Lec 8
Lec 8
Saranya G. Nair
Department of Mathematics
BITS Pilani
November 9, 2022
f n (a)
Since x = a ∈ I , we get f n (a) = n!an . Therefore an = n! . This answers
Question (2). i.e
′′
f (a)
f (x) = f (a) + f ′ (a)(x − a) + (x − a)2 + · · ·
2!
Suppose that we have a function like f (x) = cos(x) that needs a calculator
to evaluate. Can you find a linear function close to cos x for x near 0?
Suppose that we have a function like f (x) = cos(x) that needs a calculator
to evaluate. Can you find a linear function close to cos x for x near 0?
Suppose that we have a function like f (x) = cos(x) that needs a calculator
to evaluate. Can you find a linear function close to cos x for x near 0?
Suppose that we have a function like f (x) = cos(x) that needs a calculator
to evaluate. Can you find a linear function close to cos x for x near 0?
Suppose that we have a function like f (x) = cos(x) that needs a calculator
to evaluate. Can you find a linear function close to cos x for x near 0?
The second derivative determines the rate of change of the derivative, and
so that the graphs of f (x) and g (x) curve at the same rate around x = 0.
The second derivative determines the rate of change of the derivative, and
so that the graphs of f (x) and g (x) curve at the same rate around x = 0.
This gives c = − 12 .
The second derivative determines the rate of change of the derivative, and
so that the graphs of f (x) and g (x) curve at the same rate around x = 0.
This gives c = − 12 .
g (x) = a0 + a1 x + a2 x 2 + · · · + an x n
g (x) = a0 + a1 x + a2 x 2 + · · · + an x n
f m (0)
Then we want f m (0) = g m (0) and g m (0) = m!am . Thus am = m! .
Saranya G. Nair (BITS Pilani) Mathematics I November 9, 2022 6 / 16
Thus ′′
′ f (0) 2 f n (0) n
g (x) = f (0) + f (0)x + x + ··· + x
2! n!
is a polynomial that can be used for approximating f (x) for x in a
neighbourhood of 0. This motivates the following definition.
′′
f (a) f n (a)
= f (a) + f ′ (a)(x − a) + (x − a)2 + · · · + (x − a)n + · · ·
2! n!
The Maclaurin series generated by f is the Taylor series generated by f at
x = 0 given by
∞ ′′
X f k (0) k ′ f (0) 2 f n (0) n
x = f (0) + f (0) + x + ··· + x + ···
k! 2! n!
k=0
Theorem
Taylor’s Theorem: If f has derivatives of all orders in an open interval I
containing a, then for each positive integer n and for each x ∈ I ,
Theorem
Taylor’s Theorem: If f has derivatives of all orders in an open interval I
containing a, then for each positive integer n and for each x ∈ I ,
′′
f (a) f n (a)
f (x) = f (a) + f ′ (a)(x − a) + (x − a)2 + · · · + (x − a)n + Rn (x)
2! n!
where
Theorem
Taylor’s Theorem: If f has derivatives of all orders in an open interval I
containing a, then for each positive integer n and for each x ∈ I ,
′′
f (a) f n (a)
f (x) = f (a) + f ′ (a)(x − a) + (x − a)2 + · · · + (x − a)n + Rn (x)
2! n!
f n+1 (c)
where Rn (x) = (x − a)n+1 for some c between a and x.
(n + 1)!
Theorem
Taylor’s Theorem: If f has derivatives of all orders in an open interval I
containing a, then for each positive integer n and for each x ∈ I ,
′′
f (a) f n (a)
f (x) = f (a) + f ′ (a)(x − a) + (x − a)2 + · · · + (x − a)n + Rn (x)
2! n!
f n+1 (c)
where Rn (x) = (x − a)n+1 for some c between a and x.
(n + 1)!
When we state Taylor’s theorem this way, it says that for each x ∈ I , there
exists c ∈ (a, x) such that
1 2 1 1
f (x) = 1 + x + x + x 3 + · · · + x n + Rn (x)
2! 3! n!
1 2 1 1
f (x) = 1 + x + x + x 3 + · · · + x n + Rn (x)
2! 3! n!
and
f n+1 (c) n+1 ec
Rn (x) = x = x n+1
(n + 1)! (n + 1)!
for some c between 0 and x.
1 2 1 1
f (x) = 1 + x + x + x 3 + · · · + x n + Rn (x)
2! 3! n!
and
f n+1 (c) n+1 ec
Rn (x) = x = x n+1
(n + 1)! (n + 1)!
for some c between 0 and x. Since e x is an increasing function of x,
e c < 1 if x ≤ 0 and e c ≤ e x for x > 0. Thus |Rn (x)| → 0 as n → 0.
(Why?)
1 2 1 1
f (x) = 1 + x + x + x 3 + · · · + x n + Rn (x)
2! 3! n!
and
f n+1 (c) n+1 ec
Rn (x) = x = x n+1
(n + 1)! (n + 1)!
for some c between 0 and x. Since e x is an increasing function of x,
e c < 1 if x ≤ 0 and e c ≤ e x for x > 0. Thus |Rn (x)| → 0 as n → 0.
(Why?)
∞
X xk
Thus the series converges to e x for every x.
k!
k=0
3. Show that
(
0 if x=0
f (x) = −1
e x2 if x ̸= 0
has derivatives of all orders at x = 0 and that f n (0) = 0 for all n. What is
the Taylor series generated by f at x = 0? Does the Taylor series converge?
Does it converge to f (x) for x ∈ I where I is an interval containing 0?
3. Show that
(
0 if x=0
f (x) = −1
e x2 if x ̸= 0
has derivatives of all orders at x = 0 and that f n (0) = 0 for all n. What is
the Taylor series generated by f at x = 0? Does the Taylor series converge?
Does it converge to f (x) for x ∈ I where I is an interval containing 0?
3. Show that
(
0 if x=0
f (x) = −1
e x2 if x ̸= 0
has derivatives of all orders at x = 0 and that f n (0) = 0 for all n. What is
the Taylor series generated by f at x = 0? Does the Taylor series converge?
Does it converge to f (x) for x ∈ I where I is an interval containing 0?