Xe 2022

GATE 2022 Engineering Sciences XE
GATE 2022 General Aptitude

Q.1 – Q.5 Carry ONE mark each.
Q.1 The movie was funny and I _________.
(A) could help laughing
(B) couldn’t help laughed
(C) couldn’t help laughing
(D) could helped laughed
Q.2
𝑥∶𝑦∶𝑧 : : .
What is the value of ?
(A) 0.75
(B) 1.25
(C) 2.25
(D) 3.25

Page 1 of 114

Q.3
Both the numerator and the denominator of are increased by a positive
integer, 𝑥, and those of are decreased by the same integer. This operation
results in the same value for both the fractions.
What is the value of 𝑥?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4

Page 2 of 114

Q.4 A survey of 450 students about their subjects of interest resulted in the
following outcome.
 150 students are interested in Mathematics.

 200 students are interested in Physics.
 175 students are interested in Chemistry.
 50 students are interested in Mathematics and Physics.
 60 students are interested in Physics and Chemistry.
 40 students are interested in Mathematics and Chemistry.
 30 students are interested in Mathematics, Physics and Chemistry.
 Remaining students are interested in Humanities.
Based on the above information, the number of students interested in
Humanities is
(A) 10
(B) 30
(C) 40
(D) 45

Page 3 of 114

Q.5
For the picture shown above, which one of the following is the correct picture
representing reflection with respect to the mirror shown as the dotted line?
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)

Page 4 of 114


Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.
Q.6 In the last few years, several new shopping malls were opened in the city. The
total number of visitors in the malls is impressive. However, the total revenue
generated through sales in the shops in these malls is generally low.
Which one of the following is the CORRECT logical inference based on the
information in the above passage?
(A) Fewer people are visiting the malls but spending more
(B) More people are visiting the malls but not spending enough
(C) More people are visiting the malls and spending more
(D) Fewer people are visiting the malls and not spending enough
Page 5 of 114

Q.7 In a partnership business the monthly investment by three friends for the first
six months is in the ratio 3: 4: 5. After six months, they had to increase their
monthly investments by 10%, 15% and 20%, respectively, of their initial
monthly investment. The new investment ratio was kept constant for the next
six months.
What is the ratio of their shares in the total profit (in the same order) at the end
of the year such that the share is proportional to their individual total investment
over the year?
(A) 22 : 23 : 24
(B) 22 : 33 : 50
(C) 33 : 46 : 60
(D) 63 : 86 : 110
Page 6 of 114

Q.8 Consider the following equations of straight lines:
Line L1: 2𝑥 3𝑦 5
Which one among the following is the correct statement?
(A) L1 is parallel to L2 and L1 is perpendicular to L3
(B) L2 is parallel to L4 and L2 is perpendicular to L1
(C) L3 is perpendicular to L4 and L3 is parallel to L2
(D) L4 is perpendicular to L2 and L4 is parallel to L3
Page 7 of 114

Q.9 Given below are two statements and four conclusions drawn based on the
statements.
Statement 1: Some soaps are clean.
Statement 2: All clean objects are wet.
Conclusion I: Some clean objects are soaps.
Conclusion II: No clean object is a soap.
Conclusion III: Some wet objects are soaps.
Conclusion IV: All wet objects are soaps.
Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?
(A) Only conclusion I is correct
(B) Either conclusion I or conclusion II is correct
(C) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct
(D) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct
Page 8 of 114

Q.10 An ant walks in a straight line on a plane leaving behind a trace of its
movement. The initial position of the ant is at point P facing east.
The ant first turns 72o anticlockwise at P, and then does the following two
steps in sequence exactly FIVE times before halting.
1. moves forward for 10 cm.
2. turns 144o clockwise.
The pattern made by the trace left behind by the ant is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 9 of 114

XE-A: Q.11 – Q.17 Carry ONE mark Each
Q.11 The value of

1
lim 𝑡 𝑡 5 𝑑𝑡
→ 𝑥
is
(A) 0
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 6
Page 10 of 114

Q.12 Let  𝑧 𝑥 𝑖𝑦 ∶ 𝑥 and 𝑦 are real numbers, 𝑖 √ 1 be the set of

complex numbers. Let the function 𝑓 𝑧 𝑢 𝑥, 𝑦 𝑖 𝑣 𝑥, 𝑦 for 𝑧 𝑥 𝑖𝑦 Î 
be analytic in , where
𝑥 𝑦 3
𝑢 𝑥, 𝑦 𝑥𝑦 𝑦𝑥 and 𝑣 𝑥, 𝑦 𝑥 𝑦 .
4 4 2
If 𝑓 𝑧 denotes the derivative of 𝑓 𝑧 , then
(A) |𝑓 1 𝑖 | 1
(B) |𝑓 1 𝑖 | 7
(C) |𝑓 1 𝑖 | 8
(D) |𝑓 1 𝑖 | 10
Page 11 of 114

Q.13 If the partial differential equation
𝜕 𝑢 𝜕 𝑢 𝜕 𝑢 𝜕𝑢
𝑥 2 2 𝑥 𝑦 2 𝑦 1 3𝑦 0
𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑥 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑦 𝜕𝑦
is parabolic on the circle 𝑥 𝑎 𝑦 𝑏 𝑟 , then the values of 𝑎, 𝑏 and 𝑟

are given by
(A) 𝑎 1, 𝑏 2, 𝑟 1
(B) 𝑎 1, 𝑏 2, 𝑟 1
(C) 𝑎 1, 𝑏 2, 𝑟 1
(D) 𝑎 1, 𝑏 2, 𝑟 1
Q.14 Let G be the positively oriented circle 𝑥 𝑦 9 in the 𝑥𝑦-plane. If
3𝑦 𝑒 𝑑𝑥 7𝑥 √𝑒 2 𝑑𝑦 𝛼 𝜋,
G
where 𝛼 is a real constant, then 𝛼 is equal to ________.
Page 12 of 114

Q.15 Let 𝑦 𝑥 and 𝑦 𝑥 be two linearly independent solutions of
𝑑 𝑦 𝑑𝑦
𝑥 2𝑥 2𝑦 0, 𝑥 0.
𝑑𝑥 𝑑𝑥
Let 𝑊 𝑦 , 𝑦 𝑥 denote the Wronskian of 𝑦 𝑥 and 𝑦 𝑥 at 𝑥.
If 𝑊 𝑦 , 𝑦 1 1 then 𝑊 𝑦 , 𝑦 2 is equal to _______.
Q.16 2 0 1 1
Let 𝐴 1 2 5 5 . Then the sum of the geometric multiplicities of the
0 0 3 0
0 0 1 3
distinct eigenvalues of 𝐴 is equal to ________.
Q.17 In a cosmopolitan city, the population comprises of 30% female and 70% male.
Suppose that 5% of female and 30% of male in the population are foreigners.
A person is selected at random from this population. Given that the selected person
is a foreigner, the probability that the person is a female is ________ (round off to
three decimal places).
Page 13 of 114

Q.18 – Q.21 Carry TWO marks Each
Q.18 Let 𝑓: 0, ∞ → ℝ be the continuous function such that 𝑓 𝑥 2 for all

𝑥 0, where 𝑔 𝑥 𝑓 𝑡 𝑑𝑡 for all 𝑥 0. Then 𝑓 2 is equal to
(A) 2 log 2
(B) 2 log 2
(C) 2 log 4
(D) 2 log 4
Page 14 of 114

Q.19 Let 𝐴 and 𝐵 be 𝑛 𝑛 matrices with real entries.
Consider the following statements:
P: If 𝐴 is symmetric then 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑘 𝐴 Number of nonzero eigenvalues (counting

multiplicity) of 𝐴.
Q: If 𝐴𝐵 𝟎 then 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑘 𝐴 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑘 𝐵 𝑛.
Then
(A) both P and Q are TRUE
(B) P is TRUE and Q is FALSE
(C) P is FALSE and Q is TRUE
(D) both P and Q are FALSE
Q.20 Let 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ be given by 𝑓 𝑥, 𝑦 4𝑥𝑦 2𝑥 𝑦 1. The number of

critical points where 𝑓 has local maximum is equal to ________.
Page 15 of 114

Q.21 If the quadrature rule
𝑓 𝑥 𝑑𝑥 𝑓 𝛼 𝛾𝑓 𝛽 ,
where 𝛼, 𝛽 and 𝛾 are real constants, is exact for all polynomials of degree 3,
then 𝛾 3 𝛼 𝛽 𝛼 𝛽 is equal to _______.
Page 16 of 114

Fluid Mechanics: XE-B (Q.22 – Q.30 Carry ONE mark Each)
Q.22 A heavy horizontal cylinder of diameter D supports a mass of liquid having
density 𝜌 as shown in the figure. Find out the vertical component of force exerted
by the liquid per unit length of the cylinder if g is the acceleration due to gravity.
(A) 𝜋𝐷
𝜌𝑔
4
(B) 𝜋𝐷
𝜌𝑔
8
(C) 𝜋𝐷
𝜌𝑔
2
(D) 𝜋𝐷
𝜌𝑔
3

Page 17 of 114

Q.23 The figure shows the developing zone and the fully developed region in a pipe
flow where the steady flow takes place from left to right. The wall shear stress in
the sections A, B, C, and D are given by 𝜏 , 𝜏 , 𝜏 , and 𝜏 , respectively. Select the
correct statement.
(A) 𝜏 𝜏
(B) 𝜏 𝜏
(C) 𝜏 𝜏
(D) 𝜏 𝜏
Page 18 of 114

Q.24 The left hand column lists some non-dimensional numbers and the right hand
column lists some physical phenomena. Indicate the correct combination
1. Reynolds number i. Wave drag
2. Froude number ii. Compressible flow
3. Mach number iii. Viscous drag
4. Weber number iv. Spray formation
(A) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv
(B) 1-i, 2-ii, 3-iv, 4-iii
(C) 1-iv, 2-iii, 3-iv, 4-iii
(D) 2-iv, 1-iii, 3-ii, 4-i
Page 19 of 114

Q.25 As temperature increases
(A) the dynamic viscosity of a gas increases.
(B) the dynamic viscosity of a liquid decreases.
(C) the dynamic viscosity of a liquid does not change.
(D) the dynamic viscosity of a gas decreases.
Q.26 Which of the following statement(s) regarding a venturimeter is/are correct?
(A) In the direction of flow, it consists of a converging section, a throat, and a

diverging section.
(B) In the direction of flow, it consists of a diverging section, a throat, and a

converging section.
(C) It is used for flow measurement at a very low Reynolds number.
(D) Pressure tappings are provided just upstream of the venturimeter and at the throat.
Page 20 of 114

Q.27 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true for streamlines in a steady
incompressible flow?
(A) Two streamlines cannot intersect each other.
(B) Flow rate increases between two diverging streamlines.
(C) Flow rate decreases between two diverging streamlines.
(D) Stream function has a constant value along a streamline.
Q.28 A flow has a velocity potential given by 𝜙 𝐴𝑥 where ‘A’ is a non-zero
constant. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about the flow?
(A) The flow is incompressible.
(B) The flow is irrotational.
(C) The flow has local acceleration.
(D) The flow has convective acceleration.
Page 21 of 114

Q.29 A boundary layer develops due to a two-dimensional steady flow over a horizontal
flat plate. Consider a vertical line away from the leading edge which extends from
the wall to the edge of the boundary layer. Which of the following
quantity/quantities is/are not constant along the vertical line? 𝑢 and 𝑣 represent
the components of velocity in the direction along the plate and normal to it,
respectively and x is taken along the length of the plate while p is the pressure.
Neglect body forces.
(A) 𝑢
(B) 𝜕𝑢
𝜕𝑥
(C) 𝑣
(D) 𝑝
Page 22 of 114

Q.30 A 10 kg mass placed on an infinitely long horizontal massless flat platform is to
be supported by a steady vertical water jet as shown in the figure. The diameter of
the jet is 5 cm. What minimum average velocity is required to hold the mass in
place?
Assume 𝜌 1000 kg/m , 𝑔 10 and 𝜋 3.14 . Neglect friction.
(Round off to two decimal places)
Page 23 of 114

Consider an inviscid flow through a smooth pipe which has a pitot-static tube
Q.31
arrangement as shown. Find the centre-line velocity in the pipe.
Consider that the density of the fluid is 1000 kg/m3, acceleration due to gravity is
10 m/s2, and the specific gravity of the manometric fluid is 11.
(A) 2 m/s
(B) 3 m/s
(C) 5 m/s
(D) 7 m/s

Page 24 of 114

The speed of propagation, c, of a capillary wave depends on the density of the
Q.32
fluid, , the wavelength of the wave, λ, and the surface tension, σ. If the density
and wavelength remain constant, halving the surface tension would lead to a new
velocity, c', given by
(A) c' = 2c
(B) c' = √2c
(C) 𝑐
√
(D) c' = c
Page 25 of 114

A two-dimensional flow field is described by a combination of a source of

Q.33
strength m at the origin and a uniform flow, U, in the positive x-direction such that
the velocity potential is given by
m
  Ux  ln x 2  y 2
2
The stagnation streamline is shown in the figure. Find the distance aa .
(A) m
U
(B) 2m
U
(C) 8m
U
(D) m
2U
Page 26 of 114

A typical boundary layer over a flat plate has a linear velocity profile with zero
Q.34
velocity at the wall and freestream velocity, U∞, at the outer edge of the boundary
layer. What is the ratio of the momentum thickness to the thickness of the
boundary layer?
(A) 1
2
(B) 1
4
1
(C) 6
(D) 1
3
Page 27 of 114

Identify the configuration(s) in which steady two-dimensional internal flow may

Q.35
show boundary layer separation if the flow direction is left to right.
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 28 of 114

Consider steady fully developed flow of a liquid through two large horizontal flat
Q.36
parallel plates separated by a distance of 2 mm. One of the plate is fixed and the
other plate moves at a speed of 0.5 m/s. What is the magnitude of the pressure
gradient (in Pa/m) in the direction of the flow required to ensure that the net flow
through the plates is zero?
Dynamic viscosity of the liquid is 5x10-4 Ns/m2
(Round off to the nearest integer)
Consider two-dimensional turbulent flow of air over a horizontal flat plate of

Q.37
length 1 m. Skin friction coefficient at a length x from the leading edge of the
plate is obtained as:
0.06
cf 
Re x 0.2
where, Rex is the local Reynolds number.
Find out the drag force per unit width (in N/m2) on the plate if the free stream air
velocity is 10 m/s.
Density and dynamic viscosity of air are given as 1.2 kg/m3 and 1.83x10-5 N-s/m2,
respectively.
(Round off to three decimal places)
Page 29 of 114

For an inviscid fluid with density 1 kg/m3, the Cartesian velocity field is given as:
Q.38
𝐮 2𝑥 𝑦 𝑡𝐢 2𝑥 𝑦 𝑡𝐣 m/s

Neglecting the body forces, find the magnitude of pressure gradient in (Pa/m) at
(x, y) = (1 m, 1 m) at t = 1 s.
Consider a lawn sprinkler with horizontal arms of radius, a = 10 cm which has

Q.39
water introduced vertically through the centre, as shown in the figure. The exit
area of the jet is 25 cm2 and the jet velocity is 1 m/s. The water is ejected
orthogonal to the sprinkler arm and the jet makes an angle of 60 with the
horizontal plane. Find the torque (in N-m) required to hold the sprinkler
stationary.
Consider water density 1000 kg/m3. Neglect the effects of friction and gravity.
Page 30 of 114

A wooden cylinder (specific gravity = 0.6) of length L and diameter D floats in
Q.40
water (density 1000 kg/m3). Find out the minimum value of D/L for which the
cylinder floats with its axis vertical.
(Round off to three decimal places)
Consider a cart of mass 10 kg placed on an inclined plane (angle of inclination 60

Q.41
with horizontal) as shown in the figure. A turning vane of negligible weight is
mounted on the cart. A horizontal steady water jet is issued from a stationary
nozzle of area 0.1 m2 and strikes the turning vane as shown in the figure. The vane
turns the jet downward parallel to the inclined plane. Find out the minimum jet
velocity (in m/s) which will not allow the cart to come down. Neglect friction,
consider density of water = 1000 kg/m3 and acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2.
Page 31 of 114

A siphon is used to drain out water (density 1000 kg/m3) from a tank as shown in
Q.42
the figure. What can be the maximum height z (in meter) of the point C?
Consider acceleration due to gravity = 10 m/s2, pressure at point A = 101 kPa,
vapour pressure of water = 29.5 kPa and neglect friction.
The horizontal belt of negligible weight shown in the figure moves with a steady
Q.43
velocity (V) of 2.5 m/s and skims over the top surface of an oil-film of depth h = 3
cm. The length (L) and width (b) of the belt are, respectively, 2 m and 60 cm. Find
the viscosity of the oil (in Pa-s), given that the minimum power required to move
the belt is 100 W. Neglect the end effects.
Page 32 of 114

(Materials Science XE-C) Q.44 – Q.52 Carry ONE mark Each
MCQ
Q.44 Number of atoms per unit area of the (110) plane of a body centered cubic crystal,
with lattice parameter ‘𝑎’, is
(A)
(B) √
(C)
√
(D)
√
Page 33 of 114

Q.45 Match the following materials with their corresponding bonding types.
Material Bonding
P: Cu0.5Al0.5 1: Ionic
Q: ZnS 2: Covalent
R: Na2O 3: Metallic
S: Li4SiO4 4: Mixed
(A) P - 4; Q - 2; R - 3; S - 1
(B) P - 3; Q - 4; R - 2; S - 1
(C) P - 3; Q - 2; R - 1; S - 4
(D) P - 3; Q - 1; R - 4; S - 2
Page 34 of 114

Q.46 In an ideal rubber, the primary factor responsible for elasticity
up to small strains is
(A) Change in both enthalpy and entropy
(B) Change in enthalpy, but no change in the entropy
(C) No change in enthalpy, but change in the entropy
(D) Neither a change in enthalpy, nor a change in the entropy
Page 35 of 114

Q.47 Which one of the following statements is true for an intrinsic semiconductor?
(A) Electrical conductivity increases with increasing temperature and pressure
(B) Electrical conductivity increases with increasing temperature and
decreasing pressure
(C) Electrical conductivity increases with decreasing temperature and
increasing pressure
(D) Electrical conductivity increases with decreasing temperature and pressure
Page 36 of 114

Q.48 A differential scanning calorimetry (DSC) experiment tracks the heat flow into or
out of a system as a function of temperature. If the experiments given in the
options below are performed at 1 atmospheric pressure, then in which case will
the DSC thermogram exhibit a spike, either upward or downward?
(A) Heating 10 mg of pure Cu from 323 K to 673 K
(B) Cooling pure water from 323 K to 278 K
(C) Heating pure ice from 263 K to 284 K
(D) Cooling a Pb-Sn alloy at the eutectic composition from 323 K to 273 K
Page 37 of 114

Q.49 Which one of the following solvent environments will likely result in swelling of
solid polystyrene?
(A) 0.1 M NaOH in H2O
(B) HCl (aq.) of pH = 6
(C) Distilled water
(D) Benzene
Page 38 of 114

MSQ
Q.50 Vickers microhardness (HV) of a ductile material A is higher than another ductile
material B. Which of the following is/are true?
(A) Young’s modulus of A is greater than B
(B) Yield strength of A is greater than B
(C) Scratch resistance of A is greater than B
(D) Ductility of A is greater than B
Page 39 of 114

NAT
Q.51 The enthalpy required to create an oxygen vacancy in CeO2 is 4 eV. The number
of oxygen vacancies present per mole of CeO2 at 1000 K is _________.
(Round off to the nearest integer)
Given:
𝑁 : Avogadro’s number = 6.02 1023 mole-1
𝑘 : Boltzmann’s constant = 8.62 10-5 eV/K
Page 40 of 114

Q.52 An electrochemical reaction is known to occur at +4.50 V against a Li+/Li reference
electrode. The potential of the same reaction against a Zn2+/Zn reference electrode
is __________ V. (Round off to two decimal places).
Given:
E0 (Li+/Li) = 3.04 V versus Standard Hydrogen Electrode
E0 (Zn2+/Zn) = 0.77 V versus Standard Hydrogen Electrode
Page 41 of 114

Q.53 For a binary system at constant pressure, there are two types of invariant reactions:
(i) α↔β+γ
(ii) α+β↔γ
Analogously, how many different types of invariant reactions may exist under
variable temperature and pressure, for a binary system?
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
Page 42 of 114

Q.54 For a glass marginally below its glass transition temperature, which one of the
following statements is true?
(A) Glass has higher enthalpy than both the corresponding crystalline and liquid
phases
(B) Glass has lower enthalpy than both the corresponding crystalline and liquid phases
(C) Glass has higher entropy than the corresponding crystalline phase and lower
entropy than the corresponding liquid phase
(D) Glass has lower entropy than the corresponding crystalline phase and higher
entropy than the corresponding liquid phase
Page 43 of 114

Q.55 Which one of the following samples of high-purity aluminium (Al) single crystal
will plastically yield at the lowest applied load under ambient conditions? Loading
axis is along the direction shown in the schematic.
(A) (i)
(B) (ii)
(C) (iii)
(D) (iv)
Page 44 of 114

Q.56 Refer to the schematic shown. Two dog-bone samples, labelled 1 and 2, of a Cu-
alloy are tested under tension at room temperature to points “E” and “P”,
respectively. Subsequently, they are unloaded completely and metallographically
polished. Brinell hardness testing was performed in the gauge section of the
samples. Which one of the following can be inferred about the measured Brinell
hardness number (BHN)?
(A) BHN of 1 > BHN of 2
(B) BHN of 1 = BHN of 2
(C) BHN of 1 < BHN of 2
(D) A conclusion about BHN of samples 1 and 2 cannot be made, with the provided
information
Page 45 of 114

Q.57 During the ageing of a homogenized Al-Cu alloy (1 to 4 wt.% Cu) below the
GP zone solvus, hardness of the alloy:
(A) increases monotonically
(B) decreases monotonically
(C) first increases and then decreases
(D) first decreases and then increases
Page 46 of 114

Q.58 A student aims to deposit a thin metallic film on SiO2 substrate, with an adhesion
layer between the metal film and substrate, in a contiguous planar fashion. Island
type of growth must be avoided. The student performs an extensive optimization
exercise. Which one of the following steps is in the right direction?
(A) Choose a metallic adhesion layer with very low interfacial energy with the
deposited thin film
(B) Choose a metallic adhesion layer with very low interfacial energy with SiO2,
irrespective of its interaction with metal film to be deposited
(C) Increase the substrate temperature and decrease the deposition rate
(D) Use intermittent stages of deposition followed by annealing
Page 47 of 114

MSQ
Q.59 For a diffusional transformation (i.e., growth of β precipitates in an α matrix),
which of the following is/are true with increasing degree of undercooling?
(A) Rate of transformation first increases and then decreases
(B) Rate of transformation first decreases and then increases
(C) Thermodynamic driving force increases monotonically
(D) Mobility of atoms in α matrix remains unchanged
Page 48 of 114

NAT
Q.60 A two-phase (α + β) mixture of an A-B binary system has the following properties:
(i) Phase α has equal weight percentages of A and B.
(ii) Phase β has twice the mole fraction of A compared to B.
(iii) The two-phase mixture has equal amounts of α and β.
(iv) Atomic mass of A is twice that of B.
The mole fraction of A in the resultant two-phase mixture is _________.
(Round off to one decimal)
Page 49 of 114

Q.61 It is known that component A diffuses into a solid to a depth of 10 μm in 1 hour at
300 K. Treat diffusion in one dimension. The time taken for A to diffuse to the same
depth at 600 K is __________ seconds. (Round off to 1 decimal).
Diffusivity of A in the solid is given by
𝐸
𝐷 𝐷 exp
𝑘 𝑇
𝐷 : Diffusivity coefficient
𝐸 : Activation energy = 0.3 eV
𝑇: Absolute temperature
Page 50 of 114

Q.62 A spherical β particle nucleates from the α matrix on a non-deformable substrate
δ, forming a contact angle of θ as shown in the schematic.
∆ ∗
The value of is ___________. (Round off to three decimal places)
∆ ∗
∆𝐺 ∗ = Gibbs free energy change at the critical radius for homogeneous
nucleation
∆𝐺 ∗ = Gibbs free energy change at the critical radius for heterogeneous
nucleation
α-β interfacial energy = 0.4 J/m2
α-δ interfacial energy = 0.3 J/m2
β-δ interfacial energy = 0.02 J/m2
Page 51 of 114

Q.63 The resistivity of a pure semiconductor at 298 K is 3000 Ωm. Assume that the
number of electrons excited (𝑛 ) across the band gap is given by the relation
𝐸
𝑛 𝑁 exp
𝑘 𝑇
𝑁 : Avogadro’s number = 6.02 1023 mole-1
𝑇: Absolute temperature
Mobility of electrons in the semiconductor = 0.14 m2/(V s)
Mobility of holes in the semiconductor = 0.06 m2/(V s)
Absolute charge of an electron = 1.60 10-19 C
The band gap (𝐸 ) of the semiconductor is __________ eV.
(Round off to two decimals)
Page 52 of 114

Q.64 A new glass material is developed to minimize the transmission of the light
through the window with glass panel of thickness 5 mm. The refractive index of
the glass material is 1.5 and the absorption coefficient can be changed from
0.3 cm-1 to 1 cm-1. In the given range of absorption coefficients, the ratio of the
maximum to the minimum fraction of the light coming out of the other side of the
glass panel is ________. (Round off to two decimal places)
Page 53 of 114

Q.65 The third peak in the X-ray diffraction pattern of a face-centered cubic crystal is at
2𝜃 value of 45°, where 2𝜃 is the angle between the incident and reflected rays.
The wavelength of the monochromatic X-ray beam is 1.54 Å. Considering
first-order reflection, the lattice parameter of the crystal is _________ Å.
Page 54 of 114

Solid Mechanics XE-D (Q.66 – Q.74 Carry ONE mark Each)
Q.66 A force 𝐹 is applied at an angle 𝜃 30 on an elastic column as shown in the

figure. 𝐸 and 𝐼 are respectively the Young’s modulus and area moment of inertia.
The smallest magnitude of 𝐹 needed to cause buckling is
(A)
√
(B) √
(C)
(D)
Page 55 of 114

Q.67 The shear stress due to a transverse shear force in a linear elastic isotropic beam of
rectangular cross-section
(A) varies linearly along the depth in the transverse direction of the beam
(B) is zero at the neutral axis
(C) is maximum at the neutral axis
(D) remains constant along the depth in the transverse direction of the beam
Page 56 of 114

Q.68 A massless semicircular rod held fixed at end A is in the xy-plane, as shown in the
figure. A force P along the negative z direction is acting at point B on the rod. The
unit vectors along x, y and z directions are denoted respectively as i, j and k. Due to
the applied force P, the cross-section of the rod at point D will be subjected to
(A) a twisting moment 𝑃𝑅 1 cos 𝜃 𝐢, a bending moment 𝑃𝑅 sin 𝜃 𝐣, and a shear

force 𝑃 𝐤
(B) a twisting moment 𝑃𝑅 1 sin 𝜃 𝐢, a bending moment 𝑃𝑅 cos 𝜃 𝐣, and a shear

force 𝑃 𝐤
(C) a twisting moment 𝑃𝑅 cos 𝜃 1 𝐢, a bending moment 𝑃𝑅 sin 𝜃 𝐣, and a shear

force 𝑃 𝐤
(D) a twisting moment 𝑃𝑅 sin 𝜃 𝐢, a bending moment 𝑃𝑅 1 cos 𝜃 𝐣, and a shear

force 𝑃 𝐤
Page 57 of 114

Q.69 In the truss shown in the figure, all the members are pin jointed to each other. The
members AB, BD, DE and DC have the same length. For the given loading, which
of the following is the correct statement?
(A) BD is a zero-force member, and AB and ED are in compression
(B) AB is in tension, ED is in compression, and BD is a zero-force member
(C) AB and DC are in tension, and BC is in compression
(D) ED is in tension, and DC and BC are in compression
Page 58 of 114

Q.70 End B of the 2 m long rigid rod AB is constrained to move horizontally in the slot
as shown in the figure and has a velocity of 1.0 i m/s. The angular velocity of the
rod at the instant shown is 2 rad/s. The unit vectors along x and y directions are
denoted respectively as i and j. The velocity of point A in m/s is then given by
(A) 1 2√3 𝐢 2𝐣
(B) 1 2√3 𝐢 2𝐣
(C) 2√3𝐢 2𝐣
(D) 2√3𝐢 2𝐣
Page 59 of 114

Q.71 The assembly of four masses connected by rigid mass-less rods is kept on a smooth
horizontal floor as shown in the figure. Under the applied force 2F, the magnitude
of angular acceleration of the assembly at the instant shown is
(A) 𝐹
𝑚𝑐
(B) 𝐹
2𝑚𝑐
(C) 2𝐹
3𝑚𝑐
(D) 𝐹
3𝑚𝑐
Page 60 of 114

Q.72 A particle is constrained to move at a constant speed on an inclined plane (ABCD)

along the curved path shown in the figure. Edges AD and BC are parallel to the y
axis. The inclined plane makes an angle 𝜃 with the 𝑥𝑦-plane. The velocity vector
of the particle makes an angle 𝜙 with the dotted line which is parallel to edge AB.
If the speed of the particle is 2 m/s, 𝜙 30° , and 𝜃 40° , then the 𝑧-component
of the velocity of the particle in m/s is __________
(A) 1.32
(B) 1.00
(C) 1.11
(D) 1.50
Page 61 of 114

Q.73 A uniform elastic rod of constant cross-section is fixed at its left end as shown in
the figure. An axial force 𝑃 is acting as shown. Assume that plane sections remain
plane during deformation. The ratio of axial displacements at point A 𝑥 4𝐿 to
that at point B 𝑥 𝐿 is ______ (rounded off to one decimal place)
Q.74 A thin-walled spherical pressure vessel has a mean radius of 500 mm and wall
thickness of 10 mm. The yield strength of the material is 500 MPa. The internal
pressure in MPa at which the spherical pressure vessel will yield according to the
Tresca criterion is ____________ (rounded off to one decimal place)
Page 62 of 114

Q.75 The beam in the figure is subjected to a moment M0 at mid span as shown. Which
of the following is the vertical reaction at B?
(A) 9M 0
8L
(B) 15 M 0
8L
(C) 3M 0
4L
(D) 9M 0
4L
Page 63 of 114

Q.76 A spring-mass system having a mass m and spring constant k, placed horizontally
on a foundation, is connected to a vertically hanging mass m with the help of an
inextensible string. Ignore the friction in the pulleys and also the inertia of pulleys,
string and spring. Gravity is acting vertically downward as shown. The natural
frequency of the system in rad/s is
(A)
4𝑘
3𝑚
(B)
𝑘
2𝑚
(C)
𝑘
3𝑚
(D)
4𝑘
5𝑚
Page 64 of 114

Q.77 One end of a uniform rigid rod OA of length L and mass m is attached to a
frictionless hinge at O. The other end of the rod is connected to the roof at B with a
mass-less inextensible thread AB. Initially the rod is horizontal and at rest. The
gravity is acting vertically downward as shown. Immediately after the thread AB is
cut, the reaction on the rod at O is
(A) in the positive y-direction
(B) in the negative y-direction
(C) in the negative y-direction
(D) 𝑚𝑔 in the positive y-direction
Page 65 of 114

Q.78 A circular shaft is rigidly connected to a wall at one end. The shaft has a solid
portion and a hollow portion as shown in the figure. The length of each portion is
𝐿 and the shear modulus of the material is 𝐺. The polar moment of inertia of the
hollow portion is 𝐽 and that of the solid portion is 50𝐽. A torque 𝑇 is applied at the
right most end as shown. The rotation of the section PQ is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
Page 66 of 114

Q.79 A rectangular plate of uniform thickness having initial length a and width b is
placed between two rigid immovable walls. The temperature of the plate is
increased by T. The plate is free to expand along the y and z directions. The
mid-surface of the plate remains in the xy-plane. The Poisson’s ratio is  and
the coefficient of thermal expansion is . Assuming that the plate is initially
free of stresses, the change in length of the plate after the increase in
temperature is given by
(A) a (1   ) T
(B) a (1   ) T
(C) aT
(D) 2aT
Page 67 of 114

Q.80 A mass m = 10 kg is attached to a spring as shown in the figure. The coefficient

of friction between the mass and the inclined plane is 0.25. Assume that the
acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2 and that static and kinematic friction
coefficients are the same. Equilibrium of the mass is impossible if the spring
force is
(A) 30 N
(B) 45 N
(C) 60 N
(D) 75 N
Page 68 of 114

Q.81 The frame shown in the figure is subjected to a uniformly distributed load of 1000
N/m over a distance of 0.6 m. Neglecting the weight of the frame, the maximum
shear force (in N) in the region between the supports A and B of the frame is
________.
Q.82 A slider moving in a frictionless slot is connected with a linear spring OA as shown
in the figure. The following is known: stiffness of the spring = 2 kN/m, mass of the
slider = 10 kg, and the unstretched length of the spring = 1 m. If the slider is released
from rest at A the magnitude of its velocity (in m/s) when it passes through point B
is ____________(rounded off to the nearest integer)
Page 69 of 114

Q.83 A sphere A of mass 𝑚 is thrown into the air at 50 m/s along a direction tan 3/4
up from the horizontal. At the topmost point of its trajectory, it has a central (non-
oblique) collision with another sphere B which is at rest on top of a vertical pole.
Sphere B has a mass of 3𝑚. Acceleration due to gravity is 10 m/s2. Neglect contact
friction and air-resistance. If the coefficient of restitution is 0.3, then the speed (in
m/s) of sphere A immediately after the collision is_________ (rounded off to one
decimal place)
Q.84 The truck shown in the figure is moving on a horizontal road at a speed of 20 m/s.
It is carrying a box of mass 1000 kg, which is simply placed on the truck platform.
The coefficient of friction between the truck platform and the box is 0.25. Take
acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s2. Assume uniform deceleration during braking,
and the coefficients of static and kinetic friction to be the same. The shortest
distance in meters in which the truck can be brought to rest without the box slipping
is _______(round off to the nearest integer)
Page 70 of 114

Q.85 The stepped rod of length 2 m, shown in the figure, is fixed at both ends (A and C).
The area of cross-section of portion AB is 200 mm2 and that of portion BC is 100
mm2. Force F is applied at section B such that the section is displaced by 0.1 mm
in the direction of the force. Young’s modulus of the rod is 200 GPa. The applied
force F in N is _______ (round off to the nearest integer)
Q.86 A cantilever beam has a span of 1 m and carries a uniformly distributed load of q =
1250 N/m over a portion as shown. A force F =1000 N acts at a distance L from the
fixed end. The distance L is such that the bending moment at the fixed end is zero.
The beam has a rectangular cross-section of depth 20 mm and width 24 mm. For
this loading, the magnitude of the maximum bending stress in the beam in MPa
is________________(round off to the nearest integer)
Q.87 The figure shows two identical mass-less beams AB and CD, each clamped at one
of their ends. The left end of beam CD rests on the right end of beam AB such that
the ends of the beams are just in contact. The beams are unstressed before the
application of load. Assume no friction at the contact. Now, if a uniformly
distributed load of 800 N/m is applied on beam CD, the bending moment at the end
B of beam AB in N.m is ___________ (rounded off to the nearest integer)
Page 71 of 114

Thermodynamics XE (E) Q.88 – Q.96 Carry ONE mark each
Q.88 The energy equation for a reversible non-flow process can be expressed as
 q  du  pdv , where q is the heat transfer per unit mass, u is the internal energy
per unit mass, p is the pressure, and v is the mass specific volume. This energy
equation is not in exact differential form. It can be made exact differential by
multiplying with the following integrating factor:
(T is the absolute temperature)
(A) 1
p
(B) 1
v
(C) 1
T
(D) 1
uT
Page 72 of 114

Q.89 An air standard Diesel cycle consists of four processes: 1-2 (isentropic
compression), 2-3 (constant pressure heat addition), 3-4 (isentropic expansion) and
4-1 (constant volume heat rejection). T4 is the temperature (in K) attained at the end
of isentropic expansion (3-4) before constant volume heat rejection. The constant
volume heat rejection process (4-1) is replaced by a constant pressure heat rejection
process (4a-1) such that T4a is the temperature (in K) reached at the end of
isentropic expansion (3-4a), and the state point 1 remains the same. Then
(A) T4 a  T4
(B) T4 a  T4
(C) T4 a  T4
(D) T4 a  2T4
Page 73 of 114

Q.90 Gas in a cylinder-piston device expands from state 1 ( p1 , V1 , T1 ) to state 2

( p2 , V2 , T2 ). The expansion process is polytropic, i.e., pV n  constant, n  1 .
Assuming the ideal gas behaviour, the expression for the work done, W by the
system is given by
(A) T 
W  p1V1 ln  2 
 T1 
(B) p2V2  p1V1

W
1 n
(C) V 
W  p1V1 ln  1 
 V2 
(D) p 
W  p2V2 ln  2 
 p1 
Page 74 of 114

Q.91 The temperature of the working fluid in a real heat engine cycle changes during heat
addition and heat rejection processes. The maximum and minimum temperatures of
the cycle are Tmax and Tmin , respectively. If C is the thermal efficiency of a Carnot
engine operating between these temperature limits, then the thermal efficiency, 
of the real heat engine satisfies the relation
(A)   C
(B)   C
(C)   C
(D)   1  C
Q.92 A 1.2 m3 rigid vessel contains 8 kg of saturated liquid-vapor mixture at 150 kPa.
The specific enthalpy of this mixture is _______ kJ/kg (round off to 2 decimal
places).
At 150 kPa: v f  0.001053 m3 /kg, vg  1.1594 m3 /kg

h f  467.13 kJ/kg, hg  2693.1 kJ/kg
Q.93 Air in a closed system undergoes a thermodynamic process from an initial

temperature of 300 K to the final temperature of 400 K. The specific heat of air at
constant volume, cv varies linearly with the temperature, T (in K) as
cv  (0.7  0.27 103 T ) kJ/(kg K).
Change in the specific internal energy of the air in the system is _______ kJ/kg
(round off to 2 decimal places).
Page 75 of 114

Q.94 A vertical cylinder-piston device contains a fixed mass of gas in equilibrium. The
cross-sectional area of the piston is 0.05 m2. For 150 kPa pressure of the gas in the
cylinder, the mass of the piston is _______ kg (round off to 2 decimal places).
Assume that the atmospheric pressure is 100 kPa and the acceleration due to gravity
is 9.81 m/s2.
Q.95 A steam power plant operates on Rankine cycle. At certain operating condition of
the plant, there is a reduction of 20% net work output (kJ/kg) as compared to 100%
capacity. This reduction will cause the specific steam consumption (kg/kJ) to
increase by _______% (in integer).
Q.96 A Carnot heat pump extracts heat from the environment at 250 K, and supplies
6 kW of heat to a room which is maintained at a constant temperature TH. The heat
pump requires a power input of 1 kW for its operation. Then, the temperature of the
room TH is _______ K (round off to nearest integer).
Page 76 of 114

Q.97 – Q.109 Carry TWO marks each
Q.97  s   p 
One of the Maxwell equations is expressed as      , where s is the
 v T  T v
entropy per unit mass, v is the mass specific volume, p is the pressure, and T is the
temperature. In this expression, s is a continuous function of T and v. The
derivatives of s are also continuous. Let cv be specific heat capacity at constant
 c 
volume for a gas. Then,  v  can be written as
 v T
(A) p  2 p 
 
T  T 2 v
(B) v  2 p 
 
T  v 2 T
(C)  2 p 
T 2
 T v
(D) 1  2 p 
 
T  v 2 T
Page 77 of 114

Q.98 The general relation among the properties x , y and z at any state point can be
 x   y   z 
expressed as        1 . If p , T and h are continuous functions and
 y  z  z  x  x  y
 h   h 
cp    ,  is the Joule-Thomson coefficient, then   is
 T  p  p T
(A) c p
(B) c pT
(C) cp

T
(D) c p
Page 78 of 114

Q.99 An air-conditioning system consists of an insulated rigid mixing chamber designed

to supply air at 24 ℃ to a building. The mixing chamber mixes two air streams:
(i) a cold air stream at 10 ℃ and mass flow rate m c (kg/s), and (ii) a stream of fresh
ambient air at 30 ℃ and mass flow rate m a (kg/s). Assume air to be an ideal gas
with constant specific heat ( c p  1.005 kJ/(kg K),   c p / cv  1.4 ). Neglect change
in kinetic and potential energies as compared to change in enthalpy. Under the
steady state condition, the ratio of the mass flow rates of the two streams ( m c / m a )
is
(A) 7
3
(B) 3
7
(C) 2
7
(D) 4
7
Page 79 of 114

Q.100 An ideal gas mixture consists of 80% N2 and 20% O2 on mass basis. If the total
pressure is 300 kPa, then the partial pressure of N2 (in kPa) is
(Molecular weights of N2 = 28 kg/kmol and O2 = 32 kg/kmol)
(A) 246.15
(B) 230.34
(C) 254.78
(D) 213.54
Q.101 On the basis of the ideal gas equation and van der Waals equation, the temperatures
of a gas at pressure 10 MPa and specific volume 0.005 m3/kg would be, respectively
(Assume gas constant R = 0.3 kJ/(kg K), a = 0.18 m6 kPa/kg2 and b = 0.0014 m3/kg)
(A) 166.67 K and 235.89 K
(B) 166.67 K and 206.40 K
(C) 166.67 K and 267.21 K
(D) 166.67 K and 240.90 K
Page 80 of 114

Q.102 An ideal Brayton cycle operates between maximum and minimum temperatures of
T3 and T1 , respectively. For constant values of T3 and T1 , the pressure ratio (rp) for
maximum work output is
(  is the specific heat ratio of air)
(A) 
 T3   1
 
 T1 
(B) 2
 T3   1
 
 T1 
(C) 
 T3  2 1
 
 T1 
(D) 2
 T3   1
 
 T1 
Q.103 An insulated rigid tank of volume 10 m3 contains air initially at 1 MPa and 600 K.
A valve connected to the tank is opened, and air is allowed to escape until the
temperature inside the tank drops to 400 K. The temperature of the discharged air
can be approximated as the average of the initial and final temperatures of the air in
the tank. Neglect kinetic and potential energies of the discharged air. Assume that
air behaves as an ideal gas with constant specific heat so that internal energy
u  cvT and enthalpy h  c pT . Then, the final pressure of the air in the tank is
_______ MPa (round off to 2 decimal places).
Assume c p  1.005 kJ/(kg K),   c p / cv  1.4
Page 81 of 114

Q.104 Steam enters a steam turbine at 5 MPa and 600 ℃, and exits as saturated vapor at
50 kPa. Under steady state condition, the turbine loses heat to the surroundings at
the rate of 50 kJ per kilogram of steam flowing through the turbine. The ambient
temperature is 300 K, and the heat transfer to the surroundings takes place at the
outer surface of the turbine at a temperature of 450 K. The irreversibility per unit
mass of steam flowing through the turbine is _______ kJ/kg (round off to 2 decimal
places).
Neglect the change in kinetic and potential energies of the steam, and use the
following property values:
Superheated steam at 5 MPa, 600 ℃

v  0.07870 m 3 /kg, u  3273.3 kJ/kg, h  3666.9 kJ/kg, s  7.2605 kJ/(kg K)
Saturated vapour at 50 kPa
vg  3.2403 m3 /kg, u g  2483.2 kJ/kg, hg  2645.2 kJ/kg, sg  7.5931 kJ/(kg K)
Q.105 A heat engine receives heat at 1000 K and rejects heat to the environment at 300 K.
The efficiency of the heat engine is half of the efficiency of a Carnot engine
operating between the above mentioned temperature limits. The work output from
the heat engine is completely used to drive a refrigerator that steadily removes heat
from a cold space at 260 K at a rate of 5.2 kW, and rejects the heat to the same
environment at 300 K. The COP (coefficient of performance) of the refrigerator is
half of the COP of the Carnot refrigerator operating between the same temperature
limits as that of the refrigerator. Then, rate of heat supplied to the heat engine is
_______ kW (round off to 2 decimal places).
Q.106 A room contains air at 25 ℃, 100 kPa and 80% relative humidity. If the saturation
pressure of water vapor at 25 ℃ is 3.1698 kPa, then the specific humidity of air is
_______ kg of water vapor / kg of dry air (round off to 4 decimal places).
Page 82 of 114

Q.107 An insulated rigid container is divided into two parts by a thin partition. One part
of the container contains 6 kg of saturated liquid-vapor mixture with a dryness
fraction of 0.7 at 0.3 MPa. The other part contains 12 kg of saturated liquid at 0.6
MPa of the same substance. When the partition is removed and the system attains
equilibrium, the final specific volume of the mixture is _______ m3 /kg (round off
to 2 decimal places).
Use the following property values:
At 0.3 MPa : v f  0.001073 m3 /kg, vg  0.60582 m3 /kg

At 0.6 MPa : v f  0.001101 m3 /kg, vg  0.31560 m3 /kg
Q.108 During a steady state air-conditioning process, air enters a heating section at 15 ℃
with 40% relative humidity and leaves at 30 ℃. Assuming the heating process takes
place at 100 kPa, the relative humidity of the air at exit is _______ % (round off to
nearest integer).
Saturation pressures of water vapor at 15 ℃ and 30 ℃ are 1.7057 kPa and 4.2469
kPa respectively.
Q.109 Steam enters a steam turbine at 10 MPa and 600 ℃ with a mass flow rate of 16 kg/s.
The steam exits the turbine as saturated vapor at 10 kPa. Under steady state
condition, the turbine generates 16.2 MW power. If the ambient temperature is
25 ℃, the rate of entropy generation in the turbine is _______ kW/K (round off to
2 decimal places).
Neglect the change in kinetic and potential energies of the steam, and use the
following property values:
Superheated steam at 10 MPa, 600 ℃

v  0.03837 m 3 /kg, u  3241.68 kJ/kg, h  3625.34 kJ/kg, s  6.9028 kJ/(kg K)
Saturated vapour at 10 kPa

vg  14.67355 m3 /kg, u g  2437.89 kJ/kg, hg  2584.63 kJ/kg, sg  8.1501 kJ/(kg K)
Page 83 of 114

Polymer Science and Engineering XE-F (Q.110 – Q.118 Carry ONE mark Each)
Q.110 Interfacial polymerization can be used to prepare
(A) Nylon 6
(B) Nylon 66
(C) Polyacrylonitrile
(D) Poly(butyl acrylate)
Q.111 In a rubber sample with a Mooney viscosity of 60 ML(1+4) 100 °C, the number 4
signifies
(A) Applied shear rate in s-1
(B) Number of samples tested
(C) Time in minutes after starting the motor when the measurement is taken
(D) Preheating time in minutes
Q.112 The initiator system which can be used for free radical polymerization at 5 °C is
(A) FeSO4 + t-butyl hydroperoxide
(B) Azobisisobutyronitrile
(C) Potassium persulfate
(D) Benzoyl peroxide
Page 84 of 114

Q.113 Weather resistance of high impact polystyrene can be improved by blending

polystyrene with
(A) Styrene butadiene rubber
(B) Natural rubber
(C) Ethylene propylene rubber
(D) Nitrile rubber
Q.114 Which of the following is a discontinuous polymer processing operation?
(A) Calendering
(B) Extrusion
(C) Film blowing
(D) Thermoforming
Q.115 The blend of polyethylene and polypropylene is
(A) Immiscible due to enthalpic constraints
(B) Immiscible due to entropic constraints
(C) Miscible as they are polyolefins
(D) Miscible due to comparable solubility parameters
Page 85 of 114

Q.116 Toughness in a polymer can be inferred from
(A) Izod impact strength
(B) Depth of indentation
(C) Area under the stress-strain curve
(D) Charpy impact strength
Q.117 Which of the following polymers are polyesters?
(A) Poly(acrylic acid)
(B) Poly(lactic acid)
(C) Polyhydroxybutyrate
(D) Poly(ε-caprolactone)
Q.118 The functionality of adipic acid for condensation reaction with glycerol is ________
(in integer).
Page 86 of 114

Q.119 From the dynamic mechanical analysis of a polymer sample with a phase angle of
30°, the relationship between storage modulus (E') and loss modulus (E'') can be
expressed as
(A) E' = √3 E''
(B) 2E' = √3 E''
(C) E'' = √3 E′
(D) 2E'' = √3 E′
Q.120 Match the properties in Column A with their respective unit in Column B
Column A Column B
P. Surface resistivity 1. Ohm-cm
Q. Volume resistivity 2. S cm-1
R. Coefficient of thermal expansion 3. Ohm
S. Electrical conductivity 4. K-1
(A) P-1; Q-3; R-4; S-2
(B) P-2; Q-3; R-1; S-4
(C) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2
(D) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4
Page 87 of 114

Q.121 Match the following polymer product with its most appropriate processing
technique
Polymer product Processing technique
P. Bottle 1. Extrusion
Q. Blister packaging 2. Pultrusion
R. Reinforced electric poles 3. Injection blow molding
S. Sewage pipes 4. Thermoforming
(A) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(B) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
(C) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1
(D) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

Page 88 of 114

Q.122 Match the following additives to their respective functions
Additive Function
P. p-phenylenediamine 1. Flame retardant
Q. Trixylyl phosphate 2. Impact modifier
R. Polybutadiene rubber 3. Nucleating agent
S. Talc 4. Antiozonant
(A) P-4; Q-2; R-1; S-3
(B) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4
(C) P-4; Q-1; R-3; S-2
(D) P-4; Q-1; R-2; S-3

Page 89 of 114

Q.123 Match the polymers with their characteristic infrared (IR) stretching frequency
Polymer IR stretch (cm-1)
P. Polyurethane 1. ~2234
Q. Polyethylene 2. ~1151
R. Polysulfone 3. ~1720
S. Acrylonitrile-butadiene-styrene copolymer 4. ~2914
(A) P-4; Q-3; R-2; S-1
(B) P-3; Q-4; R-2; S-1
(C) P-3; Q-4; R-1; S-2
(D) P-3; Q-2; R-4; S-1

Page 90 of 114

Q.124 Match the following polymers to the most appropriate product
Polymer Product
P. Expanded polystyrene 1. Motor bearings
Q. Polyether ether ketone 2. TV cabinet
R. Polycarbonate 3. Sound proof walls
S. Poly(butylene terephthalate) 4. Safety glass
(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(B) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
(C) P-3; Q-1; R-2; S-4
(D) P-3; Q-1; R-4; S-2

Page 91 of 114

Q.125 Match the polymers to the polymerization method used for their synthesis
Polymer Polymerization method
P. Linear low density polyethylene 1. Ring opening
Q. Nylon 6 2. Ziegler-Natta
R. Styrene-butadiene rubber 3. Condensation
S. Aromatic polyamide 4. Emulsion
(A) P-2; Q-1; R-4; S-3
(B) P-2; Q-1; R-3; S-4
(C) P-2; Q-3; R-4; S-1
(D) P-2; Q-4; R-1; S-3
Q.126 If 5 g of a monodisperse polystyrene sample of molecular weight 10,000 g mol-1 is

mixed with 15 g of another monodisperse polystyrene sample of molecular weight
20,000 g mol-1, then the polydispersity of the resulting mixture is ________
(rounded off to two decimal places).
Q.127 For a polymer sample with a viscosity of 6 × 1011 poise, if the apparent plateau
modulus of 3 × 106 dyne cm-2 drops to zero above a certain temperature, the
relaxation time of the polymer is _________ days (rounded off to one decimal
place).

Page 92 of 114

Q.128 The thermal conductivity values of glass fiber and epoxy resin are 1.05 W m-1 K-1
and 0.25 W m-1 K-1, respectively. The thermal conductivity of a glass fiber
reinforced epoxy composite with a fiber content of 60% by volume along the fiber
direction is ________ W m-1 K-1 (rounded off to two decimal places).
Q.129 The tensile modulus of a thermosetting polyester resin and glass fiber are 3 GPa and
80 GPa, respectively. If a tensile stress of 110 MPa is applied along the fiber
direction on a continuous uniaxially aligned glass fiber reinforced thermosetting
polyester composite with a fiber content of 60% by volume, the resulting strain will
be ___________×10-3 (rounded off to one decimal place).
Q.130 The amount of low molecular weight plasticizer with a Tg of -60 °C that must be
added to nylon 6 to reduce its Tg from 50 °C to 30 °C is __________ % (rounded
off to nearest integer).
Q.131 The enthalpy of fusion for a polymer is found to decrease from 135.6 J g-1 to 120 J
g-1 after five years of use. If the enthalpy of fusion of the same polymer with 100%
crystallinity is 290 J g-1, then the loss in crystallinity after five years is _______ %
(rounded off to one decimal place).
Page 93 of 114

Food Technology XE-G (Q.132 – Q.140 Carry ONE mark Each)

Q.132 Which among the given options truly depict the lines 1 and 2 in the figure below
with respect to the effect of heat processing on food?
(A) 1-Safety, 2-Quality
(B) 1-Yield, 2-Safety
(C) 1-Yield, 2-Quality
(D) 1-Quality, 2-Safety
Q.133 Homogenization of milk leads to disintegration of fat globules by
(A) Turbulence and pasteurization
(B) Pasteurization and cavitation
(C) Pasteurization and pressurization
(D) Turbulence and cavitation
Page 94 of 114

Q.134 The lowest water activity (aw) supporting the growth of Staphylococcus aureus in
food under aerobic condition is
(A) 0.98
(B) 0.91
(C) 0.89
(D) 0.86
Q.135 Cultures used in industrial production of yogurt are
(A) Lactococcus lactis subsp. lactis
(B) Streptococcus thermophilus
(C) Leuconostoc mesenteroides subsp. cremoris
(D) Lactobacillus delbrueckii subsp. bulgaricus
Page 95 of 114

Q.136 In a dairy plant, spray drying technology is used to produce whey powder. The rate
of spray drying depends on
(A) Temperature of the incoming air
(B) Shape of the cyclone separator
(C) Diameter of the whey droplet
(D) Heat transfer coefficient of hot air
Q.137 The parboiling of paddy results into
(A) Increase in the milling losses
(B) Increase in the nutritional value of rice
(C) Increase in the head rice recovery
(D) Increase in the broken rice percentage
Q.138 One hundred kg paddy is dried from 18% wet basis to 13% wet basis moisture
content. The amount of water removed (in kg) from the paddy is _______ (round
off to one decimal place).
Q.139 The radius of a centrifuge bowl is 0.1 m and is rotating at 850 revolutions per
minute. The centrifugal force developed in terms of gravity force (g-force) is
________ (round off to two decimal places).
Given: Acceleration of gravity (g) = 9.81 m s-2 and π = 3.14
Page 96 of 114

Q.140 In a canning industry, the total process time (F0) was calculated as 3 min. If each
can contains 20 spores having decimal reduction time of 1.6 min, the probability of
spoilage would be ______ in 100 cans (round off to the nearest integer).
Q.141 Match the edible oil refining stages given in Column I with their respective
functions in Column II
Column I Column II
P. Degumming 1. Separation of waxes
Q. Neutralization 2. Removal of pigments
R. Bleaching 3. Removal of phosphatides
S. Winterization 4. Removal of free fatty acids
(A) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(B) P-2, Q-1, R-3, S-4
(C) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
(D) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
Page 97 of 114

Q.142 Make the correct pair of food packaging technology given in Column I with
operating principle or description in Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Aseptic packaging 1. Control of the concentration of O2

and CO2 inside the package
Q. Active packaging 2. Create a skin tight package wall
R. Modified atmosphere packaging 3. Independent sterilization of food

and packaging material and
packaging under sterile
environment
S. Vacuum packaging 4. Makes non-passive contribution to

product development
(A) P-3, Q-4, R-1, S-2
(B) P-3, Q-2, R-1, S-4
(C) P-1, Q-4, R-3, S-2
(D) P-3, Q-1, R-4, S-2
Page 98 of 114

Q.143 Which of the following is not a caramel flavour producing compound?
(A) 3-Hydroxy-2-methylpyran-4-one
(B) 2H-4-Hydroxy-5-methylfuran-3-one
(C) 3-Hydroxy-2-acetylfuran
(D) p-Amino benzoicacid
Q.144 Match the size reduction equipment in Column I with the method of operation in
Column II.
Column I Column II
P. Hammer mill 1. Compression
Q. Burr mill 2. Impact
R. Crushing rolls 3. Cutting
S. Rotary knife 4. Attrition
(A) P-2, Q-4, R-1, S-3
(B) P-3, Q-1, R-2, S-4
(C) P-4, Q-1, R-2, S-3
(D) P-3, Q-4, R-2, S-1
Page 99 of 114

Q.145 Most commonly used refrigerant in direct immersion freezing of food is
(A) Monochlorodifluoromethane
(B) Dichlorodifluoromethane
(C) Liquid nitrogen
(D) Freon
Q.146 Which among the following are -6 poly unsaturated essential fatty acids?
(A) 18:2 Linoleic acid
(B) 18:3 -Linolenic acid
(C) 18:3 -Linolenic acid
(D) 20:4 Arachidonic acid
Q.147 Which among the following statements are true with respect to protein
denaturation?
(A) There may be an increase in -helix and -sheet structure
(B) It is an irreversible process
(C) When fully denatured, globular proteins resemble a random coil
(D) The peptide bonds are broken
Page 100 of 114

Q.148 Identify the correct pair(s) of milling equipment and the grain for which it is used.
(A) Mist polisher–Rice
(B) Break roll–Wheat
(C) Rubber roll–Pigeon pea
(D) Beall degermer–Maize
Q.149 Which among the following expression(s) is/are correct?
(A) Reynolds number =
(B) Nusselt number =
(C) Schmidt number =
(D) Biot number =
Page 101 of 114

Q.150 In sieve analysis of coffee powder, the particle size distribution is given below
Number of particles Mean particle size (m)

5 40
8 30
50 20
90 17.5
148 12.5
10 10
The Sauter mean diameter (in m) of the coffee powder is ______
(round off to one decimal place).
Q.151 In a dairy processing plant, milk enters a 30 m long and 2 cm diameter tube at
60 C and leaves at 57 C. The total heat loss over the tube length is 381.15 W. The
specific heat capacity, density, and viscosity of milk are 3.85 kJ kg-1 K-1,
1020 kg m-3, and 1.20 cP, respectively. The Reynolds number for the flow is ______
(round off to the nearest integer).
Given: π = 3.14
Q.152 Apple juice flows through a steel pipe having thermal conductivity of
50 W m-1 K-1. The outer surface of pipe is exposed to ambient environment. The
inside diameter and thickness of the pipe are 3 cm and 1.5 cm, respectively. The
overall heat transfer coefficient based on inside area is 25 W m-2 K-1. If the internal
convective heat transfer coefficient is 30 W m-2 K-1, the external convective heat
transfer coefficient (in W m-2 K-1) will be __________ (round off to two decimal
places).
Page 102 of 114

Q.153 The dry bulb temperature and relative humidity of air inside a storage chamber are
37 C and 50%, respectively. The saturation pressure of water vapour at 37 C and
barometric pressure are 6.28 kPa and 101.32 kPa, respectively. The humidity ratio
of air inside the chamber is ______ kg water (kg dry air)-1 (round off to three
decimal places).
Given: Molecular weight of water vapour and dry air are 18.02 g mol-1 and
28.97 g mol-1, respectively.
Page 103 of 114

Atmospheric and Oceanic Sciences XE-H (Q.154 – Q.162 Carry ONE mark Each)

Q.154 The figure shows a schematic of vertical profiles of concentrations of two

gases P and Q in the atmosphere near a coastal station. The correct pair
representing P and Q, respectively, is
(A) water vapor and CO2
(B) O3 and water vapor
(C) CO2 and O3
(D) N2 and O2

Page 104 of 114

Q.155 A form of momentum equation for an incompressible fluid is
𝑽
𝜌 ∇𝑝 𝜇∇ 𝑽 +B
(i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
where  is density, V is velocity, t is time, p is pressure,  is viscosity and

B represents body force per unit volume. The dimension of term (iii) is
(M, L and T stand for mass, length and time, respectively).
(A) [L]1 [T]-2
(B) [M]1 [L]-2 [T]-2
(C) [M]1 [L]1 [T]-2
(D) [M]1 [L]1 [T]-1
Page 105 of 114

Q.156 Tropical cyclones usually do not form close to the Equator primarily because
(A) sea surface temperature at the Equator is too cold.
(B) beta effect dissipates clouds.
(C) Coriolis force is too weak.
(D) vertical shear of the zonal wind is weak.
Q.157 Which one of the following statements regarding equatorial under current (EUC)
in the Pacific Ocean is correct?
(A) EUC flows from west to east.
(B) EUC flows from east to west.
(C) EUC flows from north to south.
(D) EUC flows from south to north.

Page 106 of 114

Q.158 Which one of the following statements is correct regarding the dominant energy
balance in the troposphere in a tropical convergence zone?
(A) Shortwave heating balances longwave radiative cooling.
(B) Compressional heating balances radiative cooling.
(C) Radiative cooling balances heating due to viscous dissipation of kinetic energy.
(D) Condensational heating balances adiabatic cooling.
Q.159 Which one of the following processes is primarily responsible for the poleward
transport of energy in the midlatitude troposphere?
(A) atmospheric tides
(B) baroclinic waves
(C) gravity waves
(D) turbulence in the boundary layer
Page 107 of 114

Q.160 Which of the following feature(s) characterize the seasonal mean flow in the
upper troposphere near 200 hPa level over the Tibetan Plateau during the boreal
summer?
(A) cyclonic
(B) anticyclonic
(C) irrotational
(D) divergent
Q.161 The Rossby number of a synoptic system with a length scale of 1000 km,
characteristic velocity scale of 10 m s-1 at a latitude where the Coriolis parameter
equals 10-4 s-1, is _______. (Round off to two decimal places)
Q.162 The ratio of scattering efficiency of red light of wavelength 0.65 µm to

blue light of wavelength 0.45 µm by air molecules in the atmosphere is _____.
Page 108 of 114


Q. 163 An unsaturated moist air parcel undergoes adiabatic ascent in atmosphere

without mixing with surrounding air. Air is so clean that there is no possibility
for heterogeneous nucleation. Which one of the following plots depicts the
vertical variation of water vapor pressure (shown as continuous line) and
saturation water vapor pressure (shown as dotted/dashed line) of the parcel?
(A) P
(B) Q
(C) R
(D) S
Page 109 of 114

Q.164 A fluid is in solid body rotation in a cylindrical container of radius R rotating with
an angular velocity Ω = (0, 0, Ω). The circulation per unit area around a circular
loop in the horizontal plane of radius r (r < R), whose center coincides with the
axis of rotation is
(A) 2Ω
(B) Ω2
(C) Ω/2
(D) Ω/4
Q.165 Consider a layer of atmosphere where temperature increases with height. If the
concentration of a vertically well-mixed greenhouse gas suddenly increases in this
layer, then an immediate consequence is that
(A) infrared radiation leaving the top of the layer decreases.
(B) infrared radiation leaving the top of the layer increases.
(C) infrared radiation leaving the top of the layer remains unchanged.
(D) the layer becomes optically thinner to infrared radiation.
Page 110 of 114

Q.166 Consider an atmosphere where the mole fractions of N2, Ar and CO2 are
7.81×10-1, 9.34×10-3 and 4.05×10-4, respectively. This atmosphere exchanges
gases with sea water below having temperature and salinity of 20 °C and 35 psu,
respectively. In the absence of biological and chemical activity, relative
concentrations of dissolved gases in the surface sea water at equilibrium are
ordered as
(A) [N2] > [Ar] > [CO2]
(B) [CO2] > [N2] > [Ar]
(C) [N2] > [CO2] > [Ar]
(D) [Ar] > [CO2] > [N2]
Q.167 Gravitational forces exerted by the Sun and the Moon are mainly responsible
for ocean tides. Which of the following statement(s) regarding ocean tides
is/are correct?
(A) Tidal amplitude corresponding to diurnal period is larger than that of the
semi-diurnal period.
(B) Diurnal time period of lunar forced tides is longer than that of the solar forced
tides.
(C) Tidal amplitudes are larger during a solar eclipse compared to that during
a lunar eclipse.
(D) Tides are absent during equinoxes.

Page 111 of 114

Q.168 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true about northern hemisphere
tropical cyclones?
(A) They have a warm core.
(B) Their low-level flow is cyclonic.
(C) Strong wind shear in the vertical is required for their intensification.
(D) They are characterized by upper-level divergence.
Q.169 In gradient wind balance, which of the following statement(s) is/are true for flow
around a region of low pressure in the northern hemisphere?
(A) The flow is clockwise.
(B) The flow is anti-clockwise.
(C) The wind speed is faster than the geostrophic wind.
(D) The wind speed is slower than the geostrophic wind.
Page 112 of 114

Q. 170 Which of the following statement(s) is/are true regarding biogeochemical cycle
in the ocean?
(A) Shutdown of the biological pump in the ocean would have resulted in higher
CO2 concentration in the atmosphere compared to present-day.
(B) If atmospheric CO2 concentration increases, solubility pump would lead to a

decrease in dissolved inorganic carbon in the ocean.
(C) All carbon sequestered by marine photosynthesis settles down on the ocean floor
as organic matter.
(D) Calcification (the process of making shells and skeletons) by marine organisms
in the surface ocean layer would lead to an increase in the surface ocean CO2.
Q.171 Consider the atmosphere to be a heat engine, which converts absorbed radiation to
kinetic energy of winds. Let the global mean radiation absorbed be 200 Wm-2.
In steady-state, if the global mean kinetic energy dissipation is 10 Wm-2, then the
efficiency of the atmospheric heat engine is ________%.
(Round off to one decimal place)
Q.172 A drifter on the surface of the ocean performs inertial oscillation. The speed of the
drifter is 2 m s-1 and the Coriolis parameter at the latitude is 2×10-4 s-1. The radius
of the inertial oscillation is _______ km. (Round off to the nearest integer)
Page 113 of 114

Q.173 Consider a tornado in cyclostrophic balance. The tangential wind speed at a radial
distance of 500 m from the center of the tornado is _______ m s-1, if the pressure
gradient at that location in the radial direction is 5 N m-3. Assume the density of
air to be 1 kg m-3. (Round off to the nearest integer)
Q.174 Consider two weather stations A and B having the same altitude. Station B is 5 km
north of Station A and is always 2 K warmer than Station A. A steady northerly
wind blows at 1 m s-1. The change in temperature at Station A in 2 hours is
________ K. (Round off to one decimal place)
Q. 175 Assume the Earth is in radiative equilibrium with effective radiative temperature
of 255 K. If the planetary albedo increases by 0.05, then the effective radiative
temperature of the planet will be _______ K. (Round off to the nearest integer)
Given:
Solar constant = 1370 Wm-2
Stefan Boltzmann constant = 5.67×10-8 Wm-2 K-4
Page 114 of 114

Q.No. Session Question Section Key/Range Mark
Type Name
1 6 MCQ GA C 1
2 6 MCQ GA B 1
3 6 MCQ GA C 1
4 6 MCQ GA D 1
5 6 MCQ GA A 1
6 6 MCQ GA B 2
7 6 MCQ GA D 2
8 6 MCQ GA D 2
9 6 MCQ GA D 2
10 6 MCQ GA C 2
11 6 MCQ XE-A C 1
12 6 MCQ XE-A C 1
13 6 MCQ XE-A B 1
14 6 NAT XE-A 36 to 36 1
15 6 NAT XE-A 4 to 4 1
16 6 NAT XE-A 2 to 2 1
17 6 NAT XE-A 0.066 to 0.068 1
18 6 MCQ XE-A C 2
19 6 MCQ XE-A A 2
20 6 NAT XE-A 2 to 2 2
21 6 NAT XE-A 3 to 3 2
22 6 MCQ XE-B B 1
23 6 MCQ XE-B A 1
24 6 MCQ XE-B A 1
25 6 MSQ XE-B A, B 1
26 6 MSQ XE-B A, D 1
27 6 MSQ XE-B A, D 1
28 6 MSQ XE-B B, D 1
29 6 MSQ XE-B A, B, C 1
30 6 NAT XE-B 6.95 to 7.20 1
31 6 MCQ XE-B A 2
32 6 MCQ XE-B C 2
33 6 MCQ XE-B D 2
34 6 MCQ XE-B C 2
35 6 MSQ XE-B C, D 2
36 6 NAT XE-B 374 to 376 2
37 6 NAT XE-B MTA 2
38 6 NAT XE-B 5.60 to 5.70 2
39 6 NAT XE-B 0.24 to 0.26 2
40 6 NAT XE-B 1.380 to 1.390 2
41 6 NAT XE-B 0.74 to 0.78 2
42 6 NAT XE-B 5.1 to 5.2 2
43 6 NAT XE-B 0.39 to 0.41 2
44 6 MCQ XE-C B 1
45 6 MCQ XE-C C 1
46 6 MCQ XE-C C 1
47 6 MCQ XE-C A 1
48 6 MCQ XE-C C 1
49 6 MCQ XE-C D 1
50 6 MSQ XE-C B, C 1
51 6 NAT XE-C 4232 to 4249 1
52 6 NAT XE-C 2.20 to 2.30 1
53 6 MCQ XE-C C 2
54 6 MCQ XE-C C 2
55 6 MCQ XE-C D 2
56 6 MCQ XE-C C 2
57 6 MCQ XE-C C 2
58 6 MCQ XE-C A 2
59 6 MSQ XE-C A, C 2
60 6 NAT XE-C 0.5 to 0.5 2
61 6 NAT XE-C 9.7 to 11.2 2
62 6 NAT XE-C 0.057 to 0.062 2
63 6 NAT XE-C 0.45 to 0.47 2
64 6 NAT XE-C 1.40 to 1.43 2
65 6 NAT XE-C 5.64 to 5.73 2
66 6 MCQ XE-D A 1
67 6 MCQ XE-D C 1
68 6 MCQ XE-D A 1
69 6 MCQ XE-D B 1
70 6 MCQ XE-D A 1
71 6 MCQ XE-D B 1
72 6 MCQ XE-D C 1
73 6 NAT XE-D 1.9 to 2.1 1
74 6 NAT XE-D 19 to 21 1
75 6 MCQ XE-D A 2
76 6 MCQ XE-D D 2
77 6 MCQ XE-D A 2
78 6 MCQ XE-D A 2
79 6 MCQ XE-D B 2
80 6 MCQ XE-D A 2
81 6 NAT XE-D 295 to 305 2
82 6 NAT XE-D 39 to 41 2
83 6 NAT XE-D 0.9 to 1.1 2
84 6 NAT XE-D 79 to 81 2
85 6 NAT XE-D 5990 to 6010 2
86 6 NAT XE-D 123 to 127 2
87 6 NAT XE-D 148 to 152 2
88 6 MCQ XE-E C 1
89 6 MCQ XE-E A 1
90 6 MCQ XE-E B 1
91 6 MCQ XE-E B 1
92 6 NAT XE-E 750.00 to 756.00 1
93 6 NAT XE-E 79.00 to 80.00 1
94 6 NAT XE-E 254.00 to 255.00 1
95 6 NAT XE-E 25 to 25 1
96 6 NAT XE-E 300 to 300 1
97 6 MCQ XE-E C 2
98 6 MCQ XE-E A 2
99 6 MCQ XE-E B 2
100 6 MCQ XE-E A 2
101 6 MCQ XE-E B 2
102 6 MCQ XE-E C 2
103 6 NAT XE-E 0.20 to 0.24 2
104 6 NAT XE-E 132.00 to 134.00 2
105 6 NAT XE-E 4.50 to 4.65 2
106 6 NAT XE-E 0.0160 to 0.0165 2
107 6 NAT XE-E 0.13 to 0.15 2
108 6 NAT XE-E 15 to 17 2
109 6 NAT XE-E 21.00 to 22.00 2
110 6 MCQ XE-F B 1
111 6 MCQ XE-F C 1
112 6 MCQ XE-F A 1
113 6 MCQ XE-F C 1
114 6 MCQ XE-F D 1
115 6 MCQ XE-F B 1
116 6 MSQ XE-F A, C, D 1
117 6 MSQ XE-F B, C, D 1
118 6 NAT XE-F 2 to 2 1
119 6 MCQ XE-F A 2
120 6 MCQ XE-F C 2
121 6 MCQ XE-F B 2
122 6 MCQ XE-F D 2
123 6 MCQ XE-F B 2
124 6 MCQ XE-F D 2
125 6 MCQ XE-F A 2
126 6 NAT XE-F 1.04 to 1.14 2
127 6 NAT XE-F 2.1 to 2.5 2
128 6 NAT XE-F 0.71 to 0.75 2
129 6 NAT XE-F 2.1 to 2.4 2
130 6 NAT XE-F 12 to 14 2
131 6 NAT XE-F 5.2 to 5.6 2
132 6 MCQ XE-G A 1
133 6 MCQ XE-G D 1
134 6 MCQ XE-G D 1
135 6 MSQ XE-G B, D 1
136 6 MSQ XE-G A, C, D 1
137 6 MSQ XE-G B, C 1
138 6 NAT XE-G 5.5 to 6.0 1
139 6 NAT XE-G 79.50 to 81.50 1
140 6 NAT XE-G 25 to 28 1
141 6 MCQ XE-G C 2
142 6 MCQ XE-G A 2
143 6 MCQ XE-G D 2
144 6 MCQ XE-G A 2
145 6 MCQ XE-G C 2
146 6 MSQ XE-G A, C, D 2
147 6 MSQ XE-G A, C 2
148 6 MSQ XE-G A, B, D 2
149 6 MSQ XE-G A, C 2
150 6 NAT XE-G 19.0 to 20.5 2
151 6 NAT XE-G 1700 to 1800 2
152 6 NAT XE-G 73.00 to 84.00 2
153 6 NAT XE-G 0.017 to 0.021 2
154 6 MCQ XE-H A 1
155 6 MCQ XE-H B 1
156 6 MCQ XE-H C 1
157 6 MCQ XE-H A 1
158 6 MCQ XE-H D 1
159 6 MCQ XE-H B 1
160 6 MSQ XE-H B, D 1
161 6 NAT XE-H 0.08 to 0.12 1
162 6 NAT XE-H 0.22 to 0.24 1
163 6 MCQ XE-H A 2
164 6 MCQ XE-H A 2
165 6 MCQ XE-H B 2
166 6 MCQ XE-H C 2
167 6 MSQ XE-H B, C 2
168 6 MSQ XE-H A, B, D 2
169 6 MSQ XE-H B, D 2
170 6 MSQ XE-H A, D 2
171 6 NAT XE-H 4.9 to 5.1 2
172 6 NAT XE-H 9 to 11 2
173 6 NAT XE-H 49 to 51 2
174 6 NAT XE-H 2.8 to 3.0 2
175 6 NAT XE-H 249 to 252 2

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GATE 2022 Engineering Sciences XE

GATE 2022 General Aptitude

Q.1 The movie was funny and I _________.

(A) could help laughing

(B) couldn’t help laughed

(C) couldn’t help laughing

(D) could helped laughed

What is the value of ?

results in the same value for both the fractions.

What is the value of 𝑥?

 150 students are interested in Mathematics.

Q. 6 – Q. 10 Carry TWO marks each.

Q.8 Consider the following equations of straight lines:

Which one among the following is the correct statement?

(A) L1 is parallel to L2 and L1 is perpendicular to L3

(B) L2 is parallel to L4 and L2 is perpendicular to L1

(C) L3 is perpendicular to L4 and L3 is parallel to L2

(D) L4 is perpendicular to L2 and L4 is parallel to L3

Statement 1: Some soaps are clean.

Statement 2: All clean objects are wet.

Conclusion I: Some clean objects are soaps.

Conclusion II: No clean object is a soap.

Conclusion III: Some wet objects are soaps.

Conclusion IV: All wet objects are soaps.

Which one of the following options can be logically inferred?

(A) Only conclusion I is correct

(B) Either conclusion I or conclusion II is correct

(C) Either conclusion III or conclusion IV is correct

(D) Only conclusion I and conclusion III are correct

The pattern made by the trace left behind by the ant is

Q.11 The value of

Q.12 Let  𝑧 𝑥 𝑖𝑦 ∶ 𝑥 and 𝑦 are real numbers, 𝑖 √ 1 be the set of

If 𝑓 𝑧 denotes the derivative of 𝑓 𝑧 , then

Q.13 If the partial differential equation

is parabolic on the circle 𝑥 𝑎 𝑦 𝑏 𝑟 , then the values of 𝑎, 𝑏 and 𝑟

Q.14 Let G be the positively oriented circle 𝑥 𝑦 9 in the 𝑥𝑦-plane. If

where 𝛼 is a real constant, then 𝛼 is equal to ________.

Q.15 Let 𝑦 𝑥 and 𝑦 𝑥 be two linearly independent solutions of

If 𝑊 𝑦 , 𝑦 1 1 then 𝑊 𝑦 , 𝑦 2 is equal to _______.

Q.18 – Q.21 Carry TWO marks Each

Q.18 Let 𝑓: 0, ∞ → ℝ be the continuous function such that 𝑓 𝑥 2 for all

Q.19 Let 𝐴 and 𝐵 be 𝑛 𝑛 matrices with real entries.

Consider the following statements:

P: If 𝐴 is symmetric then 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑘 𝐴 Number of nonzero eigenvalues (counting

Q: If 𝐴𝐵 𝟎 then 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑘 𝐴 𝑟𝑎𝑛𝑘 𝐵 𝑛.

(A) both P and Q are TRUE

(B) P is TRUE and Q is FALSE

(C) P is FALSE and Q is TRUE

(D) both P and Q are FALSE

Q.20 Let 𝑓: ℝ → ℝ be given by 𝑓 𝑥, 𝑦 4𝑥𝑦 2𝑥 𝑦 1. The number of

Q.21 If the quadrature rule

Q.22 A heavy horizontal cylinder of diameter D supports a mass of liquid having

the sections A, B, C, and D are given by 𝜏 , 𝜏 , 𝜏 , and 𝜏 , respectively. Select the

column lists some physical phenomena. Indicate the correct combination

1. Reynolds number i. Wave drag

2. Froude number ii. Compressible flow

3. Mach number iii. Viscous drag

4. Weber number iv. Spray formation

(A) 1-iii, 2-i, 3-ii, 4-iv