CPP-04

ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Physics
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Moving Charges and Magnetism

1. The magnetic field at point P is (1) 1:2 (2) 2:1

(3) 4:1 (4) 1:1
a a
P 4. A square loop made of 4 identical conducting rods
each of mass m and length l carry current i.
a The loop is placed in a vertical position on a
frictionless horizontal plane. A uniform horizontal
magnetic field B0 is in the plane of the loop, then
a find the torque due to magnetic field on the loop at
this instant.
0i 0i B0
(1) (2) 
4 2a 4 2a

 0i 0i x x
(3) (4) 
8 2a 8 2a (1) Zero (2) il2B0
2. A current carrying wire carries a current of 2A along il2B0
the z-axis which is out of the page while, another (3) (4) 2il2B0
wire carrying current of 4A in the same direction lies 2
parallel to the first as shown in the figure. 5. A loop carrying current i lies in x–y plane as shown
Then around which loop linking both wires in the figure. The loop is made of 4 semicircular
 
portions. The magnetic moment of the current loop
 B.d l will be zero? is y
a

2A 4A 4A
(1) (2)
2A x
a

2A  

(3)
4A
(4) None of these (1) a2ik (2)  2  1 a2ik
3. Positive like charge of linear charge density  1 is   2    2 
(3)  1  ia k (4)   1  ia k
passed on the outer circumference of an annular  2   2 
disc, having outer radius 2R. Negative like charge of 6. A homogeneous non conducting disc of radius R
linear charge density  2 is passed on the inner carries uniform surface charge density .
circumference of the disc, having inner radius R. The The disc is rotating about an axis through its centre
disc is rotating with constant angular velocity  of mass and perpendicular to the plane with
about an axis passing through the centre of mass constant angular velocity . The magnetic dipole
and perpendicular to its plane. If the net magnetic moment is
field at the centre of the disc is 0, then the ratio 

1 + +
+ + + +
 2 is + +
 + + + + + +
+
+ +
+
+
+ – – – – ––
––– –
– – – – –– R 4  R 4 
(1) 4 (2) 2
R 2  R 2 
(3) (4)
2 4
(1)
Moving Charges and Magnetism Aakash Institute
7. Keeping all the parameters constant, the number of
turns in the coil of a moving coil galvanometer is
doubled for the sake of increment in its sensitivity.
11. Rank the magnitude of value of
 B . dl for the
closed paths shown in figure from the smallest to
Choose the correct alternative. largest
(1) Current sensitivity and voltage sensitivity both
are doubled
(2) Voltage sensitivity is doubled but current b d
sensitivity remains unchanged c 2A

(3) Current sensitivity is doubled but voltage x

2A
sensitivity remains unchanged 3A
a
(4) Current sensitivity is doubled but voltage
sensitivity is halved
8. Two charged particles having the same mass m
and charges q and –q separated by a distance d
(1) abcd (2) acdb
enter a uniform magnetic field B directed
perpendicular to the paper inward with speeds v1 (3) adcb (4) acbd
and v2 as shown. The particles will not collide if
(neglect electrostatic force between charges) 12. A particle of charge q and mass m moves in a
× × × × circular orbit of radius ‘r’ with angular speed . Its
– v1 Gyromagnetic ratio depends upon:-
d × × × × (1)  and q (2) , q and m
× × × ×
+ v2 (3) q and m (4)  and m

2m 2m 13. A proton moving with velocity v is acted upon by

(1) d   v1  v 2  (2) d   v1  v 2   
Bq qB electric field E and magnetic field B . The proton
will move undeflected with constant speed if
2m 2m
(3) d   v1  v 2  (4) d   v1  v 2  (1) E is perpendicular to B
Bq Bq
9. A charged particle moves in a gravity-free space (2) E is parallel to v and perpendicular to B
 
without change in velocity. If E and B representss (3) E, B and v are mutually perpendicular and
the electric and magnetic field respectively, this
region may have E
v
  B
(1) E = 0; B  0
  (4) E and B both parallel to v
(2) E  0; B  0
 14. A circular loop of area 0.01m2 carrying a current of

(3) E and B are inclined at 45° with each other 10A is held with its plane perpendicular to a
(4) Both (1) and (2) magnetic field of intensity 0.1T. The torque acting
on the loop is
10. A wire of length L0 and mass m is suspended by
a pair of springs in a magnetic field of induction B0. (1) Zero (2) 0.01 Nm
The magnitude and direction of the current required
to remove the tension in the supporting springs is (3) 0.001 Nm (4) 0.8 Nm

15. A ring of radius R with charge q uniformly

B0 × distributed over it is rotated with angular speed ‘’
around its axis. Find magnetic field at the centre of
P Q the ring:-
L0
2mg mg  o q  o q
(1) from P to Q (2) from P to Q (1) (2)
L 0B 0 L 0B 0 2r 2r

2mg mg
(3) from Q to P (4) from Q to P  o q  o q
L 0B 0 L 0B 0 (3) (4)
4r 4r
(2)
Aakash Institute Moving Charges and Magnetism
16. Figure shows a straight wire of length  carrying a 21. If a uniformly charged non-conducting spherical
current i. The magnitude of magnetic field produced body is rotating with angular velocity  the charge
by the current at point P is and mass of body are q and m respectively, then
the magnetic moment is

P 1 2 2 2
(1) qr  (2) qr 
5 5
1 2 2 2
(3) qr  (4) qr 
3 3
20i  0i
(1) (2) 22. A circular loop of radius R is kept in a uniform
l 4 l magnetic field pointing perpendicular to plane of
0i figure when the current  flows in loop the tension
20i
(3) (4) produced in the loop is
8 l 2 2l
× × × × ×
 q × × × × ×
17. A charged particle of specific charge     is
 m × × × R× ×
released from origin at t=0 with velocity
× × × × ×
  
  × × × × ×
v  v 0  i  j  in uniform magnetic field B  B0 i .
 
BIR
 (1) BIR (2)
Coordinates of particle at time t  are 2
B0 
(3) 2BIR (4) Zero

 v0 23. Figure shows, in cross section, several conductors

2v 0  v 0   v 0 
(1)  2B  , B , B   (2)  ,0,0  that carry currents through the plane of figure. The
 0 0 0   2B0   currents have magnitude I1 = 4.0A, I2 = 2.0A and
I3 = 2.0A in direction shown in figure. Find the
 2v 0 v 0    v 0  2v 0   
(3)  0, ,  (4)  ,0,  value of line integral  B  d l along the given loop
 B0  2B0    B0  B0  

18. A solenoid 50cm long has 4 layers of winding of

350 turns each. If the current is 6A then magnetic
× I1
field at the centre of solenoid is I3
(1) 5.3×10–3 T (2) 2.1×10–2 T I2
(3) 3.1×10–4 T (4) 4.1×10–2 T
(1) –5×10–6Tm (2) 2.5×10–6Tm
19. If the electric field and if magnetic field are mutually (3) 0 (4) 5×10–6Tm
perpendicular to each other, then a charged particle
24. A current i flows through a closed loop as shown
would move undeflected if
in the figure. If the part abc is a circular arc of
E B radius R and the part ac is a straight wire, then the
(1) |v| = (2) |v| = magnetic field at the centre O is
B E
(3) |v|=BE (4) |v|=B2E
b
(Here charge particle is moving perpendicular to
both E and B)
20. If the uniform magnetic field exist in a region O
towards north direction then the direction of force R
acting on positively charged particle projected along 2
east direction is a c
(1) Vertically upward  0i  0i
(1)
2R
 tan    (2)
R
     tan 
(2) Vertically downward
(3) Towards south  0i  0i
(4) Towards west
(3)
2R
     tan  (4)
2R
     tan 
(3)
Moving Charges and Magnetism Aakash Institute
25. Consider six wires coming into or out of the page, 28. The magnitude of magnetic moment of a
all with the same current. Rank the line intergral of rectangular loop ABCD (Fig 1) carrying a current i
the magnetic field (from most positive to most is M. EF is the perpendicular bisector of side AB
negative) taken counter clockwise around each loop and DC. If the loop is folded about EF (Fig 2) to
shown in the figure convert it into two mutually perpendicular planes
AFED and ECBF, then the magnitude of new
× magnetic moment will be

×
× A
A B
loop A
F B
loop B loop D  F
loop C D
E
D C
(1) A > B > C > D (2) B > A > C = D (Fig 1) C
E
(3) B > C = D > A (4) C > B = D > A
(Fig 2)

26. Two coaxial circular loops 1 and 2, which form (1) M

same semi vertical angle  at point O. Same
charges are uniformly distributed along the
M
circumference of both the loops. The loops are (2)
rotating with same angular velocity in same direction 2
about their axis through centre of mass and
perpendicular to their plane. If B 1 and B 2 are M
magnetic field due to the loops 1 and 2 respectively, (3)
then 2
+
  +
+ (4) 2M
+ + +
2 + + +
+ + 29. A homogeneous non conducting rod RS rotates
O + +1 +
+ + 2 about an axis passing through O and perpendicular
x to its length. The length of OR and OS are
++
2x respectively a and b. Charges Q and –2Q are
uniformly distributed on OR and OS respectively. If
B1 B1 1 the magnetic moment is zero, then the relation
(1) 2 (2) 
B2 B2 2 between a and b is

B1 B1
(3) 8 (4) 4 S ––––––– + ++++++++ R
B2 B2 O 
b a
27. A rectangular loop PQRS made from a uniform wire
has length a and breadth b and mass m. It is free
to rotate about the arm PQ, which is hinged about (1) a  2 b
the horizontal axis (y–axis). A uniform magnetic field

B0 i exists in the region. If the loop remains in (2) b  2 a
horizontal position in equilibrium, then the
(3) a = b
magnitude of current in loop is (PQ = SR = b, SP
= QR = a) (4) a = 2b
z
30. A moving coil galvanometer shows deflection of 100
gravity divisions when 20mA current is passed through it.
P Q y If the resistance of the galvanometer coil is 50,
find the voltage sensitivity of galvanometer
x S
R
(1) 0.1 division/mV
mg mg
(1) (2) (2) 5 division/mV
3B0 a 6B0 a

mg mg (3) 3 division/mV
(3) (4)
2B0 b 6B0 b (4) 10 division/mV
(4)
Aakash Institute Moving Charges and Magnetism
31. A charged particle of charge q and mass m moving 34. Following graphs show the variation of magnetic
along positive x-direction with a velocity v enters a field due to a infinitely long solid straight current
region where there is a uniform magnetic field carrying wire of radius of cross section R, with
distance ‘r’ from the central axis. Which of these is
  correct ? Assume that current density is uniform.
B0   k  , from x=0 to x=d. The particle gets
  R
deflected through an angle  from its initial path.
The specific charge of the particle is B B

(1) (2)
× × r=R r r=R r

B B
× ×
v  mv  (3) (4)
x=0 x=d   
 qB 
r=R r r=R r
35. A triangular current carrying wire loop with current
i is placed in a uniform and transverse magnetic
v cos  v sin  field as shown in the figure
(1) (2)
Bd Bd
C
u tan  u × ×
(3) (4) × 120°
Bd Bd

32. If a charged particle goes unaccelerated in a region


containing non-zero electric and magnetic field, then × × 30° ×B
30°
A D
 
(1) E must be perpendicular to B and velocity If the magnetic force on the sides AC, CD and DA
  
respectively have a magnitude of F1, F 2 and F3
( v ) must be along E B then –


F3
 
(1) F1 =
(2) E must be perpendicular to B and v and 3
   
must be along v × B (2) F1 and F2 have an angle of 120° between them

     (3) F2 = 3 F3
(3) E is parallel to B and v must be along B E
(4) All of these

     36. A region contains uniform electric field E in the
(4) E is parallel to B and v is along E B
positive y-direction. A charge ‘q’ projected along the
33. A square current carrying loop PQRS is placed in x-axis with velocity
 ‘v’ moves undeflected. Then
a uniform magnetic field which is directed along PS. magnetic field B may be -
y

If the magnetic force on QP is F , then the force
on RS is E

Q R
x

P S
  z
(1)  2 F (2) F
E E ˆ
(1) ĵ (2) (  j)
  v v
(3) 2F (4) F E ˆ E
(3) ( k) (4) k̂
v v
(5)
Moving Charges and Magnetism Aakash Institute
37. A coil of single turn is wrapped around a sphere of 40. In figure there are two concentric coils in perpendicular
radius ‘r’ and mass ‘m’. The plane of the coil is planes carrying equal currents. Magnetic field at
parallel to the inclined plane and lies in the centre is B. If current in one coil becomes zero, then
equatorial plane of the sphere. If the sphere is in magnitude of new magnetic field will be
rotational equilibrium, the value of strength of
uniform magnetic field in vertically downward
direction is : (current in the coil is I as shown in
figure)

B B
B (1) (2)
2 3

 B
(3) (4) B 2
2
41. If a beam of charged particles moving with speed 3 ×
mg 106 m/s enters normally into a region of uniform
(1)
Ir magnetic field 90 mT and specific charge of each
particle is 108 C/kg, then the radius of the circular
path described by it will be
mgsin 
(2) (1) 0.33 m (2) 0.57 m
Ir
(3) 0.82 m (4) 1.25 m
mg 42. Figure shows a uniform magnetic field B normally
(2)
Ir sin  into the paper. If the charge +q is incident on the
boundary MN at an angle 60º as shown, then the
(3) None of these deviation produced to the path of the charge, on
38. A uniformly charged ring of thickness ‘t’ and emergence is (Region of magnetic field is finite upto
surface charge density ‘’ is rotated about its axis the left boundary MN only)
with angular velocity ‘’. The magnetic field at the
centre is M
x x x x x x
 x x x x x x
x x x x x x
t  x x x x x x
+ + + + + + + + + +++ +q 60ºx x x x x x
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
x x x x x x
(1)  0 t  N

0 t (1) 60º (2) 240º

(2)
2 (3) 180º (4) 300º

(3) 20 t (4) None of these 43. When a charged particle is fired with a velocity v in

a region containing both electric field E and
39. The ratio of magnetic field at the centre of a current 
carrying circular wire of radius R and at a distance R magnetic field B , it is not deflected from its
from centre on its axis is straight line trajectory. Then
     
(1) v  E  B (2) E  v  B
(1) 2 2 (2) 2
     
(3) 2 (4) 4 (3) B  v  E (4) v  B  E

(6)
Aakash Institute Moving Charges and Magnetism
44. The graph that depicts the variation of magnetic field 49. In a toroid, the number of turns per unit length is
due to a circular loop of current placed with its
1
centre at origin in x-y plane 1000 and current through it is ampere. The
4
Bz Bz magnetic field produced inside (in Wb/m2) is
(1) 10–2 (2) 10 –3
(3) 10–4 (4) 10 –7
(1) (2)
50. A rod has a total charge Q uniformly distributed
–z +z –z O +z along its length L. If the rod rotates with angular
velocity  about its end, compute its magnetic
moment
Bz Bz
QL2 QL2
(1) (2)
6 3
(3) (4)

–z O +z –z O +z QL2 QL2
(3) (4)
4 2
45. A semicircular wire of radius r, carrying current I, is
51. The scale of a galvanometer is divided into 150
placed in a magnetic field of magnitude B. The
equal divisions. The galvanometer has the current
force acting on it
sensitivity of 10 divisions per mA and voltage
(1) Can never be zero sensitivity of 2 division per mV. Find the resistance
of the galvanometer.
(2) Can have maximum magnitude 2BIr
(1) 5 (2) 50
(3) Can have the maximum magnitude BIr
(3) 5000 (4) 500
(4) Can have the maximum magnitude BIr
46. A rectangular loop of sides 20 cm and 10 cm 
carries a current of 5.0A. A uniform magnetic field 52. Calculate the value of Magnetic field  B  due to a
of magnitude 2T exists parallel to the longer side of
 
the loop. The torque acting on the loop is current carrying conductor at a location shown in
the figure.
(1) 0.2 Nm (2) 0.3 Nm
(3) 2 Nm (4) 3 Nm
47. A non conducting ring of radius r and mass m has i
a total charge q distributed uniformly on it. The ring
is rotated about its axis with angular speed . Find
the magnetic field at the centre

0q
(1)
4 r 60°
45°
20 q a P
(2)
r
0 q  i  3
(3)

0 1 
2 r (1) B  4a  2  
 2 
0 q
(4)
r 
0  i  3 1 
(2) B  2a  2  
48. If two straight current carrying wires are kept  2 
perpendicular to each other almost touching, then
the wires

0  i  3 1 
(1) Attract each other (3) B  4a  2  
 2 
(2) Repel each other
(3) Remain stationary   i  3 1 
(4) B  0   
(4) Become parallel to each other 2a  2 2 

(7)
Moving Charges and Magnetism Aakash Institute
53. The value of Magnetic field at the end of a very long 57. Magnetic field in a region is given by
solenoid carrying a current i will be (n is the 
number of turns per unit length) B  B0 ˆi  2B0 ˆj . Find torque on the loop shown in
figure.
0ni
(1) 0ni (2)
2

0ni
(3) (4) Zero
4
54. A long cylindrical conductor of radius R carries a
current i as shown in figure. The current density ĵ
is a function of distance from the axis (r) according
to j = br where b is a constant. Find an
expression of the magnetic field B at a distance
r2 > R measured from the axis
[Each wire segment is of length L]
i
r2 R (1) iL2B0Kˆ (2) iL2B0Kˆ

(3) 2iL2B0Kˆ (4) 2iL2B0Kˆ

0 br2 2 0bR3
(1) (2) 58. An alpha particle and a proton are projected
3 3 r2 normally into uniform magnetic field with same
kinetic energy. Radii of their path is
0bR2
(3) (4) 0br22 (1) 1 : 1 (2) 1 : 2
3
55. A beam of protons with a velocity of 4×10 5 m/s (3) 2 : 1 (4) 2 2 : 1
enters a uniform magnetic field of 0.3T. The velocity
59. A flexible wire loop carrying a current I is placed in
makes an angle of 60° with the magnetic field. The 
pitch of the helical path taken by the proton beam a uniform magnetic field B at an instant as shown
is in figure
(1) 44 cm (2) 4.4 cm
(3) 88 cm (4) 8.8 cm
I
56. A negatively charged particle (mass  m, charge
 q) is thrown with speed v along x-axis in a
region of uniform magnetic field B directed along
positive z-axis. If thickness of the region is B

 mv 
d   , find angular deviation in path of the
 qB 
particle as it comes out of the magnetic field.

Which of the following is correct at equilibrium?

(1) Shape of loop remains unchanged and its plane

becomes parallel to B
(2) Shape of loop remains unchanged and its plane
v 
becomes normal to B
d
(3) Shape of the loop becomes circular and its plane
 dqB  
 dqB 
(1)   sin   (2)   sin  
becomes parallel to magnetic field B
 mv   2mv 
(4) Shape of the loop becomes circular and its plane
 dqB   dqB  
(3)   sin   (4)   tan   becomes normal to magnetic field B
 mv 2   mv 
(8)
Aakash Institute Moving Charges and Magnetism
60. The magnetic field at the point O in the given figure 63. A proton moving with constant velocity passes
is through a region without any change in its velocity.
If E and B denote electric and magnetic field
respectively, this region must not have
B
(1) E = 0, B = 0 (2) E  0, B  0
(3) E = 0, B  0 (4) E  0, B = 0
I
64. An electric current of I ampere is flowing in a long
A conductor as shown in figure. The magnetic field at
the centre of coil is

60°
30°
a O
I
r I
0 I
(1) ( 3  1) I
8a

0 I I
(2) ( 3  1)
8a

0 I
(3) ( 3  1)
4a  0I  1   0I  1
(1) 1 (2) 1 
(4) Zero
2r  2 
 2r   

61. A very long thin strip of metal of width ‘b’ carries a

current ‘I’ along its length as shown. Find the 0I
magnitude of magnetic field in the plane of the strip (3) (4) Zero
2r
at a distance ‘a’ from the edge, nearest to the
point. 65. A square of side 10 m is placed in a magnetic field
of 0.2T. The maximum torque on it when a current
of 10–3A is passed through it, is
I
(1) 2 × 10–2 Nm (2) 2 Nm
b a (3) 2 × 102 Nm (4) Zero
P
66. A hollow conducting pipe of radius 15 cm, is
carrying current of 2 A. Magnetic field due to this
hollow conductor is zero at a distance x from the
axis of conductor. Then x may be
 0 2I  b  (1) 10 cm (2) 16 cm
(1) B  . ln 1 
4 b  a 
(3) 20 cm (4) 15.6 cm
 0 2I  a  67. Magnetic field induction at the centre of the regular
(2) B  . ln 1 
4 b  b  hexagon coil in the given figure is (every arm has
resistance equal to R)
 0 2I  b 
(3) B  . ln 1 
4 a  a 
r

 0 2I  a  I
(4) B  . ln 1 
4 a  b  I

62. A particle of mass m and charge q having kinetic

energy K enters a stationary magnetic field. After
3s its kinetic energy is 0 I 0 I
(1) 6 3 (2) 3 3
(1) 9 K (2) K 4 r 4 r

K 0 I
(3) 3 K (4) (3) Zero (4)
3 4r
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Moving Charges and Magnetism Aakash Institute
 72. In a moving coil galvanometer, identify the incorrect
68. Ampere circuital law is given by B.dl  l
0 inside option
for a closed loop. Now choose the correct
(1) We obtain a non-linear scale since i  tan 
alternative
(2) Increasing the number of turns increases the
(1) Magnetic field is due to all the current element
voltage sensitivity proportionally
inside as well as outside the loop
(3) The magnetic torque on the coil is proportional
(2) Magnetic field is only due to the current
to cot where  is the deflection in the coil
element outside the loop
(4) All of these
(3) Magnetic field is only due to the current
element inside the loop 73. The magnetic field in a toroid of 600 turns, current
of 0.76A and central line radius = 0.50m is
(4) Magnetic field is only due to the current
element passing through the loop (1) 13.5 × 10–7T (2) 7.8 × 10–2T
69. A particle of charge ‘q’ and mass ‘m’ moves in a (3) 1.8 × 10–4T (4) 25 × 10–2T
circular orbit of radius ‘r’ with angular speed ‘’. The
74. An infinitely long wire carrying current I is along y
ratio of the magnitude of its magnetic moment to
axis such that its one end is at point A (0, b) while
that of its angular momentum depends on
the wire extends upto +. The magnitude of
(1)  and q (2) , q and m magnetic field strength at point (a, 0) is
(3) q and m (4)  and m
70. A coil having N turns is wound tightly in the form I
of a spiral with inner and outer radii a and b A(0,b)
respectively. When a current I passes through the
x
coil, the magnetic field at the centre is (a,0)

0NI 20NI 0I  b  0I  b 

(1) (2) 1  2  (2)  1  2 
b d (1)
4a  a  b2  4 a  a  b2 

0NI b 0IN b
(3) ln (4) ln
2 b  a  a 2 b  a a 0I  b 
 2 
71. For a positively charged particle moving in a x – y
(3)
4a  a  b2 
 (4) None of these

plane, initially along the x-axis, there is a sudden

change in its path due to the presence of electric q
75. If a charged particle of specific charge   is
and/or magnetic fields beyond P. The curved path m
shown is in the x - y plane and is found to be non entering in a uniform magnetic field of strength B
circular. which is extended upto a distance 4d as shown in
figure at a speed v = (2  d)(B), then which of the
y following is correct?
4d
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
P q = × × × × ×
x m × × × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
× × × × ×
Which one of the following combination is (1) angle subtended by path of the charged particle
possible? at the centre of circular path is 6 till it exits
  out of the field.
ˆ B  ckˆ
(1) E  ai, (2) the charge will move on a circular path and will
come out from magnetic field at a distance 4d
  from the point of insertion
(2) E  aiˆ  B  ckˆ  a ˆi
(3) the time for which particle will be in the
  2
(3) E  0, B  cjˆ  bkˆ magnetic field is
B
  (4) the charged particle will subtend an angle of
(4) E  a ˆi B  ckˆ  bjˆ 90° at the centre of circular path till it exits out
of the field
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Aakash Institute Moving Charges and Magnetism
76. A proton of energy I MeV describes a circular 81. Calculate the force per unit length acting on
path in plane at right angle to a uniform magnetic conductor ‘2’ carrying a current i2 due to conductor
field of 6.28×10 –4 T. The mass of the proton is 1 carrying a current i 1 in the same direction
1.7 × 10 –27 kg. The cyclotron frequency of the [Magnitude only]. ‘r’ is the separation between the
proton is very nearly equal to two

(1) 107Hz (2) 105Hz  0i1i2 0i1i2

(1) (2)
(3) 106Hz (4) 104Hz 4 r 2r
77. Find the ratio of magnetic dipole moment to angular  0i1i2 0i, i2
momentum of an electron in a hydrogen like atom (3) (4)
2 r 8r
in ground state
82. A particle of charge q, mass m moving with velocity

(1)
e
(2)
e  
v 0 ˆi  ˆj enters a region of uniform magnetic field
m 2m
Bo ˆi , from the origin. The displacement of the
e 2e 2m
(3) (4)
3m m particle after time
qB0
78. A straight wire of infinite length carries a current i.
The magnitude of magnetic field at perpendicular mv 0 ˆ mv 0 ˆ
(1)   i  2kˆ  (2) 2 i
distance ‘a’ from the wire is– qB   qB

0 I 0 I
(1) (2) mv 0 ˆ 2mv 0
2a 4a   i  2kˆ 
(3) (4) ĵ
qB   qB
0i
(3) (4) zero 83. The dimensional formula of gyromagnetic ratio is
a
(1) [ATM] (2) [M –1A –1T]
79. A current enters a uniform conducting loop of radius
(3) [MA –1T] (4) [M–1 AT]
r at x and leaves at y. Calculate the magnetic field
at O due to the portion XAY of the loop 84. A current carrying circular loop of Radius R is
placed in a uniform magnetic field B0 tesla in x-y
A plane as shown in figure. The loop carries a current
i = 1A in the direction shown. The torque acting on
O r the loop is

î  Y
X y
B B

0i  2    i 45°
x
(1) Zero (2) 2
8 r

0i  2    0i
(3) (4) 
2
4 r 2 r
R 2B0 ˆ ˆ
80. Inside a homogeneous straight wire of circular
(1)
2
ij  
cross-section, there is a cylindrical cavity whose
axis is parallel to the conductor axis and displaced
R2B ˆ ˆ
relative to it by a distance L. A direct current of (2)
2
ij  
density J flows in the wire. Calculate the magnetic
field inside the cavity
R 2B0 ˆ ˆ
  0    
(3)
2
ij  
(1) 0  J  L  (2) J L 
  2  
R2B0 ˆ ˆ
(3) Zero

(4) 0
 
 J L 
(4)
4
ij  
4  

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Moving Charges and Magnetism Aakash Institute

CPP-04
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (2) 5. (3) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (4) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1)

15. (3) 16. (3) 17. (4) 18. (2) 19. (1) 20. (1) 21. (1)

22. (1) 23. (3) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (3) 28. (3)

29. (1) 30. (1) 31. (2) 32. (2) 33. (2) 34. (2) 35. (1)

36. (4) 37. (1) 38. (2) 39. (1) 40. (3) 41. (1) 42. (2)

43. (3) 44. (3) 45. (2) 46. (1) 47. (1) 48. (4) 49. (3)

50. (1) 51. (1) 52. (1) 53. (2) 54. (2) 55. (2) 56. (1)

57. (1) 58. (1) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (2) 63. (4)

64. (1) 65. (1) 66. (1) 67. (3) 68. (1) 69. (3) 70. (3)

71. (1) 72. (4) 73. (3) 74. (2) 75. (2) 76. (4) 77. (2)

78. (1) 79. (2) 80. (2) 81. (3) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (3)



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 CPP-04
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Chemistry
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Chemical Kinetics

1. The activation energy of the reaction, 6. Consider the reaction, 2A + B  Product. When
concentration of B alone was doubled, the rate of
A+B C+D + 38 kcal is 20 kcal. What would
reaction increased by two times and when the
be the activation energy of the following reaction
concentration of both A and B were doubled, the
CD  A B?
rate became 4 times. The unit of rate constant for
(1) 20 kcal (2) –20 kcal this reaction is
(3) 18 kcal (4) 58 kcal (1) L mol–1 s–1 (2) Unitless
2. According to Arrhenius equation a straight line is to
(3) mol L–1 s–1 (4) s –1
be obtained by plotting the logarithm of the rate
constant (log K) of a chemical reaction against 7. If half lives of a first order and zero order reaction
(1) T (2) log T are same, then the ratio of the initial rates of the
first order reaction to that of zero order reaction with
1 1 same initial concentration is
(3) (4) log
T T
3. A hypothetical reaction 1
(1) (2) 2 × 0.693
A2 + B 2  2AB follows the mechanism as given 0.693
below
A2 A + A(Fast) 2
(3) (4) 6.93
A + B2 AB + B(Slow) 0.693

A + B  AB(Fast) 8. In a reaction 2A  Product, the concentration of A

Overall order of reaction will be decreases 0.5 M to 0.4 M in 10 minutes. The
average rate of reaction during this interval is
(1) 2 (2) 1
(3) 3/2 (4) Zero (1) 0.01 M min–1 (2) 0.001 M min–1

4. Bicyclohexane was found to undergo parallel first (3) 0.05 M min–1 (4) 0.005 M min–1
order reactions at 730K to form cyclohexane and
9. The burning of coal represented by the equation
methyl cyclopentene. Rate constant for the
C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g). The rate of this reaction is
formation of cyclohexane was 1.26×10–4s–1 and for
increased by
the formation of methyl cyclopentene was
3.8 × 10–5 sec –1. Fraction of cyclohexane in the (1) Decrease in the concentration of oxygen
product is
(2) Powdering the lumps of coal
(1) 0.768 (2) 0.232
(3) 0.013 (4) 0.987 (3) Decreasing the temperature

5. Consider the first order reaction, (4) Providing inert atmosphere for burning
A(g)  B(g) + C(g) 10. A reaction involving two different reactants can never
Initial pressure of A(g) is 10 atm, after be a
decomposition pressure became 12 atm in 10 sec.
(1) Second order reaction
t
Then 1 of the decomposition reaction is
2 (2) Unimolecular reaction
approximately
(3) First order reaction
(1) 30 sec (2) 80 sec
(4) Pseudo first order reaction
(3) 60 sec (4) 100 sec
(1)
(1)
Chemical Kinetics Aakash Institute
11. For a 1 st order reaction, the ratio of time to involved in the slowest step of the reaction will be
complete 99.9% and half of the reaction is
(1) 0 (2) 1
approximately
(3) 2 (4) 3
(1) 5 (2) 2
1 2
(3) 10 (4) 8 17. Time difference between rd and rd completion
3 3
12. On increasing the temperature of a reaction by of a first order reaction is 30 minutes. The time
40K, the rate of reaction increases by 16 times. needed for 25% completion of the reaction is
Temperature co-efficient of the reaction is (1) 150.5 minutes (2) 12.5 minutes
(1) 5 (2) 2.8 (3) 180.5 minutes (4) 165.5 minutes
(3) 3 (4) 2 18. For a given reaction energy of activation for forward
13. For a zero order reaction, which of the following reaction (E a ) is 80 kJmol –1 .
–1
H = –40 kJmol for the reaction. A catalyst
plots is correct for [A] vs. time?
lowers E a by 20 kJ mol–1. The ratio of energy of
activation for reverse reaction before and after
addition of catalyst is
[A]t [A]t
(1) 1.0 (2) 0.5
(1) (2)
(3) 1.2 (4) 2.0
t t
19. Select the correct plot for an endothermic reaction
that proceeds through two steps with the second
step is rate determining
[A]t [A]t
(3) (4)
t t
P.E.
14. For the reaction A+B  product, initial rates of (1)
reaction are measured for different concentrations of
reactants A and B as follows reaction coordinate

[A] mol L–1 [B] mol L–1initial rate (mol L–1s–1)

0.01 0.02 1.02 × 10–2

(2) P.E.
0.01 0.04 1.02 × 10–2
0.02 0.04 2.04 × 10–2 reaction coordinate

The order of reaction with respect to A and B

respectively are
(1) 1, 0 (2) 1, 1 P.E.
(3)
(3) 0, 0 (4) 0, 1
15. In the following reaction, xA  yB reaction coordinate

 d  A    d B  
log    log    0.301
 dt   dt 
(4) P.E.
where –ve sign indicates rate of disappearance of
the reactant. Thus x : y is reaction coordinate
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1
20. When a graph between log k and 1/T is drawn a
(3) 3 : 1 (4) 3 : 10 straight line is obtained. The points at which the
line cuts y-axis and x-axis respectively correspond
16. For the reaction NO 2 (g) + CO(g)  CO 2 (g) +
to the temperatures
NO(g), the experimental rate expression is
(1) 0, Ea/2.303R logA (2) , Ea/(R n A)
dc
 k NO 2  . The number of molecules of CO
2

dt (3) 0, logA (4) , log A

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Aakash Institute Chemical Kinetics
21. Correct plot regarding zero order reaction is 24. A catalyst lowers the activation energy of a certain
reaction at 27°C from 75 to 29 kJ/mole. If other
parameters are same, rate constant of the reaction
t1 (1) increases by 108 times
2
(2) decreases by 104 times
(1)
(3) increases by 104 times
initial Conc. (4) decreases by 108 times
25. Select the correct representation of the variation of
half life with initial concentration of a zero order
t1 reaction
2

(2)

initial Conc.
(1)
t1/2

t1
(3)
2
(2) t1/2
initial Conc.

rate
of reaction
(4)

initial Conc. (3) t1/2

22. If half life of a first order reaction is 10 min, the time

required for 87.5% consumption of the reactant is
1/a
(1) 30 min (2) 25 min
(3) 60 min (4) 20 min

23. A BC
The energy plot of the above reaction is as follows (4) t1/2

E2 1/a2
E1 B E2>E1
A 26. Select from the following that is an example of zero
C order reaction

(1) 2NH3(g)   N2(g) + 3H2(g)

Pt,1130K
The correct statement is High pressure

(1) A  B is rate determining step (2) H2O2()  H2O(g) + ½O2(g)

(2) The reaction is endothermic 
(3) C12H22O11 + H2O 
H
C6H12O6 + C6H12O6
(3) It is an example of elementary reaction
(4) SnCl2 + 2FeCl3  SnCl4 + 2FeCl2
(4) B  C is the rate determining step

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Chemical Kinetics Aakash Institute
27. At 500K, the half life period of a gaseous reaction 33. The rate constant, the activation energy and the pre-
at an initial pressure of 80 kPa is 350 sec. When exponential factor of a chemical reaction at 25°C
the pressure is 40 kPa, the half-life period is 175 are 3.0 × 10–4 sec –1, 104.4 kJ mol–1 and
14 –1
6.0 × 10 sec respectively. The value of the rate
sec. The order of the reaction is
constant as T   is
(1) Zero (2) One
(1) 2.0 × 1018 sec–1 (2) 6.0 × 1014 sec–1
(3) Two (4) Three (3) Infinity (4) 3.6 × 1030 sec–1
28. The temperature coefficient of a reaction is 34. For the reaction H 2 (g) + I 2 (g)  2HI(g), the
rate of disappearance of H2 is 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1
(1) Ratio of rate constant at two temperature
sec–1. The rate of appearance of HI will be
differing by 1°C
(1) 1.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1
(2) Ratio of rate constant at temperature 35°C and
25°C (2) 0.5 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1
(3) 2.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1
(3) Ratio of rate constant at temperature 30°C and
25°C (4) 4.0 × 10–4 mol L–1 sec–1

(4) Specific reaction rate at 25°C 35. Which of the following is correct graph(s) regarding
zero order kinetics?
29. The following graph relates the initial concentration
with Half-life period for ___ order reaction
reaction
(1) rate (2) [At]
t1
/2 initial Conc.
Time (t)

conc
(1) Zero (2) First
t1
(3) Second (4) Third (3) 2
(4) All of these
30. In a first order reaction, the concentration of reactant initial Conc.
decreases from 800 mol/dm3 to 50 mol/dm3n 2×104
sec. The rate constant (in sec–1) is 36. A compound X undergoes through first order
K1 Y
(1) 2×104 (2) 3.45×10–5
decomposition in Y and Z as follows X K2
(3) 1.386×10–4 (4) 2×10–4 Z
31. The reaction 2NO + Br 2 2NOBr, obeys the The rate of reaction of X can be expressed as
following mechanism
(1) (K1 + K2) [X]
fast
NO+Br2  NOBr2 (2) K 1 [Y]
slow (3) K 2[Z]
NOBr2+NO  2 NOBr
(4) (K 1 + K 2) [[Y]+[Z]]
The rate expression of the above reaction can be
written as 37. For the chemical process P  Q, energies are
plotted in graph as shown
(1) r=K[NO]2 [Br2] (2) r=K[NO] [Br2]
(3) r=K[NO] [Br2]2 (4) r=K[NOBr2]
c
32. For a first order reaction, the time required for 75% Energy d
e
of the reaction to complete is P
a Q
b
(1) Twice that required for 50% of the reaction to
Progress of reaction
complete
Select from the following that is correct regarding
(2) Thrice that required for 50% of the reaction to activation energy
complete
(1) Activation energy for forward direction = c
(3) One and half times that required for 50% of
the reaction to complete (2) Activation energy for backward direction = d
(4) Equal to that required for 50% of the reaction (3) Activation energy for forward direction = e – a
to complete (4) All of these

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Aakash Institute Chemical Kinetics
38. Nitric oxide (NO) reacts with oxygen to produce (2) A bimolecular elementry reaction must be 2nd
nitrogen dioxide as follows order reaction
2NO(g) + O2 (g)  2NO2 (g) (3) Zero order reaction must be a complex reaction
If the mechanism of the reaction is (4) First order reaction may be complex or
elementry reaction
NO(g) + O2(g)  K NO3(g) (fast)
44. Consider the plots for the types of reaction, nA 
B + C
 NO (g) + NO (g) (slow)
NO3(g) + NO(g) 
K1
2 2

Then order of the reaction is 1

(1) 2 (2) 3 dA  [A]t [A]t
dt
(3) 1 (4) 3 t
2 [A] t

39. The rate constant of a reaction is 1.5 × 107 sec–1 These plots respectively correspond to the reaction
at 50°C and 4.5 × 107 sec–1 at 100°C. The value orders
of activation energy of the reaction is
(1) 0, 2, 1 (2) 0, 1, 2
(1) 2.2 × 103 J/mol (2) 2300 J/mol
(3) 1, 1, 2 (4) 1, 0, 2
(3) 2.2 × 104 J/mol (4) 220 J/mol
45. Which is example of zero order reaction ?

40. (i) H2(g) + Cl2(g) 

h 2HCl(g)
Energy A
C
2 (ii) 2H(g) 
Au H2(g) + 2(g)
1
B Products (iii) NH4NO2(aq.)  2H2O() + N2(g)
Reactant 1
Progress of reaction (iv) N2O5(g)  2NO2(g) + O (g)
2 2
(1) (i) only (2) (i) and (ii) only
Consider the above graph and select the correct
option (3) (i), (ii) and (iii) only (4) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
46. For an exothermic reaction following two steps are
(1) It is a 2 steps reaction, step 1 is slower than
involved step – 1 : A + B   (slow), step – 2 : 
step 2
 AB (fast). Which of the following graphs correctly
(2) It is a 2 steps reaction, step 2 is slower than represent this reaction
step 1
(3) Single step reaction where B is a activated
complex 
P.E
A+B  P.E
(4) Single step reaction in which B is a reaction (1) AB (2) A+B AB
intermediate
Reaction Reaction
41. Half life of a chemical reaction at a particular Co-ordinate Co-ordinate

concentration is 50 minutes. W hen the

concentration of the reactant is doubled, the half life 
becomes 100 minutes. The order of reaction is
(1) Zero order (2) First order P.E 
AB
(3) Second order (4) Third order A+B A+B
(3) AB (4)
42. The temperature coefficient of a reaction is 3. Rate Reaction
Reaction
of reaction will be increased by ______ if Co-ordinate
Co-ordinate
temperature is changed from 35° to 65°.
(1) 9 times (2) 27 times 47. How much faster would a reaction proceed at 47°C
than at 27°C if the activation energy of reaction is
(3) 3 times (4) 8 times 65 kJmol–1 ?
43. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? (1) 2 times (2) 5 times
(1) A 2nd order reaction must be a bimolecular (3) 11 times (4) 16 times
elementry reaction

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Chemical Kinetics Aakash Institute
48. In three different reactions, involving a single reactant (1) K1 = K2 = K3 (2) 2K1 = K2 = 3K3
in each case, a plot of rate of the reaction on the
(3) 4K1 = K2 = 3K3 (4) 3K1 = 6K2 = 2K3
y-axis, versus concentration of the reactant on the
x-axis, gives three different curves shown below 53. For a 1st
order reaction, if 180 minutes are required
for completion of 99.9% of reaction, time are
required (in minutes) for completion of 90% of the
– dc – dc – dc
(i) dt (ii) dt (iii) dt reaction would be
(1) 30 (2) 10
C C C
(3) 60 (4) 80
The possible orders of the reactions (i), (ii) and (iii) 54. Which of the following expression represents the
respectively are
3
(1) 1, 2, 3 (2) 2, 1, 1/2 time required for completion of th life of first order
4
(3) 0, 1, 2 (4) 0, 1, 1/2 reaction ?
49. In which of the following option, the example and K 4 K 3
the given order is incorrectly matched ? (1) log   (2) log  
2.303 3 2.303 4
1
(1) H2O2  H2O + O (1st order) 2.303 2.303
2 2 (3) log 4 (4) log3
K K
(2) 2NO + Cl2  2NOCl (2nd order) 55. For the first order reaction A  B, the reaction rate
at 0.01 M concentration of A is found to be
(3) CH3COOCH3 + NaOH  CH3COONa 2.0 × 10 –5 M sec –1 . The half life period of the
reaction is approximately
+ CH3OH (2nd order)
(1) 30 s (2) 300 s
(4) HI(g) 
Au
H2 (g)  I2 (g) (Zero order) (3) 220 s (4) 347 s
50. Consider the reaction, 2x (g)  3y (g) + 2z(g). At 56. If activation energy of a reaction is 800 cal/mol at
constant temperature and volume, partial pressure temperature 200 K. The percentage of molecules
of ‘x’ (px) varies as follows : having energy greater or equal to Ea is (Given: e2
= 7.38)
Time (min) px(mm Hg)
(1) 2.7% (2) 13.5%
0 800
(3) 25% (4) 1.35%
100 400
57. If two first order reactions,
200 200 K
1
A  B, t1/2 = a second
Order of the reaction is
K2
(1) 0 (2) 0.5 C  D, t1/2 = b second
(3) 1 (4) 2 If a > b, then the relation between K1 and K2 is
51. The rate of reaction gets doubled when the (1) K1 > K2 (2) K1 < K2
temperature changes from 7°C to 17°C. By what
(3) K1 = K2 (4) K1 = 2K2
factor will it change for the temperature change from
17°C to 27°C assuming activation energy does not 58. Consider the elementary reaction:
change with temperature ?
H2(g) + I2(g)  2HI(g)
(1) 1.3 (2) 1.5
If the volume of the container containing the
(3) 2 (4) 3.5 gaseous mixture is increased to two times, then
rate of the reaction
d A 
 K1  A  ,
2
52. For the reaction 2A  B + 3C, if – (1) Become four times
dt
1
(2) Become th of the original rate
dB d  C 4
 K2 A ,  K 3  A  the correct relation
2 2

dt dt (3) Become 2 times

between K1, K2 and K3 is
1
(4) Become of the original rate
2
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Aakash Institute Chemical Kinetics
59. The rate of reaction increases to two times with pressure after time ‘t’ become P(P>P0). Choose the
every 10°C rise in temperature. If we raise the correct expression of rate constant
temperature by 40°C, the new rate of the reaction
will be 2.303  P  2.303  2P0 
(1) log  0  (2) log  
(1) 4 times (2) 8 times t  P  P0  t  P  P0 
(3) 16 times (4) 32 times
2.303  P0  2.303  P0 
(3) log   (4) log  
60. Rate of a chemical reaction is independent of t  P0  2P 
t  2P0  P 
(1) Surface Area of the reactant
62. The Activation energy is lowered by
(2) Active mass of reactant 8.314 kJ/mol for the catalysed reaction. The ratio of
(3) Equivalent mass of reactant the rate of the catalysed reaction to that of the
uncatalysed reaction at 500K is (Given : e2 = 7.38)
(4) Temperature
(1) 7.38 (2) 14.5
61. For a gas phase reaction of 1st order :
(3) 8.37 (4) 4.83
A(g)  B(g) + C(g), initial pressure is P 0 and

  

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Chemical Kinetics Aakash Institute

CPP-04
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (4) 2. (3) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (1) 6. (1) 7. (2)

8. (4) 9. (2) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (4) 13. (2) 14. (1)

15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (2) 18. (3) 19. (4) 20. (2) 21. (3)

22. (1) 23. (4) 24. (1) 25. (1) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (2)

29. (1) 30. (3) 31. (1) 32. (1) 33. (2) 34. (3) 35. (4)

36. (1) 37. (4) 38. (2) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (1) 42. (2)

43. (1) 44. (4) 45. (2) 46. (2) 47. (2) 48. (2) 49. (2)

50. (3) 51. (3) 52. (4) 53. (3) 54. (3) 55. (4) 56. (2)

57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (3) 62. (1)

  

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 CPP-04
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Botany
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Molecular Basis of Inheritance

1. W hich one is incorrect with respect to salient (3) Pyrimidines - nitrogen at 1, 3 position
features of human genome ?
(4) Uracil has –CH3 in 5 position
(1) Total number of genes is approximately 30,000
6. Which one cannot be used in DNA fingerprinting ?
(2) More than 2% of genome codes for proteins
(1) Saliva (2) Sperm
(3) Repeated sequences form major part of human
(3) RBC (4) Bone
genome
7. Recognition sequence for transcription in
(4) SNPS occupy about 1.4 million locations
prokaryotes is
2. In an eukaryotic m-RNA molecule, 2.4 million
(1) TATATAT (2) TATAAT
bases are found. The number of phosphodiester
bonds and hydrogen bonds present in it is (3) TATAAAT (4) CAAT
(1) 2.4 million, 7 million 8. In Griffith’s experiment heat killed S-III strain
transfers ______ to living R-II strain to make it
(2) 2.4 million –1, 7 million _____
(3) 2.4 million–1, zero (1) RNA, virulent
(4) 2.4 million, 7.2 million (2) DNA, harmless
3. In ×174 virus 5386 nucleotides are found. Find the (3) Some transforming principle, virulent
number of glycosidic bonds and phosphodiester
bonds in this DNA ? (4) DNA, rough walled

(1) 5386, 5385 (2) 5386, 5386 9. Which character of RNA does not make it a genetic
material ?
(3) 5385, 5385 (4) 5385, 5386
(1) Monocisfronic
4. Read the statements carefully and choose the
correct option with respect to one strand of DNA (2) Autocatalyticin nature

(a) Phosphate moiety in the 5 end gives acidic nature (3) High rate of nutation
to nucleotide (4) Polycistronic
(b) 3 end of polynucleotide chain contains free 3– 10. Heavy DNA sediments at bottom during CsCl
OH group density gradient centrifugation as the density of
(c) Nitrogenous bases are projected outside of the CsCl is
helices (1) Highest at the top
(d) Phosphate moiety is projected towards inner side (2) Highest at the bottom
and pentose is projected towards outside of the
strand (3) Lowest at the bottom
(4) More than one option is correct
(1) Both a and b are correct
11. How many enzymes are involved in DNA replication
(2) c and d are correct
in eukaryotic nucleus as given in the box ?
(3) b and c are correct
Topoisomerase, Helicase, Primase,
(4) Only d is correct ligase, DNA pol - III, DNA pol - I,
5. Find the incorrect match Gyrase

(1) Nucleoside - basic in nature (1) 5 (2) 4

(2) Purines glycosidic - bond at 1–9 position (3) 7 (4) 3
(1)
Molecular Basis of Inheritance Aakash Institute
12. Which RNA polymerase plays role in synthesis of 21. In which case the Tm value of DNA is highest ?
5 s r-RNA ?
(1) DNA with 10% cytosine
(1) RNA polymerase-I (2) RNA polymerase-II
(2) DNA with 20% cytosine
(3) RNA polymerase-III (4) Both (1) and (3) (3) DNA with 30% guanine
13. Genes are monocistronic in eukaryotes but these (4) DNA with 40% cytosine
genes are called split genes, because
22. In a linear DNA molecule of 100 bp, 30% is
(1) Only exons apear in processed m-RNA
guanine. Find the total number of hydrogen bonds
(2) Exons of same gene are located at different loci and phosphodiester bonds in that DNA
(3) Exons are intervened by introns (1) 200, 200 (2) 260, 198
(4) Introns do not appear in matured m-RNA (3) 240, 200 (4) 300, 200
14. Overlapping of codons present in genome of 23. Adenine differs from cytosine in having
(1) Virus (2) Plant (1) 9 membered ring
(3) Animal (4) All of these (2) Amino group
15. Split-gene arrangement can be seen in (3) Heterocyclic structure
(1) Eukaryotic gene (2) Prokaryotic gene (4) 6-membered ring
(3) Viral gene (4) Both (2) and (3) 24. Translation process is always
16. During DNA and RNA synthesis, a nucleotide is (1) Dictated by RNA and represented by RNA
always attached to the newly formed strand at
(2) Dictated by DNA and represented by DNA
(1) 5 end of new strand
(3) Dictated by DNA and represented by RNA
(2) 3 end of new strand
(4) Dictated by RNA and represented by DNA
(3) 5 end of coding strand
25. E.coli has 4.6 × 106 base pairs in DNA. Find the
(4) 3 end of template strand
length of E. coli DNA
17. Gene regulation in eukaryotes may occur at all of
the given except (1) 4.6 mm (2) 3.56 mm
(1) Formation of primary transcript level (3) 1.36 mm (4) 1.26 mm
(2) Splicing level 26. The super coiling of DNA in E.coli cell is maintained
(3) Translational level by _____ and the super coiled DNA is called
______
(4) Replication level
(1) Histone beads, prochromosome
18. Sequencing of DNA of non-human organisms can
help solving challenges in (2) Protamines, Genophore
(1) Health care (2) Energy production (3) Polyamines, Genophore
(3) Bioremediation (4) All of these (4) Protamines, Nucleoid
19. cDNA is 27. Which of the following is correct with respect to
(1) Complementary DNA search for genetic material ?
(2) Generated from mRNA (1) Transforming principle – S-III and R-II strains of
(3) A form of DNA Diplococcus
(4) More than one option is correct (2) Bacteriophage DNA – Labelled with P32
20. Find the incorrect entry from the box (3) Transduring phage – Transduction
(4) More than one option is correct
Organism Genetic material Number of bp
28. Read the statements carefully and choose the
(1)  × 174 dsDNA 5386 bp correct option with respect to DNA replication
(1) Lagging strand has polarity of 3 – 5 direction
(2) -phage dsDNA 48502 bp
(2) Leading strand has polarity of 5  3 direction
(3) E. coli dsDNA
6
4.6 × 10 bp (3) DNA replication is semiconservative
(4) Human 9 (4) W hole genome of eukaryotes is replicated
genome dsDNA 3.3 × 10 bp
whthin 38 minutes

(2)
Aakash Institute Molecular Basis of Inheritance
29. There are _______ of DNA polymerase in E.coli (A) Tailing is done prior to splicing
while ______ in human cell. (B) Poly-A polymerase adds 200–300 adenylate
(1) 1 type, 3 types (2) 3 types, 5 types residues at 3 end of hnRNA

(3) 3 types , 3 types (4) 5 types, 5 types (C) Tailing is template independent process

30. DNA duplication in E.coli takes 20 minutes. An (D) Tailing proceeds G-cap formation
E.coli cell with heavy DNA is allowed to grow in N14 (1) Both A and B are correct
containing NH4Cl for 100 minutes. Find the ratio of
(2) Both B and C are correct
Hybrid DNA molecule to light DNA molecules after
100 minutes. (3) Both C and D are correct
(1) 1 : 31 (2) 1 : 15 (4) A, B and C are correct
(3) 1 : 3 (4) 1 : 1 36. 3 end of tRNA forms which bond with amino acid?

31. Unzipping of DNA helices in replication fork is (1) H-bond (2) Ester bond
possible due to the activity of (3) Peptide bond (4) Disulphide bond
(1) Topoisomerase-I (2) Topoisomerase-II 37. W hich of the followings are associated with
(3) Helicase (4) Gyrase eukaryotes ?

32. If antisense strand of DNA with 3  5 polarity (A) Pribnow box (B) Hagness box
has the following sequence, find the base (C) CAAT box (D) Split gene
sequence in mRNA E.coli
(1) A and B (2) B and C
T A C C CG A C G A T C
3 5 Antisense (3) A, C and D (4) B, C and D
Strand
38. Which codon has no tRNA ?
5 3
A T G G G C T G C T A G
(1) AUG (2) UUG
(1) 5UAC CCG ACG AUC3
(3) UAG (4) GAG
(2) 3UAG CGU CGG GUA5
39. W hich statement is correct for application of
(3) 5AUG GGC UGC UAG3 Wobble hypothesis to tRNA ?
(4) 5GAU CGU CGG GUA3 (1) tRNA is soluble RNA
33. A transcription unit in prokaryotes usually contains (2) 60 types of tRNA are found in cytoplasm
(1) Structural genes flanked by promoter in upstream (3) Provides economy in number of tRNA at the time
and terminator in downstream of translation
(2) Structural genes flanked by terminator in (4) tRNA has anticodon
upstream and promoter in downstream
40. Which gene in lac operon is a constitutive gene ?
(3) Structural genes flanked by a promoter in
(1) i-gene (2) a-gene
upstream and an enhancer in downstream
(3) z-gene (4) y-gene
(4) Structural genes flanked by a receptor gene in
upstream and a promoter in downstream 41. W hich feature of DNA used during DNA
34. Match the columns and choose the correct option fingerprinting ?
with respect to RNA polymerase activities (1) Stability
Column-I Column-II (2) Helical structure of DNA
(A) 5.8S rRNA i) RNA pol-II (3) Slow rate of mutation
(B) 5S rRNA ii) RNA pol-I (4) DNA polymorphism
(C) hnRNA iii) RNA pol-III 42. Sense strand of DNA has -GAG- in normal case. If
it is mutated to -GTG-, which amino acid will be
(1) A(i), B(ii), C(iii) (2) A(ii), B(iii), C(i)
incorporated in the polypeptide ?
(3) A(iii), B(ii), C(i) (4) A(ii), B(i), C(iii) (1) Glutamic acid (2) Valine
35. Read the statements carefully and choose the (3) Glycine (4) Aspartic acid
correct option with respect to tailing of hnRNA

(3)
Molecular Basis of Inheritance Aakash Institute
43. Which codon is without exception with respect to 51. If pitch of B-DNA is 3.4nm, how many base pairs
degeneracy ? will be found within 34nm ?
(1) GUG (2) UAA (1) 110 bp (2) 100 bp
(3) UGG (4) AAG (3) 93 bp (4) 80 bp
44. W hich eukaryotic rRNA is not formed by RNA 52. Most stable type of RNA is
polymerase I ? (1) tRNA (2) rRNA
(1) 28S (2) 18S (3) mRNA (4) snRNA
(3) 5.8S (4) 5S 53. Capping of m-RNA is related to
45. Read the statements carefully and choose the (1) GUG
incorrect option with respect to repressible
system. (2) Soluble RNS
(1) It is mostly in switched on condition (3) 5m uracil
(2) Regulated by feed back inhibition (4) 5m Guanosine triphosphate
(3) Controls catabolic process 54. Which of the following is Kornberg enzyme ?
(4) Aporepressor is inactive (1) DNA-pol-III (2) RNA pol - I
46. W hich bacteriophage has dsDNA as genetic (3) DNA pol - II (4) DNA pol - I
material ? 55. Heat killed S-III strain changes living R-II strain
(1)  × 174 cells into virulent form by a process called
(2) Lambda () phage (1) Transcription
(3) TMV (2) Reverse transcription
(4) More than one option is correct (3) Transformation
47. Which one is not true w.r.t function of RNA ? (4) Translation
(1) May carry genetic code 56. Find the odd one out with respect to genetic
material
(2) Acts as a catalyst
(1) TMV (2) QB phage
(3) May act as an adapter molecule
(3)  × 174 (4) HIV
(4) Replication
57. Match the columns and choose the correct option
48. Which of the following is constant for all species ?
with respect to non proteinous enzymes
A G Column I Column II
(1) Size of DNA (2) 1
TC
(a) Ribonuclease-P i) Peptide bond
(3) Length of DNA only (4) Both 1 and 2 formation
49. Read the statements carefully and choose the (b) Sn–RNPs ii) Cleavage in the larger
correct option precursor RNA
(a) 5 methyl uracil is a base in DNA (Primary transcript)

(b) Cytidine is the nucleotide in both RNA and DNA (c) 28S–rRNA iii) Splicing

(c) Purines are 6 membered compounds (1) a(i), b(ii), c(iii) (2) a(ii), b(iii), c(i)

(d) Both purines and pyrimidines are homocyclic (3) a(ii), b(i), c(iii) (4) a(iii), b(i), C(ii)
compounds 58. Which enzyme removes RNA primer from okazaki
(1) a and b are correct (2) b and c are correct fragments in prokaryotes ?

(3) c and d are correct (4) Only a is correct (1) DNA pol –  (2) DNA pol –

50. In which case daughter DNA is not identical to (3) DNA ligase (4) DNA pol – 
parent DNA ? 59. Which enzyme has no work in replication fork with
(1) Pallindromic DNA (2) ss Circular DNA respect to DNA synthesis ?

(3) ds linear DNA (4) B - DNA (1) DNA pol-I (2) DNA pol-III
(3) Gyrase (4) DNA pol-II

(4)
Aakash Institute Molecular Basis of Inheritance
60. W hich figure is correct with respect to DNA 67. Unwinding of double helix of DNA is catalysed by
replication in replication fork ? helicase and is dependent upon
5 3 3 5 (1) ATP (2) GTP
(3) CTP (4) TTP

53 68. Which two loops of t-RNA have same number of

(1) (2) unpaired bases?
(1) DHU and anticondon loop
3 5 3 5 5 3 5 3
5 3
(2) Anticodon and TC loop
3 3
(3) Anticodon and variable loop
(4) DHU and TC loop
3
(3) 5 (4) 69. Choose the correct match with respect to
prokaryotic translation
3 5 3 5 5 5 3 5
Column-I Column-II
61. Which of the following DNA strand has the same (a) UTRs i) P-site of larger sub
sequence as that of the newly synthesized RNA ? unit of ribosome
(1) Template strand (2) Coding strand (b) Initiation ii) RF1 and RF2
(3) Non coding strand (4) Antisense strand (c) Termination iii) EF-G

62. Transcription and translation in prokaryotes occur in (d) Translocation iv) Efficient translation

(1) Two compartments (1) a(ii), b(iii), c(i), d(iv) (2) a(iv), b(i), c(iii), d(ii)
(3) a(iv), b(i), c(ii), d(iii) (4) a(ii), b(iii), c(iv), d(i)
(2) One compartment
70. Which technique is used in DNA finger printing?
(3) Nucleus and cytoplasm
(1) Southern blotting (2) Northern blotting
(4) Nucleoplasm and cytosol
(3) Western blotting (4) Polyadenylation
63. ______ shows the reminiscent of antiquity and
_____ represents the dominance of RNA world 71. Which statement is incorrect about RNA?

(1) Exons, translation (2) Introns, Splicing (1) Translation is dictated by DNA and represented
by RNA
(3) Introns, Transcription (4) Exons, Splicing
(2) RNA is store house of informations for all
64. Genetic code shows the inter-relationship of all of organisms
the given except
(3) RNA transfers information
(1) Nucleotide sequence in DNA (4) RNA expresses information
(2) Nucleotide sequence in mRNA 72. RNA splicing means
(3) Amino acid sequence in polypeptide chain (1) Coding of introns and exons
(4) Nucleoside sequence in DNA (2) Removal of introns
65. Who got the experimental proof of double helical (3) Joining of exons
structure of DNA?
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(1) Watson (2) Wilkins
73. The number of genes in Y-chromosome is
(3) Rosalind Franklin (4) Both (2) and (3) (1) 231 (2) 2968
66. Why DNA is better to store genetic information as (3) 14 (4) 3000
compared to RNA?
74. Which one depicts that life begun around RNA?
(1) Helical structure of DNA
(1) Acts as an adapter molecule
(2) Undergoes slow mutation
(2) r-RNA has catalytic property
(3) Structurally stable
(3) Helps in processing of hn-RNA
(4) Both (2) and (3)
(4) More than one option is correct

(5)
Molecular Basis of Inheritance Aakash Institute
75. Which gene of lac operon interact with regulator 84. Frameshift mutation provides proof for which of the
molecule? following features of genetic code ?
(1) i-gene (2) o-gene (1) Degeneracy (2) Universal
(3) z-gene (4) y-gene (3) Commaless (4) Non ambiguous
76. If coding strand of DNA contains 5 thymidylic acids 85. How many strands of DNA will have heavy nitrogen,
and 10 adenylic acids, the number of thymine
if a DNA molecule with both heavy strands is
residue and adenine residue in m-RNA will be
allowed to replicate for 4 generations in a normal
(1) 5, 10 (2) 0, 10 nitrogen medium?
(3) 10, 5 (4) 10, 10
(1) 2 strands (2) 4 strands
77. UTRs are
(3) 6 strands (4) 8 strands
(1) Present at 5 end of mRNA only
86. Types of histone molecules involved in formation of
(2) Present at 3 end of mRNA only
histone octamer is
(3) Present at both ends of mRNA
(1) 4 (2) 8
(4) Present at both end of rRNA
78. If coding strand of DNA has following sequence, (3) 5 (4) 2
find the last codon to 5 ATG CCT TTC TAG 3 87. All are related to Watson and Crick model of DNA,
coding strand incorporate amino acid in m-RNA except
(1) AUG (2) CCU
(1) Antiparallel nature
(3) UUC (4) UAG
(2) Left hand helix
79. Taylor conducted experiments on Vicia faba and
proposed that (3) Complementary base pairing

(1) Replication of DNA in chromosomes is semi- (4) 20 Å diameter

conservative 88. In eukaryotes, regulation of gene expression is
(2) Replication of DNA is conservative exerted at
(3) Replication of DNA is continuous (1) Two levels (2) Five levels
(4) Replication of DNA is unidirectional (3) Four levels (4) Single level
80. RNA dependent DNA polymerase is 89. A : Rho factor is involved in chain initiation in
(1) Reverse transcriptase transcription.
(2) Found in retro viruses R : For initiation of translation ribosomes binds to
the start codon of tRNA.
(3) Both (1) and (2)
(1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
(4) Ochoa enzyme
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
81. In lac operon, the lac mRNA
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(1) Form three different types of enzymes Reason is not the correct explanation of the
(2) Has one initiation and termination codon Assertion
(3) Is not transcribed in the presence of lactose (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(4) Is involved in an anabolic pathway (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
82. RNA directed DNA synthesis is known as 90. In a piece of E.coli DNA, 200 Cytosine and 140
(1) Translation (2) Teminism Adenine residues are found. Find the total number
of hydrogen bonds present in this piece of DNA.
(3) Replication (4) Transcription
(1) 900 (2) 340
83. Find the correct match
(3) 820 (4) 880
(1) Topoisomerase – unwinding of DNA
91. The lac operon is switched ‘ON’ when
(2) Kornberg enzyme – main polymerising
enzyme (1) When lactose is absent

(3) Primase – removal of RNA primer (2) When glucose is present

(3) When lactose is present
(4) Helicase – formation of replication
fork (4) When sucrose is present
(6)
Aakash Institute Molecular Basis of Inheritance
92. In bacteria the formation of peptide bond during 100. Enzyme required for removing RNA primer during
translation is effected by DNA replication is
(1) 5S rRNA (2) 23S rRNA (1) Primase (2) Ligase
(3) 28S rRNA (4) 18S rRNA (3) DNA-Polymerase-I (4) DNA-Polymerase-III
93. What does the following reaction depict ? 101. Introns is a part of DNA which

AA1 + ATP 

E,Mg 2
 Aminoacid AMP-E complex (1) helps in joining pieces of DNA
+ PPi (2) code sequences for protein synthesis
(1) Amino acid polymerisation (3) does not code for protein synthesis
(2) Amino acid transformation (4) Initiates transcription
(3) Amino acid activation 102. Out of 64 codons, 61 codes for 20 types of amino
(4) Amino acid translocation acids is due to

94. Match the following (1) overlapping genes (2) Degeneracy

Column I Column II (3) Universality (4) Unambiguous
A. -glactosidase i) Tailing of hnRNA 103. In repressible operon
B. Permease ii) Peptide bond formation (1) Co-repressor binds with inducer
C. Poly A iii) Hydrolysis of lactose (2) Co-repressor binds with apo.repressor
polymerase (3) Co-repressor binds with regulatory gene
D. Ribozyme iv) Increases permeability (4) CAMP has negative effect
of galactosides 104. Highest no. of genes are present in
(1) A-iii; B-iv; C-i; D-ii (2) A-iv; B-iii; C-ii; D-i (1) X - chromosome (2) Y - chromosome
(3) A-iv; B-iii; C-i; D-ii (4) A-ii; B-i; C-iii; D-iv (3) Chromosome - 1 (4) Chromosome - 22
95. The last step of DNA fingerprinting is 105. W hat will be the amount of thymidine
(1) Blotting (2) Hybridisation monophosphate in a double helix DNA if it has 23%
cytidine monophosphate ?
(3) Autoradiography (4) Electrophoresis
(1) 23% (2) 54%
96. Which one of the following is correct ?
(3) 46% (4) 27%
(1) tRNA is the most abundant in a cell
106. Select the correct match
(2) Codons are present in mRNA and anticodons in
tRNA (1) GUG : Non Ambiguous
(3) Hydrogen bonding is present in mRNA (2) UAG : Opal
(4) Exons are present in eukaryotes while introns (3) UGG : Non degenerate
are present in all prokaryotes
(4) UAA : Amber
97. Which form of RNA has a structure resembling with
107. A : A single stranded circular DNA molecule having
clover leaf ?
5386 nucleotides will have 5386 phosphodiester
(1) mRNA (2) tRNA bonds.
(3) hn-RNA (4) rRNA R : Phosphodiester bond provides stability to DNA.
98. A nucleoside differs from a nucleotide as it lacks (1) Both Assertion and Reason are true and the
Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion
(1) N2– base (2) Sugar
(2) Both Assertion and Reason are true but the
(3) PO4– (4) Hydroxyl group
Reason is not the correct explanation of the
99. Double stranded DNA virus with 20,000 bp has Assertion
nucleotides (3) Assertion is true statement but Reason is false
(1) 20,000 (2) 10,000 (4) Both Assertion and Reason are false statements
(3) 666 (4) 40,000

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Molecular Basis of Inheritance Aakash Institute
108. Deletion or insertion of base pairs produces 114. How many nucleosomes are approximately present
frameshift mutation unless the number of deleted or in a human somatic cell made of 6.6 × 109 bp ?
inserted base pairs is
(1) 3.3 × 107 (2) 6.6 × 105
(1) One (2) Two
(3) 3.3 × 109 (4) 6.6 × 109
(3) Three (4) Four
115. How many phosphodiester bonds are present in the
109. If a hybrid DNA molecule labelled with N 15 is nucleoid of E.coli made of 4.6 × 106 base pairs?
allowed to replicate twice in a normal culture
medium, then the percentage of light DNA will be (1) 4.6 × 106 (2) 2.3 × 106

(1) 75% (2) 25% (3) 4.6 × 1012 (4) 9.2 × 106

(3) 50% (4) 12.5% 116. Select the correct match with respect to replication
of DNA
110. There is now enough evidences available to suggest
(1) Ochoa enzyme – Polynucleotide
that essential life processes evolved around RNA,
phosphorylase
which
(2) Capping – Poly A polymerase
(a) Can perform catalytic activities also
(b) Is more suitable for transmission of information (3) Unwinding of DNA – Topoisomerase
in comparison to DNA double helix
(c) Is highly reactive and unstable (4) DNA dependent RNA – Reverse
(1) (a), (b) and (c) are correct polymerase transcriptase
(2) Only (b) is incorrect 117. The non constitutive or luxury gene in lac operon is/
(3) Both (b) and (c) are incorrect are

(4) Only (a) is correct (1) Operator gene

111. Which of the following statements is correct for the (2) Regulator gene
Adapter Molecule ? (3) lac z, lac y, lac a genes
(1) Its existence was postulated by H.G. Khorana
(4) Promoter gene
(2) They constitute 80% of total cellular RNA
118. In Eukaryotes, tRNA and 18S rRNA is transcribed
(3) There are no tRNAs for stop codons respectively by
(4) All of them have a guanine residue at 3 end (1) RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase II
112. _______ in bacteria is a ribozyme for the formation (2) RNA polymerase II and RNA polymerase III
of peptide bond
(3) RNA polymerase I and RNA polymerase III
(1) 23SrRNA (2) 28SrRNA
(4) RNA polymerase III and RNA polymerase I
(3) 5SrRNA (4) 16SrRNA
113. Identify the enzymes of Lac operon labelled as A, 119. If the base sequence of DNA for one strand is 5
TGCCGTAC 3, then find the base sequence of
B and C
mRNA
(1) 3 – CAUGCCGU – 5
(2) 5 – UGCCGUAC – 3
(3) 3 – UGCCGUAC – 5
(4) Both (1) and (2) are correct
120. Which one of the following is not the basis of DNA
finger printing ?
(1) A-Permease (2) A-Transacetylase
B-Transacetylase B-Permease (1) VNTRs

C--galactosidase C--galactosidase (2) Tandem repeats

(3) A--galactosidase (4) A--galactosidase (3) Satellite DNA

B-Permease B-Transacetylase (4) Exonic sequence of a specific functional gene
C-Transacetylase C-Permease

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Aakash Institute Molecular Basis of Inheritance
121. 23S rRNA is required to perform 126. DNA replication is
(1) Peptidyl transferase activity during eukaryotic (1) Conservative and discontinuous
transcription
(2) Semi-conservative and discontinuous
(2) Peptidyl transferase activity during prokaryotic
translation (3) Semi-conservative and semi-discontinuous

(3) Translocation of Ribosome on mRNA (4) Semi-conservative only

(4) Binding of mRNA with smaller subunit of 127. In a DNA strand nucleotides are linked by
ribosomes
(1) Glycosidic bonds
122. Arrange the steps of DNA fingerprinting in the
(2) Phosphoester bonds
correct sequence
(3) Phosphodiester bonds
I. Gel electrophoresis
(4) H-bonds
II. Hybridisation
III. Digestion of DNA 128. Which enzyme is involved in DNA repair ?

IV. Southern Blotting (1) Ligase

V. Autoradiography (2) DNA polymerase - I

(1) III  I  IV  II  V (3) DNA polymerase - III

(2) II  I  IV  III  V (4) Primase

(3) III  IV  II  V  I 129. Special unwinding enzyme that breaks H-bonds

between two strands of DNA is
(4) II  III  I  V  IV
(1) Topoisomerase (2) Gyrase
123. Consider the following statements and select
correct set of option (3) Helicase (4) DNA polymerase
a. The UTRs are present at both 3 end before 130. Teminism is
start codon and 5 end after stop codon
(1) Reverse transcription (2) DNA replication
b. Mg 2+ is essential during activation of amino
acids (3) RNA replication (4) RNA repair

c. Poly (A) is added to 3 end of newly formed 131. Wild type E.coli growing in medium with glucose is
hnRNA by poly A polymerase transferred to lactose containing medium. What
changes occur?
d. Non-formylated methionine is attached with
tRNA in Eukaryotes (1) Lac operon is induced

(1) a, b and d (2) a, c and d (2) Lac operon is suppressed

(3) b, c and d (4) c and d (3) Lac operon and Trp operon induced
124. GUG normally codes for valine but at start position (4) Both (1) and (2)
it codes for methionine
132. Largest number of bases present in gene located
The above statement is an exception to which on
property of genetic code ?
(1) X-chromosome (2) Y-chromosome
(1) Non-ambiguous nature
(3) Chromosome-1 (4) Chromosome-22
(2) Degeneracy
133. RNA has the following functions, except
(3) Universality
(1) It is the genetic material in some viruses and
(4) Non overlapping nature bacteria
125. The enzyme which has exonuclease activity in both (2) It functions as a messenger
5  3 and 3  5 direction is
(3) It functions as an adapter for carrying amino acids
(1) DNA polymerase III (2) DNA polymerase II
(4) It acts as catalytic molecule in some cases
(3) Kornberg enzyme (4) Both (1) and (3)

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Molecular Basis of Inheritance Aakash Institute
134. Read the following statements and select the correct 139. The process of replication requires a set of
option enzymes. Which of the following enzymes are not
associated with this process ?
(a) Polypeptide sequences are dictated by DNA and
represented by mRNA (a) Phosphorylase
(b) Structural genes in bacteria is monocistronic (b) RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(c) Transcription and translation is coupled in (c) DNA dependent RNA polymerase
bacteria
(d) DNA dependent DNA polymerase
(d) In lac operon, operator is occupied by
(e) Polynucleotide phosphorylase
aporepressor during regulation
(f) RNA ligase
(1) (a) and (d) (2) (a) and (b)
(1) a, b and f (2) a, b and e
(3) (a) and (c) (4) (c) and (d)
(3) b, e and f (4) a, c and f
135. Match the column
140. Histones are rich in amino acids
Column I Column II
(1) Glutamic and Aspartic acids
(A) Operon (i) Altmann
(2) Lysine and Aspartic acid
(B) Nucleic acid (ii) Jacob and Monod
(3) Arginine and Lysine
(C) Polynucleotide (iii) Severo Ochoa
(4) Asparagine and Glutamine
phosphorylase
141. Select the true and false statements
(D) Reverse transcription (iv) Temin and Baltimore
(i) If the DNA molecule has 2000 base pairs then
(1) (A) - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv) the number of sugar will be 6000 and of phosphate
(2) (A) - (ii), (B) - (i), (C) - (iii), (D) - (iv) will be 3000

(3) (A) - (iv), B - (iii), C - (ii), D - (i) (4) (ii) A nucleotide molecule consist of a nitrogenous
base, pentose sugar and a phosphate molecule
(A) - (ii), (B) - (iv), (C) - (iii), (D) - (i)
(iii) Site of DNA replication in a cell is cytoplasm
136. If Meselson and Stahl’s experiment is continued for
four generation in bacteria, the ratio of 15N/15N : (iv) Semiconservative replication of DNA has been
15 N /14 N : 14 N/14 N containing DNA in the fourth proved in bacteria as well as in plants
generation would be (1) T,T,F,T (2) F,T,F,T
(1) 1:1:0 (2) 1:4:0 (3) T,T,F,F (4) F,T,T,F
(3) 0:1:3 (4) 0:1:7 142. Select the correct sequence of events during DNA
137. Select the incorrect statement fingerprinting

(1) A nucleosome is a basic unit of DNA packaging (1) Electrophoresis  Cutting  Isolation 
in eukaryotes Blotting  Autoradiography

(2) A histone octamer is approximately surrounded (2) Isolation  Cutting  Electrophoresis 

by 200 base pairs of DNA Blotting  Autoradiography

(3) Nucleosome appears as a beads on a string of (3) Isolation  Cutting  Blotting 

DNA under electron microscope Electrophoresis  Autoradiography
(4) A histone octamer consist of 2 copies of histone (4) Cutting  Isolation  Autoradiography 
molecules – H1, H2B, H3 and H4 Blotting  Electrophoresis
138. The length of DNA is characteristic of an organism 143. Select the correct features about Lac operon
and it is based on number of base pairs or
(a) Inducible system
nucleotides. Mark the incorrect one
(b) Repressible system
(1) Lamda phage – 48502 nucleotides
(c) -galactosidase is coded by z gene
(2)  × 174 – 5386 nucleotides
(1) Only (a) (2) Both (b) and (c)
(3) E. Coli – 4.6 × 106 bp
(3) Both (a) and (c) (4) Only (b)
(4) Human genome – 3.3 × 109 bp

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Aakash Institute Molecular Basis of Inheritance
144. Which of the following feature shows universality of (A) cDNA is synthetic type of DNA generated from
genetic code ? mRNA
(1) Some amino acids are coded by more than one (B) Human genome project was a 15 year project
codon (C) The sequence of chromosome 1 was completed
(2) UUU codes for phenylalanine in all organisms only in May 2006
(3) One codon codes for only one amino acid (D) DNA finger printing is based upon principle of
polymorphism in DNA sequence
(4) The codon is read in mRNA in contiguous fashion
A B C D
145. Which one is not the function of DNA ? (1) T F T T
(1) Variations (2) T F F T
(3) T F T F
(2) Protein synthesis
(4) T T F F
(3) Hereditary information 150. RNA polymerase I does not catalyse the
(4) Splicing transcription of

146. Find out the correct statement w.r.t. diagram (1) 5.8S rRNA (2) 18S rRNA
representing translation in bacteria (3) 5S rRNA (4) 28S rRNA
151. The average gene consist of ___(i)___ bases, but
__(ii)____ vary greatly, with the largest known
human gene being dystrophin at __(iii)____ bases
tRNA (i) (ii) (iii)
tRNA U
G U
G A (1) 4000 shape 2.4 million
A
(2) 3000 size 2.4 million
tRNA tRNA
(3) 2.4 million shape 4000
CGU C AA
(4) 3000 size 4000
C U C U UGC C U C CG CA GU U A A U U U C U A U C
5 3 152. In a piece of E.Coli DNA, 100 cytosine and 40
mRNA Ribosome
Adenine residues are found. Find the total number
of hydrogen bonds present in this piece of DNA
(1) Last peptide bond formation takes place between
(1) 400 (2) 420
glycine and leucine.
(3) 380 (4) 280
(2) Ribosome moves from codon to codon along the
mRNA 153. Which one is not a property of genetic material ?

(3) First amino acid is proline present at A-site (1) It should undergo mutation at a fast rate

(4) Last codon of m-RNA is CUU (2) It should be able to generate its replica

147. Which of the following is not a feature of an adapter (3) It should be chemically and structurally stable
molecule ? (4) It should be able to express itself in the form of
Mendelian characters
(1) Its three dimensional structure is inverted L
shaped 154. Which enzyme removes ribonucleotides from primer
and adds equivalent deoxyribonucleotides ?
(2) It reads the code on one hand and binds to
specific amino acid on the other hand (1) DNA polymerase I (2) Primase
(3) Was known as soluble RNA before the genetic (3) DNA polymerase II (4) Helicase
code was postulated 155. How many of the following statements are correct
(4) All three stop codons have a specific adapter with respect to genetic code ?
molecule (a) Each codon is independent and does not overlap
148. Which bond is absent in the genetic material of the next codon
×174 virus ? (b) All 64 codons code for amino acids
(1) Hydrogen bond (2) Glycosidic bond (c) UGG is ambiguous and degenerate codon
(3) Phosphoester bond (4) Phosphodiester bond (d) The codon is triplet in nature
149. Read the statements carefully and mark them as (1) One (2) Two
True(T) or False(F) (3) Three (4) Four
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Molecular Basis of Inheritance Aakash Institute
156. W hich of the following bond is not found in a (3) VNTR – Microsatellite
nucleotide of RNA ?
(4) Minisatellite – Exon
(1) Phosphoester bond 164. _______% of the genome codes for protein in
(2) Glycosidic bond human beings

(3) Phosphodiester bond (1) 98 (2) 50

(4) More than one option is correct (3) 24 (4) <2

157. Which of the following DNA form has maximum 165. DNA polymerase I is involved in
number of base pairs per turn ? (1) Removal of RNA primer
(1) A-DNA (2) B-DNA (2) Filling of gap
(3) C-DNA (4) Z-DNA (3) Joining of Okazaki fragments
158. Soluble RNA is (4) Both (1) and (2)
(1) t RNA (2) r RNA 166. The packaging of DNA at higher level requires
(3) m RNA (4) hn RNA (1) Five types of histones
159. RNA primer is removed by (2) A histone octamer called ‘nu’ body

(1) 53 exonuclease action of DNA (3) NHC proteins

Polymerase-III (4) Lysine and Arginine

(2) 53 exonuclease action of DNA 167. Select the correct statement from the following

Polymerase-I (1) Guanyl transferase catalyses polyadenylation

(3) 35 exonuclease action of DNA (2) Polycistronic mRNA carries codons of single
protein molecule
Polymerase-III
(3) In bacteria, translation begins much before
(4) 35 exonuclease action of DNA mRNA is fully transcribed
Polymerase-I (4) All exons have GU at 5 end and AG at 3 end
160. Tailoring of hnRNA is done by 168. Select the correct match
(1) Snurps (2) Introns (1) Jacob and Monod – Split gene
(3) Exons (4) 18S rRNA (2) Severo Ochoa – Polynucleotide
phosphorylase
161. Codon which can perform dual action
(3) Altman – Operon concept
(1) UAA (2) UGA
(4) Shine Dalgarno – Wobble hypothesis
(3) AUG (4) UAG
169. Select the correct option :
162. Read the following statements A and B carefully
Column - I Column - II
and choose the correct option
Direction of Direction of reading of the
A : Histones are basic in nature RNA synthesis template DNA strand
B : Histones are rich in the amino acids lysines and (w.r.t. transcription)
arginines
(1) 5 – 3 3 – 5
(1) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(2) 3 – 5 5 – 3
(2) Statement A is correct but B is incorrect
(3) 5 – 3 5 – 3
(3) Both the statements A and B are correct and B
(4) 3 – 5 3 – 5
is correct explanation of A
170. Which of the following is absent in prokaryotes ?
(4) Both the statements A and B are correct but B is
not the correct explanation of A (1) Operon
163. Mark the correct match (2) Regulation of splicing
(1) Intron – VNTR (3) Coupled transcription and translation

(2) SSR – 11–60 bps (4) Polycistronic gene

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Aakash Institute Molecular Basis of Inheritance
171. In Lac operon one of the following is not a (C) Replication occurs in S phase of cell cycle
characteristic of repressor
(D) Replication is semiconservative in prokaryotes
(1) It is a protein as well as in eukaryotes
(2) Binds to operator in presence of inducer (1) A,C,D (2) B,C,D
(3) It is synthesized by regulator gene (3) A,B,C (4) A,B,D
(4) Regulation of lac operon by repressor is generally 177. The diagram represents nucleosome. Choose the
under negative regulation correct combination of labelling
172. The UTRs are present at both ___(i)____ end before A B
start codon and ___(ii)___ end after stop codon.
They are required for efficient ____(iii)____ process
C
(i) (ii) (iii)
(1) 3 5 Translation
(2) 5 3 Translation
A B C
(3) 3 5 Transcription
(1) H1 histone DNA Core
(4) 5 3 Replication
(2) DNA H1 histone Histone octamer
173. Which of the following is an unusual nucleotide of
(3) RNA DNA Histone octamer
mRNA ?
(4) DNA Core Histone octamer
(1) Dihydroxyuridine
178. ELSI to solve any issues related to HGP are
(2) Pseudouridine
(1) Ethical issue (2) Legal issue
(3) Methylated Guanosine triphosphate (3) Social issue (4) All of these
(4) Adenylate nucleotide 179. Select the correct statements
174. In eukaryotes, DNA replication, transcription and (i) Lac operon undergoes negative as well as positive
translation respectively occurs in control
(1) Nucleus, Nucleus, Nucleus (ii) Transformation experiment was performed on
bacteria E.coli
(2) Cytoplasm, Nucleus, Nucleus
(iii) Frame shifting involves the change in protein
(3) Nucleus, Nucleus, Cytoplasm
product coded by triplet codons
(4) Nucleus, Cytoplasm, Cytoplasm (iv) Teminism occurs in retroviruses
175. Read the statements and mark them as True(T) or (1) (i), (ii), (iii) (2) (ii), (iii), (iv)
False(F)
(3) (i), (iii), (iv) (4) (i), (ii), (iv)
A. Rho-factor is required for termination of
transcription 180. For efficient translation all are required, except
B. Prokaryotic RNA polymerase produces 28 S r- (1) Peptidyl and Aminoacyl sites should be close
RNA enough
C. DNA polymerase I is main polymerizing enzyme (2) Ribozyme
D. In prokaryotes, DNA gyrase removes supercoils (3) UTR (untranslated regions)
of DNA
(4) Charged tRNA for stop codon
A B C D 181. The percentage of hybrid and light DNA after the 3rd
(1) T F F T generation of replication in E.coli will be _______
(2) T F T F and _______ ; if its generation time is 20 minutes
(3) T F F F according to Meselson and Stahl experiment
(4) F T T F (1) 75% hybrid and 25% light DNA
176. Select correct statements from the following (2) 25% hybrid and 75% light DNA
(A) DNA dependent DNA polymerase uses both the
(3) 0% hybrid and 100% light DNA
strands of DNA as a template
(4) 100% hybrid and 0% light DNA
(B) Replication of DNA can start from any site of DNA
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Molecular Basis of Inheritance Aakash Institute
182. DNA was extracted from Drosophila. The proportion 187. Tryptophan operon is
of cytosine was found to be 36%. Then what is the
(1) With three structural genes
amount of guanine and thymine ?
(2) Inducible system
(1) 36% and 36% respectively
(3) Repressible system
(2) 36% and 28% respectively
(4) Catabolic system
(3) 18% and 28% respectively
188. Calculate number of phosphodiester bonds in the
(4) 36% and 14% respectively nucleic acid of Lambda virus.
183. Select the correct statements (1) 2 × 5386 – 2 (2) 2 × 48502 – 2
(i) The pitch of DNA helix is 3.4 nm (3) 2 × 3.3 × 109 – 2 (4) 2 × 4800
(ii) DNA molecule having 1000 bp will have 1000 189. Read the following statements:
N-glycosidic linkage
(A) Galactose may bind with the repressor and
(iii) For transmission of genetic information RNA is inactive it
better material
(B) In the absence of lactose, the repressor binds at
(iv) Kornberg enzyme causes removal of RNA primer the operator region
(1) All are correct (2) (i), (iii) and (iv) (C) The z-gene codes for permease
(3) (i), (ii), (iii) (4) (ii), (iii), (iv) (D) This was elucidated by Jacob and Monod
184. Probe used for hybridisation in DNA fingerprinting is
The correct statements w.r.t. lac operon are
(1) ss DNA
(1) A and B (2) A and C
(2) ds DNA
(3) B and D (4) A and D
(3) ds RNA
190. Give the correct word or phenomenon in column B
(4) More than one option is correct for statements mentioned in column A
185. Some events that take place during synthesis of a Column A Column B
specific protein are listed below
I. Highly condensed ___(a)___
(A) Messenger RNA attaches to a ribosome
non-transcribing part
(B) DNA serves as a template for RNA production
of chromosome
(C) tRNA bonds to a specific codon
II. Small RNA helps in ___(b)___
(D) Amino acids are bonded together
DNA replication initiation
(E) RNA moves from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
III. Enzyme required to ___(c)___
The correct order of these events is
release supercoils of DNA
(1) B  E  A  C  D
(1) aEuchromatin (2) aHeterochromatin
(2) B  C  E  D  A
bDNA primer bRNA primer
(3) D  A  E  C  B
cTopoisomerase cHelicase
(4) C  B  A  E  D
(3) aHeterochromatin (4) aEuchromatin
186. Select the correct statements from the following
bRNA primer bRNA primer
(i) cDNA is generated from mRNA
cTopoisomerase cSSBP
(ii) Snips are rare in human genome
191. W hich of the following bond is not the
(iii) In DNA fingerprinting hybridisation is done with
characteristic of a single nucleotide?
molecular probe
(1) Phosphoester bond
(iv) Teminism requires DNA dependent RNA
polymerase (2) Phosphodiester bond
(1) All are correct (2) (ii) and (iii) (3) Glycosidic bond
(3) (iii) and (iv) (4) (i) and (iii) (4) Both (2) and (3)

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Aakash Institute Molecular Basis of Inheritance
192. Choose incorrect statement w.r.t a genetic material 197. Find the incorrect match
(1) Should be chemically and structurally stable (1) Central Dogma : F. Crick
(2) Inherit according to Mendelian principles (2) Operon : Jacob and Monod
(3) Should be able to generate its copy (3) Kornberg : DNA polymerase - I
(4) Must undergo mutations with faster rate (4) Teminism : Gamow
193. Which of the following is/are required in protein 198. Choose the incorrect pair (w.r.t transcription is
synthesis? prokaryotes)
I. Ligase II. Endonuclease (1) Promoter – Binding site for RNA
polymerase
III. tRNA IV. mRNA
(2) Terminator – Defines the end of
V. Amino acid pool VI. GTP
transcription process
VII. ATP
(3) Sigma factor – Meant for elongation
Choose the right combination for the statement
(4) Rho – Termination factor
(1) I, II, III (2) III, IV and VII only
199. Transposons are called
(3) III, VI and VII only (4) III, IV, V, VI and VII
(1) Split gene (2) Jumping gene
194. Chromosome number ___A___ has most genes
(3) Reporter gene (4) Regulator gene
(2968) and chromosome ___B___ has fewest
genes (231) 200. In Eukaryotes, RNA Polymerase-III catalyses the
synthesis of
(1) A  1, B  Y (2) A  1, B  X
(1) All rRNA and tRNA
(3) A  X, B  Y (4) A  Y, B  1
(2) mRNA, HnRNA and SnRNA
195. Which one is incorrect w.r.t prokaryotic mRNA?
(3) 5S rRNA, tRNA and SnRNA
(1) Polycistronic in nature
(4) 28S rRNA, 18S rRNA and 5S rRNA
(2) More stable than rRNA
201. Read the following statements A and B carefully
(3) Have Shine Delgarno sequence
and choose the correct option
(4) Lacks Cap and Tail
A: The genetic code is degenerate
196. Hogness box is the characteristic of
B: Most amino acids are coded by more than one
(1) Prokaryotic promoter codon
(2) Eukaryotic promoter (1) Both the statements A and B are incorrect
(3) Prokaryotic structural gene (2) Statements A is correct but B is incorrect

(4) Prokaryotic terminator (3) Both the statements A and B are correct and B
is the correct explanation of A
(4) Both the statements A and B are correct but B is
not the correct explanation of A



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Molecular Basis of Inheritance Aakash Institute

CPP-04
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (2) 2. (3) 3. (2) 4. (1) 5. (4) 6. (3) 7. (2)

8. (3) 9. (3) 10. (2) 11. (2) 12. (3) 13. (3) 14. (1)
15. (1) 16. (2) 17. (4) 18. (4) 19. (4) 20. (1) 21. (4)
22. (2) 23. (1) 24. (3) 25. (3) 26. (3) 27. (4) 28. (4)
29. (2) 30. (2) 31. (3) 32. (3) 33. (1) 34. (2) 35. (4)
36. (2) 37. (4) 38. (3) 39. (3) 40. (1) 41. (4) 42. (2)
43. (3) 44. (4) 45. (3) 46. (2) 47. (4) 48. (4) 49. (4)
50. (2) 51. (2) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (4) 55. (3) 56. (3)
57. (2) 58. (2) 59. (3) 60. (3) 61. (2) 62. (2) 63. (2)
64. (4) 65. (4) 66. (4) 67. (1) 68. (2) 69. (3) 70. (1)
71. (2) 72. (4) 73. (1) 74. (4) 75. (2) 76. (2) 77. (3)
78. (4) 79. (1) 80. (3) 81. (1) 82. (2) 83. (4) 84. (3)
85. (1) 86. (1) 87. (2) 88. (3) 89. (4) 90. (4) 91. (3)
92. (2) 93. (3) 94. (1) 95. (3) 96. (2) 97. (2) 98. (3)
99. (4) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (2) 104. (3) 105. (4)
106. (3) 107. (2) 108. (3) 109. (1) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (1)
113. (3) 114. (1) 115. (4) 116. (1) 117. (3) 118. (4) 119. (4)
120. (4) 121. (2) 122. (1) 123. (3) 124. (1) 125. (3) 126. (3)
127. (3) 128. (2) 129. (3) 130. (1) 131. (1) 132. (1) 133. (1)
134. (3) 135. (2) 136. (4) 137. (4) 138. (1) 139. (3) 140. (3)
141. (2) 142. (2) 143. (3) 144. (2) 145. (4) 146. (2) 147. (4)
148. (1) 149. (1) 150. (3) 151. (2) 152. (3) 153. (1) 154. (1)
155. (2) 156. (3) 157. (4) 158. (1) 159. (2) 160. (1) 161. (4)
162. (3) 163. (1) 164. (4) 165. (4) 166. (3) 167. (3) 168. (2)
169. (1) 170. (2) 171. (2) 172. (2) 173. (3) 174. (3) 175. (1)
176. (1) 177. (2) 178. (4) 179. (3) 180. (4) 181. (2) 182. (4)
183. (2) 184. (1) 185. (1) 186. (4) 187. (3) 188. (2) 189. (3)
190. (3) 191. (2) 192. (4) 193. (4) 194. (1) 195. (2) 196. (2)
197. (4) 198. (3) 199. (2) 200. (3) 201. (3)

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 CPP-04
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

Zoology
Chapterwise Practise Problems (CPP) for NEET
Chapter - Evolution Theories and Evidences

1. Best fossils are obtained from 8. Pouter, Jacobin and Fantail are the breeds of
(1) Sedimentary rock (2) Igneous rock __A__ produced by ___B__
(3) Metamorphic rock (4) Any type of rock Choose the correct option for A and B
2. Unit of natural selection is _______ and unit of A B
evolution is ______. 1 Fowl Natural selection
(1) Individual, population 2 Leghorn Hybridisation
(2) Population, individual
3 Rock pigeon Artificial selection
(3) Species, population
4 Fringilla Adaptive radiation
(4) Individual, individual
9. At a particular locus frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.6
3. Which of the following is not a reptilian character of and of ‘a’ is 0.4. What would be the frequency of
Archaeopteryx ? heterozygotes in a random mating population at
(1) The bones are not pneumatic equilibrium ?
(2) Presence of weak sternum (1) 0.36 (2) 0.16
(3) An intimate fusion of skull bones (3) 0.24 (4) 0.48
(4) Jaws bear teeth 10. Following diagram represents the operation of
4. Which of the following is an incorrect match of natural selection on different traits, represented as
period of geological time scale with the events of A, B and C. Find the appropriate example for A, B
evolution of history of life ? and C from the table
(1) Ordovician – Age of Invertebrates
(2) Devonian – Age of Reptiles
(3) Carboniferous – Age of Amphibians
(4) Permian – Origin of Mammals A
5. The ancestor of man who first started cave painting
is
(1) Australopithecus
(2) Java Ape man
B
(3) Peking man
(4) Cro-Magnon man
6. Who was the first hominid ?
(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo sapiens
(3) Australopithecus (4) Dryopithecus C
7. Which of the following is the correct sequence of
events in the origin of new species according to A B C
Darwin ? Existence of both tall
Heterozygotes of
(1) Natural selection, variation and their inheritance, Industrial
and dwarf
sickle cell anaemia
survival of fittest, struggle for existence, high rate 1 individuals but not
melanism in moth enjoy malaria
medium height
of reproduction individuals
resistance

(2) Enormous fertility, variation and their inheritance, G6PD deficiency Development of
in relation to antibiotic resistant Banding pattern of
struggle for existence and survival of fittest
2 malaria bacteria british land snail
(3) High rate of reproduction, struggle for existence, Development of Development of
variation and their inheritance, survival of fittest, DDT resistant antibiotic resistant Industrial melanism
natural selection 3 mosquito bacteria in moth
Heterozygotes of
(4) Survival of the fittest, variation and their Industrial
Development of
sickle cell anaemia
4 DDT resistant
inheritance, struggle for existence, enormous melanism in moth enjoy malaria
bacteria
fertility resistance

(1)
Evolution Theories and Evidences Aakash Institute
11. A condition under which nature eliminates the iii. Homo sapiens c. Cave painting
intermediate type and favours both extremes is
neanderthalensis d. First use of fire
called
iv. Homo sapiens fossilis
(1) Stabilizing selection
(1) (i)-(b), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(c), (iv)-(d)
(2) Progressive selection
(2) (i)-(d), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(a)
(3) Disruptive selection
(3) (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
(4) Directional selection
(4) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b), (iv)-(d)
12. The ratio of CH 4 : H 2 : NH 3 in Urey-Miller’s
experiment was 20. Selection of antibiotic resistant bacteria is an
example of
(1) 2 : 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 2 : 1
(1) Balancing natural selection
(3) 1 : 2 : 2 (4) 1 : 1 : 2
(2) Directional natural selection
13. Which of the following is a pair of homologous
organs ? (3) Disruptive natural selection
(1) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of cucurbita (4) Normalizing natural selection
(2) Eye of octopus and of mammals 21. The two concepts of Darwinian theory of evolution
are
(3) Limbs of arthropods and frogs
(1) Variation and survival of fittest
(4) Wings of bat and butterfly
(2) Survival of fittest and natural selection
14. Which of the following is a missing link ?
(3) Struggle for existence and survival of fittest
(1) Euglena (2) Neopilina
(4) Branching descent and natural selection
(3) Balanoglossus (4) Archaeopteryx
22. Which of the following cannot be considered as
15. In a population individuals showing dominant
vestigial organ ?
phenotype is 64%. If population size is 500
individual, find the number of individuals that are (1) Plica semilunaris, coccyx
heterozygous
(2) Splint bone in horse and wisdom teeth in human
(1) 80 (2) 240
(3) Additional mammae and dense body hair
(3) 180 (4) 320
(4) Vermiform appendix, panniculus carnosus
16. Selection of heterozygotes (Hb A /Hb S ) is an
23. The diversification of a common life form into varied
example of
life forms that spread into various habitats is called
(1) Stabilising selection
(1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Disruptive selection
(2) Parallel evolution
(3) Directional selection
(3) Adaptive convergence
(4) Antibiotic resistance
(4) Co-evolution
17. First homonid was
24. Fossils remains of Archeopteryx indicates that
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Erect man
(1) It was a flying reptile from triassic
(3) Handy man (4) True man
(2) It was a flying reptile from permian
18. Which of the following buried their loved ones with
(3) Reptiles gave rise to birds during permian
flower and tools ?
(4) Reptiles gave rise to birds during jurassic
(1) Erect man (2) Handy man
25. The first living organism were
(3) Neanderthal man (4) Cro-Magnon man
(1) Chemoautotrophs
19. Match the columns and choose the correct option
(2) Chemoheterotrophs
Column A Column B
(3) Autotrophs
i. Homo habilis a. Religious
(4) Eukaryotes
ii. Homo erectus b. First tool maker

(2)
Aakash Institute Evolution Theories and Evidences
26. Dryopithecus was more ______ and Ramapithecus (4) Neanderthal man is direct ancestor of modern
was more ______ primates who existed about man
_____ million years ago
33. Which of the following amino acids was not initially
(1) Ape like, man like, 15 synthesized in Miller’s experiment ?
(2) Man like, ape like, 25 (1) Glycine (2) Aspartic acid
(3) Ape like, man like, 2 (3) Glutamic acid (4) Alanine
(4) Man like, ape like, 2 34. Find out the incorrect statement
27. The cranial capacity of which fossils is closest to (1) Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is applicable to large
modern human ? randomly mating population
(1) Neanderthal man (2) Cro-magnon man (2) Sewall-W right effect is applicable to large
inbreeding population
(3) Java man (4) Heidelberg man
(3) Hybrid inviability causes death of hybrid
28. Choose the true one with respect to human
evolution (4) Ethological isolation is due to differences in
courtship pattern between closely related species
(1) Neanderthal and Homo habilis were living at the
same time 35. Two related population occupying geographically
separate area are
(2) Australopitheus was living in Australia
(1) Sympatric population
(3) Homo erectus had a larger brain capacity than
Neanderthal man (2) Allopatric population
(4) Extinct human ancestor who ate only fruits and (3) Parapatric population
hunted with stone weapons was Australopitheus
(4) Saltational population
29. Which of the following experiments suggests that
36. A population is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium for a
simplest living organisms could not have originated
gene with 2 alleles. If gene frequency of dominant
spontaneously from non-living matter ?
allele D is 0.6 then the genotype frequency of
(1) Larvae could appear in decaying organic matter carriers would be
(2) Meat was not spoiled, when heated and kept (1) 0.24 (2) 0.42
sealed in a vessel
(3) 0.36 (4) 0.48
(3) Microbes did not appear in stored meat
37. The appearance of DDT resistant variety of
(4) Microbes appeared from unsterilized organic mosquito amongst the sensitive ones during
matter increased exposure to DDT is an example of
30. Select the correct one w.r.t Jurassic period of the (1) Disruptive selection
mesozoic era.
(2) Stabilizing selection
(1) Gymnosperms are dominant plants and first birds
appear (3) Directional selection

(2) Radiation of reptiles and origin of mammal like (4) Artificial selection
reptile 38. Find the odd one out.
(3) Dinosaurs become extinct and angiosperms
(1) Sweet potato and potato
appear
(2) Wings of birds and insects
(4) Flowering plants and first dinosaurs appear
(3) Eyes of octopus and mammals
31. Darwin’s finches are excellent example of
(4) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
(1) Brood parasitism (2) Connecting links
39. Which of the following arrangement of periods of the
(3) Adaptive radiation (4) Seasonal migration
Paleozoic era gives a correct sequence from
32. Which of the following statement is incorrect ? earliest to the latest?
(1) Cromagnon man was having perfect orthognathus (1) Devonian  Carboniferous  Permian
face
(2) Carboniferous  Devonian  Permian
(2) Ramapithecus was on direct line of human
(3) Permian  Devonian  Carboniferous
evolution
(4) Triassic  Jurassic  Cretaceous
(3) Only heritable variations form the raw material for
evolution
(3)
Evolution Theories and Evidences Aakash Institute
40. Choose avian character of Archaeopteryx. (3) I - a, II - b, III - d, IV - c
(1) Non pneumatic bones (4) I - a, II - b, III - c, IV - d
(2) Presence of free caudal vertebrae 45. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
(3) Presence of weak sternum (1) Mutation theory - De vries
(4) Jaws modified into beak (2) Theory of germplasm - Weismann

41. Which of the following is incorrect match? (3) Neutral theory of evolution - Darwin
(4) Survival of the fittest - H. Spencer
(1) Carboniferous period – Age of amphibians
46. If 64% of the individuals in a population are homozygous
(2) Jurassic period – Age of dinosaurs recessive for a character then calculate the percentage
(3) Tertiary period – Age of invertebrates of heterozygous individuals in this population:

(4) Devonian period – Age of fishes (1) 36% (2) 0.04%

(3) 0.8% (4) 32%
42. W hich of the following is not a postulate of
Lamarckian theory? 47. Which of the following is an example of connecting link
species?
(1) Development and power of action of an organ is
directly proportional to its use (1) Lobe fish (2) Dodo bird

(2) Internal vital forces tend to increase size of the (3) Sea weed (4) Tyranosaurus rex
body 48. Reactants of Urey-Miller experiment include
(3) All changes acquired by the organism during its (1) Ammonia & methane
life are transmitted to the offsprings
(2) Methane & methionine
(4) The populations remain nearly stable in size
during seasonal fluctuations (3) Hydrogen & nucleic acid

43. Read the following statements(A - E): (4) Water & phenylalanine
A - S.L. Miller created electric discharge in a closed 49. Common origin of ape and humans are best shown
flask containing CH4, H2 & NH3. by
B - Miller observed the formation of Amino acids in (1) Binocular vision
flask like Arginine, Alaninine & glutamic acid.
(2) Cranial capacity
C - The first non-cellular form of life could have
originated 3 billion years back. (3) Chromosomal banding pattern
D - Earth was supposed to have been formed about (4) Dentition
4.5 million years back.
50. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium is not applicable for
E - Primitive atmosphere was reducing.
(1) Large randomly mating population
How many above statements are true ?
(2) Population exposed to natural selection
(1) 5 (2) 4
(3) Population without any mutation
(3) 3 (4) 2 (4) Population without any migration
44. Match the column A with column B & select the correct 51. Which of the following is not a feature of mutation
options: theory?
(1) Mutations may occur in any direction
Column A Column B
(2) Mutations are large and sudden
Wing of Bird s & Saltation & result
I. a. (3) Mutations are non-heritable, having no role in
Butterfly speciation
Australian evolution
II. b. Darwin's laboratory
marsupials
(4) Mutations are source of discontinuous variations
III. Galapagos Island c. Adaptive radiation
52. If 64% of individuals in populations are
Single large step Convergent homozygous recessive for a character, then
IV. d.
mutation Evolution calculate the percentage of individuals in this
Options are: population who exhibit the dominant trait

(1) I - d, II - c, III - a, IV - b (1) 48% (2) 36%

(2) I - d, II - c, III - b, IV - a (3) 4% (4) 32%

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Aakash Institute Evolution Theories and Evidences
53. Which of the following is not a reptilian character (2) According to Darwin, any population has built in
in Archaeopteryx? variation in characteristics

(1) Each finger terminates in a claw (3) Darwin highlighted the importance of small and
gradual changes in evolution, whereas, de Vries
(2) Jaws with teeth focussed on abrupt and drastic changes as the
cause of origin of species
(3) Long tail with free caudal vertebrae
(4) Evolution at genetic level like sickle cell anaemia
(4) Hind limb built on the typical avian plan is macroevolution
54. Choose the incorrect option 60. How many of the following structures are made
(1) Evolution of different species of finches in vestigeal/redundant due to adaptation of the
Galapagos are examples of convergent evolution organism to new environment?
(2) Mutations are discontinuous variations Hind limbs of Python, Muscles of external
ear in humans, Tail bone in humans,
(3) Small isolated populations are susceptible to
Wisdom teeth, Flipper of whales
genetic drift
(1) Four (2) Three
(4) Isolation & natural selection are important factors
(3) Five (4) Two
of evolution
61. Sweet potato and potato are an example of
55. Find the mismatch of different categories of humans
with their corresponding character. (1) Analogous organs
(1) Homo habilis – Brain capacity 650–800cc (2) Homologous organs
(2) Australopithecus – Lived in East African (3) Adaptive convergence
grasslands
(4) Divergent evolution
(3) Homo sapiens – Arose between 75,000–
62. Darwin explained that adaptive radiation gave rise to
10,000 mya
variety of marsupials in Australia in the same
(4) Dryopithecus – Existed about 15 mya process as found in
and was more like apes
(1) Placental mammals in other continents
56. Mark the biggest land reptiles which were of about
(2) Finches in Galapagos islands
20 feet in height, had huge dagger like teeth and
disappeared about 65 mya (3) Placental wolf and Tasmanian wolf-marsupial
(1) Brachiosaurus (2) Stegosaurus (4) Both (1) & (2)
(3) Tyrannosaurus (4) Triceratops 63. Which of the following amino acids was not found
to be synthesised in Miller’s experiment?
57. In Lederberg’s replica plating experiment,
streptomycin resistant strain can develop by using (1) Alanine (2) Glycine
(1) Minimal medium with streptomycin (3) Aspartic acid (4) Glutamic acid
(2) Complete medium with streptomycin
64. Find the incorrect statement
(3) Only minimal medium (1) Excess use of pesticides resulted in selection of
(4) Only complete medium resistant varieties is an example of evolution by
anthropogenic action
58. Population crashes leading to drastic reduction in
(2) Evolution is a stochastic process based on
population size, can cause change in allele
chance events in nature and chance mutation in
frequencies, such effect is
organisms
(1) Gene Flow (3) Mutations are random and directional
(2) Genetic recombination (4) Alfred Wallace worked in Malay Archipelago
(3) Genetic drift 65. Sickle cell anaemia is an example of
(4) Gene migration (1) Stabilising selection
59. Find the incorrect statement (2) Directional selection
(1) The fitness of an individual is referred to as its (3) Diversifying selection
reproductive fitness
(4) Disruptive selection
(5)
Evolution Theories and Evidences Aakash Institute
66. At a particular locus, frequency of ‘A’ allele is 0.3 e. Gene flow
and that of ‘a’ is 0.7, what will be the frequency of
(1) a and b (2) a, b and c
heterozygotes in random mating population at
equilibrium? (3) c only (4) c and e

(1) 0.48 (2) 0.21 74. Read statements A and B and choose the option
with correct statements
(3) 0.42 (4) 0.9
Statement A: If the both peripheral characters are
67. Unit of natural selection is selected rather than the mean
(1) Individual (2) Population character it is Disruptive selection

(3) Species (4) Mutation Statement B: This can be characterised by sickle

cell anaemia in African population
68. Sudden reappearance of a certain ancestral
structure that has completely disappeared or (1) A and B (2) Only B
reduced is called (3) Neither A nor B (4) Only A
(1) Atavism 75. Find the correct sequence of human evolution
(2) Convergent evolution A. Cro-magnon man B. Homo erectus
(3) Divergent evolution C. Australopithecus D. Homo habilis
(4) Speciation (1) D  A  B  C (2) B  C  D  A
69. Industrial melanism is an example of (3) C  B  D  A (4) C  D  B  A
(1) Directional selection 76. Read the following statements (A – F)
(2) Mutation A. Fossils are one of most acceptable evidences in
support of evolution
(3) Balancing selection
B. Excreta preserved in form of fossils are called
(4) Disruptive selection palynofossil
70. In ‘Stanley Miller’s experiment’ the ratio of methane, C. Fossils are mostly obtained from sedimentary
ammonia and hydrogen are rocks
D. Elephant like mammoths obtained from Siberia
(1) 3 : 1 : 2 (2) 2 : 1 : 2
are examples of petrified fossils
(3) 1 : 2 : 1 (4) 5 : 4 : 1 F. Most fossils are unpetrified fossils
71. The human ancestor who first used fire was How many of the above statements are true ?
(1) Australopithecus (2) Homo erectus (1) 1 (2) 2
(3) Cro-Magnon man (4) Neanderthal man (3) 3 (4) 4
72. Mutations are X while Darwinian variation are Y. X 77. Fill in the blanks and choose the correct option
and Y are ___a___ is the unit of natural selection and ___b___
is the unit of evolution
(1) X  Small and directional
(1) a - population, b - individual
Y  Random and directionless
(2) a - individual, b - population
(2) X  Small and directional
Y  Random and directional (3) a - species, b - phylum

(3) X  Random and directionless (4) a - subspecies, b - subphylum

Y  Small and directional 78. Given below are few characters of Archaeopteryx.
Select the reptilian characters
(4) X  Random and directional
a) Jaws modified into beak
X  Small and directional
b) Fused skull bones
73. Which of the following factor/s do not change the
Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium? c) Free caudal vertebrae
a. Gene migration d) Scales present
b. Genetic recombination e) Non pneumatic bones
c. Random mating (1) a, b and e (2) b, c and d
d. Genetic drift (3) b, c, d and e (4) c, d and e
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Aakash Institute Evolution Theories and Evidences
79. Choose the correct option aa. Then what will be the frequency of allele A in the
population ?
Statement A : Mixture of CH 4, NH 3 and H 2 was
taken in 2:1:2 ratio in Miller’s (1) 0.7 (2) 0.6
experiment
(3) 0.5 (4) 0.4
Statement B : Alanine, glycine and aspartic acid
were obtained at the end of the 84. Choose the incorrect statement
experiment (1) Cranial capacity of Cro-magnon man was more
(1) Only statement A is correct than modern man

(2) Only statement B is correct (2) Neanderthal man is called as first true man
(3) Australopithecus afarensis is called ‘Tuang baby”
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
(4) Dryopithecus was more ape-like, Ramapithecus
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
was more man-like
80. Match Column A with Column B and choose the
85. The closest ancestor of modern man is
correct option
(1) Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
Column - A Column - B
A. Lucy (i) Homo sapiens fossilis
(2) Homo sapiens fossilis

B. Handy man (ii) Australopithecus (3) Homo sapiens erectus

C. Peking man (iii) Homo habilis (4) Homo sapiens heidelbergensis

D. Cro-magnon man (iv) Homo erectus 86. Wallace line is in between
A B C D (1) Oriental and Australian region
(1) (iv) (ii) (iii) (i) (2) Oriental and Ethiopean region
(2) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv) (3) Australian and Ethiopean region
(3) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i) (4) Oriental and Nearctic region
(4) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv) 87. Read the following statements and choose the
81. Common origin of man and chimpanzee can be correct option
shown most accurately by Statement A : Single step large mutation is called
(1) Same number of chromosomes in both saltation
(2) Blood proteins are same in both Statement B : Evolution is a directed process in
(3) Lumbar curvature is same in both the sense of determinism

(4) Banding pattern of chromosome 3 and 6 is same (1) Both the statements are correct
in both
(2) Both the statements are incorrect
82. Choose the correct option (3) Only statement A is correct
Statement A : Artificial selection is similar to (4) Only statement B is correct
natural selection except that it is 88. Selection of antibiotic resistant bacteria is an
an anthropogenic process example of

Statement B : Plants like Cabbage, Broccolli, (1) Directional selection

Cauliflower etc. has been (2) Stabilising selection
produced from wild mustard by (3) Balancing selection
selective breeding
(4) Disruptive selection
(1) Only statement A is correct
89. In case of MN-blood group system, the frequencies
(2) Only statement B is correct of M and N alleles are 0.7 and 0.3 respectively. The
expected frequency of MN blood group bearing
(3) Both statements A and B are correct
organisms is likely to be
(4) Both statements A and B are incorrect
(1) 42% (2) 49%
83. In a population of 1000 individuals 360 belongs to
(3) 9% (4) 58%
genotype AA, 480 to Aa and the remaining 160 to
(7)
Evolution Theories and Evidences Aakash Institute
90. Mutations are X while Darwinian variations are Y. 95. Evolution of Australian marsupians and placental
Here X and Y are mammals are better examples of
(1) X  Small and directional (1) Adaptive radiation
(2) Convergent evolution
Y  Random and directionless
(3) Coevolution
(2) X  Small and directional (4) Mega evolution
Y  Random and directional 96. Study the given diagrammatic representatiln of the
operation of natural selection on different traits and
(3) X  Random and directionless
select the correct option
Y  Small and directional
(4) X  Random and directional
Y  Small and directional
91. Which theory of evolution explains that “Evolution is (A)
sudden and random process” ?
(1) Lamarck’s theory
(2) Theory of natural selection
(3) Mutation theory
(4) Modern theory of evolution (B)
92. Match the following w.r.t. to periods and origin or
age of different group of animals. Choose the
correct option
Column I Column II
(i) Ordovician (A) Age of amphibia
(C)
(ii) Devonian (B) Age of reptiles
(iii) Carboniferous (C) Age of fishes
(iv) Permian (D) Age of invertebrates (1) A – Industrial melanism
(E) Origin of mammals like (2) B – Malaria in relation to sickle cell anaemia
reptiles (3) C – G6-PD deficiency in relation to malaria
(1) (i) - (D), (ii) - (A), (iii) - (E), (iv) - (C) (4) A – Malaria in relation to sickle cell anaemia
among some population of Africa
(2) (i) - (C), (ii) - (A), (iii) - (D), (iv) - (B)
97. If nature selects more individuals with intermediate
(3) (i) - (D), (ii) - (C), (iii) - (A), (iv) - (E) characteristics compared to extremes, which kind of
(4) (i) - (D), (ii) - (B), (iii) - (C), (iv) - (A) selection is said to be operating ?
(1) Stabilising (2) Directional
93. How many of the following are essential to keep
genetic equilibrium constant ? (3) Disruptive (4) Diversifying
98. For a long time it was believed that life came out
(a) Selective mating (b) Natural selection
of non living decaying and rotting matter like straw,
(c) Random mating (d) No gene flow mud etc. This was the theory of
(e) Genetic drift (f) No genetic (1) Special creation
recombination (2) Catastrophism
(g) No mutation (3) Spontaneous generation
(1) Three (2) Four (4) Panspermia
99. W hich of the following statements is correct
(3) Five (4) Seven
regarding evolutionary theories ?
94. Adaptive radiation is best shown by
(1) Lamarck’s theory was supported by Weismann
(a) Darwin finches (b) Host-parasites (2) Darwinian variations are directionless
(c) Australian marsupials (3) Fitness is the end result of the ability to adapt
(1) a only (2) c and b and get selected by nature
(4) Theory of Inheritance of Acquired characters was
(3) c only (4) and and C
given by Hugo de Vries
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Aakash Institute Evolution Theories and Evidences
100. Fossils provide which type of evidence of evolution ? (4) Brain of vertebrates

(1) Anatomical and morphological 107. According to Modern Synthetic Theory of evolution,
the factor that does not contribute to evolution process
(2) Embryological
is
(3) Palaeontological
(1) Genetic recombination
(4) Biogeographical
(2) Inheritance of Acquired characters
101. All are examples of living fossils, except
(3) Natural selection
(1) Neopilina (2) Limulus
(4) Reproductive isolation
(3) Locusta (4) Sphenodon
108. The allelic frequency of recessive allele is 0.4. Find
102. Tendrils of Cucurbita and thorns of Bougainvillea are out the number of heterozygous individuals in a
(1) Homologous organs that have evolved due to population of 500
convergent evolution (1) 80 (2) 240
(2) Homologous organs that have evolved due to (3) 180 (4) 120
divergent evolution
109. What was the most significant trend in the evolution
(3) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
of modern man (Homo sapiens) from his
convergent evolution
ancestors ?
(4) Analogous organs that have evolved due to
divergent evolution (1) Increasing cranial capacity

103. How many of the given animals represent (2) Upright posture
discontinuous distribution of closely related species? (3) Absence of tail
(a) Egg laying mammals (b) Marsupials (4) Binocular vision
(c) Lung fishes 110. Which of the following statements is incorrect w.r.t
(1) One (2) Two evolution ?

(3) Three (4) None (1) Darwinian variations are large but directional

104. Find the incorrect match (2) Hugo de Vries believed mutation caused
speciation
(1) Lucy – Australopithecus africanus
(3) Unit of natural selection is individual
(2) Java ape man – Homo erectus erectus
(4) Unit of organic evolution is population
(3) Skillful man – Homo habilis
111. Read the following (A–F)
(4) Burial of dead – Homo sapiens neanderthalensis
(A) Free atoms
105. In recent years, DNA sequences of mitochondrial DNA
(B) Formation of organic molecules
and Y-chromosomes were considered significant to
study and understand human evolution because (C) Formation of inorganic molecules

(1) They can be obtained from any living or dead (D) Formation of Eobionts
human (E) Eukaryotes
(2) They are only present in humans (F) Prokaryotes
(3) They are small in size and easy to study Choose the correct sequence according to modern
(4) They are uniparental in inheritance and do not theory of origin of life
take part in recombination (1) ABCDEF
106. Which of the following is not an example of convergent (2) ACBDEF
evolution ?
(3) ACBDFE
(1) Wings of insect, bird and bat
(4) ABCDFE
(2) Flippers of Penguins and dolphins
(3) Similarity in Australian marsupials and placental
mammals

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Evolution Theories and Evidences Aakash Institute
112. Read the following statements (A – E) (3) Lemur – Tasmanian wolf
(A) Presence of a short tail in newborn babies is an (4) Bat – Flying phalanger
example of atavism
118. Selection of DDT-resistant mosquitoes is an
(B) The rate of appearance of new forms has no link example of _________selection
to the life span
(1) Directional
(C) Those animals which are better fit undergo natural
selection (2) Stabilising

(D) Evolution is not a directed process in the sense (3) Disruptive

of determinism (4) Balancing
(E) According to Darwin, evolution is a rapid, single-
119. Arrange the following in correct order for human
step process
evolution
How many of above statements are correct ?
(A) Homo erectus (B) Homo habilis
(1) Two (2) Three
(3) Four (4) Five (C) Modern man (D) Australopithecus

113. Choose odd one w.r.t vestigial organs in humans (E) Cro magnon man
(1) Vermiform appendix (2) Wisdom teeth (1) D  B  A  E  C
(3) Body hair (4) Epiglottis (2) D  A  B  E  C
114. Read the statements (A and B) and choose the (3) D  A  C  B  E
correct option
(4) D  B  C  A  E
Statement A : After industrialisation lichens did
120. Match the columns and choose the correct option
not grow abundantly on tree trunks
Column - I Column - II
Statement B : After industrialisation, Biston
betularia decreased in number, and (A) Cretaceous (i) Amphibians dominant ;
Biston carbonaria increased in origin of reptiles
number
(B) Jurassic (ii) Age of fishes ; origin of
(1) Both statements A and B are correct
amphibians
(2) Statement A is correct and B is wrong
(C) Carboniferous (iii) Angiosperms appear,
(3) Statement A is wrong and B is correct dinosaurs disappear

(4) Both statements are wrong (D) Devonian (iv) Dinosaurs and
gymnosperms dominate
115. Pick out the odd one w.r.t. homologous organs
(1) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (i), D - (ii)
(1) Hand of man and flippers of whale
(2) A - (iii), B - (ii), C - (iv), D - (i)
(2) Brains in vertebrates
(3) A - (i), B - (ii), C - (iii), D - (iv)
(3) Thorn of Bougainvillea and tendril of Cucurbita
(4) A - (iii), B - (iv), C - (ii), D - (i)
(4) Thorn and spine
121. How many of the following statements are false ?

116. Euglena, Neopilina, Balanoglossus, a) Homo habilis had a brain size of around 900 cc
Proterospongia, Peripatus
b) Homo erectus had a brain size of 650 – 800 cc
How many of the above are connecting links ? c) The Neanderthal man had a brain size of 1400 cc
(1) Two (2) Three d) Dryopithecus was more ape like than
Ramapithecus
(3) Four (4) Five
e) Australopithecus is the connecting link between
117. Identify correct match w.r.t. convergent evolution of apes and man
marsupials and placental mammals in Australia
(1) 2 (2) 5
(1) Anteater – Numbat
(3) 4 (4) 3
(2) Bobcat – Spotted cuscus

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Aakash Institute Evolution Theories and Evidences
122. Natural selection can lead to ____(i)____, (3) Life appeared 200 million years after the formation
___(ii)_____, ___(iii)____ of earth
(1) (i) Reproductive isolation, (ii) Polyploidy, (iii) (4) Oparin and Haldane proposed that the first life
Linkage could have come from pre-existing non-living
organic molecules
(2) (i) Stabilization, (ii) Directionless change, (iii)
Hybridization 129. Read the following statements and identify them as
True(T) or False(F)
(3) (i) Stabilization, (ii) Directional change, (iii)
Disruption (I) Genetic drift results in changed frequency of
genes and alleles in future generation
(4) (i) Reproductive isolation, (ii) Polyploidy, (iii)
Hybridization (II) In disruptive natural selection more individuals
acquire peripheral characters value at both end
123. Placental mammals in Australia have variable forms of distribution curve
which appear to be similar to a corresponding
(III) During ice age between 75,000 – 10,000 years
marsupial. This is the case of
ago modern Homo sapiens arose
(1) Adaptive radiation and divergent evolution (IV) The most successful story in the evolution of man
(2) Adaptive radiation and convergent evolution is language skill and self-consciousness
(3) Anthropogenic evolution I II III IV
(4) Divergent evolution (1) T F T T
124. Which of the following evidences does not favour
(2) F T F T
the Lamarckian concept of inheritance of acquired (3) T T F T
characteristics ? (4) T T T T
(1) Absence of limbs in snakes 130. W hich of the following is incorrect pair w.r.t.
analogous organs ?
(2) Lack of pigment in cave-dwelling animals
(1) Retina of Octopus Retina of vertebrates
(3) Presence of webbed toes in aquatic birds
(4) Melanization in peppered moth (2) Sting of honey bee Sting of scorpion

125. Survival of the fittest was proposed by __A___ and (3) Sweet potato Potato
according to Darwin fitness refers to __B__ only (4) Forelimbs of cheetah Forelimbs of whale
A B
131. Find the incorrect match?
(1) Darwin Environmental
adaptation Colomn I Column II
(2) Spencer Reproductive fitness (1) Lamarck Appetency
(3) Hugo de Vries Mutation (2) Charles Darwin Descent with
modification
(4) Darwin Reproductive fitness
(3) Alfred Wallace Theory of Pangenesis
126. W hich of the following is the correct set of
(4) Oparin Origin of life
pouched mammals w.r.t. adaptive radiation in
Australia ? 132. Hugo de Vries, based on his work on __A__
brought forth the idea of mutation. Mutations are
(1) Sugar glider, Tiger cat, Marsupial rat
random and __B__ while Darwinian variations are
(2) Lemur, Flying squirrel, Bobcat small and ___C___. Evolution for Darwin was
(3) Mouse, Mole, Wolf gradual while de Vries believed large mutation
causes speciation and hence called it __D__.
(4) Bobcat, Lemur, Anteater
Choose the option which correctly fills the blanks
127. Two key concepts of Darwinism are A, B, C and D
(1) Branching descent, Saltation (1) A - Evening Primrose (2) A - Evening Primrose
(2) Adaptive radiation, Branching descent B - Directional B - Directional
(3) Natural selection, Adaptive radiation C - Directionless C - Directionless
(4) Branching descent, Natural selection D - Saltation D - Natural selection

128. Choose the correct statement w.r.t. origin of life (3) A - Garden pea (4) A - Evening Primrose
B - Directionless B - Directionless
(1) Universe is almost 2.5 billion years old
C - Directional C - Directional
(2) Earth was formed almost 3.5 billion years back D - Saltation D - Saltation

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Evolution Theories and Evidences Aakash Institute
133. All the following are correct about ‘Genetic Drift’ 137. W hich of the following is not correct about
except Australopithecus?
(1) Genetic drift, also called as Sewall Wright Effect, (1) Probably lived in East African Grasslands
is more likely to occur in a small population
(2) 1st bipedal man
(2) If change in gene frequency occurs by chance it
is called genetic drift (3) Cranial capacity : 500 cc

(3) Two ramifications of genetic drift are Bottle neck (4) Human like teeth and orthognathous face
phenomenon and Founder’s effect 138. In the Negroid population in South Africa, with
(4) Genetic drift is a directional factor respect to sickle cell anaemia which of the following
is applicable?
134. The first hominid which probably did not eat meat,
having cranial capacity 650 - 800 cc was (A) Balancing selection

(1) Homo habilis (2) Homo sapiens (B) Stabilizing selection

(3) Australopithecus (4) Dryopithecus (C) Directional selection

135. Find the incorrect statement (D) Diversifying selection

(1) Analogous organs are the result of convergent (E) Heterozygote superiority
evolution in separate lineages (1) A, B and E only (2) A and E only
(2) Evolution is a stochastic process based on (3) C, D only (4) B, D and E only
chance events in nature and chance mutations
in organisms 139. Select the incorrect match
(3) During the course of evolution chemoautotrophs (1) Dryopithecus – Common ancestor of
evolved first ape and man

(4) Branching descent and natural selection are two (2) Homo habilis – Able man
key concepts of Darwin’s theory (3) Homo erectus – The tool maker man
136. Pouched mammals are present in Australia only (4) Homo sapiens fossilis – Direct ancestor of living
modern man
(1) Due to lack of placental mammals
(2) Due to continental drift, pouched mammals in
Australia survived
(3) Lack of competition from any other mammals
(4) More than one option is correct

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Aakash Institute Evolution Theories and Evidences

CPP-04
ONE YEAR
MEDICAL

ANSWERS

1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (2) 5. (4) 6. (1) 7. (3)

8. (3) 9. (4) 10. (2) 11. (3) 12. (2) 13. (1) 14. (4)

15. (2) 16. (1) 17. (3) 18. (3) 19. (3) 20. (2) 21. (4)

22. (3) 23. (1) 24. (4) 25. (2) 26. (1) 27. (1) 28. (4)

29. (2) 30. (1) 31. (3) 32. (4) 33. (3) 34. (2) 35. (2)

36. (4) 37. (3) 38. (4) 39. (1) 40. (4) 41. (3) 42. (4)

43. (3) 44. (2) 45. (3) 46. (4) 47. (1) 48. (1) 49. (3)

50. (2) 51. (3) 52. (2) 53. (4) 54. (1) 55. (3) 56. (3)

57. (2) 58. (3) 59. (4) 60. (1) 61. (1) 62. (4) 63. (4)

64. (3) 65. (1) 66. (3) 67. (1) 68. (1) 69. (1) 70. (2)

71. (2) 72. (3) 73. (3) 74. (4) 75. (4) 76. (2) 77. (2)

78. (4) 79. (3) 80. (3) 81. (4) 82. (3) 83. (2) 84. (3)

85. (2) 86. (1) 87. (3) 88. (1) 89. (1) 90. (3) 91. (3)

92. (3) 93. (2) 94. (4) 95. (2) 96. (4) 97. (1) 98. (3)

99. (3) 100. (3) 101. (3) 102. (2) 103. (3) 104. (1) 105. (4)

106. (4) 107. (2) 108. (2) 109. (1) 110. (1) 111. (3) 112. (2)

113. (4) 114. (1) 115. (4) 116. (4) 117. (1) 118. (1) 119. (1)

120. (1) 121. (4) 122. (3) 123. (2) 124. (4) 125. (2) 126. (1)

127. (4) 128. (4) 129. (4) 130. (4) 131. (3) 132. (4) 133. (4)

134. (1) 135. (3) 136. (4) 137. (4) 138. (1) 139. (3)

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