MCQ Ir
MCQ Ir
MCQ Ir
MCQ’s
403 HRM: Employment Relations
c) Four
d) Five
A proactive industrial relations programme must cover the
following decision(s)
a) Communication d
5
b) Competence
c) Discipline and conflict
d) All of the above
Industrial Relation refer to
a) Central Government and State Government relations.
6 b) Employer, Employees and Government relationship
b
c) management and Customers relationship
d) Government and Public relations.
Who is known as ‘safety valve’ in the field of industrial relations
?
a) Employer
7 d
b) Trade Union
c) Safety officer
d) Welfare officer.
Which one of the following cannot be included under the purview
of industrial relations?
a) Relations between trade unions and trade unions
8 c
b) Relations between employers and trade unions
c) Relations between employers and customers
d) Relations between state, employer and trade unions
Absence of strikes and lock-outs is an indicator of
9 a) Peaceful industrial relations a
b) Friendly industrial relations
policy of a country?
a) Recognition of trade unions and collective bargaining.
b) Restrictions on strikes and lock-outs.
c) Workers participation in management
d) Principles of wages determination.
Which of the following regulates industrial relations in India?
a) Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 and Trade Unions Act, 1926.
20 b) Industrial Employment (Standing orders) Act, 1946 d
c) Code of Discipline and Inter-union Code of Conduct
d) All of the above.
Peaceful industrial relations denote:
a) Absence of strike and lock out
21 b) Emphasis on bipartite. d
c) Co-operation between the parties
d) All of the above.
Identify the major actor of industrial relations from the following
a) Employers
22 b) Unions d
c) Government
d) all of the above
Parties to industrial relations are
a) ILO, Government, Association of employers
23 b) ILO, Government, IMF a
c) ILO, Board of Directors, Association of employers
d) Government, Board of Directors, Association of employers
A proactive industrial relations programme must cover the
24 following decision(s) d
a) Communication
b) Competence
c) Discipline and conflict
d) All of the above
Characteristics of Industrial Relations do not include:
a) Industrial Relations are outcome of employment relationship
in an industrial enterprise.
b) Industrial Relations promote the skills and methods of
25 adjustment and co-operation with each other. d
c) Industrial Relations create complex rules and regulations to
maintain cordial relations.
d) Industrial Relations system creates an environment of distrust
and conflict
The constitution of India upholds the principle ‘Freedom of
Association’ as a fundamental right enunciated by I. L. O.
convention in
26 a) Article 20(C) b
b) Article 19(C)
c) Article 24(C)
d) Article 18(C)
Which of the following is not a determinant factor of industrial
relations?
a) Institutional factors
27 b) Economic factors d
c) Technological factors
d) Social stratification factors
d) Gandhian approach
Which of the following approaches insists on investigating the
underlying trends and patterns in the cause and effect of
industrial disputes?
33 a) Gandhian approach c
b) Giri approach
c) Industrial sociology approach
d) Pluralist approach
Which of the following is usually not an objective of industrial
relations?
a) Connectedness
34 a
b) Collective wisdom
c) Conflict prevention
d) None of the above
What is the meaning of Employment relations?
a) Relationship between worker and workers
35 b) Relationship between employer and employers c
c) Relationship between management and workers
d) None of the above
Which of the following statements about workers’ participation
in Management in India is not true?
a) It is a part of the 20 point Economic programme.
36 b) It is provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy. d
c) It is made a Constitutional provision under the 42ndAmendment
Act.
d) It is a justice able right of the workers.
Which one of the following is not a machinery for settlement of
37 c
Industrial Disputes under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947?
a) Conciliation Officer
b) Board of Conciliation
c) Collective Bargaining
d) Labour Court
Which are not the characteristics of grievances?
a) Factual
38 b) Fabricated b
c) Disguised
d) Imaginary
Which of the following cannot be said to be an objective of
Workers’ Participation in Management?
a) To associate in decision making process of the organization.
39 b) To satisfy the urge of self-expression of workers. d
c) To promote a conducive environment in the organisation.
d) To promote higher income and better conditions of employment
for workers.
Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?
a) Award of Labour Court
40 b) Award of Tribunal d
c) Arbitration Award
d) Consent Award
Identify the functions of Joint Management Council:
a) Information sharing
41 b) Consultative d
c) Administrative
d) All the above
By which amendment the provisions of Workers’ Participation in
42 c
Management was incorporated in the Indian Constitution?
a) 41
b) 42
c) 43
d) 44
Find out the characteristics of collective bargaining which is not
applicable;
a) It is a collective process.
43 b) It is a flexible process. c
c) It is not a bipartite process.
d) It is interdisciplinary system.
a) 1855
b) 1859
c) 1875
d) 1881
Which of the following methods is more prominent in settling
industrial disputes in India?
a) Voluntary Arbitration
56 b
b) Conciliation
c) Adjudication
d) Mediation
Which of the following methods has not been given a statutory
form in India?
a) Conciliation
57 b
b) Mediation.
c) Voluntary Arbitration
d) Adjudication
Voluntary Arbitration means:
a) Giving an award by a third person mutually agreed upon by both
the parties.
58 b) Giving an award by person appointed by the appropriate a
government without the consent of the parties.
c) An award of Labour Court, Tribunal or National Tribunal.
d) None of the above.
Compulsory Arbitration means:
a) Reference of the dispute by an appropriate government to an
59 arbitrator appointed by the appropriate government. a
b) Reference of the dispute by the appropriate government to an
arbitrator mutually agreed upon by the parties.
employed.
c) Industrial establishments which are not of seasonal character.
d) To all industrial establishments which come under the purview of
the Factories Act, 1948.
The period of one year of continuous service under the industrial
Disputes Act, 1947 means?
a) An uninterrupted service of the all 365 days.
77 d
b) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.
c) A continuous service of all atleast 300 days.
d) 240 days service in a year.
Who among the following is not entitled to lay-off compensation
under the industrial disputes act, 1947?
a) A permanent worker.
77 c
b) An irregular worker.
c) A casual worker
d) All the above.
Every workman whose name is borne on the muster rolls of an
industrial establishment and who presents himself for work at the
establishment shall be deemed to be laid-off if the employer does
not provide him work :
78 a
a) Within 2 hours of his so presenting.
b) Within 4 hours of his so presenting.
c) Within 6 hours of his so presenting.
d) None of the above.
A lay-off is declared is case of :
a Surplus labour.
79 c
b) When worker threaten to go on strike..
c) Failure of power or shortage of raw materials.
d) Retrenchment
An employer of an establishment serves a three months notice on
the workmen to be retrenched. The statement above indicates
that the establishment employs:
84 a) 100 workmen. a
b) More than 50 but less than 100 workmen.
c) Less than 50 workmen.
d) None of the above.
The “Protected Workmen” refer to:
a) Any member of a registered trade union in the establishment.
b) A workman who is a member of executive.
85 d
c) A workman who is an office bearer.
d) A workman who is either a member of executive or office bearer
of a registered trade union connected with the establishment.
Any employer employing 100 or more workers and who intends
to close down his undertaking will have to give a notice to the
appropriate government stating the reasons of closure.
86 a) Atleast 30 days before the date of closure. c
b) Atleast 60 days before the date of closure.
c) Atleast 90 days before the date of closure
d) Atleast 120 days before the date of closure.
No notice of closure will be required to be served on the
appropriate government if the number of workers employed is:
a) Less than 200.
87 c
b) Less than 100.
c) Less than 50.
d) Less than 25.
88 Where an undertaking is closed down for any reason whatsoever, c
a) Union Government.
b) State Government.
c) Management.
d) Trade Union.
In a situation to be called as strike, which of the following must be
present?
a) Plurality of workmen.
99 b) Cessation of work or refusal to continue to work. d
c) Acting in combination or concerted action under a common
understanding.
d) All the above.
Wild cat strike means:
a) A strike declared suddenly and without prior notice.
100 b) Workers resorting to violence during the strike. a
c) A strike declared with the prior notice.
d) Standing demonstration at the gate of organisation.
A temporary closing of employment due to industrial dispute or
the suspension of work or the refusal by an employer to continue
to employ any number of persons engaged by him would mean
that :
1010 a) The industrial establishment is close down. b
b) The industrial establishment is locked out.
c) the workmen of the industrial establishment are kept under
suspension.
d) None of above
In India, the ‘right to strike’ is:
102 a) A Fundamental Right. b
b) Conferred by legislation.
1947, the employer will pay him lay-off compensation which will
be equivalent to:
a) 50% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.
b) 75% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.
c) 80% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.
d) 100% of the total basic wages and dearness allowance.
In which of the following situations lay-off compensation shall not
be paid to a workman :
a) If he refuses to accept any alternative employment in the same
114 establishment. d
b) If he does not present himself at work place atleast once a day.
c) If such laying off is due to strike or showing down of production.
d) In all the above situations.
In an industrial establishment where the special provisions
regarding lay-off apply, no workman shall be laid-off by his
employer except.
a) With the prior permission of appropriate government.
115 a
b) A notice in advance is given to the workmen 03 months before
declaring the lay off.
c) Without the consent of the trade union.
d) None of the above.
Prior permission of the appropriate government shall not be
necessary in lay-off if:
a) Such lay off is due to shortage of power.
116 b) Due to natural calamity. d
c) In case of mine due to fire, flood, excess of inflammable gas or
explosion.
d) In all the above.
service.
c) 15 days average pay for every completed year of continuous
service.
d) 10 days average pay for every completed year of continuous
service.
Organisations employing 100 or more workmen will be required
to give a notice for retrenching an employee which should be:
a) 3 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment.
126 b) 2 months notice in writing indicating the reasons of retrenchment. a
c) One months notice in writing indicating the reasons of
retrenchment.
d) None of the above.
The appropriate government either on its own or on the
application made by the employer or any workman may review
its order granting or refusing permission for retrenchment. If the
appropriate government refers this matter to a tribunal for
adjudication, the tribunal in such a situation will submit its
127 c
award within a period of:
a) 90 days.
b) 60 days.
c) 30 days.
d) No time of limit.
128 According to the industrial disputes act, 1947, the employer wil
normally retrench :
a) The senior most worker of that category.
d
b) An inefficient worker of that category.
c) Any worker of that category.
d) The last person to be employed in that category.
a) 5 persons.
b) 10 persons.
c) 15 persons.
d) 20 persons.
138 The maximum number of persons to be declared as “Protected
workmen” in any organisation should not be more than:
a) 50.
b
b) 100.
c) 150.
d) 200.
Closure
139 The provisions regarding closure have been given under:
a) Trade union Act, 1926.
b) Industrial disputes act, 1947. b
c) Industrial Employment (Standing Order) Act, 1948.
d) None of the above.
140 Any employer employing 100 or more workers and who intends
to close down his undertaking will have to give a notice to the
appropriate government stating the reasons of closure.
a) Atleast 30 days before the date of closure. c
b) Atleast 60 days before the date of closure.
c) Atleast 90 days before the date of closure
d) Atleast 120 days before the date of closure.
141 No notice of closure will be required to be served on the
appropriate government if the number of workers employed is:
a) Less than 200. c
b) Less than 100.
c) Less than 50.
year of service.
d) All the above.
146 Where an undertaking engaged in mining operation is closed
down by reason merely of exhaustion of the minerals in that area,
no workman shall be entitled to any notice or compensation if:
a) The employer provides the workmen alterative employment with
effect from date of closure. d
b) On the same terms & conditions of service as were applicable.
c) The service of workman has not interrupted by the alternative
employment.
d) All the above.
147 Closure as defined under the industrial disputes act, 1947 means:
a) Permanent closing of the entire organisation.
b) Permanent closing of a major portion of the organisation. d
c) Permanent closing of even a part of the organisation.
d) All the above.
148 How many days before, an employer intending to close down his
undertaking in which 62 workmen are employed, has to serve a
notice to the appropriate government:
a) 60 days. a
b) 70 days.
c) 90 days.
d) 240 days.
149 Closure means:
a) Closing down the place of work for a short period.
b) Closing down the place of employment permanently. b
c) Suspension of work due to shortage of raw materials.
d) Refusal to give employment due to industrial disputes.
a) Automatically terminated.
b) Automatically extended.
c) One of the parties has to give a notice in writing to the other
expressing its intention to terminate the settlement.
d) None of the above.
Industrial employment (standing orders) act, 1946
165 The main objective of the industrial employment (standing
orders) act,1946 is to promote rules to govern the:
a) wages in the undertaking
d
b) conduct of the employer
c) conduct of the trade unions
d) define conditions of employment
166 The industrial employment act, 1946 applies to every industrial
establishment wherein the number of employed workmen is
atleast: b
a) 50 b) 100
c) 150 d) 250
167 The employers of all the industrial establishments where the
industrial employment, act 1946 become applicable will be
required to submit draft standing orders to the certifying officer
within :
b
a) three months
b) six months
c) one year
d) three years
168 The employer will submit to the certifying officer
a) three copies of the draft standing orders b
b) five copies of the draft standing orders
173 The text of the standing orders as finally certified under the
industrial employment act, 1946 shall be prominently posted by
the employer at or near the entrance in :
a) Hindi and regional languages
c
b) French and German languages
c) English and the language understood by the majority of his
workmen
d) Urdu and Punjabi language
174 The standing orders finally certified under the industrial
employment act, 1946 shall not be liable to modification until the
expiry of: b
a) three months b) six months
c) nine months d) one year
175 The subsistence allowance paid to workmen during the period of
suspension, pending investigation shall be at the rate of :
a) 50% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension.
a
b) 25% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension
c) 75% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension
d) 100% of wages for the first 90 days of suspension
176 Any employer workman, trade union who is aggrieved by the
order of the certifying officer may appeal to the appellate
authority
a) within thirty days from the date on which the copies are sent. a
b) within forty five days from the date on which the copies are sent
c) within fifteen days from the date on which the copies are sent
d) within six month from the date on which the copies are sent
177 Industrial employment standing orders act is applicable in every
c
industrial establishment where ____ workmen are employed.
a. 200
b. 150
c. 100
d. 50
178 An authority who is appointed by the appropriate government by
notification in the official Gazette to exercise in such area as may
be specified?
a. Appellate Authority a
b. Certifying officer
c. Acting officer
d. None of the above
179 What is the time frame in which the employer shall submit 5
copies of the draft standing orders proposed by him for adoption
in his industrial establishment?
a.1 month from the date on which standing orders act becomes
applicable
b. 12 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes d
applicable
c. 18 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes
applicable
d. 6 months from the date on which standing orders act becomes
applicable
180 Section 10B in the act deals with ______
a. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to
all industrial establishments
a
b. Additional matters to be provided in the standing orders relating to
all industrial establishments in coal mines
c. Prescribed particulars of workmen
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Promote
d) D. Develop
190 Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition Act), prohibits use of
contract labour for core function. The purpose was to ensure interest
of
a) Factories c
b) Contract employees
c) Permeant employee
d) D. Trade union
191 What are the facilities are needed for employees by an organization as
per the The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?
a) Drinking water
d
b) Washing facilities
c) Latrines & urinals
d) D. All of above
192 Which type of organization exempted under Contract Labour
(Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?
a) Work only if an intermittent nature
d
b) Work only if an casual nature
c) None of these
d) Both of these
193 What is minimum number for which canteen need to be present by
The Contract Labour (Regulation and Abolition) Act 1970?
a) 50 c
b) 25
c) 100
d) 150
a) A right of ‘Check-off’
b) To use notice board on the premises of the undertaking
c) To appear on behalf of the union on domestic inquiry
d) inspecting the undertaking
228 The following persons are considered as insider of a registered
trade union.
a) Honorary member from the other organization.
d
b) Honorary member from other profession.
c) Politician who guides the registered trade union.
d) Retired and retrenched members of the trade union.
229 Trade Union should be registered as per the law must have
a) A.20% of the workers
b) B.150 workmen d
c) Minimum 17 persons
d) None of the above
230 Identify the correct definition of industrial relations:
a) A Relations between or among human beings
b) B Relations between employer and employees as individuals
d
c) C Relations between parties in an employment context
d) D Collective relationship between management and trade
unions
231 What duAration of existence is needed as per trade union act
1926, before making application of registration.
a) 1 year
a
b) 2 year
c) 3 year
d) 5 year
Workers’ participation in Management & Collective
bargaining
232 Which of the following statements about workers’ participation
in Management in India is not true?
e) It is a part of the 20 point Economic programme.
f) It is provided in the Directive Principles of State Policy. d
nd
g) It is made a Constitutional provision under the 42 Amendment
Act.
h) It is a justice able right of the workers.
233 Which of the following cannot be said to be an objective of
Workers’ Participation in Management?
e) To associate in decision making process of the organization.
f) To satisfy the urge of self-expression of workers. d
g) To promote a conducive environment in the organisation.
h) To promote higher income and better conditions of employment
for workers.
234 Which of the following is an outcome of collective bargaining?
e) Award of Labour Court
f) Award of Tribunal d
g) Arbitration Award
h) Consent Award
235 Identify the functions of Joint Management Council:
e) Information sharing
f) Consultative d
g) Administrative
h) All the above
236 By which amendment the provisions of Workers’ Participation in
Management was incorporated in the Indian Constitution? c
e) 41
f) 42
g) 43
h) 44
237 Find out the characteristics of collective bargaining which is not
applicable;
e) It is a collective process.
f) It is a flexible process. c
g) It is not a bipartite process.
h) It is interdisciplinary system.
241 Who has first made use of the term Collective Bargaining?
a) G.D.H., Cole.
b) Samuel Gompers. c
c) Sidney Webb.
d) Robert Owen.
242 Which of the following is helpful in the process of collective
bargaining
a) Conciliation and Mediation.
a
b) Voluntary Arbitration.
c) Adjudication.
d) None of the above.
243 If representatives of an employer and trade union meet together
and discuss the terms and conditions of employment with a view
to reaching and agreement, the process is called :
a) Collective Bargaining. a
b) Join Consultation.
c) Worker’s Publication and Management
d) Arbitration.
244 An agreement arrived at by the parties and approved by a
Labour Court or Tribunal is called:
a) Award.
c
b) Settlement.
c) Consent Award
d) None of the above.
245 Which of the following weakens collective bargaining?
a. Inter-union rivalries
d
b. Absence of a collective bargaining legislation
c. Hostility among the parties
j) Award of Tribunal
k) Arbitration Award
l) Consent Award