Preference Schedule
(Henry Murray’s needs theory)
B. TAT Thematic Apperception Test (Henry
Murray’s needs theory)
C. Rorschach Inkblots (Psychoanalytic
theories)
D. MMPI
89. Carl tends to get nervous and paranoid
easily. He doesn’t have much confidence in
himself and is always anxious and moody. He
doesn’t like surprises and is very jumpy when he
is alone. He is easily irritated even by trivial
things. How would you expect him to score in
the NEO PI-R and in 16PF?
A. Carl would score high in both emotional
stability dimensions of NEO PI-R and 16PF.
B. Carl will score high in Neuroticism in 16 PF and
high in Anxiety in NEO PI-R.
C. Carl will score high in Psychasthenia in NEO
PI-R and low in Emotional Stability in 16PF.
D. NOTA
89. Carl tends to get nervous and paranoid
easily. He doesn’t have much confidence in
himself and is always anxious and moody. He
doesn’t like surprises and is very jumpy when he
is alone. He is easily irritated even by trivial
things. How would you expect him to score in
the NEO PI-R and in 16PF?
A. Carl would score high in both emotional
stability dimensions of NEO PI-R and 16PF. X
B. Carl will score high in Neuroticism in 16 PF and
high in Anxiety in NEO PI-R. X
C. Carl will score high in Psychasthenia in NEO
PI-R and low in Emotional Stability in 16PF. X
D. NOTA
 NEO PI-R
OPENNESS TO Degree to which a person is
EXPERIENCE imaginative and curious
Degree to which a person is
CONSCIENTIOUSNESS persevering, responsible and
organized
Degree to which a person is
EXTRAVERSION sociable, leader-like and
assertive
Degree to which a person is
AGREEABLENESS
warm and cooperative
Degree to which a person is
NEUROTICISM anxious, insecure and prone to
distress
 MINNESOTA MULTIPHASIC PERSONALITY INVENTORY
(MMPI)
Validity Scales
Lie Scale Naive attempt to fake good
K Scale Defensiveness, Denial
Attempt to fake bad, random
F Scale
responses
Cannot Say (?) Scale Unanswered, double-marked
VRIN Scale Inconsistency
Change in pattern at the latter
FB Scale
part of the test
Overreporting
FP Scale
psychopathology
 Clinical Scales
Hypochondriasis Preoccupation with the body
Sadness, discomfort, dissatisfaction
Depression
with life
Hysteria Feeling overwhelmed
Psychopathic
Rebellion, psychopathic personality
Deviate
Masculinity- Lack of stereotypical masculine
Femininity interests
Paranoia Sensitivity, hostility, suspiciousness
Psychasthenia Anxiety, tension, worry
Schizophrenia Confusion, disorganization
Hypomania Overreporting psychopathology
Social Introversion Shyness, Timidity, Insecurity
90. This is the most widely used individual
intelligence test for adults that is
comprised of four index scores.
A. WAIS-IV
B. WPPSI
C. SB-5
D. LEITER-3
90. This is the most widely used individual
intelligence test for adults that is comprised of
four index scores.
A. WAIS-IV Wechsler Adult Intelligence Scale
Fourth Edition, 4 index scores
B. WPPSI Wechsler Preschool and Primary Scale
of Intelligence
C. SB-5 Stanford-Binet Intelligence Scales, Fifth
Edition, 10 subtests
D. LEITER-3 Intelligence test for children ages 2 to
18
91. This is an unstructured personality test
used in the Philippines that was
authored by Alfredo Lagmay.
A. Panukat ng Ugali at Pagkatao (PUP)
B. Panukat ng Pagkataong Pilipino
(PPP)
C. Masaklaw na Panukad ng Loob
D. Philippine Thematic Apperception
Test
 Author Test
Virgilio Enriquez Panukat ng Ugali at Pagkatao (PUP)
Annadaisy
Panukat ng Pagkataong Pilipino (PPP)
Carlota
Alfredo Lagmay Philippine Thematic Apperception Test
Gregorio E.H.
Masaklaw na Panukat ng Loob
del Pilar
Church, Reyes, Panukat ng mga Katangian ng
Katigbak & Personalidad (PKP)/ The Philippine Trait
Grimm Rating Form
Katigbak,
Church & Student Rating Form
Akamine
92. In communicating test results to clients, what
is the most important information that should be
conveyed?
A. The psychometric properties of the test to
give evidence of its appropriateness
B. The conclusive diagnosis of the examinee
and probable treatment or therapeutic
options
C. The numerical scores and standardized
scores of the examinee
D. The relevant interpretations and meaning of
test scores
E. All of the above
93. With regards to disclosing information, which is NOT
an ethical thing to do?
A. Disclose information to authorities when the client
needs to be protected from harm even without
his/her consent
B. Disclose information even without the clients
consent as long as it is to his/her immediate family
(e.g mother, father, children)
C. Disclose information to the person who made the
referral even without the consent of the client who
was assessed.
D. Disclose information to a colleague to get a
second opinion regarding the case with the
consent of the client.
E. NOTA
94. Upon coming home from work, Damian discovered that
a close friend of his passed away. Because of his grief, he
forgets to eat and he cannot fall asleep. Despite his
emotional turmoil, he still goes to work in the morning
because he has a therapy session with a client. What could
be said about this?
A. He was right to go to work because the client is the
priority and one should prioritize their needs before
one’s own
B. He was right to go to work because he could be more
effective in providing therapy due to his emotional state
which the client could relate to.
C. He should have stayed home because the client’s case
isn’t life threatening and can be put off for a later time.
D. He should have stayed home and referred or
rescheduled the client because he is unfit to work.
95. Which is NOT an ethical violation?
A. Providing services in an emergency situation
wherein there is no other professional
available despite being underqualified
B. Referring cases that you believe are ‘too
much’ for you to handle
C. Stopping test takers from answering when
the allotted time is up despite observing that
all of them are only halfway through.
D. All of the above
E. NOTA
96. What ethical value are you violating
when you do not allow your research
participant to leave the study because
he/she feels uncomfortable?
A. Non-maleficence
B. Beneficence
C. Autonomy
D. Privacy
97. A psychologist was conducting a lecture in your
university. She was talking about a schizophrenic patient
that she had assessed a week prior. You see that her slides
show the picture, name, address and diagnosis of the
client. What would you conclude?
A. The psychologist is not violating the code of ethics since
she is discussing the case in an educational setting and
with people who are also in the field of psychology
B. The psychologist is not violating the code of ethics since
individuals with psychotic disorders are not of sound
mind and are not able to give their consent.
C. The psychologist is violating the code of ethics,
specifically the ethical value of privacy that the client is
entitled to.
D. The psychologist is violating the code of ethics
specifically the ethical value of non-maleficence that
prioritizes the welfare of the client.
98. Which of the following cases does not require
informed consent?
A. Manny is in Grade 8 and is about to take a
routine IQ and Problem Checklist test
B. Conrad has just submitted his resume and is
surprised that he is already required to take a
personality test.
C. Hailey is trying to separate from her husband
because she believes that he is psychologically
and verbally abusive. Her husband questions her
sanity in court since he claims that she is making
false accusations. Hailey is then referred for a
psychological evaluation.
D. All of the above
E. None of the above
 What should the client know?

1. Nature, type and expected length of the

assessment
2. Alternative procedures
3. Important details (time, place etc.)
4. Confidentiality and its limitations
5. Potential risks or conflicts of interest
6. Third party involvement
7. Client’s commitments
5. Financial requirements
 Confidentiality
– obligation that arises from the client’s trust
wherein there is a restriction in disclosing
information

Exceptions:
1. Discuss results with colleagues for evaluation
purposes
2. Release only pertinent information when
mandated by law
3. Imminent danger to the individual or
community
4. Discussion of details that does not
compromise privacy for academic purposes
 Privacy
- Right of the client to decide the how much
information about himself/herself is
communicated and shared to others
- Pertains more to the individual as opposed to
the results of the assessment/therapy

e.g. Name, Address, Contact Number, Physical

Appearance

Inviolacy – When clients are urged or made to

discuss subjects that they are uncomfortable with
 INFORMED CONSENT
The clients are made aware of all the
important information and procedures, and
are requested for their consent to participate.
*Respect client’s right to commit or withdraw
Informed consent is necessary except:
1. When mandated by the law (court-
ordered)
2. When testing is a routine educational or
industrial activity
3. When the purpose of testing is to measure
the decisional capacity of an individual
 Assessment Tools
• Select and use tests/procedures that are
appropriate and necessary
• Ensure that these tests/procedures are not
obsolete or outdated
• Ensure that tests are psychometrically sound
• Employ tests that are appropriate to the
language and competence of the client
Release of Data
1. Should not be made known to persons not
explicitly agreed upon by the referral sources
2. Do not release data in the form of raw and
scaled scores, client’s responses, notes and
observation
 Explaining Results:
• Communicated in a non-technical language
• Only pertinent information, their meaning, and
recommendations

Relationships:
• Do not engage in relationships outside of the
professional one
• Do not enter into multiple relationships
• Do not engage in sexual relationships with
clients, relatives, significant others
*for at least 2 years after cessation of service
 Autonomy
- Right to self-determination and independence
Veracity/Honesty
- Telling the truth and avoiding deception
Fidelity
- Faithfulness to commitments, being trustworthy
and loyal
Justice
- Fairness and equality
Beneficence/Non-maleficence
- Promoting and upholding well-being
- Avoiding and preventing harm
99. Which of the following individuals
can provide consent?
A. A 12 year old client with the IQ of a
genius
B. A 25 year old woman who has severe
intellectual disability
C. A 14 year old client who recently
gave birth
D. A 40 year old comatose man
100. What does RGO stand for?
A. Review for Global Opportunities
B. Review for Goals and Opportunities
C. Reaching for Greatness Only
D. Revitalizing Global Omniscience