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MCQ’s
403 HRM: Employment Relations

Sr.no Question Answer


Conceptual Framework of ER :
Industrial relations cover the following area(s)
a) Collective bargaining
1 b) Labour legislation d
c) Industrial relations training
d) All of the above
Parties to industrial relations are
a) ILO, Government, Association of employers a
2 b) ILO, Government, IMF
c) ILO, Board of Directors, Association of employers
d) Government, Board of Directors, Association of employers
The following is (are) included in ILO’s standards with
regard to industrial relations
a) Right of association d
3
b) Right to organize and collective bargaining
c) Tripartite consultants
d) All of the above
According to Indian Labour Commission (ILC) major
recommendations, Union once recognised should be valid for a c
period of _____ years to be co-terminus with the period of
4
settlement.
a) Two
b) Three

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c) Four
d) Five
A proactive industrial relations programme must cover the
following decision(s)
a) Communication d
5
b) Competence
c) Discipline and conflict
d) All of the above
Industrial Relation refer to
a) Central Government and State Government relations.
6 b) Employer, Employees and Government relationship
b
c) management and Customers relationship
d) Government and Public relations.
Who is known as ‘safety valve’ in the field of industrial relations
?
a) Employer
7 d
b) Trade Union
c) Safety officer
d) Welfare officer.
Which one of the following cannot be included under the purview
of industrial relations?
a) Relations between trade unions and trade unions
8 c
b) Relations between employers and trade unions
c) Relations between employers and customers
d) Relations between state, employer and trade unions
Absence of strikes and lock-outs is an indicator of
9 a) Peaceful industrial relations a
b) Friendly industrial relations

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c) Disturbed industrial relation


d) None of the above
The Government’s strategy in maintaining industrial relations in
India is
a) Laissez fair
10 c
b) Total intervention
c) Required intervention.
d) none of the above
Bipartite industrial relations include relations between:
a) Management and unions
11 b) Union and government a
c) Management & Government
d) Management, Government & Union
Which of the following machinery cannot be said to be bipartite
machinery in the field of industrial relations?
a) Works Committee
12 d
Joint Management Councild
c) Shop Level Councilc
d) Canteen committee.
Which of the following cannot be said to be tripartite machinery
in the field of industrial relations?
a) Indian Labour Conference
13 d
b) Standing Labour Committee
c) International Labour Organisation
d) Wage board.
Which of the following is said to be an important aspect of
14 industrial relations? c
a) Profit and loss of the organisation

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b) Future expansion programme


c) Conflict and co-operation.
d) Quality Control
Which of the following ministries looks after industrial relations
situation in the country?
a) Ministry of Home Affair
15 d
b) Ministry of Human Resource Development
c) Ministry of Welfare
d) Ministry of Labour and employment.
Which one of the following international organisations is directly
related to industrial relations?
a) United Nations Organisation
16 d
b) UNESCO
c) World Health Organisation
d) International Labour Organisation
Which of the following areas cannot be directly included in the
field of industrial relations?
a) Trade Union Recognition
17 c
b) Strike and Lock-out
c) Minimum wages, Fair wages and Living wages.
d) Collective bargaining
Which of the following legislations cannot be included in the
category of industrial relations legislations in India?
a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947
18 d
b) Trade Union Act, 1926
c) Industrial Employment (Standing orders)Act, 1946.
d) Equal Remuneration Act. 1976
19 Which of the following is not included under industrial relations d

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policy of a country?
a) Recognition of trade unions and collective bargaining.
b) Restrictions on strikes and lock-outs.
c) Workers participation in management
d) Principles of wages determination.
Which of the following regulates industrial relations in India?
a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and Trade Unions Act, 1926.
20 b) Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act, 1946 d
c) Code of Discipline and Inter-union Code of Conduct
d) All of the above.
Peaceful industrial relations denote:
a) Absence of strike and lock out
21 b) Emphasis on bipartite. d
c) Co-operation between the parties
d) All of the above.
Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the following
a) Employers
22 b) Unions d
c) Government
d) all of the above
Parties to industrial relations are
a) ILO, Government, Association of employers
23 b) ILO, Government, IMF a
c) ILO, Board of Directors, Association of employers
d) Government, Board of Directors, Association of employers
A proactive industrial relations programme must cover the
24 following decision(s) d
a) Communication

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b) Competence
c) Discipline and conflict
d) All of the above
Characteristics of Industrial Relations do not include:
a) Industrial Relations are outcome of employment relationship
in an industrial enterprise.
b) Industrial Relations promote the skills and methods of
25 adjustment and co-operation with each other. d
c) Industrial Relations create complex rules and regulations to
maintain cordial relations.
d) Industrial Relations system creates an environment of distrust
and conflict
The constitution of India upholds the principle ‘Freedom of
Association’ as a fundamental right enunciated by I. L. O.
convention in
26 a) Article 20(C) b
b) Article 19(C)
c) Article 24(C)
d) Article 18(C)
Which of the following is not a determinant factor of industrial
relations?
a) Institutional factors
27 b) Economic factors d
c) Technological factors
d) Social stratification factors

Who are not the actors according to Dunlop’s framework of


28 d
industrial relations system?

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a) Managers and their representatives


b) Workers and their organisations
c) Specialized government agencies
d) Communities and their associations

The structure of I.L.O. includes


a) an International Labour Conference
29 b) a Governing Body d
c) an International Labour Office
d) All the above

Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the following


a) Employers
30 b) Unions d
c) Government
d) all of the above

Which of the following approaches assumes that the


understanding of industrial relations requires an
understanding of the capitalised society?
31 a) Marxist approach a
b) Gandhian approach
c) Human relations approach
d) Giri approach
Which of the following approaches assumes that voluntary
negotiations between employers and employees are a means of
settling disputes?
32 b
a) Marxist approach
b) Giri approach
c) Human relations approach

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d) Gandhian approach
Which of the following approaches insists on investigating the
underlying trends and patterns in the cause and effect of
industrial disputes?
33 a) Gandhian approach c
b) Giri approach
c) Industrial sociology approach
d) Pluralist approach
Which of the following is usually not an objective of industrial
relations?
a) Connectedness
34 a
b) Collective wisdom
c) Conflict prevention
d) None of the above
What is the meaning of Employment relations?
a) Relationship between worker and workers
35 b) Relationship between employer and employers c
c) Relationship between management and workers
d) None of the above
Which of the following statements about workers’ participation
in Management in India is not true?
a) It is a part of the 20 point Economic programme.
36 b) It is provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy. d
c) It is made a Constitutional provision under the 42ndAmendment
Act.
d) It is a justice able right of the workers.
Which one of the following is not a machinery for settlement of
37 c
Industrial Disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?

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a) Conciliation Officer
b) Board of Conciliation
c) Collective Bargaining
d) Labour Court
Which are not the characteristics of grievances?
a) Factual
38 b) Fabricated b
c) Disguised
d) Imaginary
Which of the following cannot be said to be an objective of
Workers’ Participation in Management?
a) To associate in decision making process of the organization.
39 b) To satisfy the urge of self-expression of workers. d
c) To promote a conducive environment in the organisation.
d) To promote higher income and better conditions of employment
for workers.
Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?
a) Award of Labour Court
40 b) Award of Tribunal d
c) Arbitration Award
d) Consent Award
Identify the functions of Joint Management Council:
a) Information sharing
41 b) Consultative d
c) Administrative
d) All the above
By which amendment the provisions of Workers’ Participation in
42 c
Management was incorporated in the Indian Constitution?

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a) 41
b) 42
c) 43
d) 44
Find out the characteristics of collective bargaining which is not
applicable;
a) It is a collective process.
43 b) It is a flexible process. c
c) It is not a bipartite process.
d) It is interdisciplinary system.

Which of the following is not a mode of Workers’ Participation in


Management?
a) Works Committee
44 b
b) Employee Stock Option Plan
c) Joint Management Council
d) Joint Committee for Policy Formulation
In which type of collective bargaining workers lose something
instead of gaining?
a) Concession Bargaining
45 a
b) Coalition Bargaining
c) Productivity Bargaining
d) All the above
The method of collective bargaining refers to:
a) Negotiations between Employer, workers and Government
Representative.
46
b) Negotiations between Employer’s representative and Trade union’s
b
Representative.
c) Negotiations between Employers and the Government.

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d) Negotiations between Employer, and Customers.


Who has first made use of the term Collective Bargaining?
a) G.D.H., Cole.
47 b) Samuel Gompers. c
c) Sidney Webb.
d) Robert Owen.
Which of the following is helpful in the process of collective
bargaining
a) Conciliation and Mediation.
48 a
b) Voluntary Arbitration.
c) Adjudication.
d) None of the above.
If representatives of an employer and trade union meet together
and discuss the terms and conditions of employment with a view
to reaching and agreement, the process is called :
49 a) Collective Bargaining. a
b) Join Consultation.
c) Worker’s Publication and Management
d) Arbitration.
An agreement arrived at by the parties and approved by a
Labour Court or Tribunal is called:
a) Award.
50 c
b) Settlement.
c) Consent Award
d) None of the above.
Which of the following weakens collective bargaining?
51 a. Inter-union rivalries d
b. Absence of a collective bargaining legislation

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c. Hostility among the parties


d. All the above.
According to V.V.Giri, which one is the best method for the
settlement of industrial disputes?
52 d
a) Conciliation. b) Mediation.
c) Adjudication. d) Collective Bargaining.
When a dispute is settled by the process of collective bargaining,
the document arrived a, is called :
53 b
a) Settlement. b) Agreement
c) Judgment. d) Award.
When an agreement is arrived at in the process of collective
bargaining and is registered with the conciliation officer, it is
called
53 a) Settlement. b
b) Converted Settlement.
c) Bi-partite agreement.
d) None of the above.
The definition of collective bargaining that it is “negotiations
about working conditions and terms of employment between an
employer, a group of employers or one or more employers
organisations on the one hand, and one or more representative
workers organisations on the other, with a view to reaching
54 c
agreement” was given by :
a) Allen Flender
b) Sidney & Beatrice Webbs.
c) International Labour Organisation
d) Dankert.
55 The history of industrial disputes in India started after : b

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a) 1855
b) 1859
c) 1875
d) 1881
Which of the following methods is more prominent in settling
industrial disputes in India?
a) Voluntary Arbitration
56 b
b) Conciliation
c) Adjudication
d) Mediation
Which of the following methods has not been given a statutory
form in India?
a) Conciliation
57 b
b) Mediation.
c) Voluntary Arbitration
d) Adjudication
Voluntary Arbitration means:
a) Giving an award by a third person mutually agreed upon by both
the parties.
58 b) Giving an award by person appointed by the appropriate a
government without the consent of the parties.
c) An award of Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal.
d) None of the above.
Compulsory Arbitration means:
a) Reference of the dispute by an appropriate government to an
59 arbitrator appointed by the appropriate government. a
b) Reference of the dispute by the appropriate government to an
arbitrator mutually agreed upon by the parties.

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c) Taking the dispute to a third person by the parties.


d) None of the above.
Conciliation is a method in which a third person:
a) Mediates in and persuades the parties to come to an amicable
settlement.
60 a
b) Listens to both the parties and gives his own decision.
c) Gives his decision without listening to the parties.
d) None of the above
The history of conciliation started in India from:
a) The Employers and Workmen (Disputes) Act, 1980.
b) The Trade (Disputes) Act, 1929. b
c) The Defence of India Rules, 1940.
d) The Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
The Court of Inquiry under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 will
conclude its proceeding within a period of :
a) 14 days.
61 c
b) 02 months.
c) Six months.
d) One year.
A board of conciliation under the industrial disputes act, 1947
may consist of :
a) Three persons.
62 c
b) Five persons.
c) Three or five persons.
d) None of the above.
The appropriate government may appoint one or more industrial
63 tribunals for adjudication of industrial disputes relating to any c
matter, whether specified in :

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a) The second Schedule.


b) The Third Schedule.
c) Second or third schedule.
d) None of the above.
Section 22 and 23 of the industrial disputes act, 1947 are related
to
a) lay-off and Retrenchment.
64 b
b) Strikes and lock-outs.
c) Closure.
d) Protect workmen.
The Industrial Disputes Act 1947
The industrial disputes act in India was passed in :
a) 1926
65 b) 1946 c
c) 1947
d) 1948
Works-committee is a:
a) Bi-partite body.
66 b) Tripartite body. a
c) Adjudication machinery.
d) Wage fixing machinery.
The conciliation officer generally concludes his proceeding
within:
a) Ten Days
67 b
b) Fourteen days.
c) One month.
d) Two months.
68 Which of the following methods is not incorporated under the a

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industrial disputes act, 1947.


a) Collective bargaining.
b) Conciliation
c) Arbitration.
d) Adjudication.
Till what period from the conclusion of adjudication proceedings
a workman cannot go on strike under the industrial disputes act’
1947
69 a) Six Months. d
b) Four months.
c) Three months.
d) Two months.
Industrial disputes may take place due to :
a) Wage.
70 b) Bonus. d
c) Trade Union Recognition.
d) All the above.
Which one of the following cannot be said to be an industrial
dispute?
a) Disputes between employer and employer.
71 d
b) Disputes between employer and workmen.
c) Disputes between workmen & workmen.
d) Disputes between employer and the customer.
Among the methods for settlement for industrial disputes listed
below, which one is not relevant here?
72 a) Collective Bargaining. d
b) Compulsory Adjudication.
c) Voluntary Arbitration

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d) Reference to civil court.


Which one of the following is the last weapon in the hands of
workers:
a) Lay-off.
73 d
b) Lock-out.
c) Closure.
d) Strike
In a situation to be called as strike, which of the following must be
present?
a) Plurality of workmen.
74 b) Cessation of work or refusal to continue to work. d
c) Acting in combination or concerted action under a common
understanding.
d) All the above.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
a) The notice of lockout or strike shall not be necessary where there is
already in existence a strike or as may be in case of lockout in public
utility service.
b) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal strike shall not be
75 d
deemed to be illegal.
c) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal lockout shall not
be deemed to be illegal.
d) A strike or lockout may be declared even before the date
mentioned in the notice.
The general provisions regarding lay-off apply to :
a) Industrial establishments in which atleast 50 workmen are
76 a
employed and which are not of a seasonal character.
b) Industrial establishments in which atleast 100 workmen are

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employed.
c) Industrial establishments which are not of seasonal character.
d) To all industrial establishments which come under the purview of
the Factories Act, 1948.
The period of one year of continuous service under the industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 means?
a) An uninterrupted service of the all 365 days.
77 d
b) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.
c) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.
d) 240 days service in a year.
Who among the following is not entitled to lay-off compensation
under the industrial disputes act, 1947?
a) A permanent worker.
77 c
b) An irregular worker.
c) A casual worker
d) All the above.
Every workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an
industrial establishment and who presents himself for work at the
establishment shall be deemed to be laid-off if the employer does
not provide him work :
78 a
a) Within 2 hours of his so presenting.
b) Within 4 hours of his so presenting.
c) Within 6 hours of his so presenting.
d) None of the above.
A lay-off is declared is case of :
a Surplus labour.
79 c
b) When worker threaten to go on strike..
c) Failure of power or shortage of raw materials.

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d) The employer is running in heavy loss.


The retrenchment compensation will be equivalent to:
a) 25 days average pay for every completed year of continuous
service.
b) 20 days average pay for every completed year of continuous
80 service. c
c) 15 days average pay for every completed year of continuous
service.
d) 10 days average pay for every completed year of continuous
service.
Organizations employing 100 or more workmen will be required
to give a notice for retrenching an employee which should be:
a) 3 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.
81 b) 2 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment. a
c) One months notice in writing indicating the reasons of
retrenchment.
d) None of the above.
According to the industrial disputes act, 1947, the employer will
normally retrench :
a) The senior most worker of that category.
82 d
b) An inefficient worker of that category.
c) Any worker of that category.
d) The last person to be employed in that category.
Termination of the services of surplus employees from any
organization is called:
83 a) Disciplinary action. d
b) Retirement.
c) Lay-off.

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d) Retrenchment
An employer of an establishment serves a three months notice on
the workmen to be retrenched. The statement above indicates
that the establishment employs:
84 a) 100 workmen. a
b) More than 50 but less than 100 workmen.
c) Less than 50 workmen.
d) None of the above.
The “Protected Workmen” refer to:
a) Any member of a registered trade union in the establishment.
b) A workman who is a member of executive.
85 d
c) A workman who is an office bearer.
d) A workman who is either a member of executive or office bearer
of a registered trade union connected with the establishment.
Any employer employing 100 or more workers and who intends
to close down his undertaking will have to give a notice to the
appropriate government stating the reasons of closure.
86 a) Atleast 30 days before the date of closure. c
b) Atleast 60 days before the date of closure.
c) Atleast 90 days before the date of closure
d) Atleast 120 days before the date of closure.
No notice of closure will be required to be served on the
appropriate government if the number of workers employed is:
a) Less than 200.
87 c
b) Less than 100.
c) Less than 50.
d) Less than 25.
88 Where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever, c

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every workman shall be entitled to notice and compensation if he


has put in:
a) Five year of continuous service.
b) Two year of continuous service.
c) One year of continuous service.
d) Six months of continuous service.
How many days before, an employer intending to close down his
undertaking in which 62 workmen are employed, has to serve a
notice to the appropriate government:
89 a) 60 days. a
b) 70 days.
c) 90 days.
d) 240 days.
Closure means:
a) Closing down the place of work for a short period.
90 b) Closing down the place of employment permanently. b
c) Suspension of work due to shortage of raw materials.
d) Refusal to give employment due to industrial disputes.
An interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute by
any Labour Court is known as:
a) Agreement.
91 c
b) Settlement.
c) Award.
d) Judgment.
An Award must be published by the appropriate government in
the official gazette within:
92 b
a) 15 days from date of the receipt.
b) 30 days from date of the receipt.

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c) 45 days from date of the receipt.


d) 60 days from date of the receipt.
An award will remain in operation for a minimum period of:
a) 06 months from the date on which it becomes enforceable.
93 b) One year from the date on which it becomes enforceable. b
c) Two year from the date on which it becomes enforceable.
d) Three year from the date on which it becomes enforceable
Strikes and Lockouts
Which one of the following is the last weapon in the hands of
workers:
94 d
a) Lay-off. b) Lock-out.
c) Closure. d) Strike
Which one of the following is not an important element of strike:
a) Cessation of work.
95 b) By a body of persons. d
c) Under a common understanding.
d) For a genuine reason
A lightening strike denotes:
a) Going on strike after serving a notice of strike.
96 b) Going on strike after obtaining strike ballot. d
c) Going on strike after making all necessary preparation
d) Going on strike suddenly.
Lockout is:
a) A reward.
97 b)An industrial action. b
c) An incentive.
d) None of the above
98 A lockout in an industry is declared by: c

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a) Union Government.
b) State Government.
c) Management.
d) Trade Union.
In a situation to be called as strike, which of the following must be
present?
a) Plurality of workmen.
99 b) Cessation of work or refusal to continue to work. d
c) Acting in combination or concerted action under a common
understanding.
d) All the above.
Wild cat strike means:
a) A strike declared suddenly and without prior notice.
100 b) Workers resorting to violence during the strike. a
c) A strike declared with the prior notice.
d) Standing demonstration at the gate of organisation.
A temporary closing of employment due to industrial dispute or
the suspension of work or the refusal by an employer to continue
to employ any number of persons engaged by him would mean
that :
1010 a) The industrial establishment is close down. b
b) The industrial establishment is locked out.
c) the workmen of the industrial establishment are kept under
suspension.
d) None of above
In India, the ‘right to strike’ is:
102 a) A Fundamental Right. b
b) Conferred by legislation.

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c) Provided under the directive Principal of state policy.


d) Conferred of Government order.
As per the industrial disputes act, 1947 strikes and lockouts in
public utility services will be legal only when :
a) A written notice of strikes or lock out is given within six weeks of
strike or lockout.
b) Not resorting to strikes or lockouts within 14 days or giving such a
103 d
notice.
c) During the pendency of any conciliation proceedings before a
Conciliation Officer and 07 days after the conclusion of such
proceeding.
d) All the above.
Which of the following statements is not correct.
a) The notice of lockout or strike shall not be necessary where there is
already in existence a strike or as may be in case of lockout in public
utility service.
b) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal strike shall not
104 d
be deemed to be illegal.
c) A Lockout declared in consequence of an illegal lockout shall not
be deemed to be illegal.
d) A strike or lockout may be declared even before the date
mentioned in the notice.
Which of the following statements is not correct
a) There is no need of giving strike notice in non-public utility service
under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
105 c
b) According to the Code of Discipline there should be no strike or
lockout without notice.
c) No strikes or lockouts in a non-public utility service can be

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declared during the pendency of conciliation proceeding before a


Conciliation officer.
d) No strike or lock-out can be declared in a non –public utility
service during the pendency or proceedings before a Labour Court,
Tribunal or National Tribunal.
A strike in pursuance of an industrial dispute has already
commenced and is in existence. The appropriate Govt. has
referred the dispute to a Labour Court but did not prohibit the
continuance of the strike under sub-section (3) of the section10.
The continuance of that strike during the pendency of
106 a
proceedings before the Labour Court will be:
a) Legal.
b) Illegal.
c) Out of the preview of the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947.
d) None of the above.
Workers in a public utility service went on an illegal strike
without giving any notice. Soon thereafter, the employer also,
107 without giving any notice declared a lockout. Will that lockout be a
a) Legal. b) Illegal.
c) Out of the preview of this Act. d) None of the above
A trade union in a steel factory served a notice of strike on 1st
January but the union went on strike in the middle of May. Will
the strike be :
108 a) Legal. a
b) Illegal.
c) Does not come under the preview of this Act.
d) None of the above.
109 An award was given on the subject of Bonus three months back a

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and it is still in operation. The union decides to go on strike on the


issue of revision of wages in that organisation will that strike be :
a) Legal.
b) Illegal.
c) Will not come under the preview of this Act.
d) None of the above.
Lay-Off
General provisions regarding lay-off are given in the industrial
disputes act, 1947 in its :
a) Chapter –V A
110 a
b) Chapter-VB.
c) Chapter-VI.
d) Chapter-VII.
The general provisions regarding lay-off apply to :
a) Industrial establishments in which atleast 50 workmen are
employed and which are not of a seasonal character.
b) Industrial establishments in which atleast 100 workmen are
111 a
employed.
c) Industrial establishments which are not of seasonal character.
d) To all industrial establishments which come under the purview of
the Factories Act, 1948.
The period of one year of continuous service under the industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 means?
a) An uninterrupted service of the all 365 days.
112 d
b) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.
c) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.
d) 240 days service in a year.
113 Whenever a workman is laid-off under the industrial disputes act, a

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1947, the employer will pay him lay-off compensation which will
be equivalent to:
a) 50% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.
b) 75% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.
c) 80% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.
d) 100% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.
In which of the following situations lay-off compensation shall not
be paid to a workman :
a) If he refuses to accept any alternative employment in the same
114 establishment. d
b) If he does not present himself at work place atleast once a day.
c) If such laying off is due to strike or showing down of production.
d) In all the above situations.
In an industrial establishment where the special provisions
regarding lay-off apply, no workman shall be laid-off by his
employer except.
a) With the prior permission of appropriate government.
115 a
b) A notice in advance is given to the workmen 03 months before
declaring the lay off.
c) Without the consent of the trade union.
d) None of the above.
Prior permission of the appropriate government shall not be
necessary in lay-off if:
a) Such lay off is due to shortage of power.
116 b) Due to natural calamity. d
c) In case of mine due to fire, flood, excess of inflammable gas or
explosion.
d) In all the above.

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Who among the following is not entitled to lay-off compensation


under the industrial disputes act, 1947?
a) A permanent worker.
117 c
b) An irregular worker.
c) A casual worker
d) All the above.
Every workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an
industrial establishment and who presents himself for work at the
establishment shall be deemed to be laid-off if the employer does
not provide him work :
118 a
a) Within 2 hours of his so presenting.
b) Within 4 hours of his so presenting.
c) Within 6 hours of his so presenting.
d) None of the above.
A lay-off is declared is case of :
a Surplus labour.
119 b) When worker threaten to go on strike.. c
c) Failure of power or shortage of raw materials.
d) The employer is running in heavy loss.
The The maximum period for which workmen can be laid-off
during any period of twelve months under the industrial disputes
act, 1947?
120 a) 15 days. c
b) 30 days.
c) 45 days.
d) 60 days.
Inability to give employment to a workman on accounts of
121 c
shortage of coal, power or raw materials or the accumulation of

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stock or the break down of machinery is called:


a) Retrenchment.
b) Closure.
c) Lay-off.
d) Termination of employment.
Retrenchment
An organisation employing less than 100 workers, can not
retrench the services of an employee who has put in atleast:
a) Five year of continuous service.
122 d
b) Three year of continuous service.
c) Two year of continuous service.
d) One year of continuous service.
Retrenchment in organisations employing less than 100 workers
can be done only when:
a) The workmen has been given atleast one month notice in writing
123 indicating the reasons of retrenchment or wages in lieu of notice. d
b) The workmen has been paid retrenchment compensation.
c) A notice served on the appropriate government.
d) All the above.
There will be no need of notice of retrenchment if:
a) The worker has committed a minor misconduct.
124 b) If he is a trade union member. c
c) If he has not completed his one year of continuous service.
d) If he has disobeyed the management.
The retrenchment compensation will be equivalent to:
a) 25 days average pay for every completed year of continuous
125 c
service.
b) 20 days average pay for every completed year of continuous

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service.
c) 15 days average pay for every completed year of continuous
service.
d) 10 days average pay for every completed year of continuous
service.
Organisations employing 100 or more workmen will be required
to give a notice for retrenching an employee which should be:
a) 3 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.
126 b) 2 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment. a
c) One months notice in writing indicating the reasons of
retrenchment.
d) None of the above.
The appropriate government either on its own or on the
application made by the employer or any workman may review
its order granting or refusing permission for retrenchment. If the
appropriate government refers this matter to a tribunal for
adjudication, the tribunal in such a situation will submit its
127 c
award within a period of:
a) 90 days.
b) 60 days.
c) 30 days.
d) No time of limit.
128 According to the industrial disputes act, 1947, the employer wil
normally retrench :
a) The senior most worker of that category.
d
b) An inefficient worker of that category.
c) Any worker of that category.
d) The last person to be employed in that category.

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129 Where any workman has been retrenched in an organisation and


the employer proposes to make further employment in the same
category, the industrial disputes act say that the:
a) Retrenched workers will not be re-employed again.
c
b) Only fresh workers will be taken into employment.
c) Retrenched workers will have preference over other workmen if
they offer for re-employment.
d) None of the above.
130 Termination of the services of surplus employees from any
organisation is called:
a) Disciplinary action.
d
b) Retirement.
c) Lay-off.
d) Retrenchment
131 Termination by the employer of the service of a workman for any
reason whatsoever otherwise than as a punishment is known as :
a) Suspension.
d
b) dismissal.
c) Lay-off.
d) Retrenchment
132 An employer of an establishment serves a three months notice on
the workmen to be retrenched. The statement above indicates
that the establishment employs:
a) 100 workmen. a
b) More than 50 but less than 100 workmen.
c) Less than 50 workmen.
d) None of the above.
Protected Workmen

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133 The provision of “Protected Workmen” deals with protecting the


union officials of
a) The recognized union only.
d
b) All the union in the establishment whether registered or not.
c) The union (S) selected as per the discretion of the employer.
d) The registered trade unions functioning in an establishment.
134 The “Protected Workmen” refer to:
a) Any member of a registered trade union in the establishment.
b) A workman who is a member of executive.
d
c) A workman who is an office bearer.
d) A workman who is either a member of executive or office bearer
of a registered trade union connected with the establishment.
135 An employer during the pendency of any proceeding in respect of
an industrial dispute:
a) Can take any action against any protected workman.
b) Can not take any action against a protected workman.
c
c) Can take any action against a protected workman only after
obtaining permission in writing from the authority before which the
proceeding is pending.
d) None of the above.
136 In every establishment the number of workmen to be recognized
as “Protected workmen” for the purposes of this act shall be:
a) One percent of the total workmen.
a
b) Two percent of the total workmen.
c) Five percent of the total workmen.
d) None of the above.
137 The minimum number of persons to be declared as protected
a
workmen in any organization shall be not less than:

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a) 5 persons.
b) 10 persons.
c) 15 persons.
d) 20 persons.
138 The maximum number of persons to be declared as “Protected
workmen” in any organisation should not be more than:
a) 50.
b
b) 100.
c) 150.
d) 200.
Closure
139 The provisions regarding closure have been given under:
a) Trade union Act, 1926.
b) Industrial disputes act, 1947. b
c) Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1948.
d) None of the above.
140 Any employer employing 100 or more workers and who intends
to close down his undertaking will have to give a notice to the
appropriate government stating the reasons of closure.
a) Atleast 30 days before the date of closure. c
b) Atleast 60 days before the date of closure.
c) Atleast 90 days before the date of closure
d) Atleast 120 days before the date of closure.
141 No notice of closure will be required to be served on the
appropriate government if the number of workers employed is:
a) Less than 200. c
b) Less than 100.
c) Less than 50.

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d) Less than 25.


142 No notice of closure will be required to be given to the
appropriate government indicating the reasons if the undertaking
is set-up for the construction of:
a) Building. d
b) Bridges.
c) Roads, Canals & Dams.
d) All the above.
143 If the appropriate government is so satisfied it may direct that the
provisions of closure shall not apply to an undertaking if it is
closed due to :
a) Exceptional circumstances as accident in the undertaking or death
a
of the employer.
b) Exceptional loss to the employer.
c) Strong unionism among the workers.
d) Insufficient demand for the product.
144 Where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever,
every workman shall be entitled to notice and compensation if he
has put in:
a) Five year of continuous service. c
b) Two year of continuous service.
c) One year of continuous service.
d) Six months of continuous service.
145 For closing down the place of employment the employer will have
to serve:
a) One month notice in advance. d
b) Or in lieu of wages.
c) Compensation at the rate of 15 days wages for every completed

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year of service.
d) All the above.
146 Where an undertaking engaged in mining operation is closed
down by reason merely of exhaustion of the minerals in that area,
no workman shall be entitled to any notice or compensation if:
a) The employer provides the workmen alterative employment with
effect from date of closure. d
b) On the same terms & conditions of service as were applicable.
c) The service of workman has not interrupted by the alternative
employment.
d) All the above.
147 Closure as defined under the industrial disputes act, 1947 means:
a) Permanent closing of the entire organisation.
b) Permanent closing of a major portion of the organisation. d
c) Permanent closing of even a part of the organisation.
d) All the above.
148 How many days before, an employer intending to close down his
undertaking in which 62 workmen are employed, has to serve a
notice to the appropriate government:
a) 60 days. a
b) 70 days.
c) 90 days.
d) 240 days.
149 Closure means:
a) Closing down the place of work for a short period.
b) Closing down the place of employment permanently. b
c) Suspension of work due to shortage of raw materials.
d) Refusal to give employment due to industrial disputes.

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Award and Settlement


150 An interim or a final determination of any industrial dispute by
any Labour Court is known as:
a) Agreement.
c
b) Settlement.
c) Award.
d) Judgment.
151 Award means an interim or final determination of any industrial
dispute by:
a) Labour Court
d
b) .b) Industrial Tribunal or National Tribunal.
c) An Arbitrator under section 10A.
d) d) All of the above.
152 An Award must be published by the appropriate government in
the official gazette within:
a) 15 days from date of the receipt.
b
b) 30 days from date of the receipt.
c) 45 days from date of the receipt.
d) 60 days from date of the receipt.
153 An award shall become enforceable on the expiry of:
a) 15 days from the date of publication.
b) 30 days from the date of publication. b
c) 60 days from the date of publication.
d) 90 days from the date of publication.
154 An award under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947:
a) Shall not be final.
d
b) Shall not be compulsory in nature.
c) May be questioned in any Court of Law.

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d) Shall be final and shall not be called in question by any Court.


155 An award will remain in operation for a minimum period of:
a) 06 months from the date on which it becomes enforceable.
b) One year from the date on which it becomes enforceable. b
c) Two year from the date on which it becomes enforceable. d) Three
year from the date on which it becomes enforceable
156 The appropriate government may extend the period operation of
an award by any period not exceeding?
a) 06 months at a time.
b
b) One year at a time.
c) Two year at a time.
d) Three year at a time.
157 The total period of operation of an award should not exceed?
a) Two Years.
b) Three Years. b
c) Four years.
d) five years.
158 Where an appropriate government is of opinion that on public
grounds affecting national economy or social justice:
a) It may stop the enforcement of the entire award.
d
b) It may stop the enforcement of a part of the award.
c) It may modify the award.
d) All of the above.
159 On the completion of the period of operation:
a) An award is automatically terminated.
b) An award is automatically extended. c
c) A notice is to be given by any of the partly for the termination of
the award.

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d) None of the above.


160 The award shall continue to be binding even after serving a notice
by any of the partly until:
a) A period of 30 days have lapsed from the date on which notice
given.
b) A period of two months have lapsed from the date on which notice
b
given
c) A period of three months have lapsed from the date on which
notice given
d) A period of six months have lapsed from the date on which notice
given
161 A settlement means:
a) A settlement arrived at by the help of a Conciliation Officer.
b) A settlement arrived at by the help of a Board of Conciliation.
d
c) An agreement arrived at otherwise than in the course of
Conciliation proceeding but registered with the Conciliation Officer.
d) All of the above.
162 A settlement will remain in operation for a minimum period of:
a) Three years.
b) Two years. d
c) One year
d) Six months.
163 A settlement will remain in operation for a:
a) Maximum period of one year.
b) Maximum period of two year. d
c) Maximum period of three year.
d) No maximum period has been mentioned under the Act.
164 A settlement after the completion of the period of its operation is: c

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a) Automatically terminated.
b) Automatically extended.
c) One of the parties has to give a notice in writing to the other
expressing its intention to terminate the settlement.
d) None of the above.
Industrial employment (standing orders) act, 1946
165 The main objective of the industrial employment (standing
orders) act,1946 is to promote rules to govern the:
a) wages in the undertaking
d
b) conduct of the employer
c) conduct of the trade unions
d) define conditions of employment
166 The industrial employment act, 1946 applies to every industrial
establishment wherein the number of employed workmen is
atleast: b
a) 50 b) 100
c) 150 d) 250
167 The employers of all the industrial establishments where the
industrial employment, act 1946 become applicable will be
required to submit draft standing orders to the certifying officer
within :
b
a) three months
b) six months
c) one year
d) three years
168 The employer will submit to the certifying officer
a) three copies of the draft standing orders b
b) five copies of the draft standing orders

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c) six copies of the draft standing orders


d) none of the above
169 On receipt of the draft standing orders the certifying officer shall
forward a copy thereof to the :
a) central government b) I.L.O c
c) trade union in the organization d) Indian labour
conference
170 The trade union or the workmen as the case may be will be
required to return the draft standing orders with their objections
or suggestions to the certifying officer within:
a) one week from the receipt of the notice b
b) fifteen days from the receipt of the notice
c) one month from the receipt of the notice
d) three months from the receipt of the notice
171 After receiving suggestions or objections from the trade union or
the workmen, the certifying officer shall there upon certify the
draft standing orders after making any modifications therein and
shall send copies of the certified standing orders to the employer b
and the trade union within:
a) three days b) seven days
c) fifteen days d) one month
172 The certified standing orders shall unless an appeal is preferred
come into operation on the expiry of :
a) fifteen days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof
are sent. b
b) thirty days from the date on which authenticated copies thereof are
c) a&b
d)none of the above

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173 The text of the standing orders as finally certified under the
industrial employment act, 1946 shall be prominently posted by
the employer at or near the entrance in :
a) Hindi and regional languages
c
b) French and German languages
c) English and the language understood by the majority of his
workmen
d) Urdu and Punjabi language
174 The standing orders finally certified under the industrial
employment act, 1946 shall not be liable to modification until the
expiry of: b
a) three months b) six months
c) nine months d) one year
175 The subsistence allowance paid to workmen during the period of
suspension, pending investigation shall be at the rate of :
a) 50% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension.
a
b) 25% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension
c) 75% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension
d) 100% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension
176 Any employer workman, trade union who is aggrieved by the
order of the certifying officer may appeal to the appellate
authority
a) within thirty days from the date on which the copies are sent. a
b) within forty five days from the date on which the copies are sent
c) within fifteen days from the date on which the copies are sent
d) within six month from the date on which the copies are sent
177 Industrial employment standing orders act is applicable in every
c
industrial establishment where ____ workmen are employed.

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a. 200
b. 150
c. 100
d. 50
178 An authority who is appointed by the appropriate government by
notification in the official Gazette to exercise in such area as may
be specified?
a. Appellate Authority a
b. Certifying officer
c. Acting officer
d. None of the above
179 What is the time frame in which the employer shall submit 5
copies of the draft standing orders proposed by him for adoption
in his industrial establishment?
a.1 month from the date on which standing orders act becomes
applicable
b. 12 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes d
applicable
c. 18 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes
applicable
d. 6 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes
applicable
180 Section 10B in the act deals with ______
a. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to
all industrial establishments
a
b. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to
all industrial establishments in coal mines
c. Prescribed particulars of workmen

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d. None of the above


181 As per sub - section 3 of section 5 the standing orders shall come into
operation on the expiry of ______ days from the date on which
authenticated copies are sent.
a. 30 days a
b. 7 days
c. 15 days
d. 5 days
182 In which language is the text of the standing orders posted on the
notice boards?
a. English or that is understood by majority of the workmen
a
b. Only English
c. Language as understood by the workmen
d. None of the above
183 How many copies have to be submitted to the certifying officer while
making any modifications in the standing orders?
a. 10
c
b. 4
c. 5
d. 2
184 Which section takes care of payment of subsistence allowance in
standing orders act?
a. Section 10
d
b. Section 1
c. Sub section 1
d. Section 10A
The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970
185 Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 applies to c

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every establishment/ contractor in which ____________ workmen are


employed or were employed on any day of the preceding twelve
months as contract labour.
a) Ten or more
b) Fifteen
c) Twenty or more
d) Twenty-five or more
186 2. The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act, 1970 shall
not apply to establishments in which work is of _____
a) An intermittent or casual nature
b) Permanent work a
c) Both (A) & (B)
d) None of the above

187 3. Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), 1970 can be


classified into the category of:
a) Social Security Act
c
b) Industrial Relations Act
c) Welfare Act
d) Commercial Act
188 Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), prohibits use of
contract labour for….. Function.
a) Financial
b
b) Core
c) Day to day
d) D. Effective
189 One the objective of Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition
b
Act),is use to …… contract employees.

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a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Promote
d) D. Develop
190 Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), prohibits use of
contract labour for core function. The purpose was to ensure interest
of
a) Factories c
b) Contract employees
c) Permeant employee
d) D. Trade union
191 What are the facilities are needed for employees by an organization as
per the The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?
a) Drinking water
d
b) Washing facilities
c) Latrines & urinals
d) D. All of above
192 Which type of organization exempted under Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?
a) Work only if an intermittent nature
d
b) Work only if an casual nature
c) None of these
d) Both of these
193 What is minimum number for which canteen need to be present by
The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?
a) 50 c
b) 25
c) 100

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d) 150

Trade Union Act, 1926


195 A trade union’s certificate of registration is liable to be cancelled
if it:
a) commits an unfair labour practice.
d
b) violates the provisions of the code of discipline
c) fails to submit annual returns
d) certificate is obtained by fraud means.
196 According to the trade unions act, 1926 the minimum number of
persons who can get a trade union registered is
d
a) 10 b) 15
c) 20 d) 7 <= 10% <= 100
197 Under the trade unions act, 1926 what is the minimum age
required for a person to become an office bearer of a registered
trade union? d
a) 15 years b) 21 years
c) 17 years d) 18 years
199 In which year the trade unions act in India was enacted?
a) 1923 b) 1924 c
c) 1926 d) 1936
200 The general funds of a trade union may not be spent on:
a) payment of salaries and allowances of office-bearers
b) the conduct of trade disputes on behalf of the trade union
d
c) compensation to members for loss arising out of trade disputes
d) the maintenance of any person who is a member of any legislative
body.
201 Under the trade unions act, 1926 the prescribed membership fee
a
is :

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a) 0.25 paise or more


b) 0.50 paise or more
c) Rs. 1 or more
d) Rs. 5 or more
202 Every appropriate government shall appoint an officer who will
look after the registration of trade unions under the trade union
act, 1926 and who will be known as :
a) commissioner of labour c
b) Workmen’s compensation commissioner
c) Registrar of trade union
d) special officer
203 An application for registration by a trade union shall become
invalid if :
a) 25% of the total number of persons who made the application have
ceased to be members of the trade union.
b) exceeding 50% of the total number of persons who made the b
application have ceased to be members of the trade union
c) 75% and above of the total number of persons who made the
application have ceased to be members of the trade union
d) none of the above
204 Outsiders can be associated with a registered union as its office
bearers but their proportion should not be more than :
b
a) 25% b) 33 %
c) 75% d) none of the above
205 A person shall be disqualified to become a member of the
executive or any other office bearer of a registered trade union if
d
:
a) he is not educated

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b) he is not an independent person


c) he is not associated with the trade union for the last ten years
d) he has been convicted by a court in India of any offence involving
moral turpitude.
206 A registered trade union may change its name with the consent of
:
a) one third of the total number of its member
b
b) two third of the total number of its member
c) one-half of the total number of its member
d) none of the above
207 Any two or more registered trade unions may become
amalgamated as one union if :
a) one fourth of the votes of members of each trade union are
recorded and atleast 25% of the votes recorded are in the favour of
the proposal.
c
b) one half of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded
and atleast 50% of the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal
c) one half of the votes of members of each trade union are recorded
and atleast 60% of the votes recorded are in the favour of the proposal
d) none of the above
208 Every registered trade union shall send to the registrar every
year :
a) a quaterly return
c
b) half yearly return
c) annual return
d) none of the above
209 A certificate of registration of a trade union may be withdrawn or
d
canelled by the registrar:

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a) if the certificate has been obtained by fraud means.


b) the trade union has ceased to exist
c) the union has willfully contravened any provision of the act
d) all the above.
210 In order to cancel the certificate of registration the registrar must
give a written notice specifying the ground on which the
certificate is being cancelled and it will be :
a) two months previous notice in writing. a
b) three months previous notice in writing
c) six months previous notice in writing
d) no notice is required.
211 Trade unions’ sole purpose is:
a) To help management to raise employee productivity.
b) To resole employer-employee conflict. d
c) To make protest.
d) To protect and promote workers’ interest.
212 Who said that “ A trade union is a continues association of wage
earners for the purpose of maintaining of improving the
conditions their working lives”?
a) Dankert. b
b) Sidney & Beatrice Webbs.
c) R.A. Hoxie.
d) S.D. Punekar.
213 Which of the following is not type of Trade Union?
a) Craft union.
b) Industrial Union. d
c) Federation.
d) World Federation of Trade Unions.

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214 Which of the following was organised primarily to send labour


representative to I.L.O.?
a) Madras Labour Union.
d
b) Bombay Mill Hands’ Association.
c) Textile Labour Association.
d) All India Trade Union Congress.
215 Who among the following advocated the Trusteeship Theory of
Trade Union?
a) N.M. Lokhande
b) B.P. Wadia d
c) G.L. Nanda
d) M.K. Gandhi

216 Trade Union movement in India emerged between


a) 1920-1930
b) 1850-1870 c
c) 1870-1880
d) 1930-1947
217 According to Section 9 A of the Trade Union Act, 1926 minimum
requirement about membership of a trade union is
a) Seven
b) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen. d
c) Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is less.
d) D. Ten percent or one hundred of the workmen, whichever is
less, subject to minimum seen.
218 A union may claim recognition for an industry in a local area, if it
has membership of
c
a) 10% of the workers in that industry.
b) 15% of the workers in that area.

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c) 25% of the workers of that industry in that area.


d) 30% of the workers in similar industry.
219 A person is qualified to be chosen as a member of the executive or
any other office bearer of the registered trade union if he attained
the age of
a) Fifteen years a
b) Eighteen years
c) Twenty one years
d) Twenty five years
220 Not more than 50% of members of the office bears of Trade
union can be outsiders, as per provisions of legislations.
a) Industrial Dispute Act
b
b) Trade Union Act
c) Mines Act
d) ESI Act
221 Trade union means any combination formed primarily for the
purpose of regulating the relations between
a) Workmen and employers permanently
b) Workmen and workmen permanently
d
c) Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers
and employers temporary or permanent
d) Workmen and employers, workmen and workmen, employers
and employers permanently
223 The basic principle underlying the enactment of the Trade
Unions Act is:
a) To protect interests of workers against disregard of human b
elements in industries.
b) To regulate the relationship of workers and their organization

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by regulating the balance of power.


c) To provide strength to workers to settle the industrial disputes.
d) To provide security to workers against the occupational
hazards.
224 Which of the following is not a characteristic of Trade Union?
a) Is an association of employers or the employees or of the
independent workers?
b) Is relatively a permanent combination but not temporary or
c
casual.
c) Is an association of workers who are engaged in not securing
economic benefits for their members?
d) Is influenced by a member of ideologies.
225 Which of the following cannot be said to be a trade union in true
sense?
a) Craft Union
c
b) Industrial Union
c) Company Union
d) Federation
226 Which of the following statements is correct?
a) There is a statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions
in India at the Central level.
b) There is no statutory provision for recognition of Trade Unions
in India at the Central level. b
c) Code of discipline provides both for Registration and
Recognition.
d) There is provision for recognition under the Inter-Union Code
of Conduct
227 Which one is not a right of a recognized union? a

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a) A right of ‘Check-off’
b) To use notice board on the premises of the undertaking
c) To appear on behalf of the union on domestic inquiry
d) inspecting the undertaking
228 The following persons are considered as insider of a registered
trade union.
a) Honorary member from the other organization.
d
b) Honorary member from other profession.
c) Politician who guides the registered trade union.
d) Retired and retrenched members of the trade union.
229 Trade Union should be registered as per the law must have
a) A.20% of the workers
b) B.150 workmen d
c) Minimum 17 persons
d) None of the above
230 Identify the correct definition of industrial relations:
a) A Relations between or among human beings
b) B Relations between employer and employees as individuals
d
c) C Relations between parties in an employment context
d) D Collective relationship between management and trade
unions
231 What duAration of existence is needed as per trade union act
1926, before making application of registration.
a) 1 year
a
b) 2 year
c) 3 year
d) 5 year
Workers’ participation in Management & Collective

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bargaining
232 Which of the following statements about workers’ participation
in Management in India is not true?
e) It is a part of the 20 point Economic programme.
f) It is provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy. d
nd
g) It is made a Constitutional provision under the 42 Amendment
Act.
h) It is a justice able right of the workers.
233 Which of the following cannot be said to be an objective of
Workers’ Participation in Management?
e) To associate in decision making process of the organization.
f) To satisfy the urge of self-expression of workers. d
g) To promote a conducive environment in the organisation.
h) To promote higher income and better conditions of employment
for workers.
234 Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?
e) Award of Labour Court
f) Award of Tribunal d
g) Arbitration Award
h) Consent Award
235 Identify the functions of Joint Management Council:
e) Information sharing
f) Consultative d
g) Administrative
h) All the above
236 By which amendment the provisions of Workers’ Participation in
Management was incorporated in the Indian Constitution? c
e) 41

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f) 42
g) 43
h) 44
237 Find out the characteristics of collective bargaining which is not
applicable;
e) It is a collective process.
f) It is a flexible process. c
g) It is not a bipartite process.
h) It is interdisciplinary system.

238 Which of the following is not a mode of Workers’ Participation in


Management?
e) Works Committee
b
f) Employee Stock Option Plan
g) Joint Management Council
h) Joint Committee for Policy Formulation
239 In which type of collective bargaining workers lose something
instead of gaining?
e) Concession Bargaining
a
f) Coalition Bargaining
g) Productivity Bargaining
h) All the above
240 The method of collective bargaining refers to:
a) Negotiations between Employer, workers and Government
Representative.
b) Negotiations between Employer’s representative and Trade union’s
Representative. b
c) Negotiations between Employers and the Government.
d) Negotiations between Employer, and Customers.

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241 Who has first made use of the term Collective Bargaining?
a) G.D.H., Cole.
b) Samuel Gompers. c
c) Sidney Webb.
d) Robert Owen.
242 Which of the following is helpful in the process of collective
bargaining
a) Conciliation and Mediation.
a
b) Voluntary Arbitration.
c) Adjudication.
d) None of the above.
243 If representatives of an employer and trade union meet together
and discuss the terms and conditions of employment with a view
to reaching and agreement, the process is called :
a) Collective Bargaining. a
b) Join Consultation.
c) Worker’s Publication and Management
d) Arbitration.
244 An agreement arrived at by the parties and approved by a
Labour Court or Tribunal is called:
a) Award.
c
b) Settlement.
c) Consent Award
d) None of the above.
245 Which of the following weakens collective bargaining?
a. Inter-union rivalries
d
b. Absence of a collective bargaining legislation
c. Hostility among the parties

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d. All the above.


246 According to V.V.Giri, which one is the best method for the
settlement of industrial disputes?
d
a) Conciliation. b) Mediation.
c) Adjudication. d) Collective Bargaining.
247 When a dispute is settled by the process of collective bargaining,
the document arrived a, is called :
b
a) Settlement. b) Agreement
c) Judgment. d) Award.
248 When an agreement is arrived at in the process of collective
bargaining and is registered with the conciliation officer, it is
called
a) Settlement. b
b) Converted Settlement.
c) Bi-partite agreement.
d) None of the above.
249 The definition of collective bargaining that it is “negotiations
about working conditions and terms of employment between an
employer, a group of employers or one or more employers
organisations on the one hand, and one or more representative
workers organisations on the other, with a view to reaching
c
agreement” was given by :
a) Allen Flender
b) Sidney & Beatrice Webbs.
c) International Labour Organisation
d) Dankert.
250 Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?
d
i) Award of Labour Court

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j) Award of Tribunal
k) Arbitration Award
l) Consent Award

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