PART ONE: ETHICS AND WARD MANAGEMENT

1. Failure of professional duty is legally referred to as

a. Fidelity
b. Fraud
c. Liability
d. Negligence

2. Which of the following are the rights of a patient/client?

i. Consent or decline to a treatment
ii. Comply with prescribed treatment
iii. Personal safety and security
iv. Seek second medical opinion
a. I, II and IV
b. I, II and III
c. I, III and IV
d. II, III and IV

3. The privacy of the client is said to be intruded when the nurse

i. Allows clinet to listen to the conversation of the nurses
ii. Discusses of client’s problems in public places
iii. Permits every visitor who wants to see the client to do so
iv. Takes pictures with clients without consent
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. I, III and IV
d. II, III and IV

Use the scenario below to answer questions 4 – 6

A newly admitted patient refuses to use the water closet on the ward and asked to be given a
chamber pot or be allowed to use the nearby bush because “ she could not defeacate in a
bowl”. The nurses saw her behaviour to be strange and insisted she uses the water closet or
“she can please herself”.

4. What is influencing the woman’s behaviour?

a. Attitude
b. Ignorance
c. Poverty
d. Value

5.
6.
7.
8.
9.

10. Which of the following will NOT be accepted in the Nurses’ Professional

a. Applying knowledge of nursing ethics to make decisions

b. Being able to identify ethical concern, issues and dilemmas
c. Engage in critical thinking about ethical issues
d. Provide information regarding the health system to all

11. An informed consent is the responsibility of which of the following?

a. Client
b. Nurse Assistant
c. Physician
d. Supervising nurse

12. Who qualifies to practice nursing in Ghana?

a. The nurse who has passed the licensing exams
b. The nurse who has registered with the Nursing & Midwifery Council, Ghana
c. The nurse who has registered with the Ghana Registered Nurses’ and Midwives
association
d. The nurse who has completed National Service

13. Registered Nurses/Midwives are responsible for delegating patient care

responsibilities to Nurse Assistants. The most appropriate task to delegate to the
Nurse Assistant is:
a. Assessing the degree of lower leg oedema in a patient on bed rest
b. Making the bed of an ambulatory patient
c. Measuring the circumference of a patient’s calf for oedema
d. Recording the size and appearance of a bed sore

14. A patient was rushed to the emergency ward in an unconscious state by relatives.
Examination on patient revealed flat reflexes and the doctor declared the patient
clinically dead. This case is referred to as a Coroner’s case because patient was:
i. Already dead on arrival
ii. Brought in a commercial vehicle
iii. In the hospital less than 24 hours
iv. Rushed in by his relatives
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. I and IV
d. II and III

15. The following statements are considered during documentation in nursing

a. Approved abbreviations are used
 b. Information needs to be factual
c. Sign at the end of documentation
d. The use of correction fluid

16. A nurse discovers that a primary care provider has prescribed an … dosage of
medication. Which of the following is most the appropriate?
a. Administer the medication
b. Call the pharmacist
c. Notify the prescriber
d. Refuse to administer

17. After administering medication to a client, when is the appropriate time to record it?
a. Before the end of shift
b. Before the next dose of medication is due
c. Immediately
d. Within one hour

18. Which of the following reasons is most important, as well as the most for nurses to
use nursing process?
a. Communicate with other members of the team
b. Help clients meet their actual and potential health problems
c. Increase the unique body of knowledge known as nursing
d. Standardize the care of clients with the same diagnoses

19. Which of the following is most likely to occur as Nurses advance in

a. Become less interested bedside nursing
b. Have increased enjoyment when doing paper work
c. Learn to develop a personal theory of nursing
d. Lose their ability to think critically in clinical areas

20. Alberta complained to the nurse manager that she had been given any her consent.
Which offence would the nurse be charged with?
a. Criminal assault
b. Maleficence
c. Technical assault
d. Tort

PART TWO: PSYCHIATRIC NURSING

21. Many schizophrenic patients refuse to eat because they are

a. Attempting to punish others to rid themselves of guilt
b. Having delusions which tells them not to eat
c. Not hungry since they are not so inactive
d. Too active to take time to eat
 22. Psychotic symptoms include:
a. Delusions, happiness to anger, chaotic speech and behaviour
b. Disorganised thoughts, inability to move and impulsive behaviour
c. Hallucinations, blank facial expression and risky behaviours
d. Losing touch with reality, anxiety and apathy.

23. Nursing care of schizophrenic patients includes:

a. Allowing the patient to become dependent on you
b. Allowing the patient to be alone in the evenings to rest
c. Following the patient when they move about the ward
d. Keeping the environment quiet and free from confusion

24. Which of the following factors will increase a person’s potential for suicide?
i. Being a pagan
ii. Being a male 60 years of age
iii. Being divorced
iv. Low socioeconomic status
a. I and II
b. I, II and IV
c. II and IV
d. III and IV

From questions 25-28, choose the appropriate defence mechanism exhibited.

25. A parent punishes her child then says “It is for your own good”
a. Denial
b. Projection
c. Rationalisation
d. Reactive formation

26. A woman who cannot cook good meals tasted her friend’s food and accuses her friend
of being a poor cook.
a. Denial
b. Projection
c. Rationalisation
d. Reactive formation

27. A child who was abused has no recollection of events but has difficulty making
friends.
a. Displacement
b. Repression
c. Sublimation
d. suppression
28. A 21 year old student had an abortion. 2 years later she visits the hospital and midwife
asked her if she had ever been pregnant and she replied “NO”
A. Displacement
B. Repression
C. Sublimation
D. Suppression

29. Management of a patient during grand mal epilepsy include

i. Loosening tight clothing
ii. Removing any objects near by
iii. Putting things in patients mouth
iv. Sedating patient to stop the cycle
a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

30. Withdrawal symptoms from alcohol occur when

a. Alcohol level in the blood drops below the habitual level
b. The alcoholic changes habitual from of alcohol intake
c. The alcoholic forgets to take his regular meals
d. The alcoholic stops taking alcohol

31. When a patient is said to have “flight of ideas”, it means he

a. Is overwhelmed by his thoughts
b. Repeats ideas with disconnection
c. Sees his mind to be full of ideas
d. Verbalises his ideas to others

32. Which of the following is not included in the signs and symptoms of depression?
a. Constipation
b. Flights of ideas
c. Refusal of food
d. Sleeplessness

33. When fixation occurs at the oral stage, it is likely to result in

a. Emotional problems
b. Hatred for others
c. Oral sex
d. Verbal hostility

34. Klinefelter’s syndrome is a chromosomal abnormality that usually affects

a. Elderly
 b. Females
c. Males
d. Sicklers

35. The most common form of hallucination in schizophrenia is

a. Auditory
b. Gustatory
c. Tactile
d. Visual

36. A manic client who is hyperactive and experiencing decrease need for food and sleep
can best be assisted to eat by:
a. Restraining client and forcefully feeding him with the food
b. Serving client’s favourite food while pacing up and down
c. Serving food that can easily be held by the client while pacing up and down
d. Waiting for client to calm down before he is served with the food

PART THREE: MEDICAL & SURGICAL NURSING

37. Post-operative thrombosis can be prevented by

i. Breathing exercise
ii. Early ambulation
iii. Passive exercises
iv. Maintenance of intake and output chart
a. I and II
b. II and III
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV

38.
39.
40.
41.
42.
43.
44. Which of the following nursing actions is a priority after collecting a sputum
a. Checking to see that sputum basin is clean
b. Giving the client mouth wash
c. Providing tissue for expectoration
d. Sending the sputum specimen to the laboratory immediately

45. Local treatment of cellulitis of the leg include

i. Drainage of pus
 ii. Immobilisation of the part
iii. Intake of copious fluid
iv. Reduction of body temperature
a. I and II
b. I and III
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

46. Which of these surgical procedures involves removal of a body organ?

a. Cholecystectomy
b. Colostomy
c. Hemiorrhaphy
d. Laparoscopy

47. The primary difference between benign and malignant neoplasm is

a. Characteristic of tissue invasiveness
b. Rate of cell proliferation
c. Requirement for cellular nutrients
d. Site of the malignant tumour

48. The most serious complication of an open fracture is

a. Deformity
b. Infection
c. Muscle atrophy
d. Nerve damage

49. Prolonged bed rest after surgery may cause formation of dep vendus thrombosis
resulting in
a. Cerebral embolism
b. Coronary acclusion
c. Dry gangrene of a limb
d. Pulmonary embolism

50. A patient involved in RTA has compound fracture of the left leg. It means that
a. Bone is broken inside but skin is intact
b. Skin integrity is impaired as well as bone
c. There is risk for impaired skin integrity
d. There is no break in skin integrity

51. Inflammation cab be caused by a/an

i. Burn
ii. Chemical
iii. Organism
iv. Wound
 a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. II, III and Iv
d. I, II, III and IV

52. A boil on the face should be

i. Left alone
ii. Managed with hot formentations
iii. Pricked with a needle
iv. Squeezed to bring out pus
a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

PART FOUR: OBSTETRIC NURSING

53. Which function of the vagina will be affected if the pelvic floor is damaged?
a. Entrance of spermatozoa
b. Exit for menstrual flow and products of conception
c. Prevention of infection
d. Support of the uterus

54. The cervix is part of the uterus but it is usually described separately because it
a. Enters the vagina at right angles
b. Forms the lower third
c. Has different structure and function
d. Has a canal which is fusiform while that of the uterus is triangular

55. Prolactin which stimylates the breast to secrete milk is produced by which of the
following
a. Adrenal glands
b. Breasts
c. Ovary
d. Pituitary gland

56. A ten-week pregnant woman complains of heart burns. To release this discomfort, the
nurse would advise them to do the following EXCEPT
a. Avoid bending over whilst doing house hold chores
b. Lie on the left side of the body
c. Sleep with more pillows than usual
d. Takes small meals at a time

57. Ovulation occurs at the

 a. End of proliferative and end of menstrual phase
b. End of proliferative and onset of secretory phase
c. Onset of proliferative and end of menstrual phase
d. Onset of regenerative and end of proliferative phase

58. The part of the foetal skull also referred to as the menorm is the
a. Chin
b. Occiput
c. Sinciput
d. Vertex

59. Which of the following refers to the failure of the testies to descend by birth?
a. Cryptorchism
b. Epispadias
c. Hypospadias
d. Intersex

60. Which hormone controls the first part of the menstrual cycle?
a. Follicle stimulating hormone
b. Luteinising hormone
c. Oestrongen
d. Progesterone

61. Which of the following terms explains beleeding inbetween periods?

a. Dysmenorrhoea
b. Menorrhoea
c. Metrorrhagia
d. Ollgomenorrhoea

62. Which of these injuries may occur as result of difficult labour?

i. Erbi’s palsy
ii. Facial paralysis
iii. Fracture of femur
iv. Torticollis
a. I, II and III
b. I, II and IV
c. I, III and IV
d. I, II, III and IV

63. Which of these conditions can be precipitated by pregnancy?

i. Diabetes
ii. Eclampsia
iii. Pre-eclampsia
iv. Jaundice
 a. I and II
b. I, II and III
c. I, III and IV
d. II, III and IV

64. At which stage of the development do the ovaries appear smooth, dull white and solid
in consistency?
a. Before birth
b. Birth to puberty
c. Menstrual phase
d. Post-menopausal phase

65. The strongest pelvic ligament that binds the pelvic girdle could be found between the
A. Lumber and the sacrum
B. Public bones
C. Sacrum and coccyx
D. Sacrum and ilium

66. Which of the following is the milk secretory part of the breast?
a. Alveoli
b. Ampulla
c. Lactiferous tubles
d. Lactiferous duct

67. The main function of the pilcae in the fallopian tube is to

a. Facilitate fast movement of the sperm
b. Facilitate movement of eva
c. Gives the zygote nourishment until the placenta develops
d. Slows down passage of the fertilised ovum and facilitating it to develop

68. The following statements are true of physiological changes in pregnancy EXCEPT
a. Blood volume increases
b. Cardiac output goes up
c. There is haemodilution
d. There is increase in blood pressure

PART FIVE: PAEDIATRIC NURSING

69. When responding to the call of a visually impaired child on admission, it is important
to
a. Address the child when she enters the room
b. Respond to the call promptly
c. Send an orderly to attend to the child
d. Touch the child before speaking to him or her
70. Which of the following disease condition is common in vitamin B1 deficiency?
a. Beriberi
b. Mump
c. Pellagra
d. Scurvy

71. The presence of parents during painful procedures on their toddlers should be
A. Based on individual assessment of the parents
B. Based on the type of procedure to be performed
C. Discouraged for the benefit of the parents and the child
D. Encouraged and permitted if the child desires their presence

72. At what age in the developmental stages is an infant experted to have first teeth
a. 3 – 4 months
b. 5 – 9 months
c. 10 – 12months
d. 13-18 months

73.
74.
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80.
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84.
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