CPP-05

ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Magnetism and Matter

1. A bar magnet of magnetic dipole moment 10 Am2

Xm
is in stable equilibrium. The work done to rotate the
magnet through 60° in a magnetic field of 0.2T is
(1)
T
1
(1) J (2) 2J
2
(3) 1J (4) 4J Xm

2. Time period of a thin bar magnet in uniform (2)

magnetic field is T1. Now the magnet is cut into two T
identical halves so that its length becomes half and
time period of each small magnet in the same
magnetic field is T2. The ratio of T1 and T2 is Xm

(1) 2 (2) 2 (3)

T

(3) 2 2 (4) 4:1

3. If 1 and 2 are the apparent angles of dip observed Xm
in two vertical planes at right angles to each other
and the true angle of dip is  at that place, then (4)
T
(1) tan2= tan21 + tan22
(2) tan2= cot21 + cot22
7. A short bar magnet has point A and B along its
(3) cot2 = cot21 + cot22 axis at a distance of 24 cm and 48 cm from centre
on the opposite sides. Ratio of magnitude of
(4) cos2 = cos21 + cos22
magnetic fields at these points will be
4. Isoclinic lines are
(1) 2 (2) 8
(1) Line joining places of equal angle of dip
(3) 3 (4) 4
(2) Line joining places of zero angle of dip
8. A magnet when suspended at an angle of 30° to
(3) Line joining places of equal angle of declination magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle
(4) Line joining places of zero angle of declination 45° with horizontal. The dip angle measured in
magnetic meridian will be
5. Magnetic field inside substance is B and that in free
space is B0, then for B < B0, the substance is 1
(1) tan1
(1) a paramagnetic 3
(2) a diamagnetic
(2) tan–1 3
(3) a ferromagnetic
(4) (1) and (2) both are possible 3
(3) tan1
6. Magnetic susceptibility of a paramagnetic substance 2
is plotted against absolute temperature(T). The
correct graph is  2 
(4) tan–1  
3

(1)
Magnetism and Matter Aakash Institute
9. A bar magnet has coercivity 4 × 10 3 Am–1. It is 15. Two magnets placed one above the other oscillates
desired to demagnetise it by inserting inside a with a period of 6 sec. If one of them is reversed,
solenoid 12 cm long and having 60 turns. The the time period becomes 2 sec. The ratio of their
current that should be sent through solenoid is magnetic moment is nearest to
(1) 2A (2) 4A
(1) 7 (2) 5
(3) 6A (4) 8A 3 4

10. The variation of magnetic susceptibility (Xm) for a

(3) 7 (4) 7
diamagnetic material with temperature is best 4 5
represented by which of the following curve with
respect to temperature variations 16. At the magnetic pole of earth, the value of angle of
dip is
Xm (1) 0° (2) 30°
Xm
(3) 45° (4) 90°
17. A paramagnetic sample shows intensity of
(1) (2) magnetisation of 0.8 A/m, when placed in an
T T external magnetic field of strength 0.8T at a
temperature 5K. When the same sample is placed
in an external magnetic field of 0.4T at a
temperature of 20K, the magnetisation is ;
Xm Xm
(1) 0.8 Am–1 (2) 0.8 Am–2
(3) 0.4 Am–1 (4) 0.1 Am–1
(3) (4) 18. A magnet of length L and of pole strength m is cut
T T into half breadth wise and half lengthwise and thus,
four identical pieces are obtained. Magnetic
moment of each piece will become
11. A thin magnetic needle oscillate in the horizontal
plane with a time period of 2.0 sec. If the needle is
mL mL
(1) (2)
broken in 4 equal parts perpendicular to its length 8 4
then time-period of each part will be mL
(3) (4) mL
(1) 0.5 sec (2) 1.05 sec 2
19. Magnitude Magnetic moment of two magnets are
(3) 1.5 sec (4) 2.0 sec equal (M) and are placed at an angle of 60° as
12. The magnetic moment produced in a substance of shown in figure. Then resultant magnetic moment of
1g is 6 × 10–7 Am2. If its density is 5g/cm3, then combination will be
the intensity of magnetisation in A/m will be
(1) 2M
(1) 8.3 × 106 (2) 3.0 N
(2) 3M
(3) 1.2 × 10–7 (4) 3 × 10–6 N
60°
13. A short magnetic dipole of magnetic moment 1.44 M
(3)
Am 2 is placed horizontally with its north pole 2
pointing towards north. The distance of the neutral S
point from the dipole, if the horizontal component of (4) ( 3  1) M
earth’s magnetic field is 18 T, is
20. In tan A position of a deflection magnetometer, a short
(1) 20 cm (2) 40 cm magnet placed at 10 cm from the centre produces a
deflection of 30°. If another short magnet of dipole
(3) 10 cm (4) 50 cm
moment sixteen times the previous magnet is kept
14. A small bar magnet has a magnetic moment 1.25 at 20 cm from the centre in tan B position, the
Am2. The magnetic field at a distance 0.1m on its deflection will be
axis will be (1) 60° (2) 45°
(1) 1.2 × 10–4 T (2) 2.5 × 10–4 T (3) 30° (4) 0°

(3) 2.5 × 104 T (4) 1.2 × 104 T

(2)
Aakash Institute Magnetism and Matter
21. Two magnets each of dipole moment Pm and length
 are placed perpendicularly as shown in figure. B B
The magnitude of dipole moment of the combination
will be H H
(1) 2P m
N (A) (B)
(2) 2 Pm

Pm N S (1) Coercivity of A is greater than B but retentivity

(3) of B is greater than A ;
2
S (2) Coercivity and retentivity of B is greater than A ;
Pm
(4)
2l (3) A is suitable for making permanent and B is
suitable for making electromagnet
22. At a place, angle of dip and horizontal component
of earth’s magnetic field are 30° and 0.5 oersted (4) Both (2) and (3)
respectively. The total magnetic field of earth at the
place is 27. A dip needle vibrates in a vertical plane
perpendicular to the geographical meridian. The time
(1) 3 (2) 1 period of vibration is found to be 2 second. The
same needle is then allowed to vibrate in the
1 1 horizontal plane and the time period is again found
(3) (4)
3 2 to be 2 second. If the angle of declination is 60°,
then the true angle of dip is
23. In vibration magnetometer time period of magnet is
2 s. The time period of a magnet whose magnetic  1 
(1) tan1   (2) tan–1(2)
moment is four times that of the first and same  2
moment of inertia is
 1
(1) 1 s (2) 4 s (3) 45° (4) tan1  
2
(3) 8 s (4) 0.5 s
28. Apparent dips when dip circle is placed in two
24. A bar magnet suspended has a time period of mutully perpendicular directions are 30° and 45°.
oscillation T. If the magnet is broken into four equal What is the actual dip at that place?
pieces parallel to its length and one of the pieces
is made to oscillate in the same field, then the new  1
(1) tan–1(2) (2) tan1  
time period is 2
(1) 4T (2) 2T (3) tan1  2 (4) 60°
T
(3) T (4)
4
29. The variation of magnetic susceptibility(X) with
25. A magnetising field of 1200Am–1produces a net temperature for a diamagnetic substance is best
magnetic flux 2.4×10–7 weber in a paramagnetic represented by figure
bar of cross-sectional area 0.2 cm 2 . The
susceptibility of the bar will be X X

(1) 17.75 (2) 25 (1) (2)

T T
(3) 24 (4) 26

26. Hysteresis loops for two magnetic materials A and X X

B are given below T
(3) (4)
T

(3)
Magnetism and Matter Aakash Institute
30. Two short bar magnets of equal dipole moment M 35. Two magnetic isolated north poles each of strength
each are fastened perpendicularly at their centres. in ampere-meter are placed one at each of two
The magnitude of the resultant magnetic field at a vertices of an equilateral triangle of side a. The
distance d from the centre on the bisector of the right resultant magnetic induction at third vertex is
angle is
0 m 0 2m
(1)  (2)  2
4  a2 4 a
S
0 3m 0 m
N S (3)  (4) 
d 4  a2 4  a2
N
P
36. If a magnet is suspended at an angle 30° to the
magnetic meridian, the dip needle makes an angle
of 60° with the horizontal. The true value of dip is
o 2 2M  o 2M
(1) (2)
4 d3 4 d3
(1) tan1 2 3 (2) tan1 3 2
o M o 2M
(3) (4) (3) tan–1(3) (4) tan–1(2)
4 d3 4  d3
37. The magnetic field due to a small bar magnet at
31. The time period of a thin bar magnet in earth’s end on position is making an angle  with magnetic
magnetic field is T. If the magnet is cut into four equal moment. The value of angle  is
parts perpendicular to its length, the time period of
each part in the same field will be (1) Zero (2) 90°

(1)
T
(2)
T (3) 180° (4) tan1  2
2 4
38. A bar magnet is cut into three equal parts
(3) 2T (4) 2P perpendicular to its length and each part has
magnetic moment M. The magnetic moment of the
32. When bar magnet is made to vibrate in horizontal bar magnet was
plane, the time preiod of vibration is 3 2s . Angle of
M
dip is 60°. Find time of vibration when it vibrates in (1) M (2)
3
vertical plane parallel to the magnetic meridian at the
same place
(1) 3s (2) 4s
(3) 3M (4)  M 1/3
39. A magnetised wire of magnetic moment M and
1
(3) sec (4) 3s length l is bent in the form of a semicircle of
3 radius r. The new magnetic moment is
33. At a given place in the earth’s surface, the 2M
horizontal component of earth’s magnetic field is (1) M (2)
3×10–5 T and resultant magnetic field is 6×10–5T. 
Angle of dip at this palce is M M
(1) 30° (2) 40° (3) (4)
 2
(3) 50° (4) 60° 40. A magnetic needle lying parallel to magnetic field
34. Two tangent galvanometers having coils of the same requires W unit of work to turn it through 60°. The
radius are connected in series. A current flowing in torque needed to maintain the needle in this final
them produces deflections of 60° and 45° position will be
respectively. The ratio of the number of turns in the
coils is (1) 3W (2) W

(1)
4
(2)
 3 1  3W
3 1 (3) (4) 2W
2

3 1 3
(3) (4)
3 1 1

(4)
Aakash Institute Magnetism and Matter
41. If the vertical component of earth’s magnetic field at 47. The intensity of magnetisation (I) of paramagnetic
a place is 0.75 times the horizontal component at material is related to absolute temperature T as
same place, then the angle of dip at that place is (1) I  T (2) I  T2
(1) 45° (2) 37°
1 1
(3) I  2
(4) I 
(3) 53° (4) 60° T T

42. W hat should be the deflection of tangent 48. Two short magnets of magnetic moment 1000 Am2
galvanometer, so that the reading obtained through are placed as shown at the corners of square of
it has maximum accuracy? side 10cm. The net magnetic induction at P is

(1) 45° (2) 30°

(3) 37° (4) 29.2°

S
43. In a vertical plane inclined at an angle 60° with N P
magnetic meridian, the angle of dip is found to be
10cm
45°. If  is true angle of dip at that place, then the
value of tan is S
10cm N
(1) 0.5 (2) 2

(3) 0.75 (4) 1.33 (1) 0.1T (2) 0.2T

44. In tangent galvanometer, the deflection is 30° when (3) 0.3T (4) 0.4T
2 A current passes through it. What will be the
current, if deflection is 60°? 49. In a tangent galvanometer a current of 0.1A
produces a deflection of 30°. The current required
(1) 2 A (2) 2 3 A to produce deflection of 60° is

(3) 6 A (4) 1.5 A (1) 0.2A (2) 0.3A

  (3) 0.4A (4) 0.5A
45. According to Gauss’ law in magnetism  B.ds
s
is
50. A vibration magnetometer consists of two identical
equal to bar magnets placed one over the other such that
(1) Zero they are perpendicular and bisect each other. The
time period of oscillation in a horizontal magnetic
(2) Positive 5
field is 2 4 sec. One of the magnets is removed
(3) Negative
and if the other magnet oscillates in the same
(4) Positive, negative or zero field, then the time period in second is

46. It is found that when a substance is placed in a 1 1

magnetic field; field lines passing through it are (1) (2)
24 22
shown in figure. Then substance may be
5
(3) 2 (4)
24

(1) Diamagnetic (2) Paramagnetic

(3) Superconductor (4) All of these


(5)
Magnetism and Matter Aakash Institute

CPP-05
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (4) 7. (1)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (1) 11. (1) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (2)
15. (2) 16. (4) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (2) 20. (3) 21. (2)
22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (4) 28. (2)
29. (4) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (1) 33. (4) 34. (4) 35. (3)
36. (2) 37. (1) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (1) 41. (2) 42. (1)
43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (1) 49. (2)
50. (3)



(6)
 CPP-05
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Chemistry
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Surface Chemistry

1. The electrical charge on a colloidal particle is (ii) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase
observed by and dispersion medium differ greatly in
magnitude
(1) Ultramicroscope (2) Scattering
(iii) Diameter of dispersed particles is much larger
(3) Brownian movement (4) Electrophoresis than the wavelength of the light used
2. Which one is correct order of coagulating value of (1) (i) and (ii) (2) (i) and (iii)
electrolytes for a given Sb2S3 sol?
(3) (ii) and (iii) (4) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(1) BaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3 8. Fe(OH) 3 sol can be more easily coagulated by
(2) NaCl > MgCl2>Al2(SO4)3 Na3PO4 in comparison of KCl because

(3) CaCl2 > NaCl > AlCl3 (1) Mass of Na3PO4 is more than KCl hence it is
more effective than KCl
(4) Al2(SO4)3 > CaCl2 > NaCl
(2) Phosphate ion has higher negative charge than
3. Cod liver oil is Cl– ion hence PO43– ions are more effective for
coagulation
(1) True solution (2) Suspension
(3) KCl is more soluble than Na3PO4 hence less
(3) Emulsion (4) Sol effective for coagulation
4. Collodion is a 4% solution of which of the following (4) Na+ ions are more effective than K + ions for
in alcohol - ether mixture? coagulation
(1) Nitroglycerine (2) Methylcellulose 9. A colloidal solution consists of Ag/– colloid. Which
(3) Nitrocellulose (4) Nitrofructose of the following salts will be maximum efficient for
coagulation of the colloid?
5. Which is an example of auto-catalysis ?
(1) AlCl3 (2) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(1) Hydrolysis of methyl acetate(acid catalysed)
(3) MgCl2 (4) Na2SO4
(2) Oxidation of Na2SO3 in presence of Na2AsO3
10. At the critical micelle concentration, the surfactant
(3) Oxidation of oxalic acid by KMnO4 molecules
(4) Formation of ammonia by Haber’s process (1) Decompose
6. Equal volume each of two sols of AgI, one obtained (2) Dissociate
by adding AgNO3 to slight excess of KI and another
obtained by adding KI to slight excess of AgNO3, (3) Associate
are mixed together. If the excess of electrolytes in
(4) Become completely soluble
both the cases are equal, then
11. Extent of physisorption of a gas increases with
(1) The two sols stabilize each other
(1) Increase in temperature
(2) The sol particles will acquire more electric
charge (2) Decrease in temperature
(3) The sols will coagulate each other mutually (3) Decrease in surface area of Adsorbent
(4) A true solution will be obtained (4) Decrease in strength of van der Waal force
7. Tyndall effect is observed when 12. Surface tension of lyophilic sol is, generally,
(i) Diameter of dispersed particles is not much (1) Lower than H2O (2) More than H2O
smaller than the wavelength of light used
(3) Equal to H2O (4) Zero

(1)
(1)
Surface Chemistry Aakash Institute
13. The presence of colloidal particles of dust in air 19. The gold number of gelatin, gum and starch are
imparts blue colour to the sky. This is due to 0.005, 0.15 and 25 respectively. Select the colloid
that has highest protection power
(1) Absorption of light (2) Scattering of light
(1) Gelatin
(3) Reflection of light (4) Interference of
light (2) Starch

14. Select from the following that will have highest (3) Gum
coagulating power for Fe(OH)3 solution (4) All have equal protection power
(1) PO43– (2) SO42– 20. On the basis of interaction between dispersed
phase and dispersion medium, lyophobic and
(3) Al3+ (4) Na+ lyophilic colloids is classified. Select the correct
15. Coagulation effects of various electrolytes on statement from following
colloidal solution is governed by Hardy-Schulze rule. (1) Lyophobic sols have nearly same surface
Select the incorrect rule from the following tension as that of medium
(1) Increase in charge of an ion decreases (2) Lyophobic sols has much higher viscosity than
coagulation value of the colloid medium
(2) Higher the coagulation value, more efficient is (3) Lyophilic sols is not much hydrated
the electrolyte in causing coagulation of a sol (4) All of these
(3) Coagulation value is expressed in millimoles / 21. Select the positive colloid from the following :
litre
(1) Colloid S (2) Colloidal As2S3
(4) A positively charged colloid is coagulated by a (3) Colloidal Gold (4) Al(OH)3
negative ion
22. W hich of the following is a method to prepare
x colloid?
16. A graph plotted between log vs log P is shown (1) Dialysis (2) Peptization
m
in figure given below (3) Flocculation (4) Electrophoresis
23. The dispersion medium and dispersed phase in
45° emulsion respectively are
O
x
log m (1) Gas and liquid (2) Liquid and liquid
(3) Gas and gas (4) Liquid and gas
A log P 24. The cleansing action of soap is due to its
(P in atm)
(1) Emulsifying property (2) Micellisation
If intercept is equal to log 3, then value of x/m at
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Solubility in water
a pressure of 3 atm
25. Choose the incorrect statement
(1) 2 (2) 9
(1) Physisorption may transform into chemisorption
(3) 6 (4) 8 at high temperature
17. Tyndall effect is observed only when (2) Chemisorption is more exothermic than
(1) The diameter of the dispersed particle is not physisorption. However it requires higher energy
much smaller than the wavelength of the light of activation
used (3) Chemical adsoprtion continuously decreases
when temperature increases
(2) The diameter of the dispersion medium is not
much smaller than the wavelength of the light (4) Physical adsorption continuously decreases
used when temperature increases

(3) The refractive indices of the dispersed phase 26. Choose incorrect statement
and the dispersion medium not differ greatly in (1) 2SO 2 + O 2 
Pt
 2SO 3 (Heterogeneous
magnitude
catalysis)
(4) (2) and (3) both
(2) Oxidation of Na2SO3 in presence of Na2AsO3 is
18. Which of the following ion will be most powerful in an example of induced catalysis
coagulating the colloid prepared by boiling FeCl3
(3) Catalyst lowers the activation energy
with water?
(4) Hydrolysis of ester in presence of acid is an
(1) PO 4 3– (2) Na+ example of heterogeneous catalysis
(3) Ca2+ (4) SO 4 2–

(2)
Aakash Institute Surface Chemistry
27. Select correct statement
1
(1) Viscosity of lyophobic sol is higher than that of (1) (2) log K
n
medium
(3) –log K (4) n
(2) Surface tension of lyophilic sol is lower than
that of medium 31. The stability of lyophobic sols is due to
(3) Lyophobic sol is more stable than lyophilic sol (1) Brownian motion only
(4) Lyophobic sol is reversible in nature (2) Electric charge only
28. Which of the following is incorrect statement ? (3) Both brownian motion and electric charges
(1) For soaps, micelles may contain as many as (4) Particle size
100 melecules or more
32. The coagulation value of the electrolyte AlCl3 and
(2) Micelles from ionic surfactants can be formed NaCl for As 2 S 3 sol are 0.093 mmol/L and
only above a certain temperature called the 52 mmol/L respectively. How many times AlCl3 has
Kraft temperature greater coagulating power than NaCl?
(3) Colloidal sulphur is an example of micelle (1) 100 (2) 559
(4) Micelle is an example of associated colloid (3) 993 (4) 852
29. W hich of the following statements is incorrect 33. W hich is not a characteristic of physical
regarding physisorption? adsorption?
(1) It occurs because of van der Waal’s forces (1) Enthalpy of adsorption is low
(2) More easily liquifiable gases are adsorbed (2) It is due to weak intermolecular van der Waal
readily forces
(3) Under high pressure it results into (3) It forms unimolecular layer on adsorbent only
multimolecular layer on adsorbent surface (4) It is reversible in nature
(4) Enthalpy of adsorption (H) is low and positive 34. The gas adsorbed to maximum extent by charcoal
at a given temperature will be :
x
30. A plot of log vs log P for the adsorption of a gas (1) He (2) NH3
m
on a solid gives a straight line with slope equal to (3) CO2 (4) CH4

  

(3)
Surface Chemistry Aakash Institute

CPP-05
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (2) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (3) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (2) 9. (1) 10. (3) 11. (2) 12. (1) 13. (2) 14. (1)

15. (2) 16. (2) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (4)

22. (2) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (4) 27. (2) 28. (3)

29. (4) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (2) 33. (3) 34. (2)

  

(4)
 CPP-05
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Botany
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
1. Evaluation and commercialisation of new cultivar is 8. Which one is not a step for testing, evaluation and
done under the guidance of commercialisation of new cultivar ?
(1) ICAR (2) NSC (1) Growing the new cultivars in research fields
(3) NTPC (4) Both 1 and 3 (2) Growing the crop in farmers field for 3 generations
2. Lysine-rich maize variety developed in India is/are (3) The crop should be grown in farmers field at
given below, except different agroclimatic zones of the country
(1) Protina (2) Shakti (4) Cultivation with desi varieties

(3) Rattan (4) Himgiri 9. W hich features of dwarf variety of wheat were
chosen by Borlaug and Swaminathan ?
3. Find the mismatched pair with respect to crops
developed by hybridisation and selection for insect (1) High yield
resistance (2) Resistance to lodging
(1) Pusa Gaurav – Aphids (3) Resistance to common pathogens and pests
(2) Pusa Swarnim – White rust (4) All of these
(3) Pusa Sawani – Fruit borers 10. Which one is not from an interspecific hybridisation?

(4) Pusa Sem-2 – Jassids and aphids (1) ADT - 37 (2) Triticale

4. Embryo culture helps in all except (3) Pomato (4) Both (2) and (3)

(1) Embryo rescue 11. Match the columns and choose the correct option
with respect to origin of semi dwarf variety of rice
(2) Seedling development
Column I Column II
(3) Multiplication of rare plants (a) IR – 8 (i) India
(4) Mutation (b) Taichung native - I (ii) Phillipines
5. In which case embryo culture is useful ? (c) Ratna (iii) Taiwan
(1) Orchids (2) Rice (1) (a)-(i), (b)-(ii) (c)-(iii)
(3) Maize (4) Tobacco (2) (a)-(iii), (b)-(ii) (c)-(i)
6. Pure line individuals are (3) (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii) (c)-(i)
(1) Heterozygous (4) (a)-(iii), (b)-(i) (c)-(ii)
(2) The results of continued self pollination 12. Plant disease depends upon the interaction of
(3) Homozygous or heterozygous (1) Host genotype (2) Pathogen genotype

(4) The results of continued cross pollination (3) Environment (4) All of these

7. Uses of androgenic haploid are given below except 13. The gene for resistance to yellow mosaic virus was
obtained from a variety of lady’s finger called
(1) Maintenance of pure line
(1) Abelmoschus esculentus
(2) Useful in mutation breeding
(2) Abelmoschus manihotland
(3) Seedless varieties production
(3) Pusa sawani
(4) Genetic diversity
(4) Parbhani kranti

(1)
(1)
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Aakash Institute
14. The multicellular eukaryotic organism which 22. Breeding of crops with high levels of minerals,
produces SCP is vitamins and protein is called
(1) Spirulina (2) Chlorella (1) Micropropagation (2) Biofortification
(3) Fusarium (4) Yeast (3) Biomagnification (4) Protoplasts culture
15. W hich winter variety of rice is the outcome of 23. Virus free plants can be obtained from
haploid culture ?
(1) Bordeaux mixture (2) antiviral treatment
(1) Taichung (2) Guan-18
(3) Root hair (4) Shoot tip
(3) Jaya (4) Ratna
24. Which of the following is not a fungal disease?
16. During the period 1960 to 2000, wheat production
(1) Rust of wheat (2) Smut of Bajra
increased from 11 million tonnes to
(1) 20 million tonnes (2) 30 million tonnes (3) Black rot of crucifers (4) Red rot of Sugarcane

(3) 75 million tonnes (4) 45 million tonnes 25. Gynogenic haploids are produced by

17. In plant breeding programme, the entire collection (1) Fertilized ovule (2) Somatic embryo
of plants having diverse alleles for all the genes in (3) Unfertilized ovule (4) Shoot apex
a crop is called 26. In mungbean, resistance to yellow mosaic virus and
(1) Selection of superior recombinants powdery mildew were introduced by
(2) Germplasm collection (1) Tissue culture (2) Mutation breeding

(3) Cross hybridization among selected parents (3) Selection (4) Hybridisation

(4) Evaluation and selection of parents 27. Select incorrect option w.r.t. tissue culture

18. Emasculation is removal of (1) Genetically identical cell – Somaclones

(1) Stigma from male flowers produced from somatic cell

(2) Capacity to regenerate – Totipotency
(2) Anther from Bisexual flowers
whole plant from a
(3) Corolla from female flower
single cell
(4) Calyx from male flower
(3) Virus free plant – Root apical
19. IR – 8 variety belongs to
meristem
(1) Rice (2) Wheat culture only
(3) Maize (4) Rye (4) Plant cell without cell wall – Protoplast
20. W hich of the following induces fusion of 28. The new varieties of plants are produced by
protoplasts? (1) Selection and Introduction
(1) IAA and gibberelins (2) Introduction and Mutation
(2) Polyethylene glycol and sodium nitrate (3) Selection and Hybridization
(3) IAA and Kinetin (4) Mutation and Selection
(4) NaCl and KCl 29. Cross between two species of same genus is
21. Match the Column I and Column II
(1) Intraspecific hybridization
Column II Column II
(2) Intervarietal hybridization
(a) Sonalika (i) Brassica
(3) Interspecific hybridization
(b) Prabhani Kranti (ii) Wheat
(4) Intergeneric hybridization
(c) Pusa Komal (iii) Bhindi
30. Which of following is not true for inbreeding?
(d) Pusa Gaurav (iv) Cowpea
(1) It leads to homozygosity
(1) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iii), (c)–(iv), (d)–(i)
(2) It causes inbreeding depression after few
(2) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c)–(iii), d–(i)
generations
(3) (a)–(i), (b)–(ii), (c)–(iii), (d)–(iv) (3) It always increases productivity
(4) (a)–(ii), (b)–(iv), (c) –(i), d–(ii) (4) It is used to produce pure-line
(2)
Aakash Institute Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
31. Select correct statement with respect to 40. Cereals and millets are mainly deficient in
Saccharum barberi (1) Sulphur containing amino acids methionine and
(1) It has high sugar content cysteine

(2) Originally grown in north India (2) Lysine

(3) It has high yield per unit area (3) Tryptophan

(4) Presence of thicker stem (4) Both (2) and (3)

32. In order to obtain virus free plants through tissue 41. Gene responsible for dwarfing in wheat is
culture best method is (1) Norin-10 (2) dee-geo-woo-gen
(1) Protoplast culture (2) Embryo rescue (3) cry gene (4) nif gene

(3) Meristem culture (4) Anther culture 42. ‘Pomato’ is an example of

33. Plant part used for tissue culture is sterilized by (1) Somatic hybridization

(1) Clorox chemical (2) Heat (2) Mutation breeding

(3) Parasexual hybridization
(3) UV rays (4) Autoclave
(4) More than one option is correct
34. Somaclones are obtained by
43. Arrange the following steps required for developing
(1) Plant breeding (2) Tissue culture new varieties of a crop in proper sequence / order
(3) Irradiation (4) Genetic engineering (i) Evaluation and selection of parents
35. _____ is the root of any plant breeding programme. (ii) Collection of variability
(1) Mutation (iii) Cross hybridization of selected parents
(2) Cross-hybridisation (iv) Testing, release and commercialization of new
cultivar
(3) Genetic variability
(v) Selection and testing of superior recombinants
(4) Testing and commercialization
(1) (i)  (ii)  (iv)  (iii)  (v)
36. Maize is rich in
(2) (ii)  (i)  (iii)  (v)  (iv)
(1) Thiamine (2) Lysine
(3) (ii)  (iii)  (i)  (iv)  (v)
(3) Tyrosine (4) Alanine
(4) (ii)  (i)  (iv)  (iii)  (v)
37. Perfect homozygous individuals are produced by
44. The gene responsible for dwarfing in rice is __(A)__
(1) Meristem culture and introduced in varieties like __(B)__ and __(C)__
(2) Anther culture of __(D)_.

(3) Protoplast culture A B C D

(4) Somatic hybridisation (1) Dee-geo- IR8 Ratna Wheat

38. Find odd one w.r.t green manure woo-gen

(1) Melliotus (2) Norin -10 Sonora-64 Lerma Rojo-64 Wheat

(2) Crotolaria (3) Dee-geo- IR8 IR-24 Rice

(3) Jatropha woo-gen

(4) More than one option is correct (4) Norin -10 Sonora-64 IR-24 Rice

39. Atlas 66 is 45. Find the incorrect match

(1) Maize variety (i) Shakti - Maize

(2) Wheat variety with high protein content (2) Sonalika - Wheat

(3) Brassica with insect resistance (3) Pusa Gaurav - Brassica

(4) Ricevarichy with abundant iron content (4) Kalyan sona - Rice

(3)
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Aakash Institute
46. Find the odd one out with respect to causal agent (1) 11, 75 (2) 35, 75
from the following enlisted disease of crop plant?
(3) 35, 89.5 (4) 11, 89.5
(1) Yellow rust of wheat 53. Sonora - 64 and Lerma Rojo - 64 were brought to
(2) Red rot of sugarcane India from Mexico and modified thorugh

(3) Rice blight disease (1) UV rays (2) X-Rays

(3) -Rays (4) -rays
(4) Late blight of potato
54. Cereals and millets are mainly deficient in which
47. Parbhani Kranti which is resistant to yellow mosaic amino acids ?
virus is formed due to
(1) Methionine (2) Lysine
(1) Conventional breeding
(3) Tryptophan (4) Both (2) and (3)
(2) Mutation breeding
55. Tropical canes of South India belonged to
(3) Plant tissue culture Saccharum officinarum had
(4) Somatic hybridisation (1) Poor sugar content (2) Thick stem

48. Find the incorrect statement from the following (3) Thin stem (4) Poor yield
w.r.t. plant breeding to improve nutritional quality of 56. Which one is not related with parasexual hybrid ?
plants
(1) Use of Pectinase (2) Use of NaNO3
(1) Protein content and quality (3) Use of PEG (4) Use of  rays
(2) Oil content and quality 57. The first and prime objective of a breeder is
(3) Carbohydrate content and quality (1) Increased yield and improved food and nutrient
quality
(4) Micronutrient and mineral content
(2) Increased tolerance to environmental stress
49. The source of single cell protein is all except (Abiotic)
(1) Methylophilus methylotrophus (3) Increased tolerance to pests
(2) Ustilago (4) Increased tolerance to weeds
(3) Fusarium graminearum 58. The entire collection having all the diverse alleles for
all genes in a given crop means
(4) Spirulina
(a) - Cultivated unimproved varieties
50. Brown rust of wheat is caused by
(b) - Improved varieties that are in cultivation
(1) Algae
(c) - Old local or desi varieties
(2) Bacteria
(d) - Lines produced by plant breeders
(3) Cyanobacteria
(e) - Wild species related to crop species
(4) Fungi How many of the above statements are correct
51. Match the column I with column II w.r.t. germplasm ?

Column I Column II (1) All are correct

(Variety) (Plant) (2) All except (c) and (d)

(3) All except (a)
(a) Jaya (i) Wheat
(4) None of these
(b) Sonalika (ii) Cowpea
59. The time consuming and tedious process amongst
(c) Pusa Komal (iii) Rice the following steps for development of a new
(1) (a) - (i), (b) - (ii), (c) - (iii) variety is

(2) (a) - (i), (b) - (iii), (c) - (ii) (1) Collection of germplasm
(2) Evaluation and selection of parents
(3) (a) - (ii), (b) - (iii), (c) - (i)
(3) Cross hybridization of selected parents
(4) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (ii)
(4) Testing, release and commercialisation of new
52. During 1960 to 2000 wheat production increase cultivars
from _______ million tonnes to _______ million
tonnes
(4)
Aakash Institute Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production
60. Find the mismatched pair from the following 65. Plantlets from tissue culture while transferring to
field goes to the process of __A__ during which
(1) Kalyan sona - wheat
plant lets are kept under __B__ and __C__
(2) Taichung-Native 1 - semi dwarf rice variety
A B C
(3) Rattan - Maize
(1) Subculturing Low humidity High light
(4) Noble sugarcane - Saccharum barberi
intensity
61. The optimum pH of culture medium for plant tissue
(2) Hardening Low light Low humidity
culture is about
(3) Hardening, Reduced light High humidity
(1) 4.2 (2) 5.7
(4) Hardening High temperature High humidity
(3) 3.5 (4) 8.2
66. Which variety of chilli is resistant to chilli mosaic
62. W heat with solid stem is resistant to ___A___
virus ?
while cotton with absence of nectar is resistant to
__B__. (1) Pusa Shubhra (2) Himgiri
Select the correct option for the blank spaces (3) Pusa Swarnim (4) Pusa Sadabahar
above.
67. Somaclones
(1) Leaf beetle and Saw fly
(1) Are somatic clones
(2) Stem saw fly and Bollworm
(2) Produced in tissue culture
(3) Jassid and Bollworm
(3) Are genetically identical
(4) Stem borer and Saw fly
(4) More than one option is correct
63. Hidden hunger of people means the diet is deficient
68. Atlas 66
in
(1) Is a variety of wheat
(1) Proteins and vitamins
(2) Possess high protein content
(2) Micronutrients
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(3) Carbohydrates
(4) Is fortified with iron
(4) More than one options are correct
69. Plant hormones frequentely used in plant tissue
64. Pusa Gaurav variety of rapeseed is resistant to
culture technique are/is
which insect pest ?
(1) 2, 4–D (2) BAP
(1) Aphids
(3) GA 3 (4) Both (1) and (2)
(2) All dipterans
70. The vitamin whose content increases following the
(3) Shoot borer
conversion of milk into curd by lactic acid bacteria
(4) Fruit borer is
(1) Vitamin C (2) Vitamin D
(3) Vitamin B12 (4) Vitamin E



(5)
Strategies for Enhancement in Food Production Aakash Institute

CPP-05
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (4) 3. (2) 4. (4) 5. (1) 6. (2) 7. (4)

8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (4) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (3)

15. (2) 16. (3) 17. (2) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (2) 21. (1)

22. (2) 23. (4) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (2) 27. (3) 28. (3)

29. (3) 30. (3) 31. (2) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (3)

36. (1) 37. (2) 38. (3) 39. (2) 40. (4) 41. (1) 42. (4)

43. (2) 44. (3) 45. (4) 46. (3) 47. (1) 48. (3) 49. (2)

50. (4) 51. (4) 52. (1) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (2) 56. (4)

57. (1) 58. (3) 59. (3) 60. (4) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (4)

64. (1) 65. (3) 66. (4) 67. (4) 68. (3) 69. (4) 70. (3)



(6)
 CPP-05
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Zoology
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Human Health and Diseases

1. Which one is called secretory antibody ? 7. Cancer cells are more easily damaged by radiation
than normal cells because they
(1) IgG (2) IgA
(1) Undergo rapid division
(3) IgM (4) IgD
(2) Are different in structure
2. Interferon and interleukin are included under
(3) Are non-dividing
(1) Physical barrier
(4) Show contact inhibition
(2) Physiological barrier
8. The following diagrams represented as A, B, C are
(3) Cellular barrier
three different types of plant. Which one of these is
(4) Cytokine barrier correctly identified in the options given along with
its correct drug and function ?
3. How many of the following is/are exception to
Koch’s postulates ?
(a) Viruses (b) Treponema
(c) Mycobacterium leprae
(1) None (2) One
(3) Two (4) Three
A B C
4. _________ is white, odourless, crystalline
compound extracted from latex of poppy plant also
known as smack or diacetylmorphine
Plant Drug Function
(1) Morphine (2) Heroin 1 A Papaver Morphine Stimulant
(3) Cocaine (4) Barbiturate 2 B Cannab is Heroin Depressant
5. Select the mismatched pair 3 C Datura Marijuana Hallucinogen
4 A Papaver Heroin Depressant
Name of the 9. Infective stage of Plasmodium for human and
Plant Plant part Drugs obtain mosquito are respectively
Erythroxylum Leaves and young
1 Cocaine (1) Sporozoites and gametocytes
coca twigs
Claviceps Lysergic Acid (2) Gametocytes and sporozoites
2 Fruiting bodies
purpurea Diethylamide (3) Gametocytes and trophozoites
Cannab is Leaves, resin and Charas, Ganja,
3 (4) Sporozoites and merozoites
sativa inflorescence Hashish
Papaver 10. Which of the following cells is mainly responsible for
4
somniferum Seed of plant Amphetamines graft rejection ?
6. IgA antibodies acquired from mother through (1) N K Cells (2) Cytotoxic T cell
colostrum is an example of
(3) Helper T cells (4) Plasma Cells
(1) Natural active acquired immunity
11. Biological response modifier is
(2) Artificial active acquired immunity
(1) Interleukin (2) Pyrogen
(3) Natural passive acquired immunity
(3) Interferons (4) Opsonin
(4) Artificial passive acquired immunity

(1)
Human Health and Diseases Aakash Institute
12. Antibodies are 22. A person suffering from Hay fever will have higher
(1) Serum albumin amount of
(1) IgG (2) IgD
(2) Serum alpha globulin
(3) IgE (4) IgM
(3) Serum beta globulin
23. How many of the following antibodies have ‘J’ chain?
(4) Serum gamma globulin
IgG, IgM, IgA, IgD, IgE
13. Paratope is made by
(1) One (2) Two
(1) Constant regions of heavy and light chains
(3) Three (4) Four
(2) Constant region of heavy and variable region of
24. Match the following and choose the correct option
light chain
(i) IgM with ‘J’ chain a) Pentamer
(3) Variable regions of heavy and light chains
(ii) IgA b) BCR (B Cell Receptor)
(4) Variable region of heavy chain and constant region
iii) IgD c) Produces antibodies
of light chain
iv) Plasma cell d) Present in external
14. Which of the following has 4 paratopes ? secretion
(1) IgG (2) IgD (1) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(d), (iv)-(b)
(3) IgM (4) Secretory IgA (2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(a)
15. Immunity provided by antivenom is the example of (3) (i)-(a), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(c)
(1) Natural active immunity (4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(d)
(2) Natural passive immunity 25. A person infected with HIV starts showing
symptoms of AIDS when
(3) Artificial active immunity
(1) HIV enters host cells
(4) Artificial passive immunity
(2) One month elapses after sexual contact with
16. Antibody structure is represented by infected person
(1) H2L3 (2) H3L1 (3) HIV leads to destruction of large number of TH
cells
(3) H2L2 (4) H1L3
(4) HIV produces cDNA that is inserted in host
17. Find the odd one genome
(1) Thymus (2) GALT 26. Schuffner’s dots are produced during
(3) Lymph nodes (4) Spleen (1) Exo erythrocytic cycle
18. Which protein of HIV binds with CD4 receptor site ? (2) Pre erythrocytic cycle

(1) GP120 (2) GP41 (3) Erythrocytic cycle

(3) P17 (4) P24 (4) Post erythrocytic cycle

27. Which of the following stage of plasmodium will not
19. First and most commonly used drug to treat AIDS is
be seen in human ?
(1) Retrovir (2) Stavudine (1) Trophozoite (2) Signet ring stage
(3) Dideoxycytidine (4) Dideoxyinosine (3) Gametocytes (4) Ookinetes
20. Most commonly occuring cancer is 28. If duration of erythrocytic schizogony is 72 hrs then
fever should occur on every
(1) Carcinomas (2) Sarcomas
(1) 3rd day (2) 4th day
(3) Adenomas (4) Leukaemias
(3) 2nd day (4) 5th day
21. Which of the following is not the feature of Cancerous
cells ? 29. Which of the following is the confirmatory test for
TB ?
(1) Metastasis
(1) Torniquet test
(2) Lack of contact inhibition (2) Mantoux test
(3) Uncontrolled division (3) Wassermann test
(4) Metagenesis (4) Wayson stain test

(2)
Aakash Institute Human Health and Diseases
30. Infective stage and pathogenic stage of E. 34. The ATS is an example of
histolytica are respectively
(1) Artificially acquired active immunity
(1) Trophic form, quadrinucleate form
(2) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(2) Tetranucleate form, magna form
(3) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(3) Binucleate form, magna form
(4) Specific natural immunity
(4) Magna form, binucleate form
35. Choose the correct combination
31. Humoral and cell mediated immunities are
Disease Causative Mode of infection
performed respectively by
organism
(1) B-cell and T-cell (1) Malaria Plasmodium Bite of male
(2) T-cell and B-cell vivax Anopheles
mosquito
(3) T-cell and Macrophage
(2) Typhoid Salmonella With inspired air
(4) B-cell and Macrophage typhi
32. Identify A,B,C,D and E in the below given diagram (3) Pneumonia Streptococcus Droplet infection
of HIV pneumoniae
(4) Elephantiasis Wuchereria With infected
bancrofti water and food
36. Which of the following statements is correct with
respect to immunity ?
(1) Antibodies are protein molecules, each of which
has four light chains
(2) Rejection of a kidney graft is the function of B-
lymphocytes
(1) A - RNA, B - Reverse transcriptase,
C - Capsule protein P-17, D - Lipid membrane, (3) Preformed antibodies need to be injected to treat
E - Envelop protein GP-41 the bite by a viper snake
(2) A - RNA, B - Reverse transcriptase, C - Lipid (4) The antibodies against small pox pathogen are
membrane, D - Envelop protein GP-120, produced by T-lymphocytes
E - Capsule protein P - 17
37. The drug AZT functions by
(3) A - Reverse transcriptase, B - Lipid membrane,
(1) Blocking the production of envelop protein
C - RNA, D - Capsule protein P-24, E - Envelop
protein GP-120 (2) Blocking the binding of the virus to the human
cell receptor
(4) A - RNA, B - Reverse transcriptase, C - Envelop
protein GP-41, D - Lipid membrane, E - Capsule (3) Blocking the production of capsid protein
protein P-24
(4) Inhibiting the replication of viral nucleic acid
33. Read the following sentences (A - D)
38. W hich of the following immune response is
(A) Benign tumors normally remain confined to their responsible for the graft rejection ?
original location
(1) Antibody mediated immune response
(B) Malignant tumors grow very rapidly, invading and
(2) Cell mediated immune response
damaging the surrounding normal tissue
(3) Secondary immune response
(C) Metastasis is the most feared property of
malignant tumors (4) Humoral immune response
(D) Proto-oncogene when activated under certain 39. Monoclonal antibodies are produced from hybrid
conditions, could lead to oncogenic cells, called hybridomas. The cells employed to
transformation of cells obtain these hybridoma cells are
How many of the above statements are true ? (1) B-lymphocyte and myeloma cells
(1) 3 (2) 4 (2) Lymphoma cells and bone marrow cells
(3) 2 (4) 1 (3) T-lymphocytes and myeloma cells
(4) B-lymphocytes and carcinoma cells

(3)
Human Health and Diseases Aakash Institute
40. Koch’s postulates are not applicable to 49. The treatment of snake bite by anti-venom is an
example of
(1) Small pox (2) Diptheria
(1) Artificially acquired active immunity
(3) Tuberculosis (4) Tetanus
(2) Artificially acquired passive immunity
41. Cellular barrier of innate immunity includes
(3) Naturally acquired passive immunity
(a) Certain leucocyte (b) Macrophages
(4) Specific natural immunity
(c) Natural killer cells
50. Common cold differs from penumonia in that
(1) a only (2) a and b only
(1) Pneumonia is caused by virus but common
(3) a and c only (4) a, b and c cold is caused by Haemophilus bacteria
42. W hich of the following life cycle stages of (2) Pneumonia pathogen infects alveoli but
Wuchereria bancrofti is infective to man common cold affect nose and respiratory
(1) Microfilaria (2) Ist larval stage passage but not lungs
(3) Pneumonia is non-communicable but common
(3) IInd stage (4) IIIrd larval stage
cold is communicable disease
43. W hich of the following life cycle stages of
(4) Pneumonia can be prevented by live attenuated
Plasmodium is responsible for repeated malarial
bacteria vaccine whereas common cold has no
symptoms at definite interval
effective vaccine
(1) Merozoite (2) Sporozoite
51. Which of the following viruses is not transferred
(3) Hypnozoite (4) Gametozoite through semen of infected male
44. W hich of the following diseases spreads via (1) Human Immunodeficiency Virus
housefly? (2) Chikungunya virus
(1) Dengue fever (2) Encephalitis (3) Ebola virus
(3) Filariasis (4) Typhoid (4) Hepatitis - B virus
45. Which of the following is correct statement? 52. Match the columns
(1) HIV retrovirus enters helper T-cells and reduces Column I Column-II
its number
(I) Dengue (i) Mantoux test
(2) HIV can be transmitted through sharing food with
(II) Typhoid (ii) Schick test
infected person
(III) AIDS (iii) Lepromin test
(3) Drug addicts are least susceptible to HIV
infection (IV) Tuberculosis (iv) Widal test

(4) AIDS patients can be fully cured with proper care (V) Diptheria (v) Torniquet test
and nutrition (VI) Leprosy (vi) ELISA test
46. Humoral immunity is mediated by (1) I-(v), II - (vi), III - (iv), IV - (i), V - (ii), VI - (iii)
(1) Cytotoxic T-cell (2) Plasma cells (2) I-(v), II - (iv), III - (vi), IV - (i), V - (ii), VI - (iii)
(3) Eosinophil (4) Neutrophil (3) I-(v), II - (iv), III - (vi), IV - (ii), V - (i), VI - (iii)
47. CD8 receptors are (4) I-(iv), II - (v), III - (vi), IV - (i), V - (ii), VI - (iii)
(1) MHC type I proteins 53. Thymosine released by thymus gland plays major
role in differentiation of
(2) Surface proteins of killer T-cells
(1) B-lymphocytes (2) Plasma cells
(3) MHC type II proteins
(3) T-lymphocytes (4) Effector B cells
(4) Surface antibodies of target cell
54. Which of the following is necessary for chill and
48. Which of the following is correct match
high fever recurring every 3 to 4 days in malaria?
(1) Filariasis – Taenia solium
(1) Release of sporozoites in human blood
(2) Dhobiitch – Tinea cruis
(2) Release of metacryptozoites from liver
(3) Malaria – Phlebotomus sp.
(3) Release of haemozoin during rupture of RBCs
(4) Kala azar – Anopheles stephensi
(4) Release of cryptozoites in liver

(4)
Aakash Institute Human Health and Diseases
55. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t. III. Black death is caused by Leishmania donovani
pneumonia? IV. DPT vaccine is administrated for prevention from
(1) It is caused by bacteria like Streptococcus Diphtheria only
pneumoniae and Haemophilus influenzae
Options I II III IV
(2) The bacteria infect the alveoli of the lungs
(1) F F F F
(3) In severe cases the lips and finger nails may turn
grey to bluish in colour
(2) F T T T
(3) T F F F
(4) A healthy person acquires the infection from soil
or by using towels, clothes or even comb of the (4) T T F F
infected individual
62. The predominant early antibody, the once that first
56. Perforins which cause cytolysis of microbe are activates in initial attack of antigen is 1 which
released by has 2 paratopes & whose monomers are linked
by 3 chain option:
(a) Mast cells (b) Histiocytes
(1) 1 = IgM, 2 = 4, 3 = C - chain
(c) B cells (d) Natural killer cells
(2) 1 = IgG, 2 = 10, 3 = J - chain
(1) (a), (b), (c), (d) (2) (a) & (b) (3) 1 = IgM, 2 = 10, 3 = A - chain
(3) (d) only (4) (b) & (d) (4) 1 = IgM, 2 = 10, 3 = J - chain
57. W hich of the following is incorrect w.r.t. IgM 63. Choose the correct option:
antibody? Statement A: Small pox, OPV and BCGs are first
(1) It is a pentamer with ten paratopes generation vaccines.
Statement B: Emil Von Behring is considered as fa-
(2) J chain is present
ther of Active immunization
(3) It is predominant antibody in secondary immune
(1) Statement A & B both are correct
response
(2) Statement A is incorrect but statement B is cor-
(4) It is involved in activation of B cells rect
58. Find out the incorrect match. (3) Both statements A & B are incorrect
(1) Amphetamine – Antisleep drug (4) Statement A is correct but statement B is incor-
rect
(2) Lysergic acid diethylamide – Alter thoughts,
64. Which of following graft has least chance of rejection?
feelings and perceptions
(1) Isograft (2) Autograft
(3) Heroin – Produces temporary euphoria
(3) Allograft (4) Xenograft
(4) Morphine – Increases alertness and activity
65. Consider the following statements A, B, C and D
59. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t. with certain blanks and find out the option which
drug and its source? correctly fills these blanks?
(1) Cocaine – Leaves of Erythroxylum coca A. _______ is a very effective sedative and painkiller
and is used in patients who have undergone
(2) Ganja – Dried leaves of male plants of Cannabis surgery.
sativa B. _______ is a synthetic stimulant, analogous to
(3) Belladona – Leaves and roots of Atropa adrenaline.
C. From fruiting bodies of Mexican mushroom drug
(4) Opium – Dried latex of unripe capsules of
_______ is obtained.
poppy plants, Papaver somniferum
D. _______ is a mild analgesic and ingredient of
60. All of the following are attenuated vaccines, except many medicines and cough syrup.
(1) MMR (2) Sabin vaccine (1) A – Morphine, B – Amphetamine, C – Psilocybin,
D – Codeine
(3) Salk vaccine (4) BCG vaccine
(2) A – Morphine, B – Cocaine, C – Mescaline, D –
61. Identify the statements as true (T) or false (F) Heroin
I. Aestivo-autumnal malaria is caused by P. (3) A – Morphine, B – Amphetamine, C – Mescaline,
falciparum D – Codeine
II. Causative agent of Enteric fever is Haemophilus (4) A – Cocaine, B – Morphine, C – Psilocybin, D –
influenzae Pethidine
(5)
Human Health and Diseases Aakash Institute
66. The active form of Entamoeba histolytica feeds upon (1) A and B only (1) A and F only
(1) Submucosa of colon only (3) A, B, D and E (4) A, C and D
(2) Food in intestine 73. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t
(3) Blood only IgM antibody?
(1) It has ten paratopes
(4) Erythrocytes; mucosa and submucosa of colon
(2) It has a J chain
67. Which of the following statements is correct w.r.t.
HIV / AIDS? (3) It is the earliest immunoglobulin to be synthesised
in primary response
(1) The genome of HIV consists of two identical
molecules of single stranded DNA and is said to (4) It can cross placental barrier and provides passive
be diploid immunity to foetus and new born
(2) Host cells are helper T cell and basophils 74. Select the correct match of cancer causing agents
and their targets
(3) The attachment of HIV with CD4 receptor on host
cell is with the help of GP41 on the protein coat (1) 3, 4-benzopyrene - Liver (2) DES - Lungs
of the virus
(3) Mustard gas – Skin (4) Aflatoxin – Liver
(4) HIV binds to CD4 receptor by GP120 and inserts
its nucleocapsid into the host cell 75. Cancer cells differ from normal cells as they do not

68. Opsonization is (1) Show increased telomerase activity

(1) Clumping of microorganisms together (2) Show metastasis

(2) Coating of bacterium with antibodies making them (3) Show contact inhibition
more susceptible to phagocytosis
(4) Divide uncontrollably
(3) Precipitation of soluble antigens
76. Select the correct set of diseases spread by
(4) Neutralization of bacterial toxins contaminated food and water.
69. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t. (1) Amoebiasis, Ascariasis, elephantiasis
antigen presenting cells (APCs)?
(2) Tetanus, cholera, typhoid
(1) They are special class of cells which process
and present antigens (3) Cholera, hepatitis-A, typhoid

(2) They include macrophages, B cells and dendritic (4) Ascariasis, plague, hepatitis E
cells 77. Find out the correct match w.r.t disease and its
(3) They present antigen to T cells causative agent.
(4) T cell is the most important APC (1) Small pox – Varicella zoster
70. Cocaine is obtained from the leaves of (2) Measles – Rubeola virus
plant.
(3) Diphtheria – Bordetella pertussis
(1) Theobroma cacao (2) Cannabis sativa
(4) Leprosy – Yersinia pestis
(3) Erythroxylum coca (4) Claviceps purpurea
78. Consider the following drugs given below in a box.
71. Select the correct match between column A and
How many of them are hallucinogens?
column B
Caffeine, pethidine, Charas, Mescaline, Bhang,
Column A Column B
Codeine, Heroin, Psilocybin, Ganja, Marijuana
(1) BCG vaccine Tuberculosis
(2) Rashes, scab, pock marks Dengue (1) Five (2) Six

(3) Mantoux test Tetanus (3) Seven (4) Four

(4) Spread by Xenopsylla Diphtheria 79. Lysergic acid diethylamide is obtained from
72. Names of diseases are given below. Find those (1) Latex of Papaver somniferum
which are caused due to bacterial infection (2) Inflorescence of Cannabis sativa
A - Typhoid B - Elephantiasis (3) Leaves of Erythroxylum coca
C - Cholera D - Tuberculosis (4) Fungus Claviceps purpurea
E - Parotitis F - Common cold
(6)
Aakash Institute Human Health and Diseases
80. Which of the following statement is incorrect w.r.t
Column A Column B
smack?
Clostridium Fever, rash and scab
(1) It is chemically diethyl morphine A. (i)
tetani but no scars
(2) It is a white, odourless, bitter, crystalline Neurotoxin that acts on
Mycob acterium
compound B. (ii) neuromuscular
tub erculosis
junction
(3) It is generally taken by snorting or injection
Prevented by BCG
(4) It is a depressant and slows down body functions C. Rhino virus (iii)
vaccine
81. Which of the following cells are not included in Infection of upper
D. Varicella zoster (iv)
cellular barriers? respiratory tract

(1) Neutrophils (2) Helper T cells A B C D

(3) NK cells (4) Macrophages (1) iii ii i iv
82. The short-lived antibody-secreting B-cells are called
(2) iii ii iv i
(3) ii iii i iv
(1) Plasma cells (2) Histiocytes
(4) ii iii iv i
(3) Mast cells (4) Dendritic cells
88. Match column A with column B and choose the
83. Many diseases are spread by insect vectors. One
correct option
such major vector is mosquito which spreads all of
the following diseases, except
Column A Column B
(1) Chikungunya (2) Filariasis
A. IgA (i) Largest Ig
(3) Ascariasis (4) Malaria
84. Choose the option which describes the physical
B. IgG (ii) 10 paratopes
barrier of innate immunity C. IgM (iii) Secretory Ig
(1) Acid in the stomach, saliva in the mouth, tears
from eyes prevent microbial growth (iv) Can cross placenta
(2) Mucus coating of the epithelium lining the (v) Dimeric Ig
respiratory, gastrointestinal and urinogenital tracts
help in trapping microbes entering our body (vi) Major circulatory Ig
(3) Chemical like interferons protects cells from viral (1) A - i, ii; B - iii, iv; C - v, vi
infection
(2) A - iii, v; B - iv, vi; C - i, ii
(4) Neutrophils migrating to site of pathogen attack
(3) A - iii, iv; B - v, vi; C - i, ii
85. The presence of typhoid fever in a person can be
confirmed by (4) A - i, iii, iv; B - v, vi; C - ii

(1) ELISA test (2) Widal test 89. Find the incorrect statement:

(3) Wayson-stain test (4) Schick’s test (1) HIV is retrovirus having 2 ssRNA and reverse
transcriptase
86. The opportunistic fungal infection commonly
(2) The RNA genome of HIV replicates in host forming
occurring in immunocompromised HIV positive
viral DNA that gets incorporated in host cell’s
patients is
DNA
(1) Toxoplasmosis
(3) About 85% of all tumours are carcinoma
(2) Kaposi’s sarcoma
(4) Metastasis and angiogenesis are two main
(3) Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia features of benign tumors
(4) Herpes simplex infection 90. Which of the following is given to HIV(+) pregnant
female to prevent infection in foetus ?
87. Match column A with column B and choose the
correct option (a) Zidovudine (b) Nevirapine
(c) Vinblastine
(1) a only (2) a and c
(3) b and c (4) a and b

(7)
Human Health and Diseases Aakash Institute
91. Diseases caused by viruses having dsDNA genome 97. Which of the following is an incorrect match w.r.t.
are plant part or drug and the effects produced ?
(1) AIDS and Hepatitis - B
(2) Hepatitis - B and Chicken pox
(3) Poliomyelitis and Chicken pox
(4) Chickungunia and Hepatitis - B (1) Hallucinogenic
92. W hich of the following is a second generation
vaccine ?
(1) OPV properties
(2) Cholera vaccine
(3) DNA vaccines
(4) Recombinant hepatitis-B vaccine
93. Antigen binding site is present on which terminal of (2) Alters thought, feelings
peptide chains in antibodies
(1) C-terminal
(2) N-terminal and perceptions

(3) C-terminal of light chains only

(4) Either N or C terminal
94. Match Column I and II and select the correct option (3) Relieve intense pain
Column - I Column - II
(i) Neoplasm (a) Non cancerous tumor
(ii) Benign tumor (b) Malignant tumor
(iii) Carcinomas (c) Bone cartilage cancer
(iv) Sarcomas (d) Cancers of epithelial
tissues
(1) (i) - (a), (ii) - (b), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (d)
(4) Increases alertness and
(2) (i) - (b), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (d), (iv) - (c)
(3) (i) - (b), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (c), (iv) - (d)
(4) (i) - (c), (ii) - (a), (iii) - (b), (iv) - (d) causes excitement
95. Find out the incorrect statement w.r.t. natural killer 98. Entamoeba histolytica colonises in _____ of man and
cells _____ is the infective stage
(1) They kill virus infected cells and tumour cells (1) Small intestine, uninucleate cyst
(2) They produce perforins which create pores in the
(2) Large intestine, trophozoite
plasma membrane of target cells
(3) They are produced in bone marrow and then (3) Small intestine, quadrinucleate cyst
migrate to thymus for further maturation (4) Large intestine, quadrinucleate cyst
(4) NK cells are part of innate immunity
99. W hich of the following is not a property of
96. The infective stage of Plasmodium for man is cancerous cells ?
________, while for mosquito it is ________
(1) Loss of contact inhibition
(1) Sporozoite, Gametocyte
(2) Metastasis
(2) Gametocyte, Sporozoite
(3) Absence of G0 cell stage
(3) Merozoite, Sporozoite
(4) Programmed cell death
(4) Gametocyte, Merozoite

(8)
Aakash Institute Human Health and Diseases
100. Which of the following is incorrectly matched ? 107. Read the following (a - e)
(1) Western Blot – AIDS (a) Decreased cortisol level and vasopressin

(2) Mantoux Test – TB (b) Increased RBC, WBC, platelets

(c) Fatty Liver and Hepatitis
(3) Tourniquet test – Chikungunya
(d) Incoherent speech and staggerring gait
(4) Widal test – Typhoid
(e) Decrease gastric secretion
101. Innate immunity does not include
W hich of the above is true for alcohol
(1) Interferons (2) Natural Killer Cells consumption ?
(3) Neutrophils (4) T-cells (1) (a),(b) and (c) (2) (a),(c) and (e)
102. A substance that promotes the phagocytosis of anti- (3) (c) and (d) (4) (a),(b),(c) and (d)
gens by binding to them is called 108. Read the following statements [A - E] and choose
(1) Oncogen (2) Adjuvants which are True(T) or False(F).
(3) Opsonin (4) GP120 A. Complement cascade is activated only by
Immunoglobulins
103. By exflagellation
B. Paratope belongs to Fab segment of antibody
(1) Male gametes are formed from microgametocyte
in gut of mosquito C. Anamnestic response is the secondary response
of immune system
(2) Eggs are formed from macro-gametocytes in gut
of mosquito D. Most abundant antibody is lgG
(3) Megagametocytes are formed in RBCs of human E. Injection given to snake bite victims is passive
immunisation
(4) Microgametocytes are formed in RBC of human
104. Match the columns and choose the correct answer A B C D E
Column-A Column-B (1) T T F T T
(Barriers of Innate (Components) (2) T F F T T
immunity)
(i) Physical barrier (a) B-lymphocytes (3) F T F T F

(ii) Physiological barrier (b) Neutrophils (4) F T T T T

(iii) Cellular barrier (c) Saliva 109. Choose the correct statement.
(d) Skin (1) Polio, Diphtheria, Pneumonia can be cured by
(e) Mucus epithelium of G.I. antibiotics
tract (2) Chikungunya is a bacterial infection
(f) HCl in stomach (3) Mycobacterium can cause both leprosy and TB
(1) (i)(d),(e) ; (ii)(c),(f) ; (iii)(b) (4) Chicken Pox has been eradicated from the
(2) (i)(d) ; (ii)(c),(e),(f) ; (iii)(a),(b) world
(3) (i)(d),(e) ; (ii)(c) ; (iii)(a) 110. Match the columns and choose the correct option
(4) (i)(d) ; (ii)(c),(f) ; (iii)(a),(b),(e) Column-I Column-II
105. The protein coat present just beneath the A. Helper T-cell self (i) Suppress hyper-active/
phospholipid bilayer of HIV is/are reactive killer T-cell

(1) P17 only B. Killer T-cell (ii) Stimulates specific B-cell

(2) P17 and GP41 C. Suppressor T-cell (iii) Recognise antigen in
future exposure
(3) P24 and GP120
D. Memory T-cell (iv) Releases perforins to
(4) GP41 and GP120
cause cell lysis
106. Choose the incorrect option w.r.t. drugs and their
effects A B C D
(1) Barbiturates - Sedative (1) (i) (ii) (iii) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(2) Nicotine - Decreases blood pressure
(3) (ii) (iv) (i) (iii)
(3) Amphetamine - Stimulant
(4) (i) (iv) (ii) (iii)
(4) Hashish - Hallucination
(9)
Human Health and Diseases Aakash Institute
111. Choose the correct pair w.r.t. Ig and its 118. X is a substance which provides active immunity
characteristic feature. while Y is a substance which provides artificial
passive immunity. X and Y are respectively
(1) IgD : Secretory Ab
(1) Colostrum and microbes
(2) IgM : Best opsonin
(2) OPV and Anti-Tetanus Serum
(3) IgA : Best agglutinator
(3) BCG and microbes
(4) IgG : Ab of anamnestic response
(4) Antivenom and colostrum
112. How many of the following are bacterial diseases?
119. Select the correct option w.r.t. all the three
Poliomyelitis, Rabies, Typhoid, Cholera, categories presented in the below table
Tuberculosis, Hepatitis
Secondary Antiallergic Antoimmune
(1) Three (2) Two lymphoid organ Drugs Disease
(3) Five (4) Four (1) Tonsils Cortisone Simple goitre
113. Choose the correct statement(s)
(2) Peyer's patches Aldosterone Parkinsonism
(a) Organ rejection is due to Antibody-mediated
immunity Rheumatoid
(3) Spleen Adrenaline
arthritis
(b) Cortisol can be used prior to organ transplantation Multiple
to prevent graft rejection (4) Lymph node Serotonin
sclerosis
(c) Organ transplant from monozygotic twin has high
120. Read the following statements (a - e)
success rate
(a) Most cancers are treated by combination of
(d) MHC matching is necessary for organ transplant
surgery, radiotherapy and chemotherapy
(1) (a) only (2) (a) and (c)
(b) Molecular biology techniques are being applied
(3) (b),(c) and (d) (4) (d) only to detect genes in individuals with inherited
114. AIDS is confirmed by susceptibility to certain cancers
(c)  - IFN activates immune system in tumor patients
(1) Western blot
and helps in destroying the tumor
(2) Mantoux test
(d) Chemotherapy has side effects like hair-loss and
(3) Northern blot only anemia.
(4) Wassermann test - ELISA (e) In leukaemia, there is the huge increase in the
number of leukocytes
115. Which of the following group of drugs are from
same plant origin ? How many of the above statements are correct ?
(1) Hashish, Charas, Morphine (1) 5 (2) 2
(2) Morphine, Heroin, Coke (3) 4 (4) 3

(3) Crack, Cocaine, Marijuana 121. The gamete formation of Plasmodium

(4) Ganja, Hashish, Marijuana (1) Begins in human liver and ends in human RBC

116. W hich of the following group of antibodies are (2) Begins and ends in mosquito’s stomach
involved in providing passive natural immunity to (3) Begins in human RBC and ends in mosquito’s
foetus/infants? gut
(1) gG, gM (2) gA, gG (4) Begins and ends in human RBC
(3) gA, gD (4) gG, gE 122. Mark the correct statement(s) regarding the Natural
117. Antigen-binding site of an antibody has Killer cell
a. They are a part of innate cellular barrier
(1) Variable fragment of heavy chains only
b. NK cells release have cytotoxic granules of
(2) Variable fragment of light chains only perforins and granzymes
(3) Constant fragment of both heavy and light c. NK cells are cytotoxic for tumour cells
chains d. NK cells and lymphocytes have common origin
(4) Variable fragment of both heavy and light (1) a, b, c, d (2) b, c and d only
chains
(3) a only (4) a, b only
(10)
Aakash Institute Human Health and Diseases
123. How many of the following cellular changes are 128. Choose the incorrect match with respect to the
associated with the progression from normal to drug, its source and action
malignant?
Drug Source Action
a. Increased contact inhibition
Erythroxylum
b. Starve surrounding cells 1 Cocaine Stimulant of C.N.S
coca
c. Angiogenesis Latex of Papaver Sedative and pain
2 Morphine
d. Metastasis somniferum killer
e. Increased mitotic rate Dried female
Hallucinogenic
3 Ganja inflorescence of
(1) 3 (2) 5 substances
Cannab is sativa
(3) 4 (4) 2 Produces a sense of
Acetylation of
4 Smack euphoria and
124. Active artificial immunization is induced by the morphine
administration of increased energy

A. Bacterial product B. Toxoid 129. How many of the following statements are false w.r.t
AIDS?
C. Vaccine D. Antitoxins
(a) It is an autoimmune disease
(1) A, B, C, D (2) A, B, C only
(b) Most widely used test for AIDS is ELISA
(3) B, C only (4) C only
(c) Treatment of AIDS includes AZT which are
125. Which of the following is not a pair of secondary nucleoside analogue
lymphoid organs?
(d) Individuals who have gone through repeated
(1) Peyer’s patches and appendix blood transfusion have high risk of getting AIDS
(2) Lymph nodes and spleen infection

(3) Bone marrow and thymus (1) 3 (2) 2

(4) MALT and GALT (3) 0 (4) 1

130. Read the sentences and choose the correct
126. Choose the option which states is True(T) or False
statement(s) regarding carcinogen
(F) correctly w.r.t immunoglobulin
(a) It can be physical, chemical or biological agents
A. IgA is also called secretory antibody
B. IgM is the second most abundant antibody (b) Ionizing radiations like UV rays cause DNA
damage leading to neoplastic transformation
C. Only antibody that can cross through placenta is
IgG (c) Tobacco smoke contains carcinogen which can
cause lung cancer
D. IgE forms first line of defence against ingested
and inhaled pathogen (d) Carcinogenic factors can be both internal or
external
E. J-chain is only found in IgA
(1) a, b and c only (2) a, c and d only
A B C D E
(3) b only (4) a and c only
(1) F F T T F
131. W hich of the following statements is incorrect
(2) T F T F F regarding malaria infection?
(3) T T F T T (1) The infective stage for man is sporozoite
(4) F T F F T (2) Sporozoite attacks the RBCs, resulting in their
127. AIDS is caused by HIV, a member of a group of rupture
viruses called __A__, which have an envelope (3) Fever usually appears after every 3-4 days
enclosing the __B__ genome. __C__ acts like HIV
factory. (4) Haemozoin causes shivering and high fever

Choose the correct option for A, B, C 132. Which of the following is correctly matched w.r.t.
diseases and organs affected?
A B C
(1) Filariasis – Lymph nodes
(1) Retrovirus ss DNA Macrophage
(2) Arbovirus ds RNA Helper T cell (2) Ascariasis – Large intestine
(3) Arbovirus ss DNA Helper T-cell (3) Amoebiasis – Small intestine
(4) Retrovirus ss RNA Macrophage (4) Enteric fever – Urinary bladder

(11)
Human Health and Diseases Aakash Institute
133. Select the incorrect match
Disease Causative agent
(1) Common cold – Rhino virus
(2) Typhoid – Salmonella typhi
(3) Pneumonia – Haemophilus influenzae
(4) Plague – Xenopsylla

  

(12)
Aakash Institute Human Health and Diseases

CPP-05
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (1)

8. (4) 9. (1) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (3) 14. (4)

15. (4) 16. (3) 17. (1) 18. (1) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (4)

22. (3) 23. (2) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (2)

29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (3)

36. (3) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (1) 41. (4) 42. (4)

43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (1) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (2)

50. (2) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (3)

57. (3) 58. (4) 59. (2) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (4) 63. (4)

64. (2) 65. (1) 66. (4) 67. (4) 68. (2) 69. (4) 70. (3)

71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (4) 74. (4) 75. (3) 76. (3) 77. (2)

78. (2) 79. (4) 80. (1) 81. (2) 82. (1) 83. (3) 84. (2)

85. (2) 86. (3) 87. (4) 88. (2) 89. (4) 90. (4) 91. (2)

92. (4) 93. (2) 94. (2) 95. (3) 96. (1) 97. (4) 98. (4)

99. (4) 100. (3) 101. (4) 102. (3) 103. (1) 104. (1) 105. (1)

106. (2) 107. (3) 108. (4) 109. (3) 110. (3) 111. (4) 112. (1)

113. (3) 114. (1) 115. (4) 116. (2) 117. (4) 118. (2) 119. (3)

120. (1) 121. (3) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (2) 125. (3) 126. (2)

127. (4) 128. (4) 129. (4) 130. (2) 131. (2) 132. (1) 133. (4)

  

(13)