INDEX

Sr Chapter Name Pages

No
1 CHAPTER 1 - ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS 2-21

2 CHAPTER 2 - ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE 22-37

3 CHAPTER 3 – CURRENT ELECTRICITY 38-62

4 CHAPER 4 - MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM 63-85

5 CHAPTER 5 - MAGNETISM AND MATTER 86-102

6 CHAPTER 6: ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION 103-117

7 CHAPTER 7: ALTERNATING CURRENT 118-138

8 CHAPTER 8 : ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES 139-145

9 CHAPTER 9: RAY OPTICS 146-176

10 CHAPTER 10: WAVE OPTICS 177-194

11 CHAPTER 11 : DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATION 195-212

12 CHAPTER 12 : ATOMS 213-224

13 CHAPTER 13: NUCLEI 225-236

14 CHAPTER 14 : SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS: MATERIALS, 237-264

DEVICES AND SIMPLE CIRCUITS

15 QUESTION PAPERS, BLUE PRINT AND SOLUTIONS 265

Onwards

1
 CHAPTER 1 - ELECTRIC CHARGES AND FIELDS
GIST OF THE LESSON
 Electric charge

 Basic properties of electric charge

 Coulomb’s law

 Electric field
 Electric field lines
 Electric flux
 Electric dipole
 Dipole in a uniform electric field
 Gauss’s law
 Applications of Gauss’s law

SUMMARY
 Electric Charge: It is the intrinsic property of the elementary particle of matter which
gives rise to electric force between various objects.
 SI Unit of electric charge: coulomb (C)
 Properties of charge:
1. Additive in nature: The total charge on an isolated system is equal to the algebraic
sum of the charges on individual bodies of the system.
2. Conservation of charge: The charge of an isolated system remains constant. Charge
can neither be created nor destroyed in isolation.
3. Quantization of charge: The total charge on a body is the integral multiple of
fundamental charge.
Q = ±ne, where e = 1.6 x 10-19 C
 Bodies can be charged by:
 Friction
 Induction
 Conduction
 Coulomb’s law: It states that the force of interaction between two point charges is
directly proportional to the product of magnitude of charges and inversely
proportional to the square of the distance between them.
𝑘𝑞1 𝑞2
𝐹 = where, k = 9 x 109 Nm2C-2
𝑟2

 Electric field: It is the region or space around the charge within which its electrostatic
force of interaction can be experienced by some other charge.
 Electric field intensity: It is equal to the force experienced by a unit positive charge
placed at that point, without disturbing the position of source charge.

2
 𝐹 𝑘𝑞
𝐸⃗ = 𝑞 = 𝑟 2
𝑜

 SI unit: NC-1
 Electric field lines: It is the path straight of curved in the electric field such that the
tangent at any point to it gives the direction of electric field at that point.
 Properties of electric field lines:
1. The lines of force are continuous curve without any break.
2. The lines of force start at positive charge and end at negative charge.
3. No two electric lines of force intersect each other. Because if they intersect, then at
the point of intersection, there will be two tangents which will denote two different
directions of electric field at single point, which is not possible.

Electric field line due to positive charge Electric field line due to negative charge

Electric field line due to electric dipole Electric field due to two like charges

 Electric Dipole: A system of two equal and opposite charges separated by a small
distance is called electric dipole.
 Electric Dipole moment: It is equal to the product of the magnitude of either charge
and the distance between the charges.
 SI Unit: C-m
⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑝 = q (2𝑎) where, q = magnitude of charge and 2a=length of dipole
-q +q
2a

 Electric field due to electric dipole:

2𝑝𝑟
(a) On axial line: E = 2 2)2
4𝜋𝜖₀(𝑟 −𝑎

3
 𝑝
(b) On equatorial line: E = 2 2)3/2
4𝜋𝜖₀ (𝑟 + 𝑎

 Torque on a dipole in uniform electric field:

Ꞇ = pEsinƟ
⃗ = 𝑝 × 𝐸⃗
In vector form: Ꞇ
 Electric flux: It is equal to the total number of electric field lines passing through the
given surface normally.
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
⃗ ⋅ 𝒅𝑺
ɸ=𝑬
 SI unit: Nm2C-1

 Gauss’s theorem: It states that the total electric flux through a closed surface is 1/ 𝜖 o
times the net charge enclosed by closed surface.

ɸ= ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = q/ 𝜖 o

𝜆
 Electric field due to infinitely long straight wire: E = 2𝜋𝜖₀ r

4
 𝜎
Electric field due to uniformly charged infinite plane sheet: E = 2𝜖₀

 Electric field due to uniformly charged thin spherical shell:

(i) Inside: E=0
𝑞
(ii) At surface: E = 2
4𝜋𝜖₀𝑅
𝑞
(iii) Outside: E = 2
4𝜋𝜖₀𝑟

SECTION – A
(1 MARK - MCQ)
1 Which of the following is not a property of field lines?
(a) Field line are continuous curve (b) Two field lines cannot cross each
other
(c) Field lines start at positive charges (d) They form closed loops
and end at negative charges
2 Gauss’s law is valid for
(a) Any closed surface (b) Only regular closed surfaces
(c) Any open surface (d) Only irregular closed surfaces
3 The electric field due to a uniformly charged sphere of radius R as a function of the
distance from its centre is represented graphically by:

5
 (a) (b)

(c) (d)

4 The electric flux through the surface

(a) In Fig (iv) is the largest (b) In Fig (iii) is the least
(c) In Fig (ii) is same as Fig(iii) but is (d) Is the same for all the figures
smaller than Fig. (iv)
5 An object has charge of 1 C and gains 5.0 x 1018 electrons. The net charge on the object
becomes:
(a) - 0.80 C (b) + 0.80 C
(c) + 1.80 C (d) + 0.20 C
6 The magnitude of electric field due to a point charge 2q, at distance r is E. Then the
magnitude of electric field due to a uniformly charged thin spherical shell of radius R
with total charge q at a distance r/2 (r >>R) will be:
(a) E/4 (b) 0
(c) 2E (d) 4E
7 Four objects W, X, Y & Z, each with charges +q are held fixed at four points of a square
of side d as shown in the figure. Objects X and Z are on the mid points of the sides of
the square. The electrostatic force exerted by object W on object X is F. Then the
magnitude of the force exerted by object W on Z is:

(a) F/7 (b) F/5

(c) F/3 (d) F/2

6
8 Electric charge between two bodies can be produced by:
(a) Sticking (b) Rubbibg
(c) oiling (d) Passing AC current
9 Law stating that “force is directly proportional to product of charges and inversely
proportional to square of the separation between them” is called
(a) Newton’s law (b) Coulomb’s law
(c) Gauss’s law (d) Ohm’s law
10 When a body is charged by conduction, its mass
(a) Remains same (b) Increases
(c) decreases (d) Increases or decreases
11 A hemisphere is uniformly charged positively. The electric field at a point on a
diameter away from the centre is directed:
(a) Perpendicular to the diameter (b) Parallel to the diameter
(c) At an angle tilted towards the (d) At an angle tilted away the diameter
diameter
12 The figure shows electric field lines in which an electric dipole p is placed as shown.
Which of the following statement is correct?

(a) The dipole will not experience any (b) The dipole will experience a force
force towards the right
(c) The dipole will experience a force (d) The dipole will experience a force
towards the left upwards
13 Suppose a closed square loop whose area is 2𝑖̂ − 5𝑗̂ is placed in an electric field of
3𝑙̂ + 2𝐽̂, then what will be the electric flux?
(a) (6𝑙̂ − 10𝐽̂) Vm (b) -4 Vm
(c) 4 Vm (d) Zero
14 Which of the flowing is called as “The number of electric force lines that pass through
a unit region”?
(a) Density (b) Electric flux
(c) Electric field (d) nothing
15 A +q charge is placed in the centre of a cubical box. The total flux coming out of a wall
has a value of:
(a) q/ 6𝜖 o (b) q/ 𝜖 o
(c) 6q/ 𝜖 o (d) q/3 𝜖 o
16 An electron having charge e and mass m is moving in a uniform electric field E. Its
acceleration will be
(a) eE/m (b) eE2/m
(c) e2/m (d) mE/e

7
17 If ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = 0 over a surface, then
(a) The electric field inside the surface (b) The electric field inside the surface
and on it is zero is necessarily uniform
(c) The number of flux lines entering (d) Surface area is zero
the surface must be equal to the
number of flux lines leaving it
18 When the distance between two charged particles is halved, the Coulomb force
between them becomes
(a) One half (b) One forth
(c) double (d) Four times
19 Two charges are at distance d apart in air. Coulomb force between them is F. If a
dielectric material of dielectric constant K is placed between them, the Coulomb force
now becomes:
(a) F/K (b) FK
(c) F/K 2 (d) K2F
20 Three charges +4q, Q and q are placed in a straight line of length l at point at distance
0, l/2 and l respectively. What should be Q in order to make the net force on q to be
zero?
(a) -q (b) -2q
(c) -q/2 (d) 4q
21 Electric dipole moment is
(a) Scalar (b) Vector
(c) Vector directed from -q to +q (d) Vector directed from +q to -q
22 Electric field due to an electric dipole is
(a) Spherically symmetric (b) Cylindrically symmetric
(c) Asymmetric (d) None of these
23 When an electric dipole is held at an angle in uniform electric field, the net force and
torque on dipole is
(a) Force=0, torque=0 (b) Force≠0, torque≠0
(c) Force=0, torque≠0 (d) Force≠0, torque=0
24 The dimensional formula of permittivity of free space is
(a) [M-1L-3T4A2] (b) [ML2T2A]
(c) [M-1L-2T-2A] (d) [M-1L-2T-2A2]
25 Whan a body becomes negatively charged, its mass
(a) decreases (b) Increases
(c) Remains same (d) None of these
Solution of MCQ

Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans
1 d 6 c 11 a 16 a 21 c
2 a 7 b 12 c 17 c 22 b
3 b 8 b 13 b 18 d 23 c
4 d 9 b 14 b 19 a 24 a
5 d 10 d 15 a 20 a 25 b

8
 Assertion and Reason Type Questions
Directions: In each of the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of reason (R). While answering questions, choose the correct one and mark it as
(a) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation
of the assertion (A).
(b) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct
explanation of the assertion (A).
(c) If assertion (A) is true and reason (R) is false.
(d) If both assertion (A) and reason (R) are false/assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is
true.

1(a) Assertion: A metallic shield in the form of a hollow shell may be built to block an
electric field.
Reason: In a hollow spherical shield, the electric field inside it is zero at every point.
2(d) Assertion: The Coulomb force is dominating force in the universe.
Reason: The Coulomb force is weaker than the gravitational force.
3(a) Assertion: Gauss’s law cannot be used to calculate the electric field near an electric
dipole.
Reason: Electric dipole don’t have symmetrical charge distribution.
4(b) Assertion: If a conductor is given charge then no excess inner charge appears.
Reason: Electric field inside the conductor is zero.
5 (c) Assertion: Electrons in an atom are held due to coulomb forces.
Reason: The atom is stable only because centripetal force due to Coulomb’s law is
balanced by centrifugal force.
6 (c) Assertion: A point charge is brought in an electric field. The field at nearby point will
increase, whatever be the nature of the charge.
Reason: The electric field is independent of the nature of charge.
7 (c) Assertion: Net electric field inside a conductor is zero.
Reason: Total positive charge equals to total negative charge in a charged conductor.
8 (b) Assertion: When the inverse square law is not obeyed, Gauss’s law shows deviation.
Reason: The conservation of charges leads to Gauss’s law.
9 (a) Assertion: In a non-uniform electric field, a dipole will have translator as well as
rotatory motion.
Reason: In a non-uniform electric field, a dipole experiences a force as well as torque.
10 (d) Assertion: Electric lines of force cross each other.
Reason: The resultant electric field at a point is the superposition of the electric fields
at that point.
Solution of Assertion and Reason Type

Q.No. Ans Q.No. Ans

1 a 6 c
2 d 7 c
3 a 8 b
4 b 9 a
5 c 10 d

9
 SECTION-B (2 MARKS)
Q1 Two identical conducting balls A and B have charges –Q and +3Q respectively. They are
brought in contact with each other and then separated by a distance d apart. Find the nature
of the Coulomb force between them.

Ans Final charge on balls A and B = (3Q-Q)/2 = Q

The nature of the coulomb force between them is repulsive.
Q2 The sum of two-point charges is 7µC. They repel each other with a force of 1N when kept 30
cm apart in free space. Calculate the value of each charge.
Ans Given, q1+q2 = 7µC = 7 x 10-6 C
Therefore, q2 = 7µC = 7 x 10-6 - q1
F = k q1 q2/r2
9 x 109 𝑥 𝑞1
1=𝑥 = 𝑥 (7 x 10−6 – 𝑞1 )
(0.30)2
q1 = 5 µC and q2 = 2 µC

Q3 Two identical point charges, q each, are kept 2 m apart in air. A third point charge Q of
unknown magnitude and sign is placed on the line joining the charges such that the system
remains in equilibrium. Find the position and nature of charge Q.

Ans System is in equilibrium, therefore net force on each charge of system will be zero.
𝑞𝑄 𝑞𝑄
2 =
4𝜋𝜖₀ 𝑥 4𝜋𝜖₀ (2−𝑥)2
X =1m
Q4 Derive an expression for the torque acting on an electric dipole, when it is held in a uniform
electric field. Identify the orientation of the dipole in the electric field, in which it attains a
stable equilibrium.
Ans

10
 An electric dipole AB consisting of charge +1 and –q and of length 2a is placed in uniform
electric field E making an angle Ɵ with the direction of electric field.
Force acting of -q = -qE
Force acting of +q = +qE
Net force = -qE + qE = 0
Torque = force x perpendicular distance
Torque = qE x 2asin Ɵ
= pEsin Ɵ
Q5 How many electronic charges form a charge of one coulomb?
Ans Here, q = 1 C
e = 1.6 x 10-19 C
according to quantization of charge, q = ne
q 1
n = ⅇ = 1.6 x 10−19 = 6.25 x 1018 electrons

Q6 Two-point charges each of 1C separated by 1 m distance experiences a force of 9 x 109 𝑁.

How much force is experience by them if they are immersed in water, keeping the distance
of separation between them same? Dielectric constant of water = 80.
𝐹
Ans Dielectric constant = K = 𝐹
𝑚
109
Therefore, Fm = F/K = 9 x = 1.125 x 108 N
80
Q7 How much electric field strength is required to just support a water drop of mass 0.001 kg
and having a charge 1.6 x 10-19 C?
Ans Given, m = 0.001 kg, q = 1.6 x 10-19 C
Force on drop due to electric field = weight of drop
qE = mg
0.001 𝑥 9.8
E = mg/q = 1.6 x 10−19 = 6.125 x 1016 NC-1
Q8 Two-point electric charges of unknown magnitude and sign are separated by distance d. The
electric field intensity is zero at a point not between two charges but on the line joining them.
Write the essential condition for this to happen.
Ans (i) The two charges must have opposite signs.
(ii) The magnitude of the charge lying near the point of zero electric field intensity must
be smaller than the magnitude of other charge.
Q9 A system has two charge q1=2.5 x 10-7 C and q2 = -2.5 x 10-7 C located a points A(0,0,-15) cm
and B (0,0,+15) cm respectively. Find the total charge and electric dipole moment of the
system.
Ans Total charge = q1 + q2 = 2.5 x 10-7 + (-2.5 x 10-7 ) = 0
Distance between two charges = 2a = 15+ 15 = 30 cm = 0.30 m
Electric dipole moment = q(2a) = 2.5 x 10-7 x 0.30 = 7.5 x 10-8 Cm
Direction of electric dipole moment is B to A.
Q10 Two-point charges +q and -q are placed at a distance d apart. Draw the lines on which the
resultant field is parallel to the line joining the two charges.
Ans

11
Q11 A spherical gaussian surface encloses a charge of 8.85 x 10-8 C.
(i) Calculate the electric flux passing through the surface.
(ii) If the radius of the Gaussian surface is doubled, how would the flux changes?
Ans (i) Electric flux = q/ 𝜖 o = 8.85 x 10-8/8.85 x 10-12 = 104 Nm2C-1
(ii) When the radius will be doubled, the charge enclosed in the surface will remain
constant. Therefore, the flux will remain same.
Q12 An electric flux of -3 x 10-14 Nm2C-1 passes through a spherical Gaussian surface is caused by
a point charge. Compute the point charge’s value.
Ans Electric flux = q/ 𝜖 o
q = (electric flux) x 𝜖 o = (-3 x 10-14) x 8.85 x 10-12 = - 2.655 x 10-25 C
Q13 Why can’t you compute the field of a cube using Gauss’ law?
Ans Because the electric field of a cube fluctuates along any segment of the Gaussian surface,
Gauss law cannot be used to calculate its field. In this case, Gauss’ law is applied to all closed
surface of any shape. Furthermore, when the charge distribution is symmetrical, the validity
of this law is determined.
Q14 On which factors does the electric flux through a closed Gaussian surface depend upon?
Ans (i) Net charge enclosed by the surface.
(ii) The permittivity of the medium.
Q15 Consider the electric field 𝐸⃗ = 6𝑙̂ + 2𝐽̂ + 𝑘̂, calculate the electric flux through a surface of
area 20 units in Y-Z plane.
Ans Given,
𝐸⃗ = 6𝑙̂ + 2𝐽̂ + 𝑘̂
𝑑𝑆 = 20 𝑙̂
electric flux = 𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑠 = 120 units
SECTION-C (3 MARKS)

Q1 If a body gives out 109 electrons every second, how much time is required to get
a total charge of 1 C from it?
Ans Given, number of electrons per second = 109
Suppose ‘t’ is the time taken to get charge of 1 C, then total number of electrons
in time ‘t’ will be = (n) = 109 x t
Total charge = 1 = ne = 109 x t x 1.6 x 10-19
Therefore, t = 1/(109 x 1.6 x 10-19) = 6.25 x 109 sec or 198.18 years.
Q2 Two identical spheres, having charges of opposite sign attract each other with a
force of 0.180 N when separated by 0.5 m. The spheres are connected by
conducting wire, which then removed, and thereafter they repel each other with
a force of 0.036 N. What were initial charges on the spheres.
Ans Suppose, initial charges are q1 and q2.
Given force between charges, F=0.108 N
Distance, d = 0.5 m
𝑘𝑞 𝑞
Force of interaction between two charges, F = 𝑟12 2
Therefore, q1q2 =Fr2/k = 0.108x(0.5)2/(9X109) = 3 x 10-12 ---------- (i)

When spheres are connected with conducting wire, charge on each sphere will
be
Q=( q1 + q2)/2 -------(ii)

12
 Then the force will be 0.036N.
Q2 = Fr2/k = 0.036 x(0.5)2/(9X109) = 3 x 10-12 -------- (iii)
From eq. (i), (ii) & (iii)
q1 = 3 x 10-6 C and q2 = 1 x 10-6 C

Q3 Derive an expression for electric field intensity at any point on the equatorial line
of dipole.
Ans

Consider an electric dipole consisting of two charges -q and +q at points A and B

separated by distance 2a. Let P be a point at a distance ‘r’ from the centre of
dipole ‘O’.
Electric field at point P, due to +q,
𝑘𝑞
𝐸⃗ 1 = 𝐵𝑃2 along BP

Components of E1:
𝑘𝑞
Along BA = 𝐵𝑃2 cosƟ
𝑘𝑞
Along OP = 𝐵𝑃2 sinƟ

Electric field at point P, due to -q,

𝑘𝑞
𝐸⃗ 2 = 𝐴𝑃2 along PA

Components of E2:
𝑘𝑞
Along BA = 𝐵𝑃2 cosƟ
𝑘𝑞
Along PO = 𝐵𝑃2 sinƟ
𝑘𝑞
Therefore, net electric field along BA=Ex = 2 x 𝐵𝑃2 cosƟ
𝑘𝑞 𝑘𝑞
net electric field along OP=Ey = ( 𝐵𝑃2 sinƟ) – ( 𝐵𝑃2 sinƟ) = 0
𝑘𝑞 1 1 1
Therefore, net electric field E=Ex = 2 x 𝐵𝑃2 cosƟ = 2 x 4𝜋∈₀ x (𝑟 2 + 𝑎2 )2 x √𝑟 2
+𝑎2

1 𝑝
E = 4𝜋∈₀ x 3
(𝑟 2 + 𝑎2 )2

13
Q4 Derive an expression for electric field intensity due infinitely long charged wire.
Ans

Consider an infinitely long charged wire having linear charge density λ.

Electric field intensity is to be determined at a distance r from the wire.
To apply Gauss’ theorem, imagine a hypothetical cylindrical Gaussian surface
having radius ‘r’ and length ‘l’ as shown in figure.
The charge enclosed by the cylinder, q = λ l
According to Gauss’s theorem, ɸ = ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = q/ 𝜖 o = λ l / 𝜖 o

∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = ∫𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑠 + ∫ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑠 + ∫ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑠 = q/ 𝜖 o = λ l / 𝜖 o
𝐼 𝐼𝐼 𝐼𝐼𝐼

∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = ∫𝐼 𝐸𝑑𝑆𝑐𝑜𝑠0 + ∫𝐼𝐼 𝐸𝑑𝑆𝑐𝑜𝑠90 + ∫𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝐸𝑑𝑆𝑐𝑜𝑠90 = q/ 𝜖 o = λ l / 𝜖 o

E(2πrl) = λ l / 𝜖 o
E = λ / (2π𝜖 o r) ---------------- (Derived)

Q5 Derive an expression for electric field intensity due to thin infinite plane sheet of
charges.
Ans

Consider a thin infinite plane sheet having charge density 𝜎.

Electric field intensity is to be determined at a distance r from the sheet.
To apply Gauss’ theorem, imagine a hypothetical cylindrical Gaussian surface
having cross-sectional area S and length 2r piercing the sheet as shown in figure.
The charge enclosed by the cylinder, q = 𝜎 A
According to Gauss’s theorem, ɸ = ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = q/ 𝜖 o = 𝜎 S / 𝜖 o

∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = ∫𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑠 + ∫ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑠 + ∫ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑠 = q/ 𝜖 o = 𝜎 S / 𝜖 o
𝐼 𝐼𝐼 𝐼𝐼𝐼

∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = ∫𝐼 𝐸𝑑𝑆𝑐𝑜𝑠0 + ∫𝐼𝐼 𝐸𝑑𝑆𝑐𝑜𝑠0 + ∫𝐼𝐼𝐼 𝐸𝑑𝑆𝑐𝑜𝑠90 = q/ 𝜖 o = 𝜎 S / 𝜖 o

ES+ES = 2ES = 𝜎 S / 𝜖 o

14
 E = 𝜎 / 2𝜖 o ----------(Derived)
Q6 A spherical conducting shell of inner radius r1 and outer radius r2 has a charge ‘Q’.
A charge q is placed at the centre of shell.
(i) What is the surface charge density on the (a) inner surface (ii) outer
surface of cell?
(ii) Write an expression for electric field at a point x >r2 from centre of the
shell.

The charge +q at centre of shell induces charge -q on the inner surface of shell
and charge +q on the outer surface of shell.
𝑞
(i) (a) surface charge density on inner surface = 4𝜋𝑟12
𝑄+𝑞
(b) surface charge density on outer surface = 4𝜋𝑟22
𝑞+𝑄
(ii) electric field at a point x>r2 = 4𝜋𝜖𝑜 𝑥 2
Q7 𝐹
The electric field E due to any point charge near it is defined as E= lim ( ) where
𝑞→0 𝑞
q is the test charge and F is the force acting on it. What is the physical significance
of lim in this expression? Draw the electric field lines of point charge Q when
𝑞→0
(i) Q>0 and (ii) Q<0.
Ans 𝐹
The physical significance of lim in the definition of electric field E = lim (𝑞 )
𝑞→0 𝑞→0
The point test charge q produces its own electric field; hence it will modify the
electric field strength to be measured. Therefore, the test charge used to measure
the electric field must be too small.
The electric lines of force are shown in figure below.

Q8 (a) An infinitely long positively charged straight wire has a liner charge density
λ Cm-1. An electron is revolving around the wire as its centre with constant
velocity in a circular lane perpendicular to the wire. Deduce the expression
for its kinetic energy.

15
 (b) Plot a graph of kinetic energy as a function of charge density λ.
Ans Electric field due to infinitely long charged wire,
E = λ / (2π𝜖 o r)
The revolving electron experiences an electrostatic force and provides necessary
centripetal force.
eE = mv2/r
eλ / (2π𝜖 o r) = mv2/r
Kinetic energy = mv2/2 = eλ / (4π𝜖 o r)

Q9 Two large charged place sheets of charge densities 𝜎 and -2 𝜎 C/m2 are arranged
vertically with a separation of d between them. Deduce expressions for the
electric field at points.
(i) To the left of the first sheet
(ii) To the right of the second sheet
(iii) Between the two sheets
Ans

σ
Electric field due to sheet A, E1 =2𝜖₀
−σ
Electric field due to sheet B, E2 = 𝜖₀

The electric field in the region left of first sheet

EI = E1 - E2
σ σ −σ
EI = 2𝜖₀ − 𝜖₀ = 𝜖₀ -------------- towards right

The electric field in the region right of the second sheets

EI = E1 + E2
σ σ 3σ
EI = 2𝜖₀ + 𝜖₀ = 2𝜖₀ -------------- towards right

16
 The electric field in the region between the sheets
EI = E2 – E1
σ σ σ
EI = 𝜖₀ − 2𝜖₀ = 2𝜖₀ -------------- towards left

Q10 A point charge q is at a distance of d/2directly above the centre of a square of

side d as shown in fig. Use Gauss’s law to obtain the expression for electric flux
through square. If the point charge is now moved a distance d from the centre of
the square and the side of square is doubled, then how the electric flux will be
affected?

Ans According to Gauss’s law, total electric flux through the cube,
ɸE = q/ 𝜖 o
Therefore, flux through each of six faces of square = ɸE/6 = q/ 6𝜖 o
When the charge is moved to a distance d and the side of the square ids doubled,
then the side of the imaginary cube will be 2d, however the charge enclosed
remains the same. Hence, the total flux through the cube and therefore the flux
through the square remains same as before.

SECTION-D (5 MARKS)

Q1 (i) State Gauss’s law.

(ii) Derive expression for electric field due to uniformly charged thin
spherical shell:
(a) At point inside the shell
(b) At the surface of shell
(c) At the point outside the shell
(iii) Plot the graph showing the various of electric field with distance.
Ans It states that the total electric flux through a closed surface is 1/ 𝜖 o
times the net charge enclosed by closed surface.
⃗⃗⃗⃗ = q/ 𝜖 o
ɸ= ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑆

Consider a think spherical shell of radius R and charge q is uniformly distributed

over the surface of shell. Let P is at a distance ‘r’ from centre of the shell.

17
 (i) Inside the shell, r<R
According to Gauss’s law
⃗⃗⃗⃗ = q/ 𝜖 o
ɸ= ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑆

ɸ= ∫ 𝐸𝑑𝑆 𝑐𝑜𝑠0 = 0
therefore, E=0

(ii) At the surface of the shell, r=R

According to Gauss’s law
ɸ= ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑆 = q/ 𝜖 o

ɸ= ∫ 𝐸𝑑𝑆 𝑐𝑜𝑠0 = q/ 𝜖 o
therefore, E x 4πR2 = q/ 𝜖 o
E = q/ 4𝜋𝜖 oR2

(iii) At the point outside the shell, r>R

According to Gauss’s law
⃗⃗⃗⃗ = q/ 𝜖 o
ɸ= ∮ 𝐸⃗ ⋅ 𝑑𝑆

ɸ= ∫ 𝐸𝑑𝑆 𝑐𝑜𝑠0 = q/ 𝜖 o
therefore, E x 4πr2 = q/ 𝜖 o
E = q/ 4𝜋𝜖 or2

18
Q2 (i) Define electric flux and write its SI unit.
(ii) Electric field in fig given below is directed along +X-direction and given by
Ex=5Ax + B, where E is in NC-1 and x in metre. A and B are constants with
dimensions. Taking A=10 NC-1m-1 and B = 5 NC-1. Calculate
a) The electric flux through the cube
b) Net charge enclosed in cube

Ans (i) Electric flux: It is equal to the total number of electric field lines passing
through the given surface normally.

ɸ = ⃗𝑬 ⋅ ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝒅𝑺
SI unit: Nm2C-1
(ii) The electric field is acting only in X-direction and its Y and Z
components are zero. So, the flux passes only through faces (1) and
(2).
Magnitude of electric field at face(1), (x=0)

19
 E1 = 5Ax + 2B = (5 x 10 x 0) + (2 x 5) = 10 NC-1
Flux, ɸ1 = E1l2cosƟ = 10 x (0.10)2 x cos180o
ɸ1 = -0.1 Nm2C-1

Magnitude of electric field at face(2), (x=10 cm)

E1 = 5Ax + 2B = (5 x 10 x 0.1) + (2 x 5) = 15 NC-1
Flux, ɸ2 = E2l2cosƟ = 15 x (0.10)2 x cos0o
ɸ1 = 0.15 Nm2C-1

Net flux though the cube, ɸC = ɸ1 + ɸ2 = 0.05 Nm2C-1

Total charge enclosed with in cube= ϵ₀ɸC = 4.43 x 10-13 C
SECTION-E
CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION (4 marks)

1 ELECTRIC DIPOLE
An electric dipole is the separation of opposite sign charges (usually by a very small distance),
typically introduced by a simple case of two charges, both with equal magnitude but opposite
charge.
Electric dipoles are common in nature, so the analysis of them has many practical applications.
Dipoles are usually found in molecular structures caused by non-uniform charge distribution
of protons and electrons, and are used to find the polarity of a system which is useful in
understanding many chemical phenomena such as the normal force (the reason we don't fall
through objects), surface tension, solubility, and melting/boiling points.
The electric field of an electric dipole can be constructed as a vector sum of the point charge
fields of the two charges:

(i) What is electric dipole moment?

Ans: It is equal to the product of either charge and the distance between the two
charges.
(ii) Write the SI unit of electric dipole moment.

20
 Ans: Coulomb-metre (C-m)
(iii) Depict the orientation of the dipole in (a) stable, (b) unstable equilibrium in a
uniform electric field.
Ans:

GAUSS’S LAW

The total of the electric flux out of a closed surface is equal to the charge enclosed divided by
the permittivity.

The electric flux through an area is defined as the electric field multiplied by the area of the
surface projected in a plane perpendicular to the field. Gauss's Law is a general law applying
to any closed surface. It is an important tool since it permits the assessment of the amount
of enclosed charge by mapping the field on a surface outside the charge distribution. For
geometries of sufficient symmetry, it simplifies the calculation of the electric field.
Another way of visualizing this is to consider a probe of area A which can measure the electric
field perpendicular to that area. If it picks any closed surface and steps over that surface,
measuring the perpendicular field times its area, it will obtain a measure of the net electric
charge within the surface, no matter how that internal charge is configured.

(i) Define electric flux?

Ans: The number of electric lines of force (or electric field lines) that intersect a given
area normally.

(ii) Write the SI unit of electric flux.

Ans: Nm2C-1
(iii) A spherical rubber balloon carries a charge that is uniformly distributed over its
surface. As balloon is blown up and increases in size, how does the total electric flux
coming out of the surface change? Give reason.
Ans: Since, flux = q/ϵo As charge remains unchanged when size of balloon increases,
electric flux through the surface remains unchanged.

21
 CHAPTER 2 - ELECTRIC POTENTIAL AND CAPACITANCE
GIST OF THE LESSON
 Electric potential & potential difference

 Electric potential due to a point charge, a dipole and systemof charges

 Equipotential surface

 Electrical potential energy of a system of two-point charges and of

electric dipole in an electrostatic field.
 Conductors and insulators, free charges and bound charges inside a conductor.
 Dielectrics and electric polarization,
 Capacitors and capacitance,
 Combination of capacitors in series and in parallel,
 Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor with and without dielectric
medium between theplates,
 Energy stored in a capacitor (no derivation, formulae only).
SUMMARY
 Electrostatic Potential: Work done per unit positive Test charge to move it from
infinity to that point in an electric field. It is a scalar. SI unit: J/C or V 𝑉 = 𝑊/q0
 Electric potential at a distance ‘r’ from a point charge Q
V(r) = Q/4πϵ0 r
 Definition of 1 Volt: The electrostatic potential at any point in an electric field is said to
be one volt when one joule of work is done in bringing one-unit charge from infinity to
that point.
V = W/q, 1V = 1J/1C
 Relation between Electric field intensity & Potential: The electric field intensity at any
point is the negative gradient potential at that point.
E = - dV/dr
 Work done 𝑊 = 𝑞∆𝑉= 𝑞 (VA − V B )
 Potential energy of two point charges Q1 and Q2 separated by a distance r:
U = k Q1Q2/r
 Potential energy of an electric dipole of dipole moment p kept in a uniform electric field
E is: U = −𝑝. 𝐸
Stable equilibrium: dipole parallel to electric field, θ = 00
Unstable equilibrium: dipole anti parallel to electric field, θ = 1800

 Equipotential surfaces: The surfaces on which the potential is same at every point.

22
 Properties of equipotential surface:
 Work done in moving a charge between any two points on an equipotential surface is
zero
 The field lines are normal to the equipotential surface
 No two equipotential surfaces intersect.
 Equipotential surfaces are closer where electric field is stronger.

 Electrostatics of conductors
1. Inside a conductor Electrostatic field is zero
2. On the surface E is always Normal to the surface
3. No excess charge resides inside the conductor
4. Charge distribution on the surface is uniform if the surface is smooth
5. Electric field is zero in the cavity of hollow conductor and potential remains
constant which is equal to that on the surface.

23
 Capacitance: Ability to store charge. Mathematically, it is the ratio of charge stored to
potential applied. It is a scalar quantity. S I unit is Farad.
 Capacitance is said to be 1Farad when a charge of 1C increases the potential difference
between the plates by 1 Volt.
 Parallel plate capacitor

 Parallel plate capacitor with dielectric

24
 Grouping of capacitors

25
  Energy stored in a capacitor

U = ½ CV2 = Q2/2C

MCQs
1. The variation potential V with r & electric field E with r for a point charge is
correctly shown in the graphs

2. Capacitance of a parallel plate capacitor can be increased by

(a) Increasing the distance between the plates
(b) Decreasing the distance between the plates
(c) Decreasing the area of plates
(d) Increasing the thickness of the plates
3. A capacitor of capacitance C has a charge Q and stored energy W. If the charge
is increased to 2Q, the stored energy will be
(a) W/2 (b) 4W (c) 2W (d) W
4. A battery is used to charge a capacitor till the potential difference between the
plates become equal to the emf (V) of the battery. The ratio of the energy stored
in the capacitor to the work done by the battery will be
(a) ½ (b) 2 (c) ¼ (d) 4

26
 5. The electric potential V at any point (x,y,z) in space is given by V = 3x2 where x,y,z are
all in metre. The electric field at the point (1m,0,2m) is
(a) 6V/m along -x axis
(b) 6V/m along +x axis
(c) 1.5V/m along -x axis
(d) 1.5V/m along +x axis
6. A parallel plate capacitor with oil in between the plates (dielectric constant of oil is
2) has a capacitance ‘C’. If the oil is removed, what will be the new capacitance
(a) C/√2 (b) C/2 (c)2𝐶 (d) √ 2 𝐶

7. Energy stored in a capacitor is given by

(a) U = ½ C2V (b) U = ½ CV2 (c) U = CV2 (d) 2CV2
8. In series combination of capacitors, potential drops across the individual
capacitors is

a) inverse ratio of charges stored b) direct ratio of capacitors

c) inverse ratio of capacitors d) none of these

9. The electric field between the plates of a fully charged capacitor is E. If a
material of dielectric constant K is introduced between the plates, the electric
field at a point between the plates

a) becomes zero b) remains unchanged

c) becomes E/K d) becomes EK

10. Three condensers of capacity 2 μF, 4 μF and 8 μF respectively, are first

connected in series and then connected in parallel. The ratio of the equivalent
capacitance in the two cases will be
(a) 7 : 3 (b) 3 : 7
(c) 49 : 4 (d) 4 : 49

SHORT ANSWER TYPE(2MARKS)

1. Write the expression for the potential energy of an electric dipole in an external electric
field. Hence write the conditions for stable and unstable equilibrium.
2. A regular hexagon of side 10cm has charge 5ηC at all vertices. Calculate the potential
at the centre.

27
3. Find the charge on the 6 ηF capacitor shown in the figure.

4. A capacitor of unknown capacitance is connected across a battery of V volts. The charge

stored in it is 360 ηC. When the potential is reduced by 120V, the charge stored in it
becomes 120 ηC. Calculate the potential V and capacitance C.
5.
(i) Two circular metal plates, each of radius 10cm are kept parallel to each other
at a distance of 1mm. What kind of capacitor do they make?
(ii) If the radius of each of the plates is increased by a factor of √2 and distance of
separation reduced to half, calculate the ratio of capacitance in both case

6. Find the ratio of the potential differences that must be applied across the parallel and
series combination of two identical capacitors so that energy stored, in two cases,
becomes the same.
7. A parallel plate capacitor having plate area 100cm2 and separation 1.0mm holds a
charge of 0.12ηC when connected to a 120V battery. Find the value of dielectric
constant of material filling the gap.
8. A capacitor 200 pF is charged by a 300V battery. The battery is disconnected and the
charged capacitor is connected to another uncharged capacitor 100pF. Calculate the
difference in the final and initial energy stored.
9. The space between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor is completely filled in two
ways. In the first case, it is filled with a slab of dielectric constant K. In the second case,
it is filled with two slabs of equal thickness and dielectric constants K1 and K2
respectively as shown in the figure. The capacitance of the capacitor is same in the
two cases. Obtain the relationship between, K, K1 and K2

10. What is the total potential energy of the configuration shown here?
-Q

2d 2d 2d

+Q d +Q

28
SHORT ANSWER TYPE(3MARKS)
1. A parallel plate is charged by a battery. When the battery remains connected, a
dielectric slab is inserted in the space between the plates. Explain what changes if any,
occur in the values of
(a) its capacitance
(b) electric field between the plates and energy stored in the capacitor be affected?
Justify your answer giving necessary mathematical expression for each case.
2. A parallel plate capacitor is charged by a battery to a potential. The battery is
disconnected and a dielectric slab is inserted to completely fill the space between
the plates. How will
(a) its capacitance
(b) electric field between the plates and energy stored in the capacitor be affected? Justify
your answer giving necessary mathematical expression for each case.
3. In the figure given below, find the equivalent capacitance between A and B

C1 = C5 = 8µF, C2 = C3 = C4 = 4 µF
(i) Calculate effective capacitance between A and B
(ii) Maximum charge supplied by the source
(iii) The energy stored in the network
4. Two point charges +Q1 and -Q2 are placed at a distance ‘r’ apart. Obtain the expression
for the amount of work done to place a third charge Q3 at the midpoint of the line joining
the two.
5. Calculate the work done to dissociate the system of three charges placed at the vertices
of a triangle as shown. Given: q = 1.6 x 10-10 C
q

10cm 10cm

-4q 2q
10cm
6. The variation of potential with distance from a fixed point is as shown in the figure. What
is the electric field at (i) x = 8m (ii) x = 14m?

29
7. A graph showing variation between two physical quantities ‘x’ with ‘r’, where ‘r’ is the
distance from the center of a charged conducting sphere.
(i) Name the physical quantity ‘x’
(ii) What does the distance ‘OB’ represent?
(iii) At what point the electric field of this conducting sphere (a) minimum (b)
maximum? Write the values

8. What should be the charge on a sphere of radius 4cm, so that when it is brought in contact
with another sphere of radius 2cm carrying a charge of 10ηC? there is no transfer of
charge from one to another.
9. Figure shows a parallel plate capacitor of charge densities +σ and – σ. A dielectric slab
of constant K and a conducting slab both are of thickness ‘d’ are inserted in between
the plates.

Find the potential difference between the plates. Plot the graph between the E and x
taking x=0 at +ve plate and x = 5d at -ve plate.
10.
(a) Two isolated metal spheres A and B have radii R and 2R respectively and same
charge q. Find which of the two spheres has greater (i) capacitance (ii) energy
density just outside the spheres.
(b) Concentric equipotential surfaces due to a point charge at the centre are shown.
Identify the polarity of the charge and draw the field lines.

30
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. Explain briefly the process of charging a parallel plate capacitor when it is connected
across DC battery. A capacitor of capacitance ‘C’ is charged to ‘V’ volts by a battery.
After sometime battery is disconnected and distance is doubled. Now a dielectric slab
of constant, 1 < K < 2, is introduced to fill the gap between the plates. How will the
following get have affected?
(i) the electric field between the plates
(ii) the energy stored in the capacitor. Justify your answer by writing necessary
expressions.

2. Two identical parallel plate capacitors A and B are connected to a battery V volt
with a switch ‘S’ closed. The switch is now opened and the free space between the
plates of the capacitor is filled with a medium of dielectric constant K. Find the ratio of
the total energy stored in both capacitors before and after the introduction of the
dielectric.

3.
(a) Does the capacitance C of a capacitor increase, decrease or remain same when (i)
the charge on it is tripled (ii) the potential difference across the plates is halved?
Justify your answer.
(b) Two metal spheres A and B of radius ‘r’ and ‘2r’ whose Centre are separated by a
distance ‘6r’ are given charges Q each and are potential V1 and V2 respectively.
Find the ratio of V1 to V2.
(c) If the spheres are now connected by a wire, what amount of charge will flow through
the wire?

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1. A dielectric slab is a substance that does not allow the flow of charges through it
but permits them to exert electrostatic forces on one another.
When a dielectric slab is placed between the plates, the field Eo polarises the
dielectric. This induces charge -Qp on the upper surface and + Qp on the lower
surface of the dielectric. These induced charges set up a field Ep inside the dielectric
in the opposite direction of external field E.

31
 (i) In a parallel plate capacitor, the capacitance increases from 4ηF to 80ηF on
introducing a dielectric medium between the plates. What is the dielectric
constant of the medium?
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) 50 (d) 80
(ii) A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8
pF. The separation between the plates is now reduced by half and the space
between them is filled with a medium of dielectric constant 5.
Calculate the value of capacitance of the capacitor in the second case.
(a) 20 pF (b) 40 pF (c) 60 pF (d) 80 pF
(iii) A dielectric introduced between the plates of a parallel plate capacitor with
battery remain connected
(a) decreases potential difference between the plates
(b)decreases the electric field between the plates
(c) increases the charge on the plates
(d) all the above
(iv) A parallel plate capacitor of capacitance 1 pF has separation between the
plates d. When the distance of separation becomes 2d and wax of dielectric
constant x is inserted in it the capacitance becomes 2 pF. What is the value of
x?
(a) 2 (b)8 (c) 4 (d) 1

2. The surface on which all points have the same potential is called the equipotential
surface. On the equipotential surface, to move a charge from one point to another, no
work is required.
Equipotential Points: The same electric potential points on the electric field are called
equipotential points.
The line or curve connecting the points is known as an equipotential line.
The surface on which the point lies is called the equipotential surface. The volume in
which the points are filled is known as an equipotential volume.

In an equipotential surface, if a point charge is said to move from point VA to

VB, then the work done in moving the charge is given by,
W = q0 (VA –VB)
As VA – VB is said to be zero and the total work done, W = 0.

32
 (i) Which of the above figures represent uniform electric field?
(a) fig (a) only (b) fig (a & c) (c) fig (b & d) (d) all the above
(ii) A charge +Q is moved from point A to point B. Choose the correct statement:
(a)
Work done in fig(d) is the least
(b) Work done in fig (a) is greater than that in other cases
(c) Work done in fig (a) & (c) are equal but greater than that in fig (b & d)
(d) Work done in all three cases is equal
(iii) A charge -3ηC is taken from a point P to point Q where potential difference is
2.4V. Calculate the work done
(a) 0 J (b) 7.2 J (c) – 7.2 J (d) -7.2 ηJ
(iv) Suppose a charge +20 ηC is trapped at the Centre of a uniformly charged
conducting sphere of radius 5cm and surface charge density 15 ηC/cm2. What
is the work done required to move the 20 ηC to the surface?
(a) 100 ηJ (b) 300 ηJ (c) Zero (d) 25 ηJ

ASSERTIONS AND REASONS

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion (A) and
Reason (R). While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C) A is true but R is false.
D) A is false and R is also false.

1. ASSERTION - For a uniform electric field E along the x -axis, the

equipotential surfaces are planes parallel to the y-z plane.
REASON - Electric field is in the direction in which the potential increases.
2. ASSERTION - Work done in moving a charge between any two points in an electric field
is independent of the path followed by the charge, between these points.
REASON - Electrostatic force is a non-conservative force.
3. ASSERTION - If the distance between parallel plates of a capacitor is halved and dielectric
constant is three times, then the capacitance becomes 6 times.
REASON - Capacity of the capacitor does not depend upon the nature of the material.

33
 4. ASSERTION - A non-polar molecule is one in which the centers of positive and negative
charges are separated.
REASON - Non polar molecules have a permanent dipole moment.
5. ASSERTION - When a dielectric is inserted between the plates of a capacitor, capacitance
increases.
REASON - The dielectric is polarized by the field.
6. ASSERTION - A capacitor with large capacitance can hold large amount of charge Q at a
relatively.
REASON - The charge of the capacitor leaks away due to the reduction in insulating
power of the intervening medium.
7. ASSERTION - When capacitors are connected in series net capacitance decreases.
REASON - In series combination, charges on the two plates are the same on each
capacitor.
8. ASSERTION - The total charge stored in a capacitor is zero.
REASON - The field just outside the capacitor is σ/ε0 . (σ is the charge density).
9. ASSERTION - Two equipotential surfaces cannot cut each other.
REASON - Two equipotential surfaces are parallel to each other.
10. ASSERTION - Electric field inside a conductor is zero.
REASON - The potential at all the points inside a conductor is same.

Answers of Assertion Reason

1. C 2. C 3. C 4. D
5. A 6. B 7. C 8. C
9. C 10. B

MCQs ANSWERS
1. (b) E is proportional to 1/r2 , V is proportional to 1/r

2. (b) C = ϵ0A/d

3. (d) 4W U = Q2/2C

4. (a) ½.
If V is the emf of the battery, Work done = QV = CV2. The energy stored = ½ CV2
5. (a) 6V/m along -x axis
Electric potential V = 3x2
E = −dV/dx E =
−6x
At the point (1,0,2)
Electric field E = 6 × 1 = −6V/m

34
6. (b) C/2

7. (b) 1/2 CV2

8. (c )

9. ( c )

10. ( d)

SHORT ANSWER TYPE (2 MARKS) ANSWER

1. U = - pE cos θ
For stable equilibrium, θ = 0
For unstable equilibrium, θ = 180

2. Potential V = 6 k q/r = 2.7x106 V

3. Current through the circuit I = 2/(6+10) = 1/8 A

Voltage across 6Ω resistor, V’= IR = 6/8 V

Charge on the capacitor, Q = CV’ = 4.5 μC
4. Parallel plate capacitor (ii) 𝑟′ = √2r. 𝐴′ = 2𝐴. 𝐵𝑢𝑡 𝑑′ = 𝑑/2. 𝑆𝑜 𝐶′ = 4𝐶.
∴ 𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜, 𝐶/𝐶′ = ¼
5. Work done = - ( PE)
𝑊 = 𝑘 (𝑞1𝑞2 + 𝑞1𝑞3 + 𝑞2𝑞3)/𝑟

6. Substituting, W = 2.3 x 10-8 J

For identical capacitors: 𝐶𝑠 = 𝐶/2; 𝐶𝑝 = 2𝐶

𝑈𝑠 = 𝑈𝑝, 1/2𝐶𝑠𝑉𝑠2 = 1/2𝐶𝑝𝑉𝑝2.
∴ 𝑉𝑝/𝑉𝑠 = ½

7. 𝐶 =𝑄/𝑉 =10-9 𝐹. 𝐹𝑟𝑜𝑚 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑓𝑜𝑟𝑚𝑢𝑙𝑎, 𝐶 = 𝐾𝜀𝑜𝐴/𝑑, 𝐾 = 11.3

8. 𝑈𝑖 =1/2𝐶1 𝑉22 = 9 × 10-6 𝐽
Common potential after both capacitors connected,
𝑉𝑐𝑜𝑚𝑚𝑜𝑛 = (𝐶1𝑉1+𝐶2𝑉2)/ (𝐶1+𝐶2) = 200𝑉
𝑈𝑓 =1 2𝐶𝑝𝑉𝑐𝑜𝑚2 =1/2300𝑝𝐹 𝑥 (200)2 = 6 × 10-2 𝐽
Difference in energy = (9 – 6) x 10-2 J = 3 x 10-2 J
9.

35
 10. 𝑈 = 𝑘 𝑄.𝑄/𝑑 + 𝑘𝑄.(−𝑄)/2𝑑+ 𝑘(−𝑄).𝑄/2𝑑= 0

SHORT ANSWER TYPE (3 MARKS) ANSWER

1. (i) Capacitance increases as C’ = KC (K>1)
Potential difference remains same as battery remain connected.
So E =V/d remain same
(iii) Energy, U = 1/2 CV2; U’ = KU
2. (a) The capacitance increases as the dielectric constant K>1.
Potential difference V= CQ. As C increases and Q remains the same since the battery
is disconnected, the p.d. between the plates decreases.
(b) Electric field E = V/d where V is the p.d. and d the separation between the plates.
As V decreases and d remains the same, electric field also decreases. (c)Energy
stored in a capacitor U = 1/2 CV2.
As Q is constant and C increases, U decreases.
3. Since C1, C2 are short circuited, the net charge on them = 0 Similarly, net charge on
C4 and C5 =0 So effective capacitance = C3 = 4µF Then, Q = CV = 4µF x 5 = 20 µC Energy
stored, U = 1/2 CV2 = 50µJ
4.

5. Work done = - (PE)

W = k (q1q2+q2q3+q3q1)/r
Substituting, W = 2.3 x 10-8 J

6. E = −dV/dx
(i) At x = 8m, V is constant. E = 0
(ii) At x = 14m, V is gradually decreasing.
E = − (10−30)/(16−12) = 5 V/m
7. (i) Electric potential
(ii) OB = radius of the sphere
(iii) E max is at surface (x = radius)
at B, E imin is x < radius
8. For no transfer of charge, V1 = V2
Hence kq1/r1 = kq2/r2 ; then q1 = 20μC
9.

36
 10.

LONG ANSWER TYPE

1. Hint: C1 = C; V1 = V and Q1 = CV When battery is disconnected, Q remains same.
So after distance is doubled and battery disconnected, C2 = KC/2
C1V1 = C2V2 ;
Electric field E1 = Vd and E2 = E1/K
2.

3. (a) No change in capacitance since C does not depend on Q or V

(b) V = kQ/r. So the ratio V1:V2 = 2:1
(c) When connected by a wire, the potentials become equal.
On equating, Q1’ = Q2’/2. Charge flowing = Q/3
(electric charge is conserved. 2Q = Q1’+ Q2’ = 3 Q2’/2.)

CASE STUDY QUESTIONS

1. (i) 20 (C’ = KC)
(ii) 80 pF
(iii) increases the charge on the plates (Battery connected V remains same)
(iv) 4
2. (I) fig (a) only
(ii) Work done in all three cases is equal
(iii) -7.2 μJ
(iv) Zero (the potential inside a charged sphere is uniform)

37
 Chapter 3 – Current Electricity
SYLLABUS (2022 – 23)
Electric current, flow of electric charges in a metallic conductor, drift velocity, mobility and
their relation with electric current; Ohm's law, V-I characteristics (linear and non-linear),
electrical energy and power, electrical resistivity and conductivity, temperature
dependence of resistance, Internal resistance of a cell, potential difference and emf of a
cell, combination of cells in series and in parallel, Kirchhoff's rules, Wheatstone bridge.
Page No. Dropped Topics/ Chapters
102–103 3.7 Resistivity of Various Materials (delete Tables 3.1
and 3.2 and Carbon resistors, Colour code for carbon
Rationalised resistor)
Content 107–109 3.10 Combinations of Resistors – Series and Parallel
112–113 Example 3.5
120–124 3.15 Meter Bridge
3.16 Potentiometer
127–131 Exercises 3.3, 3.4, 3.10, 3.12, 3.14–3.23

GIST of the Chapter

1. Electric current : Current is defined as the rate of flow of electric charge through a cross-
section of the conductor.
𝑑𝑞 𝑞 𝑛𝑒
𝐼 = 𝑑𝑡 , for steady current 𝐼 = 𝑡 = 𝑡

2. Current density : Current density at a point inside the conductor is defined as the amount
of current flowing per unit area around that point of the conductor.
𝐼
𝑗 = 𝐴, current density is a vector quantity. SI unit of j is 𝐴𝑚−2 .

3. Drift velocity : The average velocity with which free electrons get drifted towards the
positive end of the conductor under the given external electric field is called the drift
⃗⃗⃗
𝑒𝐸
velocity. ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑣𝑑 = − 𝜏
𝑚
where e is the charge on electron, m is the mass of the electron, 𝐸 ⃗⃗⃗ is the electric field
applied and τ is the relaxation time. The –ve sign shows that drift velocity of electrons is
in a direction opposite to that of the external electric field.

4. Relationship between current and drift velocity

𝐼 = 𝑛𝐴𝑒𝑣𝑑 where n is the number density of electrons and A is the area of cross-
section of the conductor.

5. Mobility : It is defined as the magnitude of drift velocity per unit electric field.
|⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑣 𝑑| 𝑒
𝜇= = 𝜏
𝐸 𝑚
The SI unit of mobility is 𝑚2 𝑉 –1 𝑠 –1 and its dimensional formula is [𝑀–1 𝐿0 𝑇 2 𝐴1 ]
6. Ohm’s law : It states that the current (I) flowing through a conductor is directly
proportional to the potential difference (V) across the ends of the conductor, provided
physical conditions of the conductor such as temperature remains constant.

38
 𝑉 ∝ 𝐼, 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
Where ‘R’ is the resistance (property which opposes the flow of charges) offered by the
conductor. SI unit of resistance is ohm (Ω) and its dimensional formula is [𝑀𝐿2 𝑇 –3 𝐴–2 ].
7. Ohmic and non-ohmic conductors : Those conductors which obey Ohm’s law are known
as ohmic conductors, e.g. metals. For ohmic conductors, the graph between current and
potential difference is a straight line passing through the origin.
Those conductors which do not obey Ohm’s law are known as non-ohmic conductors e.g.
diode valve, junction diode. For non-ohmic conductor the graph between current and
voltage is not linear.

𝑙 𝑚 𝑙 𝑚
8. 𝑅 = 𝜌 𝐴 = (𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏) 𝐴 , 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝜌 = 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏
where m is the mass of electron, e is charge of electron, n is the number density of
electrons, t is the relaxation time, l is the length of conductor and A is its area of cross
section, ρ is the specific resistance or resistivity of the conductor.

9. Resistivity : It is the resistance offered by the conductor of unit length and unit cross-
sectional area. It is denoted by ρ. SI unit of resistivity is Ω𝑚 and its dimensional formula
is [𝑀𝐿3 𝑇 –3 𝐴–2 ].

10. Vector form or microscopic for of Ohm’s law :

⃗⃗⃗𝑗 = 𝜎⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸 , where σ is the conductivity of the material.

11. Conductivity : The reciprocal of resistivity is known as conductivity or specific

conductance. It is denoted by symbol 𝜎 . The SI unit of conductivity is Ω−1 𝑚−1 or
𝑆 𝑚–1 𝑜𝑟 𝑚ℎ𝑜 𝑚–1 and its dimensional formula is [𝑀–1 𝐿–3 𝑇 3 𝐴2 ]
1 𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏
𝜎= = = 𝑛𝑒𝜇
𝜌 𝑚
12. Effect of temperature on resistance and resistivity
The resistance of a metallic conductor increases with increase in temperature while for
semiconductor the resistance decreases with temperature. The resistance of a conductor
at temperature t°C is given by 𝑅𝑡 = 𝑅0 (1 + 𝛼𝑡)
where 𝑅𝑡 is the resistance at t °C, 𝑅0 is the resistance at 0°C and 𝛼 is the temperature
coefficient.
For metals, 𝛼 is positive i.e., resistance increases with rise in temperature.
For insulators and semiconductors, 𝛼 is negative i.e., resistance decreases with rise in
temperature.

13. Joule’s Law of Heating : According to Joule’s heating effect of current, the amount of
heat produced (H) in a conductor of resistance R, carrying current I for time t is
𝐻 = 𝐼 2 𝑅𝑡 (𝑖𝑛 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒)
14. Electric power : It is defined as the rate at which work is done by the source of emf in
maintaining the current in the electric circuit.
𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑤𝑜𝑟𝑘 𝑑𝑜𝑛𝑒 𝑉2
𝐸𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑝𝑜𝑤𝑒𝑟 = , 𝑃 = 𝑉𝐼 = 𝐼 2 𝑅 =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡𝑎𝑘𝑒𝑛 𝑅

15. Electric energy : It is defined as the total electric work done or energy supplied by the
source of emf in maintaining the current in an electric circuit for a given time.
39
 𝐸𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑒𝑛𝑒𝑟𝑔𝑦 = 𝐻 = 𝑃 × 𝑡. The SI unit of electrical energy is joule (J).
The commercial unit of electric energy is kilowatt-hour (kWh),
1 𝑘𝑊ℎ = 3.6 × 106 𝐽 = one unit of electricity consumed.

16. Electromotive force (emf) of a cell : It is defined as the potential difference between the
two terminals of a cell in an open circuit i.e., when no current flows through the cell. It is
denoted by symbol 𝜀.
The emf of a cell depends upon the nature of electrodes, nature and the concentration
of electrolyte used in the cell and its temperature.

17. Terminal potential difference : It is defined as the potential difference between two
terminals of a cell in a closed circuit i.e., when current is flowing through the cell.
𝑉 = 𝜀 − 𝐼𝑟, 𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝑟 𝑖𝑠 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒 𝑜𝑓𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙.
During charging of a cell the terminal potential difference becomes greater than the emf
of the cell.

18. Internal resistance of a cell : It is defined as the resistance offered by the electrolyte and
electrodes of a cell when the current flows through it. Internal resistance of a cell
depends upon the distance between the electrodes, nature of the electrolyte, nature of
electrodes, Area of the electrodes immersed in the electrolyte.
𝜀
𝐼𝑛𝑡𝑒𝑟𝑛𝑎𝑙 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑎𝑛𝑐𝑒, 𝑟 = 𝑅 (𝑉 − 1)

19. Kirchhoff ’s Rules:

(a) Junction rule or current law: At any junction, the sum of the currents entering the
junction is equal to the sum of currents leaving the junction.
Kirchhoff’s junction rule supports the conservation of charge.
(b) Loop rule or voltage law: The algebraic sum of changes in potential around any
closed loop involving resistors and cells in the loop is zero.
Kirchhoff’s loop rule supports the conservation of energy.
20. Wheatstone bridge : It is an arrangement of four resistances
P, Q, R and S connected as shown in the figure. Their values
are so adjusted that the galvanometer (connected across
one diagonal) shows no deflection. This condition of bridge
is then said to be balanced Wheatstone bridge. For balanced
Wheatstone bridge, the points B and D are at the same
potential and
𝑃 𝑅
=
𝑄 𝑆

40
Important Formulas
𝑐ℎ𝑎𝑟𝑔𝑒 𝑞 𝑛𝑒
1. Electric current, 𝐼 = = =
𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒 𝑡 𝑡
2. Ohm’s law 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
3. Drift velocity
𝑒𝐸⃗
𝑣𝑑 = − 𝜏, 𝜏 = 𝑎𝑣𝑟𝑒𝑎𝑔𝑒 𝑟𝑒𝑙𝑎𝑥𝑎𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒
𝑚
4. Current in terms of drift velocity (𝑣𝑑 ), 𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑
5. Resistance
𝑙 𝑚
𝑅=𝜌 = 2
𝐴 𝑛𝑒 𝜏
𝐴 𝑚
6. Resistivity or specific resistance, 𝜌 = 𝑅 = 2
𝑙 𝑛𝑒 𝜏
1 1
7. Conductivity = 𝑟𝑒𝑠𝑖𝑠𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦 𝑜𝑟 𝜎 = 𝜌
8. Current density,
𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝐼
𝑗= = = 𝑒𝑛𝑣𝑑
𝐴𝑟𝑒𝑎 𝐴
9. Relation between current density and electric field, ⃗⃗⃗𝑗 = 𝜎⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸 𝑜𝑟 ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸 = 𝜌⃗⃗⃗𝑗
𝑣𝑑 𝑒𝜏
10. Mobility, 𝜇 = 𝐸 = 𝑚
𝑅2 −𝑅1
11. Temperature coefficient of resistance, 𝛼 = 𝑅
1 (𝑡2 −𝑡1 )
If 𝑡1 = 0° 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑡2 = 𝑡°𝐶, 𝑡ℎ𝑒𝑛
𝑅𝑡 − 𝑅𝑜
𝛼= 𝑜𝑟 𝑅𝑡 = 𝑅𝑜 (1 + 𝛼𝑡)
𝑅𝑜 𝑡
12. For a cell of internal resistance 𝑟, the emf is , 𝜀 = 𝑉 + 𝐼𝑟 = 𝐼(𝑅 + 𝑟)
13. Terminal potential difference of a cell,
𝜀𝑅
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 =
𝑅+𝑟
14. Terminal potential difference when a current is being drawn from the cell, 𝑉 = 𝜀 − 𝐼𝑟
15. Terminal potential difference when the cell is being charged, 𝑉 = 𝜀 + 𝐼𝑟
16. Internal resistance of a cell,
𝜀−𝑉
𝑟 = 𝑅[ ]
𝑉
17. Heat produced by electric current,
2
𝐼 𝑅𝑡 𝑉𝐼𝑡
𝐻 = 𝐼 2 𝑅𝑡 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒 = 𝑐𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑟, 𝐻 = 𝑉𝐼𝑡 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒 = 𝑐𝑎𝑙
4.18 4.18
18. Electric power,
2
𝑊 𝑉
𝑃= = 𝑉𝐼 = 𝐼 2 𝑅 =
𝑡 𝑅
19. Electric energy, 𝑊 = 𝑃𝑡 = 𝑉𝐼𝑡 = 𝐼 2 𝑅𝑡
20. Kirchhoff’s laws of electrical networks
a. ∑ 𝐼 = 0 or total incoming current = total outgoing current (junction rule)
b. ∑ 𝜀 = ∑ 𝐼𝑅 = 0 (loop rule)
21. For a balanced Wheatstone bridge,
𝑃 𝑅
=
𝑄 𝑆
𝑃 𝑅 𝑅𝑄
IF X is unknown resistance 𝑄 = 𝑋 𝑜𝑟 𝑋 = 𝑃

41
Important Diagrams/Graphs

(1) Non Ohmic conductor – p n junction diode (2) Non Ohmic conductor - Variation of
characteristics current versus voltage for GaAs.

(3) Resistivity 𝜌𝑇 of a metal as a function of (4) Resistivity 𝜌𝑇 of a semiconductor as a

temperature T function of temperature T

(5) Two cells of emf 𝜀1 and 𝜀2 connected in (6) Two cells of emf 𝜀1 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝜀2 connected in
series parallel

(7) Wheatstone bridge

42
 MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (MCQ’s)
Q1. The voltage Vand current I graph for a conductor at
two different temperatures 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 are shown in
the figure. The relation between 𝑇1 and 𝑇2 is
(a) 𝑇1 = 𝑇2 (b) 𝑇1 > 𝑇2
(c) 𝑇1 < 𝑇2 (d) 𝑇2 = 𝑇12

Q2. Two wires of same material have length L and 2L and cross–sectional areas 3A
and A respectively. The ratio of their specific resistance would be
(a) 1 : 3 (b) 3: 1 (c) 1 : 6 (d) 1 : 1
Q3. Drift velocity 𝑣𝑑 varies with the intensity of electric field as per the relation
(a) 𝑣𝑑 = constant (b) 𝑣𝑑 ∝ 𝐸 (c) 𝑣𝑑 ∝ 𝐸 2 (d) 𝑣𝑑 ∝ 1/𝐸
Q4. A cell of emf E and internal resistance r is connected across an external resistor R.
The graph showing the variation of Potential difference across R versus R.

Q5. For a cell, the terminal potential difference is 3.6 V, when the circuit is open. If the
potential difference reduces to 3 V, when cell is connected to a resistance of
5 , the internal resistance of cell is
(a) 8 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 4
Q6. A cell supplies a current of 0.9 A through a 2 resistor and a current of 0.3
A through 7 resistor. The internal resistance of the cell is
(a) 2.0  (b) 1.5 (c) 1.0 (d) 5
Q7. Kirchhoff’s II law for the electric network is based on:
(a) Law of conservation of charge
(b) Law of conservation of energy
(c) Law of conservation of angular momentum
(d) Law of conservation of linear momentum
Q8. In the given current distribution what is the value of I
(a) 3A (b) 8 A
(c) 2A (d) 5A

43
Q9. What will be the electric current through branch BD of the electric network:

(a) 0.6 A (b) 0 A (c) 1 A (d) 10 A

Q10. The ratio of current density and electric field is called:
(a) Resistivity (b) Mobility (c) conductivity (d) Drift
velocity

ASSERTION REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason
(R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d)
as given below:
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, and R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false and R is also false.
Q11. Assertion (A) : For a given conductor, electric current does not vary even if it’s cross
sectional area varies.
Reason (R) : A conductor remains uncharged when current flows through it.
Q12. Assertion (A) : A direction is associated with electric current.
Reason (R): It does obey vector law of addition.
Q13. Assertion (A): When a wire is stretched to double of its length, its resistivity
doubles.
Reason (R): The resistivity is directly proportional to the length of the conductor.
Q14. Assertion (A): Ohm’s law is applicable for all conducting elements.
Reason (R): Ohm’s law is a fundamental law.
Q15. Assertion (A): Kirchhoff’s junction law follows from the conservation of charges.
Reason: Kirchhoff’s loop law follows from the conservation of energy.
Q16. Assertion (A) : Terminal voltage of a cell is greater than the emf of a cell during
charging of the cell.
Reason (R): Terminal voltage is the potential difference in open circuit condition.
Q17. Assertion (A): The resistivity of the alloy increases rapidly with increase of
temperature.
Reason (R): Alloys usually have much lower temperature coefficients of resistance
than pure metals.

44
Q18. Assertion (A): A low voltage supply, from which high currents are to be withdrawn,
must have very low internal resistance.
Reason (R): Maximum current drawn from a source is inversely proportional to
internal resistance.
Q 19. Assertion (A): Instead of single 12 V battery, in a car eight dry cells of 1.5 V
connected in series is generally used.
Reason: Internal resistance of the combination of the cells becomes very low.
Q20. Assertion (A): Current is passed through a metallic wire, heating it red. When cold
water is poured on half of its portion, then the rest of the half portion becomes
hotter.
Reason (R): Resistances decrease due to decrease in temperature and so current
through wire increases.

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS

Q21. Two conducting wires X and Y of same diameter but different materials are joined in
series across a battery. If the number density of electrons in X is twice that in Y, find
the ratio of drift velocity of electrons in the two wires.
Ans. In series the current will be same
𝑠𝑜, 𝐼𝑥 = 𝐼𝑦 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑
For same diameter, cross-sectional area is same
𝐴𝑥 = 𝐴𝑦 = 𝐴
∴ 𝑛𝑥 𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑𝑥 = 𝑛𝑦 𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑𝑦
Given 𝑛𝑥 = 2𝑛𝑦
𝑣𝑑𝑥 𝑛𝑦 1
∴ = =
𝑣𝑑𝑦 𝑛𝑥 2
Q22. The number density of free electrons in a copper conductor estimated is 8.5 ×
1028 𝑚–3. How long does an electron take to drift from one end of a wire 3.0 m long
to its other end? The area of cross-section of the wire is 2.0 × 10–6 𝑚2 and it is
carrying a current of 3.0 A.
Ans. 𝑛 = 8.5 × 1028 𝑚−3 , 𝑙 = 3𝑚, 𝐴 = 2 × 10−6 𝑚2 , 𝑒 = 1.6 × 10−19 𝐶 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼 = 3 𝐴
𝐼 3
𝐷𝑟𝑖𝑓𝑡 𝑣𝑒𝑙𝑜𝑐𝑖𝑡𝑦, 𝑣𝑑 = = −19
𝑚𝑠 −1
𝑛𝑒𝐴 1.6 × 10 × 8.5 × 1028 × 2 × 10−6
3
𝑣𝑑 =
16 × 85 × 2 × 10
= 1.1 × 10−4 𝑚𝑠 −1
𝑙 3
∴ 𝑅𝑒𝑞𝑢𝑖𝑟𝑒𝑑 𝑡𝑖𝑚𝑒, 𝑡 = =
𝑣𝑑 1.1 × 10−4
𝑜𝑟 𝑡 = 2.73 × 104 𝑠

45
Q23. A conductor of length ‘𝑙’ is connected to a dc source of potential ‘𝑉’. If the length of
the conductor is tripled by gradually stretching it keeping ‘𝑉’ constant, how will
(i) drift speed of electrons and (ii) resistance of the conductor be affected. Justify
your answer.
Ans. We know that
𝑒𝐸 𝑒𝑉 1
𝑣𝑑 = − 𝜏= − 𝜏 𝑜𝑟 𝑣 ∝
𝑚 𝑚𝑙 𝑙
∴ When length is tripled, the drift velocity becomes one-third.
New Resistance
𝜌𝑙 ′ 𝜌3𝑙
𝑅′ = = = 9𝑅
𝐴′ 𝐴
3
Hence, the new resistance will be 9 times the original.
Q24. Two wires A and B of the same material and having same length, have their cross
sectional areas in the ratio 1 : 6. What would be the ratio of heat produced in these
wires when same voltage is applied across each?
Ans. 𝐴𝐴 1
𝐺𝑖𝑣𝑒𝑛, =
𝐴𝐵 6
𝑉2 𝑙
𝐻= 𝑡 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑅 = 𝜌
𝑅 𝐴
2
𝑉 𝑡 𝑉 2𝑡
𝐻𝐴 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐻𝐵 =
𝜌𝑙 𝜌𝑙
𝐴𝐴 𝐴𝐵
𝐻𝐴 𝑉 2𝑡 𝜌𝑙 𝐴𝐴 1
⟹ = 𝐻𝐴 = 𝐴𝐴 × 2 = =
𝐻𝐵 𝜌𝑙 𝑉 𝑡𝐴𝐵 𝐴𝐵 6
Q25. Two cells of emf 1.5 V and 2 V and internal resistances 1Ω
and 2Ω, respectively, are connected in parallel to pass a
current in the same direction through and external
resistance of 5Ω. Using Kirchhoff’s laws calculate the
current through each branch of the circuit.

Ans Applying Krichhoff’s loop rule ABCDA

5(𝐼1 + 𝐼2 ) + 𝐼1 = 1.5
𝑜𝑟, 6𝐼1 + 5𝐼2 = 1.5 … … … (1)
In loop CDEFC
5(𝐼1 + 𝐼2 ) + 2𝐼2 = 2
𝑜𝑟, 5𝐼1 + 7𝐼2 = 2 … … . (2)
Solving (1) and (2)
1 9
𝐼1 = 𝐴 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼2 = 𝐴
34 34

46
Q26. Plot a graph showing variation of voltage Vs the current drawn from the cell. How can
one get information from this plot about the emf of the cell and its internal
resistance?
Ans Graph of voltage Vs current

𝜀−𝑉
𝑉 = 𝜀 − 𝐼𝑟 ⟹ 𝑟 =
𝐼
At 𝐼 = 0, 𝑉 = 𝜀
When
𝜀
𝑉 = 0, 𝐼 = 𝐼𝑜 , 𝑟 =
𝐼0
The y- intercept gives the emf of the cell and the slope of graph gives the internal
resistance.
Q27. Two cells of emf 10 V and 2 V and internal resistance 10
Ω and 5 Ω respectively, are connected in parallel as
shown. Find the effective voltage across R.

Ans. The effective voltage across R is given by

𝜀𝑒𝑞 𝜀1 𝜀2
= +
𝑟𝑒𝑞 𝑟1 𝑟2
1 1 1
𝑎𝑛𝑑, = +
𝑟𝑒𝑞 𝑟1 𝑟2
1 1 1 3
𝑜𝑟 = + =
𝑟𝑒𝑞 10 5 10
10 2 10
∴ 𝜀𝑒𝑞 = ( − ) × = 2𝑉
10 5 3
Q28. The plot of the variation of potential difference across
a combination of three identical cells in series, versus
current is as shown below. What is the emf and internal
of each cell?

Ans Let 𝜀 be emf and 𝑟 the internal resistance of each cell. The equation of terminal
potential difference
𝑉 = 𝜀𝑒𝑓𝑓 − 𝑖𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑡 = 𝜀 − 𝑖𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑡 …… (1)
where 𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑡 is effective (total) internal resistance.
From fig., when 𝑖 = 0, 𝑉 = 6.0 𝑉
From (1),

47
 6
6 = 3𝜀 − 0 𝑜𝑟 𝜀 = = 2 𝑉 = 𝑒𝑚𝑓 𝑜𝑓 𝑒𝑎𝑐ℎ 𝑐𝑒𝑙𝑙
3
And, when 𝑖 = 1 𝐴, 𝑉 = 0 𝑉
0 = 6 − 1(𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑡 ) 𝑜𝑟 𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑡 = 6 Ω
𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑡 6
𝑛𝑜𝑤 𝑟𝑖𝑛𝑡 = 𝑟 + 𝑟 + 𝑟 𝑜𝑟 𝑟 = = =2Ω
3 3
Q29. The potential difference across a resistor ‘r’ carrying current ‘I’ is Ir.
(i) Now if the potential difference across ‘r’ is measured using a voltmeter of
resistance ‘𝑅𝑉 ’, show that the reading of voltmeter is less than the true value.
(ii) Find the expression for the percentage error in measuring the potential
difference by a voltmeter.
Ans. (i) 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑟 (without voltmeter 𝑅𝑉 )
𝑟𝑅𝑉
𝑉′ = 𝐼
𝑟 + 𝑅𝑉
𝐼𝑟
= 𝑟
1+
𝑅𝑉
⟹ 𝑉′ < 𝑉
(ii) Percentage error
Δ𝑉 𝑉 − 𝑉′ 𝑟
× 100 % = × 100 % = ( ) 100%
𝑉 𝑉 𝑟 + 𝑅𝑉
Q30. Find the magnitude and direction of current in 1Ω resistor in the given circuit

Ans For the closed loop APQBA

−6 − 1(𝐼2 − 𝐼1 ) + 3𝐼1 = 0
𝑜𝑟, 4𝐼1 − 𝐼2 = 6 … (1)
For loop PCDQP
2𝐼2 − 9 + 3𝐼2 + 1(𝐼2 + 𝐼1 ) = 0
𝑜𝑟, −𝐼1 + 6𝐼2 = 9 … (2)
By solving equation 1 and 2
45 42
𝐼1 = 𝐴 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼2 = 𝐴
23 23
3
∴ 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑡ℎ𝑟𝑜𝑢𝑔ℎ 𝑡ℎ𝑒 1Ω 𝑖𝑠 = 𝐼2 − 𝐼1 = − 𝐴
23

48
 THREE MARKS QUESTIONS

Q31. Define current density. Deduce the relation connecting current density and
conductivity of the conductor, when electric field E, is applied to it.
Ans Current density at a point inside the conductor is defined as the amount of current
flowing per unit area around that point of the conductor.
𝐼
𝑗=
𝐴
current density is a vector quantity. SI unit of j is 𝐴𝑚−2 .
If E is the magnitude of electric field in a conductor of length l, then the potential
difference across its end is
𝑉 = 𝐸𝑙
Also, from Ohm’s law
𝐼𝜌𝑙 𝐼𝜌𝑙
𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 = 𝑜𝑟, 𝐸𝑙 = 𝑜𝑟 𝐸 = 𝑗𝜌
𝐴 𝐴
𝐼
Where 𝑗 = , is the current density. As the direction of current density 𝑗 is same as
𝐴
that of electric field 𝐸⃗ , we can write the above equation as
𝐸⃗ = 𝜌𝑗

𝑜𝑟, 𝑗 = 𝜎𝐸⃗
1
𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝜎 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑣𝑖𝑡𝑦 =
𝜌
Q32. (a) Derive an expression for drift velocity of free electrons.
(b) How does drift velocity of electrons in a metallic conductor vary with increase in
temperature? Explain
Ans (a) When a potential difference is applied across a conductor, an electric field is
produced, and free electrons are acted upon by an electric force (Fe). Due to this,
electrons accelerate and keep colliding with each other and acquire a constant
(average) velocity 𝑣𝑑 called drift velocity.
Electric force on electron ⃗⃗⃗
𝐹𝑒 =– 𝑒𝐸⃗
If m is the mass of electron, then its acceleration
⃗⃗⃗
𝐹𝑒 𝑒⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸
⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑎 = =–
𝑚 𝑚
Now, according to the equation of motion for constant accelerated motion
𝑣 = 𝑢 + 𝑎𝑡
Here u = thermal velocity = 0, t = τ = relaxation time and v= drift velocity = 𝑣𝑑
𝑒⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸
∴ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑣𝑑 = − 𝜏
𝑚
(b) With rise of temperature, the rate of collision of electrons with ions increases, so
relaxation time decreases. As a result, the drift velocity of electrons decreases with
the rise of temperature.

49
Q33. A potential difference V is applied across the ends of copper wire of length l and
diameter D. What is the effect on drift velocity of electrons if
(a) V is halved?
(b) l is doubled?
(c) D is halved?
Ans Drift velocity,
𝐼 𝑉 𝑉 𝑉
𝑣𝑑 = = = =
𝑛𝑒𝐴 𝑅𝑛𝑒𝐴 𝑛𝑒𝐴 (𝜌𝑙 ) 𝑛𝑒𝜌𝑙
𝐴
(i) As 𝑣𝑑 ∝ 𝑉, when V is halved the drift velocity is halved.
1
(ii) As𝑣𝑑 ∝ , when l is doubled the drift velocity is halved.
𝑙
(iii) As 𝑣𝑑 is independent of D, when D is halved drift velocity remains unchanged.
Q34. A cell of emf ‘𝐸’ and internal resistance ‘𝑟’ is connected across a variable load resistor
𝑅. Draw the plots of the terminal voltage 𝑉 versus (i) 𝑅 and (ii) the current I.
It is found that when 𝑅 = 4 Ω, the current is 1 𝐴 and when 𝑅 is increased to 9 Ω,
the current reduces to 0.5 𝐴. Find the values of the emf 𝐸 and internal resistance 𝑟.
Ans Given situation is shown in the figure
𝐸
𝐼=
𝑅+𝑟
Terminal voltage
𝐸 𝐸𝑅
𝑉 = 𝐸 − 𝐼𝑟 = 𝐸 − 𝑟=
𝑅+𝑟 𝑅+𝑟
Terminal voltage
𝐸 𝐸𝑅
𝑉 = 𝐸 − 𝐼𝑟 = 𝐸 − 𝑟=
𝑅+𝑟 𝑅+𝑟

When 𝑅 = 4Ω, 𝐼 = 1𝐴
𝐸
∴1= 𝑜𝑟 𝐸 = 4 + 𝑟 … . (𝑖)
4+𝑟
When 𝑅 = 9Ω, 𝐼 = 0.5 𝐴
1 𝐸 4+𝑟
∴ = = [𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑔 (𝑖)]
2 9+𝑟 9+𝑟
𝑜𝑟 9 + 𝑟 = 8 + 2𝑟 𝑜𝑟 𝑟 = 1 Ω
From eq (i)
𝐸 =4+𝑟 = 4+1= 5𝑉

50
Q35. Two cells of emf E1 and E2 have internal resistance r1 and r2. Deduce an expression
for equivalent emf of their parallel combination.
Ans.

Consider a parallel combination of the cells. I1 and I2 are the currents leaving the
positive electrodes of the cells. At the point B1, I1 and I2 flow in whereas the current
I flow out. Since as much charge flows in as out, we have
I = I1 + I2
Let V (B1) and V (B2) be the potentials at B1 and B2, respectively. Then, considering
the first cell, the potential difference across its terminals is V (B1) – V (B2). Hence,
𝑉 = 𝑉(𝐵1 ) − 𝑉(𝐵2 ) = 𝜀1 − 𝐼1 𝑟2
𝜀1 − 𝑉
⇒ 𝐼1 =
𝑟1
For the second cell
𝑉 = 𝑉(𝐵1 ) − 𝑉(𝐵2 ) = 𝜀2 − 𝐼2 𝑟2
𝜀2 − 𝑉
⇒ 𝐼2 =
𝑟2
𝑁𝑜𝑤, 𝐼 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2
𝜀1 − 𝑉 𝜀2 − 𝑉 𝜀1 𝜀2 1 1
𝐼= + = ( + )−𝑉( + )
𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟1 𝑟2
𝜀1 𝑟2 + 𝜀2 𝑟1 𝑟1 𝑟2
𝑜𝑟 𝑉 = −𝐼( )
𝑟1 + 𝑟2 𝑟1 + 𝑟2
𝑜𝑟, 𝑉 = 𝜀𝑒𝑞 − 𝐼𝑟𝑒𝑞
𝜀1 𝑟2 + 𝜀2 𝑟1
𝑤ℎ𝑒𝑟𝑒 𝜀𝑒𝑞 =
𝑟1 + 𝑟2
𝑟1 𝑟2
𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑟𝑒𝑞 =
𝑟1 + 𝑟2
𝐼 1 1 𝜀𝑒𝑞 𝜀1 𝜀2
𝑜𝑟, 𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑚𝑝𝑙𝑒𝑟 𝑤𝑎𝑦 = + 𝑎𝑛𝑑, = +
𝑟𝑒𝑞 𝑟1 𝑟2 𝑟𝑒𝑞 𝑟1 𝑟2
Q36. Using Kirchhoff’s rules determine the value of
unknown resistance R in the circuit so that no current
flows through 4Ω resistance. Also find the potential
difference between A and D.

51
Ans As no current flows through 4Ω, the current
in various branches as shown in the figure.
Applying Kirchhff’s loop rule to the closed
loop
AFEBA, we get
– 𝐼– 𝐼– 4 × 0– 6 + 9 = 0
𝑜𝑟 9 – 6 – 2𝐼 = 0 𝑜𝑟 2𝐼 = 3
3
𝑜𝑟, 𝐼 = 𝐴 … … (𝑖)
2
Again, applying Kirchhoff’s loop rule to the closed loop BEDCB, we get
6 + 4 × 0 – 𝐼𝑅 – 3 = 0 𝑜𝑟 𝐼𝑅 = 3
3 2
𝑅 = = 3 × = 2Ω 𝑢𝑠𝑖𝑛𝑔 (𝑖)
𝐼 3
Potential difference between A and D = Potential difference A and E
3
∴ 𝑉𝐴𝐷 = 2𝐼 = 2 × = 3𝑉
2
Q37. Prove that the current density of a metallic conductor is directly proportional to the
drift speed of electrons.
Ans Consider a conductor of a length l and of uniform area of cross section A.
∴ Volume of the conductor = Al
If n is the number density of electrons, then the total number of free electrons in the
conductor = Aln. If e is the charge on each electron, the total charge on all the free
electrons in the conductor, q=Alne
Now, let a constant potential difference V be applied across the ends of the
conductor. The electric field setup across the conductor is then given by,
𝑉
𝐸=
𝑙
Due to this field the free electrons present in the conductor will begin to move with
a drift velocity vd and the time taken by the free electrons to cross the conductor will
be,
𝑙
𝑡=
𝑣𝑑
Hence the current
𝑞 𝐴𝑙𝑛𝑒
𝐼= =
𝑡 𝑙/𝑣𝑑
𝐼
∴ 𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑 𝑜𝑟 = 𝑗 = 𝑛𝑒𝑣𝑑 ⟹ 𝑗 ∝ 𝑣𝑑
𝐴
Q38. Show, on a plot, variation of resistivity of (i) a conductor, and (ii) a typical
semiconductor as a function of temperature. Using the expression for the resistivity
in terms of number density and relaxation time between the collisions, explain how
resistivity in the case of a conductor increases while it decreases in a semiconductor,
with the rise of temperature.

52
Ans

We know that
𝑚
𝜌=
𝑛𝑒 2 𝜏
Where m is mass of electron n = charge density, τ = relaxation time, e = charge on
the electron.
(i) In case of conductors with increase in temperature, relaxation time decreases, so
resistivity increases.
(ii) In case of semiconductors with increase in temperature number density (n) of
free electrons increases, hence resistivity decreases.
Q39. The following table gives the length of three copper wires, their diameters, and the
applied potential difference across their ends. Arrange the wires in increasing order
according to the following:
(i) the magnitude of the electric field within them,
(ii) the drift speed of electrons through them, and
(iii) the current density within them
Wire No. Length Diameter Potential
difference
1 L 3d V
2 2L d V
3 3L 2d 2V
Ans (i)
𝑉 𝑉 2𝑉
𝐸1 = , 𝐸2 = , 𝐸3 =
𝐿 2𝐿 3𝐿
⟹ 𝐸2 < 𝐸3 < 𝐸1
(ii)
𝑒𝐸
|𝑣𝑑 | = 𝜏 𝑜𝑟 𝑣𝑑 ∝ 𝐸
𝑚
⟹ 𝑣𝑑2 < 𝑣𝑑3 < 𝑣𝑑1
(iii) 𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑
𝐼
𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑦, 𝑗 = = 𝑛𝑒𝑣𝑑 𝑜𝑟 𝑗 ∝ 𝑣𝑑 ⟹ 𝑗2 < 𝑗3 < 𝑗1
𝐴

53
Q40. (a) The potential difference applied across a given
resistor is altered so that the heat produced per
second increases by a factor of 9. By what factor
does the applied potential difference change?
(b) In the figure shown, an ammeter A and a
resistor of 4 Ω are connected to the terminals of
the source. The emf of the source is 12 V having
an internal resistance of 2 Ω. Calculate the
voltmeter and ammeter readings.
Ans 𝑉2
(a) Heat produced per second (power), 𝑃 = 𝐼 2 𝑅 = 𝑅
Given,
𝑃′ = 9𝑃
𝑉 ′2 𝑉2
∴ =9× 𝑜𝑟 𝑉 ′ = 3𝑉
𝑅 𝑅
∴ potential difference increases by factor of 3
(b) Given emf, E = 12 V
Internal resistance, 𝑟 = 2Ω, external resistance 𝑅 = 14Ω
Ammeter reading,
𝐸 12 12
𝐼= = = 𝐴 = 2𝐴
𝑅+𝑟 4+2 6
Voltmeter reading
𝑉 = 𝐸 − 𝐼𝑟 = 12 − (2 × 2) = 8 𝑉

FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS

Q41 (a) On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for resistivity of a conductor
in terms of number density of free electrons and relaxation time. On what factors
does resistivity of a conductor depend?
(b) Why alloys like constantan and manganin are used for making standard resistors?
(a) Consider a conductor of length 𝑙 and cross-sectional area 𝐴. When a potential
difference 𝑉 is applied across its ends, the current produced is 𝐼. If 𝑛 is the number
of electrons per unit volume in the conductor and 𝑣𝑑 the drift velocity of electrons,
then
𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑
If τ is the relaxation time and E is the electric field strength, then drift velocity,
If τ is the relaxation time and E is the electric field strength, then
𝑒⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸
⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑣𝑑 =− 𝜏
𝑚
where E is the applied field and τ is the relaxation time.
If applied field is due to a potential difference 𝑉 across a conductor of length 𝑙 then,

54
 𝑉 𝑒𝑉
𝐸=− ∴ 𝑣𝑑 = 𝜏
𝑙 𝑚𝑙
𝑒𝑉 𝑛𝑒 2 𝐴𝜏
Also, 𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑 𝑜𝑟, 𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴 𝜏=( )𝑉
𝑚𝑙 𝑚𝑙
According to Ohm's law 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅
𝑚𝑙 𝑙 𝑚
∴ comparing above two equations R = 2
=𝜌 𝑜𝑟 𝜌 = 2
𝑛𝑒 𝐴𝜏 𝐴 𝑛𝑒 𝜏
Clearly, resistivity of a conductor is inversely proportional to number density of
electrons and relaxation time.
(b) Resistivity of the material of a conductor depends upon the relaxation time, i.e.,
temperature and the number density of electrons. This is because constantan and
manganin show very weak dependence of resistivity on temperature.
Q42. (a) Derive an expression for drift velocity of electrons in a conductor. Hence deduce
Ohm’s law.
(b) A wire whose cross-sectional area is increasing linearly from its one end to the
other, is connected across a battery of V volts. Which of the following quantities
remain constant in the wire ?
(i) drift speed, (ii) current density, (iii) electric current and (iv) electric field
Justify your answer
Ans (a) Let an electric field E be applied to the conductor.
Electric force on electron ⃗⃗⃗
𝐹𝑒 =– 𝑒𝐸⃗
If m is the mass of electron, then its acceleration
⃗⃗⃗
𝐹𝑒 𝑒⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸
⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑎 ==–
𝑚 𝑚
Now, according to the equation of motion for constant accelerated motion
𝑣 = 𝑢 + 𝑎𝑡
Here u = thermal velocity = 0, t = τ = relaxation time and v= drift velocity = 𝑣𝑑
𝑒⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝐸
∴ ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑣𝑑 = −𝜏
𝑚
Now the amount of charge with number density n, crossing area A, in time Δt will be
= 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑 Δ𝑡 = 𝐼Δ𝑡
⟹ 𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴𝑣𝑑
𝑒𝐸 𝑛𝑒 2 𝐴𝜏
𝑜𝑟 𝐼 = 𝑛𝑒𝐴 ( 𝜏) = 𝐸
𝑚 𝑚
1 𝑉 𝑚 𝑉
𝑜𝑟 𝐼 = ( 𝐴) (∵ 𝜌 = 2 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐸 = )
𝜌 𝑙 𝑛𝑒 𝑙
𝑉 𝑙
𝑜𝑟, 𝐼 = 𝑜𝑟 𝑉 = 𝐼𝑅 (∵ 𝑅 = 𝜌 )
𝑅 𝐴
This is Ohm’s law.
(b) Current density will remain constant in the wire. All other quantities, depend on
the cross-sectional area of the wire

55
Q43. (a) Define mobility. Deduce the relationship between the mobility and the current
flowing in a conductor.
(b) The number density of electrons in copper is 8.5 × 1028 𝑚3 . Determine the
current flowing through a copper wire of length 0.2 𝑚, area of cross-section 1 𝑚𝑚2 ,
when connected to a battery of 3 V. Given the electron mobility = 4.5 ×
10−6 𝑚2 𝑉 −1 𝑠 −1 and charge on electron = 1.6 × 10− 19 𝐶.
Ans (a) Mobility μ is defined as the magnitude of the drift velocity per unit electric field.
|𝑣𝑑 | 𝑞𝜏
𝜇= 𝜇=
𝐸 𝑚
2 −1 −1 −1 −1
SI unit of Mobility is 𝑚 𝑠 𝑉 𝑜𝑟 𝑚𝑠 𝑁 𝐶
Relation between current and mobility
𝐼 = 𝐴𝑛𝑒𝑣𝑑 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝑣𝑑 = 𝜇𝐸
∴ 𝐼 = 𝐴𝑛𝑒𝜇𝐸
(b) Here n = 8.5 × 1028 𝑚3 , 𝑙 = 0.2𝑚, 𝐴 = 1𝑚𝑚2 = 10−6 𝑚2 ,
𝑉 = 3𝑉, 𝜇 = 4.5 × 10−6 𝑚2 𝑉 −1 𝑠 −1
Electric field in the copper wire,
𝑉 3
𝐸= = = 15 𝑉𝑚−1
𝑙 0.2
Current = 𝐼 = 𝐴𝑛𝑒𝜇𝐸 = 10−6 × 8.5 × 1028 × 1.6 × 10−19 × 4.5 × 10−6 × 15
= 0.918 𝐴
Q44. (a) State Kirchhoff’s loop rule.
(b) Draw a circuit diagram showing balancing of Wheatstone bridge. Use Kirchhoff’s
rules to obtain the balance condition in terms of the resistances of four arms of
Wheatstone Bridge.
Ans (a) Kirchhoff’s second law or Voltage rule or Loop rule: The algebraic sum of all the
potential drops and emfs along any closed path in a network is zero
(b) Wheatstone bridge is a measuring instrument
used to determine the resistance of unknown
resistor by applying Kirchhoff’s rules. It is a network
of four resistor arranged in the form of a
quadrilateral as shown in the figure. It is also
known as a bridge circuit. The bridge is said to be
balanced when no current pass through the
galvanometer. Under this condition the ratios.
𝑅2 𝑅4
=
𝑅1 𝑅3
Derivation of balanced condition
Considering the circuit and if the cell has negligible
internal resistance, we can adjust the bridge such that current through the
galvanometer is zero. In this case, the Kirchhoff’s junction rule applied to junctions
D and B gives 𝐼1 = 𝐼3 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐼2 = 𝐼4

56
 Now applying Kirchhoff’s loop rule to closed loop ADBA gives
−𝐼1 𝑅1 + 0 + 𝐼2 𝑅2 = 0 (∵ 𝐼𝑔 = 0)
𝐼1 𝑅2
𝑜𝑟 = − − − − − − − − − − − (1)
𝐼2 𝑅1
and from closed loop CBDC
𝐼4 𝑅4 + 0 − 𝐼3 𝑅3 = 0 (∵ 𝐼𝑔 = 0) 𝑜𝑟 𝐼2 𝑅4 + 0 − 𝐼1 𝑅3 = 0
𝐼1 𝑅4
⟹ = − − − − − − − − − − − (2)
𝐼2 𝑅3
From eq (1) and (2)
𝑅2 𝑅4
=
𝑅1 𝑅3
Q45. (a) State the two Kirchhoff's laws. Explain briefly how these rules are justified.
(b) Using Kirchhoff’s rules, calculate the current in the arm AC of the given circuit.

Ans (a) Kirchhoff’s junction rule: The algebraic sum of currents meeting at any junction
is zero, i.e., ∑𝐼 = 0
This law is based on the law of conservation of charge. When currents in a circuit are
steady, charges cannot accumulate or originate at any point of the circuit. So
whatever charge flows towards the junction in any time interval, an equal charge
must flow away from that junction in the same time interval.
Kirchooff’s loop rule: The algebraic sum of potential differences across circuit
elements of a closed circuit is zero, i.e., ∑𝑉 = 0
This is cosequence of conservation of energy.
(b) From Kirchhoff’s first law, 𝐼3 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 … (𝑖)
Applying Kirchooff’s second law in loop ABDCA
– 2 – 4𝐼1 + 3𝐼2 + 1 = 0 ⇒ 4𝐼1 – 3𝐼2 = – 1 … (𝑖𝑖)
Applying Kirchoff ’s second law to loop ABFEA
– 2 – 4𝐼1 – 2𝐼3 + 4 = 0 ⇒ 4𝐼1 + 2𝐼3 = 2 𝑜𝑟 2𝐼1 + 𝐼3 = 1
Using (i) we get
⇒ 2𝐼1 + (𝐼1 + 𝐼2 ) = 1 𝑜𝑟 3𝐼1 + 𝐼2 = 1 … (𝑖𝑖𝑖)
Solving (ii) and (iii), we get
2 7 9
𝐼1 = 𝐴, 𝐼2 = 𝐼 − 3𝐼1 = 𝐴 𝑠𝑜, 𝐼3 = 𝐼1 + 𝐼2 = 𝐴
13 13 13

57
 CASE STUDY - BASED QUESTIONS
Q46. Case Study – Heating effect of current
Whenever an electric current is passed through a conductor, it becomes hot after
some time. The phenomenon of the production of heat in a resistor by the flow of
an electric current through it is called heating effect of current or Joule heating. Thus,
the electrical energy supplied by the source of emf is converted into heat. In purely
resistive circuit, the energy expended by the source entirely appears as heat. But if
the circuit has an active element like a motor, then a part of energy supplied by the
source goes to do useful work and the rest appears as heat. Joule’s law of heating
forms the basis of various electrical appliances such as electric bulb, electric room
heater, electric press etc.

(i) Which of the following is correct statement?

(a) Heat produced in a conductor is independent of the current flowing.
(b) Heat produced in a conductor varies inversely as the current flowing.
(c) Heat produced in a conductor varies directly as the square of the current
flowing.
(d) Heat produced in a conductor varies inversely as the square of the current
flowing.
(ii) A 25 W and 100 W are joined in series and connected to the mains. Which bulb
will glow
brighter? Why?
(iii) If the coil of a heater is cut to half, what would happen to heat produced? Explain.
(iv) Explain how electrical fuse works based on heating effect of current.
Ans (i) (c) Heat produced in a conductor varies directly as the square of the current
flowing.
(ii) In series I remains same, now 𝑃 = 𝐼 2 𝑅, 100 W will have more resistance hence
will glow brighter.
(iii) 𝑅 ∝ 𝑙 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐻 = 𝐼 2 𝑅𝑡 ∴ if the coil is cut to half, the heat produced will becomes
half.
(iv) Electrical fuse works on the principle of heating effect of electric current. When
a current more than the rated amount passes through a fuse, it melts due to
excessive heating and breaks the circuit and the current stops flowing.
Q47. Case Study – Resistance and Resistivity
Resistance is a measure of the opposition to current flow in an electrical circuit.
Resistance is measured in ohms. Resistivity is the electrical resistance of a conductor
of unit cross-sectional area, and unit length. Resistivity is the characteristic property

58
 of each material and is useful in comparing various materials based on their ability
to conduct electric currents. The resistance of the material depends on the length,
cross-section and area of conductor whereas the resistivity depends on the nature
and temperature of the material.

(i) What will happen to the resistance and resistivity of a material if the radius of the
cross-section is doubled keeping all other parameters constant?
(ii) A copper wire having the same size as steel wire have:
(a) more resistance (b) less resistance
(c) same resistance (d) none of the above
(iii) How does the resistivity if a conductor varies with temperature?
(iv) Graph showing the variation of current versus voltage for a material GaAs is
shown in the figure. Identify the region of (i) negative resistance (ii) where Ohm's law
is obeyed.

Ans (i) Resistance becomes ¼ but the resistivity remains same.

(ii) (b) less resistance
(iii) Resistivity of the conductor increases with the increase of temperature.
(iv) DE – negative and Ohm’s law is obeyed in region BC.
Q48. Case Study – Relation between V, ε and r of a cell
Emf (ε)of a cell is the maximum potential
difference between two electrodes of the
cell when no current is drawn from the cell.
Internal resistance (r) is the resistance
offered by the electrolyte of a cell when the
electric current flows through it. The
internal resistance of a cell depends upon
the following factors:

59
 (A) distance between the electrodes
(B) nature and temperature of the electrolyte
(C) nature of electrodes
(D) area of electrodes.
For a freshly prepared cell, the value of internal resistance is generally low and goes
on increasing as the cell is put to more and more use. The potential difference
between the two electrodes of a cell in a closed circuit is called terminal potential
difference and its value is always less than the emf of the cell in a closed circuit. It
can be written as 𝑉 = 𝜀 – 𝐼𝑟
(i) When will be the terminal potential difference of two electrodes of a cell is equal
to emf of the cell?
(ii) A cell of emf ε and internal resistance r gives a current of 0.5 A with an external
resistance of 12 Ω and a current of 0.25 A with an external resistance of 25 Ω. What
is the value of internal resistance of the cell?
(iii) An external resistance R is connected to a cell of internal resistance r, the
maximum current flows in the external resistance, when
(a) R = r (b) R < r (c) R> r (d) R= 1/r
(iv) While charging of a cell, the terminal voltage will be greater than the emf of a
cell. Why?
Ans (i) under open circuit condition (I=0) the terminal potential difference of two
electrodes of a cell is equal to emf of the cell
𝜀
(ii) As 𝐼 = 𝑅+𝑟
𝜀
In first case 0.5 = 12+𝑟 𝑜𝑟 𝜀 = 6 + 0.5𝑟 … (𝑖)
𝜀
In second case 0.25 = 25+𝑟 𝑜𝑟 𝜀 = 6.25 + 0.25𝑟 … (𝑖𝑖)
From (i) and (ii), 𝑟 = 1Ω
(iii) (a) R=r
(iv) As during charging the current is driven through the battery in the opposite
direction, a terminal voltage can be higher than EMF.
Q49. Case Study – Combination of Cells
A single cell provides a feeble current. To get higher current in a circuit we use
combination of cells. Cells can be joined in series and in parallel and in a mixed way.
Two cells are said to be connected in series when negative of one cell in connected
to the positive of the other cell and so on. Cells are said to be connected in parallel
when positive terminal of each cell is connected to one point and negative terminal
of each cell is connected to another point. In mixed grouping of cells certain number
of cells are joined in series and all such rows are connected in parallel with each
other.

60
 (i) Two identical cells when connected in series or in parallel, supply the same
amount of current through an external resistance of 2Ω. What will be the internal
resistance of each cell?
(ii) What will be the total emf of the combination of cells, when ‘n’ identical cells
each of emf E are connected in parallel?
(iii) Out of ‘n’ cells, each having emf ‘E’ and internal resistance ‘r’, two are connected
in series and rest in parallel. What will be the total internal resistance of the
combination?
(iv) In parallel combination of ‘n’ cells, we obtain
(a) more voltage (b) more current (c) less voltage (d) more current
2𝐸
Ans (i) In series 𝐼𝑠 = 2+2𝑟
𝐸 2𝐸
In parallel 𝐼𝑝 = 𝑟 = 4+𝑟
2+
2

Since 𝐼𝑠 = 𝐼𝑝 , equating both the equations, r= 2Ω

(ii) E
(iii) nr
(iv) (b) more current
Q50. Case Study – Wheatstone Bridge and its application
Wheatstone bridge is an arrangement of four
resistances P, Q, P and S connected as shown in the
figure. Their values are so adjusted that the
galvanometer G shows no deflection. The bridge is
then said to be balanced when this condition is
achieved happens. In the setup shown here, the
points B and D are at the same potential, and it can
be shown that
𝑃 𝑅
=
𝑄 𝑆
This is called the balancing condition. If any three resistances are known, the fourth
can be found. The practical form of Wheatstone bridge is slide wire bridge or Meter
bridge. Using
100 − 𝑙
𝑆= ×𝑅
𝑙

61
 the unknown resistance can be determined as where 𝑙 is the balancing length of the
Meter bridge
(i) In a Wheatstone bridge circuit, P = 5 Ω, Q = 6 Ω, R = 10 Ω and S = 5 Ω. What is the
value of additional resistance to be used in series with S, so that the bridge is
balanced?
(ii) When will be a Wheatstone bridge considered most sensitive?
(iii) What will be the change in the balance point if the galvanometer and the cell are
interchanged?
(iv) The percentage error in measuring resistance with a meter bridge can be
minimized by adjusting the balancing point close to
(a) 0 (b) 20 cm (c) 50 cm (d) 80 cm
𝑃 𝑅
Ans. (i) 7 Ω in series makes resistance S= 12 Ω and bridge becomes balanced as 𝑄 = 𝑆
(ii) A Wheatstone bridge is said to have maximum sensitivity when it is in balanced
state and the magnitude of resistors attached in the bridge are of the same
magnitude.
(iii) Balanced condition will not change.
(iv) (c)50 cm

Correct options of MCQs and A-R based questions

MCQs Assertion-Reason based questions
Question Correct Option Question Correct Option
No. No.
1 (b) 𝑇1 > 𝑇2 11 (b) Both A and R are true, and R is
NOT the correct explanation of A.

2 (d) 1 : 1 12 (c) A is true but R is false.

3 (b) ) 𝑣𝑑 ∝ 𝐸 13 (d) A is false and R is also false.
4 (a) 14 (d) A is false and R is also false.
5 (c) 1Ω 15 (b) Both A and R are true, and R is
NOT the correct explanation of A.
6 (d) 5Ω 16 (c) A is true but R is false.
7 (b) Law of conservation of 17 (d) A is false and R is also false.
energy
8 (c) 2A 18 (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A
9 (b) 0A 19 (d) A is false and R is also false.
10 (c)conductivity 20 (a) Both A and R are true, and R is the
correct explanation of A

62
 CHAPER 4 - MOVING CHARGES AND MAGNETISM
GIST OF THE CHAPTER.
 CONCLUSION OF OERSTED EXPERIMENT : Moving charges or currents produced a
magnetic field in the surrounding space.
 Magnetic field , Lorentz force – The force on an electric charge due to both electric
and magnetic field can be written as - 𝐹 = q [ 𝐸⃗ + (𝑣 x 𝐵 ⃗ ) ]. = Felectric + Fmagnetic .
 ⃗ ) . The direction of the force is perpendicular to both 𝑣 and 𝐵
𝐹 magnetic = q (𝑣 x 𝐵 ⃗ .
 Magnetic force on negative charge is opposite to that of a positive charge.
 Force due to magnetic field becomes zero if velocity and magnetic field are parallel
or anti parallel .
 The magnetic force is experienced by only a moving charge.
 A straight conductor of length l and carrying a steady current I experiences a force
⃗⃗⃗
𝐹 in a uniform external magnetic field 𝐵 ⃗ .𝐹=I𝑙x𝐵 ⃗ ; where I𝑙 I = length of the
conductor and its direction is given by the direction of the current .
 MOTION IN A MAGNETIC FIELD :
(a) If a charge particle enters parallel or antiparallel to the direction of magnetic
field it follows straight line path.
(b) If a charge particle enters perpendicularly to the magnetic field ( 𝜃 = 900 ) , then
F = Bqv and charge executes a circular orbit in a plane normal to 𝐵 ⃗ .
𝑚𝑣
The radius of the circular path is given as r = 𝐵𝑞 .
If 𝜔 is the angular frequency then , 2𝜋𝜈 = Bq/m . Time period of revolution is T =
2𝜋𝑚
2𝜋/𝜔 = .
𝐵𝑞
(c) If 00 < 𝜃 < 900 , the path of the charge particle is helix . v cos𝜃 is responsible for
linear motion while v sin𝜃 is responsible for circular motion . Hence , trajectory is
𝑚𝑣 𝑠𝑖𝑛𝜃
a helical path . The radius of circular path followed by it is r = and the
𝐵𝑞
2𝜋𝑚𝑣 𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜃
pitch of the helical path is .
𝐵𝑞

 BIOT SAVART LAW : It gives the magnetic field ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗

𝑑𝐵 due to an element ⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝑙 carrying a
steady current I at a point P at a distance r from the current element is

63
 ⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝜇0 𝑑𝑙 𝑋 𝑟
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝐵 = 4𝜋 I 𝑟 3 . To obtain the total field at P , this vector
expression is integrated over the entire length of the conductor.

 The magnitude of the magnetic field due to a circular coil of radius R carrying
current I at an axial distance x from the centre is given as –
𝜇0 𝐼 𝑅 2
B= .
2 ( 𝑥 2 +𝑅2 )3 /2

𝜇0 𝐼
At the centre this reduces to B = .
2𝑅
 AMPERE’S CIRCUITAL LAW : Considering an open surface S bounded by a loop C .
⃗ . ⃗⃗⃗
Then Ampere’s circuital law states that ∮ 𝐵 𝑑𝑙 = 𝜇0 I , where I refers to the current
passing through S . The sign of I is determined from the right hand rule .
⃗ is directed along the tangent to every point on the perimeter L of a closed curve
If 𝐵
and is constant in magnitude along perimeter then . BL = 𝜇0 Ie , where Ie is the net
current enclosed by the closed circuit .
 APPLICATIONS :
(a) The magnitude of the magnetic field at a distance R from a long straight wire
𝜇0 𝐼
carrying current I is given by B = 2𝜋𝑅 .
The field lines are circles concentric with the wire.
(b) The magnitude of the magnetic field B inside a long solenoid carrying a current I
is B = 𝜇0n I , where n is the number of turns per unit length .

64
 FORCE BETWEEN TWO PARALLEL CURRENTS , THE AMPERE: Force per unit length
between parallel infinitely long current carrying straight conductor is given by
F/L = 𝜇0 I1I2/2𝜋𝑑 , where I1 and I2 are currents in the two parallel conductors
separated by distance ‘d’ .

 1 Ampere – 1 Ampere is the value of that steady current which when maintained in
each of the two very long , straight , parallel conductors of negligible cross – section ,
and placed 1 m apart in vacuum , would produce on each of these conductors a force
equal to 2 x 10-7 N per metre of length.
 Parallel currents attract and anti parallel currents repel.
 A planar loop carrying current I , having N closely wound turns and N area A
possesses a magnetic moment 𝑚 ⃗⃗ , where 𝑚⃗⃗ = N I 𝐴 . The direction of magnetic
moment is given by the right hand thumb rule : curl the palm of your right hand
along the loop with the fingers pointing in the direction of the current . The thumb
sticking out gives the direction of 𝑚⃗⃗ ( and 𝐴 ) .
 When this loop is placed in a uniform magnetic field 𝐵 ⃗ , the force 𝐹 on it is zero. And
the torque on it is given as 𝜏 = 𝑚
⃗⃗ x 𝐵⃗ .

65
 MOVING COIL GALVANOMETER : It is a sensitive instrument used for detecting small
electric current.

 Principle – it works on the principle that when a current carrying coil is placed in a
magnetic field , it will experience a torque.
 In a moving coil galvanometer ,the torque is balanced by a counter torque due to
spring i.e k𝜙 = NIAB , where 𝜙 is the equilibrium deflection and k is the torsion
constant of the spring.
 Figure of Merit of a galvanometer : it is defined as the current that produces a
deflection of one scale division in the galvanometer and it is given by I/𝛼 = k/NAB.
 Current Sensitivity : It is defined as deflection produced in the galvanometer when a
unit current flows through it. It is given as Is = 𝜙 /I = NBA/k.
 Voltage Sensoitivity : It is defined as the deflection produced in the galvanometer
when a unit potential difference is applied acoss its ends. It is given as Vs = 𝜙 /V =
NBA/k R.
66
 A moving coil galvanometer can be converted into a ammeter by introducing a
shunt resistance rs of small value in parallel. It can be converted ito voltmeter by
introducing a resistance of a large value in series .

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK )

1. Consider the following statements regarding the observations of Oersted for a
current in a straight wire placed near a compass needle –
I. Alignment of compass needle is tangential to a circle which has the straight
wire as its centre and plane perpendicular to the wire.
II. Orientation of the needle is independent of the direction of the current in the
wire.
III. Deflection in the compass needle increases on increasing current or bringing
the needle ncloser to the wire.
Which of the statement(s) given above is /are correct?
(a) I and II only.

67
 (b) II and III only.
(c) I and III only.
(d) I , II and III.
2. The magnetic force on a charge is zero when –
(a) Charge is not moving.
(b) Charge has velocity parallel or antiparallel to magnetic field.
(c) Both (a) and (b) .
(d) None of these.
3. Which of the following units is not used for magnetic field –
(a) Weber/m2 .
(b) Weber.
(c) Gauss.
(d) Tesla.
4. The force on a charge particle due to a magnetic field can act –
(a) On charge which is at rest .
(b) On a charge which is moving in the direction of the magnetic field .
(c) On a charge moving in the opposite direction of the magnetic field .
(d) On a charge moving in the perpendicular direction to that of the magnetic field .
5. α and β particle are projected with the same velocity v perpendicular to the
magnetic field , then –
(a) α particle will experience more force as compared to that of β .
(b) α particle will experience less force as compared to that of β .
(c) Both α and β will experience equal force .
(d) None of these.
6. An electron experiences a force (4𝑖̂ + 3𝑗̂) x 10-13 N in a uniform magnetic field when
its velocity is redirected and becomes (1.5𝑖̂ - 2𝑗̂ ) x 107 m/s , the magnetic force of the
electron is zero . The magnetic field vector is –
(a) -0.075𝑖̂ + 0.1𝑗̂
(b) 0.1𝑖̂ + 0.075𝑗̂
(c) 0.075𝑖̂ - 0.1𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂
(d) 0.075𝑖̂ - 0.1𝑗̂
7. A wire PQR is bent as shown in figure and is placed in a region of uniform magnetic
field B. The length of PQ = QR = l . A current I ampere flows through the wire as
shown. The magnitude of the force on PQ and QR will be

68
 (a) BIl , 0
(b) 2BIl , 0
(c) 0 , BIl
(d) 0 ,0.
8. Electron of mass m and charge q is travelling with speed v enters a magnetic field B
perpendicularly. It describes a circle of radius r. If the speed of the electron is
doubled and magnetic field is halved ; the resulting path would have the radius –
(a) 2r
(b) 4r
(c) r/4
(d) r/2.
9. A proton and an alpha particle are projected normally into the magnetic field with
the same speed . What will be the ratio of radius of the trajectories of the proton
and alpha particle ?
(a) 2:1
(b) 1:2
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:4.
10. Consider the situation given in table-
Motion of charge particle in magnetic Effect on the charge particle
field
(I) Charge particle enters (p) describes helical path.
parallel to the magnetic
field
(II) Charge particle’s velocity (q) describes circular path.
0
makes an angle ϴ ( 0 < ϴ
< 1800 ) with the magnetic
field.
(III) Charge particle’s velocity is ( r ) experiences no force .
perpendicular to the
magnetic field.
Choose the correct option –
(a) I – (p) , II – (q) , III – (r).
(b) I – (r) , II – (q) , III – (p).
(c) I – (r) , II – (p) , III – (q).
(d) I – (q) , II – (r) , III – (p).
11. A proton with velocity of 4 x 10 5 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3 T . The
velocity vector makes an angle of 600 with the magnetic field . The pitch of the helix
is –
(a) 0.012 cm
(b) 1.2 cm.
(c) 4.4 cm.
(d) 0.044 cm.

69
12. Which particle will have minimum frequency of revolution when projected with
same velocity perpendicular to the magnetic field ?
(a) Li+
(b) Electron.
(c) Proton.
(d) He+.
13. Two long conductors , separated by a distance d carrying current I1 and I2 in the
same direction . They exert force F on each other. Now the current in one of them is
increased to two times and its direction is reversed . The distance is also increased to
3d . The new value of the force between them is =
(a) -2F
(b) F/3
(c) -2F/3
(d) -F/3.
14. A solenoid has 1000 turns per meter length . If a current of 5A is flowing through it ,
then magnetic field inside the solenoid is –
(a) 2ᴨ x 10-3 T.
(b) 2ᴨ x 10-5 T .
(c) 4ᴨ x 10-3 T.
(d) 4ᴨ x 10-5 T.
15. A solenoid 1.5 m long and 0.4 cm in diameter possess 10turns per cm length. A
current of 5 A flows through it. The magnetic field at the axis inside the solenoid is –
(a) 2ᴨ x 10-3 T.
(b) 2ᴨ x 10-5 T.
(c) 4ᴨ x 10-2 T.
(d) 4ᴨ x 10-3 T.
16. Three long , straight parallel wires carrying current are arranged as shown in figure.
The force experienced by a 25 cm length of wire is –

(a) 10-3 N.
(b) 2.5 x 10-3 N.
(c) Zero.
(d) 1.5 x 10-3 N.

70
17. An arrangement of three straight wires placed perpendicularly to the plane of paper
carrying same current ‘I’ along the same direction is shown in figure. Magnitude of
force per unit length on the middle wire B is given by –

µ0 𝐼𝑑2
(a) 2ᴨ𝑑
2µ0𝐼 2
(b) ᴨ𝑑
√2
(c) 𝜇0I2
ᴨ𝑑
µ0𝐼^2
(d)
√2 𝜋𝑑
18. An ammeter reads upto 1A . Its internal resistance is 0.081 ohm . To increase the
range to 10 A , the value of shunt is –
(a) 0.03 ohm
(b) 0.3 ohm
(c) 0.9ohm
(d) 0.09 ohm.
ANSWER KEY (MCQS)
1 C
2 C
3 B
4 D
5 A
6 A
7 C
8 B
9 B
10 C
11 C
12 A
13 C
14 A
15 A
16 C

71
 17 D
18 D

ASSERTIONS AND REASONS

In the following questions , a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement
of Reason (R) , mark the correct choice as :
(a) If both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
the assertion .
(b) If both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of
the assertion.
(c) If assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) If both assertion and reason are false.

1. ASSERTION : A charge , whether stationary or in motion produces a

magnetic field .
REASON : Moving charges produce only magnetic field in the
surrounding space.
2. ASSERTION : If a proton and an alpha particle enter a uniform magnetic
field perpendicularly with the same speed , the time period of
revolution of alpha particle is double that of proton.
REASON : In a magnetic field , the period of revolution of a charged
particle is directly proportional to the mass of the particle and is
inversely proportional to charge of the particle.
3. ASSERTION : The resistance of an ideal voltmeter should be infinite .
REASON : The lower resistance of voltmeter gives a reading lower than
the actual potential difference across the terminals.
4. ASSERTION : Magnetic field interacts with a moving charge and not
with a stationary charge .
REASON : A moving charge produces a magnetic field .
5. ASSERTION : Magnetic field cannot change kinetic energy of a moving
charge .
REASON : Magnetic field cannot change the velocity vector.

ANSWER KEY (ASSERTION – REASON )

1 d
2 a
3 a
4 a
5 c

72
 SHORT ANSWER I TYPE QUESTIONS ( 2 MARKS )
1. (a) Write the expression for Lorentz force.
(b) The magnetic force acting on a charge particle q moving with velocity 𝑣 in
magnetic field 𝐵 ⃗ is given by 𝐹 ⃗⃗⃗ = q (𝑣 X 𝐵
⃗ ). Which pair of vectors are always at right
angle to each other?
Sol : (a) 𝐹 = q (𝐸⃗ + 𝑣 x 𝐵
⃗ ), is Lorentz force .
(b) 𝐹 and 𝑣 ; 𝐹 and 𝐵 ⃗.

2. An electron is moving northwards with a velocity of 3 x 107 m/s in a uniform magnetic

field of 10 T directed eastwards. Find the magnitude and direction of the force on the
electron.
Sol : F = Bqv sin θ
= 10 x 1.6 x 10-19 x3 x 107 sin 900
= 4.8 x 10-11 N. ( directed upward ).
3. Derive an expression for the force experienced by a current carrying straight conductor
placed in the magnetic field . Under what condition is this force maximum?
Sol : for derivation refer to NCERT textbook.
Force is maximum for θ = 900 .
⃗ = B0 (𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ )
4. A wire of length l carries a current I along the X – axis . A magnetic field 𝐵
Tesla exists in space. Find the magnitude of the magnetic force on the wire.

Sol : ⃗⃗⃗ ⃗ )
𝐹 = I (𝑙 x 𝐵

= I [ l 𝑖̂ x B0 ( 𝑖̂ + 𝑗̂ + 𝑘̂ )]

= (𝑘̂ - 𝑗̂ ) B0 I l.

F = √2 B0IL.
5. Figure shows a triangular loop PQR carrying current I . The triangle is equilateral with side
equal to l . If a uniform magnetic field B exists parallel to PQ , then find the force acting the
three wires respectively.

73
Sol : FPQ = 0 (θ = 00)
√3
FQ R= ILB (θ = 1200) .
2

√3
FRP = ILB
2

6. Find the magnitude of the magnetic force on the segment PQ placed in a magnetic field of
0.025 T if a current of 5 A flows through it as shown in figure.

Sol : FPQ = ILB sin θ

= 5 x .30 x 0.25 x sin 600
= 0.32 N
7. An element Δ𝑙= Δ 𝑥𝑖̂ is placed at the origin (as shown in figure) and carries a current I = 2
A . Find out the magnetic field at a point P on the Y – axis at a distance 1 m due to element
Δx = w cm . Also give the direction of the field produced.

𝜇0
Sol : ⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗ ⃗⃗⃗ x 𝑟 )/ r3
𝑑𝐵 = 4𝜋 𝐼 (𝑑𝑙

⃗⃗⃗ x 𝑟 = w 𝑖̂ x 𝑗̂ = w 𝑘̂
𝑑𝑙
⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗⃗
𝑑𝐵 = 2 x 10 -7 w 𝑘̂ T

74
 PRACTICE QUESTIONS ( 2 Marks).
1. A long straight wire carrying current of 30 A is placed in an external magnetic field of
4 x 10-4 T parallel to the current . Find the magnitude of the resultant magnetic field
at a point 2 cm away from the wire.

2. Six wires of current I1 = 1 A , I2 = 2 A , I3 = 3 A , I4 = 1 A , I5 = 5 A and I6 = 4 A cut the

page perpendicularly at the points 1 , 2 ,3 , 4 and 6 respectively as shown in figure .
Find the value of ∮ 𝐵 ⃗⃗⃗⃗ around the closed path.
⃗ . 𝑑𝑙

3. A solenoid of length l having N turns carries a current I . Deduce the expression for the
magnetic field in the interior of the solenoid.
4. To increase the current sensitivity of a moving coil galvanometer by 50 % , its resistance
becomes twice its initial resistance . By what factor does its voltage sensitivity changes?
5. A galvanometer has a resistance of 100 ohm . When a current passes through the
galvanometer . 1% of the current goes through the coil and rest through the shunt . Find the
resistance of the shunt.

75
 SHORT ANSWER II TYPE QUESTIONS (3 MARKS )
1. A proton and an alpha particle enter at right angle into a uniform magnetic field of
intensity B . Calculate the ratio of their radii of their paths when they enter the field with
(i) same momentum and (ii) same kinetic energy.
Sol : r = mv/Bq
Rp = mp vp/Bqp ( r)𝛼 = m𝛼v𝛼/Bq𝛼
Rp / r𝛼 = 2q/2 = 2: 1.
(ii) for same K.E ; ratio of radius is 1 :1.

2. Two parallel wires P and Q placed at a separation of r cm , carry currents I1 = 5 A and I2 =

2 A in opposite direction as shown in figure . Find the point on the line PQ where the
resultant magnetic field is zero.

𝜇0 𝐼 𝜇0 𝐼′
Sol : BOQ = BOP ; 2𝜋𝑥 = 2𝜋 (𝑟+𝑥)
2 5
= 6+𝑥
𝑥
X = 4 cm.
3. What is the magnitude and direction of magnetic field at the centre O of the circular
portion if a current I is passed through the wire.

Sol : B1 = Magnetic field due to straight wire.

𝜇0 𝐼
= 2𝜋𝑟 ( directed perpendicular and out of the plane )
B2 = Magnetic field due to circular loop.
𝜇0 𝐼
= (directed perpendicular and out of the plane )
2𝑟

76
 𝜇0 𝐼 1
Bnet = ( 1 + 𝜋 ).
2𝑟

4. Two small identical circular loops marked (1) and (2) carrying equal currents are placed
with their geometrical axes perpendicular to each other as shown in figure . Find the
magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field produced at O.

𝜇0𝐼𝑅 2
Sol : B1 = 2 (𝑥 2 +𝑅2)3 /2 ( directed along OO1) = B
𝜇0𝐼𝑅 2
B2 = 2(𝑥 2 +𝑅2 )^3/ 2 (directed along O2O). = B
𝜇0𝐼𝑅 2
Bnet = √2𝐵 2 = √2 2(𝑅2 +𝑥 2 ).
.
5. A galvanometer gives full scale deflection with a current of 0.006 A . By connecting it to
4990 ohm resistance it can be converted into voltmeter of range 0 – 30 V. If connected
2𝑛
to 249 ohm resistance , it becomes an ammeter of range 0 – 1.5 A . Find the value of n .

Sol : (R + G ) Ig = V
(4990 + G) 0.006 = 30
G = 10 Ω
Ig G = ( I – Ig ) S
2𝑛
0.06 = ( 1.5 – 0.006 ) 249
n = 5.

6. An ammeter of resistance 0.80 ohm can measure current up to 1 A .

(a) What must be the shunt resistance to enable the ammeter to measure current up to
5A?
(b) What is the combined resistance of the ammeter and the shunt ?

Sol : (a) Ig = 1 A , G = 0.80 Ω

Ig G = ( I – Ig ) S
S = 0.20 Ω
Req (b) 1/ Req = 1/G + 1/S
Req = 0.16Ω

77
 PRACTICE QUESTIONS ( 3 MARKS )
7. Two circular coils X and Y having equal number of turns and carrying equal currents
in same sense are placed coaxially such that they subtend the same solid angle at O.
If B be the magnetic field at O due to smaller coil X , then find –
(a) Magnetic field at O due to larger coil Y .
(b) Total magnetic field at O.

µ0
8. In the given figure , net magnetic field at O will be 𝑥𝜋𝑎 √4 + 𝜋 2 . Find the value of x .

9. Two infinitely long insulated wires are kept perpendicular to each other . They carry
current I1 = 2 A and I2 = 1.5 A.

(a) Find the magnitude and direction of the magnetic field at P.

(b) If the direction of current is reversed in one of the wires , what would be the
magnitude of the field ?

78
 10. Figure shows a current loop having two circular segments and joined by two radial
lines . Find the magnetic field at the centre O.

11. Two insulating infinitely long conductors carrying current I1 and I2 lie mutually
perpendicular to each other in the same plane as shown in figure . Find the locus of the
point at which the net magnetic field is zero.

A long wire bent as shown in figure carries current I . If the radius of the semi circular
portion is ‘a’ then find the magnetic field at the centre C .

12. Two identical circular coils P and Q each of radius R and carrying current ‘I’ are kept in
perpendicular plane such that they have a common centre as shown in figure. Find the
magnitude and direction of the net magnetic field at the common center of the two coils
.

79
13. A copper wire having resistance of 0.01 ohm per meter is used to wind a 400 turn
solenoid of radius 1 cm and length 20 cm . Find the emf of a battery which when
connected across the solenoid would produce a magnetic field of 10-2 T near the center
of the solenoid .
14. A rectangular loop of area A having N turns and carrying a current ‘I’ is held in a uniform
magnetic field B .
(a) Deduce the expression for the maximum torque experienced by the loop .
(b) In which orientation , will the loop be in stable equilibrium.
15. Define current sensitivity and voltage sensitivity of galvanometer . Increasing the current
sensitivity may not necessarily increase the voltage sensitivity of a galvanometer . Justify
your answer .
16. A multirange voltmeter can be constructed by using a galvanometer in the circuit as
shown in figure . We want to construct a voltmeter that can measure 2 V , 20 V and 200
V using galvanometer of resistance 10 ohm and that produces a maximum deflection for
current of 1 mA . find the value of R1 , R2 and R3 that have to be used .

17. Two identical circular loops P and Q each of radius r and carrying current I are kept in
the parallel planes having a common axis passing through O . The direction of current in
P is clockwise and in Q is anticlockwise as seen from O , which is equidistant from the
loops P and Q . Find the magnitude of net magnetic field at O.

80
 CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS (4 MARKS )
PARAGRAPH 1 : AMPERE’S CIRCUITAL LAW .
Just as Gauss’s law is an alternative form of coulomb’s law in electrostatics , similarly we
have Ampere’s law as an alternative form of Biot – Savart’s law in magnetostatics. Ampere
found that magnetic lines of force of straight current carrying conductor are concentric
circles in a plane perpendicular to the conductor . Ampere’s law is stated with reference to
the loops of magnetic lines of force. We consider a loop to be made up of a number of small
line elements . Consider one such element of length dl . Let Bi be the tangential component
of the field at this element . We multiply it by element length dl and add all such products .
When the lengths of these elements become small and their number gets larger , this
summation tends to an integral . Ampere’s law states that the line integral of the magnetic
⃗ around any closed path is equal to 𝜇 0 times the net current I passing through the
field 𝐵
closed loop .
⃗⃗⃗ = 𝜇 0 I .
⃗ . 𝑑𝑙
∮𝐵
The closed loop is called Amperian loop . Ampere’s law is valid for any arbitrary closed loop
and holds only for steady currents . However , it is useful for calculating the magnetic field in
highly symmetrical situations where 𝐵 ⃗ is tangential to loop and has non zero constant B or 𝐵 ⃗
is normal to the loop or B vanishes .
Answer the following questions –
1. Only the current inside the Amperian loop contributes in
(a) Finding magnetic field at any point on the Amperian loop .
(b) Line integral of magnetic field .
(c) In both of the above .
(d) In neither (a) nor (b) .
2. An electric current passes through a long wire . At a distance 5 cm from the wire ,
the magnetic field is B . The field at 20 cm from the wire would be
(a) B/2
(b) B/3
(c) B/4
(d) B/5.

81
3. 1 A current flows through an infinitely long straight wire . The magnetic field
produced at a point 1 m away from it is
(a) 2 x 10-3 T
(b) 2𝜋 x 10-3 T
(c) 2 x 10-7 T
(d) 2𝜋 x 10-7 T.
4. A long straight wire of circular cross section ( radius a ) carries current I and the
current I is uniformly distributed across the cross – section . Which of the following
plots represents the variation of magnitude of magnetic field B with distance r from
the centre of the wire?
5. A steady current is flowing through a cylindrical conductor .
(a) The magnetic field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero.
(b) The electric field in the vicinity of the conductor is zero .
(c) The magnetic field at the axis of the conductor is zero .
(d) The electric field at the axis of the conductor is zero.

PARGRAPH 2 : FORCE ON A CURRENT CARRYING CONDUCTOR IN A

MAGNETIC FIELD .
When a conductor carrying current is placed in an external magnetic field , it
experiences a mechanical force . A current carrying conductor when placed in a
magnetic field experiences a sideways force as the force experienced by the
moving electron is transmitted to the conductor as a whole . A conductor of
⃗ at an angle 𝜃 with it ,
length l carrying a current I held in magnetic field 𝐵
experience a force given by F = I l B sin𝜃 . In vector form it is give as 𝐹 = I 𝑙 x
⃗ . The direction of force is perpendicular to both 𝑙 and 𝐵
𝐵 ⃗ and is given by
Fleming’s left hand rule .

Answer the following questions –

1. Ignoring friction , air resistance and electrical resistance , the magnitude and
direction of the net force on the conducting bar is
(a) Il B , to the right
(b) IlB , to the left .
(c) 2 IlB , to the right .
82
 (d) 2 IlB , to the left .
2. If the bar has mass m , find the distance d that of the bar must move along
the rails from rest to attain speed v .
3𝑣 2 𝑚
(a) 2𝐼𝑙𝐵
5𝑣 2 𝑚
(b) 2 𝐼𝑙𝐵
𝑣2𝑚
(c) 𝐼𝑙𝐵
𝑣2𝑚
(d) 2 𝐼𝑙𝐵
3. A force acting on a conductor of length 5 m carrying current of 8 A kept
perpendicular to the magnetic field of 1.5 T is
(a) 100 N
(b) 60 N
(c) 50 N
(d) 75 N
4. A straight wire of mass 200 g and length 1.5 m carries a current of 2 A . It is
suspended in mid air by a uniform horizontal magnetic field B . The
magnitude of B (in Tesla ) is
(a) 2
(b) 1.5
(c) 0.55
(d) 0.65

PARAGRAPH 3 : USING GALVANOMETER AS AN AMMETER AND VOLTMETER .

A galvanometer is a device used to detect current in an electric circuit . It cannot as such be
used as an ammeter to measure current in a given circuit. This is because galvanometer is a
very sensitive device , it gives a full scale deflection for a current of the order 𝜇A . Moreover ,
for measuring currents , the galvanometer has to be connected in series and it has a large
resistance , this will change the value of current in the circuit . To overcome these difficulties
, we connect a small resistance called shunt resistance in parallel with the galvanometer coil,
so that most of the current passes through the shunt . Now to use galvanometer as a
voltmeter , it has to be connected in parallel with the circuit element across which we need
to measure potential difference . Moreover , it must draw a very small current , otherwise it
will appreciably change the voltage which we are measuring . To ensure this a large resistance
R is connected in series with the galvanometer.
Answer the following questions :
1. A sensitive galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter or a voltmeter by
connecting a proper resistance to it . Which of the following statements is true ?
(a) A voltmeter is connected in parallel and current through it is negligible .
(b) An ammeter is connected in parallel and potential difference across it is small.
(c) A voltmeter is connected in series and potential difference acrss it is small.
(d) An ammeter is connected in series in a circuit and the current through it is negligible.
2. By mistake a voltmeter is connected in series and an ammeter is connected in parallel
with a resistance in an electrical circuit. What will happen to the instruments ?

83
(a) Voltmeter is damaged.
(b) Ammeter is damaged
(c) Both are damaged.
(d) None is damaged.
3. Two identical galvanometer are converted into an ammeter and milliammeter .
Resistance of the shunt of milliammeter through which the current passes through will
be
(a) More
(b) Equal
(c) Less
(d) Zero
4. A voltmeter has resistance of G ohm and range of V volt . The value of resistance used
in series to convert it into voltmeter of range n V volt is
(a) nG
(b) (n-1) G
(c) G/n
(d) G/(n-1).

ANSWER KEY ( CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS )

PARAGRAPH 1
1. b
2. c
3. C
4. c

PARAGRAPH 2
1. a
2. d
3. b
4. d

PARAGRAPH 3
1. a
2. d
3. a
4. b

84
 LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (5 MARKS)
1. (a) State Biot Savart’s law expressing it in the vector form. Use it to obtain the
expression for the magnetic field along an axial point , distance d from the centre of
a circular coil of radius a carrying current I .
(b) Find the ratio of the magnitude of the magnetic field of this coil at the centre and
at an axial point for which d = a √3 .
2. Two long straight parallel conductors carrying steady current I1 and I2 separated by a
distance d. If the currents are flowing in the same direction , show how the magnetic field
set up in one produces an attractive force on the other . Obtain the expression for this force.
Hence define one Ampere.
3. With the help of diagram . explain working of a moving coil galvanometer . What is the
function of-
(a) uniform radial field .
(b) soft iron core.
4. Explain how a galvanometer can be converted into an ammeter of a given range . Derive
the expression for shunt resistance and current for full scale deflection . Find the effective
resistance of the ammeter.
5. Explain how a galvanometer can be converted into a voltmeter to read a maximum
potential difference of V volts . Can one use voltmeter to measure the emf of a cell ? Justify
your answer .
NOTE : FOR DERIVATION PART REFER TO NCERT TEXT BOOK PART 1.

85
 CHAPTER 5 - MAGNETISM AND MATTER
GIST OF THE LESSON
Properties of magnets
(i) Attractive property
(ii) Directive Property
(iii) Like poles attract and unlike poles repel.
(iv) Magnet poles cannot be isolated i.e. always exists in pairs.

Magnetic Field Lines

It is defined as the imaginary curve the tangent to which at any point gives the direction of
the magnetic field at that point.
Properties:
(i)The magnetic field lines of a magnet are the imaginary lines making closed continuous
loops.
(ii) The tangent to the magnetic field lines at any point gives the direction of the magnetic
field at that point.
(iii) Two magnetic field lines cannot intersect each other.
(iv) The crowded magnetic field lines represent the stronger field and vice versa.
Magnetic Dipole and Dipole Moment
Two unlike magnetic poles of equal strength separated by a small distance makes a dipole
moment.
If strength of each pole of a magnet is ‘m’ and magnetic length ‘2l’ then
Magnetic dipole moment (M) is given by,
M=mx2l
Its direction is from south pole to north pole.

Its unit is A/m2

Magnetic Field Intensity due to a magnetic dipole (Bar Magnet)
a. Along its Axis

b. Perpendicular to its Axis

86
Torque on a bar magnet placed in uniform external electric field:

a) The net force on it is zero.

b) The torque on it is
c) Torque on dipole will be minimum when = 0o
d) d) Torque on dipole will be maximum when = 90o. When a bar magnet of dipole
moment is placed in a uniform magnetic field , then-
e) Its potential energy is where we choose the zero of energy at the orientation
when is perpendicular to .

87
MAGNETIC PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS

MAGNETIC PROPERTIES OF MATERIALS

Diamagnetic Substances -

Diamagnetic substances are magnetized weakly when placed in an external magnetic field in
a direction that is opposite to the applied field. The type of magnetism that is exhibited by
these substances is known as diamagnetism. Examples of diamagnetic substances are copper,
gold, antimony, bismuth, silver, lead, silicon, mercury, etc.
The electron's orbital motion gives rise to an orbital magnetic moment. In addition to this,
the electrons tend to spin around their own axis, creating a spin magnetic moment. Electrons
in an atom can have a clockwise or anticlockwise spin. In a similar way, the electrons can
revolve around the nucleus in a clockwise or anticlockwise direction.
In the case of diamagnetic substances, the magnetic moments of atoms and the orbital
magnetic moments have been oriented in such a manner that the vector sum of an atom’s
magnetic moment becomes zero.
Characteristics

 In a diamagnetic substance, the magnetic moment of every atom is calculated to be

zero.
 An external magnetic field can repel them weakly.
 If diamagnetic substances are placed in a non-uniform magnetic field, then the
substances move towards the weaker side of the field from the stronger side.
 When these substances are placed in an external magnetic field, they get weakly
magnetized in the direction that is opposite to the direction of the field.
 Magnetic susceptibility turns out to be negative in diamagnetic substances.
Paramagnetic Substances
Substances that get magnetized weakly when placed in an external magnetic field in the same
direction as the direction of the externally applied field are known as paramagnetic
substances. These substances are different from ferromagnetic and diamagnetic substances.
They have a tendency to move from the weaker to the stronger part of the magnetic field.
Some examples of paramagnetic substances are calcium, lithium, tungsten, aluminium,
platinum, etc.
In a paramagnetic substance, each atom has a permanent magnetic dipole moment because
of the way they spin, the magnetic moments are oriented. However, the direction of magnetic
moments can have random orientations when there is thermal motion. Due to which the net
magnetic moment of this substance is zero.

88
Characteristics

 Every atom in this substance is considered as a magnetic dipole that has a resultant
magnetic moment.
 The external magnetic field creates a weak attraction to these substances.
 They move from weaker to the stronger part of the field when placed in a non-uniform
field.
 These substances lose their magnetism when the external magnetic field is removed.
Ferromagnetic Substances
Substances that get magnetized strongly in an external magnetic field in a direction which is
the same as the direction of the externally applied field are known as ferromagnetic
substances. These types of substances retain their magnetic moment even after the removal
of the magnetic field. Ferromagnetic substances tend to move from weaker to stronger parts
of the external field. Some examples of ferromagnetic substances are iron, cobalt, and nickel.
In the ferromagnetic substances spin, magnetic moments have a large contribution. These
substances consist of a large number of small units that are known as domains. These domains
experience torque when a ferromagnetic substance is exposed to an external magnetic field.
Due to this, the domains rotate and remain parallel to the direction of the field.
Characteristics

 A large number of small domains make ferromagnetic substances.

 These substances do not lose their magnetism when the external magnetic field is
removed.
 These substances become paramagnetic when they are heated above the curie point.
 The external magnetic field strongly attracts ferromagnetic substances.
 These ferromagnetic materials tend to move from the weaker to the stronger part of
the field when the magnetic field is non-uniform.
 If a rod of ferromagnetic substance is placed in a uniform magnetic field, the rod
comes to rest with its length being parallel to the direction of the field.

IMPORTANT TOPICS:
Bar magnet, bar magnet as an equivalent solenoid (qualitative treatment only), magnetic
field intensity due to a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) along its axis and perpendicular to its
axis (qualitative treatment only), torque on a magnetic dipole (bar magnet) in a uniform
magnetic field (qualitative treatment only), magnetic field lines. Magnetic properties of
materials- Para-, dia- and ferro - magnetic substances with examples, Magnetization of
materials, effect of temperature on magnetic properties.
Multiple Choice Questions
1. Which among these is not attracted by magnets?
a. Cobalt b. Iron c. Copper d. Nickel
Ans.: c Copper

89
 2. The pole strength of a bar magnet depends upon
a. Nature of the material of the magnet only
b. Area of cross section of the magnet only
c. Both a and b
d. None
Ans : c Both a and b
3. SI unit of magnetic pole strength is
a. A-m
b. A/m
c. A/m2
d. A/m-2
Ans: c. A-m
4.The direction of magnetic dipole moment of a bar magnet is
a. From north pole to south pole
b. From south pole to north pole
c. Perpendicular to the axis of the Bar magnet
d. None
Ans: b From south pole to north pole.
5 . The ratio of magnetic field induction due to short bar magnet on axial line and
equatorial line for the same distance is
a. 1:2
b. 1:3
c. 2:3
d. 2:1
Ans: d 2:1
6. The SI unit of magnetic field induction
a.Weber
b.Tesla
c.Gauss
d.Both b and c
Ans b Tesla
7. The magnetic field induction at a point on the equatorial line of ………………………………

Ans:
8. The magnetic moment at a point on the axial line of a short magnet is…………………
Ans:

90
9. A magnetic bar of M magnetic moment is placed m the field of magnetic strength B, the
torque acting on it is :
(a) 𝑀 .𝐵
(b)–𝑀 .𝐵
(c) 𝑀 × 𝐵 .
(d) 𝐵 × 𝑀
Ans: c
10. If the magnetic field is not uniform, the bar magnet will experience
a. Resultant force only
b. Resultant torque only
c. Both translational and rotational
d. Can’t say.
Ans: c
11. Which of the following is ferromagnetic:
a. Aluminium
b. Quartz
c. Nickel
d. Bismuth
Ans. c
12 Which of the following is paramagnetic:
a. Manganese
b. Iron
c. Copper
d. Water
Ans: a.
13. If the magnetic moment of the atoms of a substance is zero, the substance is called
a. Diamagnetic
b. Paramagnetic
c. Ferromagnetic
d.None of these
Ans: a
14. The magnetic material having negative magnetic susceptibility are
a. Non magnetic

91
b. Diamagnetic
c. Paramagnetic
d. ferromagnetic
Ans: b
15.The magnetic susceptibility for diamagnetic material is
a. Small and negative
b. Large and negative
c. small and positive
d. large and positive
Ans: a
16.Susceptibility is small and positive for
a. Paramagnetic
b. Ferromagnetic
c. non magnetic
d. Diamagnetic
Ans. (a)
17. Ferromagnetic own their properties due to
a. Filled inner shells
b. Vacant inner sub- shell
c. Partially filled inner sub shell
d. All the sub shells equally filled
Ans: c
18. Magnetism in a substance is caused by
a. Orbital motion of the electrons
b. Spin motion of the electrons only
c. Spin and orbital both
d. None of these.
Ans: b
ASSERTION AND REASON:
(A)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason is the correct explanation of
Assertion.

92
(B)Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
(C) Assertion (A) is true, but Reason is false.
(D)Assertion (A) is false, but Reason is true.
Assertion: Ferro-magnetic substances become paramagnetic above Curie temp.
Reason: Domains are destroyed at high temperature.
(Ans: A)
Assertion: Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.
Reason: Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.
(Ans: C)
Assertion: The poles of magnet cannot be separated by breaking into two pieces.
Reason: The magnetic moment will be reduced to half when a magnet is broken into two
equal pieces.
(Ans: B)
Assertion: We can make a analogy that a bar magnet resembles with solenoid.
Reason: This was proved by calculating the axial field of a finite solenoid and at large distance
it resembled that a bar magnet.
(Ans A)
Assertion: Gauss's law of magnetism is different from that for electrostatics.
Reason: Isolated magnetic poles are not known to exist.
(Ans: A)

SHORT QUESTIONS (2 and 3 marks)

1. The magnetic moment of a circular coil carrying current I, having N turns each of radius
r, is M. Find the magnetic moment of the same coil if it is unwound and rewound into
a coil having 2N turns for the same current.
Ans: 2M
2. Out of the magnetic materials, A has relative permeability slightly greater than unity while
B has less than unity. Identify the nature of the materials A and B. Will their susceptibility be
positive or negative?
Ans: Magnetic material A is paramagnetic, its susceptibility will be positive and B is
diamagnetic, its susceptibility will be negative.
3.The susceptibility of magnetic materials is -2.6x10-5. Identify the type of magnetic material
and state its two properties.
Ans: Diamagnetic.

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Properties: (i)Tendency to move from stronger to weaker part of the external magnetic field.
(ii) It gets feebly magnetized in the direction opposite to applied magnetic field.
4.Give two points to distinguish between a paramagnetic and a diamagnetic substance.
Ans. Refer to the Gist.
5.The relative magnetic permeability of magnetic material is 800.Identify the nature of
magnetic material and state its two properties.
Ans: ferromagnetic. Properties
(i) Its get strongly magnetized when placed in an external magnetic field
(ii) It has strong tendency to move region from region of weak magnetic field to strong
magnetic field, i.e.it gets strongly attracted to a magnet.
6.The susceptibility of a magnetic material is 0.9853. Identify the type of magnetic material.
Draw the modification of the field pattern keeping a piece of this material in a uniform
magnetic field.
Ans: Paramagnetic

7. Define magnetic susceptibility of a material. Name two elements, one having positive
susceptibility and the other having negative susceptibility. What does negative susceptibility
signify?
Ans: Magnetic susceptibility: It is defined as the intensity of magnetisation per unit
magnetising field. It has no unit. Iron has positive susceptibility while copper has negative
susceptibility. Negative susceptibility of a substance signifies that the substance will be
repelled by a strong magnet or opposite feeble magnetism induced in the substance.
8. Show diagrammatically the behaviour of magnetic field lines in the presence of
(i) paramagnetic and (ii) diamagnetic substances. How does one explain this distinguishing
feature?
Ans: A paramagnetic material tends to move from weaker to stronger region of the magnetic
field passing through it.
A diamagnetic material tends to move from stronger to weaker regions of the magnetic field
and hence decreases the number of lines of magnetic field passing through it.

94
9. A circular current loop of magnetic moment M is in an arbitrary orientation in an external
magnetic field. Find the work done to rotate the loop by 30° about an axis perpendicular to
its plane?
Ans: Rotation of loop by 30° about an axis perpendicular to its plane does not change the
angle between magnetic moment and magnetic field. Hence, no work is done.
10. Three curves are shown in figures. Indicate what magnetic substance they represent.

Ans(i) diamagnetic, (ii) Ferromagnetic, (iii) paramagnetic.

11.Draw the magnetic field lines for a current carrying solenoid when a rod made of (a) copper
(b) aluminium (c) iron, is inserted within the solenoid.
Ans:

95
12.Define the term magnetic dipole moment. Write the expression for magnetic field
intensity along its axis and perpendicular to the axis.
Ans: Magnetic dipole moment of a magnetic dipole is defined as the product of its pole
strength and magnetic length. It is a vector quantity and directed from S-pole to N-pole.
13.A bar magnet of magnetic moment 5 Am2 has 20 cm apart. Calculate its pole strength.
Ans: pole strength= magnetic moment/length
5/0.20=25 Am.
14.A steel wire of length l ha a magnetic moment m. It is bent into a semi-circular arc. What
is new Magnetic moment?
Ans: New magnetic moment= pole strength x 2r=2m/π.
15. The figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation versus the applied magnetic
field intensity, H, for two magnetic materials A and B :

(a) Identify the materials A and B.

(b) Why does the material B, has a larger susceptibility than A, for a given field at constant
temperature?
Ans:

Slope of the line gives magnetic susceptibilities.

For magnetic material B, it is giving higher +ve value.
So material is ‘ferromagnetic’.
For magnetic material A, it is giving lesser +ve value than ‘B’.
So material is ‘paramagnetic’.(b) Larger susceptibility is due to characteristic ‘domain
structure’. More number of magnetic moments get aligned in the direction of magnetising
field in comparison to that for paramagnetic materials for the same value of magnetising field.
16. A bar magnet is placed in the position of stable equilibrium in a uniform magnetic field of
induction B. (i) How much is the potential energy of the magnet? (ii) If it is rotated through an
angle 180∘, then what will be the amount of work done?
Ans (i) In stable equilibrium, U=-mBcos0=-mB
(ii) When the dipole is rotated through 180 then
Work done=-mB(Cos180-Cos 0) =2mB

96
17.Why is a current carrying loop is considered as a magnetic dipole?
Ans: Like a bar magnet/magnet dipole, a current loop possesses magnetic moment M = NIA.
In an external magnetic field, the current loop experiences a torque and aligns its axis parallel
to magnetic field.
18. A magnetised needle in a uniform magnetic field experiences a torque but no net force.
an iron nail near a bar magnet, however, experience a force of attraction in addition to a
torque. Why?
Ans: In the first case, magnetic field is uniform, and forces on the two ends of the needle are
equal and opposite. So net force is zero. However, a torque act on it. In case of iron nail, there
is an induced magnetism. The induced(say) south pole in the nail, being closer to the north
pole of the bar magnet, experiences a large attractive force than the induced north pole. So
the nail experiences both net attractive and a torque.
19.A coil of N turns and radius R carries a current I. It is unwound and rewound to make
another coil of radius R/2, current I remaining the same. Calculate the ratio of the magnetic
moments of the new coil and the original coil.
Ans: 1:2
20. A bar magnet of magnetic moment 6 J/T is aligned at 60∘ with a uniform external magnetic
field of 0.44 T. Calculate (a) the work done in turning the magnet to align its magnetic moment
(i) normal to the magnetic field, (ii) opposite to the magnetic field, and (b) the torque on the
magnet in the final orientation in case (ii).
Ans: a (i) W= -MB (cos90-cos60) = 1.32J
(ii) 3.96J;
f) Torque=0
21. How does pole strength and magnetic moment of each part of a bar magnet change if it
is cut into two parts?
Ans: The pole strength becomes half and the magnetic moment becomes half.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS:

1.When the atomic dipoles are aligned partially or fully, there is a net magnetic moment in
the direction of the field in any small volume of the material. The actual magnetic field inside
material placed in magnetic field is the sum of the applied magnetic field and the magnetic
field due to magnetisation. This field is called magnetic intensity (H).
H=B/μ0−M, where M is the magnetisation of the material, µ0 is the permittivity of vacuum and
B is the total magnetic field. The measure that tells us how a magnetic material responds to
an external field is given by a dimensionless quantity is appropriately called the magnetic
susceptibility: for a certain class of magnetic materials, intensity of magnetisation is directly
proportional to the magnetic intensity.

97
(i) Magnetization of a sample is
(a) volume of sample per unit magnetic moment (b) net magnetic moment per unit volume
(c) ratio of magnetic moment and pole strength (d) ratio of pole strength to magnetic moment
(ii) Identify the wrongly matched quantity and unit pair.
(a) Pole strength Am
(b) Magnetic susceptibility dimensionless number
(c) Intensity of magnetisation A m-I
(d) Magnetic permeability Henry/ m
(iii) A bar magnet has length 3 cm, cross-sectional area 2 cm2 and magnetic moment
3 Am2. The intensity of magnetisation of bar magnet is
(a) 2×105 A/m (b) 3×105 A/m
(c) 4×105 A/m (d) 5×105 A/m
(iv) A solenoid has core of a material with relative permeability 500 and its windings carry a
current of 1 A. The number of turns of the solenoid is 500 per metre. The magnetization of
the material is nearly
(a) 2.5×103 A m-1 (b) 2.5×105 A m-1
(c) 2.0×103 A m−1 (d) 2.0×105 A m−1
(v) The relative permeability of iron is 6000. Its magnetic susceptibility is
(a) 5999 (b) 6001
(c) 6000 x 10-7 (d) 6000 x 107
Ans: (i) b (ii) c (iii) d (iv) b (v) a.
2. In small fields, ferromagnetic materials typically have much larger susceptibility, therefore
larger permeability than paramagnetic materials. Ferromagnetic results because
spontaneous self-aligning, cooperative interaction among relatively large number of iron
atoms in region called domains. As a result of molecular interactions, the molecular magnetic
moments in each domain are aligned parallel to one another. In other words, each domain is
spontaneously magnetized to saturation even in the absence of any external magnetic field.
The directions of magnetization in different domains are random, so that the resultant
magnetization is zero and the specimen is unmagnetized.
(I) What changes will occur in specimen on placing it inside a solenoid and increasing
magnetizing intensity?
a. Intensity of magnetization decreases
b. Intensity of magnetization increases
c. Magnetic susceptibility of specimen increases.
d. Magnetic susceptibility of specimen decreases

98
(ii) With increase in temperature, magnetic susceptibility of a ferromagnetic material
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Remains constant
d. First increases and decreases.
(iii)For a diamagnetic material which of the option is correct?
a. Magnetic susceptibility>0
b. Magnetic susceptibility<0
c. Magnetic susceptibility=0
d. Magnetic susceptibility =1
(iv) The property possessed by ferromagnetic substance only is
a. Hysteresis
b. Susceptibility
c. Directional property
d. Attracting a magnetic substance.
Ans: 1.b 2.a 3.a 4.d
3. Every substance shows some kind of magnetic behaviour at a time. This magnetic behaviour
is shown because these substances are made up of charged particles like electrons and
protons. It is how the electrons are arranged by themselves in the atoms and how groups of
these atoms behave that tell us the magnetic properties of the material. These atoms (or the
group of atoms) as a result become a magnetic dipole or a minibar magnet that can align
according to the magnetic field that has been applied. The resultant effect of these dipoles
determines the magnetic properties of the magnetic materials. To study the magnetic
properties of magnetic materials, we generally keep the material in a uniform magnetic field,
and then the magnetic field is varied. Based on their behaviour, the magnetic materials can
be classified into three major types: Diamagnetic, Paramagnetic and Ferromagnetic
substances.
(i)The universal (or inherent) property among all these substances is
a. Diamagnetism b. Paramagnetism c. Ferromagnetism d. Both a and b
(ii) Magnetic susceptibility of a diamagnetic substance
a. decrease with temperature b. increase with temperature
c. first increases and then decreases d. is not affected by temperature
(iii) The value of the magnetic susceptibility for a superconductor is
a. zero b. infinity c. +1 d. -1

99
 (iv) Water is example of
a. Diamagnetic b. Paramagnetic c. Ferromagnetic d. Superconductors
(v). If a ferromagnetic material is inserted in a current carrying solenoid, the magnetic
field of solenoid
a. largely increases b. slightly increases c. largely decreases d. slightly decreases.
Ans: 1a; 2 b; 3d; 4a; 5a.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
MCQS:
1.The magnetic field lines inside a bar magnet is
a. from north to south pole of the magnet
b. from south to north pole of the magnet
c. does not exist
d. depends on the area of cross section of the bar.
2. If the magnetizing field on a ferromagnetic material is increased its permeability
a. is decreased b.is increased c. is unaffected d. may be increased or decreased
3. If a ferromagnetic material is inserted in a current carrying solenoid, the magnetic field of
solenoid
a. largely increases b. slightly increases c. largely decreases d. slightly decreases.
4.In which type of material susceptibility does not depend on temperature?
a. Diamagnetic b. Paramagnetic c. Ferromagnetic d. All of them
ASSERTION AND REASON:
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true and Reason is not the correct explanation of
Assertion.
Assertion (A) is true, but Reason is false.
Assertion (A) is false, but Reason is true.
5. Assertion: Ferro-magnetic substances become paramagnetic above Curie temp.
Reason: Domains are destroyed at high temperature.
6.Assertion: Diamagnetic materials can exhibit magnetism.
Reason: Diamagnetic materials have permanent magnetic dipole moment.
7.Assertion: We can make a analogy that a bar magnet resembles with solenoid.
Reason: This was proved by calculating the axial field of a finite solenoid and at large
distance it resembled that a bar magnet.
8. The permeability of a material is 0.9983. Name the type of magnetic materials it represents.

100
9. How does pole strength and magnetic moment of each part of a bar magnet change if it is
cut into two parts?
10.Which of the following substances are paramagnetic: Bi, Al, Cu, Ni?
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS(2marks)
11.Define magnetic susceptibility of a material. Name two elements, having positive
susceptibility and having negative susceptibility. What does negative susceptibility signify?
12. Show diagrammatically the behaviour of magnetic field lines in the presence of
(i) paramagnetic and (ii) diamagnetic substances. How does one explain this distinguishing
feature?
Long Type Questions(3marks)
13. The figure shows the variation of intensity of magnetisation versus the applied magnetic
field intensity, H, for two magnetic materials A and B:

(a) Identify the materials A and B.

(b) Why does the material B, has a larger susceptibility than A, for a given field at constant
temperature?
14. A magnetised needle of magnetic moment 4.8x10-2 J/T is placed at 30°with the direction
of uniform magnetic field of magnitude 3x10-2 T. Calculate the torque acting on the needle.
15 When the atomic dipoles are aligned partially or fully, there is a net magnetic moment in
the direction of the field in any small volume of the material. The actual magnetic field inside
material placed in magnetic field is the sum of the applied magnetic field and the magnetic
field due to magnetisation. This field is called magnetic intensity (H).
H=B/μ0−M, where M is the magnetisation of the material, µ0 is the permittivity of vacuum
and B is the total magnetic field. The measure that tells us how a magnetic material responds
to an external field is given by a dimensionless quantity is appropriately called the magnetic
susceptibility: for a certain class of magnetic materials, intensity of magnetisation is directly
proportional to the magnetic intensity.
(i) Magnetization of a sample is
(a) volume of sample per unit magnetic moment (b) net magnetic moment per unit volume
(c) ratio of magnetic moment and pole strength (d) ratio of pole strength to magnetic moment
(ii) Identify the wrongly matched quantity and unit pair.
(a) Pole strength Am
(b) Magnetic susceptibility dimensionless number

101
 (c) Intensity of magnetisation A m-I
(d) Magnetic permeability Henry/ m
(iii) A bar magnet has length 3 cm, cross-sectional area 2 cm2 and magnetic moment
3 Am2. The intensity of magnetisation of bar magnet is
(a) 2×105 A/m (b) 3×105 A/m
(c) 4×105 A/m (d) 5×105 A/m
(iv) A solenoid has core of a material with relative permeability 500 and its windings carry a
current of 1 A. The number of turns of the solenoid is 500 per metre. The magnetization of
the material is nearly
(a) 2.5×103 A m-1 (b) 2.5×105 A m-1
(c) 2.0×103 A m−1 (d) 2.0×105 A m−1
(v) The relative permeability of iron is 6000. Its magnetic susceptibility is
(a) 5999 (b) 6001
(c) 6000 x 10-7 (d) 6000 x 107

102
 CHAPTER 6: ELECTROMAGNETIC INDUCTION
Gist of Lesson:-
 The phenomenon of producing induced current due to change in magnetic flux is
called EMI
 Magnetic Flux :-
The total number of magnetic lines of force passing normally through an area placed in
a magnetic field is equal to the magnetic flux linked with that area.
 
For elementary area dA of a surface flux linked d  B dA cos or d   B  d A
 
So, Net flux through the surface    B  d A  BA cos θ
dA^ B
For N-turns coil  = NBA cos  B
 Magnetic flux is a scalar quantity.
 S.I. unit is weber (wb),
 CGS unit is Maxwell or Gauss × cm2;
 1 wb  10 8 Maxwell .
 Other units : Tesla × m2  N  m  Joule  Volt  Coulomb  Volt  sec = Ohm ×
Amp Amp Amp
Coulomb = Henry × Amp.
 Dimensional formula [] = [ML2T–2A–1]
 Maximum and Zero flux
If  = 0o, i.e. plane is held perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field then flux from
the surface is maximum and if   90 o i.e. plane is held parallel to the direction of magnetic
field then flux linked with the surface is zero.

 Faraday’s Experiments:-
 First experiment
A coil is arranged to link some of the magnetic flux from a source S. If relative motion
occurs between coil and source S such that flux linked with the coil changes, a current is
induced in it. v v
Source Source

S N S N

Flux increasing Flux decreasing

 Second experiment
Two coils are arranged so that a steady current flows in one and some of its magnetic
flux links with the other. If the current in the first coil changes a current is induced in the
second.

Main Induced
103
current current
increasing

I coil II coil
  Faraday’s Laws :-
 First Law
Whenever the number of magnetic lines of force (magnetic flux) passing through a
circuit changes (or a moving conductor cuts the magnetic flux) an emf is produced in the
circuit (or emf induces across the ends of the conductor) called induced emf. The induced emf
persists only as long as there is change or cutting of flux.
 2nd law
d
The induced emf is given by rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the circuit i.e. e  
dt
N d
. For N turns e   ; Negative sign indicates that induced emf (e) opposes the change
dt
of flux.
 Induced current : If circuit is closed, then induced current is given by
e N d
i  . ; where R is the resistance of circuit
R R dt
 Lenz ‘ Law :- Induced current opposes the factor due to which it produced.

 MOTIONAL EMF : The EMF induced due to motion of a conducter in B.

e = -dΦ /dt=-dB.A/dt=-BdA/dt=-Bldx/dt Or e=-Blv & i =Blv/R
 Force: F =ilB= -B(Blv/R)l =B2 v l2/R
 Power : P =FV=B2 r2 l2/R

 Self-Induction
Whenever the electric current passing through a coil or circuit changes, the magnetic
flux linked with it will also change. As a result of this, in accordance with Faraday’s laws of
electromagnetic induction, an emf is induced in the coil or the circuit which opposes the
change that causes it. This phenomenon is called ‘self induction’ and the emf induced is called
back emf, current so produced in the coil is called induced current.

Induced current Induced current

Rheostat Key Rheostat Key

Main current increasing Main current decreasing

104
  Coefficient of self-induction: If no magnetic materials are present near the coil,
number of flux linkages with the coil is proportional to the current i. i.e., N  i or
N  Li (N is the number of turns in coil and N – total flux linkage) where
N
L = coefficient of self-induction.
i
If i = 1 amp, N = 1 then, L =  i.e., the coefficient of self induction of a coil is equal to
the flux linked with the coil when the current in it is 1 amp.
d di
 By Faraday’s second law induced emf e   N . Which gives e   L ; If
dt dt
di
 1 Amp / sec then |e|= L.
dt
Hence coefficient of self induction is equal to the emf induced in the coil when the
rate of change of current in the coil is unity.
 Units and dimensional formula of ‘L’
Practical Unit is henry (H).
It’s dimensional formula [L] = [ML2T–2A–2]
 Dependence of self-inductance (L): ‘L’ does not depend upon current flowing or
change in current flowing but it depends upon number of turns (N), Area of cross
section (A) and permeability of medium (). (Soft iron has greater permeability.
Hence greater self inductance L)
 Magnetic potential energy of inductor: In building a steady current in the
circuit, the source emf has to do work against of self-inductance of coil and
whatever energy consumed for this work stored in magnetic field of coil this
energy called as magnetic potential energy (U) of coil
U
i 1 1 N i

Parabolic
U Lidi  Li 2 ; Also U  (Li)i 
0 2 2 2

Energy density is given as 1 B2 .

U i
2 0

 Mutual Induction
Whenever the current passing through a coil or circuit changes, the magnetic flux
linked with a neighbouring coil or circuit will also change. Hence an emf will be induced
in the neighbouring coil or circuit. This phenomenon is called ‘mutual induction’. The
coil or circuit in which the current changes is called ‘primary’ while the other in which
emf is set up is called ‘secondary’.

i1 i2

Variable

current Load
P S
R
M

105
 In case of mutual inductance for two coils situated close to each other, total flux
linked with the secondary due to current in the primary is N2 2 and N2 2  i1 
N 2  2  Mi1 where N1 - Number of turns in primary; N2 - Number of turns in secondary;
2 - Flux linked with each turn of secondary; i1 - Current flowing through primary; M-
Coefficient of mutual induction or mutual inductance.
d 2
According to Faraday’s second law emf induces in secondary e 2   N 2 ;
dt
di 1 di 1 Amp
e 2  M ; If 1  then |e2| = M. Hence coefficient of mutual induction is equal
dt dt sec
to the emf induced in the secondary coil when rate of change of current in primary coil is
unity.
 Units and dimensional formula of M are similar to self-inductance (L)
 Dependence of mutual inductance
(a) Number of turns (N1, N2) of both coils
(b) Coefficient of self inductances (L1, L2) of both the coils
(c) Area of cross-section of coils
(d) Magnetic permeability of medium between the coils (r) or nature of material on
which two coils are wound
(e) Distance between two coils (As d  = M )
(f) Orientation between primary and secondary coil (for 90o orientation no
flux relation M = 0)
(g) Coupling factor ‘K’ between primary and secondary coil
 Calculation of mutual inductance between two coils
If two coils (1 and 2) also called primary and secondary coils are placed close to each
other (maximum coupling); N1 and N2 = Number of turns in primary and secondary coils
respectively, 2 = Flux linked with each turn of secondary, N22 = Total flux linkage with
secondary coils; M = Mutual inductance between two coil
So N22 = Mi1  N2(B1A2) = Mi1  M  B1 N 2 A 2
i1

Multiple Choice Questions: -

1. The magnetic flux linked with a coil, in webers, is given by the equations  = 3t2 + 4t +
9. Then the magnitude of induced e.m.f. at t = 2 second will
be [KCET (Engg./Med.) 2000; CPMT 2003]
(a) 2 volt (b) 4 volt (c) 8 volt (d) 16 volt

106
2. The magnetic flux linked with a coil at any instant ‘t’ is given by   5 t 3  100t  300 , the
emf induced in the coil at t = 2 second is

(a) – 40 V (b) 40 V (c) 140 V (d) 300 V

3. Faraday’s laws are consequence of conservation of
(a) Energy (b) Energy and magnetic field (c) Charge (d) Magnetic field

4. In a coil of area 20 cm2 and 10 turns with magnetic field directed perpendicular to the
plane changing at the rate of 104 T/s. The resistance of the coil is 20 . The current in
the coil will be
(a) 10 A (b) 20 A (c) 0.5 A (d) 1.0 A

5. A coil having an area of 2 m2 placed in a magnetic field which changes from 1 to 4

weber/m2 in 2 seconds. The e.m.f. induced in the coil will
be
(a) 4 volt (b) 3 volt
(c) 2 volt (d) 1 volt
(a) 4 volt (b) 3 volt (c) 2 volt (d) 1 volt
6. To induce an e.m.f. in a coil, the linking magnetic flux
(a) Must decrease (b) Can either increase or decrease
(c) Must remain constant (d) Must increase
7. A magnetic field of 2  10 2 Tesla acts at right angles to a coil of area 100 cm 2 with 50
turns. The average emf induced in the coil is 0.1 V, when it is removed from the field in
time t. The value of t is
(a) 0.1 second (b) 0.01 second (c)1 second (d)20 second
8. A cylindrical bar magnet is kept along the axis of a circular coil. If the magnet is rotated
about its axis, then
(a) A current will be induced in a coil (b) No current will be induced in
a coil
(c) Only an e.m.f. will be induced in the coil (d) An e.m.f. and a current both
will be induced in the coil
9. A square loop PQRS is carried away from a current carrying long straight conducting
wire CD (figure). The direction of induced current in the loop
D will be
P Q
(a) Anticlockwise
(b) Clockwise
(c) Some times clockwise sometimes anticlockwise
C S R
(d) Current will not be induced

107
10. The north and south poles of two identical magnets approach a coil, containing a
condenser, with equal speeds from opposite sides. Then
(a) Plate 1 will be negative and plate 2 positive
1
S N S N
(b) Plate 1 will be positive and plate 2 negative v 2 v
(c) Both the plates will be positive
(d) Both the plates will be negative

Ans. 1 (d) ,2 (b) ,3 (a),4 (a),5(b),6(b),7 (a),8(b),9(b),10(b)

1 Mark Questions :-
Q1. When is the magnetic flux crossing a given surface area held in a magnetic field
maximum?
Ans: When area is held perpendicular to the direction of magnetic field.

Q2. What is the basic cause of induces emf?

Ans: Change in magnetic flux linked with the circuit.

Q3. Write an expression for self-inductance of a long solenoid.

Ans: L=µ0N2A/l where symbols have usual meanings

Q4. How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coil change when distance between the
coils is increased?
Ans: Decreases

Q5. How does the mutual inductance of a pair of coil change when an iron sheet is
placed between the two coils?
Ans: Increases

Q6. What is SI Unit of mutual inductance of two coils?

Ans: Henry

Q7. What is electromagnetic induction?

Ans: Phenomena of production of induced emf due to change of magnetic flux linked with
a closed circuit.

Q8. What are the dimensions of self-inductance?

Ans: M1L2T-2A-2

Q9. What are the dimensions of Mutual-inductance?

Ans: M1L2T-2A-2

Q10. A metallic rod held horizontally along East-West direction is allow to fall under gravity.
Will there be an emf induced across its ends?
108
Ans: Yes, this is because horizontal component of the earth’s magnetic field along N -S is
intercepted by the falling rod.

Q11. On what factors does the magnitude of emf induced in the circuit due to magnetic
field depend?
Ans: Rate of change of magnetic flux.

Q12. When current in coil changes with time, how is the back emf induced in the coil related
to it?
Ans: Back emf induced in the coil opposes the change in the current.

Q13. Define 1 henry.

Ans: One(1) henry is self-inductance of the coil in which 1 volt emf is produced when the
rate of change of current in the coil is 1 A/s.

Assertion-Reason Type Questions-

These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four
responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If the Assertion is incorrect but Reason is correct.
1. Assertion : Induced emf will always occur whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
Reason : Current always induces whenever there is change in magnetic flux.
2. Assertion : Lenz’s law violates the principle of conservation of energy.
Reason : Induced emf always opposes the change in magnetic flux responsible for its
production.
3. Assertion : Acceleration of a magnet falling through a long solenoid decreases.
Reason : The induced current produced in a circuit always flow in such direction that
it opposes the change to the cause that produced it.
4. Assertion : An induced emf appears in any coil in which the current is changing.
Reason : Self induction phenomenon obeys Faraday’s law of induction.
5. Assertion : An emf can be induced by moving a conductor in a magnetic field.
Reason : An emf can be induced by changing the magnetic field.

6 . Assertion :Inductance coil are made of copper.

Reason : Induced current is more in wire having less resistance.
7. Assertion: Lenz’s law violates the principle of conservation of energy.
Reason : Induced e.m.f. opposes always the change in magnetic flux responsible for
its production.

109
 8. Assertion : In the phenomenon of mutual induction, self induction of each of the coils
persists.
Reason : Self induction arises when strength of current in same coil changes. In
mutual induction, current is changing in both the individual coils.

Ans. 1 (c) ,2 (a),3(a),4(b),5(b),6(a),7(d),8(b)

Two Marks Questions

Q1. Name the SI Unit of (a) Magnetic Flux (b) Magnetic Induction
Ans: (a) Weber (b) Tesla

Q2. What are the factors on which self-inductance of a coil depend?

Ans: (a) Number of turns
(b) Area of a cross-section
(c) Permeability of core material

Q3. Distinguish between self-induction and Mutual Induction

Ans: Self-induction: It is the property of a coil by virtue of which the coil opposes any
change in the strength of current flowing through it by inducing an emf in itself.
Mutual Induction: It is the property of two coils by virtue of which each opposes any
change in the strength of current flowing through the other by developing an opposing an
emf.
Q4. Distinguish between coefficient of self-inductance and coefficient of mutual
inductance.
Ans: Coefficient of self-inductance: It is numerically equal to the amount of magnetic flux
linked with the coil when unit current flows through the coil.
Coefficient of mutual inductance: Of two coils is equal to the emf induced in one coil
when rate of change of current through the other coil is unity.
Q5. What emf will be induced in a 10H inductor in which current changes from 10Amp to
7Amp in 910-2seconds?
𝑑𝐼
Ans: 𝑒 = −𝐿 𝑑𝑡
−10(7−10)
= 910−2

= 333.3𝑉
Q6. What is the self-inductance of a solenoid of length 40cm., area of cross-section 20cm2
and total number of turns 800.
Ans: L=µ0N2A/l
4𝜋×10−7 (800)2 ×20×10−4
= 0.4

110
 = 4.02 × 10−3 𝐻
Q7. Current in the circuit falls from 5.0 A to 0.0A in 0.1 sec. if an average emf of 200volt is
induced calculate the self-induction of the current?
𝑑𝛷 0.0−5.0
Ans. = = -50A/S
𝑑𝑡 0.1
𝑒 200
𝐿 = − 𝑑𝛷 = −(−50) = 4H
𝑑𝑡

Q 8. A pair of adjacent coil has a mutual inductance of 1.5 H if the current in the one coil
changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 sec what is the change of magnetic flux linkage with the other
coil
Ans. Φ2 =MI1
change in magnetic flux ΔΦ2= MΔI1=1.5(20-0) = 20 A
ΔΦ2=1.5 X 20= 30 Weber

Q9. Two spherical bobs, one metallic and the other of glass of the same size are allow to
fall freely from the same height above the ground which of the two would reach earlier
and why?
Ans: Glass, No effect of EMI in glass.

Q10. Two identical loops, one of copper and the other of Aluminium are rotated with the
same angular speed in the same magnetic field. Compare (a) the induces emf (b) the
current produced in the two coils.
Ans: (a) emf same (area and time period same)
(b) Current in copper is more as copper has less resistance.

Q11. A plane loop of rectangular shape is moved within the region of a uniform magnetic
field acting perpendicular to its plane. What is the direction and magnitude of the
current induced in it?
Ans: No current, hence no direction.

Q 12. A bar magnet falls from a height h through a metal ring. Will its acceleration be equal
to g. Give reason for your answer?
Ans: Acceleration will be less than g as current induces opposes the motion of the magnet.

Q.13 Two identical loops, one of copper and other of aluminium, are rotated with same
angular speed in the same magnetic field. Compare:
i) The induced e.m.f.
ii) The current produced in the two coils.
Justify your answer

Ans. EMF will be same. Induced current is more in copper.

111
Q.14 A metallic rod held horizontally along east-west direction, is allowed to fall under gravity.
Will there be an emf induced at its ends? Justify your answer.
Ans. Yes, emf will be induced in the rod as there is change in magnetic flux.
When a metallic rod held horizontally along east-west direction, is allowed to fall freely under
gravity i.e. fall from north to south , the intensity of magnetic lines of earth’s magnetic field
changes through it i.e. the magnetic flux changes and hence the induced emf in it.

Three Marks Questions

Q1. State an explain Faraday’s Laws of EMI.

Ans . First Law :-Whenever the number of magnetic lines of force (magnetic flux) passing
through a circuit changes (or a moving conductor cuts the magnetic flux) an emf is produced
in the circuit (or emf induces across the ends of the conductor) called induced emf. The
induced emf persists only as long as there is change or cutting of flux.
2nd Law:-
d
The induced emf is given by rate of change of magnetic flux linked with the circuit i.e. e  
dt
N d
. For N turns e   ; Negative sign indicates that induced emf (e) opposes the change
dt
of flux.

Q2. Derive a relation for coefficient of Self-inductance of a long solenoid.

Ans. We are considering a solenoid with n turns with length l . The area of cross section
is AA. The solenoid carriers current I and B is the magnetic field inside the solenoid.
The magnetic field B is given as,
B=μ0nI
Where, μ0 is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns and I is the current in
the solenoid and L is the length.
The magnetic flux is the product of the magnetic field and area of the cross section.
Here the magnetic flux per turn is given as,
ϕ=B×A
Substituting the values in the above expression,
ϕ=μ0nI A /l
Hence there is n number of turns, the total magnetic flux is given as,
ϕ= μ0n2I A /l …………………(1)

If LL is the coefficient of self-inductance of the solenoid, then

ϕ=LI...........(2)
Comparing the two equations we get,
LI=μ0n2IA/l

So the expression for the coefficient of self-inductance is

112
 L= μ0n2A/l

Q3. Prove that the magnitude of the emf induced in a conductor of length l when it
moves at v m/s perpendicular to a uniform magnetic field B is Blv

Ans. The emf induced in a straight conductor of length l moving with velocity v
perpendicular to a magnetic field B is E = Blv

Proof.
F = lIB

Because of this side-thrust, an external force provided by some working agent is required to
maintain the motion. The work done by this agent is the work done on the circulating charge.
There is a direct conversion here of mechanical energy to electrical energy.

The distance moved in time t is

ds = vdt
and the work done is

dW = Fds = lIB∙vdt

Now the product of I and dt is the charge dq displaced in this time, so

dW = Blvdq
or

dW/dq = Blv

113
Since E = dW/dq,

E = Blv
Q4. (i) Define mutual Inductance
(ii) A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5H. If the current in one coil
changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 second, what is the change of flux linkage with the other
coil? (Hint: 30 weber)

Q5. State Lenz’s law. Show that Lenz’s law follows from principle of conservation of energy.
Ans. Lenz’s law states that the polarity of induced emf is such that it tends to produce a
current which opposes the change in magnetic flux that produces it.
Yes and its justification

Long Answer Type Question (5 Marks)

Ques. (1) (a)Define the term mutual inductance between the two coils. Obtain the
expression for mutual inductance of a pair of long solenoids each of length ‘l’ and radii r1
and r2 (r2>>r1). Total numbers of turns in the two coils are N1 and N2 respectively.
(b) A long solenoid with 15 turns per cm has a small loop of area 2cm 2 placed inside the
solenoid normal to its axis. If the current carried by the solenoid changes steadily from
2A to 4 A in 0.1 second, what is the induced emf in the loop while the current is
changing? (Hint: 7.5 µV)
Ans. (a) The mutual-inductance between two coils is defined as the number of the flux
linkages in one coil when unit current flows through the nearby coil .Fig shows two long,
coaxial solenoids of length l with number of turns per unit length n1 and n2 and radii r1 and
r2 respectively.
Total number of turns N1 = n1 l and N2 = n2 l

If I2 be the current flowing in the outer solenoid,

From the definition of mutual inductance

N1∅1 𝑁1 𝐴1 𝐵2 𝑁1 𝐴1 𝜇0 𝑛2 𝐼2 𝜇0 𝑛1 𝑛2 𝐴1
M12 = = = = 𝜇0 𝑁1 𝑁2 l 𝐴1 =
𝐼2 𝐼2 𝐼2 𝑙

(b) using formula e= 7.5 µV

114
Case Study Based Questions: -
1. Self-Induction: - When a current I flow through a coil, flux linked with it is φ = LI, where
L is a constant known as self-inductance of the coil. Any change in current sets up an
induced emf in the coil. Thus, the self-inductance of a coil is the induced emf set up in it
when the current passing through it changes at the unit rate. It is a measure of the
opposition to the growth or the decay of current flowing through the coil. Also, the value
of self-inductance depends on the number of turns in the solenoid, its area of cross-
section, and the permeability of its core material.

(i) The inductance in a coil plays the same role as

(a) inertia in mechanics
(b) energy in mechanics
(c) momentum in mechanics
(d) force in mechanics

(ii) A current of 2.5 A flows through a coil of inductance 5 H. The magnetic flux linked with
the coil is
(a) 0.5 Wb
(b) 12.5 Wb
(c) zero
(d) 2 Wb

(iii) The inductance L of a solenoid depends upon its radius R as

(a) L ∝ R
(b) L ∝ 1/R
(c) L ∝ R2
(d) L ∝ R3

(iv) The unit of self-inductance is

(a) Weber ampere
(b) Weber-1 ampere
(c) Ohm second
(d) Farad

(v) The induced emf in a coil of 10 henry inductance in which current varies from 9 A to
4A in 0.2
second is
(a) 200 V
(b) 250 V
(c) 300 V
(d) 350 V

Ans.: - 1 (a) 2(b) 3 (c) 4 (c) 5 (b)

2. Lenz's law states that the direction of induced current in a circuit is such that it
opposes the change which produces it. Thus, if the magnetic flux linked with a closed

115
 circuit increases, the induced current flows in such a direction that magnetic flux is
created in the opposite direction of the original magnetic flux. If the magnetic flux
linked with the closed-circuit decreases, the induced current flows in such a direction
so as to create magnetic flux in the direction of the original flux.

(i) Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) The induced e.rn.f is not in the direction opposing the change in magnetic flux so as to oppose the cause
(b) The relative motion between the coil and magnet produces change in magnetic flux.
(c) Emf is induced only if the magnet is moved towards coil.
(d) Emf is induced only if the coil is moved towards magnet
(ii)The polarity of induced emf is given by

(a) Ampere's circuital law

(b) Biot-Savart law
(c) Lenz's law
(d) Fleming's right hand rule
(iii) Lenz's law is a consequence of the law of conservation of

(a) charge (b) mass (c) momentum (d) energy

(iv) Two identical circular coils A and B are kept in a horizontal tube side by side without
touching each other. If the current in coil A increases with time, in response, the coil B.
(a) is attracted by A (c) is repelled
(c) is repelled (d) rotates

Ans. 1(b) ,2 (c) 3(d) 4 (c)

Practice Questions
1. Define self-inductance of a coil. Write its S.I. unit.
2. What is meant by back emf ? When current in a coil changes with time, how is the back emf
induced in the coil related to it ?
3. Define Mutual inductance of a coil. Write its S.I. unit.

116
4. What is motional electromotive force (motional emf)?
5. Use the expression for Lorentz force acting on the charge carriers of a conductor to obtain
the expression for the induced emf across the conductor of length moving with velocity
through a magnetic field acting perpendicular to its length.
6. A metallic rod of length is rotated with a frequency, with one end hinged at the centre in a
uniform magnetic field as shown. Derive an expression for- (a) induced emf and induced
current in the rod (b) magnitude and direction of the force acting on the rod (c) power
required to rotate the rod
7. Derive the expression for the self-inductance of a long solenoid of cross sectional area A,
length l , and having turns n per unit length.
8. Derive an expression for the self-inductance of a circular aired coil. Name the three factors
on which the self- inductance of a coil depends.
9. (i) Derive an expression for the mutual inductance of two long coaxial solenoids of same
length wound one over the other.
(ii) Write the factors on which the mutual inductance of a pair of solenoids depends.

117
 CHAPTER 7: ALTERNATING CURRENT
(1) An alternating quantity (current i or voltage V) is one whose magnitude changes
continuously with time between zero and a maximum value and whose direction reverses
periodically.
(2) Some graphical representation for alternating quantities
i or V i or V
+ +
t t
– –

Sinusoidal Triangular

i or V i or V
+ +
t t
–

Rectangular ac super imposed on dc

(3) Equation for i and V : Alternating current or voltage varying as sine function can be
written as
2𝜋
i = i0 sint = i0 sin 2 t = i0sin 𝑡
𝑇
V0 or i0
2𝜋 i or V Positive half
and 𝑉 = 𝑉0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜔 𝑡 = 𝑉0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 2 𝜋𝜈𝑡 = 𝑉0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑡 + cycle
𝑇
 2
where i and V are Instantaneous values of current and 0 t or 
T/4
voltage, T/2 – Negative
half cycle
i0 and V0 are peak values of current and voltage T

 = Angular frequency in rad/sec,  = Frequency in Hz Fig. 24.2

and T = time period

Important Values of Alternating Quantities
(1) Peak value (io or V0) : The maximum value of alternating quantity (i or V) is defined as
peak value or amplitude.
(2) Mean square value (𝑉 𝟐 𝑜𝑟 𝑖 2 ) : The average of square of instantaneous values in one
cycle is called mean square value. It is always positive for one complete cycle. e.g. 𝑉 2 =
1 𝑇 𝑉02 𝑖02
∫ 𝑉 2 𝑑𝑡 =
𝑇 0 2
or 𝑖 2 = 2
(3) Root mean square (r.m.s.) value : Root of mean of square of voltage or current in an
ac circuit for one complete cycle is called r.m.s. value. It is denoted by Vrms or irms
𝑇
2
𝑖 +𝑖 +... 2 ∫ 𝑖 2 𝑑𝑡 𝑖0
𝑖𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √ 1 𝑛2 = √𝑖 2 = √ 0 𝑇 = = 0.707 i0 = 70.7% i0
∫0 𝑑𝑡 √2

Similarly

118
 𝑉0 1
𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 = = 0.707𝑉0 = 70.7%of V0 [⟨𝑠𝑖𝑛2( 𝜔𝑡)⟩ = ⟨𝑐𝑜𝑠 2 ( 𝜔𝑡)⟩ = 2]
√2

(4) Mean or Average value (iav or Vav) : The average value of alternating quantity for one
complete cycle is zero.
The average value of ac over half cycle (t = 0 to T/2)
𝑇/2
∫0 𝑖𝑑𝑡 2𝑖0
𝑖𝑎𝑣 = 𝑇/2 = 𝜋
= 0.637𝑖0 = 63.7% of i0,
∫0 𝑑𝑡
2𝑉0
Similarly 𝑉𝑎𝑣 = 𝜋
= 0.637𝑉0 = 63.7% of V0.

(5)Power in ac Circuits
In dc circuits power is given by P = Vi. But in ac circuits, since there is some phase angle
between voltage and current, therefore power is defined as the product of voltage and that
component of the current which is in phase with the voltage.
Thus 𝑃 = 𝑉𝑖𝑐𝑜𝑠𝜑; where V and i are r.m.s. value of voltage and current.
(1) Instantaneous power : Suppose in a circuit 𝑉 = 𝑉0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜔 𝑡 and 𝑖 = 𝑖0 𝑠𝑖𝑛( 𝜔𝑡 + 𝜑)
then 𝑃instantaneous = 𝑉𝑖 = 𝑉0 𝑖0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜔 𝑡 𝑠𝑖𝑛( 𝜔𝑡 + 𝜑)
(2) Average power: The average of instantaneous power in an ac circuit over a full cycle is
called average power. It's unit is watt i.e.
2
𝑉0 𝑖0 1 2
𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑅
𝑃𝑎𝑣 = 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑖𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜑 = . 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜑 = 𝑉0 𝑖0 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜑 = 𝑖𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑅=
√2 √2 2 𝑍2
where, cos Ø= Resistance(R) / Impedance (Z) is called the power factor 0f AC circuit

Resistive Circuit (R-Circuit)

(1) Current :𝑖 = 𝑖0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜔 𝑡 R

𝑉0
(2) Peak current : 𝑖0 = i
𝑅
(3) Phase difference between
voltage and current :  = 0o
(4) Power factor : 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜑 = 1
𝑉0 𝑖0
(5) Power : 𝑃 = 𝑉𝑟𝑚𝑠 𝑖𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 2
(6) Time difference : T.D. = 0
(7) Phasor diagram : Both are in same phase
V i

Inductive Circuit (L-Circuit)

𝜋
(1) Current : 𝑖 = 𝑖0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝜔𝑡 − 2 ) L

(2) Peak current :

i
𝑉0 𝑉0 𝑉0
𝑖0 = 𝑋 = 𝜔 = 2𝜋𝜈𝐿
𝐿 𝐿

119
 (3) Phase difference between
𝜋
voltage and current 𝜑 = 90𝑜 (or + 2 )
(4) Power factor : 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜑 = 0
(5) Power : P = 0
𝑇
(6) Time difference : T.D. = 4
𝜋
(7) Phasor diagram : Voltage leads the current by 2

V V
90o
90o or
i i

Capacitive Circuit (C-Circuit)

𝜋
(1) Current : 𝑖 = 𝑖0 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (𝜔𝑡 + 2 ) C

(2) Peak current :

i
𝑉
𝑖0 = 𝑋0 = 𝑉0 𝜔𝐶 = 𝑉0 (2𝜋𝜈𝐶)
𝐶

(3) Phase difference between

𝜋
voltage and current : 𝜑 = 90𝑜 (or − 2 )
(4) Power factor : 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜑 = 0
(5) Power : P = 0
𝑇
(6) Time difference : TD = 4
(7) Phasor diagram : Current leads the voltage by /2
i
i
90o

V 90o
V

Series RLC-Circuit
R L C
VL
(VL – VC) V
VR VL VC
i i

VR i
V = V0 sint VC
VR = iR, VL = iXL, VC = iXC Phasor diagram

𝑉0
(1) Equation of current : 𝑖 = 𝑖0 𝑠𝑖𝑛( 𝜔𝑡 ± 𝜑); where 𝑖0 = 𝑍
(2) Equation of voltage : From phasor diagram

120
 𝑉 = √𝑉𝑅2 + (𝑉𝐿 − 𝑉𝐶 )2
(3) Impedance of the circuit :
1 2
𝑍 = √𝑅 2 + (𝑋𝐿 − 𝑋𝐶 )2 = √𝑅 2 + (𝜔𝐿 − 𝜔𝐶)

(4) Phase difference : From phasor diagram

1 1
𝑉𝐿 −𝑉𝐶 𝑋𝐿 −𝑋𝐶 𝜔𝐿− 2𝜋𝜈𝐿−
𝜔𝐶 2𝜋𝜈𝐶
𝑡𝑎𝑛 𝜑 = = = =
𝑉𝑅 𝑅 𝑅 𝑅

(5) If net reactance is zero : Means 𝑋 = 𝑋𝐿 − 𝑋𝐶 = 0

 XL = XC . This is the condition of resonance
(6) At resonance (series resonant circuit)
(i) XL = XC  Zmin = R i.e. circuit behaves as resistive circuit
(ii) VL = VC  V = VR i.e. whole applied voltage appeared across the resistance
(iii) Phase difference :  = 0o  p.f. = cos  = 1
1
(iv) Power consumption P = Vrms irms = 2 𝑉0 𝑖0
𝑉0
(v) Current in the circuit is maximum and it is 𝑖0 = 𝑅
(vi) These circuit are used for voltage amplification and as selector circuits in wireless
telegraphy.
(7) Resonant frequency (Natural frequency)
1 1 𝑟𝑎𝑑 1
At resonance 𝑋𝐿 = 𝑋𝐶  𝜔0 𝐿 = 𝜔  𝜔0 =  𝜈0 = 2𝜋√𝐿𝐶 𝐻𝑧(or𝑐𝑝𝑠)
0𝐶 √𝐿𝐶 𝑠𝑒𝑐

(Resonant frequency doesn't depend upon the resistance of the circuit)

Wattless Current
Average power is given by

Pav = Erms = Irms cos θ

Here the Irms cos φ contributes for power dissipation. Therefore, it is called wattless current.
AC Generator or Dynamo
It is a device which converts mechanical energy into alternating current energy.

Its working is based on electromagnetic induction.

The induced emf produced by the AC generator is given by

e = NBAω sin ωt = eo = sin ωt

The parts of an AC generator

121
(i) Armature It is rectangular coil of insulated copper wire having a large number of turns.
(ii) Field Magnets These are two pole pieces of a strong electromagnet.

TRANSFORMER
(i)Vs/Vp = Ns/Np
(ii)efficiency η = (VsIs/ Vp Ip) ×100
for ideal transformer η = 100%
iii) For ideal transformer Vs/Vp = Ns/Np = Ip/Is
MCQ
 
1.If a current I given by I0 sin   t   flows in an ac circuit across which an ac potential of
 2
E  E0 sin  t has been applied, then the power consumption P in the circuit will be
E0 I0
(a) P (b) P  2 E0 I0
2
E0 I0
(c) P (d) P = 0
2
1Ans :D
𝜋
2.Voltage and current in an ac circuit are given by 𝑉 = 5 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (100𝜋𝑡 − ) and 𝐼 =
6
𝜋
4 𝑠𝑖𝑛 (100𝜋𝑡 + 6 )
(a) Voltage leads the current by 30 o

(b) Current leads the voltage by 30 o

(c) Current leads the voltage by 60 o

(d)Voltage leads the current by 60 o

2Ans : C
3.The power factor of LCR circuit at resonance is
(a) 0.707 (b) 1

122
(c) Zero (d) 0.5
3Ans : B
4.In a series circuit R = 300 , L = 0.9 H, C = 2.0 F and  = 1000 rad/sec. The impedance of
the circuit is
(a) 1300  (b) 900 
(c) 500  (d) 400 
Ans : C

5.The variation of the instantaneous current (I) and the instantaneous emf (E) in a circuit is as
shown in fig. Which of the following statements is correct
E I

/2 3/2
O  2 t

(a) The voltage lags behind the current by  / 2

(b) The voltage leads the current by  / 2
(c) The voltage and the current are in phase
(d) The voltage leads the current by 
5.Ans : B
6.In pure inductive circuit, the curves between frequency f and reciprocal of inductive
reactance 1/XL is

(a) (b)

f f

(c) (d) 1
XL

f f

6Ans : C
7.The large-scale transmission and distribution of electrical energy over long distances is done
with the use of
(a) Dynamo (b) Transformers (c) Generator (d) Capacitor
7Ans : B
8.In an LCR series circuit, the capacitor is changed from C to 4C. To keep the resonant
frequency same, the inductance must be changed by?
(a) 2L (b) L/2 (c) 4L (d) L/4

123
8Ans : D
9.The reading of an ammeter in an alternating current is 4A. The peak value of current in the
circuit is
(a) 4 A (b) 8 A (c) 4√2 A (d) √2 A
9.Ans :C
10. In a purely resistive AC circuit, the current
(a) is in phase with the e.m.f.
(b) leads the e.m.f. by a difference of  radians phase
(c) leads the e.m.f. by a phase difference of  /2 radians
(d) lags behind the e.m.f. by phase difference of  /4 radian
10.Ans : A
11. The core of a transformer is laminated, so as to
(a) make it light weight (b) make it robust and strong (c) increase the secondary voltage (d)
reduce energy loss due to eddy current
11.Ans : D
12. The ratio of no. of turns of primary coil to secondary coil in a transformer is 2:3. If a cell of
6 V is connected across the primary coil, then voltage across the secondary coil will be
(a) 3 V (b) 6 V (c) 9 V (d) 12 V
12Ans C
13. In a transformer, the no. of turns of primary and secondary coil are 500 and 400
respectively. If 220 V is supplied to the primary coil, then ratio of currents in primary and
secondary coils is
(a) 4:5 (b) 5:4 (c) 5:9 (d) 9:5
13Ans : A
14.Power factor is maximum in an LCR circuit when
XL  XC R0
(a) (b)
XL  0 XC  0
(c) (d)
14Ans : A
15 A coil of 200 resistance and 1.0 H inductance is connected to an ac source of frequency
200 /2 Hz .
Phase angle between potential and current will be
(a) 30o (b) 90o
(c) 45o (d) 0o
15Ans :C

ASSERTION AND REASON

Directions: In the following questions, two statements are given- one labeled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason. Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes
(a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below

124
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but Reason is false
. (d) Assertion is false but Reason is true

1.Assertion : In series LCR circuit resonance can take place.

Reason : Resonance takes place if inductance and capacitive reactance are equal and
opposite.
1.Ans : A
2.Assertion : A bulb connected in series with a solenoid is connected to ac source. If a soft
iron core is introduced in the solenoid, the bulb will glow brighter.
Reason :On introducing soft iron core in the solenoid, the inductance increases.
2.Ans : D
3.Assertion : Capacitor serves as a block for dc and offers an easy path to ac.
Reason :Capacitive reactance is inversely proportional to frequency
3.Ans : A
4.Assertion : The alternating current lags behind the emf by a phase angle of, π/2 when AC
flows through an inductor.
Reason : The inductive reactance increases as the frequency of AC source increases.
4.Ans :B
5.Assertion : The power is produced when a transformer steps up the voltage.
Reason : In an ideal transformer VI = constant.
5.Ans : A
6.Assertion : Choke coil is preferred over a resistor to control the current in an AC circuit.
Reason : Power factor of an ideal inductor is zero.
6.Ans : A
7.Assertion : Average value of ac over a complete cycle is always zero.
Reason: Average value of ac is always defined over half cycle.
7.Ans : B
8.Assertion : An electric lamp connected in series with a variable capacitor and ac source,
its brightness increases with increase in capacitance.
Reason : Capacitive reactance decrease with increase in capacitance of capacitor.
8Ans : A
9.Assertion : An inductance and a resistance are connected in series with an ac circuit. In
this circuit the current and the potential difference across the resistance lag behind
potential difference across the inductance by an angle /2.
Reason :In LR circuit voltage leads the current by phase angle which depends on the value
of inductance and resistance both.
9Ans : B

125
10.Assertion : A capacitor of suitable capacitance can be used in an ac circuit in place of the
choke coil.
Reason :A capacitor blocks dc and allows ac only.
10Ans : B

TWO MARKS QUESTIONS :

1.Why is the use of AC voltage preferred over DC voltage? Give two reasons
1.ANS : It is easy to maintain and change the voltage of AC electricity for
transmission and distribution
· AC can be stepped up and back down with transformers quite easily whereas
DC cannot as transformers rely on a constantly changing EMF

· Plant cost for AC transmission is much more lower than equivalent DC

transmission

2.How much average power over a complete cycle, does an AC source supply to a capacitor?

2.ANS :Power dissipated in ac circuit, P=VrmsIrmscosφ where cosφ=Z/R

For an ideal capacitor R=0 cosφ=ZR=0

P=VrmsIrmscosφ = VrmsIrms×0=0 (zero).

i.e. power dissipated in an ideal capacitor is zero.

3.Define the term rms value of the current. How is it related to the peak value?

3.ANS :That steady current which, when flows through a resistor of known resistance for a
given period of time than as a result the same quantity of heat is produced by the alternating
current when flows through the same resistor for the same period of time is called R.M.S or
effective value of the alternating current. In other words, the R.M.S value is defined as the
square root of means of squares of instantaneous values. In a complete cycle, the square root
of the average value of the square of alternating current is called the root mean square (RMS)
value of alternating current

Irms=I0/√2
.=0.707I0

Where I0 is the peak value of current.

126
4.The instantaneous current and voltage of an AC circuit are given by I =(10 sin 300t) A and
V= (200 sin 300t) V. What is the power dissipation in the circuit?
4.ANS:The instantaneous current ad voltage of an AC circuit are given.

 I = 10 sin 300 t A

 V = 200 sin 300 t volt

The average power loss over a cycle is given by.

P = V / CosΘ
Where V and I are the rms value of voltage and current.
Here phase difference Φ = 0°
The average power loss over a complete cycle
P = 10 / √2 x 200 /√2 x cos0°
P = 1000 W
Hence the power dissipation in the circuit is 1000 W

5.Prove that an ideal inductor does not dissipate power in an a.c. circuit
5.ANS:The instantaneous EMF is given by E=EoSinωt

the instantaneous current in the inductor is given by I=Iocosωt

the instantaneous power in the inductor is given by P=EI

=EoIocosωtsinωt

= 2EoIosin2ωt

the average power over the complete cycle Pav=2EoIosin2ωt=0

hence,an ideal inductor does not dissipate power

6. Draw a graph showing variation of reactance of (i)Capacitor (ii)Inductor with frequency

6.ANS :

127
7.In an AC circuit, the rms voltage is 100√2V. Find the peak value of voltage and its means
value during a positive half cycle.
7.ANS:

Ev=1002V,E0=?,Em=?

E0=√2Ev=√2(100/√2)=200V

Em=2E0/ π =2X200/3.14

=127.4V

8.A capacitor of capacitance 100μF and the coil of resistance 50Ω and inductance 0.5 H are
connected in series with a 110 V, 50Hz AC source. Find the rms value of the current
8.ANS: XL = ω L = 2 × 3.14 × 50 × 0.5 Ω = 157Ω

9.Resonance frequency of a circuit is ν . If the capacitance is made 4 times the initial value,
then the resonance frequency will become.
9.ANS

128
10. Mention the two characteristics properties of the material suitable for making the core
of transformer
10.ANS:

The characteristic properties of the material suitable for making the core of a transformer are as
follows:

→ low coercivity and low retentivity

→ low hysteresis loss

→ High magnetic susceptibility

→ High permeability

→ High resistivity

THREE MARKS QUESTIONS :

1.An inductor 200 mH, capacitor 500 µF, resistor 10 W are connected in series with a 100 V,
variable frequency a.c. source. Calculate the (i) frequency at which the power factor of the
circuit is unity. (ii) current amplitude at this frequency.
1.ANS:

129
2.A 15µF capacitor is connected to 220 V, 50 Hz source. Find the capacitive reactance and the
rms current
2.ANS:

3.An electric lamp is having a coil of negligible inductance and is connected in series with a
capacitor, and an a.c source is glowing with a certain brightness. How will the brightness

130
of a lamp change on reducing the
(i) capacitance, and
(ii) the frequency? Justify your Answer
3.ANS:

4.An alternating voltage given by V=140 sin314t is connected across a pure resistor of 50
ohms.Find Frequency,Vrms and Irms
4.ANS:

5.Draw a sketch of the basic elements of an a.c. generator. State its principle and briefly
explain its working.
5.ANS:

(a) Principle:

It works on the principle of Faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction. Whenever a coil is rotated
in a uniform magnetic field about an axis perpendicular to the field, the magnetic flux linked with
coil changes and an induced emf is set up across its ends.

131
Working:

When the coil starts rotating with the arm AB moving up and the arm CD moving down, cutting
the magnetic lines of force, then according to Fleming's right-hand rule and the induced current is
set up in these arms along the direction of AB and CD. So an effective induced current flowing in
the direction of ABCD is obtained.

If there are large number of turns in the coil, the current generated in each turn adds upto give a
large quantity of current through the coil.

After half rotation of the coil, its arm CD starts moving up and AB moving down. As a result, the
direction of the induced currents gets reversed in the coil in the direction of DCBA. Thus after
every half rotation the polarity of the current in the respective arm changes. Such a current, which
changes its direction after equal intervals of time, is called to get a direct current a split ring type
commutator must be used in place of slip ring commutator.

emf induced in a coil

Consider a coil of N turns and area A being rotated at a constant angular velocity ω in a magnetic
field of flux density B, its axis being perpendicular to the field.

When the normal to the coil is at an angle θ to the field, the flux through the coil is BAN cosθ =
BAN cos(ω)t, since θ = ωt

The induced emf produced by the AC generator is given by

e = NBAω sin ωt = eo = sin ωt

132
FIVE MARKS QUESTIONS :
1.(a) Derive the relationship between the peak and the rms value of current in an a.c. circuit.
(b) Describe briefly, with the help of a labelled diagram, working of a step-up transformer.
A step-up transformer converts a low voltage into high voltage. Does it not violate the
principle of conservation of energy? Explain
𝑇
2 2
𝑖 +𝑖 +... ∫ 𝑖 2 𝑑𝑡 𝑖0
1.ANS: a) 𝑖𝑟𝑚𝑠 = √ 1 𝑛2 = √𝑖 2 = √ 0 𝑇 = = 0.707 i0 = 70.7% i0
∫0 𝑑𝑡 √2

b) When alternating current source is connected to the ends of primary coil, the current
changes continuously in the primary coil; due to which the magnetic flux linked with the
secondary coil changes continuously, therefore the alternating emf of same frequency is
developed across the secondary.

Let Np be the number of turns in primary coil,

NS the number of turns in secondary coil and f the magnetic flux linked with each turn.

We assume that there is no leakage of flux so that the flux linked with each turn of
primary coil and secondary coil is the same.

According to Faraday’s laws the emf induced in the primary coil If the resistance of
primary coil is negligible, the emf (εp) induced in the primary coil, will be equal to the
applied potential difference (Vp) across its ends. Similarly if the secondary circuit is open,
then the potential difference VS across its ends will be equal to the emf (εS) induced in it;
therefore where r = NS/Np is called the transformation ratio. If ip and iS are the
instantaneous currents in primary and secondary coils and there is no loss of energy; then
For about 100% efficiency, Power in primary = Power in secondary

133
The law of conservation of energy cannot be violated at all. The fact that voltage and current get
“stepped” in opposite directions (one up, the other down) makes perfect sense when power is
equal to voltage times current, and realize that transformers cannot produce power, only convert
it. Any device that could output more power than it took in would violate the Law of Energy
Conservation

2.Show that a series L-C-R circuit at resonance behaves as a purely resistive circuit. Compare
the phase relation between current and voltage in series L-C-R circuit for a) XL <XC b) XL > XC
C) XL = XC using phasor diagrams

2.ANS: At resonance,

XL=XC

Z=[(XL−XC)2+R2]1/2

Z=R

134
Hence, series LCR circuit at resonance behaves as purely resistive circuit.

3.The given circuit diagram shows a series LCR circuit connected to a variable frequency 230
V source. Here L=5.0 H, C=80 μ F, R=40 Ω

(a) Determine the source frequency, which drives the circuit in resonance.
(b) Obtain the impedance of the circuit and the amplitude of current at the resonating
frequency.
(c) Determine the rms potential drops across the three elements of the circuit.
(d) How do you explain the observation that the algebraic sum of the voltage of the three
elements obtained in (c) is greater than the supplied voltage?
3.ANS:

(a)

The resonance frequency is given by

135
ω=1/√LC=1/√5×80×10−6=50rad/s

The resonant frquency is 50 rad/s.

(b)

At resonance, ωL=1/ωC

⇒Z=R=40Ω

The peak voltage, Vo=2V

Io=2V/Z

Io=8.13A

(c)

Potential drop across inductor,

VL(rms)=I×ωRL

I=I0/2=2V/2Z=23/40 A

⇒Vrms=1437.5V

Potential drop across capacitor,

(Vc)rms=I×1/ ωRC=1437.5V

Potential drop across resistor,

(VR)rms=I×R=230V

Potential drop across the LC combination

VLC= I(XL-XC)

at resonance XL=XC ⇒VLC=0 V

136
CASE STUDY
PASSAGE – I
A fresh man physics lab is designed to study the transfer of electrical energy from one
circuit to another by means of a magnetic field using simple transformers. Each transformer
has two coils of wire electrically insulated from each other but wound around a common core
of ferromagnetic material. The two wires are close together but do not touch each other. The
primary coil is connected to a resistor such as a light both. The AC source produces an
oscillating voltage and current in the primary coil that produces an oscillating magnetic field
in the core material. This in turn induces an oscillating voltage and AC current in the
secondary coil. Students collected the following data comparing the number of turns per coil
(N), the voltage (V) and the current (I) in the coils of three transformers.

Primary coil Secondary coil

N1 V1 I1 N2 V2 I2

Transformer 1 100 10 A 200 20 V 5A

10 V

Transformer 2 100 10 V 10 A 50 5V 20 A

Transformer 3 100 10 V
10 A 100 5V 20 A
1. The primary coil of a transformer has 100 turns and is connected to a 120V AC source.
How many turns are in the secondary coil if there is a 2400V across it?
a) 5 b) 50 c) 200 d) 2000
2. A transformer with 40 turns in its primary coil is connected to a 120 V AC source. If 20
watts of power is supplied to the primary coil, how much power is developed in the secondary
coil?
a) 10 W b) 20 W c) 80 W d) 160 W
3. Which of the following is a correct expression for R, the resistance of the load
connected to the secondary coil?
2 2
V   N   V1   N 2  V   N  V   N 
a)  1   2  b)     c)  1   1  d)  1   1 
 I1   N1   I1   N1   I1   N 2   I1   N 2 
4. The primary coil of a given transformer has 1/3 as many turns as in its secondary coil.
What primary current is required to provide a secondary current of 3.0mA?
a) 1.0mA b) 6.0mA c) 9.0mA d) 12.0mA
5. A 12V battery is used to supply 2.0mA of current to the 300 turns in the primary coil
of a given transformer. What is the current in the secondary coil if N 2 = 150 turns?
a) 0 A b) 1.0mA c) 2.0mA d) 4.0 A
Answers : 1 – d ; 2 – c ; 3 – b ; 4 – b ; 5 – a

137
 PASSAGE – II
Resonant Series LCR Circuit. When the frequency of ac supply is such that the inductive
reactance and capacitive reactance become equal, the impedance of the series LCR circuit is
equal to the ohmic resistance in the circuit. Such a series LCR circuit is known as resonant
series LCR circuit and the frequency of the ac supply is known as resonant frequency.
Resonance phenomenon is exhibited by a circuit only if both L and C are present in the circuit.
We cannot have resonance in a RL or RC circuit. A series LCR circuit with L = 0.12 H, C = 480
nF, R = 23 Ω is Connect to a 230 V variable frequency supply.

(i) Find the value of source for which current amplitude is maximum.
(a) 222.32 Hz
(b) 550.52 Hz
(c) 663.48 Hz
(d) 770 Hz

(ii) The value of maximum current is

(a) 14.14 A
(b) 22.52 A
(c) 50.25 A
(d) 47.41 A

(iii) The value of maximum power is

(a) 2200 W
(b) 2299.3 W
(c) 5500 W
(d) 4700 W

(iv) At resonance which of the following physical quantity is maximum?

(a) Impedance
(b) Current
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

(i) c
(ii) a
(iii) b
(iv) b

138
 CHAPTER 8 : ELECTROMAGNETIC WAVES

Gist of the Chapter

Displacement Current The current which comes into play in the region in which the electric
field and the electric flux is changing with time. It is given by
𝑑∅𝑒
𝐼𝑑 = 𝜖0
𝑑𝑡
Need for Displacement Current Ampere’s circuital law for conduction current during
charging of a capacitor was found inconsistent. Therefore, Maxwell modified Ampere’s
circuital law.
The displacement current produces in space due to change of electric flux linked with the
surface. This reveals that, varying electric field is the source of magnetic field.

Maxwell’s Equations of Electromagnetic Waves Maxwell’s equations are the basic laws of
electricity and magnetism. These equations give complete description of all electromagnetic
interactions.
There are four Maxwell’s equations which are explained below:

Electromagnetic Waves are coupled oscillating electric and magnetic fields created by
accelerating charges that propagate forward in space.
Electromagnetic waves are transverse in nature, i.e. electric and magnetic fields are
perpendicular to each other and to the direction of wave propagation. Electromagnetic
waves are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields.
E (electric field) and B (magnetic field) in electromagnetic waves are in same phase.
The energy in electromagnetic wave is divided on an average equally between electric and
magnetic fields.
Electromagnetic Spectrum The systematic sequential distribution of electromagnetic waves
in ascending or descending order of frequency or wavelength is known as electromagnetic
spectrum. The range varies from 10-12 m, to 104 m, i.e. from γ-rays to radio waves.

139
Elementary facts about the uses of electromagnetic waves
Radio waves
(i) In radio and TV communication.
(ii) In astronomical field.
Microwaves
(i) In RADAR communication.
(ii) In analysis of molecular and atomic structure.
(iii) For cooking purpose.
Infrared waves
(i) In knowing molecular structure. (ii) In remote control of TV VCR, etc.
Ultraviolet rays
(i) Used in burglar alarm. (ii ) To kill germs in minerals.
X-rays
(i) In medical diagnosis as they pass through the muscles not through the bones.
(ii) In detecting faults, cracks, etc., in metal products,
γ-rays
(i) disinfection in industries (ii) In radiotherapy.

MCQs
1. Which physical quantity is same for X-rays, red light and radio waves in vacuum?
(a) wavelength (b) frequency (c) speed (d) none of these.
2. 10 cm is the wavelength corresponding to which part of electromagnetic wave?
(a) X ray (b) Gamma (c) Microwave (d) Visible light
3. Which part of electromagnetic spectrum has largest penetrating power?
(a) x-ray (b) visible (c) gamma (d) radio
4. Which part of electromagnetic spectrum is absorbed from sunlight by ozone layer?
(a) x-ray (b) ultra violet (c) gamma (d) radio
5. Which of the following has the shortest wavelength?
(a) Microwaves (b) Ultraviolet rays (c) X-rays (d) radio

140
 6. If E and B represent electric and magnetic field vectors of the electromagnetic wave,
the direction of propagation of electromagnetic wave is along
(a) E (b) E×B (c) B×E (d) B
7. The ratio of contributions made by the electric field and magnetic field components
to the intensity of an EM wave is
(a) C:1 (b) 𝐶 2 : 1 (c) 1:1 (d) √𝐶: 1
Assertion and Reasoning
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1. Assertion : Electromagnetic wave are transverse in nature.
Reason : The electric and magnetic fields in electromagnetic waves are
perpendicular to each other and the direction of propagation.
2. Assertion: Electromagnetic waves exert radiation pressure.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves carry energy.
3. Assertion: Electromagnetic waves carry energy and momentum.
Reason : Electromagnetic waves cannot be polarised.
4. Assertion : Ultraviolet radiation plays an important role in maintaining the average
temperature of earth.
Reason : Ultra violet radiations are sometimes referred to as heat waves
5. Assertion : The velocity of electromagnetic waves depends on electric and magnetic
properties of the medium.
Reason : Velocity of electromagnetic waves in free space is constant.
Very Short Answer Type
1. Write two properties of electromagnetic waves.
2. What are electromagnetic waves? Are these waves transverse or longitudinal?
3. How are electromagnetic waves produced?
4. The small ozone layer on top of the stratosphere is crucial for human survival. Why?
Give the wavelength range of the associated electromagnetic wave.
5. In a plane em wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a frequency of 2.0 ×
1010 𝐻𝑧 and amplitude 24 v/m.
(a) What is the wavelength of the wave.
(b) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field?

141
6. Show that the average energy density of the Electric field equals the average energy
density of the magnetic field.
7. Professor CV Raman surprised his students by suspending freely a tiny light ball in a
transparent vacuum chamber by shining a laser beam on it. Which property of EM
waves was he exhibiting? Give one more example of this property.
8. Frequency of radiation emitted from transition between two very close energy levels
Hydrogen atom which is known as LAMB Shift is 1057MHz. Which part of EM spectrum
does the transition belong and write one of its use.
9. Sketch a schematic diagram depicting electric and magnetic fields for an
electromagnetic wave propagating along X-direction. Write two properties of EM
wave.
10. Name the following constituent radiations of electromagnetic spectrum which-
a. Are used in satellite communication/in radar and geostationary satellite.
b. Are used to study crystal study of solids.
c. Are similar to the radiations emitted during decay of radioactive nuclei.
d. are used for water purification/are absorbed by sunlight by ozone layer.
Short Answer Type
1. A capacitor made up of two parallel plates each of plate area A and separation d,
is being charged by an external ac source. Show that the displacement current
inside the capacitor is same as the current charging the capacitor. What are the
magnitudes of conduction and displacement currents when it is fully charged?
2. A capacitor made of two circular plates each of radius 12 cm and separated by 5
mm is being charged by an external source. The charging current is constant and
equal to 0.15 A.
(a) Calculate the capacitance and the rate of change of potential difference
between the plates
(b) Obtain the displacement current across the plates.
(c) Is Kirchhoff’s first rule (junction rule) valid at each plate of the capacitor?
Explain
3. In a plane electromagnetic wave, the electric field oscillates sinusoidally at a
frequency of 2.0 × 1010 𝐻𝑧 and amplitude 48 V/m
(a) What is the wavelength of the wave?
(b) What is the amplitude of the oscillating magnetic field?
(c) Show that the average energy density of the E field equals the average energy
density of the B field.
Case Based Question
The electromagnetic spectrum consists of visible light, x- rays, gamma rays,
microwaves, ultraviolet rays, radio waves and infrared waves. The waves used in
radio and television communication are the radio waves having frequency range 500
kHz to 1000MHz. In the ultrahigh frequency bands cellular phone uses the radio
waves to transmit the voice. Microwaves are the waves having short wavelength. In
aircraft navigation, for the radar system microwaves are used due to their short

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 wavelength. Infrared waves are also called as heat waves. Infrared radiation has
most importance in maintaining earth’s surface temperature through greenhouse
effect. The infrared waves have vast application in real life such as infrared detectors
are used for military purposes and also to see the growth of crops. The waves which
are visible to human eye are the visible rays. Visible rays are having frequency range
as 4*1014 Hz to 7*1014 Hz. The huge source of ultraviolet light is the sun. Ultraviolet
rays have wavelength range from 4*10-7m to 6*10-10m. X-rays are the rays having
most importance in medical applications which are having wavelength range 10nm
to 10-4 nm. X-rays are used to destroy the living tissue and organisms in medical
field. Then gamma rays are the rays having wavelength range as 10-10m to 10-14m
which are the high frequency radiations mostly produced in nuclear reactions.
Gamma rays are also used to destroy cancer cells in medical field.
1. TV waves range from…………………………………..
(a) 54Hz to 890Hz (b) 54 MHz to 890 MHz (c) 500 kHz to 1000 MHz (d) 1KHz to
1MHz
2. The domestic application of microwave is
(a) TV (b) Refrigerator (c) Oven (d) Radio
3. Why infrared waves are called heat waves?
4. The part of the electromagnetic wave that can be detected by the human eye is
(a) 900 – 400 nm (b) 200 – 400 mm (c) 700 – 400 mm (d) 700 – 400 nm
Long Answer Type
1. Suppose that the electric field part of an electromagnetic wave in vacuum is

𝑁
𝐸 = 3.1 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 [(1.8 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑚)𝑦 + (5.4 × 108 𝑟𝑎𝑑/𝑠)𝑡]𝑖̂
𝐶
(a) What is the direction of propagation?
(b) What is the wavelength λ?
(c) What is the frequency ?
(d) What is the amplitude of the magnetic field part of the wave?
(e) Write an expression for the magnetic field part of the wave?

ANSWERS
MCQs
1. (c) Speed
2. C
3. C
4. (B) Ultraviolet
5. C
6. b
7. b

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 Assertion and Reasoning

1. a
2. a
3. c
4. d
5. b
Short Answer Type 2 marks
1. All EMW travel with the speed of light in vacuum.
EMW can travel through vacuum.
2. Electromagnetic Waves are coupled oscillating electric and magnetic fields created
by accelerating charges that propagate forward in space. Transverse.
3. Oscillating charges produce oscillating electric field which then produce oscillating
magnetic field. The oscillating magnetic field in turn produces oscillating electric
field and the disturbance moves forward in space.
4. Because it blocks harmful UV radiations coming from the sun. 400 nm to 1 nm.
𝐸𝑂
5. Use speed = frequency × wavelength. Then 𝐵𝑜 = 𝐶
1
6. Average energy density of the E field is 𝐸𝑎𝑣 = 𝜀 𝐸2 and average energy density
2 0 𝑟𝑚𝑠
2 1 𝐸0 1
of the B field is 𝐵𝑎𝑣 = 2𝜇 𝐵𝑟𝑚𝑠 . Use 𝐵0
= 𝑐 and 𝑐 2 = 𝜇 . Also use the relation
0 0 𝜀0
𝐸0 𝐵0
𝐸𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵𝑟𝑚𝑠 =
√2 √2
7. Radiation Pressure, tail of comet
8. 1057 MHz is around 109 𝐻𝑧.
9. Diagram. Any two properties.
10. Radio, X ray, Gamma, UV

Short Answer Type 3 marks

1. Let the applied alternating voltage be 𝑉 = 𝑉𝑂 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜔𝑡 .
At any instant, the conduction current
𝑑𝑞 𝑑(𝐶𝑉) 𝑑(𝐶𝑉𝑂 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝜔𝑡 )
𝐼= = = = 𝜔𝐶𝑉𝑂 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜔𝑡 = 𝐼𝑂 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜔𝑡
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
Displacement current
𝑞
𝑑∅𝑒 𝑑(𝐸𝐴) 𝑑(𝜖 𝐴 𝐴) 𝑑𝑞
𝑂
𝐼𝑑 = 𝜖0 = 𝜖𝑂 = 𝜖𝑂 = = 𝐼 = 𝐼𝑂 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑠 𝜔𝑡
𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
Both currents are zero when fully charged.

𝜖𝑂 𝐴 𝑑𝑄 𝑑𝑉 𝑑𝑉
2. 𝐶 = = 80.1 𝑝𝐹 =𝐶 ∴ =
𝑑 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡 𝑑𝑡
𝐼
𝐶
2𝑛𝑑 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡 𝐼(𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑑𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑖𝑜𝑛) =
𝐼(𝑑𝑖𝑠𝑝𝑙𝑎𝑐𝑒𝑚𝑒𝑛𝑡) 3𝑟𝑑 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑡: 𝑦𝑒𝑠 𝑝𝑟𝑜𝑣𝑖𝑑𝑒𝑑 𝑏𝑦 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑤𝑒 𝑚𝑒𝑎𝑛 𝑠𝑢𝑚 𝑜𝑓 𝑏𝑜𝑡ℎ 𝑐𝑢𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑛𝑡𝑠.

144
 𝐸𝑂
3. Use speed = frequency × wavelength. Then 𝐵𝑜 = .
𝐶
1
Average energy density of the E field is 𝐸𝑎𝑣 = 𝜀 𝐸2 and average energy density
2 0 𝑟𝑚𝑠
12 𝐸0 1
of the B field is 𝐵𝑎𝑣 = 2𝜇 𝐵𝑟𝑚𝑠 . Use 𝐵0
= 𝑐 and 𝑐 2 = 𝜇 . Also use the relation
0 0 𝜀0
𝐸0 𝐵0
𝐸𝑟𝑚𝑠 = 𝑎𝑛𝑑 𝐵𝑟𝑚𝑠 =
√2 √2
Case based Question 4 marks
1. c
2. c
3. Infrared waves can produce vibrations in entire atoms or molecules of a substance.
This vibration increases internal energy and consequently the temperature of the
substance. This is why infrared waves are often called heat waves.
4. d

Long Answer type 5 marks

1. a) Check sign of kx and ωt within the argument of the given expression
b) find k by comparing
c) use the relation between speed, frequency and wavelength.
𝐸
d) find electric field amplitude and use relation 𝐵0 = 𝑐
0
e) the form of equation for magnetic field part is same as that of E field

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 CHAPTER 9: RAY OPTICS
Points to ponder
1. Optics: The study of nature and propagation of light is called optics.
Ray optics deals with particle nature of light whereas wave optics considers light as a wave.
2. Reflection of Light: When a light ray incident on a smooth surface bounces back to the
same medium, it is called reflection of light.
Laws of Reflection

(i) Angle of incidence is equal to the angle of reflection. i.e., i = r

(ii) The incident ray, the reflected ray and the normal at the point of incidence, all lie in the
same plane.
These laws hold for any reflecting surface whether plane or curved.
There is no change in wavelength and frequency during reflection.
Spherical Mirror: A spherical mirror is simply a part cut off from the surface of a hollow
sphere which has been made smooth and silver polished on one side.
Spherical mirrors are of two types:
(i) Concave mirror: If outer side or bulging side of the spherical surface is silver
polished, it is called a concave mirror.
(ii) Convex mirror: If inner side of a spherical surface is silver polished, it is called a
convex mirror.
Relation between focal length and radius of curvature: The distance between centre (C) of
spherical surface and its pole (P) is called the radius of curvature. It is denoted by R.
The rays parallel to the principal axis (CP) after striking the mirror meet at a point (F) (in
concave mirror) or appear to be meeting at a point F (in convex mirror). This point is called
the principal focus (F) of mirror.
The distance of focus (F) from pole (P) of a mirror is called the focal length of the mirror.
𝑹
It is denoted by f. The focal length f is half of the radius of curvature. i.e., 𝒇 =
𝟐

146
 𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
Mirror formula: The mirror formula is = + where u = distance of object from
𝒇 𝒗 𝒖
mirror; v= distance of image from mirror; and f = focal length of mirror.
Magnification produced by mirror: The ratio of the size of image to the size of object is
called linear magnification produced by the mirror
𝒉𝒊
Magnification: 𝑴=
𝒉𝒐

Where hi is the height of image and ho is the height of object

3. Refraction of Light: When a ray of light enters from one transparent medium into
another, there is a change in speed and direction of the ray in the second medium. This
phenomenon is called refraction of light.
Laws of refraction:
(i) The incident ray, the refracted ray and the normal to the surface separating the two
media, all lie in the same plane.
(ii) Snell’s Law: For two media, the ratio of sine of angle of incidence to the sine of the angle
of refraction is constant for a beam of particular wavelength, i.e.,
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒊 𝒏𝟐
= 𝒄𝒐𝒏𝒔𝒕𝒂𝒏𝒕 = 𝒏𝟐𝟏 =
𝐬𝐢𝐧 𝒓 𝒏𝟏
where n1 and n2 are absolute refractive indices of I and II media respectively.
The frequency of light remains unchanged while passing from one medium to the other
Formation of image due to refraction: According to Snell’s law, if n2 > n1, i > r. That is, if a ray
of light enters from rarer medium to a denser medium, it is deviated towards the normal
and if n2 < n1, i < r that is, if the ray of light enters from denser to a rarer medium it is
deviated away from the normal.

Accordingly, if the ray of light starting from object O, in the given diagram in a denser
medium travel along OP, it is deviated away from the normal along PQ. The ray PQ appears
to come from I. Thus, I is the virtual image of O. It can be shown that

147
 𝑹𝒆𝒂𝒍 𝒅𝒆𝒑𝒕𝒉
𝒏 =
𝑨𝒑𝒑𝒂𝒓𝒆𝒏𝒕 𝒅𝒆𝒑𝒕𝒉
4. Critical Angle: When a ray of light is incident on the interface from denser medium to
rarer medium, it is deviated away from the normal. When angle of incidence is increased,
angle of refraction also increases and at a stage it becomes 90°.
The angle of incidence in denser medium for which the angle of refraction in rarer medium
is 90° is called the critical angle (C) for the pair of media
If n1 and n2 are refractive indices for rarer and denser media, then
𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒊 𝒏𝟏
=
Ś𝒊𝒏 𝒓 𝒏𝟐
𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝑪 𝒏𝟏
=
𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝟗𝟎 𝒏𝟐
𝒏𝟏 = 𝟏 (𝒂𝒊𝒓) 𝒏𝟐 = 𝒏
𝟏
𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝑪 =
𝒏
5. Total Internal Reflection: When angle of incidence in the denser medium is greater than
the critical angle, the incident ray does not refract into a rarer medium but is reflected back
into the denser medium. This phenomenon is called total internal reflection.
The conditions for total internal reflection are
(i) The ray must travel from a denser into a rarer medium.
(ii) The angle of incidence i> critical angle C.
The critical angle for water-air, glass-air and diamond-air interfaces are 49°, 42° and 24°
respectively
6. Thin Lens Formula: If u and v are object and image distances from a lens of focal length f,
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
then thin lens formula is = –
𝒇 𝒗 𝒖
This equation holds for convex and concave lenses both, but proper signs of u, v and f are to
be used according to sign convention of coordinate geometry. Focal length of a convex lens
is taken as positive and of a concave lens is taken as negative.
7. Refraction through a spherical surface
The portion of a refracting medium, whose curved surface forms the part of a sphere, is
known as spherical refracting surface.
Sign conventions for spherical refracting surface are the same as those for spherical mirrors.
Spherical refracting surfaces are of two types:

Convex refracting spherical surface

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Concave refracting spherical surface
When the object is situated in rarer medium, the relation between n1 (refractive index of rarer
medium) n2 (refractive index of the spherical refracting surface) and R (radius of curvature)
with the object and image distances is given by
𝒏𝟐 𝒏𝟏 𝒏𝟐 − 𝒏𝟏
− =
𝒗 𝒖 𝑹
When the object is situated in denser medium, the relation between n1, n2, R, u and v can be
obtained by interchanging n1 and n2. In that case, the relation becomes
𝒏𝟏 𝒏𝟐 𝒏𝟏 − 𝒏𝟐
− =
𝒗 𝒖 𝑹
8. Lens Maker’s Formula: If R1 and R2 are the radii of curvature of first and second
refracting surfaces of a thin lens of focal length f, then lens makers formula is
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
= (𝒏𝟐𝟏 – 𝟏) ( – )
𝒇 𝑹𝟏 𝑹𝟐
9. Power of a Lens: The power of a lens is its ability to deviate the rays towards its principal
axis.
It is defined as the reciprocal of focal length in metres.
𝟏
Power of a lens, 𝑷 = . Its unit is diopter and is represented as ‘D’.
𝒇

Thin Lenses in Contact: If two or more lenses of focal lengths f1, f2 are placed in contact,
𝟏 𝟏 𝟏
then their equivalent focal length F is given by = + + …. The power of
𝑭 𝒇𝟏 𝒇𝟐
combination 𝑷 = 𝑷𝟏 + 𝑷𝟐 + . ..
10. Refraction Through a Prism: A prism is a transparent medium enclosed by two plane
refracting surfaces. Let EF be the monochromatic ray incident on the face PQ of prism PQR
of refracting angle A at angle of incidence i1.

This ray is refracted along FG, r1 being angle of refraction. The ray FG is incident on the face
PR at angle of incidence r2 and is refracted in air along GH. Thus GH is the emergent ray and
i2 is the angle of emergence. The angle between incident ray EF and emergent ray GH is
called angle of deviation δ.

149
For a prism if A is the refracting angle of prism, then 𝒓𝟏 + 𝒓𝟐 = 𝑨 …(i) and
𝒊𝟏 + 𝒊 𝟐 = 𝑨 + 𝜹 …(ii)
Clearly, deviation 𝒊𝟏 + 𝒊 𝟐 − 𝑨 = 𝜹 , i1 and i2 may be inter-changed, therefore, there are
two values of angles of incidence for same deviation δ. If n is the refractive index of
material of prism, then from Snell’s law
𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒊𝟏 𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒊𝟐
𝒏 = =
𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒓𝟏 𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒓𝟐
If angle of incidence is changed, the angle of deviation δ changes as shown in fig. For a
particular angle of incidence, the deviation is minimum. This is called angle of minimum
deviation δm.
Minimum deviation: At minimum deviation the refracted ray within a prism is parallel to the
base. Therefore, i1 = i2 = i (say) r1 = r2 = r (say) Then from equations (i) and (ii),
𝑨
𝒓 + 𝒓 = 𝑨 or 𝒓 = …(iv)
𝟐
𝑨 + 𝜹𝒎
𝒊 + 𝒊 = 𝑨 + 𝜹𝒎 so, 𝒊 =
𝟐
∴ The refractive index of material of prism

𝑺𝒊𝒏 (
𝑨 + 𝜹𝒎 )
𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒊 𝟐
𝒏 = =
𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒓 𝑨
𝑺𝒊𝒏 ( )
𝟐
For a thin prism, viz. A ≤ 10° 𝜹𝒎 = (𝒏 – 𝟏) 𝑨.
11. Optical Instruments (Microscopes and Telescopes): A microscope is an optical
instrument to see very small objects.
(i) Simple Microscope: It consists of a convex lens of small focal length f. If β = angle
subtended by an image on eye α = angle subtended by an object on eye, when object is at a
distance of distinct vision (D) Magnifying power,
𝜷 𝑫 𝒗
𝑴 = = ( ) (𝟏 + )
𝜶 𝒗 𝒇
𝑫
If the final image is at ∞, v = ∞ then, 𝑴 = , If the final image is at a distance of distinct
𝒇
𝑫
vision, 𝑴 = 𝟏 + 𝒇

(ii) Compound Microscope: A compound microscope essentially consists of two co-axial

convex lenses of small focal lengths. The lens facing the object is called an objective lens
while that towards eye is called the eye lens (eyepiece).
∴ Magnifying power of microscope,

150
(iii) Astronomical Telescope (Refracting Telescope): It is used to see magnified images of
distant objects. An astronomical telescope essentially consists of two co-axial convex lenses.
The lens facing the object has a large focal length and a large aperture and is called
objective, while the lens towards eye has a small focal length and small aperture and is
called eye lens.

151
Reflecting Telescope: In this telescope, a concave mirror is used as an objective in place of a
convex lens.
It is free from chromatic aberration and it has larger resolving power than refracting
telescope.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. An equiconvex lens of focal length 15 cm is cut into two halves. Find the focal length
of each part?
(a) -30cm (b) -20cm (c) 30cm (d) -15cm
2. Mirage is a phenomenon due to
(a) refraction of light (b) total internal reflection of light
(c) diffraction of light (d) none of these.
3. How does the focal length of a convex lens changes if mono chromatic red light is
used instead of violet light?
(a) Focal length is increased when red light is used
(b) Focal length is decreased when red light is used
(c) Focal length remains the same when red light is used
(d) does not depends on colour of light.
4. A glass lens is immersed in water. What will be the effect on the power of lens?
(a) increase (b) decrease (c) constant (d) can’t say
5. From a point source, a light fall on a spherical glass surface (n = 1.5 and radius of
curvature = 10 cm). The distance between point source and glass surface is 50 cm.
The position of image is
(a) 25 cm (c) 100 cm (b) 50 cm (d) 150 cm

152
6. How does the magnifying power of a telescope change on increasing the linear
diameter of its objective?
(a) Power increases on increases diameter
(b) Power decreases on decreases diameter
(c) Power remains constant on increases diameter
(d) Power doesn’t depend on diameter
7. An object approaches a convergent lens from the left of the lens with a uniform
speed 5 m s–1 and stops at the focus. The image
(a) moves away from the lens with a uniform speed 5 m s–1.
(b) moves away from the lens with a uniform acceleration.
(c) moves away from the lens with a nonuniform acceleration.
(d) moves towards the lens with a non-uniform acceleration.
8. What is the magnification and focal length of a plane mirror.
(a) +1,∞ (b)+1,0 (c)-1,∞ (d)-1,0
9. A converging lens is used to form an image on a screen. When the upper half of the
lens is covered by an opaque screen,
(a) half the image will disappear (b) complete image will disappear
(c) intensity of image will decrease (d) intensity of image will increases.
10. The optical density of turpentine is higher than that of water while its mass density
is lower. Figure shows a layer of turpentine floating over water in a container. For
which one of the four ray’s incidents on turpentine in figure, the path shown is
correct?

(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

11. An astronomical telescope has a large aperture to:
(a) increase span of observation (b) have low dispersion
(c) reduce spherical aberration (d) have high resolution
12. A convex lens is dipped in a liquid whose refractive index is equal to the refractive
index of the lens. Then its focal length will
(a) become zero (b) become infinite
(c) become small, but non-zero (d) remain unchanged
13. A concave mirror of focal length 15 cm forms image having twice the linear
dimensions of the object. The position of the object, when the image is virtual, will
be
(a) 22.5 cm (b) 7.5 cm (c) 30 cm (d) 45 cm
14. A short pulse of white light is incident from air to a glass slab at normal incidence.
After travelling through the slab, the first colour to emerge is
(a) blue (b) green (c) violet (d) red
15. Why is refractive index in a transparent medium greater than one?
(a) Because speed of light in vacuum is always less than speed in transparent
medium

153
 (b) Because the speed of light in vacuum is always greater than the speed in a
transparent medium
(c) Frequency of wave changes when it crosses medium
(d) None of the above

16. A student measures the focal length of a convex lens by putting an object pin at a
distance 'u' from the lens and measuring the distance 'v' of the image pin. The graph
between 'u' and 'v' plotted by the student should look like

17. Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?

(a) Working of optical fibre
(b) Difference between apparent and real depth of a pond
(c) Mirage on hot summer days
(d) Brilliance of diamond
18. An equiconvex lens is cut into two halves along (i) XOX' and (ii) YOY' as shown in the
figure. Let f, f' and f'' be the of the focal lengths of complete lens of each half in case
(i) and of each half in case (ii) respectively. Choose the correct statement from the
following :

(a) f' = 2 f and f'' = f (b) f' = f and f'' = f

(c) f' = 2 f and f'' = 2 f (d) f' = f and f'' =2 f

19. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of
(a) microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease
(b) microscope and telescope both will increase
(c) microscope and telescope both will decrease
(d) microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase

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20. For relaxed eye, the magnifying power of a microscope is

For question numbers 21-30, two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A)
and the other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions
from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false
21. Assertion (A): Higher is the refractive index of a medium or denser the medium,
lesser is the velocity of light in that medium.
Reason (R): Refractive index is inversely proportional to velocity.
22. Assertion (A): Convergent lens property of converging remains same in all media.
Reason (R): Property of lens whether the ray is diverging or converging is
independent of the surrounding medium.
23. Assertion(A): The focal length of the mirror is f and distance of the object from the
focus is u, the magnification of the mirror is -f / u-f.
Size of image
Reason(R): Magnification 
Size of object
24. Assertion(A): Diamond glitters brilliantly.
Reason(R): Diamond does not absorb sunlight.
25. Assertion(A): The mirrors used in search lights are parabolic and not concave
spherical.
Reason(R): In a concave spherical mirror the image formed is always virtual.
26. Assertion(A): Plane mirror may form real image.
Reason(R): Plane mirror forms virtual image, if object is real.
27. Assertion(A): Endoscopy involves use of optical fibres to study internal organs.
Reason (R): Optical fibres are based on phenomena of total internal reflection.
28. Assertion (A): If optical density of a substance is more than that of water, then the
mass density of substance can be less than water.
Reason (R): Optical density and mass density are not related.
29. Assertion (A): Microscope magnifies the image.
Reason (R): Angular magnification for image is more than object in microscope.
30. Assertion (A): A double convex lens (µ = 1.5) has focal length 10 cm. When the lens
is immersed in water (µ= 4/3) its focal length becomes 40 cm.
Reason (R): 1/f = (µgm – 1) (1/R1 – 1/R2)
SHORT ANSWERS (2 MARKS)
31. When a monochromatic light travels from one medium to another its wavelength
changes but frequency remains the same. Explain.
32. When red light passing through a convex lens is replaced by light of blue colour,
how will the focal length of the lens change?
33. Under what condition does a biconvex lens of glass having a certain refractive index
act as a plane glass sheet when immersed in a liquid?

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34. How does the angle of minimum deviation of a glass prism vary, if the incident violet
light is replaced by red light?

35. A compound microscope is used because a realistic simple microscope does not
have magnification. Explain.

36. Two thin lenses of power –4 D and 2 D are placed in contact coaxially. Find the focal
length of the combination.

37. For the same value of angle of incidence, the angles of refraction in three media A, B
and C are 15°, 25° and 35° respectively. In which media would the velocity of light
be minimum?

38. A biconvex lens made of a transparent material of refractive index 1.25 is immersed
in water of refractive index 1.33. Will the lens behave as a converging or a diverging
lens? Give reason.

39. An optical instrument uses an objective lens of power 100 D and an eyepiece of
power 40 D. The final image is formed at infinity when the tube length of the
instrument is kept at 20 cm. Identify the optical instrument.

40. What is the angle of incidence for maximum deviation through a prism?

41. A spherical convex surface of radius of curvature 20 cm, made of glass (n = 1.5) is
placed in air. Find the position of the image formed, if a point object is placed at 30
cm in front of the convex surface on the principal axis.

42. Calculate the radius of curvature of an equi-concave lens of refractive index 1.5,
when it is kept in a medium of refractive index 1.4, to have a power of –5D?

43. A lens is placed in the path of a beam of light which converges to the point O in the
absence of the lens. The distance between the lens and the point is 15 cm, what
distance from the point O will the beam converge if the lens is a concave lens of
focal length 25 cm.

44. State the conditions for total internal reflection to occur.

45. A right-angled crown glass prism with critical angle 41° is placed before an object,
PQ in two positions as shown in the figures (i) and (ii). Trace the paths of the rays
from P and Q passing through the prisms in the two cases.

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46. A ray PQ incident normally on the refracting face BA is refracted in the prism BAC
made of material of refractive index 1.5. Complete the path of ray through the prism.
From which face will the ray emerge? Justify your answer.

47. You are given two converging lenses of focal lengths 1.25 cm and 5 cm to design a
compound microscope. If it is desired to have a magnification of 30, find out the
separation between the objective and the eyepiece.
48. Draw a schematic arrangement of a reflecting telescope (Cassegrain) showing how
rays coming from a distant object are received at the eye-piece. Write its two
important advantages over a refracting telescope.
49. Why are convex mirrors used as side view mirrors in vehicles?
SHORT ANSWERS (3 MARKS)
50. Draw ray diagrams to show how specially designed prisms make use of total internal
reflection to obtain inverted image of the object by deviating rays (i) through 90° and
(ii) through 180°.
51. The refractive index of a material of a concave lens is n1. It is immersed in a medium
of refractive index n2. A parallel beam of light is incident on the lens. Trace the path
of emergent rays when (i) n2 = n1 (ii) n2>n1 (iii) n2< n1.
52. (i) What is total internal reflection? Under what conditions does it occur? (ii) Find a
relation between critical angle and refractive index. (iii) Name one phenomenon
which is based on total internal reflection.
53. A convex lens made up of glass of refractive index 1.5 is dipped, in turn, in (i) a
medium of refractive index 1.65, (ii) a medium of refractive index 1.33. (a) Will it
behave as a converging or a diverging lens in the two cases? (b) How will its focal
length change in the two media?

54. Three rays (1, 2, 3) of different colours fall normally on one of the sides of an
isosceles right-angled prism as shown. The refractive index of prism for these rays is
1.39, 1.47 and 1.52 respectively. Find which of these rays get internally reflected
and which get only refracted from AC. Trace the paths of rays. Justify your answer
with the help of necessary calculations.

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55. State the laws of reflection and refraction.
56. (i) Draw a schematic labelled ray diagram of a reflecting type telescope.
(ii) Write two important advantages justifying why reflecting type telescopes are
preferred over refracting telescopes.
The objective of a telescope is of larger focal length and of larger aperture
(compared to the eyepiece). Why? Give reasons.
57.
A ray of light passing through an equilateral triangular glass prism from air
undergoes minimum deviation when angle of incidence is 3/4th of the angle of
prism. Calculate the speed of light in the prism.
58. (a) A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 140 cm and an eyepiece of
focal length 5.0 cm. Find the magnifying power of the telescope for viewing distant
objects when
(i) the telescope is in normal adjustment,
(ii) the final image is formed at the least distance of distinct vision.
(b) Also find the separation between the objective lens and the eye piece in normal
adjustment.
59. Draw a labelled ray diagram of an astronomical telescope in the near point position.
Write the expression for its magnifying power.
60. Draw a ray diagram showing the image formation by a compound microscope when
the final image is formed at the near point. Write the expression for its magnifying
power.
61. A symmetric biconvex lens of radius of curvature R and made of glass of refractive
index 1.5, is placed on a layer of liquid placed on top of a plane mirror as shown in
the figure. An optical needle with its tip on the principal axis of the lens is moved
along the axis until its real, inverted image coincides with the needle itself. The
distance of the needle from the lens is measured to be x. On removing the liquid
layer and repeating the experiment, the distance is found to be y. Obtain the
expression for the refractive index of the liquid in terms of x and y.

62. An illuminated object and a screen are placed 90 cm apart. Determine the focal
length and nature of the lens required to produce a clear image on the screen, twice
the size of the object.

63. A fish in a water tank sees the outside world as if it (the fish) is at the vertex of a
cone such that the circular base of the cone coincides with the surface of water.
Given the depth of water, where fish is located, being ‘h’ and the critical angle for
water-air interface being ‘ic’, find out by drawing a suitable ray diagram the
relationship between the radius of the cone and the height ‘h’

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64. A biconvex lens of glass of refractive index 1.5 having focal length 20 cm is placed in
a medium of refractive index 1.65. Find its focal length. What should be the value of
the refractive index of the medium in which the lens should be placed so that it acts
as a plane sheet of glass?

65. Find the position of the image formed of an object ‘O’ by the lens combination given
in the figure.

LONG ANSWERS ( 5 MARKS)

66. (a) Draw a ray diagram to show refraction of a ray of monochromatic light passing
through a glass prism.
Deduce the expression for the refractive index of glass in terms of angle of prism
and angle of minimum deviation.
67.
(a) Derive the mathematical relation between refractive indices n1 and n2 of two
media and radius of curvature R for refraction at a convex spherical surface.
Consider the object to be a point source lying on the principle axis in rarer medium
of refractive index n1 and a real image formed in the denser medium of refractive
index n2. Hence, derive lens maker’s formula.
(b) Light from a point source in air falls on a convex spherical glass surface of
refractive index 1.5 and radius of curvature 20 cm. The distance of light source from
the glass surface is 100 cm. At what position is the image formed?
68. a) A point object ‘O’ is kept in a medium of refractive index n1 in front of a convex
spherical surface of radius of curvature R which separates the second medium of
refractive index n2 from the first one, as shown in the figure.
Draw the ray diagram showing the image formation and
deduce
the relationship between the object distance and the image distance in terms of n1, n2
and R.

(b) (i) When the image formed above acts as a virtual object for a concave
spherical surface separating the medium n2 from n1 (n2 > n1), draw this ray diagram
and write the similar (similar to (a)) relation.
(ii) Hence obtain the expression for the lens maker’s formula.

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69.
(i) Plot a graph to show variation of the angle of deviation as a function of angle of
incidence for light passing through a prism. Derive an expression for refractive index
of the prism in terms of angle of minimum deviation and angle of prism.
(ii) A ray of light incident normally on one face of a right isosceles prism is totally
reflected as shown in figure. What must be the minimum value of refractive index of
glass?
Give relevant calculations.

70. (a) A ray PQ of light is incident on the face AB of a glass prism ABC (as shown in the
figure) and emerges out of the face AC. Trace the path of the ray. Show that
ie
where  and e denote the angle of deviation and angle of emergence respectively.

Plot a graph showing the variation of the angle of deviation as a function of angle
of incidence. State the condition under which  is minimum.
(b) Find out the relation between the refractive index () of the glass prism and 
for the case
71. Define magnifying power of a telescope. Write its expression.
A small telescope has an objective lens of focal length 150 cm and an eye piece of
focal length 5 cm. If this telescope is used to view a 100 m high tower 3 km away,
find the height of the final image when it is formed 25 cm away from the eye piece.
72. Draw a ray diagram to show the working of a compound microscope. Deduce an
expression for the total magnification when the final image is formed at the near
point.
In a compound microscope, an object is placed at a distance of 1.5 cm from the
objective of focal length 1.25 cm. If the eye piece has a focal length of 5 cm and the
final image is formed at the near point, estimate the magnifying power of the
microscope.
73. (i) Define power of a lens. Write its units.
(ii) Deduce the relation 1/f = 1/f1 + 1/f2 for two thin lenses kept in contact coaxially.
74. Derive the ‘mirror equation’ using the ray diagram for the formation of a real image
by a concave mirror.

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75. (i) Draw a labelled ray diagram to obtain the real image formed by an astronomical
telescope in normal adjustment position. Define its magnifying power.
(ii) You are given three lenses of power 0.5 D, 4 D and 10 D to design a telescope.
(a) Which lenses should be used as objective and eyepiece? Justify your answer.
(b) Why is the aperture of the objective preferred to be large?
CASE BASED QUESTIONS
76. A prism is a portion of a transparent medium bounded by two plane faces inclined
to each other at a suitable angle. A ray of light suffers two refractions on passing
through a prism and hence deviates through a certain angle from its original path.
The angle of deviation of a prism is, {(δ) = μ - 1} A, through which a ray deviates on
passing through a thin prism of small refracting angle A. If μ is refractive index of the
material of the prism, then prism formula is,
𝜇= sin(𝐴+𝛿𝑚)/2
sin𝐴/2

(i) For which colour, angle of deviation is minimum?

(a) red (b) yellow (c) violet (d) blue

(ii) When white light moves through vacuum

(a) all colours have same speed
(b) different colours have different speed
(c) violet has more speed than red
(d) red has more speed than violet

(iii) The deviation through a prism is maximum when angle of incidence is

(a) 45o (b) 70o (c) 90o (d) 60o

(iv) What is the deviation produced by a prism of angle 6°? (Refractive index of the
material of the prism is 1.644).
(a) 3.864o (b) 4.595 o (c) 7.259 o (d) 1.252 o

(v) A ray of light falling at an angle of 50° is refracted through a prism and suffers
minimum deviation. If angle of prism is 60°, then the angle of minimum deviation is
(a) 45 o (b) 75 o (c) 50 o (d) 40 o
77. An optical fibre is a thin tube of transparent material that allows light to pass
through, without being refracted into the air or another external medium. It makes
use of total internal reflection. These fibres are fabricated in such a way that light
reflected at one side of the inner surface strikes the other at an angle larger than
critical angle. Even, if fibre is bent, light can easily travel along the length.

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 (i) Which of the following is based on the phenomenon of total internal reflection of
light?
(a) sparkling of diamond (b) optical fibre
(c) instrument used by doctors for endoscopy (d) all of these

(ii) A ray of light will undergo total internal reflection inside the optical fibre, if it
(a) goes from rarer medium to denser medium
(b) is incident at an angle less than critical angle
(c) strikes the interface normally
(d) is incident at an angle greater than critical angle

(iii) If in core, angle of incidence is equal to critical angle, then angle of refraction will
be
(a) 0 o (b) 45 o (c) 90 o (d) 180 o

(iv) In an optical fibre (shown), correct relation for refractive indices of core
and cladding is

(a) n1 = n2 (b) n1 < n2 (c) n1 > n2 (d) n1 + n2 =2

(v) If the value of critical angle is 30° for total internal reflection from given optical
fibre, then speed of light in that fibre is
(a) 3 x 108 ms-1 (b) 1.5 x 108 ms-1 (c) 6 x 108 ms-1 (d) 45 x 108 ms-1
78. Power (P) of a lens is given as the reciprocal of focal length (P=1/f) where f should
be in meter and P is in Dioptre. For convex power is positive and concave power is
–ve. When two or more lenses are kept in contact then power of the combined lens
is given as P= P1 + P2+P3 …….

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 (i) A convex and a concave lens is separated by distance d are then put in contact
then the focal length of the combination
(a) becomes 0 (b) remain the same (c) decreases (d)increases.

(ii) The two lenses of power +1.5D and +1.0D are placed in contact then the
effective power of the combination will be
(a)2.5D (b)1.5 D (c) 0.5D (d)3.25D

(iii) If the power of the lens is 5D then what is the focal length of the lens?
(a)10cm (b) 20cm (c)15cm (d) 5cm

(iv) Two thin lens of focal length +10cm and -5cm are kept in contact, the power of
the combination is?
(a)-10D (b)-20D (c)10D (d)15D

(v) A convex lens of focal length 25cm is placed coaxially in contact with a concave
lens of focal length 20cm the system will be;
(a) converging in nature (b) diverging in nature
(c) can be converging or diverging (d) None of the above.
79. A compound microscope consists of two lenses. A lens of short aperture and short
focal length facing the object is called the object lens and another lens of short focal
length but large aperture is called the eye lens. Magnifying power is defined as the
ration of angle subtended by the final image at the eye to the angle subtended by
the object is seen directly, when both are placed at least distance of distinct vision

(i) An objective lens consists of

(a) Short aperture and short focal length (b)large aperture and large focal length
(c)short aperture and large focal length (d)large aperture and short focal length

(ii) An eyepiece consists of

(a) short aperture and short focal length (b) large aperture and large focal length
(c) short aperture and large focal length (d) large aperture and short focal length

(iii) Formula of magnifying power

(a) M= (β/α) (b) M=(α/β)
(c) M=(1+(α/β)) (d) M=(1+(β/α))

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 (iv) A compound microscope with an objective of 1.0 cm, focal length and eyepiece
2.0 cm. Focal length of a tube is 20 cm. Calculate the magnifying power of the
microscope
(a) 270 (b) 27 (c)140 (d) 14

(v) Final image formed by compound microscope

(a) inverted (b) Erect (c)virtual (d)highly diminished
80. Total internal reflection is the phenomenon of reflection of light into denser
medium at the interface of denser medium with rarer medium. For this
phenomenon to occur necessary condition is that light must move from denser to
rarer and angle of incidence in denser medium must be greater than critical angle
for the pair of media in contact. Critical angle depends on nature of medium and
wavelength of light. We can show that μ=1/sinC (where C is the critical angle).

(i) critical angle for glass air interface, where μ for glass is 3/2, is
(a)41.8 o (b) 60 o (c)30 o (d)15 o

(ii) Critical angle for water air interface is 48.60, then what is the refractive index of
water
(a)1 (b)3/2 (c)4/3 (d)3/4

(iii) Critical angle for air water interface for violet colour is 49 o its value for red
colour will be
(a)49 o (b)50 o (c)48 o (d)can’t say

(iv) Which of the following is not due to total internal reflection?

(a) working of optical fibre
(b)difference between real depth and apparent depth of a pound.
(c)mirage on hot summer day
(d) brilliance of diamond

(v) critical angle of glass is θ1 and that of the water is θ2 critical angle for water and
glass surface would be (μg > μw)
(a) less than θ2 (b) between θ1 and θ2 (c)greater then θ2 (d)less than θ1.
81. The whole class was excited as they were on their way to Kavalur in Tamil Nadu, an
observatory, housing the largest telescope in India. The teacher was explaining type
of telescope, the diameter of the objective (2.34m) and other details. The children
were looking forward to see through the telescope.

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 (i) What type of telescope is the teacher referring to
(a) Binocular (b) Refracting type telescope
(c) Reflecting type telescope (d) Compound microscope

(ii) In astronomical compare to eye piece, objective lens has

(a) negative focal length (b) zero focal length
(c) small focal length (d) large focal length

(iii) If fo is the focal length of the objective and fe is the focal length of the eyepiece,
then magnification of a refracting (M) telescope can be determined as
(a) M = fo/fe (b) M = fo + fe (c) M = fo - fe (d) M = fe/fo

(iv) A telescope can make stars look

(a) bigger (b) brighter (c) smaller (d) all of above

(v) A telescope that uses two converging lenses is called

(a) reflecting telescope (b) refracting telescope
(c) simple telescope (d) compound microscope

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b)
6. (d) 7. (c) 8. (a) 9. (c) 10. (b)
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (b)
16. (a) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (d) 20. (a)

21. (a) : Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of
assertion. According to Snell’s law it shows that higher is the refractive index of a
medium or denser the medium, lesser is the velocity of light in that medium.
22. (d) : A convex lens made of glass behaves as a convergent lens when placed in air or
water. However when the same lens is immersed in carbon disulphide (m = 1.63), it
behaves as a divergent lens. Therefore when a convergent lens is placed inside a
transparent medium of refractive index greater than that of material of the lens, it
behaves as a divergent lens. Behaviour of a lens depends on the refractive index of a
surrounding medium.
23. (a)
24. (b)
25. (c)
26. (b)
27. (a) : An endoscope is made of optical fibres. Its core is made of optically denser
material. Its outer cladding is made of optically rarer material. It is based on total
internal reflection.

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28. (a) : Optical density and mass density are not related to each other. Mass density is
mass per unit volume. It is possible that mass density of an optically denser medium
be less than that of an optically rarer medium (optical density is the ratio of the
speed of light in two media). e.g., turpentine and water. Mass density of turpentine
is less than that of water but its optical density is higher.
29. (a) : Microscope is an optical instrument which forms a magnified image of a small
nearby object and thus, increases the visual angle subtended by the image at the
eye so that the object is seen to be bigger and distinct. Therefore, angular
magnification for image is more than object.
30. (a)
31. Whenever light passes from one medium to another medium this ratio will always
remain constant. Because both velocity and wavelength changes will compensate
each other to give the final ratio equal for both mediums. Hence we can say that
there will be no change in the frequency. The frequency will remain constant.
32. Focal length of the lens decrease when red light is replaced by blue light.
33. When the refractive index of the biconvex lens is equal to the refractive index of the
liquid in which lens is immersed then the biconvex lens behaves as a plane glass sheet.
In this case, f .
34.  violet > red
When incident violet light is replaced with red light, the angle of minimum deviation
of a glass decreases.
35. Compound microscope is used because a realistic simple microscope does not
have adjustable magnification. The magnification in a compound microscope can be
adjusted according to the requirements.
36. Net power P = P1 + P2 = –4 + 2 = –2 D
Focal length f = 100/ P = 100/-2 = -50 cm.
37. Refractive index, c/v = sin i/ sinr
As sin15° < sin25° < sin35°
So, vA < vB < vC
Hence in medium A, velocity of light is minimum.
38. The lens will act as a diverging lens as the refractive index of water is greater than
that of lens.
39. Here focal length of objective lens f0=1/P0=1/100=0.01 m = 1.0 cm , focal length of
eyepiece
fe=1/Pe=1/50m=0.02m=2.0 cm
length of the tube L = 25 cm and final image is being formed at infinity.
(a) The instrument is a compound microscope because both f0 and fe ,are small and
comparatively speaking f0<fe
(b) Magnification produced m =- =(- L/ f0).(D/fe)=−312.5
40. When the angle of incidence is 90 degrees, the maximum deviation occurs. Because
the incoming light beam “grazes” down the prism surface, this is known as grazing
incidence.
41. Use formula for refraction through spherical surface, we get v = -180
42. R=?
μ2=1.5 μ1=1.4
Power (P) = -5D

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 1/f=−5
according to Lens maker's formula :
1/f=(μ2/μ1−1)(1/R1−1/R2)
−5=(1.5/1.4−1)(1/−R−1/R)
R=1/35m
=100/35cm=2.857cm
43.
As a lens is placed in the path of the convergent beam, the point P would lie on the right
of the lens and acts as a virtual object.

Object distance, u=12 cm

(a) Focal length, f=20 cm (Convex Lens) Using the lens formula, 1/f=1/v−1/u

we have, 1/20=1/v−1/12⇒v=7.5 cm

It is located at 7.5 cm from the lens and it is a real image.

(b) Focal length, f=−16 cm (Concave Lens)

Applying lens formula, we have

1/−16=1/v−1/12
v=48 cm

It is located at 48 cm from the lens and it is a real image.

44. The ray coming from the object has to pass from denser to rarer medium and
angle of incidence is greater than the critical angle.
45.

46.
The incidence angle is given as,
sinic=2/3
sinic=0.66

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 So, ic>30∘
Thus, the light will emerge out from face AC.

47. Magnification of a compound microscope is given by:

M=MoMe≈ (-L/fo)(25/fe)
Substituting values,
30=L×25/1.25×5
L=7.5 cm
48.

Advantages : (a) Parabolic mirror is used to remove the spherical aberration.

(b) No chromatic aberration in mirror. (c) Light mechanical support is required,
because mirror weighs much less than a lens of equivalent optical quality.
49. Convex mirrors are used as side view mirrors in a car to see the traffic behind. This is
because of the following reasons: The image formed in a convex mirror is highly
diminished due to which a convex mirror gives a wide field of view of the traffic
behind the vehicle.
50.

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51.

52. i) When light travels from optically denser medium to rarer medium, for the angle of
incidence greater than the critical angle, the incident ray reflects back to the denser
medium. This is called total internal reflection.

Condition for total internal reflection

(a) The light should travel from denser medium to rarer medium

(b) The angle of incidence should be greater than the critical angle.

ii)

The angle of incidence corresponding to is called the critical angle.

By snells law

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 iii) Mirage is based on total internal reflection.

53. (i) When the lens is in air, its focal length is

1/f=(1.5−1)(1/R1−1/R2)=(1/2)(1/R1−1/R2)
(ii) When the lens is dipped in medium of μ=1.65,
1/f1=(1.5/1.65−1)(1/R1−1/R2)=(−0.15/1.65)(1/R1−1/R2)
on solving, f1=-5.5f
∴The lens behave as concave lens of focal length −5.5f
(iii) When the lens is liquid in medium of μ=1.33
1/f2=(1.5/1.33−1)(1/R1−1/R2)=(0.17/1.33)(1/R1−1/R2)
on solving, f2=3.9f
∴ The lens behaves as convex lens of focal length 3.9f

54.
Critical angle for ray 1:

sin(C1)=1/μ1=1/1.39

C1=sin−1(1/1.39)=46.00°

For ray 2:

sin(C2)=1/μ2

C2=sin−1(1/1.47)=42.86°

Similarly for ray 3:

Sin(C3)=1/μ3=1/1.52

C3=sin−1(1/1.52)=41.13°

The ray 1 will get reflected completely from side AC at angle 46°. And ray 2 \and 3 will be
refracted as their angle is less than the ray 1.

55. Laws of reflection :

the angle of reflection is equal to the angle of incidence,
the incident ray, the reflected ray, and the normal to the surface all lie in the same
plane.

170
 Laws of refraction :
The incident ray refracted ray, and the normal to the interface of two media at the
point of incidence all lie on the same plane. The ratio of the sine of the angle of
incidence to the sine of the angle of refraction is a constant. This is also known as
Snell's law of refraction.
56.

(ii) Advantages : (a) Parabolic mirror is used to remove the spherical aberration. (b)
No chromatic aberration in mirror. (c) Light mechanical support is required,
because mirror weighs much less than a lens of equivalent optical quality. (iii) In
normal adjustment, magnifying power of the telescope M = F0/Fe.
If focal length of the objecctive lens is large in comparison to the eyepiece,
magnifying power increases
57. Here, Angle of prism, A=60o
Angle of incidence, i=3/4×60
i+e=A+δ
e is emergence angle where δ is deviation angle
At minimum deviation δ=δmin
i=e
2i=A+δmin
2×45=60+δmin
δmin=30
By prism law,

μ= sin(A+δm) /2
sinA/2
putting values
μ=1.41
Let v be velocity of light in prism
v=c/μ=2×108 m/s
58. (a) Focal length of the objective lens, fo=140cm
Focal length of the eyepiece, fe=5cm
Least distance of distinct vision, d=25cm
When the telescope is in normal adjustment, its magnifying power is given as-
m=fo/fe=28
(b) Focal length of the objective lens, fo=140cm
Focal length of the eyepiece, fe=5cm
Least distance of distinct vision, d=25cm
When the final image is formed at d, its magnifying power is given as-
m=(fo/fe)(1+fe/d)=33.6

171
59.

60.

61. Given, refractive index of lens, μg = 1.5

The distance of the needle from the lens in the first case = The focal length of the
combination of convex lens and plano- concave lens formed by the liquid, f =x
And, the distance measured in the second case = Focal length of the convex
lens, f1=y
If the focal length of plano-concave lens formed by the liquid be f2, then
1/f=1/f1+1/f2

⇒ 1/f2=1/x−1/y
172
 =y−x/xy

or f2=xy/y−x

Now, refractive index of lens, μ=1.5, radius of curvature of one surface= R and
radius of curvature of other surface = - R
∴1/f1=(μg−1)(1/R−1/−R)

1/y=(1.5−1)(2R)⇒R=y

And, if refractive index of liquid is μl,

Radius of curvature on the side of plane mirror =∞
Radis of curvature on the side of lens =- R
∴ y−x/xy=(μl−1)(1/−R−1/∞)=(μl−1)(−1/y)
μl = 2x−y/x
62. Since the image is formed on the screen, it is a real image. Let the distance of the
object from the lens be x. Then, distance of the image from the lens be (90-x)
magnification, m=v/u
According to new Cartesian coordinate system,
u=−x,v=+(90−x) and m=−2
∴ −2=90−x/−x
⇒ x=30cm
∴ u=−30cm and v=+(90−30)=60cm
Also,−1/u+1/v=1/f
Putting values
⇒ F=20cm (convex lens).
63. Here B is a fish situated at a depth from the water surface and R is the radius of the
cone. By definition of critical angle, we have: sinic=1/n, where n is the refractive
index of water

64. ng = nm = 1.5
65. For 1st lens,
u1=−30cm,f1=+10cm,v1=?
As 1/v1−1/u1=1/f1∴1/v1−1/−30=110

173
 Image formed by first lens serves as object for second lens at a
distance =(15−5)=10cm to the right of second lens, and the object is virtual
Therefore, for second lens,
u2=10cm,v2=?f2=-10cm.
As 1/f2=1/v2−1/u2∴−1/10=1/v2−1/10
∴1/v2=0,v2=∞
The virtual image is found at infinity to the right of 2nd lens. This acts as an object
for 3rd lens. Therefore, for 3rd lens, u3=∞,v3=?
f3=+30cm
As 1/v3−1/u3=1/f3
∴1/v3−1/∞=1/30 or v3=30cm
The final image is formed at 30cm to the right of third lens.
66. Refer textbook
67.
(b) It is given that
n1=1
n2=1.5
R=20cm
u=−100cm v=?
Now using following relation
n2/v−n1/u=(n2−n1) /R
putting values we get v=100cm
68. Refer textbook
69. (ii) We know that light incident normally on one face of right isosceles prism is
totally reflected.
μ=1/sin(c) (Total internal reflection)
C is a critical angle, which is 45
μ=1/sin(45)
μ=√2
Thus minimum value of refractive index is 1.414
70. Refer textbook
71. The magnifying power of a telescope is measured by the ratio of angle ()
subtended by the final image on the eye to the angle () subtended by object on
eye.
If the telescope is in normal adjustment, i.e., the final image is at infinity.
Formula : M=fo/fe
since fo=150cm,fe=5cm
∴M=15/0.5=30
If tall tower is at distance 3 km from the objective lens of focal length 150 cm. It will
form a image at distance vo So,
1/fo=1/vo−1/uo
1/150cm=1/vo−1/−3km
vo =1.5m
Magnification mo=h1/ho=vo/uo

174
 putting values
hi=0.05m.
72. Given, fo=1.25cm,fe=5cm,uo=−1.5cm,D=25cmfo=1.25cm,fe=5cm,uo=-
1.5cm,D=25cm
Calculate vo using formula 1/fo=1/vo−1/uo1fo
Then, substituting the values, we get
Magnification, m=(vo/uo)|(1+D/fe)=30
73.
Power of lens : It is the reciprocal of focal length of a lens.
1
P  (f is in metre)
f
Unit of power of lens : Dioptre

74.

175
75.
(ii) (a) For a telescope, power of objective = 0. 5 D Power of eyepiece = 10 D
This choice would give higher magnification as
m =fo
fe
b) Aperture of the objective is preferred to be large so as to have high resolving
power and larger light gathering power to obtain brighter image
76. (i) a (ii) a (iii) a (iv) a (v) d
77. (i) d (ii) b (iii) c (iv) c (v) b
78. (i) c (ii) a (iii) b (iv) a (v) b
79. (i) a (ii) d (iii) a (iv) a (v) a
80. (i) a (ii) c (iii) d (iv) b (v) b
81. (i) c (ii) d (iii) a (iv) c (v) b

176
 CHAPTER 10: WAVE OPTICS
SYLLABUS: Wavefront and Huygen’s principles, refection and refraction of a plane wave at
a plane surface using wavefront; proof of laws of reflection and refraction using Huygen’s
principle, Interference, Young’s double slit experiment and expression for fringe width;
coherent sources, and sustained interference of light; diffraction due to a single slit, width of
central maxima
SUMMARY OF IMPORTANT TOPICS;

Wavefront and Huygen’s principle: -

Wavefront: wavefront is a set or locus of all points of a medium vibrating in the same
phase at a given instant.

 The direction of propagation of wave is perpendicular to the wavefront.

Or
 Incoming rays are perpendicular to the wavefront.

Different shapes of wavefront based on different sources of light;

Source Wavefront Shape of wavefront

Point source Spherical

Linear source Cylindrical

Plane source Plane wavefront

Point source far away Plane wavefront

Huygen’s principle:
 Every point of a wavefront (primary wavefront) becomes a source of disturbance
called secondary wavelets, which travel in all direction with the speed of light in the
medium.
 A surface touching these secondary wavelets tangentially in the forward direction at
any instant, gives the new wavefront which is known as secondary wavefront.

177
Proof of laws of refraction of light by Huygen’s principle:
From the figure,

AB= incident wavefront

EC= refracted wavefront
∠i= angle between incident wavefront AB and interface PP’
∠r= angle between refracted wavefront EC and interface PP’
If the medium2 is optically denser than the medium 1 and t is the time in which
disturbance from B reaches C. This is the same time in which disturbance from A reaches
E where
Distance AE<BC
Δ𝐴𝐸𝐶 𝑖𝑠 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑔𝑟𝑢𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑡𝑜 Δ𝐴𝐵𝐶
𝐵𝐶
𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝑖 =
𝐴𝐶
𝐴𝐸
𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝑟 =
𝐴𝐶
𝑆𝑖𝑛 𝑖 𝐵𝐶 𝐴𝐶 𝐵𝐶
= × =
𝑠𝑖𝑛 𝑟 𝐴𝐶 𝐴𝐸 𝐴𝐸

BC= Distance travelled by wave at B in time t in medium 1

AE= distance travelled by wave at A in time t in medium 2

𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒊 V1t
Therefore, 𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝒓
=
V2t

𝑺𝒊𝒏 𝒊 V1
= = constant
𝒔𝒊𝒏 𝒓 V2

Which is Snell’s law:-

 And it is Clear from the figure that the incident wavefront AB normal to the
interface PP’ and refracted wavefront EC all lie in the same plane. This is the
second law of refraction.

178
Proof of law of reflection of light by Huygen’s principle

AB=incident wavefront
CD=reflected wavefront
∠ 𝑖 = angle between incident wavefront AB with interface MM’
∠r= angle between reflected wavefront CD with interface MM’s
The disturbance produced by B strikes at C in time t.
BC=Vt.
And also, the disturbance from A will also travel the same distance
Vt in same time to strike at D.
That is, AD=BC=Vt
And ∆ABC IS congruent to ∆ACD
Therefore, ∠i = ∠r
Hence the law of reflection is proved

Principle of superposition
The resultant displacement of a particle at any instant is the vector sum of the individual
displacements caused to the particle by two or more waves. Let Y1 and Y2 be the
displacements of the particle at any instant caused by the two waves. Then the resultant
displacement of the particle at that instant is 𝑌⃗= 𝑌⃗1+ 𝑌⃗2

Constructive superposition:
when two waves of same wavelength superimpose on each other in phase, then the
superposition is said to be constructive.
That is, 𝑌⃗= 𝑌⃗1+ 𝑌⃗2

Destructive superposition:
when two waves of same wavelength superimpose on each other out of phase then the
superposition is said to be destructive
That is, 𝑌⃗= 𝑌⃗1+(- 𝑌⃗2)

179
Resultant wave of two waves:
let the two waves from two coherent sources be
⃗ 1= a sin ωt and
𝑌

⃗ 2= b sin (ωt+φ)
𝑌

Then the resultant of these waves is given by

⃗ = R sin (wt+θ) where R is the amplitude of the resultant wave. And R=

 𝑌
a 2  b 2  2ab cos

 Intensity of the resultant wave is I = ( I a + I b +2 I a I b cos φ)

Coherent Source: Two sources are said to be coherent if they emit wave of same
frequency (or wave length) and are either in phase or have constant initial phase difference.

Interference: The phenomenon of re-distribution of light energy due to the superposition

of light wave from two coherent. Sources are known as interference of light.
The resultant wave of two waves
Y1 = a sin ωt and
Y2 = b sin (ωt + φ) from two coherent sources.
After being super imposed is given by
Y = R sin (ωt + φ) ---------①

Where R is the resultant amplitude.

R= a 2  b 2  2ab cos ----------②

Intensity of resultant wave:

I = I a  I b  2 I a . I b cos ------------③

Where` I a and I b are the intensities of 1st wave and 2nd wave

Condition for Constructive Interference: Occurs when the amplitude and hence the
intensity is maximum.
i.e., equation --- ③

I = I max if cos = +1
Or
φ = 0 ,2π, 4π

180
Or

In general, φ= n (2π) where n=0,1,2,3…

Thus, Constructive Interference takes place if the phase difference between the two
superimposing waves is an integral multiple of 2π

Since path difference x = wavelength

2
Phase difference

Path difference for the Constructive Interference


x  x n 2𝜋
2
x  n
From equation (3) the maximum intensity is
I max =𝑰𝒂 + 𝑰𝒃 + 𝟐√𝑰𝒂 𝑰𝒃
I max = ( I a + I b ) 2
And from ②

R max = a 2  b2  2ab

R max = (a  b) 2

R max = a+b

Special cases: If a=b and I a = I b

I max = 4 I a

R max = 2 a

Condition for destructive Interference: Occurs when the amplitude and hence the
intensity is minimum.

I = I min if cos = minimum

Or φ = 𝜋, 3 𝜋, 5 𝜋…

 1
Or in general φ =  n   2 𝜋, n=0, 1, 2, …
 2

Path difference for destructive interference

  1
x  x  n   2𝜋
2𝜋  2

181
  1
x    n  
 2

from ②

R min = a 2  b2  2ab

R min = (a  b) 2

R min = a  b

From----③

I min = I a  Ib  2 I a Ib

 
2
I min = I a  Ib

Special Cases: If a=b, I a = I b

R min = 0

I min = 0

Young’s Double Slit Experiment:

At ‘O’ we get central maxima, here path difference (S2P –S1P) = 0

𝑦𝑑
At ‘P’ which is at Y height from O, path difference (S2P –S1P) = 𝐷

Condition for P to be a bright spot

𝑦𝑑
= 0, λ, 2λ, ……. nλ.
𝐷
𝑛𝐷
∴ nth bright spot will be formed at a distance Yn = λ from ‘O’
𝑑

Condition for P to be a dark spot

182
𝑦𝑑 𝜆 3𝜆 𝜆
= , ,….., (2n+1)
𝐷 2 2 2

nth Dark spot will be formed at a distance

𝜆
(2n+1) 𝐷 (2n+1)𝜆𝐷
2
Yn = =
𝑑 2𝑑

Width of the Bright fringe: - β= distance between two consecutive dark fringes
3𝜆𝐷 𝜆𝐷
β= −
2𝑑 2𝑑
2𝜆𝐷
β =
2𝑑
𝜆𝐷
β=
𝑑

Diffraction: It is defined as the bending of light around the corners of an obstacle or

aperture into the region where we should expect shadow of the obstacle.

If width of the opening = a

θ is the angle of elevation of point P from principal axis.
Path difference between ray from L and ray from N = LQ = a sin θ
a sin θ= λ
λ
∵ for first maxima θ= ( ∴ sin θ = θ) sin θ <<<1
𝑎

It is observed that when path difference = λ, 2 λ,.... (2n – 1) λ then P is a dark point.
3𝜆 𝜆
When a sin θ = ,……… (2n+1) , then P is a bright point.
2 2

3𝜆
Elevation angle for first bright fringe θ1D = 2𝑎
3𝜆𝐷
 Height of first dark fringe x1D = 2𝑎
𝜆
 Elevation angle for first dark fringe θ1D = 𝑎
𝐷𝜆
 Width of the bright fringe = 𝑎

183
 𝐷𝜆
 Width of the dark fringe = 𝑎
2𝐷𝜆
 Width of the central fringe = 𝑎
 There is no gain or loss of energy in interference or diffraction, which is consistent with
the principle of conservation of energy. Energy only redistributes in these phenomena.

Sustained interference and conditions for sustained interference:

Interference pattern is said to be sustained if the positions of the constructive interference
(i.e., bright fringes) and destructive interference (dark fringes) remain fixed on the screen.
To have sustained interference following conditions must be fulfilled.
1. Two sources must be coherent.
2. Two sources should emit waves continuously.
3. Two coherent sources of light should be close to each other.
4. The amplitude of two waves emitted by the two coherent sources of light should be
equal to get complete contrast between in dark and bright fringes.
5. Two coherent sources of light should be narrow.
6. The distance of the screen from the coherent sources of light should not be small.
7. The light should be monochromatic to eliminate.
8.

A) OBJECTIVE QUESTION (MCQ) ( 1 mark each)

1. Two light sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves
A. Of equal wavelength
B. Of equal frequency
C. Of equal velocity
D. Of equal frequency and having constant phase difference between them.
Answer: option D
2. What is the shape of wavefront from distant source of light?
A. Planar
B. Spherical
C. Cylindrical
D. Depends on shape of the source
Answer: option A
3. There are two points on same wavefront separated by a distance
λ/2. What will be the phase difference between these two points?
A. π
B. π/2
C. π/4
D. 0
Answer: option D

184
 4. The wavefront of a linear source of light
A. Spherical
B. Plane
C. Cylindrical
D. Reflected type
Answer: option B
5. When the distance between the slit and the screen in Young’s double slit experiment
is doubled then
A. Fringe width becomes double
B. Fringe width becomes half
C. Fringe width remains unchanged
D. Fringe width becomes thrice
Answer: option A
6. Two coherent light beams of intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum and
the minimum possible intensities in the resulting beam is
A. 5I and 3I
B. 9I and I
C. 9I and 3I
D. 5I and I
Answer: option B

7. How can the fringe width increase in Young’s double-slit experiment?

A. By decreasing the width of the slit

B. By reducing the separation of slits
C. By reducing the wavelength of the slits
D. By decreasing the distance between slits and the screen

Answer: option B

8. What happens to the interference pattern if the two slits S1 and S2 in Young’s double
experiment are illuminated by two independent but identical sources?
A. The intensity of the bright fringes doubled
B. The intensity of the bright fringes becomes four times
C. Two sets of interference fringes overlap
D. No interference pattern is observed
Answer: option D
9. A single slit diffraction pattern is obtained using a beam of red light What happened
if the red light is replaced by the blue light?
A. There is no change in diffraction pattern.
B. Diffraction fringes become narrower and crowded.

185
 C. Diffraction fringes become broader and farther apart.
D. The diffraction pattern disappears.
Answer: option B

10. The energy of the wave travels in a direction ______ to the wavefront.
A. Parallel
B. Perpendicular
C. Both A and B
D. None
Answer: option B

B) Assertion and reasons: (1 mark each)

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
A. If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
B. If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
C. If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D. If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
1. Assertion: No interference pattern is detected when two coherent sources are infinitely
close to each other.
Reason: The fringe width is inversely proportional to the distance between the two
sources.
Answer: Option A

2. Assertion: In Young’s double slit experiment if wavelength of incident monochromatic

light is just doubled, number of bright fringes on the screen will increase.
Reason: Maximum number of bright fringes on the screen is inversely proportional to the
wavelength of light used
Answer: option A
3. Assertion: Diffraction takes place for all types of waves mechanical or non-mechanical,
transverse or longitudinal.
Reason: Diffraction’s effects are perceptible only if wavelength of wave is comparable to
dimensions of diffracting device.
Answer: option B

4. Assertion (A): Interference obeys the law of conservation of energy.

Reason (R): The energy is redistributed in case of interference
Answer: option A

186
5. Assertion (A): We cannot get diffraction pattern from a wide slit illuminated by
monochromatic light.
Reason (R): In diffraction pattern, all the bright bands are not of the same intensity.
Answer: option B

C) Very short question (1 mark each)

1. What are the conditions for two sources to be coherent?
Answer: Two sources are said to be coherent if they produce waves of same frequency and
having a constant phase difference between them.

2. Define wavefront.
Answer: wavefront is a locus of points of a medium vibrating in the same phase at an instant.

3. What will be effect on the fringes if Young’ s experiment is immersed in water?

Answer: Fringe width would decrease.

4. State two conditions to obtain sustained interference of light.

Answer: The two conditions for obtaining sustained interference of light are
(a) the two light sources should be coherent
(b) the two light sources should be narrow and placed close to each other.

5. What will be the effect on the width of the central maxima if the slit is made narrower?
Answer: when the slit is made narrower the width of central maxima increases. Since width
2λD
of the maxima= .
𝑑

6. The Ratio of intensities of two waves is in the ratio of 1:25 what is the ratio of their
amplitudes?
Answer: 1:5

7. Why are coherent sources required to create interference of light?

Answer: Coherent sources are required for sustained interference. If sources are
incoherent, the intensity at a point will go on changing with time.

8. Differentiate between a ray and a wavefront.

Answer: A wavefront is a surface of constant phase. A ray is a perpendicular line drawn at
any point on wavefront and represents the direction of propagation of the wave.

9. What is interference of light?

Answer: The phenomenon of redistribution of light energy due to the superposition of light
waves from two coherent sources is known as interference of light.

10. What is diffraction?

Answer: Diffraction is bending of waves around sharp edges into the geometrically
shadowed region.

187
 D) Short answer questions (2 marks each)

1. In young’s double slit experiment how is the fringe width change when
(a) Light of smaller frequency is used
(b) Distance between the slits is decreased?
Answer.
(a) If light of smaller frequency is of higher wavelength is used the fringe width will
increase.
(b) If distance between the slits is decreased i.e. Fringe width will increase.

2. Write two points of difference between interference and diffraction?

Answer.
S.No. Interference Diffraction

It is due to the superposition of the waves

Interference occurs due to superposition
1 coming from different parts of the same
of light coming from two coherent sources.
wave front.

The intensity of bright fringes decreases

2 All bright fringes are of equal intensity with increasing distance from the central
bright fringes.

3. Can white light produce interference? What is the nature?

Answer: White light produces interference but due to different colour present in white
light interference pattern overlaps the central bright fringe for all the colours is at the
position, so its colour is white. The white central bright fringe is surrounded by few
coloured rings.

4. Draw a diagram to show refraction of a plane wave front incident in a convex lens and
hence draw the refracted wave front.
Answer:

188
 5. Define diffraction of light. Draw an intensity distribution graph for diffraction due to a
single-slit.
Answer: Diffraction is bending of waves around sharp edges into the geometrically
shadowed region.
The intensity distribution for a single-slit diffraction pattern is as shown.

6. State Huygens’ Principle.

Answer:
Huygens principle states that
(a) Each point on a wavefront is a source of secondary waves which travel out with the
same velocity as the original waves.
(b) The new wavefront is given by the forward locus of the secondary wavelets, which give
rise to a new secondary wavefront.

7. In a double-slit experiment using the light of wavelength 600 nm, the angular width of a
fringe formed on a distant screen is 0.1°. What is the spacing between the two slits?
Answer:
Wavelength of the light, λ = 600 nm
0.1 π
The angular width of the fringe formed, θ= 0.10 = 180
λ (600  10 9  180) 108000 10 9
Spacing between the slits, d = θ = =
(0.1 3.14) 0.314
d =3.44 x 10-4 m

8. A parallel beam of light of wavelength 500 nm falls on a narrow slit and the resulting
diffraction pattern is observed on a screen 1 m away. It is observed that the first minimum
is at a distance of 2.5 mm from the centre of the screen. Find the width of the slit.

Answer:
Wavelength of the beam of light, λ = 500 nm

189
Distance between the slit and the screen, D= 1 m
Distance of the first minimum from the centre of the screen, x = 2.5 mm = 2.5 x 10 -3 m
First minima, n = 1
xd
Consider the equation, nλ = D
nλD
⇒d= 𝑥

(1 500  10 9  1)
=
(2.5  10 3 )

= 200 x 10-6 m

9. When light travels from a rarer medium to a denser medium it loses its speed. Does this
imply a reduction in energy carried by the light wave? Give reason for your answer.

Answer: No, this does not imply the reduction in energy. Because energy of any wave
depends upon its frequency, which remains same whenever light passes from one medium
to another.

10.Light of wavelength 5000 A˚ is incident normally on a slit of width 2.5×10−4 cm. Find The
angular position of second minimum from the central maximum.

Answer:

We know that,
𝟐𝛌
Angular width of central maximum =
𝒂
where, λ =wavelength of light,
a=width of single slit,
𝟐𝛌
So, sinθ=
𝒂
where λ = 5000 A° = 5000 x 10-10m

2  5000  10 10
a = 2.5 x 10-6 m ⟹ sinθ =
2.5  10 6

10000  10 10
=> sinθ =
2.5  10 6

10
=> sinθ =
25

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 2
=> sinθ =
5

2
θ = sin-1( )
5

E) short answer question (3mark each)

1. Describe Young’s double slit experiment to produce interference pattern due to a

monochromatic source of light. Write the expression for the fringe width.

Answer: refer the summary notes.

2. State Huygens’ Principle and using this principle, prove law of reflection of light.

Answer: refer the summary notes.

3. (a) The ratio of the widths of two slits in Young’s double slit experiment is 4 : 1. Evaluate
the ratio of intensities at maxima and minima in the interference pattern.
(b) Does the appearance of bright and dark fringes in the interference pattern violate, in
any way, conservation of energy? Explain.

Answer: (a)

a1 W2 4 2
Here   
a2 W1 1 1

2
I max 2a2  a2

I min 2a2 a 2
= 9:1

b) There is NO violation of the conservation of energy. The appearance of the bright and dark
fringes is simply due to a ‘redistribution of energy’

4.(a)When a tiny circular obstacle is placed in the path of light from a distant source, a bright
spot is seen at the center of the shadow of the obstacle. Explain why.

(b) State Two points of difference between the interference pattern obtained in Young’s
double slit experiment and the diffraction pattern due to a single slit.
Answer(a): The waves diffracted at the edge of circular obstacle produce constructive
interference at the centre of the shadow; producing a bright spot.
(b): Interference: A double-slit interference pattern has equally spaced dark and bright
bands.

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  The peak intensity of the bright bands remains the same.
 Diffraction: A single slit diffraction pattern has a central bright maximum that's
twice as wide as other maxima.
 The intensity falls as we go to the successive maxima away from the centre on either
side.

5. State Huygens’ principle and using this principle, prove the laws of refraction of light.
Answer: refer the summary notes.

F) Long answer question (5 marks each)

1.
(a) State Huygens’s principle for constructing wavefronts?
(b) Using Huygens’s principle deduce the laws of reflection of light?
(c) What changes in diffraction pattern of a single slit will you observe? When the monochromatic
source of light is replaced by a source of white light?

Answer: refer summary notes for (a) and (b)

(C)

(1) The diffracted light consists of different colours.

(2) It results in overlapping of different colours.

2(a). Define a wavefront. How is it different from a ray?

(b) depict the shape of the wavefront
(i) light emerging from a point source.
(ii) light emerging out of a convex lens when a point source is kept at its focus.
(iii) using Huygens construction of secondary wavelets, draw a diagram showing the
passage of a plane wavefront from a denser medium into a rarer medium.
Answer:(a) refer summary note and Q.no. 8 from very short answer question.
(b) Refer the table in the summary notes.

3.(i)Define diffraction of light.

(ii)State one feature by which the phenomenon of interference can be distinguished from
that of diffraction.

(iii) A parallel beam of light of wavelength 600 nm is incident normally on a slit of width ‘a’.
If the distance between the slits and the screen is 0.8 m and the distance of 2nd order
maximum from the centre of the screen is. 15 mm, calculate the width of the slit.

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Answer: i) refer the summary notes.

(ii)In interference all the maxima are of equal intensity.

In a diffraction pattern, the central fringe is of maximum intensity while the intensity of
secondary maxima falls rapidly.

(iii)Given, λ = 600 nm = 6 × 10-7 m,

D = 0.8 m, Y2 = 15 × 10-3 m

To calculate: Width of the slit ‘d’

5 λ𝐷
Calculations: Y2 = x
2 𝑑

5 (6  107  0.8)
d= 
2 15 103

∴ Distance, d = 8 × 10-5 = 80 μm

Case Based Question:

According to superposition principle, the resultant displacement produced due the number
of waves at a particular point is the vector sum of displacement produced by each vector at
that point. The two sources of light are said to be coherent only when the phase difference
between the light waves produced by them is zero or constant. The point at which two waves
are in phase or if trough of one wave coincides with the trough of other or crest of one wave
coincides with the crest of other then the resultant intensity produced at that point will be
larger and amplitude also maximum. Such points are the points where constructive
interference takes place. While there are some points where two light waves are not in phase
with each other and crest of one wave coincides with the trough of other and vice versa due
to which resultant intensity at that point is minimum and amplitude also get decreased. Such
points are the points where destructive interference takes place. For constructive
interference, the path difference is equal to integral multiple of wavelengths and resultant
intensity will be maximum at those points. While for destructive interference, the path
1
difference is (n + 2) multiple of wavelengths and where resultant intensity is zero. When light

is passed around the sharp edges of an obstacle it gets bended and may enters into the
geometrical shadow of that obstacle such a phenomenon of light is called as diffraction of

193
 light. In interference, there are equally spaced alternate bright and dark bands are possible.
While in diffraction, the there is a only one bright central Maxima and around both sides of
the central Maxima the intensity of the light decreases as we go away from that central
Maxima.

Questions:
Q 1.) For coherent sources of light, the phase difference must be___
a) one
b) zero
c) either zero or constant
d) 90°

Q 2.) If the phase difference is 0, +2π, -4π then the interference should be
a) constructive interference
b) destructive interference
c) both a and b
d) diffraction of light

Q 3.) For destructive interference

a) path difference is (n +1/2) times wavelength
b) phase difference is π, -3π, +5π
c) path difference is integral multiple of wavelengths
d) both a and b

Q 4.) The interference and diffraction of light explains which nature of light?

Answer key:
Q 1.) c) either zero or constant
Q 2.) a) constructive interference
Q 3.) d) both a and b
Q 4.) The phenomenon of interference of light and diffraction of light explains the wave
nature light.

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 CHAPTER 11 : DUAL NATURE OF MATTER AND RADIATION

Important formulae & Diagrams

Photoelectric Effect
The phenomenon of emission of electrons from a metal surface, when radiations of suitable
frequency is incident on it, is called photoelectric effect.

195
Terms Related to Photoelectric Effect
(i) Work Function (𝝓) The minimum amount of energy required to eject one electron from a
metal surface is called its work function. Its dimensional formula is [ML2 T-2] and unit is J or
eV.
(ii) Threshold Frequency (𝝂𝟎 ) The minimum frequency of light which can eject photoelectron
from a metal surface is called threshold frequency of that metal. Its dimensional formula is
[T-1] and unit is Hz.
(iii) Threshold Wavelength (𝝀𝟎 ) the maximum wavelength of light which can eject
photoelectron from a metal surface is called threshold wavelength of that metal. Relation
between work function, threshold frequency and threshold wavelength
ℎ𝑐
𝜙 = ℎ𝜈0 =
𝜆𝑚𝑎𝑥

Hallwachs and Lenard’s detailed study of Photoelectric effect:

• In 1888, Lenard observed that when ultraviolet light falls on zinc metal, metal becomes
positively charged. With the discovery of electrons, it was established that this is due to
emission of electrons. The current produced by these photoelectrons is called photoelectric
current.
• When the frequency of the incident light is smaller than a certain minimum value, it is called
the threshold frequency. Below this frequency, no emission of electrons take place.

 Hertz and Lenard’s experiment: This experiment led the formation of quantum theory of
light as wave theory could not explain photoelectric effect.
 Experimental outcome: It showed that intensity of light has linear relationship with
photoelectric current at a potential higher than the stopping potential.

Laws of Photoelectric Effect

 For a given material and a given frequency of incident radiation, the photoelectric current
or number of photoelectrons ejected per second is directly proportional to the intensity
of the incident light.
 For a given material and frequency of incident radiation, saturation current is found to be
proportional to the intensity of incident radiation, whereas the stopping potential is
independent of its intensity.
 For a given material, there exists a certain minimum frequency of the incident radiation
below which no emission of photoelectrons takes place. This frequency is called threshold
frequency. Above the threshold frequency, the maximum kinetic energy of the emitted
photoelectrons or equivalent stopping potential is independent of the intensity of the
incident light but depends upon only the frequency (or wavelength) of the incident light.
 The photoelectric emission is an instantaneous process. The time lag between the
incidence of radiations and emission of photoelectrons is very small, less than even
10-9s.

196
Einstein’s Photoelectric Equation
The maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons

𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ℎ𝑣 − 𝜙
𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ℎ𝑣 − ℎ𝑣0 = ℎ(𝑣 − 𝑣0 )
where, 𝜈 is frequency of incident light and 𝜈0 is threshold frequency.
This can be written as 𝜙 + 𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 = ℎ𝑣

Stopping Potential
The minimum negative potential given to anode plate at which photoelectric current becomes
zero is called stopping potential (V0). Maximum kinetic energy of photoelectrons is given by
1 1
𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑒𝑉0 = ℎ(𝑣 − 𝑣0 ) = ℎ𝑐 ( − )
𝜆 𝜆0
where, 𝜆 is the wavelength of incident radiation and 𝜆0 is the threshold wavelength of metal
surface.

Graphs related to Photoelectric Effect

(i) Photoelectric current (i) versus intensity of incident light (I).

(ii) Variation of photoelectric current (I) versus potential for different intensities but constant
frequency

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(iii) Variation of photoelectric current (I) versus potential for different frequencies but
constant intensity of incident radiation

(iv) Frequency (𝑣0 ) versus stopping potential (V0)

(v) Frequency (𝑣) versus photoelectric current (𝑖)

(vi) Intensity versus (I) stopping potential (V0)

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(vii) Photoelectric current (I) versus time lag (t)

Planck’s Quantum Theory (Particle Nature of Light: The Photon)

According to this theory, the energy of an electromagnetic wave is not continuously
distributed over the wavefront, instead of an electromagnetic wave travel in the form of
discrete packets or bundles of energy called quanta. One quantum of light radiation is called
a photon.
The energy of each photon is 𝐸 = ℎ𝑣 where h is Planck’ s constant and n is frequency of
radiation.
ℎ𝑐
The momentum of a photon, 𝑝 = 𝜆

Characteristic Properties of Photons

Different characteristic properties of photons are given below:

 In interaction of radiation with matter, radiation behaves as if it is made up of particles

called photons.
 A photon travels at a speed of light c in vacuum (3× 108 m / s)
 Photons travel in a straight line.
 Irrespective of the intensity of radiation, all the photons of a particular frequency n or
wavelength l have the same energy and momentum.
 Energy of a photon depends upon frequency of the photon, so the energy of the photon
does not change when photon travels from one medium to another.
 Wavelength of the photon changes in different media, so velocity of a photon is different
in different media.

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 Photons are not deflected by electric and magnetic fields. This shows that photons are
electrically neutral.
 In a photon-particle collision (such as photoelectron collision), the energy and momentum
are conserved. However, the number of photons may not be conserved in a collision.
 It has zero rest mass, i.e., the photon exists at rest.

Dual nature of radiation

A wave is associated with every moving particle called matter or de-Broglie wave.

de-Broglie Wavelength
 If a particle of mass m is moving with velocity v, then wavelength of de-Broglie wave
associated with it is given by
ℎ ℎ
𝜆= =
𝑝 𝑚𝑣
 For charged particles accelerated through a potential V
ℎ ℎ ℎ
𝜆= = =
𝑝 √2𝑚𝐸 √2𝑚𝑞𝑉

 For electron
ℎ 12.27
𝜆= = 𝐴0
√2𝑚𝑒𝑉 √𝑉
 For a gas molecule of mass m at temperature T kelvin, its de-Broglie wavelength is given
ℎ
by 𝜆 =
√3𝑚𝑘𝑇

where k is the Boltzmann constant.

Multiple Choice Questions (1mark)

1. A particle is dropped from a height H. The de Broglie wavelength of the particle as a function
of height is proportional to
(a) H (b) H1/2 (c) H0 (d) H –1/2
2. The wavelength of a photon needed to remove a proton from a nucleus which is bound to
the nucleus with 1 MeV energy is nearly
(a) 1.2 nm (b) 1.2 × 10–3 nm (c) 1.2 × 10–6 nm (d) 1.2 × 101 nm
3. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 1 m away. The plate emits
electrons having stopping potential V. Then:
(a) V decreases as distance increase
(b) V increases as distance increase
(c) V is independent of distance (r)

200
(d) V becomes zero when distance increases or decreases
4. In a photoelectric experiment, the stopping- potential for the incident light of wavelength
4000 Å is 2 volts. If the wavelength be changed to 3000 Å, the stopping-potential will be:
(a) 2 volt (b) less than 2 volt (c) zero (d) more than 2 volt.
5. A proton, a neutron, an electron and an a-particle have same energy. Then their de Broglie
wavelengths compare as
(𝑎) 𝜆𝑝 = 𝜆𝑛 > 𝜆𝑒 > 𝜆𝛼 (b) 𝜆𝛼 < 𝜆𝑝 = 𝜆𝑛 < 𝜆𝑒
(c) 𝜆𝑒 < 𝜆𝑝 = 𝜆𝑛 > 𝜆𝛼 (d) 𝜆𝑒 = 𝜆𝑝 = 𝜆𝑛 = 𝜆𝛼

6. The number of photoelectrons emitted for light of frequency ν (higher than the threshold
frequency ν0) is proportional to:
(a) threshold frequency (b) intensity of light (c) frequency of light (d) ν – ν0
7. The phenomenon which shows quantum nature of electromagnetic radiation is:
(a) photoelectric effect. (b) Tyndall effect. (c) interference. (d) reflection and refraction.
8. Kinetic energy of electrons emitted in photoelectric effect is
(a) directly proportional to the intensity of incident light.
(b) inversely proportional to the intensity of incident line.
(c) independent of the intensity of incident light.
(d) independent of the frequency of light.
9. Photoelectrons emitted from a metal have
(a) different speeds starting from 0 to certain maximum. (b) same kinetic energy.
(c) same frequency. (d) Both (B) & (C)
10.Photons are
(a) electrically neutral and not deflected by electric or magnetic field.
(b) electrically neutral and deflected by magnetic field.
(c) electrically charged and not deflected by electric or magnetic field.
(d) electrically charged and not deflected by electric field.
11.Rest mass of the photon is
(a) minimum. (b) maximum. (c) zero. (d) cannot be predicted
12. If an electron and a photon propagate in the form of waves having same wavelength, it
implies that they have same:

201
(a) speed (b) momentum (c) energy (d) all the above
13. Which of the following figures represent the variation of particle momentum and the
associated de-Broglie wavelength?

14. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy of
photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is

15. Two particles A1 and A2 of masses m1, m2 (m1 > m2) have the same de Broglie wavelength.
Then
(a) their momenta are the same
(b) their energies are the same
(c) energy of A1 is less than the energy of A2
(d) energy of A1 is more than the energy of A2

1. (d) 2. (b) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (d) 14. (d) 15. (a
,c)

ASSERTION AND REASON BASED MCQS (1mark)

Directions: In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a statement
of Reason (R).
Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(B) Both (A) and (R) are true, but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(C) (A) is true, but (R) is false.
(D) (A) is false, but (R) is true.

202
Q. 1. Assertion (A): The energy (E) and momentum (p) of a photon are related as p = E/c
Reason (R): The photon behaves like a particle.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
Q. 2. Assertion (A): Photoelectric effect demonstrates the particle nature of light.
Reason (R): The number of photoelectrons is proportional to the frequency of light.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
Q. 3. Assertion (A): Kinetic energy of photoelectrons emitted by a photosensitive surface
depends upon the frequency of incident photon.
Reason (R): The ejection of electrons from metallic surface is possible with frequency of
incident photon below the threshold frequency.
Ans. Option (C) is correct.
Q. 4 Assertion (A): de-Broglie equation is significant for microscopic particles.
Reason (R): de-Broglie wavelength is inversely proportional to the mass of a particle when
velocity is kept constant.
Ans. Option (A) is correct.
Q. 5 Assertion (A): de-Broglie wavelength of a gas molecule is inversely proportional to the
square root of temperature.
Reason (R): The root mean square velocity of gas molecules depends on temperature.
Ans. Option (A) is correct. So, Vrms ∝ √T Again de-Broglie wavelength, λ = h/mv
So, λ ∝ 1/√T

CASE STUDY BASED MCQS (4mark)

Case I: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
Photoelectric Effect: Photoelectric effect is the phenomenon of emission of electrons from a
metal surface, when radiations of suitable frequency fall on them. The emitted electrons are
called photoelectrons and the current so produced is called photoelectric current.
1. With the increase of intensity of incident radiations on photoelectrons emitted by a photo
tube, the number of photoelectrons emitted per unit time is
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) none of these
2. It is observed that photoelectron emission stops at a certain time t after the light source is
switched on. The stopping potential (V) can be represented as
(a) 2(KEmax/e) (b) (KEmax/e) (c) (KEmax/3e) (d) (KEmax/2e)
3. If the frequency of incident light falling on a photosensitive metal is doubled, the kinetic

203
energy of the emitted photoelectron is
(a) unchanged (b) halved (c) doubled (d) more than twice its initial value
4. The photoelectric cut off voltage in a certain experiment is 1.5 V. The maximum kinetic
energy of photoelectrons emitted is
(a) 2.4 eV (b) 1.5 eV (c) 3.1 eV (d) 4.5 eV
Ans: 1(a) 2. (b) 3. (d) (If the frequency of incident radiation is doubled, then
K′ = 2hv – 𝝓 = 2(hv – 𝝓) + 𝝓 = 2K + 𝝓 K′ > 2K ) 4. (b)

Case II: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
de-Broglie Wavelength: According to de-Broglie, a moving material particle sometimes acts
as a wave and sometimes as a particle or a wave associated with moving material particle
which controls the particle in every respect. The wave associated with moving particle is
called matter wave or de-Broglie wave where wavelength called de-Broglie wavelength, is
ℎ
given by 𝜆 = 𝑚𝑣

1. If a proton and an electron have the same de Broglie wavelength, then

(a) kinetic energy of electron < kinetic energy of proton
(b) kinetic energy of electron = kinetic energy of proton
(c) momentum of electron = momentum of proton
(d) momentum of electron < momentum of proton
2. Which of these particles having the same kinetic energy has the largest de Broglie
wavelength?
(a) Electron (b) Alpha particle (c) Proton (d) Neutron
3. The wavelength of matter wave is independent of
(a) mass (b) velocity (c) momentum (d) charge

4. When the velocity of an electron increases, its de Broglie wavelength

(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains same (d) may increase or decrease
Ans: 1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (b)

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS (VSA) (1mark)

Q. 1. Name the phenomenon which shows the quantum nature of electromagnetic radiation.
Ans. “Photoelectric effect” shows the quantum nature of electromagnetic radiation.

204
Q. 2 The figure shows the variation of stopping potential V0 with the frequency v of the
incident radiations for two photosensitive metals P and Q. Which metal has smaller threshold
wavelength? Justify your answer.

𝑐
Ans: Since 𝜆 = 𝑣 metal Q has smaller threshold wavelength.

Q.3 In photoelectric effect, why should the photoelectric current increase as the intensity of
monochromatic radiation incident on a photosensitive surface is increased? Explain.
Ans: The photoelectric current increases proportionally with the increase in intensity of
incident radiation. Larger the intensity of incident radiation, larger is the number of incident
photons and hence larger is the number of electrons ejected from the photosensitive surface.
Q. 4 The stopping potential in an experiment on photoelectric effect is 1.5 V. What is the
maximum kinetic energy of the photoelectrons emitted?
Ans: Kmax = eVs = e (1.5V) = 1.5 eV = 1.5 × 1.6 × 10–19 J = 2.4 × 10–19 J
Q. 5 What is the stopping potential of a photocell, in which electrons with a maximum kinetic
energy of 6 eV are emitted?
Ans. Ek = eV0 ⇒ 6 eV = eV0 ⇒ V0 = 6 V The stopping potential V0= 6 volt (Negative).
Q. 6 An electron and a proton have the same kinetic energy. Which one of the two has the
larger de Broglie wavelength and why?
Ans: An electron has the larger wavelength Reason: de-Broglie wavelength in terms of kinetic
ℎ
energy is 𝜆 = for the same kinetic energy.
√2𝑚𝐸𝐾

Q. 7 Show on a graph the variation of the de Broglie wavelength (λ) associated with an
electron, with the square root of accelerating potential (V).
12.27
Ans: We know 𝜆 = 𝐴̇
√𝑉

205
Q.8 Two metals A and B have work functions 4 eV and 10 eV respectively. Which metal has
the higher threshold wavelength?
ℎ𝑐 1
Ans: Work function 𝑊 = ℎ𝑣0 = 𝜆 ∝ 𝑊 threshold wavelength of metal A is higher.
𝜆

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2mark)

Q. 1 Write three characteristic features in photoelectric effect which cannot be explained on
the basis of wave theory of light, but can be explained only using Einstein’s equation.
Ans. The three characteristic features which cannot be explained by wave theory are:
(i) Kinetic energy of emitted electrons is found to be independent of the intensity of incident
light.
(ii) There is no emission of electrons if frequency of incident light is below a certain frequency
(threshold frequency).
(iii) Photoelectric effect is an instantaneous process.
Q. 2 A proton and an electron have same velocity. Which one has greater de Broglie
wavelength and why?
ℎ 1
Ans: de Broglie wavelength (λ) is given as 𝜆 = 𝑚𝑣 given 𝑣𝑝 = 𝑣𝑒 since 𝑚𝑝 > 𝑚𝑒 𝜆 ∝ 𝑚 hence
𝜆𝑝 < 𝜆𝑒 Thus, electron has greater de Broglie wavelength, if accelerated with same speed.

Q. 3 Plot a graph showing the variation of photoelectric current with intensity of light. The
work function for the following metals is given:
Na: 2.75 eV and Mo: 4.175 eV. Which of these will not give photoelectron emission from a
radiation of wavelength 3300 Å from a laser beam? What happens if the source of laser beam
is brought closer?
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 6.63×10−34 ×3×108
Ans. Energy of photon 𝐸 = 𝑗𝑜𝑢𝑙𝑒 =𝑒𝜆 𝑒𝑉 = 1.6×10−19 ×3.3×10−7 𝑒𝑉 = 3.76𝑒𝑉
𝜆

Since W0 of Mo is greater than E, ∴ Mo will not give photoemission. There will be no effect of
bringing source closer in the case of MO. In case of Na, photocurrent will increase.

206
Q. 4 Plot a graph showing the variation of stopping potential with the frequency of incident
radiation for two different photosensitive materials having work functions W1 and W2
(W1>W2). On what factors does the (i) slope and (ii) intercept of the lines depend?
Ans. The graph of stopping potential Vs and frequency (ν) for two photosensitive materials 1
and 2 is shown in fig.

ℎ
(i) Slope of graph 𝑡𝑎𝑛𝜃 = 𝑒 = 𝑐𝑜𝑛𝑠𝑡

(ii) Intercept of lines depend on the work function.

Q. 5 If light of wavelength 412·5 nm is incident on each of the metals given below, which ones
will show photoelectric emission and why?

Ans. The energy of the incident photon

ℎ𝑐 6.63 × 10−34 × 3 × 108

𝐸 = ℎ𝑣 = = 𝐽 = 3𝑒𝑉
𝜆 412.5 × 10−9
Metals having work function less than energy of the incident photon will show photoelectric
effect. Hence, only Na and K will show photoelectric emission.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS–II (3mark)

Q. 1 Using photon picture of light, show how Einstein’s photoelectric equation can be
established.
Write two features of photoelectric effect which cannot be explained by wave theory.
Ans. In the photon picture, energy of the light is assumed to be in the form of photons each
carrying energy.
When a photon of energy ‘hν’ falls on a metal surface, the energy of the photon is absorbed
by the electrons and is used in the following two ways:

207
(i) A part of energy is used to overcome the surface barrier and come out of the metal surface.
This part of energy is known as a work function and is expressed as φ0 = hν0.
(ii) The remaining part of energy is used in giving a velocity ‘v’ to the emitted photoelectron
which is equal to the maximum kinetic energy of photo electrons
(iii) According to the law of conservation of energy,
1 2
ℎ𝑣 = 𝜙0 + 𝑚𝑣𝑚𝑎𝑥
2
1 2
ℎ𝑣 = ℎ𝑣0 + 𝑚𝑣𝑚𝑎𝑥
2
⇒ KEmax = hν – hν0
or KEmax = hν – φ0
This equation is called Einstein photoelectric equation.
Features which cannot be explained by wave theory:
(i) The process of photoelectric emission is instantaneous in nature.
(ii) There exists a ‘threshold frequency’ for each photosensitive material.
(iii) Maximum kinetic energy of emitted electrons is independent of the intensity of incident
light.
Q.2 A proton and an alpha particle are accelerated through the same potential. Which one of
the two has (i) greater value of de Broglie wavelength associated with it and (ii) less kinetic
energy? Give reasons to justify your answer.

Q. 3. Define the terms (i) ‘cut-off voltage’ and (ii) ‘threshold frequency’ in relation to the
phenomenon of photoelectric effect. Using Einstein’s photoelectric equation show how the
cut-off voltage and threshold frequency for a given photosensitive material can be
determined with the help of a suitable plot/graph.

208
Ans. (i) Cut off or stopping potential is that minimum value of negative potential at anode
which just stops the photo electric current.
(ii) For a given material, there is a minimum frequency of light below which no photo electric
emission will take place, this frequency is called as threshold frequency. By Einstein’s photo
electric equation

Clearly, V0 – ν graph is a straight line.

Q. 4. An α-particle and a proton are accelerated from rest by the same potential. Find the
ratio of their de- Broglie wavelengths.
Ans:

Q. 5. In the study of a photoelectric effect the graph between the stopping potential V and
frequency n of the incident radiation on two different metals P and Q is shown below:

209
(i) Which one of the two metals has higher threshold frequency?
(ii) Determine the work function of the metal which has greater value.
(iii) Find the maximum kinetic energy of electron emitted by light of frequency 8 × 1014 Hz
for this metal.
Ans

Answer
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (5mark)
Q. 1. Describe an experimental arrangement to study photoelectric effect.
Ans. Experimental study of Photoelectric Effect: The apparatus consists of an evacuated glass
or quartz tube which encloses a photosensitive plate C (called emitter) and a metal plate A
(called collector). A transparent window W is sealed on the glass tube which can be covered
with a filter for a light of particular radiation. This will allow the light of particular wavelength
to pass through it. The plate A can be given a desired positive or negative potential with
respect to plate C, using the arrangement as shown in figure.
Working:
When a monochromatic radiation of suitable frequency obtained from source S fall

210
on the photosensitive plate C, the photoelectrons are emitted from C, which gets accelerated
towards the plate A (collector) if it is kept at positive potential. These electrons flow in the
outer circuit resulting in the photoelectric current. Due to it, the micro ammeter shows a
deflection. The reading of micro ammeter measures the photoelectric current.
This experimental arrangement can be used to study the variation of photoelectric current
with the following quantities.

Q 2: Explain the effect of

(i) intensity of light on photoelectric current,
(ii) potential on photoelectric current and
(iii) frequency of incident radiation on stopping potential
Ans: (i) Effect of intensity of the incident radiation: By varying the intensity of the incident
radiations, keeping the frequency constant, the photoelectric current varies linearly with the
intensity of the incident radiation. Also, the number of photoelectrons emitted per second is
directly proportional to the intensity of the incident radiations.

(ii) Effect of potential of plate A w.r.t place C:

the photoelectric current increases gradually with the increase in positive potential of plate
A. At one stage for a certain positive potential of plate A, the photoelectric current becomes
maximum or saturates. After this if we increase the positive potential of plate A, there will be
no increase in the photoelectric current. This maximum value of current is called saturation
current: The saturation current corresponds to the state when all the photoelectrons emitted
from C reach the plate A. Now apply a negative potential on plate A w.r.t. plate C. We will
note that the photoelectric current decreases, because the photoelectrons emitted from C

211
are repelled and only energetic photoelectrons are reaching the plate A. By increasing the
negative potential of plate, A, the photoelectric current decreases rapidly and becomes zero
at a certain value of negative potential V0 on plate A. This maximum negative potential V0,
given to the plate A w.r.t. plate C at which the photoelectric current becomes zero is called
stopping potential or cut off potential.
1
𝐾𝑚𝑎𝑥 = 𝑒𝑉0 = 𝑚𝑣 2
2 𝑚𝑎𝑥
The value of stopping potential is independent of the intensity of the incident radiation. It
means, the maximum kinetic energy of emitted photoelectrons depends on the radiation
source and nature of material of plate C but is independent of the intensity of incident
radiation.

(iii) Effect of frequency of the incident radiation:

When we take the radiations of different frequencies but of same intensity, then the value of
stopping potential is different for radiation of different frequency. The value of stopping
potential is more negative for radiation of higher incident frequency. The value of saturation
current depends on the intensity of incident radiation but is independent of the frequency of
the incident radiation.

212
 CHAPTER 12 : ATOMS
Gist of the lesson

Thomson’s Model IMPACT PARAMETER

Atom is a spherical cloud of positive charge with It is Perpendicular distance of the initial velocity
electron embedded into it, like seeds in watermelon. vector of the 𝛼- particle from the centre of
nucleus.
𝜶-Particle Scattering Experiment and Rutherford 𝜃
𝑍𝑒 2 cot( )
nuclear model of atom 𝑏= 2
4𝜋𝜀0 𝐸

Electron Orbit
𝑒2
Radius (r) =
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑚𝑣 2
𝑒2
Kinetic energy (K) =
8𝜋𝜀0 𝑟
𝑒2
Potential energy (U) = -
4𝜋𝜀0 𝑟
𝑒2
Total energy (E) = K+U= -
8𝜋𝜀0 𝑟

BOHR’S MODEL

Bohr combined classical and quantum concepts

Conclusions
and gave the theory in terms of three postulates.
1. Only about 0.14% of incident 𝛼-particle scatter by 1. An electron can revolve only in certain stable
more than 1°. orbits without emission of radiant energy.
2. About 1 in 8000 deflected by more than 90°. 2. Electron can revolve only in those orbits in
3. Size of nucleus to be about 10-15m to 10-14m. which angular momentum is integral multiple of
ℎ
4. For large impact parameter the 𝛼-particle goes ( )
2𝜋
nearly undeviated. 𝑛ℎ
L= mvnrn = , n =1,2,3……
5. In case of head on collision, the impact parameter 2𝜋

is minimum and 𝛼- particle rebound back (𝜃 = 𝜋). 3. When an electron makes a transition from one
of the specified non radiator orbit to another
Rutherford’s Model lower energy orbit then radiate energy equal to
the difference of energy equal to final and initial
According to Rutherford most of the mass of atom
state.
and all its positive charge are concentrated in a tiny
space of the order of 10-14m, called nucleus and Bohr’s model is applicable for hydrogen and
electrons revolves around it. Centripetal force is hydrogen like elements only.
obtained from electrostatic attraction between
electron and nucleus. Limitations of Bohr’s Model
1. Bohr’s model is applicable for single electron
Drawbacks atom/ions.
(i) Stability of atom 2. Bohr’s model correctly predict the frequencies
(ii) Line spectrum of atoms of the light emitted by hydrogen like atom but unable
to explain the relative intensities of light

213
 DIFFERENT QUANTITIES FOR HYDROGEN LIKE HYDROGEN SPECTRUM
ELEMENTS
1. Lyman series
Radius of the nth orbit:
1 1 1
𝜺𝟎 𝒉 𝟐 𝒏𝟐 𝒏𝟐 𝒏𝟐 𝜆
= 𝑅 (12 − 𝑛2 ), n =2,3,4……∞ lies in UV region
rn = ( ) = 𝟎. 𝟓𝟐𝟗 𝑨 → 𝒓𝒏 ∝
𝝅𝒎𝒆𝟐 𝒁 𝒁 𝒁
2. Balmer series
Speed of electron in nth orbit:
1 1 1
𝒆𝟐 𝒁 𝒁 𝜆
= 𝑅 (22 − 𝑛2 ), n =3,4,5……∞ lies in visible region
Vn = → Vn∝
𝟐𝒉𝜺𝟎 𝒏 𝒏
3. Paschen series
Energy of electron in nth orbit:
1 1 1
𝒎𝒆𝟒 𝒁𝟐 𝟏𝟑.𝟔𝒁𝟐 𝜆
= 𝑅 (32 − 𝑛2 ), n =4,5,6……∞ lies in near IR
En = = ( 𝟐) 𝑱 𝒐𝒓 En = - 𝒆𝑽
𝟖𝜺𝟐
𝟎𝒉
𝟐 𝒏 𝒏𝟐
region
2
𝑍
→ 𝐸𝑛 ∝ 4. Barcket series
𝑛2
1 1 1
Time period of revolution of electron in nth orbit: = 𝑅( − ), n =5,6,7……∞ lies in IR region
𝜆 42 𝑛2
𝟒𝜺𝟎 𝒉𝟑 𝒏𝟑 𝒏𝟑
T=( ) = (𝟏. 𝟓𝟏 𝑿 𝟏𝟎−𝟏𝟔 𝒔) 5. Pfund series
𝒎𝒆𝟒 𝒁𝟐 𝒁𝟐
1 1 1
𝒏𝟑 = 𝑅 (52 − 𝑛2 ), n =6,7,8……∞ lies in far IR region
→𝑻 ∝ 𝜆
𝒁𝟐
Rydberg constant
𝒎𝒆𝟒
R = 𝟖𝜺 𝟑 = 𝟏. 𝟎𝟕 𝑿𝟏𝟎𝟕 𝒎−𝟏
𝟎𝒉 𝒄

DE BROGLIE’SEXPLANATION OF BOHR’S SECOND POSTULATE OF QUANTISATION

De-Broglie explained second postulate of Bohr’s atomic model by assuming an electron has wave nature.

The circumference of orbit should be integer multiple of de-Broglie wavelength of electron in nth orbit.
𝑛ℎ
2𝜋𝑟𝑛 = 𝑛𝜆 , 𝑛 = 1,2,3 … … …. mvnrn =
2𝜋

This is quantum condition proposed by Bohr for an angular momentum of an electron.

Excitation energy: The energy required to raise the electron from its ground state to some
higher energy level is called excitation energy.
Excitation potential: The potential difference through which the electron in an atom has to
be accelerated, so as to just raise it from its ground state to the excited state, is called
excitation potential.
Ionisation energy: The energy required to knock an electron completely out of an atom is
called ionisation energy.
Ionisation potential: The potential difference through which the electron in an atom has to
be accelerated so as to just ionise it, is called ionisation potential. The ionisation potential is
numerically equal to the ionisation energy.

214
215
 Important figures

Multiple Choice Questions

1. Which of the following statements is not correct according to Rutherford model?

(a) Most of the space inside an atom is empty.

216
(b) The electrons revolve around the nucleus under the influence of Coulomb force acting
on them.
(c) Most part the mass of the atom and its positive charge are concentrated at its centre.
(d) The stability of atom was established by the model.
2. In Rutherford’s α -particle scattering experiment, what will be correct angle for α
scattering for an impact parameter b = 0 ?
(a) 90° (b) 270° (c) 0° (d) 180°
3. The atomic model based on quantum theory was purposed by:
(a) Planck (b) Sommerfeld (c) Bohr (d) Thomson
4. According to Bohr’s postulates, which of the following quantities take discrete values?
(a) Kinetic energy (b) Potential energy (c) Linear momentum (d) Angular
momentum
5. The characteristics spectrum of an atom is observed as
(a) Emission line spectrum (b) Emission band spectrum
(c) Absorption line spectrum (d) Absorption band spectrum
6. De Broglie’s hypothesis gave an explanation for Bohr’s quantized orbits by bringing in
wave particle duality. According to this, the orbit correspond to circular standing wave in
which the circumference of orbit is
(a) An integral multiple of wavelength (b) Always equal to wavelength
(c) Independent of wavelength (d) An integral multiple of frequency
7. The ratio between Bohr radii is
(a) 1 : 2 : 3 (b) 2 : 4 : 6 (c) 1 : 4 : 9 (d) 1 : 3 : 5
8. The series of the hydrogen spectrum which has least wavelength
(a) Lyman series (b) Balmer series (c) Paschan series (d) Barckett series

9. The energy of hydrogen atom in its nth orbit is En =13.6 eV. The energy required for
sending electron from 1st orbit to 2nd orbit will be:
(a) 12.2 eV (b) 10.2 eV (c) 13.6 eV (d) 3.4 eV
10. In Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom, radius of the first orbit of an electron is r 0. Then,
radius of the third orbit is:
(a) r0/3 (b) r0 (c) 3r0 (d) 9r0
11. When an electron jumps from the fourth orbit to the second orbit, one gets the
(a) second line of Paschen series (b) second line of Balmer series
(c) first line of Pfund series (d) second line of Lyman series
12. For ionising an excited hydrogen atom, the energy required (in eV) will be
(a) a little less than 13.6 eV (b) 13.6 eV
(c) more than 13.6 eV (d) 3.4 or less

217
13*. Taking the Bohr radius as a0 =54 pm, the radius of Li++ ion in its ground state, on the
basis of Bohr’s model, will be about
(a) 53 pm (b) 27 pm (c) 18 pm (d) 13 pm
14*. Which of the following parameters is the same for all hydrogen-like atoms and ions in
their ground states?
(a) Radius of the orbit (b) Speed of the electron
(c) Energy of the atom (d) Orbital angular momentum of the electron
15*. When an atomic gas or vapour is excited at low pressure, by passing an electric current
through it then
(a) emission spectrum is observed (b) absorption spectrum is observed
(c) band spectrum is observed (d) both (b) and (c)

Ans

1. 2. 3. 4. 5. 6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
(d) (d) (c) (c) (a) (a) (c) (a) (b) (d)
11. 12. 13. 14. 15.
(b) (b) (c) (b) (a)

Assertion-Reason Question
For the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is
given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Both A and R are true, and R is correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true, but R is false.
(d) Both A and R are false.

16. Assertion: Electron is revolving round the nucleus.

Reason: If the electrons were stationary, they would fall into the nucleus due to the
electrostatic attraction and the atom would be unstable.
17. Assertion: Thomson’s model of the atom is known as a plum pudding model.
Reason: Thomson’s model of the atom is supposed to be round in shape.
18. Assertion: According to electromagnetic theory an accelerated particle continuously
emits radiation.
Reason: According to classical theory, the proposed path of an electron in Rutherford atom
model will be parabolic.
19. Assertion: Bohr’s theory of hydrogen atom could not completely explain the fine
structure of hydrogen spectrum.
Reason: In the spectrum of hydrogen, certain spectral lines are not single lines but a group
of closed lines with slightly different frequencies.

218
20. Assertion: The electron in the hydrogen atom passes from energy level n= 4 to the n=1
level. The maximum and minimum numbers of photon that can be emitted are six and one
respectively.
Reason: The photons are emitted when electron make a transition from the higher energy
state to lower energy state.

Ans 16. 17. 18. 19. 20.

(a) (c) (c) (a) (b)

One Mark Question (VSA)

1. In Bohr’s theory of model of hydrogen atom, name the physical quantity which equals to
ℎ
an integral multiple of 2𝜋? [ Ans: Angular momentum of
electron]
2. Which series comes in ultra-violet and visible region of hydrogen spectrum?
[ Ans- Lymen series and Balmer
series]
ℎ
3. What is Bohr’s quantization condition? [Ans- L= mvr = n2𝜋 where n=1,2,3
…..]
4*. Write the expression for Bohr’s radius in hydrogen atom. [Ans- rn
𝜀0 ℎ 2 𝑛2
= 𝜋𝑚𝑒 2 ]

5*. What is the ratio of radii of the orbits corresponding to first excited state and ground
state in a hydrogen atom? [Hint: rn ∝ 𝑛2 , Ans
𝑟 4
- 𝑟2 = 1]
1
6*. The kinetic energy of alpha – particle incident on gold foil is doubled. How does the
distance of closest approach change?
7. The total energy of an electron in the first excited state of the hydrogen atom is about -
3.4 eV. What is the potential energy of the electron in this state? [Hint :
P.E. = 2 E]
Short Answer (SA – 2 Marks)
1. Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom.
Ans. Two important limitations of Rutherford Model are:
(i) Electron orbiting around the nucleus, continuously radiate energy due to the
acceleration. Hence the atom will not remain stable.
(ii)As electron spirals inwards; its angular velocity and frequency change continuously,
therefore it should emit a continuous spectrum. But an atom like hydrogen always emits a
discrete line spectrum.

2. Which is easier to remove: orbital electron from an atom or a nucleon from a nucleus?
Ans. It is easier to remove an orbital electron from an atom. The reason is the binding
energy of orbital electron is a few electron-volts while that of nucleon in a nucleus is quite

219
large (nearly 8 MeV). This means that the removal of an orbital electron requires few eV
energy while the removal of a nucleon from a nucleus requires nearly 8 MeV energy.

3. Define ionization energy. How would the ionization energy change when electron in
hydrogen atom is replaced by the particle of mass 200 times that of the electron but having
the same charge? (Given Rydberg’s constant, R = 107 m-1)
Ans The minimum energy, required to free the electron from the ground state of the
hydrogen atom, is known as lonization Energy.
Since E 0 ∝m Therefore, lonization Energy will become 200 times.

4.* When is Hα line in the emission spectrum of hydrogen atom obtained? Calculate the
frequency of the photon emitted during this transition.
AnsThe line with the longest wavelength of the Balmer series

5*. The ground state energy

of hydrogen atom is – 13.6 eV. If an electron makes a transition from an energy level – 1.51
eV to – 3.4 eV, calculate the wavelength of the spectral line emitted and name the series of
hydrogen spectrum to which it belongs.
Ans

220
(SA –II 3 Marks)

1. In the Fig. for the stationery orbits of the hydrogen atom, mark the
transitions representing the Balmer and Lyman series.
Ans

2. What is the minimum energy (in eV) required to remove an

electron from the ground state of doubly ionised Li atom (Z =
3)? [Hint: En =
13.6
− 𝑍2 ]
𝑛2
Ans 122.4 eV

3. Calculate the impact parameter of a 5MeV alpha particle scattered by 90 ͦwhen it

approaches a gold nucleus (Z=79).
Ans

4. Using de-Broglie’s hypothesis, explain with the help of a suitable diagram, Bohr’s second
postulate of quantization of energy levels in a hydrogen atom.
Ans

221
5*. Using Bohr’s postulate, obtain the expression for the total energy of the electron in
hydrogen atom. What is the significance of total negative energy possessed by the electron?
Ans

Energy is negative
implies that the electron- nucleus is a bound or attractive system.

6*. Show that the radius of the orbit in hydrogen atom varies as n2, where n is the principal
quantum number of the atom.
Ans

7.
Determine the distance of closest approach when an alpha particle of kinetic energy 4.5
MeV strikes a nucleus of Z = 80, stops and reverses its direction.

222
Ans

8.
Explain briefly how Rutherford scattering of 𝛼- particle by a target nucleus can provide
information on the size of nucleus.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS/ SOURCE BASED QUESTIONS

Case 1
The trajectory traced by an 𝛼- particle depends on the impact parameter, b of collision. The
impact parameter is the perpendicular distance of the initial velocity vector of the 𝛼-
particle from the centre of the nucleus. A given beam of 𝛼- particle has a distribution of
impact parameter b, so that the beam is scattered in various directions with different
probabilities. (In a beam, all particles have nearly same kinetic energy.) It is seen that an 𝛼-
particle close to the nucleus suffers large scattering.
1. What is the significance of impact parameter?
2. Draw a plot showing the number of particle scattered versus the scattering angle.
3. If an 𝜶- particle collides head on with the nucleus, calculate
is impact parameter?
OR
In G-M scattering experiment, the trajectory of 𝜶- particle in
Coulomb’s field of a heavy nucleus is shown in figure.
(a) What do ‘b’ and ‘𝜽’ represent in figure?
(b) What will the value of ‘b’ for (i) 𝜽 = 𝟎°, and (ii) 𝜽 = 𝟏𝟖𝟎°

Case 2
The Bohr model is a big part of Physics history. Neils Bohr proposed his model in 1913. It
states that electrons orbit the nucleus at set distances. The model was an expansionλ on the
Rutherford model overcame. Neils Bohr’s model was based on his observations of the
atomic emissions spectrum of the hydrogen atom. His findings said that the electron can
move to a higher-energy orbit by gaining an amount of energy equal to the difference in
energy between the higher-energy orbit and the initial lower-energy orbit. But time and
research has proven and changed the Bohr model; Making this model one of the most
famous models in Physics history.

223
1. State Bohr’s Postulate to define stable orbits in hydrogen atom.
2. State limitation of Bohr’s atomic model.
3. Use Bohr’s model of hydrogen atom to obtain the relationship between the angular
momentum and magnetic moment of revolving electron.
OR
Find a relation between the three wavelengths λ1, λ2 and
λ3 from the energy level diagram shown below.
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
[ Ans EC-EB = 𝜆 , EB-EA = 𝜆 , EC-EA = 𝜆
1 2 3
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐
And EC-EA = 𝜆 +
1 𝜆2
ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 ℎ𝑐 1 1 1
Therefore 𝜆 + = 𝜆 , so + =𝜆 ]
1 𝜆2 3 𝜆1 𝜆2 3

Case 3
Electron Transition for Hydrogen Atom
Bohr’s model explains the spectral lines of hydrogen atomic emission spectrum while the
electron of the atom remians in ground state, its energy is unchanged. When the atom
absorbs one or more quanta of energy, the electron moves from the ground state orbit to
an excited state orbit that is further away.

The given figure shows an energy level diagram of

hydrogen atom. Several transition are marked as I, II, III, IV and V. The diagram is only
indicative and not scale.
1. What will be the nature of spectrum when electron moves from ground state orbit to
exited state?
2. Which of the transistion beongs to Lyman series?
3. Calculate the wave length of second member of Lyman series. [Hint : ni =3 , nf = 1]
OR
Calcuate the shortest wave length og Balmer series. [Hint: ni = ∞ , nf = 2]

224
 CHAPTER 13: NUCLEI
Nucleus
In every atom, the positive charge and mass are densely concentrated at the central core of
the atom, which forms its nucleus. More than 99.9% mass of the atom is concentrated in
the nucleus.
Atomic Mass Unit (amu)
The unit of mass used to express mass of an atom is called atomic mass unit. Atomic mass
unit is defined as 1/12th of the mass of carbon (126C) atom.
1 amu or 1 u=1.660539 x10-27 kg
(1) Mass of proton (mp)=1.00727 u
(2) Mass of neutron (mn)=1.00866 u
(3) Mass of electron (me)=0.000549 u
Relation between amu and MeV
1 amu=931 Mev
Composition of Nucleus
The composition of a nucleus can be described by using the following.
(1) Atomic Number (Z) :Atomic number of an element is the number of protons present
inside the nucleus of an atom of the element.
Atomic number (Z) = Number of protons = Number of electrons (in a neutral atom)
(2) Mass Number (A): Mass number of an element is the total number of protons and
neutrons inside the atomic nucleus of the element.
Mass number (A)= Number of protons(Z) +Number of neutrons(N)
= Number of electrons +Number of neutrons
A=Z+N
Size of Nucleus
According to the scattering experiments, nuclear sizes of different elements are assumed to
be spherical, so the volume of a nucleus is directly proportional to its mass number. If R is
the radius of the nucleus having mass number A, then
4/3πR3 α A
 R α A1/3
 R = R0A1/3

where. R0= 1.2x10 -15 m is the range of nuclear size. It is also known as nuclear radius.

225
Nuclear Density
Density of nuclear matter is the ratio of mass of nucleus and its volume.
ρ=m/(4/3πR03) => ρ = 2.38x1017kg/m³
where, m = average mass of one nucleon and Ro=1.2 fm = 1.2x10-15m
=>The nuclear density (ρ) does not depend on A (mass number).
Mass Defect
The sum of the masses of neutrons and protons forming a nucleus is more than the actual
mass of the nucleus. This difference of masses is known as mass defect.
∆m=Zmp+(A-Z)mn - M
where, Z= atomic number, A= mass number, mp = mass of one proton, mn= mass of one
neutron and M= mass of nucleus.
Mass-Energy Relation
Einstein's mass-energy equivalence equation is given by
E = mc2 ( E is the energy and c is the speed of light =3x108 m/s and m = mass of nucleus)
Nuclear Forces
Short ranged (2-3 fm) strong attractive forces which hold protons and neutrons together in
against of coulombian repulsive forces between positively charged particle is called nuclear
force. The nuclear force between neutron-neutron, proton-neutron and proton-proton is
approximately the same. The nuclear force does not depend on the electric charge.
Nuclear Energy
When nucleons form a nucleus, the mass of nucleus is slightly less than the sum of individual
masses of nucleons. This mass is stored as nuclear energy in the form of mass defect. Also,
transmutation of less stable nuclei into more tightly bound nuclei provides an excellent
possibility of releasing nuclear energy.
Two distinct ways of obtaining energy from nucleus are Number of nucleons given below
Nuclear Fission
The phenomenon of splitting of heavy nuclei (usually A>230) into lighter nuclei of nearly
equal masses is known as nuclear fission, e.g.
235 + 0n1 141 92 + 3 0 n1 + Q
92U 56Ba + 36Kr

Nuclear Fusion
The phenomenon of fusing or combining of two lighter nuclei into a single heavy nucleus is
called nuclear fusion, e.g.
1 1 2 e1 +v +0.42 MeV
1H +1H 1H +

226
[The energy released during nuclear fusion is known as thermonuclear energy.]
Binding Energy
The binding energy of a nucleus is defined as the minimum energy required to separate its
nucleons and place them at rest at infinite distance apart. Using Einstein's mass-energy
relation, ΔE= (Δmc2), the binding energy of the nucleus is
ΔΕ =[Zmp + (A-Z)mn – M]c2
Average Binding Energy Per Nucleon of a Nucleus
It is the average energy required to extract a nucleon from the nucleus to infinite distance. It
is given by total binding energy divided by the mass number of the nucleus.
Total binding ⅇnⅇrgy
Binding energy per nucleon=𝑁𝑢𝑚𝑏𝑒𝑟 𝑜𝑓 𝑛𝑢𝑐𝑙𝑒𝑜𝑛𝑠

Binding Energy Curve

It is a plot of the binding energy per nucleon versus the mass number A for a large number
of nuclei as shown below:

Binding energy per nucleon as a function of mass number :It is used to explain phenomena
of nuclear fission and fusion.
Nuclear Stability
The stability of a nucleus is determined by the value of its binding energy per nucleon. The
constancy of the binding energy in the range 30 < A<170 is a consequence of the fact that
the nuclear force is short-ranged.
Nuclear Chain Reaction
In a nuclear fission, more neutron are produced compared to those which are absorbed,
hence a strong possibility of chain reaction with each of the produced neutron arises
initiating another fission reaction.
(i) Controlled Chain Reaction :The chain reaction can be controlled and maintained steadily
by absorbing a suitable number of neutrons at each stage, so that on an average one

227
neutron remains available for exciting further fission such a reaction is called controlled
chain reaction. e.g. Nuclear reactor.
(ii) Uncontrolled Chain Reaction : During fission reaction, neutron released again absorbed
by the fissile isotopes, the cycle repeats to give a reaction that is self sustaining leading to
large amount of radiation. Such a reaction is called uncontrolled chain reaction. e.g. Atom
bomb.
[1 marks]
1.The nucleus of an atom consists of

a)electrons and protons

b)electrons, protons and neutrons
c)electrons and neutrons
d)neutrons and protons

Ans: a) The nucleus is defined as the part of the atom consisting of protons and neutrons.

2.1 MeV equals:

a)1.6 x 10-19 J
b) 1.6 x 10-22 J
c) 1.6 x 10-13 J
d) 1.6 x 10-9 J
Ans: c) 1 eV = (charge of an electron x 1V)
= (1.6 x 10-19 C x 1 V)
= (1.6 x 10-19 J)
1 MeV = 1.0 x 106 eV
Therefore 1 MeV = 1.6 x 10-13 J
3.What is the source of energy in stars?
a)fusion b)chemical reaction c)gravitational collapse d)fission
Ans: a) In stars, nuclear fusion happens. This keeps it glowing.
4.Two spherical nuclei have mass numbers 216 and 64 with their radii R 1 and R2
respectively. The ratio R1 and R2 is:
a) 3:2 b) 1:3 c)1:2 d)2:3
Ans: a) R1/R2 = (A1/A2)1/3 = (216/64)1/3= 3:2
5. The neutrons as discovered by
a)Marie Curie b) Pierre Curie c)Rutherford d) James Chadwick
Ans: d) by James Chadwick in 1932

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6. Select the pairs of isotopes & isotones from the following:
i. 13C6 ii.14N7 iii. 30P15 iv. 31P15
Ans: Isotopes-iii &iv, isotones-I & ii
7. Light energy emitted by stars is due to
a)breaking of nuclei
b)joining of nuclei
c)burning of nuclei
d)reflection of solar light.
Ans: b) Joining of nuclei in fusion.

8.Nuclear fusion is possible

a)only between light nuclei
b)only between heavy nuclei
c)between both light and heavy nuclei
d)only between nuclei, which are stable against decay.
Ans: a) Fusion is possible between light nuclei.

9.Which of the following is an essential requirement for initiating nuclear fusion:

a)critical mass
b)thermal neutrons
c)high temperature
d)critical temperature
Ans: c) High temperature is essential for initiating fusion reaction.

10. The nuclear forces are:

a)charge dependent
b)spin dependent
c)charge independent
d)long range
Ans: c) charge independent since it is a nuclear phenomenon

11.Which is a non central force:

a)Electrostatic force
b)Nuclear force
c)Gravitational force
d)None of the above

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Ans: b) Nuclear force
12.For Uranium nucleus, how does its mass vary with its volume?
a.m ∞ V b)m ∞ √V c) m ∞ 1/V d) m ∞ V2
Ans. a) m ∞ V
13.Order of magnitude of density of uranium nucleus (mp= 1.67 x 10-27 kg) is
a) 1020 kg/m3 b) 1011 kg/m3 c) 1014 kg/m3 d) 1017 kg/m3
Ans. d) 1017 kg/m3
14.If a star can convert all the He nuclei completely into oxygen nuclei, the energy
released per oxygen nucleus is
[ mass of Helium nucleus is 4.0026 amu and mass of oxygen nucleus is 15.9994 amu]
a) 7.6 MeV b)56.12 MeV c)10.24 MeV d)23.9 MeV
Ans: c) 10.24 MeV
15. Fast neutrons can easily be slowed down by
a)using lead shielding
b)passing them through water containing protons
c)elastic collisions with heavy nuclei
d)applying a strong electric field.

Ans) b)passing them through water containing protons with comparable masses

[2 marks]

1. How the size of a nucleus is experimentally determined? Write the relation between
the radius and mass number of the nucleus. Show that the density of nucleus is
independent of its mass number.
Ans.The size of the nucleus is experimentally Determined using Rutherford’s α-scattering
experiment and the distance of closed approach and impact parameter.
The relation between radius and mass number of nucleus is,
R = RoA1/3 , where Ro = 1.2 fm
Nuclear density, ρ= Mass of nucleus / Volume of nucleus
= mA / (4/3)π(RoA1/3)3
M= mass of each nucleon
ρ = mA / (4/3)πRo3A
= m / (4/3)πRo3
it is clear that ρ does not depend on mass number.

2.Why is it necessary to slow down the neutrons, produced through the fission of 23592U
nuclei(by neutrons) to sustain a chain reaction? What type of nuclei is (preferably) needed
for slowing down fast neutrons?

230
Ans: Average kinetic energy of neutrons produced in nuclear fission of 92U235 is nearly 2MeV
whereas the chances of absorption of neutrons average kinetic energy of nearly 0.024 MeV
is high by U nuclei. So. there is a need to slow down the fast neutrons using appropriate
substance namely moderator, into slow thermal neutrons.
Nuclei have comparable mass to that of neutrons should be preferable be used to slow
down fast neutrons.It is due to the fact that the elastic collision between fast neutrons and
slow moving protons in paraffin lead to interchange the velocities.

3.Show that nuclear density is independent of mass number.

Ans: Let the volume of a nucleus be V ,the mass of the nucleus be M and the mass of a
nucleon be m
V = 4/3 r3
= M/V
So, M = 4/3 r3
Let's replace the r3 from the equation

r3 = ro3A
M = 4/3 ro3A
but M = Am
So, Am = 4/3 ro3A
Therefore,
Rearranging we get, = 3m/(4 ro3 )
This means that the density does not dependent on A or r - it is related to constant values -
it is therefore a constant value.
4. Why is the binding energy per nucleon found to be constant for the nuclei in the range
of mass number (A) lying between 30 and 170?
(B) When a heavy nucleus with mass number A = 240 breaks into two nuclei, A = 120,
energy released in’ this process.
Ans: (A) Nuclear forces are short ranged. For a particular nucleon inside a sufficiently large
nucleus will be under the influence of some of its neighbors which come within the range of
the nuclear force. The property that a given nucleon influences only nucleons close to it is
also referred to as saturation property of the nuclear force.
(B) The binding energy per nucleon of the parent nucleus is less than those of the two
daughter nuclei. It is this increased binding energy that gets released in this process.
5.In the fusion reaction
2 + 1H2 3 1
1H 2He + 0n , the masses of deuteron, helium and neutron expressed in amu
are 2.015, 3.017 and 1.009 respectively. If 1 kg deuterium undergoes complete fusion, find
the amount of total energy released.
Ans:1amu = 931.5 MeV/c2

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 m  2(2.015)  (3.017  1.009)  0.004amu

1 amu = 931.5 MeV/c2

Hence,
E = 0.004×931.5 MeV = 3.724 MeV
E = 3.726×1.6×10−13J = 5.96×10−13J
For 1 kg of Deuterium available,
moles = 1000g/2g = 500
N = 500 NA = 3.01×1026
Energy released = (N/2) × 5.95×10−13J
= 8.95×1013J
[3 marks]
1.Assuming the nuclei to be spherical in shape, how does the surface area of a nucleus of
mass number A1 compared with that of a nucleus with mass number A 2 ?
Ans: Nuclear radius , R = RoA1/3
...surface area, S = 4πR2
= 4π(RoA1/3)2 = 4πRo.A2/3
. .Ratio of surface area, S1/S2 = (A1/A2)2/3
.

2. Define Nuclear forces and gives their important characteristics/properties.

Ans.The nucleus of an atom has a number of protons and neutrons (nucleons) which are
held together by the forces known as Nuclear forces in the tiny nucleus, inspite of strong
force of repulsion between protons.
Characteristics/Properties of nuclear forces:
1. Nuclear forces are strongest forces in nature.
2. Nuclear forces are short range forces.
3. Nuclear forces are basically strong attractive forces but contain a small component
of repulsive forces.
4. Nuclear forces are saturated forces.
5. Nuclear forces are charge independent
6. Nuclear forces are spin- dependent
7. Nuclear forces are exchange forces
3. Define atomic mass unit (a.m.u.) and calculate its value in SI unit of mass. Also find
energy equivalent in MeV corresponding to it.
1
Ans. Atomic mass unit is defined as 12th of mass of one 126𝐶 atom.
According to Avogadro’s hypothesis number of atoms in 12 g of 126𝐶 is equal to Avogadro
number. i.e 6.023x1023 .
12
Therefore the mass of one carbon atom 126𝐶 = 6.023𝑥1023= 1.99 x10-23g = 1.99 x10-26kg

1
Or, 1a.m.u. = 12x1.99 x10-26=1.665x10-27kg
Energy equivalent of 1 a.m.u ,

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∆m = 1 a.m.u = 1.665x10-27kg

E = ∆m C2 J = 1.665x10-27 x ( 3x108 )2 / 1.6 x 10-13 MeV = 931.5 MeV

4. Sketch a graph showing the variation of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a

function of their separation. Write three characteristic properties of nuclear force which
distinguish it from the electrostatic force.
Ans:

Nuclear force
i) Strongest short range force which operate up to distance of 2-3 fm.
ii) it does not obey inverse square law
iii) it exhibit charge independent character.
Electrostatic force
i) It is not very short range force necessarily.
ii)It obey inverse square law.
iii)It depend on the nature of charge, like charge repel whereas opposite charge
attract each other

5. Explain mass defect and binding energy.

An atomic nucleus is a stable structure. The nucleus is bound by very strong short range
forces called nuclear forces. Certain amount of work has to be done to separate the
nucleons to such a distance that there is no interaction. This work done therefore measures
binding energy of the nucleus.

On the basis of Einstein's theory of mass energy equivalent it was found that the rest mass
of a nucleus is always slightly less than the sum of the free neutrons and protons comprising
the nucleus. This indicates that some mass disappears when a nucleus is formed. This
difference in the masses is called the mass defect. It is this mass defect, which appears in
the form of binding energy.

where ∆m is the mass defect, mp is mass of a proton, mn is mass of a neutron, mN is mass of

nucleus ZXA.

B.E = (∆mc2) = [Zmp + (A-Z)mn]c2

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6. Draw a plot of potential energy of a pair of nucleons as a function of their separation.
Write two important conclusions, which you can draw regarding the nature of nuclear
forces.

Ans: Conclusions:
1. At large distances r >r0 , potential energy is –ve therefore force is attractive.
2. At small distance r<r0 , potential energy is +ve so force is repulsive.

7. Define the Q-value of a nuclear process. When can a nuclear process not proceed
spontaneously? If both the no. of protons and the no. of neutrons are conserved in a
nuclear reaction, in what way is mass converted into energy (vice – versa)in the nuclear
reaction?

Ans: The Q- value of a nuclear process refers the energy release in the nuclear process
which can be determined using Einstein’s mass energy relation, E = mc2 .The Q- value is
equal to the difference of mass of products and the reactance multiplied by square of
velocity of light.
The nuclear process does not proceed spontaneously when Q- value of a process is –ve or
sum of masses of products in greater than sum of masses of reactant.
Mass defect occurs in nucleus which converts into energy=mc2and produces binding energy.
This energy binds nucleons together.
8.If a nucleus 26Fe56 splits into two nuclei of 13 Al28, would the energy be released or needed
for this purpose to occur? Given m(26 Fe56) = 55.934944&m (13 Al28 ) = 27.98191, 1u =
931MeV/c2 .Calculate the energy in MeV.
Ans: m(26 Fe56) + Q 2 (13 Al28 )
Δm = 2 x (27.98191)u - 55.934944 u
= 0.02888 u
Energy released, = 0.02888 x 931MeV = 26.88728 MeV

234
9.Why is the mass of a nucleus always less than the sum of the masses of its constituents,
neutrons and protons? If the total number of neutrons and protons is a nuclear reaction is
conserved , how then is the energy absorbed or evolved in the reaction? Explain.
Ans: The nucleus can be broken into its constituent parts only if this amount of energy is
supplied to it from outside. This energy comes from conversion of some of the mass of the
nucleus into energy by the formula E =mc2. That is why the mass of a nucleus is always less
than the sum of masses of its constituent neutrons and protons.
The number of neutrons and protons is conserved but their masses are not conserved.
Some of the mass of every nucleon is converted to energy and given out as heat and
radiations.
10. Find the energy equivalent of 1 amu in terms of MeV.
The unit in which atomic and nuclear masses are measured is called atomic mass unit
(a.m.u).
1 a.m.u is defined as 1/12th of the mass of an atom of 6C12 isotope.
It can be shown that
1 a.m.u = 1.66 x 1027 kg.
According to Einstein, mass energy equivalence
E = mc2
Where m = 1.66 x 10-27 kg.
C = 3x108 m/sec ,we get
E = 1.49 x 10-10 J (1Mev = 1.6 x 10-13 J)

E = 931.25 Mev
Hence a change in mass of 1a.m.u (called mass defect) releases an energy equal to 931 Mev.

1 amu = 931 Mev is used as a standard conversion.

[Assertion-Reasoning Type Questions]

Answer: (a)Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.

Answer: (b)Both are correct but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
Answer: (c)Assertion is correct but Reason is wrong.
Answer: (d)Both Assertion and Reason are wrong.

1.Assertion: Nuclear density is almost same for all nuclei.

Reason: The radius (r) of a nucleus depends only on the mass number (A) as r ∝ A1/3.

Answer: a)

2.Assertion: Fast moving neutrons do not cause fission of a uranium nucleus.

Reason: A fast moving neutron spends very little time inside the nucleus.

235
Answer: (a)

3.Assertion: Nuclear force between neutron-neutron, proton neutron and proton-proton is

approximately the same.

Reason: The nuclear force doesn’t depend on the electric charge.

Answer: (a) Since, nuclear force is charge independent, hence assertion is correct.

4.Assertion: Binding energy per neutron is constant for mass number in the range 30< A<
170
Reason :Nuclear force is short ranged force and saturation of force occurs for greater
distances.
Answer: (a)

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTION:

Einstein was the first to establish the equivalence between mass and energy. According to
him, whenever a certain mass (Δm) disappears in some process the amount of energy
released is E = Δm c2, where c is the velocity of light in vacuum =3x 10 8 m/s. The reverse is
also true i.e. whenever energy E disappears an equivalent mass Δm = E/ c 2 appears.
Read the above passage and answer any 04 from the following –
i) What is the energy released when 1a.m.u mass disappears in a nuclear reaction?
a) 1.49 x10 -10 J b) 1.49 x10 -7 J c) 1.49 x10 10 J d) 1.49 x10 -10 MJ
Ans: (a)
ii)Which of the following process releases energy?
a)Nuclear Fission b)Nuclear Fusion c)Both (a) and (b) d)None
Ans: (c)
iii)Which process is used in today’s nuclear power plant to harness nuclear energy?
a)Nuclear Fission b)Nuclear Fusion c)Both (a) and (b) d)None
Ans: (a)
iv)Which process releases energy in Atom Bomb?
a)Nuclear Fission b)Nuclear Fusion c)Both (a) and (b) d)None
Ans: (a)
v)Which of the following is used as Moderator in a Nuclear Reactor?
a)Deuterium Water b)Normal Water c)Mineral Water d)Soft water
Ans: (a)

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 CHAPTER 14 : SEMICONDUCTOR ELECTRONICS: MATERIALS, DEVICES AND
SIMPLE CIRCUITS
GIST OF THE LESSON:
1. Classification of Conductors, Semiconductors and Insulators:
(a) On the basis of Conductivity (σ) or Resistivity ρ(=1/σ):-
The solids are classified as follows:
(i) Conductors: They have very low resistivity(ρ) in the range 10-2 – 10-8Ω-m.
(ii) Semiconductors: They have resistivity in the range 10-5 – 106 Ω-m.
(iii) Insulators: They have high resistivity in the range 1011 – 1019 Ω-m.
(b) On the Basis of Energy Bands:-
Inside the crystal, each outermost shell electron has a unique position and no two electrons
have the same set of quantum states. Because of this, each electron has a different energy
level. These different energy levels constitute and energy band.
Valence band: The energy band which includes the energy levels of the valence electrons, is
called the valence band.
Conduction band: The energy band which includes the higher energy levels which may or
may not be occupied by electrons, is called conduction band.
Energy band gap (Energy gap Eg): The gap between the top of the value band (Ev) and bottom
of conduction band (Ec) is called the energy gap (Eg). On the basis of energy bands, conductors,
semiconductors and insulators can be classified as follows:
(i) Metals or Conductors: The conduction and valence band can easily move into the
conduction band. Therefore, the electrons from valence band can easily move into the
conduction band. Therefore, the resistance of the metals is low or the conductivity is high.

(ii) Semiconductors: Eg˂ 3eV (small energy b and gap)

237
At T= 0K, the conduction band is empty and the semiconductors behaves like an insulator. But
the room temperature, electrons gain thermal energies and cross the small E g (energy gap)
easily and either the conduction band, and can move in the conduction band.

(iii) Insulators: Eg˃ 3eV (large energy band gap)

The conduction band is empty. Due to large Eg (energy gap), the electrons cannot be excited
from valence band to conduction band by thermal excitation.

2. Types of semiconductors

3. Intrinsic semiconductors (Pure Si or Ge)

In these semiconductors, due to the thermal excitation, the electrons move from the valence
band to conduction band, leaving behind a vacancy in the valence band called hole. The hole
in the valence band behaves as an apparent free particle with effective positive charge.

238
Therefore, the number of electrons in the conduction band is equal to the number of holes in
the valence band.

⸫ ne = nh = ni
Here ne = free electron density (concentration)
nh = free hole density (concentration)
ni = intrinsic carrier concentration
When an external field is applied, the holes moves towards the negative potential giving
current due to hole and the electrons move towards the positive potential and give rise to
current due to electron.
Thus, the total current (l) is the sum of the current due to electron (le) and current due to hole
(lh).
l = le + lh
The two processes occur simultaneously, i.e, the process of generation of conduction
electrons and holes, and the process of recombination of electrons and holes due to their
collision.
4. Extrinsic Semiconductors
The conductivity of a semiconductor can be improved by adding a suitable impurity in specific
amounts. Such materials are called extrinsic semiconductors. The deliberate addition of
impurities is called doping, and such materials are also known as doped semiconductors.
The added impurities are called dopants. The size of the dopant and the semiconductors
atoms should be nearly the same, so that it does not distort the original or pure
semiconductors lattice.
The following are two types of dopants that are used in the tetravalent (Si or Ge) doping.
(i) Pentavalent (valency5): Arsenic (As), Antimony (Sb), phosphorus (P), etc.
(ii) Trivalent (valency 3): Indium (In), Boron (B), Aluminum (Al), etc.
(a) n-type Semiconductor
The doping of a pure semiconductor with pentavalent impurity atoms such as P, As and Sb,
yield n-type semiconductor. Each impurity atom contributes one free electron in addition to
the electron-hole pairs already existing in the semiconductor. Thus, in a n-type
semiconductor, ne˃nh. For this reason, electrons are called the majority charge carriers and
holes are called the minority charge carriers in a n-type semiconductor. Each impurity atom
is called a donor as it donates one free electron to the semiconductors.

239
(b) p-type Semiconductor:
The doping of a pure semiconductor with trivalent impurity atoms such as B and Al, yields p-
type semiconductor. Each impurity atom contributes one hole in addition to the electron-hole
pairs already existing in the semiconductor. Thus, in a p-type semiconductor, nh ˃ ne. For this
reason, holes are called the majority charge carriers and electrons are called the minority
charge carriers in a p-type semiconductor.

Each impurity atom is called an acceptor because it accepts one electron in the valence band
to become ionised as negatively charged. The holes introduced into the semiconductor by the
acceptor impurity have energy which is 0.04 eV above the highest energy level of the valence
band as shown in the above figure.
Charge carriers in Semiconductors: Intrinsic or pure semiconductors conduct due to electrons
and holes whose number density is same, i.e. ne = nh = ni. Here ni is called the number density

240
of intrinsic carriers. In a doped semiconductor, whether p-type or n-type, the number density
of charge carriers is related as
ni2 = ne nh
5. p-n junction diode
A p-n junction consists of wafers of p-type and n-type semiconductors fused together or
grown on each other.
(a) Depletion region
(i) It is a region near the p-n junction that is depleted of any mobile charge carrier. It
consists of immobile ion cores.
(ii) The depletion width depends on:
(i) the type of biasing, and (ii) extent of doping
(b) Potential Barrier (VB): Due to the accumulation of immobile ion cores in the junction, a
potential difference is developed which prevents the further movement of majority charge
carriers across the junction.
6. Forward biasing of a p-n junction
(a) A p-n junction is said to be forward biased when p-region is maintained at a higher
potential with respect to the n-region as shown below.

(b) When forward biased, majority charge carriers in both the regions are pushed through the
junction. The depletion region’s width decreases and the junction offers low resistance, and
potential difference across the junction becomes VB – V.
(c) Forward characteristics of p-n junction diode:
It is a graphical relation between the forward bias voltage applied and the forward current
flowing through the diode. As long as the forward bias voltage is less than the barrier
potential, no current flows. But when a forward bias voltage(V) is greater than barrier
potential applied, an almost linear forward bias voltage current (≈ a few mA) flow due to the
flow of majority carriers. For diodes, we define a quantity, called dynamic resistance, as the
ration of small change in voltage ΔV to a small change in current Δl,
This forward voltage at which flow of current increasing quickly is known as knee voltage.

241
p-n
7. Reverse biasing of a p-n junction
(a) A p-n junction is said to be reverse biased when its p-region is maintained at a lower
potential with respect to its n-region as shown below.

(b) When the junction is reverse biased, the majority charge carriers in both the regions are
pushed away from the junction. The depletion regions width increases and the potential
difference across the junction becomes, V + VB.
(c) Reverse characteristics of a junction diode: It is a graphical relation between the reverse
bias voltage applied and the reverse current flowing (if any) the diode. In this case, the
majority carriers in both p-region and n-region move away from the junction so that no
majority current flows. However, minority carriers cross over the junction constituting a small
current (≈ a few μA) which is called minority current which almost remains constant with the
change in bias. It is called reverse saturation current. As the magnitude of the reverse bias
voltage is increased, the leakage current also rises gradually. At a particular reverse bias
voltage, the reverse current increases abruptly (i.e. it becomes very large suddenly). The
reverse bias voltage at which the reverse current rises abruptly, is called Breakdown voltage).

8. p-n junction as a rectifier

Rectification: It is the process of conversion of ac into dc. A single p-n junction, or two or four
p-n junctions can be used for this purpose.

242
Principle: A p-n junction diode conducts in forward bias and does not conduct in the reverse
bias.
(a) Half-wave rectifier: A single p-n junction can be used for half-wave rectifier. It conducts
only during alternative half-cycle of the input ac voltage. As a result, the output voltage does
not change in polarity. The average of the voltage from a half-wave rectifier is low.

(b) Full-wave Rectifier: It is achieved using two p-n junctions. It conducts for both halves of
the cycle. The average voltage of a full-wave rectifier is more than that of a half-wave rectifier,
for the same rms value of ac voltage.

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

1. The usual semiconductors are
(a) Germanium and silicon
(b) Germanium and copper
(c) Silicon and glass
(d) Glass and carbon

243
2. The energy gap between the valence and conduction bands of a substance is 6 eV.
The substance is a
(a) Conductor
(b) Semiconductor
(c) Insulator
(d) Superconductor

3. In a n- type semiconductor, which of the following statements is true?

(a) Electrons are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are the dopants.
(b) Electrons are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
(c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
(d) Holes are majority carriers and trivalent atoms are dopants.

4. The conductivity of a semiconductor increases with increase in temperature because

(a) Number density of free current carriers increases.
(b) Relaxation time increases.
(c) Both number density of carriers and relaxation time increase.
(d) Number density of current carriers increases, relaxation time decreases but effect of
decrease in relaxation time is much less than increase in number density.

5. When an electric field is applied across a semiconductor

(a) Electron moves from lower energy level to higher energy level in the conduction
band
(b) Electron moves from higher energy level to lower energy level in the conduction
band
(c) Holes in the valence band move from higher energy level to lower energy level
(d) Holes in the valence band more from lower energy level to higher energy level.

6. A piece of copper and another of germanium are cooled from room temperature to
77 K. The resistance of
(a) Each of these decreases
(b) Copper strip increases and that of germanium decreases.
(c) Copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases
(d) Each of these increases

7. The breakdown in a reverse biased p-n junction diode is more likely to occur due to
(a) Large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is small
(b) Large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is large
(c) Strong electric field in a depletion region if the doping concentration is small.
(d) Strong electric field in the depletion region if the doping concentration is large.

244
8. At equilibrium, in a p-n junction diode the net current is
(a) Due to diffusion of majority charge carriers
(b) Due to drift of minority charge carriers.
(c) Zero as diffusion and drift currents are equal and opposite.
(d) Zero as no charge carriers cross the junction.

9. The impurity atoms to be mixed in pure silicon to form p-type semiconductor are, of
(a) Phosphorus
(b) Germanium
(c) Antimony
(d) Aluminum

10. The manifestation of band structure in solid is due to

(a) Heisenberg’s uncertainty principle
(b) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(c) Bohr’s correspondence principle
(d) Boltzmann’s law

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

11. Name the charge carriers in n-type semiconductors.

12. How does the width of depletion region of a p-n junction vary if doing concentration
is increased.

13. Draw a p-n junction with reverse bias.

14. Why are elemental dopants for Silicon or Germanium usually chosen from group 13
or group 15?

15. At what temperature would an intrinsic semiconductor behave like a perfect

insulator?

16. Give the ratio of number of holes and number of conduction electrons in an intrinsic
semiconductor.

17. In half wave rectification, what is the output frequency of input frequency is 25 Hz?

18. What type of extrinsic semiconductor is formed when

(i) Germanium is doped with indium?

(ii) Silicon is doped with bismuth?

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19. When a voltage drop across p-n junction diode is increased from 0.70 V to 0.71 V, the
change in the diode current is 10mA. What is the dynamic resistance of diode.

20. What happens to the width of depletion layer of p-n junction when it is

(i) Forward biased

(ii) Reverse biased?

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARK)

21. What is meant by doping of an intrinsic semiconductor? Name the two types of
atoms used for doping of Ge/Si.

22. Explain the formation of the barrier potential in a p-n junction.

23. (i) Explain the formation of energy bands in crystalline solids.

(ii)Draw the energy band diagrams of (a) a metal and (b) a semiconductor

24. A student wants to use two p-n junction diodes to convert alternating current into
direct current. Draw the labelled circuit diagram she would use and explain how it
works?

25. The V-I characteristic of a silicon diode is as shown in figure. Calculate the resistance
of the diode at (i) I = 15 mA and (ii) V= - 10V

26. Distinguish between ‘intrinsic’ and ‘extrinsic’ semiconductors?

27. Explain, with the help of a circuit diagram, the working of a p-n junction diode as a
half-wave rectifier.

28. Draw energy band diagram of n-type and p-type semiconductor at temperature
T>0K. Mark the donar and acceptor energy level with their energies.

29. Distinguish between a metal and an insulator on the basis of energy band and
diagram.
246
 LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS (3 MARK)
30. Explain with the help of a diagram, how depletion region and potential barrier are
formed in a junction diode.

31. Draw V-I characteristic of a p-n junction diode. Answer the following questions,
giving reasons:
(i) Why is the current under the reverse bias almost independent of the applied
potential up to a critical voltage?

(ii)Why does the reverse current show a sudden increase at the critical voltage?

32. Draw a block diagram of a full-wave rectifier with capacitor filter, Draw input and
output (filtered) voltage of rectifier.

33. With the help of a circuit diagram explain the working of a p-n junction diode as a full-
wave rectifier. Also draw its input and output waveforms.

34. (i) In the following diagram, is the junction diode forward biased or reverse biased?

(ii)Draw the circuit diagram of a full wave rectifier and state how it works?
35. (i) Explain with the help of a diagram the formation of depletion region and barrier
potential in a p-n junction.
(ii)Draw the circuit diagram of a half-wave rectifier and explain its working.

VERY LONG QUESTIONS (5 MARK)

36. (i) Explain with the help of suitable diagram, the two processes which occur during the
formations of a p-n junction diode. Hence, define the terms (i) depletion region and (ii)
potential barrier.

(ii) Draw a circuit diagram of a p-n junction diode under forward bias and explain its
working.

37. (i) State briefly the processes involved in the formation of p-n junction, explaining
clearly how the depletion region is formed.

(ii) Using the necessary circuit diagrams, show how the V-I characteristics of a p-n
junction are obtained in:-
(a) forward biasing
(b) reverse biasing

247
38. (i) Explain with the help of diagram, how a depletion layer and barrier potential are
formed in a junction diode.

(ii) Draw a circuit diagram of full-wave rectifier. Explain its working and draw input and
output waveforms.

Assertion-Reasoning MCQs
Direction. Each of these questions contains two statements Assertion (A) and Reasons
(R). Each of these questions also has four alternative choices, any one of which is the correct
answer. You have to select one of the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A
(c) A is true, but R is false
(d) A is false and R is also false

39. Assertion The energy gap between the valence band and conduction band is greater
in silicon than in germanium.
Reason Thermal energy produces fewer minority carriers in silicon than in germanium.
40. Assertion The total current l in a semiconductor is the sum of electron current and
hole current.
Reason In a semiconductor, lh arises due to the motion of holes towards positive
potential and free electrons under an applied electric field.

41. Assertion The resistivity of a semiconductor decreases with temperature.

Reason The atoms of a semiconductor vibrates with larger amplitudes at higher
temperature thereby increasing its resistivity

42. Assertion A hole on p-side of a p-n junction moves to n-side just an instant after
drifting of charge carriers occurs across junction.
Reason Drifting of charge carriers reduces the concentration gradient across junction.

43. Assertion : When two semi conductor of p and n type are brought in contact, they
form p-n junction which act like a rectifier.
Reason : A rectifier is used to convent alternating current into direct current.

248
44. Case Based MCQ

Direction Read the following passage and answer the questions that follows
Full Wave Rectifier The process of converting alternating voltage/current into direct
voltage/current is called rectification. Diode is used as a rectifier for converting alternating
current/voltage into direct current/voltage.
Diode allows current to pass only, when it is forward biased. So if an alternating voltage is
applied across a diode, the current flows only in that part of the cycle when the diode is
forward biased. This property is used to rectify the current/voltage.

(i) If in a p-n junction, a square input signal of 10 V is applied as shown

Then, the output across RL will be

(ii) In figure, the input is across the terminals A and C and the output is across B and D.
Then, the output is

249
(a) zero
(b) same as the input
(c) half wave rectified
(d) full wave rectified
(iii) Which of the following is not true about a rectifier circuit?
(a) It can convert DC to AC
(b) It can convert AC to DC
(c) It can shift voltage level
(d) None of these
(iv) In the given circuit,

Capacitor C is used
(a) for storing potential energy
(b) as a bypass to DC component to get AC is RL.
(c) to remove sparking
(d) as a bypass to AC component to get DC in RL.
(v) The ratio of output frequencies of half-wave rectifier and a full wave rectifier, when an
input of frequency 200 Hz is fed at input, is

(a) 1:2
(b) 2:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 1:4.

250
 ANSWERS
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (1 MARK)
1. (a) Germanium and silicon
2. (c) Insulator
3. (c) Holes are minority carriers and pentavalent atoms are dopants.
4. (d) number density of current carriers increases, relaxation time decreases but effect
of decrease in relaxation time is much less than increase in number density.
5. (a) electrons moves from lower energy level to higher energy level in the conduction
band.
(c) holes in the valence band move from higher energy level to lower energy level.
6. (c) copper strip decreases and that of germanium increases.
7. (a) large velocity of the minority charge carriers if the doping concentration is small.
(d) strong electric field in the depletion region if the doping concentration is large.
8. (c) zero as diffusion and drift currents are equal and opposite.
9. (d) aluminum
10. (b) Pauli’s exclusion principle.

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (1 MARK)

11. Free electrons
12. When doping concentration is kept high in p-n junction, then there will be less space
for electron to travel and equilibrium is achieved by recombination between charge carriers
in nearby region. So, depletion width is decreased with doping.
13. The p-n junction with reverse bias is shown in fig.

14. The size of dopants atoms should be such as not to distort the pure semiconductor
lattice structure and yet easily contribute a charge carrier on forming covalent bonds with Si
or Ge.
15. An intrinsic semiconductor behaves as a perfect insulator at temperature 0 K.
251
16. Ratio, 1:1
17. For a half wave rectifier, the output frequency is equal to the input frequency. SO, the
frequency after rectification is 25 Hz.
18. (i) Indium is trivalent, so germanium doped indium is a p-type semiconductor.
(ii) Bismuth is pentavalent, so silicon doped bismuth is an n-type semiconductor.
19. Dynamic resistance = ΔV /Δl = 0.71-0.70/10 X 10-3 = 0.01/10-2 = 1Ω.
20. (i) When forward biased, the width of depletion layer decreases.
(ii) When reverse biased, the width of depletion layer increases.

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS (2 MARK)

21. When some desirable impurity is added to intrinsic semiconductors deliberately to
increase its conductivity, then this process is called doping and the impurity are called
dopants. Two types of dopants(atoms) are used in doping
(i) Trivalent atoms having 3 valence electrons e.g. indium, Boron, Aluminum, etc.
(ii) pentavalent atoms having 5 valence electrons e.g., Arsenic, Antimony, phosphorus, etc.
22. Depletion region is the small region in the vicinity of the junction which is depleted of free
charge carriers. Width of depletion region is of the order of 10-6 m. The potential difference
developed across the depletion region is called the potential barrier.

23. (i) Since, isolated atoms have discrete energy levels. In a crystalline solid, due to the
presence of a large number of atoms, interatomic interactions take place. Due to this, energy
levels get modified to energy bands.

(ii)

252
 For Semiconductors
24 – A rectifier is used to convert alternating current into direct current, as below:

Working:
During the positive half cycle of the input AC, the diode D1 is forward biased and the diode
D2 is reverse biased. The forward current flows through diode D1.
During the negative half cycle of the input AC, the diode D1 is reverse biased and diode D2 is
forward biased. Thus, current flows through diode D2. Thus, we find that during both the
halves, current flows in the same direction.

25. (i) From the given curve, we have

Voltage, V = 0.7 V for current,
l = 15 mA for voltage,

⸫Resistance, V/l = 0.7/ 15 X 10 -3 = 47Ω

(ii) For V = -10 V, we have
I = -1 μA= -1 X 10 -6 A
R = 10/ 1 X 10-6 = 1.0 X 107 Ω.

253
26.
Intrinsic semiconductor Extrinsic semiconductor
It is a pure semiconductor material with no It is prepared by doping a small quantity
impurity atoms in it. of impurity atoms to the pure
semiconductor.

The number of free electrons in the conduction The number of free electrons and holes
band and the number of holes in valence band is never equal. There is an excess of is
exactly . ne = nh = ni electrons ne ˃ ni in n-type
semiconductors and excess of holes
ne ˃ ni in p-type semiconductors.
27 .
p-n Junction Diode as a Half-Wave Rectifier: AC voltage to be rectified is connected to the
primary coil of a step down transformer. Secondary coil is connected to he diode through
resistors RL, across which output is obtained.

Working: During positive half cycle of the input AC, the p-n junction becomes low and
current flows. Hence, we get output in the load. During negative half cycle of the input AC,
the p-n junction is reverse biased. Thus, the resistance of p-n junction is high and current
does not flow. Hence, no output in the load. So, for complete cycle of AC, current flows
through the load resistance in the same direction.

254
28. The required energy band diagram is shown below:-

29. – Difference between Conductor, insulator and semiconductor:-

30. Two process that take place during the formation of p-n junction are diffusion and drift
of charge carriers.
In a n-type semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is more than that of holes. Similarly,
in a p-type semiconductor, the concentration of holes is more than that of electrons.
Formation of depletion region during formation of p-n junction and due to the concentration
gradient across p and n-sides, holes diffuse from p-side to n-side (p→n) and electrons diffuse
from n-side to p-side (n→p).
The diffused charge carriers combine with their counterparts in the immediate vicinity of
the junction and neutralize each other.
Thus, near the junction, positive charge is built on n-side and negative charge on p-side.

255
This sets up up potential difference across the junction and an internal electric field Ei directed
from n-side to p-side. The equilibrium is established when the field Ei becomes strong enough
to stop further diffusion of the majority charge carriers (However, it helps the minority charge
carriers to drift across the junction). The region on either side of the junction which becomes
less danced of charge carrier depleted(free) from the mobile charge carriers is called
depletion region or depletion layer.The potential difference developed across the depletion
region is called the potential barrier.
31. (i) The reverse current is not limited by the magnitude of applied voltage, but it is limited
due to the concentration of minority carriers on either side of the junction.
(ii) at the critical voltage ,the electric field across the junction is high enough to pull valance
electrons from the host atoms.as a result ,a large no. of electrons are available for the
conduction which shows a sudden increase of the reverse current at breakdown voltage.

32.

256
33. A rectifier is used to convert alternating current into direct current, as below:

Working:
During the positive half cycle of the input AC, the diode D1 is forward biased and the diode
D2 is reverse biased. The forward current flows through diode D1.
During the negative half cycle of the input AC, the diode D1 is reverse biased and diode D2 is
forward biased. Thus, current flows through diode D2. Thus, we find that during both the
halves, current flows in the same direction.

257
34. (i)
The circuit above can be redrawn as follows

As, the p-section is connected to negative terminal of the battery, the diode shown is
reverse biased.
(ii) A rectifier is used to convert alternating current into direct current, as below:

Working:
During the positive half cycle of the input AC, the diode D1 is forward biased and the diode
D2 is reverse biased. The forward current flows through diode D1.

258
During the negative half cycle of the input AC, the diode D1 is reverse biased and diode D2 is
forward biased. Thus, current flows through diode D2. Thus, we find that during both the
halves, current flows in the same direction

35. (i) The small region in the vicinity of the junction which is depleted of free charge carriers
and has only immobile ions is called depletion region

The accumulation of negative charges in the p-region and positive charge in the n-region
sets up a potential difference across the junction. This acts as a barrier and is called barrier
potential VB.
(ii) p-n Junction Diode as a Half-Wave Rectifier: AC voltage to be rectified is connected to
the primary coil of a step down transformer. Secondary coil is connected to he diode
through resistors RL, across which output is obtained.

Working: During positive half cycle of the input AC, the p-n junction becomes low and
current flows. Hence, we get output in the load. During negative half cycle of the input AC,
the p-n junction is reverse biased. Thus, the resistance of p-n junction is high and current
does not flow. Hence, no output in the load. So, for complete cycle of AC, current flows
through the load resistance in the same direction.

259
 VERY LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION (5 MARK)
36. (i) Two process that take place during the formation of p-n junction are diffusion and
drift of charge carriers.
In a n-type semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is more than that of holes. Similarly,
in a p-type semiconductor, the concentration of holes is more than that of electrons.
Formation of depletion region during formation of p-n junction and due to the concentration
gradient across p and n-sides, holes diffuse from p-side to n-side (p→n) and electrons diffuse
from n-side to p-side (n→p).
The diffused charge carriers combine with their counterparts in the immediate vicinity of
the junction and neutralize each other.
Thus, near the junction, positive charge is built on n-side and negative charge on p-side.

This sets up up potential difference across the junction and an internal electric field Ei directed
from n-side to p-side. The equilibrium is established when the field Ei becomes strong enough
to stop further diffusion of the majority charge carriers (However, it helps the minority charge
carriers to drift across the junction). The region on either side of the junction which becomes
depleted(free) from the mobile charge carriers is called depletion region or depletion
layer.The potential difference developed across the depletion region is called the potential
barrier.
(ii) Forward biasing of a p-n junction
(a) A p-n junction is said to be forward biased when p-region is maintained at a higher
potential with respect to the n-region as shown below.

260
(b) When forward biased, majority charge carriers in both the regions are pushed through the
junction. The depletion region’s width decreases and the junction offers low resistance, and
potential difference across the junction becomes VB – V.
Forward characteristics of p-n junction diode:
It is a graphical relation between the forward bias voltage applied and the forward current
flowing through the diode. As long as the forward bias voltage is less than the barrier
potential, no current flows. But when a forward bias voltage(V) is greater than barrier
potential applied, an almost linear forward bias voltage current (≈ a few mA) flow due to the
flow of majority carriers. For diodes, we define a quantity, called dynamic resistance, as the
ration of small change in voltage ΔV to a small change in current Δl,
This forward voltage at which flow of current increasing quickly is known as knee voltage.

p-n
37. (i) A p-n junction consists of wafers of p-type and n-type semiconductors fused together
or grown on each other.
(a) Depletion region
(i) It is a region near the p-n junction that is depleted of any mobile charge carrier. It
consists of immobile ion cores.
(ii) The depletion width depends on:
(i) the type of biasing, and (ii) extent of doping
(b) Potential Barrier (VB): Due to the accumulation of immobile ion cores in the junction, a
potential difference is developed which prevents the further movement of majority charge
carriers across the junction.
(ii). (a) Forward biasing of a p-n junction
A p-n junction is said to be forward biased when p-region is maintained at a higher potential
with respect to the n-region as shown below.

261
 When forward biased, majority charge carriers in both the regions are pushed through the
junction. The depletion region’s width decreases and the junction offers low resistance, and
potential difference across the junction becomes VB – V.
Forward characteristics of p-n junction diode:
It is a graphical relation between the forward bias voltage applied and the forward current
flowing through the diode. As long as the forward bias voltage is less than the barrier
potential, no current flows. But when a forward bias voltage(V) is greater than barrier
potential applied, an almost linear forward bias voltage current (≈ a few mA) flow due to the
flow of majority carriers. For diodes, we define a quantity, called dynamic resistance, as the
ration of small change in voltage ΔV to a small change in current Δl,
This forward voltage at which flow of current increasing quickly is known as knee voltage.

p-n
(b) Reverse biasing of a p-n junction
A p-n junction is said to be reverse biased when its p-region is maintained at a lower potential
with respect to its n-region as shown below.

When the junction is reverse biased, the majority charge carriers in both the regions are
pushed away from the junction. The depletion regions width increases and the potential
difference across the junction becomes, V + VB.
Reverse characteristics of a junction diode: It is a graphical relation between the reverse bias
voltage applied and the reverse current flowing (if any) the diode. In this case, the majority
carriers in both p-region and n-region move away from the junction so that no majority
current flows. However, minority carriers cross over the junction constituting a small current
262
(≈ a few μA) which is called minority current which almost remains constant with the change
in bias. It is called reverse saturation current. As the magnitude of the reverse bias voltage is
increased, the leakage current also rises gradually. At a particular reverse bias voltage, the
reverse current increases abruptly (i.e. it becomes very large suddenly). The reverse bias
voltage at which the reverse current rises abruptly, is called Breakdown voltage).

38. (i) Two process that take place during the formation of p-n junction are diffusion and drift
of charge carriers.
In a n-type semiconductor, the concentration of electrons is more than that of holes. Similarly,
in a p-type semiconductor, the concentration of holes is more than that of electrons.
Formation of depletion region during formation of p-n junction and due to the concentration
gradient across p and n-sides, holes diffuse from p-side to n-side (p→n) and electrons diffuse
from n-side to p-side (n→p).
The diffused charge carriers combine with their counterparts in the immediate vicinity of the
junction and neutralize each other.
Thus, near the junction, positive charge is built on n-side and negative charge on p-side.

This sets up up potential difference across the junction and an internal electric field Ei directed
from n-side to p-side. The equilibrium is established when the field Ei becomes strong enough
to stop further diffusion of the majority charge carriers (However, it helps the minority charge
carriers to drift across the junction). The region on either side of the junction which becomes
depleted(free) from the mobile charge carriers is called depletion region or depletion
layer.The potential difference developed across the depletion region is called the potential
barrier.
(ii) A rectifier is used to convert alternating current into direct current, as below:

263
Working:
During the positive half cycle of the input AC, the diode D1 is forward biased and the diode D2
is reverse biased. The forward current flows through diode D1.
During the negative half cycle of the input AC, the diode D 1 is reverse biased and diode D2 is
forward biased. Thus, current flows through diode D 2. Thus, we find that during both the
halves, current flows in the same direction.

39. (b)
40. (c)
41. (c)
42. (d)
43. (b)
44. (i) (d)
(ii) (d)
(iii) (a)
(iv) (d)
(v) (a)

264
BLUE PRINT,
SAMPLE
PAPER &
MARKING
SCHEME
2022-23
265
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
BLUE PRINT SAMPLE PAPER-1 (SESSION 2022-23)
CLASS – XII (PHYSICS)

266
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
SAMPLE PAPER-1 (SESSION 2022-23)
CLASS – XII (PHYSICS)
MAX. MARK: 70 TIMES ALLOWED: 3 HOURS
General Instructions:
(1) There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and
Section E. All the sections are compulsory.
(3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions
of two marks each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D
contains three long questions of five marks each and Section E contains two case study
based questions of 4 marks each.

(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section
B, C, D and E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed.
SECTION A

Q.NO. MARKS

1 The force experienced by a unit positive test charge placed at a point is called 1
(i)The magnetic field at that point
(ii)The gravitational field at that point
(iii)The electrical field at that point
(iv)The nuclear field at that point
2 The electric potential on the axis of an electric dipole at a distance' r' from its centre is 1
V .Then the potential at a point at the distance 2r on its equatorial line will be
(i) 2V. (ii) -V
(iii) V/2. (iv) Zero
3 V-I graph for a metallic wire at two different 1
temperatures T1 and T2 is as shown in figure.
(i) T1=T2 (ii) T1>T2.
(iii) T2>T1. (iV) T1=T2=0
4 A beam of alpha particles projected along + x-axis, 1
experiences a force due to a magnetic field along
the + y axis .What is direction of magnetic field.
(i) along +z axis (ii) along -z axis
(iii) along - y axis. (iv) along -x axis
5 An electron does not suffer any deflection while passing through a region of uniform 1
magnetic field what is direction of magnetic field.
(i) perpendicular to direction of motion of electron
(ii) parallel of direction of electron
(iii) may be both above cases
(iv) None of the above cases
6 What are units of magnetic permeability? 1
(i) Tesla (ii) Tesla/ampere
(iii) Tesla metre/ ampere (iv) Tesla/metre^2
7 A capacitor is connected in series with an electric bulb with an AC source as shown in figure . 1
What happen when capacitance of capacitor is increased
(i)Glow of bulb enhanced
(ii) Glow of blub reduces
(iii) glow of bulb remains same
(iv) None of the above
8 Identify the part of electromagnetic spectrum which is (i) suitable for radar system used in 1
aircraft navigation (ii) adjacent to the low frequency end of electromagnetic spectrum.
(i) Gamma rays, X-rays (ii) X-rays, Gamma rays
(iii) Radiowaves, Microwaves (iv) Microwaves,Radiowaves
9 Copper ring is suspended by a thread in a vertical plane . One end of a 1
magnet is brought horizontally towards the ring . How will the position
of ring be affected?

(i) Ring will move away from the magnet

(ii) Ring will move upwards
(iii) Ring will move downwards
(iv) Ring will move towards the magnet
10 A small ink dot on a paper is viewed through a glass slab of thickness 10 cm ; and refractive 1
index 1.5. By what distance would the dot appear to be raised?

(i) 5cm. (ii) 6.67cm. (iii) 7.67 cm. (iv) 3.33cm

11 The work function of Aluminum is 4.2 eV. Find the threshold wavelength for the photoelectric 1
emission.

(i) 2062.5A°
(ii) 3000A°
(iii) 2955A°
(iv) 4125A°
12 The radius of the innermost electron orbit of hydrogen atom is 0.529 A°. The radius of the 1
n = 2 orbit is
(i) 2.116A° (ii) 1.058 A° (iii) 0.529A° (iv) 4.669 A°
13 Which of the following best define nuclear forces? 1
i) The attraction between protons and neutrons
ii) Repulsion between protons and neutrons
iii) The attraction between protons and electrons
iv) The attraction between electrons and neutrons
14 The instantaneous current from an AC source is given by I = 5 sin 314. What is The RMS value 1
of the current.

(i) 5A. (ii) 7.07 A. (iii) 314A. (iv) 3.54A

15 Given figure shows 3 point charges. What is the electric flux due 1
to this configuration through the surface S

(i) q/2ε (ii) 2q/ ε (iii) q/ ε. (iv) 0

16 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select 1
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
ASSERTION (A):
The electrical resistivity of a semiconductor increases on doping.
REASON(R):
Doping always increases the number of electrons in the semiconductor.
17 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled Reason (R). Select 1
the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
ASSERTION:
In young's double slit experiment , bright and dark fringes are obtained on screen
REASON:
Young's double slit experiment show wave nature of light.
18 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the 1
other labelled Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these
questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given below.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
b) Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
c) A is true but R is false
d) A is false and R is also false
ASSERTION:
Photoelectric current increases with increase in intensity of incident radiations incident on
emitter plate.
REASON:
Number of photons per second decreases with increase in intensity.
Section- B
19 (i) What oscillates in em waves . 2
(ii) What is the physical quantity which is same for X-rays of wavelength 1 A°, red light of
wavelength 6800A°, radio waves of wavelength 500 m.
20 To identical specimens of magnetic materials Nickel and Aluminum are kept in non uniform 2
magnetic field . Draw the magnetic field lines in both cases . How magnetic susceptibility of
nickel and Aluminum are different to each other.
21 The short wavelength limit for Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum is 3646.8A°. Calculate the 2
short wavelength limit for Paschen series of the hydrogen spectrum.
22 A magician during the show makes a glass lens of refractive index 1.5 disappear in a trough of 2
liquid .What is the refractive index of the liquid? Is the liquid water? justify your answer.
23 Differentiate p-type and n-type semiconductor on the basis of energy band diagrams .Why are 2
they neutral although having different unequal no. of free electron and holes?
OR

Observe below waveform and identify the electronic device.

How it works.

24 In a single slit diffraction experiment, the width of the slit is reduced to half its original width. 2
How would this affect the size and intensity of the central maximum?
How diffraction fringe pattern obtained on screen is different from interference pattern
obtained on screen?
25 Using Gauss's law in electrostatics derive an expression for electric field due to uniformly 2
charged infinite plane sheet.

SECTION-C

26 State Biot-Savart's law. Obtain expression for magnetic field at the centre of the circular coil 3
carrying current.

27 (i) State Faraday's law of electromagnetic induction. 3

(ii) What do you understand by the term self inductance ?
28 An AC source generating a voltage V=V0 sinwt is connected to a LCR circuit in series.With the 3
help of suitable phasor diagram, Obtain the relation for impedance in an AC series LCR
circuit..
OR
What does the term "Wattless current or Idle current" mean? How this term is related to
power factor?
29 In an experiment on photoelectric effect, the graph between maximum kinetic energy and
frequency of emitted photoelectron for metal surface is found to be straight line.Calculate
(i) threshold frequency.
(ii) work function of a metal in electron volt.
(iii) maximum kinetic energy of the emitted electron by light of frequency 30 × 10^14

hz
30 X-rays of wavelength 0.82 A° fall on a metal plate. Find the de_Broglie wavelength associated 3
with photoelectron emitted. Calculate work function of the metal.
 SECTION D

31 (i) Why is the electrostatic potential inside a charged conducting shell constant throughout the
volume of the conductor?
(ii) Figure shows two identical capacitors, C1 and C2, each of 1 mF capacitance connected to a
battery of 6 V. Initially switch S is closed. After sometimes S is left open and dielectric slabs of
dielectric constant K = 3 are inserted to fill completely the space between the plates of the two
capacitors. How will the (a) charge and (b) potential difference between the plates of the

capacitors be affected after the slabs are inserted?

(i) Concentric equipotential surfaces due to a charged body placed at the centre are shown.
Identify the polarity of the charge and draw the electric field lines due to it.

(ii) (a) Define electric flux. Write its SI unit.

(b) “Gauss’s law in electrostatics is true for any closed surface, no matter what its shape or size is.”
Justify this statement with the help of a suitable example.

32
(i) On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for resistivity of a conductor in terms
of number density of free electrons and relaxation time.
(ii) Two cells of emfs 1.5 V and 2.0 V having internal resistances 0.2 Ω and 0.3 Ω respectively
are connected in parallel. Calculate the emf and internal resistance of the equivalent
cell.
OR
(i) State the two Kirchhoff’s rules used in the analysis of electric circuits and explain them.

(ii) Derive the equation of the balanced state in a Wheatstone bridge using Kirchhoff’s laws.
33

(i) How would the diffraction pattern of a single slit be affected when:
(a) the width of the slit is decreased?
(b) the monochromatic source of light is replaced by a source of white light?

(ii) A ray of light incident on the face AB of an isosceles triangular prism makes an angle of
incidence ‘i’ and deviates by angle β as shown in the figure. Show that in the position of minimum
deviation ∠α = ∠β. Also find out the condition when the refracted ray QR suffers total internal
reflection.

OR

i) Write two points of difference between the phenomena of

interference and diffraction.

ii) A ray PQ incident normally on the refracting face BA is

refracted in the prism BAC made of material of refractive
index 1.5. Complete the path of ray through the prism. From
which face will the ray emerge? Justify your answer.

Section E
34 Case Study : Lens Maker Formula
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions
The lens makers formula relates the focal length of a lens to the refractive index of its material
and the radii of curvature of its two surfaces . This formula is used to manufacture a lens of
particular focal length from the glass of a given refractive index. For this reason , it is called the
lens makers formula.
 (i) An unsymmetrical double convex thin lens forms the image of a point object on its axis. Will
the position of the image change if the lens is reversed?
(ii) Will the focal length of a lens for red light be more, same or less than that for blue light?
(iii) The radii of curvature of both the surfaces of a lens are equal. If one of the surfaces is made
plane by grinding, then will the focal length of lens change? Will the power change?
OR
A convex lens made of a material of refractive index n1 is kept in a medium of refractive index n2.
Parallel rays of light are incident on the lens. Complete the path of rays of light emerging from
the convex lens if: (i) n1 > n2 (ii) n1 < n2.
35 Case Study : Biasing of Diode
Read the following paragraph and answer the questions
When the diode is forward biased, it is found that beyond forward voltage V = Vk, called knee
voltage, the conductivity is very high. At this value of battery biasing for p-n junction, the
potential barrier is overcome and the current increases rapidly with increase in forward voltage.
When the diode is reverse biased, the reverse bias voltage produces a very small current about a
few microamperes which almost remains constant with bias. This small current is reverse
saturation current.
(i) In the following diagram, which bulb out of B1 and B2 will glow and why?

(ii)What happens to the width of depletion layer of a p-n junction when it is

(a) forward biased, (b) reverse biased?
(iii) Two semiconductor materials X and Y shown in the alongside figure, are made by doping a
germanium crystal with indium and arsenic respectively. The two are joined end to end and
connected to a battery as shown.

(a) Will the junction be forward biased or reverse

biased?
(b) Sketch a V-I graph for this arrangement.
OR
Draw V-I characteristics for forward and reverse biased diode.
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
MARKING SCHEME SAMPLE PAPER-1 (SESSION 2022-23)
CLASS – XII (PHYSICS)
MAX. MARK: 70 TIMES ALLOWED: 3 HOURS

Section-A

1 (iii)

2 (iv)

3 (iii)

4 (ii)

5 (ii)

6 (iii)

7 (i)

8 (iv)

9 (i)

10 (iv)

11 (iii)

12 (i)

13 (i)

14 (iv)

15 (iii)

16 (d)

17 (a)

18 (c)

SECTION-B

19 (i)Electric and magnetic fields 1,1

(ii)Speed

20 Nickel is more ferromagnetic than aluminium. 1,1

21 818.9 nm. 2

22 Same refractive index. 1,1

Give justification from lens maker's formula .

23 Difference 1,

They are formed out of mixing neutral semiconductor and neutral dopes. 1

Or

Electronic device is Half wave rectifier . 1,1

Give working.

24 Double size and ¼ th intensity ½+½

Difference between both patterns 1

25 Derivation 2

SECTION-C

26 Statement 1,2

Derivation

27 Faraday's law 1+2

Expression for self inductance.

28 Correct expression 3

Or

Correct expression

29 Threshold frequency= 3×10^14 per second 1,1,1

Work function=1.25 eV

Kinetic energy= 3×10^-19 J

30 Wavelength=0.999A° 1.5

1.5

31 (i) Since E = 0 inside the conductor & has no tangential component on 2,.5,.5,1,1
the surface. Therefore no work is done in moving charge inside or
on the surface of the conductor and potential is constant.
(ii) When switch S is closed, p.d. across each capacitor is 6V
V1 = V2 = 6 V
C1 = C2 = 1 µF
∴ Charge on each capacitor q1 = q2 = CV = (1 µF) × (6 V) = 6 µC
 When switch S is opened, the p.d. across C1 remains 6 V, while the
charge on capacitor C2 remains 6 µC. After insertion of dielectric
between the plates of each capacitor, the new capacitance of each
capacitor becomes C′ 1 = C′ 2 = 3 × 1 µF = 3 µF
(i) Charge on capacitor C1, q′ 1 = C′ 1 V1 = (3 µF) × 6 V = 18 µC

Charge on capacitor C2 remains 6 µC

(ii) Potential difference across C1 remains 6 V.

Potential difference across C2 becomes
V′2= =

OR
(i) For a single charge the potential ig given as V=
This shows that V is constant if r is constant. Greater the radius smaller
will be the potential. In the given figure, potential is increasing. This
shows that the polarity of charge is negative (– q). The direction of
electric field will be radially inward. The field lines are directed from
higher to lower potential.

(ix) (a) Definition + SI unit

According to Gauss theorem, the electric flux through a closed surface depends
only on the net charge enclosed by the surface and not upon the shape or size
of the surface. For any closed arbitrary shape of the surface enclosing a charge
the outward flux is the same as that due to a spherical Gaussian surface
enclosing the same charge. Justification: This is due to the fact that electric
field is radial and the electric field . Thus, electric field at each point
inside a charged thin spherical shell is zero.

32 (i) Derivation for ρ= 2,2,1

(ii)E1=1.5V , r1 = 0.2 Ω

E2= 2.0 V , r2 = 0.3 Ω

emf of equivalent cell E= 1.7V

 Internal resistance of equivalent cell r = 0.12Ω

33 i) From the relation ϴ= λ/a we find that if the width of the slit (a) is 1,1,2,1
decreased, then for a given wavelength, sin θ is large and hence θ is
large. Hence diffraction maxima and minima are quite distant on either
side of θ.
ii) With monochromatic light, the diffraction pattern consists of alternate
bright and dark bands. If white light is used central maximum is white
and on either side, the diffraction bands are coloured.
Proving α = β

= A- (9o0 – β)

OR

Interference Diffraction
It is due to the superposition It is due to the superposition
of two waves coming from two of secondary wavelets
coherent sources. originating from different parts
of the same wavefront.
The width of the interference The width of the diffraction
bands is equal bands is not the same
The intensity of all maxima The intensity of central
(fringes) is same maximum is maximum and
goes on decreasing rapidly
with increase in order of
maxima.

Path of emergent ray

Naming the face

Justification

34 No, the reversibility of the lens makes equation. For convex lens, 1,1,1.5,.5
=
 On reversing the lens, values of R1 and R2 are reversed and so their signs.
Hence, for a given position of object (u), position of image (v) remains
unaffected

As the refractive index for red is less than that for blue , parallel
beams of light incident on a lens will be bent more towards the axis for blue
light compared to red. Thus the focal length for red light will be more than that
for blue

Focal length of lens

f=

When one surface is made plane

f’ = = 2f

. That is, the focal length will be doubled.

As P = , so power will be halved

OR

In case (i) n1 > n2, the lens behaves as convergent lens.

In case (ii) n1< n2, the lens behaves as a divergent lens

35 Bulb B1 will glow as diode D1 is forward biased. 1,

.5,.5,1,1
(a)When forward biased, the width of depletion layer decreases. (b) When
reverse biased, the width of depletion layer increases.

(a) Reverse biased

(b) V-I characteristics

 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
BLUE PRINT SAMPLE PAPER-2 (SESSION 2022-23)
CLASS – XII (PHYSICS)

Sl. Name of the Chapter MCQ (1 VSA (2 SA (3 LA (5 Case

No. Mark) Marks) Marks) Marks) study(4Marks Total
)
1 Electric Charges and Field 1 1 6
Electrostatic Potential and
Capacitance
2 2 1 5
3 Current Electricity 1 5
Moving Charges and
Magnetism
4 3 1 5
5 Magnetism and Matter 1 4
6 Electromagnetic Induction 1 1 4
7 Alternating Current 2 1 4
8 Electromagnetic Waves 1 1 3
Ray Optics and Optical
Instruments
9 2 1 1 10
10 Wave Optics 1 1 5
Dual Nature of Radiation and
Matter
11 1 1 5
12 Atoms 2 1 4
13 Nuclei 1 1 3
Semiconductor Electronics:
Materials, Devices and
14 SimpleCircuits 3 1 7

18 7 5 3 2 70
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
SAMPLE PAPER-2 (SESSION 2022-23)
CLASS – XII (PHYSICS)
MAX. MARK: 70 TIMES ALLOWED: 3 HOURS
General Instruction:
 There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory.
 This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and
Section E. All the sections are compulsory.
 Section A 18 MCQ of 1 mark each, section B contains seven questions of two marks
each, Section C contains five questions of 3 marks each, Section D contains Three long
questions of 5 marks each And Section E contains two case study base questions of 4
marks each.
 There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B,
C, D and E. you have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
 Use of calculators or any other electronics devices are not allowed.

SECTION A:
Q. MARKS
No.
1. What is the flux through a cube if q is at one corner of the cube? 1
(a) q/Є0 b)2q/ Є0 c) q/8 Є0 d) q/4 Є0

2 A parallel plate air capacitor having a capacitance ‘C’ is half-filled by a medium of 1

dielectric constant 5. What % change will be there in the capacitance of the
capacitor?
(a) 200% increase (b) 400% decrease
(c) 400% increase (d) 66.6% increase

3 An electric charge 10-3 µC is placed at the origin (0,0) of (x, y) co-ordinate system. 1
Two points A and B are situated at (√2, √2) and (2,0) respectively. The potential
difference between the points A and B will be:
(a) 4.5 V (b) Zero (c) 2.0V (d) 9.0V

4 An electron is moving in a region of electric field and magnetic field, it will gain 1
energy from,
(a) Electric Field (b) Magnetic Field (c) Both (d) none of these

5 To convert a galvanometer into an ammeter of given range, a resistance is 1

connected in____ with the galvanometer.
(a) Low, series (b) low, parallel (c) high, parallel (d)High,
parallel
6 In the α- particle scattering experiment, the shape of the trajectory of the α- 1
particles depend upon:
(a) only on impact parameter
(b) only on the source of α - particles.
(c) both impact parameter and source of α-particles
(d) impact parameter and the screen material of the detector.

7 Lenz’s law of electromagnetic induction is as per law of conservation of: 1

(a) Energy b) angular momentum c) charge d) mass

8 In an AC circuit V and I are given by V = 50 sin 50t Volt and I = 100 sin (50t + π/3) 1
mA. The power dissipated in the circuit
(a) 2.5 kW b) 1.25 kW c) 5.0 kW d) 500 W

9 The output of a step-down transformer is measured to be 24 V when connected 1

to a 12 W light bulb. The value of the peak current is
(a) 1/√2 A b) 2 A c) 2√2 A d) 18 A

10 Which of the following E M wave has the highest wave length? 1

(a) X- Ray (b) Micro Wave (c) U-V Rays (d) Infrared Rays

11 When a ray is refracted, which of the following does not change 1

(a) Frequency b) wavelength c) velocity d) amplitude

12 A person standing in front of a mirror finds his image larger than himself. This 1
implies that the mirror is:
(a) Convex (b) parabolic (c) plane (d) concave
13 Find the ratio of maximum wavelength of minimum wavelength for the lines of Balmer 1
series in hydrogenspectrum.
(a) 5/9 b) 9/5 c) 5/36 d) 1/4

14 In figure given, assuming the diodes to be ideal. 1

(a) D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased and hence current flows
from A to B.
(b) D2 is forward biased and D1 is reverse biased and hence no current flows
from B to A and viceversa.
 (c) D1 and D2 are both forward biased and hence current flows from A to B.
(d) D1 and D2 are both reverse biased and hence no current flows from A to B
and vice versa.

15 Which of the following statements is incorrect for the depletion region of a 1

diode?

(a) There the mobile charges exist.

(b) Equal number of holes and electrons exist, making the region neutral.
(c) Recombination of holes and electrons has taken place.
(d) None of these

16 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled 1
Reason (R). Selectthe correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false and R is also false
Assertion (A): When a pure semiconductor is doped with a pentavalent impurity,
the number ofconduction electrons is increased while the number of holes is
decreased.
Reason (R): Some of the holes get recombined with the conduction electrons as
the concentration ofthe conduction electrons is increased

17 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled 1
Reason (R). Selectthe correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
A is false and R is also false
Assertion (A): The voltage sensitivity may not necessarily increase on increasing
the currentsensitivity.
Reason (R): Current sensitivity increases on increasing the number of turns of the
coil

18 Two statements are given-one labelled Assertion (A) and the other labelled 1
Reason (R). Selectthe correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b),
(c) and (d) as given below.
Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
Both A and R are true and R is NOT the correct explanation of A
A is true but R is false
 A is false and R is also false
Assertion (A): Initially, it was believed that mass and energy are conserved
separately in a nuclear reaction.
Reason (B): According to Einstein, one can convert mass-energy into other forms
of energy

SECTION B (VERY SHORT QUESTIONS)

19 An 𝛼 particle and a 𝛽 particle are projected with the same velocity perpendicular 2
to a
magnetic field. Which one will experience more force?

20 The power factor of an a.c. circuit 0.5. What is the phase difference between 2
voltage and current inthe circuit?

21 Arrange the following electromagnetic waves in the descending order of their 2

wavelength:
Microwave, infrared rays, ultraviolet radiation, Y- rays.

22 In a single slit detraction experiment, first minimum of red light (660nm) coincides 2
with the first maximum of some other wavelength λ. Calculate λ.

23 The radius of the first electron of the hydrogen atom is 5.3x10 -11 m. What is the 2
radiusof the second orbit.
(OR)
The ground state energy of hydrogen atom is -13.6eV. What are the kinetic
energy and potential energy of the electron in this state.

24 Write two main observations of photoelectric effect experiment which could only 2
be explained by Einstein’s photoelectric equation.

25 Define the' distance of closest approach. An a-particle of kinetic energy 'K' is 2

bombarded on a thingold foil. The distance of the closest approach is 'r'. What
will be the distance of closest approach for an α- particle of double the kinetic
energy?

OR

Write two important limitations of Rutherford nuclear model of the atom.

SECTION C (SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION)

26 Two parallel plate capacitors X and Y have the same area of plates and same 3
separation betweenthem. X has air between the plates while Y contains a
dielectric medium of ɛr = 4.

(i) Calculate capacitance of each capacitor if equivalent capacitance of

the combination is 4 μF.
(ii) Calculate the potential difference between the plates of X and Y.
(iii) Estimate the ratio of electrostatic energy stored in X and Y.

27 Derive expression for self- inductance of a long air-cored solenoid of length l, 3

cross-sectional area A and having number of turns N.

OR

Define mutual inductance. A pair of adjacent coils has a mutual inductance of 1.5
H. If the current in one coil changes from 0 to 20 A in 0.5 s, what is the change of
flux linkage with theother coil?

28 The graph shown in fig 1 and 2 are for the phenomenon of photoelectric effect 3
 (i) Identify which of the characteristics of(intensity/frequency) incident
light, isbeing kept constant in each case.
(ii) A metal has a work function of2eV and is illuminated by
monochromatic lightof wavelength500nm (a) calculate the threshold
wavelength (b) the stopping potential
OR

(i) Sketch the graph showing the variation of stopping potential with
frequency ofincident radiation for two photo sensitive materials A
and B having threshold frequencies νA >νB.
(ii) In which case is the stopping potential more and why?
(iii)Does the slope of the graph depend on the nature of the material?
Explain.

29 3
The work function of cesium is 2.14 eV. Find
(a) the threshold frequency for caesium,
(b) the wavelength of the incident light if the photocurrent is
brought to zero by a stopping potentialof 0.60 V.
30 Define the term ‘critical angle’ for a pair of media. A point source of 3
monochromatic light ‘S’ is keptat the centre of the bottom of a cylinder of
radius 15.0 cm. The cylinder contains water (refractive index 4/3) to a
height of 7.0 cm. Draw the ray diagram and calculate the area of water
surface through which the light emerges in air.
 SECTION D (LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTION)

31 5
(a) Two thin lenses are placed coaxially in contact. Obtain the expression
for the focal length of thiscombination in terms of the focal lengths of
the two lenses.
(b) A glass convex lens has a power of + 10 D +10D. When this lens is
totally immersed in a liquid, it acts as a concave lens of focal length 50
c m 50cm. Calculate the refractive index of theliquid. Given. a n g = 1.5
OR
(I) Plot a graph to show variation of the angle of deviation as a
function of angle of incidence for light passing through a prism.
Derive an expression for refractive index of the prism in terms of
angle of minimum deviation and angle of prism.
(II) A ray of light incident normally on one face of a right isosceles
prism is totally reflected asshown in fig. What must be the
minimum value of refractive index of glass? Give relevant
calculations.

32 (i) Define the term drift velocity. 5

(ii) On the basis of electron drift, derive an expression for
resistivity of a conductor in terms of number density of
free electrons and relaxation time. On what factors does
resistivity of a conductordepend?
(iii) Why alloys like constantan and manganin are used for making
standard resistors?
OR

(i) State kirchhoff’s loop rule.

(ii) Determine the current in each branch of the network shown in

figure:
33
(a) Use Gauss’s law to derive the expression for the electric
field (E ) due to a straight uniformlycharged infinite line
of charge λ Cm-1.
(b) Define electric flux and write its SI unit. The electric field components
in the figure shown are:
Ex = αx, Ey = 0, Ez = 0 where α = 100N/cm. Calculate
the charge within the cube, assuminga = 0.1m.

OR

(i) Derive an expression for the electric field at any point on the
equatorial line of an electric dipole.
(ii) Two identical point charges q each are kept 2m apart in air. A third
point charge Q of unknown magnitude and sign is placed on the line
joining the charges such that the system remains in equilibrium. Find
the position and nature of Q.

SECTION E (CASE STUDY BASE QUESTION)

34 Read the following paragraph and answer the questions.

A p-n junction is a single crystal of Ge or Si doped in such a manner that one half
portion of it acts as p-type semiconductor and other half functions as n-type
 semiconductor. As soon as junction is formed, the holes from the p-region
diffuse into the n-region and electrons from -region diffuse into p-region. This
results in the development of potential barrier VB across the junction which
opposes the further diffusion of electrons and holes through the junction. The
small region in the vicinity ofthe junction which is depleted of free charge
carriers and has only immobile ions is called the depletion region.

(a) Why is germanium preferred over silicon for making semiconductor

devices?
(b) Which type of biasing results in a very high resistance of a p n junction
diode. Drawa diagram showing this bias.
(c) How does the width of the depletion region of a pn junction vary, if the
reverse biasapplied to it decreases?
(d) Name the 2 important processes involved in the formation of a p n
junction.

35
There exists a perfect diamagnet, namely, a superconductor. This is a
metal at very low temperatures. In this case χ = –1, µr = 0, µ= 0. The
external magnetic field is totally expelled. Interestingly, this material is
also a perfect conductor. However, there exists no classical theory
which ties these two properties together. A quantum-mechanical theory
by Bardeen, Cooper, andSchrieffer (BCS theory) explains these effects.
The BCS theory was proposed in1957 and was eventually recognised by
a Nobel Prize in physics in 1970.
1. The value of magnetic susceptibility for a superconductor is
(a) Zero
(b) Infinity
(c) +1
(d) -1
2. Superconductors are
(a) Insulators
(b) Semiconductors
(c) Conductors
(d) Perfect conductors
3. Resistance of a superconductor is
(a) Infinite
(b) Zero
(c) Maximum
(d) Minimum
4. Which of the following is a property of superconductors?
(a) Meissner Effect
(b) Hall Effect
(c) Photoelectric effect
(d) Doppler effect
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
MARKING SCHEME SAMPLE PAPER-2 (SESSION 2022-23)
CLASS – XII (PHYSICS)
MAX. MARK: 70
1 Ans (c)

2 (d) 66.6% increase (Hint: Series combination of 2 capacitors of spacing d/2)

3 (b) Zero

4 𝑏) 𝑒𝑙𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑟𝑖𝑐 𝑓𝑖𝑒𝑙𝑑

5 𝑏) 𝑙𝑜𝑤, 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙

6 Ans (a) only on impact parameter

7 Ans (a) Energy

8 Ans (a)

9 Ans (b)

10 Ans (b) micro-wave

11 Ans (a)

12 Ans (d)

13 Ans (b)

Ans (d)
14
 In circuit, A is at −10V and B is at 0V. So, B is positive than A. So, D2 is in forward bias and D1 is in reverse bias
so no current flows from A to B or B to A

15 Ans (a) There the mobile charges exist

Ans (a) Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of Assertion
16
Ans (a) Both are correct and reason is correct explanation of Assertion
17

18 Ans (b) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

19 𝐹 = 𝑞(𝑣 × 𝐵) (2)
Fαq
𝛼 particle has more charge than 𝛽particle. Hence 𝛼 particle will experience moreforce.

Phase difference = 60 ֯ 2
20
microwave> Infrared > Ultraviolet > Y-Rays
21 (2)

For diffraction minimum, sin ϴ= n λ /d

22
For diffraction maximum, sin ϴ=(2n+1) λ /2d
Λ= 2x660/3=440 nm (2)

23 rn α n2. r2/r1=4 (1)

r2=2.12x10-10m (1)
OR
K= +ve of total energy. K= 13.6eV (1)
Potential energy= -13.6-13.6=-27.2eV (1)

(i) There in minimum frequency required for the incident light to produce photoelectric effect. (1)
1
24
(ii) Stopping potential does not change with intensity of light. (1)
 It is the distance of charged particle from the centre of the nucleus, at which the whole of the
25
initial kinetic energy of the (far off) charged particle gets converted into the electric potential
energy of thesystem.
(½)
Distance of closest approach (r) is given by, r = 2Ze4/4πε0K ½

Therefor when K is doubled r becomes r/2 1

OR

According to Rutherford model, electron orbiting around the nucleus, continuously radiates
energydue to the acceleration; hence the atom will not remain stable. (1)
As electron spirals inwards; its angular velocity and frequency change continuously; therefore it will
emit a continuous spectrum (1)

(i) Let Cx = C, Cy= 4C (1)

26 For series combination C = CxCy / (Cx+Cy)
4 µF = 4C/5
C = 5 µF
Cx = 5 µF, Cy = 20 µF

(ii) Total charge Q = CV = 4 µF *15V = 60 µC (1)

Vx = Q/ Cx = 60/5 = 12 V
Vy = Q/ Cy =60/20 = 3 V

(iii) Ex/ Ey = (½ Q 2/CX) / (½ QY2/CY) = 20/5 = 4:1 (1)

27 Derivation (2)
OR
Mutual inductance is numerically equal to the magnetic flux linked with a coil when the unit
currentpasses through the neighbouring coil.

Given M = 1.5 H, dl = 20
– 0 = 20 A,dt = 0.5 s,
Φ=?
Φ = – Mdl/dt
Φ = – 1.5 × 20/0.5 = – 60 Wb (1)
 a) Intensity, frequency (1)
28
b) λ0=hc/Ф0 = 6.18x10-7m (2)
OR
1) graph (1)
2) V0=h/e (ѵ-ѵ0) V0 is more for B (1)
3) Slope = h/e so it does not depend on the material (1)
29 λ = h/√2𝑚𝑞𝑣 = h/√2𝑚𝐾 md >mp (1)

for the same λ we must have Kp >Kd (1)

i.e proton has more kinetic energy (1)

For an incident ray, travelling from an optically denser medium to optically rarer medium, the
30
angleof incidence, for which the angle of refraction is 90o, is called the critical angle. 1

(2)

31 Diagram (1)
Derivation (2)
32 i) Average velocity acquired by the electrons in the conductor in the presence of external
electricfield. (1)
 We know that vd = - eE𝑟/m Where E = V/l
vd = - eV𝑟/ml Current I = nAe vd = nAe2 V𝑟 / ml
I/V = nAe2 𝑟 / ml 1/R = nAe2 𝑟 / ml RA/l = m/ ne2r
𝜌 = m/ ne2r (2)

(ii) Resistivity of the material of a conductor depends on the relaxation time, i.e.,
temperature and the number density of electrons. (1)

(iii)Because constantan and manganin show very weak dependence of

resistivity on temperature (1)

OR
Kirchhoff’s loop rule (2)
4
Current in Branch AB = 17 Amp
6
Current in branch BC = 17 Amp
−4
Current In branch CD = 17 Amp
6
Current in branch AD = 17 Amp
−2
Current in branch BD = 17 Amp
4 6 4 6 2 10
Total Current = 17 +17 -17 +17 -17 = 17
Amp (3)
 (a) Derivation (3)
33

(b) Electric Flux is the dot product of the electric field

and area vector.Φ = ∮E ⋅ds→
SI Unit: Nm2/C or V-m For a given case

Φ = Φ1 – Φ2 = [Ex(atx= 2a) – Ex (atx = a)]a2

= [α(2a)-α(a)]a2 = αa3
= 104 × (0.1 )3 = 10 Nm2/C
But
Φ = qε0

∴ q = ε00Φ = 8.854 × 10-12 × 10 C = 8.54 Pc (2)

a. This is because the energy gap for Ge (E=0.7 eV) is smaller than the energy gapfor Si (E=1.1 eV).
34
b. Reverse Bias, figure

c. if the reverse bias decreases the width of the depletion region decreases.

d. Drift and Diffusion

35 (i) b
(ii) d
(iii) b
(iv) a
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
BLUE PRINT SAMPLE PAPER-3 (SESSION 2022-23)
CLASS – XII (PHYSICS)
MAX. MARK: 70 TIMES ALLOWED: 3 HOURS
UNIT NAME TOTAL 1MARK 2 MARKS 3 MARKS 4 MARKS 5
WEIGHTAGE MARKS

ELECTROSTATICS 16 2 1 ---------- ---------- 1*

CURRENT ELECTRICITY 2 1* 1 ---------- --------

MAGNETIC EFFECTS 17 ---------- 1 1 ---------- 1*

OF CURRENT ,
MAGNETISM
ELECTROMAGNETIC 1 1* ----------- 1 ------
INDUCTION ,
ALTERNATING
CURRENT
ELECTROMAGNETIC 18 -------- -------- 1* -------- -------
WAVES

OPTICS 5 1 1 --------- 1*

DUAL NATURE OF 12 4 1 ------------- ------------- --------

MATTER AND - -
RADIATION
ATOMS AND NUCLEI 3 -------- 1* ---------- ---------

ELECTRONIC DEVICES 7 1 1 ---------- 1 ----

TOTAL 70 18 7 5 2 3

. * internal choice is given

 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
SAMPLE PAPER-3 (SESSION 2022-23)
CLASS – XII (PHYSICS)
MAX. MARK: 70 TIMES ALLOWED: 3 HOURS
General Instructions:
(1) There are 35 questions in all. All questions are compulsory
(2) This question paper has five sections: Section A, Section B, Section C, Section D and Section E.
All the sections are compulsory.
(3) Section A contains eighteen MCQ of 1 mark each, Section B contains seven questions
of two marks each, Section C contains five questions of three marks each, section D contains
three long questions of five marks each and Section E contains two case study based questions
of 4 marks each.
(4) There is no overall choice. However, an internal choice has been provided in section B, C, D
and E. You have to attempt only one of the choices in such questions.
5. Use of calculators is not allowed.
Section – A
All questions are compulsory. In case of internal choices, attempt any one of them.

1. Which of the following is not a property of field lines? 1

(a) Field lines are continuous curves without any breaks
(b) Two field lines cannot cross each other
(c) Field lines start at positive charges and end at negative charges
They form closed loops
2. What is angle between electric field and equipotential surface? 1
90° always (b) 0° always (c) 0° to 90° (d) 0° to180
3. The plates of a parallel plate capacitor are 4 cm apart, the first plate is at 300 V and 1
the second plate at – 100 V. The voltage at 3 cm from the second plate is
200 V (b) 400 V (c) 250 V (d) 500 V
4. In a pure inductive circuit, the current 1
(a) lags behind the applied emf by an angle π
(b) lags behind the applied emf by an angle π / 2
(c) leads the applied emf by an angle π / 2
(d) and applied emf are in same phase
5. If the focal length of objective lens is increased then magnifying power of 1
(a) microscope will increase but that of telescope decrease
(b) microscope and telescope both will increase
(c) microscope and telescope both will decrease
(d) microscope will decrease but that of telescope will increase
6. Focal length of a convex lens of refractive index 1.5 is 2 cm. Focal length of lens, when 1
immersed in a liquid of refractive index of 1.25 will be
 (a) 10 cm (b) 7.5 cm (c) 5 cm (d) 2.5 cm

7. In Young’s experiment, monochromatic light is used to illuminate the slits A and B. 1

Interference fringes are observed on a screen placed in front of the slits. Now if a thin
glass plate is placed in the path of the beam coming from A, then
(a) the fringes will disappear (b) the fringe width will increase
(c) the fringe width will decrease (d) there will be no change in the fringe width
8. Two waves having the intensities in the ratio of 9 : 1 produce interference. The ratio of 1
maximum to minimum intensity is
(a) 10 : 8 (b) 9 : 1 (c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
9. A photoelectric cell is illuminated by a point source of light 1 m away. The plate 1
emits electrons having stopping potential V. Then:
(a) V decreases as distance increase
(b) V increases as distance increase
(c) ) V is independent of distance (r)
(d) V becomes zero when distance increases or decreases
10. The work-function for a metal is 3 eV. To emit a photoelectron of energy 2 eV from 1
the surface of this metal, the wavelength of the incident light should be:
(a) 6187 Å (b) 4125 Å (c) 12375 Å (d) 2486 Å
11. According to Einstein's photoelectric equation, the graph between the kinetic energy 1
of photoelectrons ejected and the frequency of incident radiation is
Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy
Kinetic energy

Kinetic energy
a. b. c. d.

Frequency Frequency Frequency Frequency

12. Two particles A1 and A2 of masses m1, m2 (m1 > m2) have the same de Broglie 1
wavelength. Then
(a) their momenta are the same
(b) their energies are the same
(c) energy of A1 is less than the energy of A2
(d) energy of A1 is more than the energy of A2
13. The ratio of the speed of the electrons in the ground state of hydrogen to the speed 1
of light in vacuum is
1/2 (b) 2/237 (c) 1/137 (d) 1/237
14. When an electron in an atom goes from a lower to a higher orbit, its 1
(a) kinetic energy (KE) increases, potential energy (PE) decreases
(b) KE increases, PE increases
(c) KE decreases, PE increases
(d) KE decreases, PE decreases
15. The ratio of wavelengths of the last line of Balmer series and the last line of Lyman 1
series is
(a) 1 (b) 4 (c) 0.5 (d) 2
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and 1
Reason. While answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the
following four responses.
(a) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(b) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of
the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct, Reason is incorrect
(d) Both Assertion and Reason are correct
16. Assertion : When bodies are charged through friction, there is a transfer of electric 1
charge
from one body to another, but no creation or destruction of charge.
Reason : This follows from conservation of electric charges.
17. Assertion : The focal length of the convex mirror will increase, if the mirror is placed 1
in water.
Reason : The focal length of a convex mirror of radius R is equal to , f = R/2.
18. Assertion : When two semi conductor of p and n type are brought in contact, they 1
form p-n
junction which act like a rectifier.
Reason : A rectifier is used to convent alternating current into direct current.
Section – B
19. Two wires, one of copper and the other of manganin, have same resistance and equal 2
thickness. Which wire is longer? Justify your answer.
OR
First a set of n equal resistors of R each are connected in series to a battery of emf E
and internal resistance R. A current I is observed to flow. Then the n resistors are
connected in parallel to the same battery. It is observed that the current is increased
10 times. What is n?
20. A long straight wire AB carries a current of 4 A. A proton P travels at 4 × 106 m/s 2
parallel to the wire 0.2 m from it and in a direction opposite to the current. Calculate
the force which the magnetic field due to the current carrying wire exerts on the
proton. Also specify its direction.
21. The current flowing through a pure inductor of inductance 2 mH is i =15 cos 300 t 2
ampere. What is the (i) rms and (ii) average value of current for a complete cycle?
OR
 When an ac source is connected to an ideal inductor show that the average power
supplied by the source over a complete cycle is zero.
22. An object is kept in front of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm. The image formed 2
is real and three times the size of the object. Calculate the distance of the object from
the mirror.
23. An α-particle and a proton of the same kinetic energy are in turn allowed to pass 2
through a magnetic field B , acting normal to the direction of motion of the particles.
Calculate the ratio of radii of the circular paths described by them.
24. In the following diagram ‘S’ is a 2
semiconductor. Would you
increase or decrease the value
of R to keep the reading of the
ammeter A constant when S is
heated? Give reason for your

25. Plot a graph comparing the variation of potential ‘V’ and electric field ‘E’ due to a 2
point charge ‘Q’ as a function of distance ‘R’ from the point charge.
Section -C
26. State Kirchhoffs’s rules for electrical networks. Use them to explain the principle of 3
Wheatstone bridge for determining an unknown resistance.
27. A thin convex lens having two surfaces of radii of curvature R1 and R2 is made of a 3
material of refractive index μ2. It is kept in a medium of refractive index μ2. Derive,
with the help of a ray diagram, the lens maker’s formula when a point object placed
on the principal axis in front of the radius of curvature R1 produces an image I on the
other side of the lens
28. (a) Draw the plot of binding energy per nucleon (BE/A) as a function of mass 3
number A. Write two important conclusions that can be drawn regarding the nature
of nuclear force.
 (b) Use this graph to explain the release of energy in both the processes of nuclear
fusion and fission.
OR
Calculate the longest wavelengths belonging to Lyman and Balmer series. In which
region of hydrogen spectrum do these transitions lie? [Given R = 1.1 × 10 7 m–1]
29 Name the parts of the electromagnetic spectrum which is 3
(a) suitable for radar systems used in aircraft navigation.
(b) used to treat muscular strain.
(c) used as a diagnostic tool in medicine.
Write in brief, how these waves can be produced.
OR
Identify the following electromagnetic radiations as per the wavelengths given below.
Write one application of each.
(a) 10–3 nm (b) 10–3 m (c) 1 nm
30. Describe the path of a charged particle moving in a uniform magnetic field with initial 3
velocity
(i) parallel to (or along) the field.
(ii) perpendicular to the field
Section –D
31. An electric dipole of dipole moment p is held in a uniform electric field E. 5
(i) Prove that no translatory force acts on the dipole.
(ii) Hence prove that the torque acting on the dipole is given by pE sin θ, indicating the
direction along which it acts.
(iii) How much work is required in turning the electric dipole, from the position of
most stable equilibrium to the position of most unstable equilibrium?
OR
(a) State Gauss’s law. Use it to deduce the expression for the electric field due to a
uniformly charged thin spherical shell at points (i) inside and (ii) outside the shell.
(b) Two identical metallic spheres A and B having charges +4Q and –10Q are kept a
certain distance apart. A third identical uncharged sphere C is first placed in contact
 with sphere A and then with sphere B. Spheres A and B are then brought in contact
and then separated. Find the charges on the spheres A and B.
32. a. Derive the expression for force per unit length between two long straight parallel 5
current carrying conductors. Hence, define one ampere.
b. An α-particle and a proton moving with the same speed enter the same magnetic
field region at right angles to the direction of the field. Show the trajectories followed
by the two particles in the region of the magnetic field
OR
(a) With the help of a diagram, explain the principle and working of a moving coil
galvanometer.
(b) Why is it necessary to introduce a cylindrical soft iron core inside the coil of a
galvanometer?
(c) What is the importance of a radial magnetic field ?
33. (a) Draw a ray diagram for the formation of image by a compound microscope. Define 5
its magnifying power. Deduce the expression for the magnifying power of the
microscope. (b) Explain:
(i) why must both the objective and the eyepiece of a compound microscope have
short focal lengths?
(ii) while viewing through a compound microscope, why should our eyes be
positioned not on the eyepiece but a short distance away from it for best viewing?
OR
(a) A monochromatic source of light of wavelength λ illuminates a narrow slit of width
d to produce a diffraction pattern on the screen. Obtain the conditions when
secondary wavelets originating from the slit interfere to produce maxima and minima
on the screen.
(b) How would the diffraction pattern be affected when
(i) the width of the slit is decreased?
(ii) the monochromatic source of light is replaced by white light?
SECTION - E
34 CASE STUDY : ENERGY BAND GAP
From Bohr’s atomic model, we know that the electrons have well defined energy
4
levels in an isolated atom. But due to interatomic interactions in a crystal, the
 electrons of the outer shells are forced to have energies different from those in
isolated atoms. Each energy level splits into a number of energy levels forming a
continuous band. The gap between top of valence band and bottom of the conduction
band in which no allowed energy levels for electrons can exist is called energy gap.
(i) Give the ratio of the number of holes and number of conduction electrons in an
intrinsic semiconductor.
(ii) How does the energy gap of an intrinsic semiconductor vary, when doped with a
trivalent impurity/ pentavalent impurity?
(iii) How does the forbidden energy gap of an intrinsic semiconductor vary with
increase in temperature?
(iv) Give reason, why, a p-type semiconductor crystal is electrically neutral?
35 CASE STUDY: TRANSFORMER
A transformer is an electrical device which is used for changing the a.c. voltages. It is
based on the phenomenon of mutual induction i.e. whenever the amount of magnetic
flux linked with a coil changes, an e.m.f is induced in the neighboring coil. For. an ideal 4
transformer, the resistances of the primary and secondary windings are negligible. It
can be shown that
Es/Ep=Ip/Is=ns/np=k where the symbols have their standard meanings.

1. What is difference between step up and step-down transformer?

2. Which quantity remains constant in an ideal transformer?
3. Show that transformation ratio of step-down transformer is less than one.
4. Mention two types of energy loss in transformer.
 KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA SANGATHAN, GUWAHATI REGION
MARKING SCHEME SAMPLE PAPER-3 (SESSION 2022-23)
CLASS – XII (PHYSICS)
MAX. MARK: 70
Marking Scheme
Section – A

Q No. Marks

1 D 1

2 A 1

3 A 1

4 B 1

5 D 1

6 C 1

7 D 1
8 C 1
9 C 1
10 D 1
11 D 1
12 A &C 1
13 C 1
14 C 1
15 B 1
16 A 1
17 D 1
18 B 1
Section – B
19 Copper 2
Reason: Let l1 and l2 be lengths of copper and manganin wires having same resistance R
and thickness i.e., area of cross-section (A).
Since ρ1 <<< ρ2 So, l1 >>> l2 i.e., copper wire would be long
OR
20 2

21 I (rms) = 7.5√2 A , 0 2
OR
For an ideal inductor phase difference between current and applied voltage = π/2 ∴
Power,
P = Vrms Irms cos φ = Vrms Irms cos . 2 0 r = Thus the power consumed in a pure inductor
is zero.
22 By using Mirror equation u = -20 cm 2
23 2

24 The value of R would be increased. On heating, the resistance of semiconductor (S) 2

decreases.
25 2
 Section – C
26 Rules 1.5
Working 1.5
27 Derivation of Lens makers formula 3
28 Binding energy curve

OR

29 (a) Microwaves
Production: Klystron/magnetron/Gunn diode (any one)
(b) Infrared radiations
Production: Hot bodies/vibrations of atoms and molecules (any one)
(c) X-rays
 Production: Bombarding high energy electrons on metal target/X-ray tube/Inner
shell electrons
OR
(a) γ-rays. Use: In treatment of cancer.
(b) Microwaves. Use: In radar system for aircraft navigation.
(c) X-rays. Use: As a diagnostic tool for the detection of fractures.
30 Parallel – no effect of magnetic field 1
Derivation for radius with dia 2
Section – D

31 I net force = 0 1
Ii derivation 2
ii
2

OR
1
: (a) Gauss’s Law states that the net outward flux through any closed surface is

equal to times the charge enclosed by the closed surface. 1.5

(i) When the point P is inside the shell.
In this case, the Gaussian surface lies inside the spherical shell and hence no
charge is enclosed by it.

or E = 0, i.e. there is no electric field inside a charged spherical shell.

1.5

(ii) When the point P lies outside the shell

 Initial charge on the sphere A = + 4 Q
Initial charge on the sphere B = – 10 Q
Since, all the three spheres are identical, they have the same capacity. When
uncharged sphere C is placed in contact with A, the total charge is
equally shared between them.
1
∴ Charge on C after contact with A = =2Q
and charge on A after contact with C = 2 Q.
When sphere C carrying a charge 2 C is placed in contact with B, again charges are
equally shared between C and B.

Charge on C after it is in contact with B = =–4Q

Now, when sphere A with a charge of 2 Q is placed in contact with B, with
charge – 4 Q.

32

A.
B.

OR
 (c) With a radial magnetic field sin θ = 1 in the expression for the torque. Hence,
we can calibrate a scale
33

(a) Magnifying power: It is the

ratio of angle subtended by the final image at the eye to the angle
subtended by the object at the eye when both are at the least distance of

distinct vision.
(b) (i) To achieve a large magnification of small object, the eyepiece and the
objective must have short focal lengths.
(ii) If we place our eyes too close to the eyepiece, the area of the pupil of the
eye is less than the area of the eye-ring. So, our eyes will not collect much of
the light and our field of view will get reduced.
OR
(a)
 (b) (i) Linear width of central maxima,

Angular width of central maxima, So, when the width of the

slit (d) is decreased, the angular width θn increases, and the diffraction
pattern is spread out.
(ii) When a monochromatic source of light is replaced by a source of white
light, the following changes are observed in the diffraction pattern:
• Differaction pattern is coloured. As the fringe width is directly proportional
to the wavelength, so, the fringe width of red colour is wider than that of
violet colour.
• The central maximum is white.
34 (i) 1 1
(ii) Decreases 1
(iii) no effect 1
(iv) because impurity atoms added to the semiconductor are electrically neutral. 1
35 1For a step up transformer ns>np; 1
For a step-down transformer ns>np;
2 Power 1
3 Es<Ep; k<1 1
4 Eddy current loss, flux leakage. 1