Republic of the Philippines

PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION

Manila

BOARD OF PHYSICAL & OCCUPATIONAL THERAPY

PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPIST LICENSURE EXAMINATION

Saturday; August 28, 1999
8:00 a.m. – 2:30 p.m.

GENERAL MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS

1. Elements of a program of joint protection for athritic patients should include the following: A.
unload the joint when very painful
B. modify tasks to decrease joint stress
C. all of these
D. avoid prolonged periods in same position

2. In this type of aphasia there is poor fluency, comprehension,

repetition and naming:
A. global C. conduction
B. Broca D. Wernicke

3. Standing on tiptoes is a quick way of testing the ROM of:

A. dorsiflexion and toe flexion
B. Plantarflexion and toe extension
C. plantarflexion and toe flexion
D. dorsiflexion and toeextension

4. The following are clinical features of De Quervain‘s disease, EXCEPT: A.

none of these
B. mild swelling over the radial styloid
C. positive Finkelstein‘s test
D. tenderness along the radial styloid

5. The gait .pattern of a 12 month old child is characterized by:

A. supinated feet
B. posterior pelvic tilt
C. externally rotated lower extremities
D. narrow base of support

6. Normal kyphosis is considered to be about this much, by Cobb method: A.

5 to 10 degrees C. 40—60 degrees
B. 20 to 30 degrees D- 10-20 degrees

7. In Weber syndrome, this cranial nerve nucleus is affected:

A. VII C. III
B. VI D. IV
 1
8. The Jewett brace is a spinal brace which can:
A. limit motion only in extension
B. limit extension and rotation
C. limit motion only in flexion
D. limit flexion and rotation

9. What is the normal ratio of respiratory rate to pulse rate?

A. 6:1 C. 1:4
B. 4:1 D. 1:6

10. The most common type of cerebral palsy associated with prematurity is:
A. triplegia C. diplegia
B. quadriplegia D. hemiplegia

11. The orthosis of choice for compression fractures in an osteoporotic elderly female patients is the:
A. Milwaukee brace C. Jewett brace
B. Knight Taylor brace D. Chairback brace

12. The most common causes of cerebral palsy occur during the:
A. perinatal period C. prenatal period
B. postnatal period D. preconception period

13. To test the right gluteus medius muscle in the Trendelenberg, the patient is asked to:
A. stand on the left side C. lower the left hip
B. stand on the right leg D. lower the right hip

14. The body weight transmitted to a unilateral cane opposite the_____affected side is about:
A. 20—25% C. 30—40%
B. 10-15% D. 40-50%

15. Prosthetic bands provide this type of pinch:

A. hook C. 3 jaw chuck
B. tip to tip D. lateral

16. Cognitive may be affected in this rheumatic disease:

A. Polymyositis
B. Rheumatoid Arthritis .
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
D. Osteoarthritis

17. The neural tube defect with the most severe anatomic anomaly is seen in:
A. all of these C. myelomeningocoele
B. meningocoele D. spina bifida occulta

18. Gustilo Andersen Types II and III injuries require stabilization of the fracture with:
 A. repeat debridements
B. plate and screw fixation
C. intramedullary nailing or external fixation
2
PHYSICAL AND OCCUPATIONAL THERAPIST LICENSURE EXAMINATION
Saturday; August 28, 1999
GENERAL MEDICAL AND SURGICAL CONDITIONS

D. amputation

19. A CVA patient positioned in supine with legs flexed, clasping his arms around his knees and rocking gently
will produce:
A. protraction of scapula
B. inhibition of flexor ‗spasticity in upper extremities
C. all of these
D. decreased extensor spasticity in upper extremities

20. This type is a frequent symptom of Ankylosing Spondylitis:

A. morning back pain C. rash
B. joint crepitus D. alopecia

21. A child born with a myelomeningocoele who has an L3 spared lesion is most likely to be:
A. ambulatory outdoors without braces and crutches
B. non-ambulatory and wheelchair bound
C. household ambulatory with crutches and braces
D. mostly confined to bed

22. Boutonniere deformity is seen in:

A. all of these
B. Systemic lupus erythematosis
C. Rheumatoid arthritis

23. The most disabling problem in osteoarthritis of the hand is the involvement of the:
A. first metacarpophalangeal joint
B. carpal joints
C. distal intarphalangeal joint
D. first carpometacarpal joint

24. Gait in the elderly is characterized by:

A. decreased stride width C. decreased step length
B. increased cadence D. increased stride length

25. The wide based gait of‘ patients with Luchenne Muscular Dystrophy is due to:
A. iliotibial band contracture
B. quadriceps weakness
C. knee flexion contractures
D. gluteus maximus weakness
26. After an uncomplicated total knee replacement, what knee ROM would be a realistic goal for the patient
before discharge from the hospital:
A. 0 - 60 degrees C. 0 - 90 degrees
B. 0 - 120 degrees D. 30 - 90 degrees

27. A normal infant should be able to localize the source of sound by turning his eyes or head by the age of:
A. 3-4 months C. 1-2 months
B. 6-7 months D. 4-5 months

28. Secondary lymphedema is caused by:

A. tremors C. surgery
B. all of these D. radiation therapy

29. The following factors predict poor ADL outcome in stroke, EXCEPT:
A. none of these C. incontinence
B. visuospatial disease D. diabetes mellitus

30. The Schirmer‘s test is positive in:

A. none of these C. Psoriasis
B. Reiter‘s disease D. Scleroderma

31. The highest incidence of mental retardat.ion among Cerebral Palsy patients is seen in this type;
A. diplegia C. dyskinesia
B. hemiplegia D. quadriplegia

32. According t.o the Glasgow Coma Scale, if the patient can open his eyes on his own, has localized movement
to pain, and can converse but is disoriented, he has a score of:
A. 13 C. 12
B. 14 D. 11

33. What measurement is used to determine the arm rest height in a wheelchair?
A. seat to elbow distance
B. femur to elbow distance
C. acromion to elbow distance
D. seat to acromion distance

34. This is a movement disorder resulting from atrophy of the striatum

A. dystonia C. chores
B. hemiballismus D. athetosis

35. A patient has excessive medial displacement of the elbow during ligamentous testing, which ligament is
typically involved?
A. ulnar collateral C. volar radioulnar
B. radial collateral D. annular
36. A convexity of the disc beyond the adjacent vertebral disc margins, but with intact annulus fibrosus and
Sharpey‘s fibers is a
A. bulging disc C. prolapsed disc
B. extruded disc D. any of these

37. The following are contributing factors to the development of pressure ulcers, EXCEPT:
A. anemia C. hormonal imbalance
B. edema D. none of these

38. With a patient prone and knee flexed, you apply a downward force and rotate the leg, knee pain and grinding
sensation usually indicates:
A. Meniscal tears C. Baker‘s cyst
B. Chondromalacia patella D. Osteoarthritis

39. Injury to the medial collateral ligament accompanied by medial elbow muscle hypertrophy is also called:
A. Little League elbow C. Supinator syndrome
B. Golfer‘s elbow D. Pronator syndrome

40. This infectious disease‘ is characterized by painful muscle spasms of the whole body precipitated by the
slightest stimulus:
A. tetanus C. diptheria
B. pertusis D. meningitis

41. A 50 year old tennis player complains of pain on the elbow. You expect to elicit pain with:
A. passive wrist extension C. resisted wrist extension
B. resisted finger flexion D. resisted finger extension

42. This is a study of fitting the job to the worker and the worker to the job:
A. return-to-work programs C. ergonomics
B. work hardening D. functional capacity evaluation

43. This special test is used to confirm deep venous thrombosis:

A. none of these C. Renato‘s test
B. Homan‘s test D. Allen‘s test

44. This is a physiologic effect of moderate aerobic exercise on women:

A. increased premenstrual syndrome
B. normalize menstrual cycle
C. increased endometriosis
D. all of these

45. This is a hyperkinetic movement disorder that usually occurs after prolonged treatment with neuroleptic
medication: A. chorea C. torsion dystonia
B. tardive dyskinesia D. postural tremor

46. When examining the knee, the knee opens medially more than 15 mm. This signifies a:
A. complete tear C. significant tear
 B. minimal tear D. partial tear

47. A patient who manifests personality changes, hemiparesis, aphasia, and apraxia most probably has a tumor
on the:
A. frontal lobe C. parietal. lobe
B. occipital lobe D. cerebellum

48. This drug can induce osteoporosis:

A. antipuretics C. analgesics
B. cathartics D. corticosteroids

49. You suspect this condition if the athlete‘s thigh is tense, with severe pain, pallor and loss of quadriceps
strength:
A. quadriceps tendon stretch
B. acute compartment syndrome
C. hamstring strain -.
D. patellar dislocation

50. The most accurate method to evaluate neurologic tone is:

A. passive ROM of involved extremity‘.
B. resisted motion of all extremities
C. passive ROM of involved and uninvolved extremeties
D. active ROM of involved extremity

51. The most commonly involved cranial nerves in Diabetes Mellitus are the:
A. III and VI C. IV and VII
B. II and III D. III and IV

52. This term best denotes an inflammatory process involving the dura mater:
A. pachymeningitis C. cerebritis
B. leptomeningitis D. meningitis

53. Bunnell‘s ―no-man‘s land‖ or the critical area of pulleys between the insertion of the sublimis and the distal
palmar crease corresponds to flexor:
A. zone 4 C. zone 1
B. zone 3 D. zone 2

54. Acute gouty arthritis is characterized by:

A. all of these C. fever
B. attack in the big toe D. podagra

55. In acute patellar dislocation, this muscle is usually disrupted or impaired:

A. vastus intermedius C. vastus lateralis
B. rectus femoris D. vastus medialis

56. These are components of complex physical therapy used in lymphedema, EXCEPT:
A. skin care C. exercises
B. manual lymph drainage D. elevation of leg
57. A 5 year old child with a T10 spina bifida is now ready for ambulation training having good sitting balance.
The best orthosis for him is:
A. parapodium C. KAFO with walker
B. AFO with walker D. HKAFO

58. The optimal position for a patient who begins to demonstrate signs of orthostatic hypotension is:
A. standing C. supine
B. sitting upright D. walking

59. Osteochondritis of the inferior pole of the patella in skeletally immature patients, is:
A. Binding-Larsen-Johansson disease
B. Hoffa‘s disease
C. Quadriceps tendonitis
D. Osgood-Schlatter disease

60. The palm mechanism of a claw hand deformity is:

A. unpposed pull of the FDS at the PIP joint
B. inability to activelyextend fingers due to weak fingers
C. unopposed pull of the EDC at the MOP joint
D. unopposedpull of the FDP at the DIP joint

61. A 6 year old boy walks with a limp and has mild pain at the left hip. Examination revealed limitation of hip
motions of abduction, internal rotation and extension. He probably has:
A. Legg Calve Perthes disease
B. Slipped capital femoral epiphysis
C. Intertrochanteric fracture
D. Congenital dislocation of the hip

62. Complete rupture of the ulnar collateral ligament of the thumb MCP joint is also termed:
A. Rolando‘s thumb C. Bennett‘s thumb
B. Skyciver‘s thumb D. Gamekeeper‘s thumb

63. In this type of rheumatic disease, there is subchondral sclerosis, crescent sign and is symmetrical
A. Ankylosing Spondylitis
B. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
C. Pseudogout
D. Osteoarthritis

64. This scale is an accurate and objective method of assessing function in hemiplegic patients based on natural
progression of functional return:
A. Brunnstromm C. Bobath
B. Fugl - Meyer D. Ashworth

65. Dysphagia would most likely occur in lesions involving the:

A. frontal lobe C. parietal lobe
B. hypothalamus D. medullary brainstem
66. Hammer toes are a deformity of metatarsophalangeal joints resulting in:
A. flexion of the DIP joints
B. all of these
C. flexion of the PIP ‗joints
D. extension of the IP joints

67. The sheering stress on the anterior cruciate ligament is greatest at:
A. 30 degrees flexion to full extension
B. 60 degrees flexion to full extension 2
C. 90 degrees flexion to 60 degrees flexion
D. 30 degrees extension to full extension

68. This disorder is characterized by vertigo, sensorineural hearing loss, tinnitus, nausea and vomiting, and fullness
in the ear:
A. Ototoxicity C. Meniere‘s disease
B. otosclerosis D. sudden deafness
69. For a young male T6 patient, the followiing is the highest functional outcome after successful rehabilitation:
A. standing between parallel bars using KAFO, community ambulation with wheelchair
B. standing between parallel bars, house ambulation with walker
C. standing with bilateral HKAFO and axillary crutches, ambulation with vheelchair
D. standing with tilt table, house ambulation with wheelchair

70. Duchenne Muscular Dystrophy is characterized by this inheritance pattern:

A. A-linked dominant C. autosomal dominant
B. autosomal recessive D. A—linked recessive

71. The most frequent type of burn that results in amputation is:
A. none of these C. electrical
B. chemical D. thermal

72. The most serious consequences of fetal alcohol syndrome is:

A. severe mental retardation
B. joint contractures
C. child alcoholism
D. cardiac defects

73. The most frequently affected joint in Spondyloarthropathies is the:

A. hip C. heel
B. vertebral column D. sacroiliac joint

74. This is a syndrome that develops when multiple small lesions affect the anterior limb of both internal
capsules, consists of emotional lability, dysarthria, dysphonia, dysphagia, facial weakness:
A. Vertebrobasilar syndrome C. Bulbar palsy
B. Multiple sclerosis D. Pseudobulbar palsy

75. The characteristic areas of white matter pathology in Multiple Sclerosis are called:
A. bullae C. plaque
 B. lacunes D. sheaths

76. Multiple sclerosis could cause all of. the following, EXCEPT:
A. migraine headache C. trigeminal neuralgia
B. optic neuritis D. Lhermitte‘s sign

77. Males generally become stronger than females after puberty because:
A. males have higher muscle strength per cross-sectional area
B. males keep themselves in condition through proper diet and exercises
C. males have faster rate of biologic maturation
D. males develop a greater muscle mass

78. Lateral bending of the trunk in a transfemoral amputee with a prosthesis may be caused by:
A. abducted socket
B. insufficient support by lateral wall of socket
C. all of these
D. too short a prosthesis

79. Conduction aphasia results from a lesion of the:

A. internal capsule C. temporal gyrus
B. arcuate fesciculus D. thalamus

80. This generalized acquired bone disease is characterized by a defect in osteoblastic formation resulting in a
decreased amount of bone:
A. scurvy C. osteoporosis
B. rickets D. osteomalacia

81. The additional energy expenditure of a wheelchair ambulant person as compared to normal is:
A. 5% C. 10-40%
B. 10-20% D. 9%

82. A patient scheduled for total hip replacement in 3 days is for preoperative instruction. All of the following
should be part of the instructions, EXCEPT:
A. gait training with appropriate assistive devices that will
B. basic precautions for early bed mobility
C. proper use of abduction pillow for 1-2 weeks postoperative
D. deep breathing and coughing exercises

83. The following is/are feature/s of a good athletic shoe:

A. all of these
B. it is stiff as the heel and shank but very flexible at for efoot
C. the heel counter is, rigid and noncompressible
D. the inner muscle fits the contours of the foot closely

84. A degenerative process beginning with irritation and fragmentation of the hyaline, cartilage on the patella .is
termed:
A. retropatellar syndrome
B. Osgood-Schlatter disease
 C. plice syndrome
D. chondromalacia patella

85. When bracing or casting a child with Legg Calve Perthes, the hip is placed in this position to keep the
femoral head within the acetabulum:
A. abduction and internal rotation C. abduction and external rotation
B. abduction and extension D. abduction and flexion

86. A 7 month old, 24 lbs. baby girl fractures the shaft of her left femur. What type of traction is most commonly
used for her condition?
A. Bryant‘s C. skeletal with pins
B. Buck‘s D. Russell‘s

87. This condition is a varient of Guillain Barre Syndrome:

A. Lennox Hill C. Lewinsky Starr
B. Millard Gublar D. Miller Fisher

88. Maximum activity of the gluteus medius and minimum occurs at which point of the normal gait cycle?
A. swing phase C. heel strike
B. midstance D. toe off

89. This describes the choracathetoid dyskinetic type. of Cerebral Palsy:

A. abnormal positioning of limbs, head and trunk with unpredictable increased tone‘
B. increased muscle tone, which usually blocks‖ involuntary movements
C. involuntary movements without increased muscle tone
D. involuntary, unpredictable, small movements of the distal parts of the extremeties

90. The nasopaharynx and ear may be affected in this rheumatic disease:
A. Rheumatoid -Arthritis
B. Osteoarthritis
C. Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
D. Polymyositis

91. An ankle eversion injury will primarily cause:

A. body damage
B. tear of anterior talofibular ligament
C. tear of medial collateral ligament
D. ankle sprain

92. A patient is limited to 50 degrees in passive straight leg raising test. You should apply the hold relax
technique to these muscles to improve the patient‘s range of motion:
A. hamstrings and hip extensors
B. quadriceps and hip flexors
C. abductors and hip flexors
D. adductors and hip extensors

93. Proper technique is essential. when mobilizing a joint. Which of the following about mobilization technique; is
NOT true?
 A. the patient and extremity to be treated should be placed in comfortable position
B. start with grade 1 distraction when possible
C. a joint is mobilized in close packed position
D. one joint at a time is moved in one direction

94. This is a risk factor for thrombotic stroke:

A. atrial fibrillation C. young age
B. exercise D. hypertension

95. Relative contraindications for exercised during pregnancy include all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. mild hypotension
B. diabetes
C. history of precipitous labor
D. thyroid disease

96. Independence in performing basic ADL is a realistic rehabilitation goal in a TBI patient with a Rancho Los
Amigos Level of Cognitive Function of:
A. VIII C. VI
B. V D. IX

97. Which of the following structures of the brain may herniated after brain edema and lead to fatal compression
o2f vital CNS centers?
A. cingulate gyrus
B. cerebellar tonsils and medulla
C. all of these
D. midbrain

98. The ideal prevention program of running injuries should include:

A. warm-up exercise
B. an appropriate level of training
C. all of these
D. a proper running surface and quality running shoes

99. This syndrome is characterized by hypotonicity, obesity, dysmorphic facia, fractures and mental retardation:
A. Phenylketonuria C. Prader Willi syndrome
B. Trisomy-13 D. Rett syndrome

100. The majority of strokes in young adults is of this type:

A. embolic C. lacunar
B. hemorrhagic D. infarction

101. In the above elbow amputee, the typical dual control harness system is fabricated in. such a manner that
operation of the elbow lock is primarily controlled by,:
A. humeral flexion
B. humeral extension
C. humeral adduction
D. humeral internal rotation
102. All of the following are examples of moderate cardiac activity, EXCEPT:
A. driving car C. dressing—undressing
B. playing the piano D. making beds

103. The autistic phase in normal infacts characterized by marked passivity occurs from birth up to:
A. 5 months C. 6 months
B. 4 months D. 3 months

104. Dynamic factors for patella tracking dysfunction include:

A. vastus medialis insufficiency
B. all of these
C. increase in angulation between the, quadriceps and patellar tendon
D. a lateral femoral condyle that ‗is not sufficiently prominent anteriorly

105. The most important component of ‗splint for an ulnar nerve injury is one which will:
A. put the wrist in dorsiflexion
B. put the wrist in palmarflexion
C. put the MCP joint in slight extension
D. put the MCP joint in slight flexion

106. These may be normal findings in elderly patients, EXCEPT:

A. short stepped gait C. diminished ankle jerk
B. none of these D. dysmetria

107. According to Garden‘s Classification of Femoral Neck Fractures, an incompletely displaced fracture is:
A. Grade 5 C. Grade 3
B. Grade 4 D. Grade 2

108. Cystic fibrosis is classified as a:

A. obstructive lung disease
B. restrictive lung disease V
C. disorder of the oil glands
D. bleeding disorder

109. A child with myelomeningocoele at the level of L5-S1 would have:

A. useful knee extensors, hip flexors
B. functional plantarflexors
C. all of these
D. flail feet

110. This is a stress fracture of the 5th metatarsal shaft:

A. Syrne C. Lisfranc
B. Lymes D. Leonard

111. Describes the method of sensory assessment in SCI patients as recommended by ASIA, EXCEPT:
A. pin and touch, sensations are graced separately
B. in testing pin sensation, the inability to distinguish sharp from dull is graded zero
 C. 20 key dermatomes are tested and graded
D. pressure, deep pain and position sense are also measured and graded

112. A below knee amputee‘s residual limb should be no longer than how many inches from the tibial plateau?
A. 7 C. 5
B. 3.5 D. 2.5

113. A C2 fracture after surgical stabilization is best placed on:

A. four poster brace C. Philadelphia collar
B. halo brace D. SOMI brace

114. In an ROM program of the shoulder for a patient with Rheumatoid Arthritis, this much functional ROM
should be achieved:
A. shoulder extensionlO degrees, external rotation 10 degrees
B. shoulder flexion 90 degrees, external rotation 10 degrees
C. shoulder flexion 30-40 degrees, internal rotation 10 degrees
D. shoulder extension 10 degrees, internal rotation 10 degrees

115. This is a neurodegenerative disease characterized by choreiform movements and progressive dementia:
A. Multiple Sclerosis C. Parkinson‘s disease
B. Huntington‘s disease D. Alzheimer‘s disease

116. This is a standardized test that relies heavily in motor based items:
A. Gesell Developmental Schedule
B. Wee Functional Independence Measure
C. Bayley Scale of Infant Development
D. Denver Developmental Screening Test

117. A uul clinical sign in the diagnosis of this disease is the inability to pinch a fold of skin overlying the dorsum
of the middle phalanges:
A. Systemic lupus erythematosis
B. Psoriasis
C. Rangan‘s disease
D. Scleroderma

118. You observed a 60 year old male with pectus carinatum, which of the following best describes this
condition?
A. sternum displaced anterior, increased in anteroposterior disorder
B. depression of the lower sternum
C. increase in lateral diameter of chest
D. sternum displaced posterior, increased anteroposterior diameter

119. A patient drags her toe during the swing phase of gait. All of the following are possible causes, EXCEPT:
A. inadequate knee flexion
B. spasticity of plantarflexors
C. weakness of plantarflexors
D. weakness of dorsiflexors
120. This is a pressure sensitive area of the leg in prosthetic fitting:
A. patellar tendon C. gastrocnemius
B. pretibial muscles D. tibial condyles

121. The following factors have more positive prognostic significance for emergence from unresponsiveness of
traumatic brain injury patients, EXCEPT:
A. flaccid states C. increase of tone
B. conjugate eye movement D. decorticate posture

122. The most appropriate immediate response to autonomic dysreflexia is to:

A. keep patient sitting, monitor blood pressure, check bladder and bowel for impairment
B. keep patient sitting, monitor blood pressure, and wait for medical assistance
C. lie patient flat, monitor blood pressure, and give the patient fluids
D. lie patient flat, monitor blood pressure, check bladder and bowel for impairment

123. The nutritional disorder Marasmus is characterized by:

A. protruding abdomen
B. diffuse depigmentation of skin
C. pitting edema 2
D. emaciation and old man facies

124. An FEV in 1 second of 70% is classified as:

A. moderate pulmonary disease
B. severe pulmonary disease
C. normal
D. mild pulmonary disease

125. A sudden movement which causes a startle reaction describes which reflex?
A. Moro C. tonic labyrinthine
B. grasp D. extensor thrust

126. A 45 year old female with breast cancer underwent radical mastectomy. Postoperative, which muscle must be
checked for function:
A. rhomboids C. serratus anterior
B. external oblique D. sternocladomastoid

127. A child with moderate mental retardation has an IQ score of:

A. 55 C. less than 25
B. 40 D. 25-39

128. Possible mechanisms of functional recovery in traumatic brain injury include the following, EXCEPT:
A. synaptic alterations
B. suppression of reticular activating system
C. learning of specific skills
D. resolution of temporary factors

129. By how much is the energy cost of walking increased in patients who have had arthrodesis of one knee?
 A. 40% C. 10%
B. 30% D. 20%

130. An 18 year old mael, athletic type, above knee amputee, a short above knee amputatio n is best fitted with:
A. narrow medial narrow lateral socket
B. quadrilateral with non suction, socket
C. disarticulation/bypass prosthesis
D. quadrilateral with suction socket

131. A patient has positive intrinsic plus contracture of the hand if:
A. the MCP joint is actively extended, the IP joints passively flex
B. the MCP joint is passively flexed, the IP joints cannot be actively extended
C. the MCP joint is actively flexed, the IP joints passively flex
D. the MCP joint is passively extended, the IP joints cannot be actively flexed

132. If a C3 SCI patient is always in supine, which area is most susceptible to pressure:
A. lateral malleolus C. coccyx
B. iliac crest D. greater trochanter

133. When doing diaphragmatic breathing exercises, the patient is instructed to place the hand over the abdomen
for visual cue. As the patient breathes slowly and deeply the abdomen should:
A. Lower C. rise
B. not move D. vibrate

134. The following rehabilitation principles are followed in post anterior cruciate ligament reconstruction,
EXCEPT:
A. incorporation of closed kinematic chain exercises
B. delay of ROM and weight bearing
C. muscle strengthening and conditioning
D. avoiding early open chain exercises

135. This disease is characterized by pes cavus and an inverted ―champagne bottle‖ appearance of the legs:
A. McArdle C. Amyotropjhic lateral sclerosis
B. Charcot Marie Tooth D. Mononeuritis multiplex

136. A 4-year old girl presents with a history of bilateral knee swelling and left ankle swelling. She is febrile with
irregular pupils. She most likely has:
A. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
B. Pauciarticular Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis
C. Still‘s Disease
D. Polyarticular Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis

137. The most common orthopedic complication seen in Down‖s Syndrome is:
A. Kyphosis C. scoliosis
B. Clubfoot D. atlanto-axial instability

138. The Rancho Los Amigos Level of Cognitive Functioning Level corresponds to:
A. confused appropriate C. localized response
 B. confused agitated D. confused inappropriate

139. In comparison with pelvic belt suspension in the above knee prosthesis, suction suspension possesses which
of the following characteristics?
A. residual limb length is important C. cosmesis is inferior
B. there is more pistoning D. all of these

140. A toddler‘s gait differs in this aspect from that of an adult:

A. increase knee flexion during stances C. absence of reciprocal arm swing
B. no push off D. reduce stride width

141. The most common manifestation of osteoarthritis in the feet is :

A. clawing of toes C. forefoot adduction
B. calcaneovarus D. hallux valgus

142. This type of heel of a shoe has the narrowest base:

A. flat heel C. Cuban heel
B. Thomas heel D. military heel

143. The most common spine deformity in Ankylosing Spondylitis is:

A. rotation C. extension
B. flexion D. straight or erect

144. The advantage of the Scott—Craig orthosis over the other AFOs is that it:
A. needs less energy expenditure
B. can be used in high level paraplegics
C. can be easily donned and doffed
D. produces a better walking pattern
145. These low back pain maneuvers are used to test for increased intratheca pressure, EXCEPT: \
A. Braggard‘s C. Valsalva‘s
B. Milgram‘s D. Nafziggers

146. Uphill running is commonly associated with tendinitis of the:

A. popliteal tendon C. adductor tendons
B. tendon of Achilles D. patellar tendon

147. Shoe modifications for pes varus include:

A. medial wedges for a fixed deformity
B. lateral sole and heel wedWes for a flexible deformity
C. all of these
D. long lateral counters and reverse Thomas heel

148. A patient 25-year old female, is diagnosed to have Rheumatoid Arthritis with multiple painful joint
deformities of both wrists and digits. She also complains of ditficulty in ambulation with tendency to fall.
What gait aid will best improve her ambulation?
A. platform crutches
B. axillary crutches
C. Lofstrand crutches
 D. Canadian elbow extensor crutches

149. The following are static splints, EXCEPT:

A. tenodesis splint
B. econdyl wrist support
C. short opponens splints
D. long opponens splint tenodesis splint

150. The central cord syndrome presents with a unique distribution of neurodeficits because these tracts are
located most peripheral in the cord:
A. lumbar and sacral C. cervical and thoracic
B. thoracic and lumbar D. cervical and lumbar

151. This is NOT a component of the CREST syndrome

A. tuberculosis C. sclerodactyly
B. esophageal disease D. calcinosis

152. The following are features of Arthrogryposis Multiplex Congenita, EXCEPT:

A. dislocated hip joints
B. increased skin creases
C. cylindrical extremities
D. joint rigidity

153. All of the following are gait characteristics of a person with Rheumatoid Arthritis, EXCEPT:
A. plartarflexion during swing phase
B. delayed heel rise
C. prolonged single limb stance phase
D. decreased stride length

154. Components of the high risk postural profile in neurologically babies include
A. midline arm movement
B. weightbearing cn heel and sole
C. immobile pelvis and anterior tilt
D. flexed neck

155. On examination of a 6 year old boy5 you noted muscle tight at bath lower extremities. This may indicate:
A. myotonia C. weakness
B. fasciculation D. generalized hypotonia

156. This subtype of Juvenile Rheumatoid Arthritis affects both males and females in equal distribution:
A. systemic C. pauciarticular
B. Still's disease D. polyarticular

157. A Patient is fitted for an AFO with a solid stirrup double action ankle joint. Gait analysis reveals moderate to
severe genu recurvatum with stance phase on the affected side. The most appropriate modification to the
AFO in order to decrease recurvatum with stance phase on the affected side. The most appropriate
modification to the AFO in order to decrease recurvatum is:
A. dorsiflexion assist C. dorsiflexion stop
 B. plantarflexion stop D. dorsiflexion and plantarflexion stops

158. Clinical features of Down's syndrome include the following, EXCEPT:

A. small stature C. mental retardation
B. none of these D. epicanthal folds

159. The following device/s allow elbow motion with minimal motions of shoulder girdle or trunk:
A. mobilearm support C. all of these
B. balanced forearm orthosis D. ball bearing feeder

160. In this type of Multiple Sclerosis, the disease appears clinically quiescent without progressive neurologic
deficit:
A. secondary progressive C. plateaued
B. primary progressive D. relapsing - remitting

161. the lateral cord of the brachial plexus would

A. radial C. ulnar ulnar
B. axillary D. musculocutaneous

162. This test Provides stress to the hip joint:

A. Patrick C. Valsalva
B. gaenslen D. Straight leg raising

163. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include:

A. all of these C. tachycardia,
B. jitteriness D. sweating

164. The are parts of the vamp of a shoe, EXCEPT:

A. ball C. tongue
B. throat D. toe box

165. The child becomes first capable of ―insight‖ at this stage:

A. 14 months C. 12 months
B. 16 months D. 16 months

166. The best time to fit an infant with an upper extremity prosthesis is at the age when:
A. the child can follow simple commands
B. the child can follow two step commands
C. the child can incorporate the prosthesis into his body image
D. there is independent sitting

167. The term TURF TOE includes injuries to the capsulo ligamentous complex of the:
A. first MTP joint C. third MTP joint
B. fifth MTP joint D. second MTP joint

168. A major burn includes the fol lowing, EXCEPT:

A. electrical burns
B. perineum burns
 C. burns with fracture
D. more than 10% body surface area partial thickness burn

169. In Meralgia Paresthetica, there is entrapment of the nerve coming from roots:
A. L4-L5 C. L3-L4
B. L1-L2 D. L2—L3

170. The integrity of the anterior talofibular ligament of the foot is assessed by the:
A. stress Broden view C. anterior drawer test
B. talar tilt test D. posterior ‗drawer test

171. The lumbar vertebrae is composed mainly of this type of bone and is susceptible to trauma and
osteoporosis A. osteophyte C. cancellous
B. cortical D. elastin

172. This test assesses the integrity of the arterial cruciate ligament:
A. drop back C. Lachman
B. gravity D. posterior drawer

173. This disorder is characterized by intermittent and seemingly uncontrollable rapid ingestion of large quantities
of food in a short time:
A. bulimia C. anorexia
B. Kleine-.Levin D. Kluver-Bucy

174. The hallmark of the proliferative phase of wound healing is:

A. contraction
B. epithelialization
C. fibroblastic activity
D. inflammation

175. After total hip replacement, which of the following is correct advice to this
patient? A. use a raised toilet seat
B. none of these
C. slowly bend forward when picking up objects from floor
D. avoid sitting in high and hard chairs

176. The gutter splint is used to control:

A. wrist flexion and extension
B. guttering
C. radial and ulnar deviation
D. MCP flexion and extension

177. The most common cause of the snapping hip syndrome is the popping of the:
A. gluteus minimus C. gluteus medius
B. gluteus maximus D. iliotibial band
178. These reflexes are ilicted by changing the position of the head relative to the body thereby stimulating the
proprioceptors and leading to changes in muscle tone:
A. cortical level reflexes C. spinal level reflexes
B. midbrain level reflexes D. brainstem level reflexes

179. Recurrent shoulder dislocation is considered to be cue to a capsular tear known as:
A. Horner tear C. Codman tear
B. Rhomboid lesion D. Bankart lesion

180. The gait abnormality typical of patients with Rheumatoid Artnritis is termed apropulsive because of:
A. absence of push-off C. excessive push-off
B. excessive heel strike D. absence of heel off

181. This is a syndrome caused by lesions to the thalamus:

A. Kluver Bucy C. Rathke‘s
B. Germmann's D. Dejerine-Roussy

182. These are signs andsymptoms of cerebellar dystunction, EXCEPT:

A. asthenia C. hypertonicity
B. atonia D. dysmetria

183. The recommended splint for median nerve injuries is the:

A. static MCP extension block
B. wet spacer
C. single Wynn—Parry splint
D. long dorsal outrigger

184. Physical activity has been hypothesized to decrease the occurrence and severity of coronary heart disease.
Which of the following does NOT occur as a resting program? ‗ ult of a regular train—
A. increase in serum lipid 1evels
B. increase in RBC mass and blood volume
C. increase in coronary vascularization
D. increase in myocardial efficiency

185. The most common cause of in toeing of gait is:

A. genu valgus
B. genu varum
C. excessive retroversion of femoral neck
D. excessive anteversion of femoral neck

186. This is a developmental disorder of the discs and vertebral end plates in adolescents:
A. Idiopathic Scoliosis C. Schmorls nodes
B. Hunchback syndrome D. Schuermanns‘ disease

187. The Cinema sign which is pain on the knee increased on stair climbing and sitting, and relief on standing is
observed in patients with:
A. patellar subluxation C. patellar dislocation
 B. chondromalacia patella D. osteoarthritis of patella

188. The posterior cerebral stroke presents as:

A. apraxia C. head turning toward lesion
B. aphasia D. visual impairment

189. The purpose/s of a cool down period in any exercise program is/are:
A. all of these
B. to promote dissipation of heat
C. to maintain venous return
D. to prevent cardiovascular injuries

190. A 14-year-old basketball player comes to you because of leg pain. He has point tenderness on the middle
third of the lower leg. Use of the ultrasound worsened the pain. He most likely has:
A. contusion C. stress fracture
B. anterior compartment syndrome D. skin splints

191. The most common cause of lateral knee pain in runners is:
A. iliotibial band friction syndrome
B. posterior cruciate ligament tear
C. lateral retinacular tear
D. lateral meniscus tear

192. The most common deformity of a spastic lower extremity is:

A. equinovarus fool C. equinovalgus foot
B. calcaneovalgus foot D. calcaneovarus foot

193. Primary avascular necrosis of the capital femoral epiphysis is:

A. Congenital Dislocation of the Hip
B. Gaucher‘s
C. Legg Calve Perthes
D. Kienbocks

194. Only this avascular necrosis of the navicular bone of the foot is:
A. Versaces disease C. Kohlers disease
B. Scheurmanns disease D. Freibergs disease

195. In adults, there is normally how many degrees of external tibial torsion?
A. 40 C. 20
B. 10 D. 30

196. The following reflexes have prognosticating value for independent ambulation in children with Cerebral
Palsy, EXCEPT:
A. extensor thrust C. Moro
B. ATNR D. plantar grasp

197. Involvement of this artery results in bilateral but symmetrical corticospinal. signs and cerebellar signs:
A. posterior cerebral artery
 B. internal carotid artery
C. vertebrobasilar artery
D. anterior cerebral artery

198. In the course of recovery from a stroke, most recent studies show that most recovery takes place in the first:
A. 9 months C. 1 month
B. 3 months D. 5 months

199. An enlarging infarction with neurological deficits that increase over a period of 24-48 hours is termed:
A. none of these
B. Completed stroke
C. Reversible Ischemic Neurologic Deficit
D. Stroke in Evolution

200. In primary osteoarthritis, the most frequently affected joint is the:

A. interphalangeal C. hip
B. ankle D. knee

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