1

2
Objective based questions:-
1. The negative part of the addendum (the molecule to be added) adds on the carbon atom of the double bond
containing the least number of hydrogen atoms. This rule is known as
(a) Saytzeff’s rule (b) Peroxide rule (c) Markovnikov’s rule (d) van’t hoff rule
Ans: c
2. Which of the following compounds can yield only one monochlorinated product upon free radical chlorination?
(a) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane (b) 2-Methylpropane (c) 2-Methylbutane (d) n-Butane
Ans: (a) 2, 2-Dimethylpropane
3. The reaction

is an example of
(a) nucleophilic addition (b) free radical addition (c) electrophilic addition (d) electrophilic substitution
Ans: c
4. Halogen acids react with alcohols to form alkyl halides. The reaction follows a nucleophilic substitution
mechanism. What will be the product of the following reaction?

(d) CH3CH2CH2CH2CH2Cl
Ans: a
5. Bromination of methane in presence of sunlight is a
(a) nucleophilic substitution (b) free radical substitution (c) electrophilic substitution (d) nucleophilic addition
Ans: b
6. Alkyl halides are immiscible in water though they are polar because
(a) they react with water to give alcohols (b) they cannot form hydrogen bonds with water
(c) C -X bond cannot be broken easily (d) they are stable compounds and are not reactive.
Ans: b
7. Ethyl alcohol is obtained when ethyl chloride is boiled with
(a) alcoholic KOH (b) aqueous KOH (c) water (d) aqueous KMnO4
Ans: b
8. Methyl bromide reacts with AgF to give methyl fluoride and silver bromide. This reaction is called
(a) Fittig reaction (b) Swartz reaction (c) Wurtz reaction (d) Finkelstein reaction
Ans: b
9. Gem-dibromide is
(a) CH3CH(Br)CH2(Br) (b) CH3CBr2CH3 (c) CH2(Br)CH2CH2 (d) CH2BrCH2Br
Ans: (b)
10. IUPAC name of (CH3)3CCl
(a) 3-Chlorobutane (b) 2-Chloro-2-methylpropanem (c) t-butyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride
Ans: b
11. Which of the following is a primary halide?
(a) Isopropyl iodide (b) Secondary butyl iodide (c) Tertiary butyl bromide (d) Neohexyl chloride Ans: d.
3
12 When two halogen atoms are attached to same carbon atom then it is:
(a) vic-dihalide (b) gem-dihalide. (c) α, ω -halide (d) α, β –halide Ans: b

13 How many structural isomers are possible for a compound with molecular formula C3H7Cl?
(a) 2 (b) 5 (c) 7 (d) 9 Ans: a

14.The compound which contains all the four 1°, 2°, 3° and 4° carbon atoms is
(a) 2, 3-dimethyl pentane (b) 3-chloro-2, 3-dimethylpentane (c) 2, 3, 4-trimethylpentane (d) 3, 3-dimethylpentane
Ans: b
15. IUPAC name of CH3CH2C(Br) = CH—Cl is
(a) 2-bromo-1-chloro butane (b) 1-chloro-2-bromo butane (c) 3-chloro-2-bromo butene (d) None of the above
Ans: a
16. Benzene hexachloride is
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 – hexachlorocyclohexane (b) 1, 1, 1, 6, 6, 6 – hexachlorocyclohexane
(c) 1, 6 – phenyl – 1, 6 – chlorohexane (d) 1, 1 – phenyl – 6, 6 -chlorohexane
Ans: a
17. The IUPAC name of CH2 = CH—CH2Cl is
(a) Allyl chloride (b) 1-chloro-3-propene (c) Vinyl chloride (d) 3-chloro-1-propene
Ans: d
18. Which of the following halide is 2°?
(a) Isopropyl chloride (b) Isobutyl chloride (c) n-propyl chloride (d) n-butyl chloride
Ans: a
19. Halogenation of alkanes is
(a) a reductive process (b) an oxidative process (c) an isothermal process (d) an endothermal process
Ans: b
20. C – X bond is strongest in
(a) CH3Cl (b) CH3Br (c) CH3F (d) CH3I
Ans: c
21. Which of the following will have the maximum dipole moment?
(a) CH3F (b) CH3Cl (c) CH3Br (d) CH3I
Ans: b
22. Phosgene is a common name for
(a) phosphoryl chloride (b) thionyl chloride (c) carbon dioxide and phosphine (d) carbonyl chloride
Ans: d
23 In the preparation of chlorobenzene from aniline, the most suitable reagent is
(a) Chlorine in the presence of ultraviolet light (b) Chlorine in the presence of AlCl3
(c) Nitrous acid followed by heating with Cu2Cl2 (d) HCl and Cu2Cl2
Ans: c
24. Ethylene dichloride can be prepared by adding HCl to
(a) Ethane (b) Ethylene (c) Acetylene (d) Ethylene glycol
Ans: d
Assertion-reason Type Questions:-
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering these
questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
4
Q.1. Assertion: SN2 reaction of an optically active aryl halide with an aqueous solution of KOH always gives an
alcohol with opposite sign of rotation.
Reason: SN2 reactions always proceed with inversion of configuration.
Ans: (d) Assertion is false, because aryl halides do not undergo nucleophilic substitution under ordinary conditions.
This is due to resonance, because of which the carbon– chlorine bond acquires partial double bond character, hence it
becomes shorter and stronger and thus cannot be replaced by nucleophiles. However Reason is true.
Q.2. Assertion: Alkyl benzene is not prepared by Friedel-Crafts alkylation of benzene.
Reason: Alkyl halides are less reactive than acyl halides.
Answer(c) Alkyl halides give polyalkylation products.
Q.3. Assertion: Exposure of ultraviolet rays to human causes the skin cancer, disorder and disrupt the immune
system.
Reason: Carbon tetrachloride is released into air it rises to atmosphere and depletes the ozone layer.
Ans: (b) Carbon tetrachloride rises to atmosphere and deplete the ozone layer. This depletion of ozone layer increases
exposure of UV rays to human being which lead to increase of skin cancer, eye diseases and disorder with disruption
of the immune system.

Q.4. Assertion: CHCl3 is stored in dark bottles.

Reason : CHCl3 is oxidized in dark.
Ans: (c) CHCl3 is stored in dark bottles to prevent oxidation of CHCl3 in presence of sunlight.
Q.5. Assertion: CCl4 is not a fire extinguisher.
Reason : CCl4 is insoluble in water.
Ans: (d) CCl4 is used as a fire extinguisher. The dense, noncombustible vapours cover the burning substance and
prevents the availability of oxygen around burning material.

Case Study Question 1:

Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Nucleophilic substitution reactions are of two types; substitution nucleophilic bimolecular (SN2) and substitution
nucleophilic unimolecular (SN1) depending on molecules taking part in determining the rate of reaction. Reactivity of
alkyl halide towards SN1 and SN2 reactions depends on various factors such as steric hindrance, stability of
intermediate or transition state and polarity of solvent. SN2 reaction mechanism is favoured mostly by primary alkyl
halide or transition state and polarity of solvent, SN2 reaction mechanism is favoured mostly by primary alkyl halide
then secondary and then tertiary. This order is reversed in case of SN1 reactions.
The following questions are multiple choice question. Choose the most appropriate answer:
(i) Which of the following is most reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction?
(a) C6H5Cl (b) CH2=CHCl (c) ClCH2CH=CH2 (d) CH3CH=CHCl
(ii) Isopropyl chloride undergoes hydrolysis by
(a) SN1 mechanism (b) SN2 mechanism (c) SN1 and SN2 mechanism (d) neither SN1 nor SN2 mechanism
(iii) The most reactive nucleophile among the following is
(a) CH3O- (b) C6H5O- (c) (CH3)2CHO- (d) (CH3)3CO-
(iv) Tertiary alkyl halides are practically inert to substitution by SN2 mechanism because of
(a) insolubility (b) instability (c) inductive effect (d) steric hindrance
OR
Which of the following is the correct order of decreasing SN2 reactivity?
(a) RCH2X > R2CHX > R3CX (b) R3CX > R2CHX >RCH2X (c) R2CHX >R3CX > RCH2X (d) RCH2X >R3CX
>R2CHX
Answers (i) (c) Allylic chlorides are most reactive. (ii) c (iii) a (iv) d
or
(a) Larger the number of alkyl groups at alpha-carbon atom, more is the steric hindrance and hence lesser the
reactivity towards SN2 mechanism.

5
Very Short answer type questions:-
1. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound : (CH3)3 CCH2Br
Answer:

IUPAC name : 1-bromo-2, 2-dimethyl propane

2. Write the IUPAC name of the following compound : CH2 = CHCH2Br
Answer:

IUPAC name : l-Bromo-prop-2-ene

3. What happens when bromine attacks
CH2 = CH – CH2 – C ≡ CH
Ans:

4. Draw the structure of major monohalogen product formed in the following reaction
Ans:

Ans

5. Give a chemical test to distinguish between C2H5Br and C6H5Br.

Answer: Both are heated with aqueous NaOH. C2H5Br gives ethanol and NaBr, which on reacting with
AgNO3, gives yellow precipitate of AgBr.
C6H5Br does not respond to this test.
6. Arrange the following in increasing order of boiling point:
(i) CH3CH2CH2CH2Br (ii) (CH3)3.Br (iii) (CH3)2C.Br
Ans: (CH3)2C.Br < (CH3)2.CHCH2.Br < CH3CH2CH2CH2Br
7. What happens when CH3 — Br is treated with KCN?

6
 Ans:

8. What happens when ethyl chloride is treated with aqueous KOH?

Answer:

9. Which compound in the following pair undergoes faster SN1 reaction. *****

Answer:

reacts faster by SN1 mechanism as it is a tertiary halide and it produces a stable tertiary carbocation.
10. A hydrocarbon C5H12 gives only one mono-chlorination product. Identify the hydrocarbon.
Answer: Since there is only one monochloroderivative, the compound contains 12 equivalent hydrogen in four
equivalent CH3. The compound is 2, 2-dimethyl propane

11. Which would undergo SN2 reaction faster in the following pair and why?

Answer:
CH3CH2Br reacts faster because it is a primary halide (1° halide).
12. Write the structure of 2, 4-dinitrochlorobenzene.
Answer:

13. Out of

which is an example of allylic halide? *****

7
Answer:

14. Out of

which is an example of a benzylic halide?

Answer:

Short answer type questions:- ( 2 Marks)

1. Which one in the following pairs of substances undergoes SN2 substitution reaction faster and why?

Answer:

2. Complete the following reaction equations :

Answer:

8
 3. How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol,
(ii) Methyl magnesium bromide to 2-methyl- propan-2-ol.
Answer:
(i) Benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol

(ii) Methyl magnesium bromide to 2-methylpropan-2-ol

4. Haloalkanes undergo nucleophilic substitution whereas haloarenes undergo electrophilic substitution.

Explain.
Answer: Haloarenes (say chlorobenzene) is a resonance hybrid of the following five structures :

Resonance leads to lowering of energy and hence greater stability. On the other hand, no such resonance is possible in
haloalkanes. Halogens directly attached to benzene ring are o, p-directing in electrophilic substitution reactions. This
is due to greater electron density at these positions in resonance.
5. Chlorobenzene is extremely less reactive towards a nucleophilic substitution reaction. Give two reasons for the
same.
Answer: The reasons are:
(i) Due to resonance/diagrammatic representation, C – Cl bond acquires a partial double bond character. As a result,
the C – Cl bond in chlorobenzene is shorter and hence stronger. Thus, cleavage of C – Cl bond in benzene becomes
difficult which makes it less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution
(ii) Due to repulsion between nucleophile and electron rich arenes
6. (a) Why does p-dichlorobenzene have a higher m.p. than its o- and m-isomers?
(b) Why is (±)-Butan-2-ol optically inactive?
Answer: (a) p-isomers are comparatively more symmetrical and fit closely in the crystal lattice, thus require more heat
to break these strong forces of attraction. Therefore higher melting point than o- and m-isomers.
(b) (±)-Butan-2-ol is optically inactive because in racemic mix one type of rotation is cancelled by other.

7. Account for the following:

(i) The C – Cl bond length in chlorobenzene is shorter than that in CH3 – Cl.
(ii) Chloroform is stored in closed dark brown bottles. *****
Answer: (i) In haloalkanes, the halogen atom is attached

9
to sp3-hybridized carbon while in haloarenes it is attached to sp2 -hybridized carbon whose size is smaller than
sp3 orbital carbon. Therefore C – Cl bond in chloro-benzene is shorter than alkyl chloride.
(ii) CHCl3 is stored in dark coloured bottles to cut off light because CHCl3is slowly oxidised by air in presence of
light to form an extremely poisonous gas, carbonyl chloride, popularly known as phosgene.
8. Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(a) Benzyl chloride and Chlorobenzene
(b) Chloroform and Carbon tetrachloride*****
Answer:
(a) Chlorobenzene and Benzyl chloride :
Benzyl chloride is more reactive than chlorobenzene towards nucleophillic substitution reactions, therefore, benzyl
chloride on boiling with aqueous KOH produces benzyl alcohol and KCl.

The reaction mixture on acidification with dil. HNO3 followed by treatment with AgNO3 solution produces white
ppt. of AgCl due to formation of KCl

But chlorobenzene does not undergo hydrolysis under these mild conditions to give phenol and KCl.
(b) Chloroform and Carbon tetrachloride
By Carbylamine test: CCl4 does not give this reaction but chloroform gives this reaction and produces offensive
smell of phenyl isocyanide.

9.Explain why :
(a) The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride.
(b) Alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible with water.
Answer: (a) Chlorobenzene has lower dipole moment than cyclohexyl chloride due to lower magnitude of -ve charge
on the Cl atom and shorter C – Cl distance. Due to greater S-character, a sp2-hybrid carbon is more electronegative
than a sp3-hybrid carbon. Therefore, the sp2-hybrid carbon of C – Cl bond in chlorobenzene has less tendency to
release electrons to Cl thansp3 hybrid carbon of cyclohexyl chloride.

(b) Alkyl halides and polar molecules are held together by dipole-dipole interaction. The molecules of H2O are
held together by H- bonds. Since the new forces of attraction between water and alkyl halide molecules are
weaker than the forces of attraction already existing between alkyl halide-alkyl halide molecules and water-
water molecules, therefore alkyl halides are immiscible (not soluble) with water.
10
 11. Draw the structure of major monohalo product in each of the following reactions :

Answer:

12. Write the IUPAC names of the following compounds :

(i) CH2 = CHCH2Br
(ii) (CCl3)3 CCl *****
Answer:
(i) CH2 = CHCH2 – Br
IUPAC name : 3-Bromopropene
(ii) (CCl3)2—C—Cl :
IUPAC name : 2-(Trichloromethyl) – 1, 1, 1, 2, 3, 3, 3-heptachloropropane
13. What are ambident nucleophiles? Explain with an example. *****
Answer: Ambident nucleophile : A nucleophile that can form new bonds at two or more spots in its structure, usually
due to resonance contributors. Example: S = C = N– can act as a nucleophile with either the S or N attacking.
14. Write the structures of the following organic halogen compounds :
(i) 4-tert-Butyl-3-iodoheptane
(ii) 4-Bromo-3-methylpent-2-ene
Answer:
(i) 4-tert-Butyl-3-iodoheptane

15. Write the equations for the preparation of 1-bromobutane from :

(i) 1-butanol (ii) but-l-ene *****

11
16. Which compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in SN2 reaction with —OH?

(i) CH3Br or CH3I (ii) (CH3)3 CCl or CH3Cl*****

Answer :(i) CH3I: Because Iodide is better leaving group than bromide.
(ii) CH3Cl :Carbon atom leaving group is less hindered.
17. Which alkyl halide from the following pair is (i) Chiral and (ii) undergoes SN1 reaction faster?
(a) (CH3)2CBr
(b) CH3CH2CHBrCH3 *****
Answer:
(i) 2-Bromobutane is chiral as the central C atom has all 4-different groups.
(ii) 3° Alkyl bromide i.e. (CH3)3CBr undergoes SN1 reaction faster due to more stability of 3° carbocation

18. How will you carry out the following conversions :

(i) 2-Bromopropane to 1-bromopropane
(ii) Benzene to p-chloronitrobenzene
Answer

12
Short answer type questions:- ( 3 Marks)
1. (i) State one use each of DDT and iodoform.
(ii) Which compound in the following couples will react faster in SN2 displacement and why?
(a) 1-bromopentane or 2-bromopentane
(b) l-bromo-2-methylbutane or 2-bromo-2-methylbutane. (Delhi 2010)
Answer:
(i) Use of DDT (Dichlorodiphenyl Trichloroethane): As a powerful insecticide, it is widely used for sugarcane and
fodder crops to kill mosquitoes, lice which carry pathogens.
Use of iodoform (CHI3) : It is used as an antiseptic for dressing wounds. Its antiseptic action is due to liberation of
iodine when iodoform comes in contact with skin but not due to iodoform itself.
(ii) In SN2 reactions, reactivity depends upon steric hindrance
(a) 1-Bromopentane (1° halogen) having less steric hindrance therefore is more reactive than 2-Bromopentane hence
undergoes SN2 reactions faster.

(b) 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane having less steric hindrance, is thus more reactive towards SN2 reaction than 2-
bromo-2-methyl butane (more steric hindrance).
2. How would you differentiate between S<subN1 and SN2 mechanisms of substitution reactions? Give one
example of each. *****

13
 Answer:

4. Rearrange the compounds of each of the following sets in order of reactivity towards SN2 displacement :
(i) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane
(ii) l-Bromo-3-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-2-methyl-butane, 3-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(iii) 1-Bromobutane, l-Bromo-2,2-dimethyl-propane, l-Bromo-2-methylbutane *****
Answer:
(i) 1-Bromopentane > 2-Bromopentane > 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(ii) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane > 3-Bromo-2 methylbutane > 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane
(iii) 1-Bromobutane > 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane > 1-Bromo-2, 2-dimethylpropane.
5. Although chlorine is an electron withdrawing group, yet it is ortho-, para-directing in electrophilic aromatic
substitution reactions. Explain why it is so? (Delhi 2012)
Answer:
Chlorine withdraws electrons through inductive effect and releases through resonance. Although Cl shows -1
effect but through resonance, Cl tends to stabilize the intermediate carbocation and the effect is more
pronounced at ortho and para positions.
This can also be explained diagrammatically as:

14
6.. Answer the following questions *****
(i) What is meant by chirality of a compound? Give an example.
(ii) Which one of the following compounds is more easily hydrolyzed by KOH and why?
CH3CHClCH2CH3 or CH3CH2CH2Cl
(iii) Which one undergoes SN2 substitution reaction faster and why?

Answer:
(i) Chirality : The objects which are non-superimposable on their mirror image are said to be chiral and this
property is known as chirality for Butan-2-ol

C is non-superimposable on its mirror image A.

(iii) As I is a better leaving group because of its large size, it will be released at a faster rate in the presence of
incoming nucleophile.

15
7.(a) Draw the structures of major monohalo products in each of the following reactions :

(b) Which halogen compound in each of the following pairs will react faster in SN2 reaction :
(i) CH3Br or CH3I
(ii) (CH3)3 C – Cl or CH3 – Cl (All India 2014)
Answer:

(b) (i) CH3Br will react faster in SN2 reaction.

(ii) CH3 – Cl will react faster in SN2 reaction.
8. Give reasons :
(a) n-Butyl bromide has higher boiling point than f-butyl bromide.
(b) Racemic mixture is optically inactive.
(c) The presence of nitro group (-NO2) at o/p positions increases the reactivity of haloarenes towards nucleophilic
substitution reactions. *****
Answer:
(a) n-Butyl bromide has higher boiling point than f-butyl bromide because it has larger surface area hence have more
Van der Waals’ forces.
(b) Rotation due to one enantiomer is cancelled by another enantiomer.
(c) The presence of nitro group (-NO2) at ortho and para positions withdraws the electron density’ from benzene ring
and thus facilitating the attack of nucleophile.
9. How can the following conversions be carried out :
(i) Aniline to bromobenzene
(ii) Chlorobenzene to 2-chloroacetophenone
(iii) Chloroethane to butane *****
Answer:
(i) Aniline to bromobenzene

10. What happens when

(i) Chlorobenzene is treated with Cl2/FeCl3,
16
(ii) Ethyl chloride is treated with AgNO2,
(iii) 2-bromopentane is treated with alcoholic KOH?
Write the chemical equations in support of your answer. ****
Answer:

11. How do you convert:*****

(i) Chlorobenzene to biphenyl
(ii) Propene to 1-iodopropane
(iii) 2-bromobutane to but-2-ene
Answer:
(i) Chlorobenzene to biphenyl (Fittig reaction)

12. Write the major product(s) in the following:

Answer:

17
13. What happens when
(i) CH3—Cl is treated with aqueous KOH?
(ii) CH3—Cl is treated with KCN?
(iii) CH3—Br is treated with Mg in the presence of dry ether?
Answer:
14. Write structures of compounds A, B and C in each of the following reactions:*****

>
Answer:

15., (a) Write the structural formula of A, B, C and D in the following sequence of reaction:

(b) Illustrate Sandmeyer’s reaction with the help of a suitable example. *****

18
Answer:

(b) Sandmeyer’s reaction: The substitution of diazo group of benzene diazonium chloride by Chloro, Bromo and
Cyano group with the help of solution of CuCl dissolved in HC1, CuBr/HBr and CuCN/KCN respectively is known
as Sandmeyer’s reaction.

16. (a) Account for the following :

(i) Electrophilic substitution reactions in haloarenes occur slowly.
(ii) Haloalkanes, though polar, are insoluble in water.
(b) Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of reactivity towards SN2 displacement:
2-Bromo-2-Methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane, 2-Bromopentane
Answer:
(a) (i) Due to -I effect of halogen atom, it withdraws electrons from the benzene ring and thus ring gets deactivated.
(ii) They fail to form hydrogen bonds with water. More energy is required to break hydrogen bonds in water and less
energy is released when new attractions are set up.
(b) 2-Bromo-2-Methylbutane < 2-Bromopentane < 1-Bromopentane

Long answer type questions:- (5 Marks)

1. (i) Draw other resonance structures related to the following structure and find out whether the functional group
present in the molecule is ortho, para directing or meta directing.

19
Ans: It is clear from resonating structures that there is an increase in electron density at ortho and para
positions. Therefore, the functional group ‘X’ is ortho and para directing.
(ii) Classify the following compounds as primary, secondary and tertiary halides.
(a) 1-Bromobut-2-ene
Answer: Primary
(b) 4-Bromopent-2-ene
Answer: secondary
(c) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
Answer: tertiary

20
21
22
OBJECTIVE BASED QUESTIONS:-
Q.1. The compound which reacts fastest with Lucas reagent at room temperature is
(a) Butan-1-ol (b) Butan-2-ol
(c) 2-Methyl propan-1-ol (d) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol
Ans:d
Q.2. In the reduction
R — CHO + H2 → RCH2OH

the catalyst used is :

(a) Ni (b) Pd
(c) Pt (d) Any of these
Ans: (d) Any one of Ni, Pt or Pd can be used in the reduction of aldehydes.
Q.3. Acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes except ethene leads to the formation of
(a) primary alcohol (b) secondary or tertiary alcohol
(c) mixture of primary and secondary alcohols (d) mixture of secondary and tertiary alcohols
Answer: (b)
Q.4. Ethyl alcohol can be prepared from Grignard reagent by the reaction of :
(a) HCHO (b) R2CO
(c) RCN (d) RCOCl
Answer: (a)
Q.5. Isopropyl alcohol is obtained by reacting which of the following alkenes with concentrated
H2SO4 followed by boiling with H2O?
(a) Ethylene (b) Propylene
(c) 2-Methylpropene (d) Isoprene
Answer: (b)
Q.6. Ethylene reacts with Baeyer’s reagent to give
(a) ethane (b) ethyl alcohol
(c) ethylene glycol (d) None of these
Answer: (c)
Q.7. Ethyl alcohol is industrially prepared from ethylene by
(a) Permanganate oxidation (b) Catalytic reduction
(c) Absorbing in H2SO4 followed by hydrolysis (d) All the three
Answer: (c)
Q.8. Sodium salt of benzene sulphonic acid on fusion with caustic soda gives
(a) Benzene (b) Phenol
(c) Thiophenol (d) Benzoic acid
Answer: (b)
Q.9. Alkenes convert into alcohols by
(a) hydrolysis by dil. H2SO4 (b) hydration of alkene by alkaline KMnO4
(c) hydrolysis by water vapours and conc. HNO3 (d) hydration of alkene by aqueous KOH
Answer: (b)
Q.10. Which of the following reacts with NaOH to give an alcohol?
(a) Propene (b) Butene
(c) Ethanal (d) Methanal
Answer: (d)
Q.11. By which of the following methods alcohol can be prepared in excellent yield?
(a) From alkenes (b) By hydroboration-oxidation
(c) From carbonyl compounds (d) From Grignard reagent
Answer: (b)
Q.12. Which of the following compounds is oxidised to prepare methyl ethyl ketone?
(a) 2-Propanol (b) l-Butanol
(c) 2-Butanol (d) t-Butyl alcohol
Answer: (c)
Q.13. HBr reacts fastest with
(a) 2-Mehtylpropan-1-ol (b) 2-Methylpropene-2-ol
(c) propan-2-ol (d) propan-1-ol
Answer: (b) Greater the stability of the intermediate carbocation, more reactive is the alcohol. Since 2-
methylpropan-2-ol generates 3° carbocation, therefore, it reacts fastest with HBr.
23
Q.14. n-Propyl alcohol and isopropyl alcohol can be chemically distinguished by which reagent?
(a) PCl5 (b) Reduction
(c) Oxidation with potassium dichromate (d) Ozonolysis
Ans: (c)
Q.15. Lucas reagent is
(a) Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 (b) Conc. HNO3 and hydrous ZnCl2
(c) Conc. HCl and hydrous ZnCl2 (d) Conc. HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2
Ans: (a)

Now!
Q.16.Which of the following alcohols gives 2-butene on dehydration by conc. H2SO4?
(a) 2-methyl propene-2-ol (b) 2-methyl 1 -propanol
(c) Butane-2-ol (d) Butane-1-ol
Ans: (d)
Q.17.Which of the following reagents can not, be used to oxidise primary alcohols to aldehydes?
(a) CrO3 in anhydrous medium (b) KMnO4 in acidic medium
(c) Pyridinium chlorochromate (d) Heat in the presence of Cu at 573 K
Ans: (b)
Q.18 1-Phenylethanol can be prepared by the reaction of benzaldehyde with
(a) methyl bromide (b) ethyl iodide and magnesium
(c) methyl iodide and magnesium (Grignard reagent’s)(d) methyl bromide and aluminum bromide
Ans: (d)
19. Phenol reacts with Br2 in CS2 at low temperature to give
(a) o-Bromophenol (b) o-and p-bromophenols
(c) p-Bromophenol (d) 2, 4, 6Tribromophenol
Ans: (b)
20. The correct order of boiling points for primary (1°), Secondary (2°) and Tertiery (3°) alcohols is
(a) 1° > 2° > 3° (b) 3° > 2° > 1°
(c) 2° > 1° > 3° (d) 2° > 3° > 1°
Ans: (a)
Assertion-reason Type Questions:-
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Q.1. Assertion : The bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle.
Reason : In alcohols, the oxygen of –OH group is attached to sp3 hybridized carbon atom.
Answer(a)
Q.2. Assertion : In Lucas test, 3º alcohols react immediately.
Reason : An equimolar mixture of anhyd. ZnCl2 and conc. HCl is called Lucas reagent.
Answer (b)
Q.3. Assertion : Reimer-Tiemann reaction of phenol with CCl4 in NaOH at 340 K gives salicylic acid as the
major product.
Reason : The reaction occurs through intermediate formation of dichlorocarbene.
Ans C
Q.4. Assertion : Phenol is more reactive than benzene towards electrophilic substitution reaction.
Reason : In the case of phenol, the intermediate carbocation is more resonance stabilized.
Answer (a)
Q.5. Assertion : In case of phenol, bromination takes place even in absence of Lewis acid whereas bromination of
benzene takes place in presence of Lewis acid like FeBr3.
Reason : – OH group attached to benzene ring is highly deactivating.
Answer (c)
Q.6. Assertion : ter – Butyl methyl ether is not prepared by the reaction of ter-butyl bromide with sodium
methoxide.
Reason : Sodium methoxide is a strong nucleophile.
Answer (b)
24
Q.7. Assertion : Ethers behave as bases in the presence of mineral acids.
Reason : Due to the presence of lone pairs of electrons on oxygen.
Answer (a)
Q.8. Assertion : With HI, anisole gives iodobenzene and methyl alcohol.
Reason : Iodide ion combines with smaller group to avoid steric hindrance.
Answer (d)
Q.9. Assertion : With HI at 373 K, ter-butyl methyl ether gives ter-butyl iodide and methanol.
Reason : The reaction occurs by SN2 mechanism.
Answer (c)
Q.10. Assertion : Ethyl phenyl ether on reaction with HBr form phenol and ethyl bromide.
Reason : Cleavage of C–O bond takes place on ethyl oxygen bond due to the more stable phenyl-oxygen bond.
Answer ( c)
VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:- (1 Mark)
Question 1.
Give the IUPAC name of the following compound :

Answer:

IUPAC name : 2-Bromo-3-methyl-but-2-ene-1-ol

Question 2
Write the structure of the molecule of a compound whose IUPAC name is 1-phenylpropan-2-ol.
Answer:
1-phenylpropan-2-ol

Question 3
How would you convert ethanol to ethene?
Answer:

Question 4
Draw the structure of 2, 6-Dimethylphenol.
Answer:

Question 5
Draw the structural formula of 2-methylpropan- 2-ol molecule.
Answer:

Question 6
Draw the structure of hex-l-en-3-ol compound. 25
Answer:
CH2 = CH – CH(OH) – CH2 – CH2 – CH3
Question 7
Ortho nitrophenol has lower boiling point than p-nitrophenol. Why ?
Answer:
Ortho-nitrophenol has lower boiling point due to formation of intramolecular H-bonding whereas p-nitrophenol
forms intermolecular H-bonding.
Question 8.
The C-O bond is much shorter in phenol than in ethanol. Give reason.
Answer:
Carbon of C-O bond of phenol is Sp2 hybridised, so it acquires a partial double bond character but in ethanol it is
Sp3 hybridised and a single bond. Double bond is shorter than a single bond.
Question 9
Give a chemical test to distinguish between 2-Pentanol and 3-Pentanol.
Answer:
2-pentanol gives Iodoform test with yellow ppt. of Iodoform while 3-pentanol does not give this test.
Question 10
Write the chemical reaction to explain Kolbe’s reaction.
Answer:
Kolbe’s reaction : Phenol reacts with CO2 in presence of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) at 4 – 7 Atm and 390 – 410 K
giving salicylic acid

Question 11.
How would you obtain ethane-1, 2-diol from ethanol?
Answer:

Question 12
How would you obtain Acetophenone from phenol?
Answer:

Question 13
What happens when phenol is oxidized by Na2Cr2O7/H2SO4?
Answer:
Phenol forms benzoquinone on oxidation with Na2Cr2O7 / H2SO4,

Question 14
Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds: Benzoic acid and Phenol
Answer: 26
Ferric chloride test. Add neutral FeCl3 in both the solutions, phenol reacts with neutral FeCl3 to form an iron-
phenol complex giving violet color but benzoic acid does not.

SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:- (2 Marks)

Question 15.
Complete the following reaction equations :

Answer:

Question 16
Illustrate the following reactions giving a chemical equation for each :
(i) Kolbe’s reaction *****
(ii) Williamsons synthesis of an ether*****
Answer:
(i) Kolbe’s reaction : Phenol reacts with CO2 in presence of sodium hydroxide (NaOH) at 4 – 7 atm and 390 – 410
K giving salicylic acid

(ii) Williamsons synthesis of an ether : The reaction involves the nucleophilic substitution of the halide ion from
the alkyl halide by the alkoxide ion by SN2 mechanism.
Example :

Question 17.
7Explain the following reactions with an example for each :
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction*****
(ii) Friedel-Crafts reaction.
Answer:
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction : Treatment of phenol with CHCl3 in presence of aqueous NaOH at 340K followed
by hydrolysis gives salicylaldehyde.
(ii) Friedel-Crafts reaction : This reaction is used for introducing an alkyl or an acyl group into an aromatic
compound in presence of Lewis acid catalyst (AlCl3)

27
Example:

Question 18.
How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Propene to propan-2-ol*****
(ii) Ethylmagnesium chloride to propan-1-ol.
Answer:
(i) Propene to propan-2-ol

(ii) Ethylmagnesium chloride to propan-1-ol

Question 19.
How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol,
(ii) Methyl magnesium bromide to 2-methylpropan-2-ol.
Answer:
(i) Benzyl chloride to benzyl alcohol

Question 20.
8Explain the following giving one example for each :
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction.
(ii) Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole.
Answer:

28
(ii) Friedel-Craft’s acetylation of anisole :

Question 21
How would you obtain
(i) Picric acid (2, 4, 6-trinitrophenol) from phenol*****
(ii) 2-Methylpropene from 2-methylpropanol?
Answer:
(i) Picric acid from phenol :

Question 22.
Explain the mechanism of acid catalysed hydration of an alkene to form corresponding alcohol. *****
Answer:
Acid catalysed hydration : Alkenes react with water in the presence of acid as catalyst to form alcohols

Mechanism : It involves three steps :

(i) Protonation of alkene to form carbocation by electrophilic attack of H3O+

Question 23
Explain the following behaviours :
(i) Alcohols are more soluble in water than the hydrocarbons of comparable molecular masses.
(ii) Ortho-nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol. (All India 2012)
Answer:
(i) Alcohols can form H-bonds with water and break the H-bonds already existing between water molecules. So

29
they are soluble in water.

On the other hand, hydrocarbons cannot form H-bonds with water and hence are insoluble in water.
(ii) Due to strong – R and -1 effect of the – NO2 group, electron density in the – OH bond decreases and hence the
loss of a proton becomes easier. Moreover O-nitrophenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance, 1 thereby making O-
nitrophenol a stronger acid.
In O-methoxyphenol, due to + R effect of the – OCH3 group the electron density in the O – H bond increases
thereby making the loss of proton difficult. Furthermore, the Q-methoxy phenoxide ion left after the loss of a
proton is destabilized by resonance because the two negative charges repel each other. So O-methoxyphenol is
a weaker acid.
Question 24
Explain the mechanism of following reaction: *****

Answer:

Question 25
How will you convert the following?
(i) Propan-2-ol to propanone
(ii) Phenol to 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol
Answer:
(i) Propan-2-ol to propane

(ii) Phenol to 2, 4, 6-tribromophenol: Phenol reacts with bromine in presence of polar solvent H2O to form 2, 4, 6-
tribromophenol (white ppt.)

30
Question 26.
How will you convert:
(i) Propene to Propane-1-ol?
(ii) Ethanal to Propan-2-ol
Answer:
(i) Propene to Propane-1-ol

Question 27.
Write the equations involved in the following reactions:
(i) Reimer-Tiemann reaction*****
(ii) Williamson’s ether Synthesis *****
Question 28
Write the mechanism of the following reaction *****

Answer:

Question 29
Write the equations involved in the following reactions:
(i) Williamson ether synthesis*****
(ii) Kolbe’s reaction .*****

Question 30
How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Propene to Propan-2-ol
(ii) Ethyl chloride to Ethanal

31
Answer:
(i) Propene to propan-2-ol

Question 31

Explain the mechanism of dehydration steps of ethanol :*****

Answer:

Question 32.
Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ethene.*****
Answer:
The mechanism of dehydration of ethanol involves the following steps :
Step 1 : Formation of protonated alcohol

32
Question 33
Write the mechanism of the following reaction:

Answer:
Mechanism:

Question 34
(a) Arrange the following compounds in the increasing order of their acid strength: p-cresol, p-nitrophenol, phenol
(b) Write the mechanism (using curved arrow notation) of the following reaction:

Answer: (a) Order of acidic strength:

p-cresol < phenol < p-nitrophenol
(b) Mechanism of acid catalysed hydration of alkene:
Step 1: Protonation of alkene to form carbocation by electrophilic attack of H3O+.

Question 35.

Write the structures of the products when Butan-2-ol reacts with the following:
(a) CrO3
(b) SOCl2
Answer:

33
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS:- (3 Marks)

Question 36.
Explain the mechanism of the following reactions :
(i) Addition of Grignard’s reagent to the carbonyl group of a compound forming an adduct followed by hydrolysis.
(ii) Acid catalysed dehydration of an alcohol forming an alkene.*****
(iii) Acid catalysed hydration of an alkene forming an alcohol.*****
(Answer.) Carbonyl group undergoes nucleophillic addition reaction with Grignard reagent to form an adduct
which undergoes hydrolysis to give alcohol in the following manner:

iii) Acid catalysed hydration : Alkenes react with water in the presence of acid as catalyst to form alcohols.
Mechanism : It involves the following three steps :
Step 1 : Protonation of alkene to form carbocation by electrophilic attack of H3O+

Question 37.
Explain the following observations :
(i) The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of methoxymethane.
(ii) Phenol is more acidic than ethanol.
(iii) o- and p-nitrophenol are more acidic than phenol.
Answer:
(i) Due to presence of intermolecular H-bonding, associated molecules are formed, hence ethanol has high boiling
point while methoxymethane does not have intermolecular H-bonding.
(ii) Phenol on losing H+ ion forms phenoxide ion, and ethanol on losing H+ ion forms ethoxide ion. Phenoxide ion
is more stable than ethoxide ion as phenoxide ion exists in resonance structure. Due to this phenol is more acidic
than ethanol.
(iii) Both o- and p-nitrophenol contain the NO2 group which is an electron withdrawing group. Due to -R and -I
effect of the -NO2 group, electron density in the OH bond of substituted phenol decreases and hence the loss of
proton becomes easy and therefore more acidic.
Question 38.
14How would you convert the following :
(i) Phenol to benzoquinone
(ii) Propanone to 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(iii) Propene to propan-2-ol *****
Answer:

34
(i) Phenol to benzoquinone

Question 39.
How would you obtain the following ;
(i) Benzoquinone from phenol
(ii) 2-Methylpropan-2-ol from ethylmagnesium chloride
(iii) Propan-2-ol from propene
Answer:
(i) Benzoquinone from phenol

(ii) Ethylmagnesium chloride to propan-1-ol

(iii) Propene to propan-2-ol

Question 40
Draw the structure and name the product formed if the following alcohols are oxidized. Assume that an excess of
oxidising agent is used.
(i) CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
(ii) 2-butanol
(iii) 2-methyl-l-propanol (Delhi 2012)
Answer:

Question 41.
(a) Illustrate the following name reactions :
(i) Reimer-Tiemann Reaction (ii) Williamson Synthesis*****.
(b) Give a chemical test to distinguish between 2-propanol and 2-methyl-2-propanol.
Answer: 35
(b) 2-Propanol is a secondary alcohol. When it reacts with I2 in NaOH, it forms a yellow ppt of iodoform but 2-
methyl-2 propanol does not respond to this test.
Question 42.
(a) Give a separate chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
(i) Ethanol and Phenol (ii) 2-Pentanol and 3-Pentanol
(b) Explain Kolbe’s reaction with the help of suitable example. *****
Answer:
(a) (i) Ethanol on reacting with I2 in NaOH gives yellow ppt of iodoform whereas phenol does not respond to this
test.
(ii) 2-Pentanol on reacting with I2 in NaOH gives yellow ppt of iodoform whereas 3-pentanol does not respond to
this test.
Question 43.
(a) How would you obtain the following :
(i) 2-methylpentan-2-ol from 2-methyl-1-pentene
(ii) Acetophenone from phenol

(b) Write IUPAC name of the following :

Answer:
(a) (i) 2-Methylpentan-2-ol from 2-methyl-1-pentene

(b) IUPAC name : 1 -ethoxy-2-nitrocyclohexane.

Question 44.
16(a) Give mechanism of preparation of ethoxy ethane from ethanol.*****
(b) How is toluene obtained from phenol?
Answer:
(a) Mechanism of formation of ethoxy ethane

36
Step 1 : Protonation of ethanol

Question 45.
(a) Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(i) Pentan-2-ol and Pentan-3-ol (ii) Methanol and Phenol
(b) o-nitro phenol is more acidic than o-methoxy phenol. Explain why*****.
Answer:
(a) (i) 2-pentanol gives Iodoform test with yellow ppt. of Iodoform while 3-pentanone does not give this test.
(ii) Distinction between Methanol and Phenol :
By FeCl3 test : Phenol gives violet coloured solution with FeCl3 while methanol does not.

(b) O-nitro phenol is more acidic than o-methoxy phenol due to presence of NO2 group which has -I effect. It
weakens the O-H bond of phenol by withdrawing their electrons and thus releases H+ ion easily while due to +I,
+R effect of OCH3, o-methoxy phenol is less acidic.
Question 46.
How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Propene → 4 Propan-2-ol
(ii) Ethylmagnesium chloride → 4 Propan-l-ol*****
(iii) Benzyl chloride → Benzyl alcohol
Answer:
(i) Propene to propan-2-ol

(ii) Ethylmagnesium chloride to propan-1-ol

37
(iii) Benzyl chloride → Benzyl alcohol

Question 47.
How do you convert the following :
(i) Phenol to anisole
(ii) Propan-2-ol to 2-methylpropan-2-ol
(iii) Aniline to phenol
Answer:

Question 48.
(a) Write the mechanism of the following reaction :*****

(b) Write the equation involved in the acetylation of Salicylic acid .*****
Answer:

Question 49.
18Give reasons for the following :
(i) Phenol is more acidic than methanol.
(ii) The C—O—H bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle (190°28′).
(iii) (CH3)3C—O—CH3 on reaction with HI gives (CH3)3C—I and CH3—OH as the main products and not
(CH3)3C—OH and CH3—I. (All India 2015)
Answer:
(i) Phenol is more acidic than methanol because in phenol, phenoxide ion formed is more stabilized by resonance
than phenol. There is no resonance in methanol.
(ii) The C—O—H bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than tetrahedral angle due to repulsion between the lone
pairs of electrons of oxygen.
(iii) (CH3)3C+ is 3° carbo-cation which is more stable than CH+3 for SN1 reaction.
Question 50.
How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Propene to propan-2-ol*****
38
(ii) Benzyl chloride to Benzyl alcohol*****
(iii) Anisole to p-Bromoanisole
Answer:
(i) Propene to propan-2-ol

Question 51
Write the major product in the following equations :

Answer:

Question 52.
Write the main product(s) in each of the following reactions:

39
Answer:

Question 53
Write the final product(s) in each of the following reactions:

40
Answer:

Question 54.21(a) What happens when CH3—O—CH<sub3 is heated with HI?

(b) Explain mechanism for hydration of acid catalyzed ethene :
CH2 = CH2 + H2O ⟶H+CH3—CH,—OH
Answer:
(a) Methyl Iodide (CH3I) and Methanol (CH3OH) are formed when CH3—O—CH3 is heated with HI.

(b) Acid catalysed hydration : Alkenes react with water in the presence of acid as catalyst to form alcohols.
Mechanism : It involves the following three steps :

41
Step 1: Protonation of alkene to form carbocation by electrophilic attack of H3O+.

Question 55.
(a) Why phenol is more acidic than ethanol?
(b) Write the mechanism of acid dehydration of ethanol to yield ether: .*****

Answer:
(a) Phenol on losing H+ ion forms phenoxide ion, and ethanol on losing H+ ion forms ethoxide ion. Phenoxide ion
is more stable than ethoxide ion as phenoxide ion exists in resonance structure. Due to this phenol is more acidic
than ethanol.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS II:- (5 Marks)

Question 56.
(a) Write the product(s) in the following reactions:

(b) Give simple chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
(i) Ethanol and Phenol
(ii) Propanol and 2-methylpropan-2-ol
Answer:

42
Question 57
Write the formula of reagents used in the following reactions:
(i) Bromination of phenol to 2,4,6-tribromophenol
(ii) Hydroboration of propene and then oxidation to propanol.
(b) Arrange the following compound groups in the increasing order of their property indicated:
(i) p-nitrophenol, ethanol, phenol (acidic character)
(ii) Propanol, Propane, Propanal (boiling point)
(c) Write the mechanism (using curved arrow notation) of the following reaction:

Answer:

43
44
45
 KMPS
Class-12
CHEMISTRY ASSIGNMENT
ALDEHYDE,KETONE AND CARBOXYLIC ACID
Multiple Choice Questions:
1. Which of the following compound will undergo self aldol condensation in the presence of cold dilute
alkali?
(a) CH ≡ C-CHO (b) CH2 = CHCHO
(c) C6H5CHO (d) CH3CH2CHO
Answer: (d)

1. Which compound is obtained when acetaldehydes are treated with dilute solution of caustic soda?
(a) Sodium acetate (b) Resinous mass
(c) Aldol (d) Ethyl acetate
Answer: (c)

2. To differentiate between pentan-2-one and penta-3-one a test is carried out. Which of the following is the
correct answer?
(a) Pentan-2-one will give silver mirror test (b) Pentan-2-one will give iodoform test
(c) Pentan-3-one will give iodoform test (d) None of these
Answer: (b)

3. Which among the following is most reactive to give nucleophilic addition?

(a) FCH2CHO (b) ClCH2CHO
(c) BrCH2CHO (d) ICH2CHO
Answer: (a)

4. Order of reactivity of CH3CHO, CH3COC2H5 and CH3COCH3 is

(a) CH3CHO > CH3COCH3 > CH3COC2H5 (b) C2H5COCH3 > CH3COCH3 > CH3CHO
(c) CH3COCH3 > CH3CHO > C2H5COCH3 (d) CH3COCH3 > C2H5COCH3 > CH3CHO
Answer: (a)

6. Which of the reactions below can result in ketones?

a) Oxidation of primary alcohols b) Oxidation of secondary alcohols
c) Dehydrogenation of tertiary alcohols d) Dehydrogenation of primary alcohols
Answer: b

8. The Rosenmund reaction can produce which of the following carbonyl compounds?
a) Methanal b) Benzaldehyde
c) Butanone d) Acetone
Answer: b

9. Reactions occur between aldehydes and ketones.

a) nucleophilic addition b) electrophilic substitution
c) electrophilic addition d) nucleophilic substitution
Answer: (a)

10. Which of the following reactions to a nucleophilic assault is the least reactive?
a) Acetaldehyde b) Di Tert-Butyl ketone
c) Diisopropyl ketone d) Butanone
Answer: b

46
11.Acetone combines with ethylene glycol in dry HCl gas to generate _________
a) hemiacetals b) cyclic ketals
c) cyclic acetals d) acetals
Answer: b

12.Which of the following compounds is formed when benzyl alcohol is oxidised with KMnO 4?
a) CO2 and H2O b) Benzoic acid
c) Benzaldehyde d) Benzophenone
Answer: (b)

13.At 287K, which of the following is a gas?

a) Propanal b) Acetaldehyde
c) Formaldehyde d) Acetone
Answer: (c)

14.Which of the following substances is the least water-soluble?

a) Methanal b) Pentanal
c) Propanone d) Ethanal
Answer: (b)

15.Which of the following reactions will give benzolphenone?

(i) Benzoyl chloride + Benzene + AlCl3 (ii) Benzoyl chloride + Phenylmagnesium bromide
(iii) Benzoyl chloride + Diphenyl cadmium
(a) (i)and(ii) (b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Answer: (c)

16.The oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromyl, chloride is called

(a) Etard reaction (b) Riemer-Tiemann reaction
(c) Wurtz reaction (d) Cannizzaro’s reaction
Answer: (a)

17. The addition of HCN to carbonyl compounds is an example of

(a) nucleophilic addition (b) electrophilic addition
(c) free radical addition (d) electromeric addition
Answer: (a)

18. Which of the following compounds does not react with NaHSO3?
(a) HCHO (b) C6H5COCH3
(c) CH3COCH3 (d) CH3CHO
Answer: (b)

19. The product of hydrolysis of ozonide of 1-butene are

(a) ethanol only (b) ethanal and methanal
(c) propanal and methanal (d) methanal only
Answer: (c)

20. Which of the following compounds will undergo Cannizzaro reaction?

(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3
(c) C6H5CHO (d) C6H5CH2CHO
Answer: (C)

21. Benzoyl Chloride on reduction with H2/Pd-BaSO4 produces

(a) benzoic acid (b) benzyl alochol
(c) benzoyl sulphate (d) benzaldehyde
Answer: (D)
47
22. What is the test to differentiate between penta-2-one and pentan-3-one?
(a) Iodoform test (b) Benedict’s test
(c) Fehling’s test (d) Aldol condensation test
Answer: (a)

23. Aldehydes that do not undergo aldol condensation are

1. propanal 2. trichloroethanal
3. 2-phenylethanal 4. fethanal
5. benzaldehyde
(a) 3 and 4 only (b) 2 and 5 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3 only (d) 2, 3 and 5 only
Answer: (b)

24. The best oxidising agent- for oxidation of

CH3-CH = CH-CHO to CH3-CH = CH-COOH is
(a) Baeyefs reagent (b) Tollen’s reagent
(c) SchifFs reagent (d) Acidified dichromate
Answer: (b)

25. Hydrocarbons are formed when aldehydes and ketones are reacted with amalgamated zinc and conc.
HCl. The reaction is called
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (b) Clemmensen reduction
(c) Rosenmund reduction (d) Wolff-Kishner reduction
Answer: (b)

Note : In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given.
Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(i) Assertion and reason both are correct and reason is correct explanation of assertion.
(ii) Assertion and reason both are wrong statements.
(iii) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(iv) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
(v) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reasson is not correct explanation of assertion.

27.. Assertion : Formaldehyde is a planar molecule.

Reason : It contains sp2 hybridised carbon atom.
Answer: (i)

28.. Assertion : Compounds containing —CHO group are easily oxidised to corresponding carboxylic
acids.
Reason : Carboxylic acids can be reduced to alcohols by treatment with LiAlH4 .
Answer: (v)

29.Assertion : The α-hydrogen atom in carbonyl compounds is less acidic.

Reason : The anion formed after the loss of α-hydrogen atom is resonance stabilised.
Answer: (iv)

30.. Assertion : Aromatic aldehydes and formaldehyde undergo Cannizaro reaction.

Reason : Aromatic aldehydes are almost as reactive as formaldehyde.
Answer: (iii)

31. Assertion : Aldehydes and ketones, both react with Tollen’s reagent to form silver mirror.
Reason : Both, aldehydes and ketones contain a carbonyl group.
Answer: (iv)

48
32.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The addition reaction of enol or enolate to the carbonyl functional group of aldehyde or ketone is known as aldol
addition. The ββ-hydroxyaldehyde or ββ-hydroxyketone so obtained undergo dehydration in second step to produce a
conjugated enone. The first part of reaction is an addition reaction and the second part is an elimination reaction.
Carbonyl compound having αα-hydrogen undergoes aldol condensation reaction.

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate Answer:
(i) Condensation reaction is the reverse of which of the following reaction?

(a) Lock and key hypothesis (b) Oxidation

(c) Hydrolysis (d) Glycogen formation

(ii) Which of the following compounds would be the main product of an aldol condensation of acetaldehyde and
acetone?
(a) CH3CH=CHCHO (b) CH3CH=CHCOCH3
(c) (CH3)2C=CHCHO (d) (CH3)2C=CHCOCH3
(iii) Which combination of carbonyl compounds gives phenyl vinyl ketone by an aldol condensation?

(a) Acetophenone and Formaldehyde (b) Acetophenone and acetaldehyde

(c) Benzaldehyde and acetaldehyde (d) Benzaldehyde and acetone

(iv) Which of the following will undergo aldol condensation?

(a) HCHO (b) CH3CH2OH
(c) C6H5CHO (d) CH3CH2CHO
Answer: 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d
33. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :
When an aldehyde with no a-hydrogen reacts with concentrated aqueous NaOH, half the aldehyde is converted to
carboxylic acid salt and other half is converted to an alcohol. In other words, half of the reactant is oxidized
and other half is reduced. This reaction is known as Cannizzaro reaction

49
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer :
(i) A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde on heating with aqueous NaOH solution gives
(a) benzyl alcohol and sodium formate (b) sodium benzoate and methyl alcohol
(c) sodium benzoate and sodium formate (d) benzyl alcohol and methyl alcohol.

(ii) Which of the following compounds will undergo Cannizzaro reaction?

(a) CH3CHO (b) CH3COCH3
(c) C6H5CHO (d) C6H5CH2CHO

(iii) Trichloroacetaldehyde is subjected to Cannizzaro's reaction by using NaOH. The mixture of the products
contains sodium trichloroacetate ion and another compound. The other compounds is
(a) 2, 2, 2-trichloroethanol (b) trichloromethanol
(c) 2, 2, 2-trichloropropanol (d) chloroform

(iv) Which of the following reaction will not result in the formation of carbon-carbon bonds?
(a) Cannizzaro reaction (b) Wurtz reaction
(c) Reimer- Tiemann reaction (d) Friedel-Crafts acylation
Answer: 1-a, 2-c, 3-a, 4-a

34.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions
A tertiary alcohol H upon acid catalysed dehydration gives a product I. Ozonolysis of I leads to compounds J and K.
Compound J upon reaction with KOH gives benzyl alcohol and a compound L, whereas K on reaction with KOH
gives only M.

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer :
(i) Compound H is formed by the reaction of

(ii) The structures of compound J, Kand L, respectively, are

(a) PhCOCH3 , PhCH2COCH3 and PhCH2COO- (b) PhCHO, PhCH2CHO and PhCOO-
K+ K+
(d) PhCHO, PhCOCH3 and PhCOO-
(c) PhCOCH3, PhCH2CHO and CH3 COO-K+
K+

(iii) When (J) is treated with acetic anhydride, in the presence of corresponding salt of an acid, the product obtained is
(a) cinnamic acid (b) crotonic acid (c) maleic acid (d) benzylic acida

(iv) Which of the following statements is correct for compound (K)?

50
(a) It reacts with alkaline KMnO4 followed by acidic hydrolysis and forms benzoic acid.
(b) It reacts with iodine and NaOH to form triiodomethane.
(c) It is prepared by the reaction of benzene with benzoyl chloride in presence of anhydrous aluminium
chloride
(d) It reacts with freshly prepared ammoniacal silver nitrate solution
Answer: 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b

35. Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :
Carboxylic acids dissociate in water to give carboxylate ion and hydronium ion.
RCOOH + H2O ⟶⟶ RCOO- + H3O+
The acidity of carboxyl group is due to the presence of positive charge on oxygen which liberates proton. The
carboxylate ion formed is resonance stabilised.

Carboxylic acids are stronger acids than phenols. Electron withdrawing groups (EWG) increase the acidity of
carboxylic acids by stabilising the conjugate base through delocalisation of negative charge by inductive and/ or
resonance effects. Electron donating group (EDG) decrease the acidity by destabilising the conjugate base.

The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer :
(i) Which of the following reactions is showing the acidic property of carboxylic acid?

(ii) Which one of the following is the correct order of acidic strength?
(a) CF3COOH > CHCl2COOH > HCOOH > C6H5CH2COOH >
CH3COOH
(b) CH3COOH > HCOOH > CF3COOH > CHCl2COOH >
C6H5CH2COOH
(c) HCOOH > C6H5CH2COOH > CF3COOH > CHCl2COOH >
CH3COOH
(d) CF3COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH > CHCl2COOH >
C6H5CH2COOH

(iii) Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant?
(a) CH3CHFCOOH (b) FCH2CH2COOH
(d) CH3CHBrCOOH
(c) BrCH2CH2COOH

(iv) The correct order of acidity for the following compounds is

(a) I > II > III > IV (b) III > I > II > IV
(c) III> IV > II> I (d) I > III > IV > II
Answer: 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-a

36.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:

Aldehydes and ketones having acetyl group are oxidised by sodium hypohalate (NaOX) or
halogen and alkali (X2 + OH-) to corresponding sodium salt having one carbon atoms less than the carbonyl
compound and give a haloform.

51
Sodium hypoiodite (NaOI) when treated with compounds containing CH3CO - group gives yellow precipitate of
iodoform. Haloform reaction does not affect a carbon-carbon double bond present in the compound.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate Answer:

(a) Isopropyl alcohol (b) Propionaldehyde

(c) Ethylphenyl ketone (d) Benzyl alcohol
(ii) Which of the following compounds is not formed in iodoform reaction of acetone?
(a) CH3COCH2I (b) ICH2COCH2I
(c) CH3COCHI2 (d) CH3COCI3
(iii) For the given set of reactions

starting compound A corresponds to

(iv) An organic compound 'A' has the molecular formula C3H6O. It undergoes iodoform test. When saturated with
HCI it gives 'B' of molecular formula C9H14O. 'A' and 'B' respectively are
(a) propanal and mesityl oxide (b) propanone and mesityl oxide
(c) propanone and 2,6-dimethyl-2,5-hepta-dien-4- (d) propanone and
one propionaldehyde

Answer:1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-c

SHORT ANSWERS

Q1. Why is there a significant difference in the boiling points of butanal and butanol?
Answer:
Butanol has a higher boiling point than butanal because butanol has a polar O-H bond, due to which it
forms intermolecular hydrogen bonding, which is absent in butanal. Thus leading to a higher boiling point
of Butanol.

Q2. Write a test to differentiate between pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one.

Answer:
The iodoform test can distinguish Pentan-2-one and pentan-3-one.
Iodoform test:
Pentan-2-one, a methyl ketone, responds to the iodoform test. But pentan-3-one, not being a methyl
ketone, does not respond to the iodoform test.
CH3CH2CH2COCH3 + 3NaOI → CH3CH2CH2COONa + CHI3(Yellow ppt of Iodoform) + 2NaOH
CH3CH2COCH2CH3 + NaOI → No yellow ppt of iodoform

Q3. Give the IUPAC names of the following compounds.

52
Answer:
(i) 3-phenyl prop-2-en-1-al
(ii) cyclohexanecarbaldehyde
(iii) 3-oxo-pentanal
(iv) But-2-en-1-al

Q4. Give the structure of the following compounds.

(i) 4- Nitro Propiophenone
(li) 2-Hydroxy Cyclopentanecarbaldehyde
(iii) Phenyl acetaldehyde
Answer:
The structure of the above compounds are:

Q5. Write IUPAC names of the following structures.

Answer:
(i) Ethanedial
(ii) 3- formylbenzaldehyde or 1,4 diformylbenzene
(iii) 3 -bromobenzaldehyde

Q6. Benzaldehyde can be obtained from benzal chloride. Write reactions for obtaining benzal
chloride and then benzaldehyde from it.
Answer:
We can synthesise benzal chloride by chlorinating toluene in the presence of sunlight.

53
We can convert benzal chloride to benzaldehyde by reacting with concentrated KOH.

Q7. Name the electrophile produced in the reaction of benzene with benzoyl chloride in the
presence of anhydrous AlCl3. Name the reaction also.
Answer:
The electrophile produced in the reaction of benzene with benzoyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous
AlCl3 is benzoylinium cation. The product formed in this reaction is benzophenone. This reaction is called
Friedel Crafts acylation reaction.
The chemical reaction involved when benzene reacts with benzoyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous
AlCl3:

Q8. Oxidation of ketones involves carbon-carbon bond cleavage. Name the products formed on oxidation
of 2, 5-dimethyl hexane-3-one.
Answer:
Being unsymmetrical, ketone oxidation occurs on either side of the C = O group giving a mixture of 2-
methyl propanoic acid, 3-methyl butanoic acid and propan-2-one.

54
Q9. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their acidic strength and give the reason for your
answer.
CH3CH2OH, CH3COOH, CICH2COOH, FCH2COOH, C6H5CH2COOH
Answer:
The stronger the electron-withdrawing substituents, the more significant the dispersal of the negative
charge and, hence, the stronger the acid will be. Hence, the order of acidity is
FCH2COOH > CICH2COOH > C6H5CH2COOH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2OH

Q10. What product will be formed on the reaction of propanal with 2-methyl propanal in the
presence of NaOH? What products will be formed? Write the name of the reaction also.
Answer:
When propanal reacts with 2-methyl propanal in the presence of NaOH, the mixture of aldehydes is
formed.
Both the reactants have an alpha-hydrogen and hence, can undergo cross aldol reaction in the presence
of NaOH.
The products formed in this reaction are

This is a cross aldol reaction.

Q11. Arrange the following in decreasing order of their acidic strength. Explain the arrangement.
C6H5COOH, FCH2COOH, NO2CH2COOH
Answer:
The higher the conjugate base’s stability, the higher the acidity.
In C6H5COOH, the phenyl group is insulated, so it exerts only −I effect on the resonance hybrid of the
carboxyl group, stabilising it by withdrawing electron density due to higher electronegativity of
sp2 hybridised carbon atoms.
−NO2- and fluorine are electron-withdrawing, thus decreasing the electron density on the carbon atom and
stabilising it. −NO2- is more electronegative than fluorine. Thus NO2CH2COOH would be most acidic,
followed by FCH2COOH and C6H5COOH.
NO2CH2COOH > FCH2COOH > C6H5COOH.

55
Q12. Alkenes ( C=C ) and carbonyl compounds (C=0) contain a pie bond, but alkenes show electrophilic
addition reactions, whereas carbonyl compounds show nucleophilic addition reactions. Explain.
Answer:
Alkenes undergo electrophilic addition, whereas aldehydes and ketones undergo nucleophilic addition
because, in alkenes, the double bond joins two carbon atoms, and there is no resultant polarity. While in
carbonyl compounds, the double bond joins atoms having different polarities. The polarity in the carbonyl
bond makes it vulnerable to a nucleophile addition reaction.
Q13. Carboxylic acids contain the carbonyl group but do not show the nucleophilic addition reaction
like aldehydes or ketones. Why?
Answer:
Due to resonance, carboxylic acid groups do not show the nucleophilic addition reaction
like aldehydes or ketones. The partial positive charge on the carbonyl carbon atom is reduced.

Q14. Identify the compounds A, B and C in the following reaction.

Answer:
A= CH3MgBr
B= CH3COOMgBr
C= CH4
Q15. Why are carboxylic acids more acidic than alcohols or phenols, although they all have hydrogen
atoms attached to an oxygen atom (-0-H)?
Answer:
Carboxylic acids are more acidic than alcohols or phenols. However, they all have a hydrogen atom
attached to an oxygen atom (—O—H) because the conjugate base of carboxylic acids or the carboxylate
ion is stabilised by resonance. Due to the resonance in carboxylic acids, the negative charge is at the
more electronegative atom (oxygen atom). In alcohols or phenols, the negative charge is on the less
electronegative atoms. Thus, carboxylic acids can release protons easier than alcohols or phenols.
Q16. Complete the following reaction sequence.

Answer:
Here,
A = 2-methyl propane-2-ol
B = Sodium tert-butoxide
C = 2-methyl-2-methoxypropane

Q17. Ethylbenzene is generally prepared by acetylation of benzene followed by reduction and

not by direct alkylation. Think of a possible reason. 56
Answer:
Preparation of ethylbenzene from acylation of benzene and reduction is shown as:

Direct alkylation is not performed because a polysubstituted product is formed. Due to the disadvantage of
poly substitution, Friedel-Craft’s alkylation reaction is not used to prepare alkylbenzenes. Instead of
Friedel-Craft’s acylation is used.

Q.18 Write the reactions involved in the following

i. Hell-Volhard Zelinsky
ii. Stephen reaction

Q.19 How the following reactions are carried out?

i. Propene to propan-2-ol
ii.Ethyl chloride to ethanal

Q.20 Explain the mechanism of a nucleophilic attack on the carbonyl group of aldehyde or ketone.
Answer: A nucleophile attacks the electrophilic carbon atom of the polar carbonyl group from a direction
approximately perpendicular to the plane of sp2 hybridized orbitals of carbonyl carbon. The hybridization of
carbon changes from sp2 to sp3 in this process and a tetrahedral Examination Papers 127 intermediate is
produced. The intermediate captures a proton from the medium to give the neutral product.

Q21. Write the reactions involved in the following

i. Decarboxylation reaction
ii. Cannizzaro reaction

Q.22 Give a possible explanation for each of the following

i. There are two NH2 groups in semicarbide. However, only one such group is involved in the formation
of semicarbazones.
ii. Cyclohexane forms cyanohydrins in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethylcyclohexane does not.
Answer: i.In senicarbazide, out of two −NH2 groups, one is involved in resonance with amide carbonyl. The lone
pair of electron on N is delocalized through resonance and cannot be donated to a suitable electrophile. Hence,
57
this −NH2 group cannot act as a nucleophile. Hence, out of two −NH2 groups in semicarbazide, only one is
involved in the formation of semicarbazones.

ii. In 2,2,6-trimethylcyclohexanone, three methyl groups are present at alpha position with respect to carbonyl
group. Hence, the attack of cyanide nucleophile is sterically hindered. In cyclohexanone, there is little steric
hinderance. Hence, cyclohexanone forms cyanohydrin in good yield but 2,2,6-trimethylcyclohexanone does not.

Q.23 Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate ion, carboxylate
ion is a stronger acid than phenol. Give two reasons.

Answer: Resonance structures of phenoxide ion are:

It can be observed from the resonance structures of phenoxide ion that in II, III and IV, less
electronegative carbon atoms carry a negative charge. Therefore, these three structures contribute
negligibly towards the resonance stability of the phenoxide ion. Hence, these structures can be
eliminated. Only structures I and V carry a negative charge on the more electronegative oxygen
atom.
Resonance structures of carboxylate ion are:

In the case of carboxylate ion, resonating structures I′ and II′ contain a charge carried by a more
electronegative oxygen atom.
Further, in resonating structures I′ and II′, the negative charge is delocalized over two oxygen
atoms. But in resonating structures I and V of the phexoxide ion, the negative charge is localized
on the same oxygen atom. Therefore, the resonating structures of carboxylate ion contribute more
towards its stability than those of phenoxide ion. As a result, carboxylate ion is more resonance-
stabilized than phenoxide ion. Hence, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol.

Q.24 How will you carry out the following.

i. Acetylene to acetic acid
ii. Tolune to m-nitrobenzoic acid
Answer:
(i) CH≡HCH−→−−−−DilH2SO4Hg2+CH2=CH−OH−→−−−−−−−TautomerizationCH3COOH←−−−−K2Cr2O
7H2SO4CH3CHOCH≡HCH→DilH2SO4Hg2+CH2=CH-
OH→TautomerizationCH3COOH←K2Cr2O7H2SO4CH3CHO

Q.25 Arrange the following in an increasing order of their property as stated in the bracket
i. Benzoic acid, 3,4-dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-methoxybenzoic acid (acidic strength)
ii., CH3 CH2CH(Br)COOH, CH3 CH(Br)CH2COOH, (CH3 )2CHCOOH (acidic strength).

58
Answer: i. electron-donating groups decrease the strengths of acids, while electron-withdrawing groups
increase the strengths of acids. As methoxy group is an electron-donating group, 4-methoxybenzoic acid is
a weaker acid than benzoic acid. Nitro group is an electron-withdrawing group and will increase the
strengths of acids. As 3,4-dinitrobenzoic acid contains two nitro groups, it is a slightly stronger acid than 4-
nitrobenzoic acid. Hence, the strengths of the given acids increase as:
4-Methoxybenzoic acid < Benzoic acid < 4-Nitrobenzoic acid
< 3,4-Dinitrobenzoic acid

ii.After losing a proton, carboxylic acids gain a negative charge as shown:

Now, any group that will help stabilise the negative charge will increase the stability of the carboxyl ion and
as a result, will increase the strength of the acid. Thus, groups having +I effect will decrease the strength
of the acids and groups having −I effect will increase the strength of the acids. In the given compounds,
−CH3 group has +I effect and Br− group has −I effect. Thus, acids containing Br− are stronger.
Now, the +I effect of isopropyl group is more than that of n-propyl group. Hence, (CH3)2CHCOOH is a
weaker acid than CH3CH2CH2COOH.
Also, the −I effect grows weaker as distance increases. Hence, CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH is a weaker acid
than CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH.
Hence, the strengths of the given acids increase as:
(CH3)2CHCOOH < CH3CH2CH2COOH < CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH < CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH

LONG ANSWER TYPE

Q1. An alkene ‘A’ (Mol. formula C5H10) on ozonolysis gives a mixture of two compounds, ‘B’ and ‘C’.
Compound B’ gives positive Fehling’s test and forms iodoform on treatment with I2 and NaOH. Compound
C’ does not give Fehling’s test but forms iodoform. Identify the compounds A, B, and C. Write the reaction
for ozonolysis and formation of iodoform
from B and C.
Answer:
(i) Compound B gives Fehling’s test, which means it is aldehyde also. It forms an iodoform, so compound
B is acetaldehyde, among aldehydes.
(ii) Compound C does not give Fehling’s test but gives iodoform, so ketone must have a methyl group
attached to carbonyl.
Reactions for ozonolysis and formation of iodoform from B and C are

Q2. An aromatic compound “A’ (Molecular formula C8H8O) gives a positive 2, 4-DNP test. It gives a yellow
precipitate of compound ‘B’ on treatment with iodine and sodium hydroxide solution. Compound A’ does
not give Tollen’s or Fehling’s test. On severe oxidation with potassium permanganate forms a carboxylic
acid ‘C’ (Molecular formula C7H602), which is also formed along with the yellow compound in the above
reaction. Identify A, B and C and write all the reactions involved.
Answer:
Since the aromatic compound, ‘A’ does not give Tollen’s reagent test or Fehling’s test, it is not an aromatic
aldehyde. It responds to the iodoform test, indicating a methyl ketone.
The series of reactions involved are listed.

59
Q3. Write down functional isomers of a carbonyl compound with molecular formula C 3H6O. Which isomer
will react faster with HCN and why? Explain the mechanism of the reaction also. Will the reaction lead to
the completion with the conversion of the whole reactant into product reaction conditions? If a strong acid
is added to the reaction mixture, what will be the effect on the concentration of the product and why?
Answer:
Functional isomers of C3H6O containing carbonyl group are CH3CH2CHO (Propanal) and
CH3COCH3 (Propanone).
(a) Propanal CH3CH2CHO will react faster with HCN because less steric hindrance and electronic factors
increase its electrophilicity.
(b) It does not lead to completion because it is a reversible reaction. Equilibrium is established,
(c) If A strong acid is added to the reaction mixture, the reaction is inhibited because the production of CN –
ions is prevented.
Q4. When liquid ′A′ is treated with a freshly prepared ammonical silver nitrate solution, it gives a bright
silver mirror. The liquid forms a white crystalline solid on treatment with sodium hydrogen sulphite. Liquid
′B′ also forms a white crystalline solid with sodium hydrogen sulphite, but it does not give a test with
ammoniacal silver nitrate. Which of the two liquids is aldehyde? Write the chemical equations of these
reactions also.
Answer:
Liquid ′A′ must be Aldehyde because it reacts with both NaHSO3 and ammonical silver nitrate.
Liquid ′B′ must be ketone because it does not react with ammonical silver nitrate but react with NaHSO3.

Q5. Can Gattermann-Koch reaction be considered similar to Friedel Craft’s acylation? Discuss.
Answer:
Yes, the Gattermann-Koch reaction can be considered similar to Friedel-craft’s acylation. The reason is
that in Friedel-craft acylation reactions, benzene (or any other arene) is treated with an acid chloride in the
presence of anhydrous AlCl3. Since HCOCl (formyl chloride) is not stable, in the Gattermann-Koch 60
reaction, it is prepared in situ by reacting CO with HCl gas in the presence of anhydrous AlCl 3. Thus, the
Gattermann-Koch reaction is considered similar to Friedel-craft’s acylation reaction.

Q.6 An Organic compound A (molecular formula C8H16O2) was hydrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid to give
a carboxylic acid B and an alcohol C. Oxidation of C with chromic acid also produces B. On dehydration of
C, it gives but-1-ene. Write the equation for the reactions involved.
Answer: Organic compound A is an ester as on acid hydrolysis it gives a mixture of an acid and an alcohol.
Oxidation of alcohol (C) gives acid (B). Hence, the number of carbon atoms in (B) and (C) are same.
Ester (compound A) has eight C atoms. Hence, both carboxylic acid B and alcohol C must contain 4 C atoms each.
Dehydration of alcohol C gives but-1-ene. Hence, C must be a straight chain alcohol, i.e butan-1-ol
Oxidation of (C) gives (B). Hence, (B) is butanoic acid.
CH3CH2CH2COOCH2CH2CH2CH3 dilH2SO4hydrolysisCH3CH2CH2COOH+CH3CH2CH2CH2OH
CH3CH2CH2CH2OHDehydrationCH3CH2CH=CH2
CH3CH2CH2CH2OHCrO3/CH3COOHOxidationCH3CH2CH2COOH

Q.7 How are the following conversions carried out?

i. Ethyl cyanide to ethanoic acid
ii. Butanol to butanoic acid
iii. Benzoic acid to m-bromobenzoic acid.

Q.8 a) Describe the mechanism of the addition of Grignard’s reagent to the carbonyl group of a compound
to form am adduct which on hydrolysis yield an alcohol.
b) Draw the structure of the following
i. 3-methylbutanal
ii. p-nitro propiophenone

61
Q.9 a) Illustrate the Cannizzaro reaction giving suitable chemical equations
b) How would you bring the following conversions
i. ethanal to 3-hydroxybutanal
ii. Benzaldehyde to benzophenone
Answer: Chemical equation of Cannizaro reaction:
formaldehdye 2H− H ∣C=O+NaOH (50%) → methyl alcohol CH3−OH+ sodium formate H− O ∣∣C−O−Na+b
b) i. using dil. NaOH in the presence of Cu at 573K
ii.by using K2Cr2O7/H+ and CaCO3

Q.10 How would you bring bout the following reactions

i. Propanone to propane
ii. benzoyl chloride to benzaldehyde
iii. ethanal to but-2-enal.

Answer: i.

ii.
iii. CH3CHO+dil.NaOH→CH3CH(OH)−CH2CHOheatingCH3CH=CHCHO

Q.11 Complete the following equation and write the structures of A, B, C, D, E, and F.
A−→−−P/Br2CH3CH2CH2Br−→−−−−Alc. KOHB−→−−−−Br2/CCl4C−→−−−−NaNH2Alc.
KOHD−→−−−−−dil. H2SO4Hg2+E−→−−−−−−NH2OH/H+FA→P/Br2CH3CH2CH2Br→Alc.
KOHB→Br2/CCl4C→NaNH2Alc. KOHD→dil. H2SO4Hg2+E→NH2OH/H+F

Q.12 An alkene (A with molecular formula C7H14C7H14) on ozonolysis yields an aldehyde. The aldehyde
is easily oxidized to an acid (B). When B is treated with bromine in presence of phosphorous it yields a
compound (C) which on hydrolysis gives a hydroxyl acid (D). This acid can also be obtained from acetone
by the reaction with hydrogen cyanide followed by hydrolysis. Identify A, B, C and D and write the chemical
equations for the reactions involved.

62
Answer:

Q.13 Five isomeric para-di- substituted aromatic compounds, A to E with molecular formula
C8H8O2C8H8O2 were given for identification. Based on the following observations give the structures of
the compounds.

(i) Both A and B form silver mirror with Tollens reagent, also B gives a positive test with FeCl3FeCl3.

(ii) C gives positive Iodoform test.

(iii) D is readily extracted in aqueous NaHCO3NaHCO3 solution.

(iv) E on acid hydrolysis gives 1,4 – dihydroxy benzene.

Answer: (i) Compound (A) gives positive Tollens test; contains (−CHO)group
(ii) Compound (B) gives positive Tollens and positive FeCl3 solution test, it contains both (−CHO) and
phenolic (OH) group
(iii) compound (C) gives positive iodoform test; it contains (MeCO−) group
(iv) Compound (D) gives NaHCO3 test; it contains (−COOH) group
(v) from the reaction it appears that (E) is an ester (figure) (C8H10O2) but its molecular formula does not
correspond to the molecular formula given (C8H8O2)
D.U of C8H8O2=2(2nC+2)−nH=218−8=5o
4 D.U is accounted for the benzene ring; 1 D.U should be due to the (C=C) bond

63
Q.14 a) Draw the structures of the following
i. Propanone oxime
ii. Semicarbazone of CH3CHO

Answer:
b) How will you convert the ethanal into following compounds. Give chemical equations.
i. (CH3)2
ii. CH3 CH(OH) CH2CHO
iii. CH3CH2OH

Answer:i

ii.

iii.

64
Q.15 a) Describe
i. Aldol condensation
ii. Cannizzaro reaction

b) Describe the chemical test to distinguish

i. ethanal and propanal
ii. benzaldehyde and acetophenone
iii. propan-2-one and pentan-3-one

Answer:i. Ethanal gives iodoform test whereas propanal does not

ii. Benzaldehyde forms silver mirror with ammoniacal silver nitrate solution (Tollen\s reagent) and Acetophenone
does not give this test.
Acetophenone gives iodoform test. Benzaldehyde does not react.
iii. Pentan-2-one gives iodoform test and Pentan-3-one does not gives iodoform test
Pentan-2-one gives white ppt with sodium bisulphite whereas pentan-3-one does not give ppt.

-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*-*

65
66
67
 CHAPTER-AMINES

1. Which of the following does not react with Hinsberg reagent?

(a) Ethylamine (c) (CH3)3N
(b) (CH3)2NH (d) Propan-2-amine

2.

above sequence, Z is
(a) Cyanoethane (c) Methanamine
(b) Ethanamide (d) Ethanamine
3. Oxidation of aniline with K2Cr2O7/H2SO4 gives
(a) phenylhydroxylamine (c) nitrosobenzene
(b) p-benzoquinone (d) nitrobenzene
4. Which of the following: when heated with a mixture of ethanmine and alcoholic potash gives ethyl
isocyanide?
(a) 2-chloropropane (c) trichloromethane
(b) 2,2-dichloropropane (d) tetrachloromethane
5. Which of the following pair of species will yield carbylamine?
(a) CH3CH2Br and KCN (c) CH3CH2Br and AgCN
(b) CH3CH2Br and NH3 (excess) (d) CH3CH2NH2 and HCHO
6. Which one of the following methods is neither meant for the synthesis nor for separation of amines?
(a) Hinsberg method (c) Wurtz reaction
(b) Hoffmann method (d) Curticus reaction
7. C6H5CONHCH3 can be converted into C6H5CH2NHCH3 by
(a) NaBH4 (c) LiAlH4
(b) H2-Pd/C (d) Zn-Hg/HCl
8.Aniline was diazotised and is subsequently reduced with tin (II) chloride and HCl. The product
formed is
(a) Phenylhydrazine (c) Phenyl aniline
(b) Aniline (d) p-aminoazobenzene.
9.Which of the following will not give primary amine?
(a) Dehydration of amide (c) Reduction of amides
(b) Acidic hydrolysis of alkyl isocyanides (d) Reduction of alkyl cyanides.
10.Which of the following cannot couple with benzene diazonium chloride?
(a) Aniline (c) ß-Napthol
(b) Phenol (d) Benzyl alcohol.
11. The hybrid state of N is R2NH is
(a) sp³ (c) sp
(b) sp² (d) dsp²
12. Among the following, weakest base is
(a) C6H5CH NH2 (c) O2N-CH2NH2
(b) C6H5CH2NHCH3 (d) CH3CONH2
13. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding is strongest in
(a) Methylamine (c) Formaldehyde
(b) Phenol (d) Methanol

68
14.Which of the following is the strongest base?

15. Among the following the most basic compound is

(a) benzylamine (c) acetanilide
(b) aniline (d) p-nitroaniline
16. The correct order of increasing basic nature for the bases NH3, CH3NH2 and (CH3)2 NH is
(a) CH3 NH2 < (CH3)2 NH <NH3 (c) (CH3)2 NH< NH3 < CH3NH2
(b) CH3NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH (d) NH3 < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
17. Aniline first reacts with acetyl chloride producing compound A. A reacts
with HNO3H2SO4 mixture and produces comp and B which hydrolyses to compound C. What is the
identity of C?
(a) Acetanilide (c) p-Nitroaniline
(b) p-Nitroacetanilide (d) Sulphanilic acid.
18. The amine that does not react with acetyl chloride is
(a) CH3NH2 (c) (CH3)3 N
(b) (CH3)2NH (d) none of these
19. C3H8N cannot represent
(a) 1° ammine (c) 3° ammine
(b) 2° ammine (d) quartemary ammonium salt
20. Identify the correct IUPAC name
(a) (CH3CH2)2NCH3 = N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine
(b) (CH3)3CNH2 = 2-methylpropan-2-amine
(c) CH3NHCH (CH3)2 = N-Methylpropan-2-amine
(d) (CH3)2CHNH2 = 2, 2-Dimethyl-N-propanamine
21. The most convenient method to prepare primary amine containing one carbon atom less is
(a) Gabriel phthalmidie synthesis (c) Hofmann bromamide reaction
(b) Reductive amination of aldehydes (d) Reduction of isonitriles
22. When excess of ethyl iodide is treated with ammonia, the product is
(a) ethylamine (c) triethylamine
(b) diethylamine (d) tetrathylammonium iodide
23. Amides may be converted into amines by a reaction named after
(a) Hofmann Bromide (c) Perkin
(b) Claisen (d) Kekule
24. Reduction of CH3CH2NC with hydrogen in presence of Ni or Pt as catalvst gives
(a) CH3CH2NH2 (c) CH3CH2NHCH2CH3
(b) CH3CH2NHCH3 (d) (CH3)3N
25. Secondary amines can be prepared by
(a) reduction of nitro compounds (c) reduction of isonitriles
(b) oxidation of N-substituted amides (d) reduction of nitriles
26. Benzoic acid is treated with SOCl2 and the product (X) formed is reacted with ammonia to give
(Y). (Y) on reaction with Br2 and KOH gives (Z). (Z) in the reaction is
(a) aniline (c) benzamide
(b) chlorobenzene (d) benzoyl chloride
27. Amine that cannot be prepared by Gabricl-Phthalmidie synthesis is

69
 (a) aniline (c) methyl amine
(b) benzyl amine (d) iso-butylamine
28. Tertiary amines have lowest boiling points amongst isomeric amines because
(a) they have highest molecular mass (c) they are more polar in nature
(b) they do not form hydrogen bonds (d) they are most basic in nature
29. Primary and secondary amines are distinguished by
(a) Br2/ROH (c) HNO2
(b) HClO (d) NH3
30. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of basicity:
CH3NH2, (CH3)2 NH, NH3, C6H5NH2
(a) C6H5NH2 < NH3 < (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2
(b) CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH < NH3 < C6H5NH2
(c) C6H5NH2 <NH3 < CH3NH2<(CH3)2NH
(d) (CH3)2NH < CH3NH2 <NH3 < C6H5NH2
31. Which of the following from isocyanide on reaction with CHCl3 and KOH?
(a) C6H5NHCH3 (c) C6H5NHC4H9.
(b) CH3C6H4NH2 (d) C6H5N (C2H5)2
32. Which of the following is used as Hinsberg’s reagent?
(a) C6H5SO2Cl (c) C6H5NHCH3
(b) C6H5SO3H (d) C6H5COCH3
33. Electrophilic substitution of aniline with bromine water at room temperature gives
(a) 2-bromoaniline (c) 2, 4, 6-tribromoaniline
(b) 3-bromoaniline (d) 3, 5, 6-tribromoaniline
34. Among the compounds C3H7NH2, CH3NH2, C2H5NH2, and C6H5NH2. Which is the least basic
compound?
(a) CH3NH2 (c) C3H7NH2
(b) C2H5NH2 (d) C6H5NH2
35. Anilinium hydrogensulphate on heating with sulphuric acid at 453-473 K produces
(a) sulphanilic acia (c) aniline
(b) benzenesulphonic acid (d) anthranilic acid
36. Which of the following can exist as zwitter ion?
(a) p-Aminoacetophenone (c) p-Nitroaminobenzene
(b) Sulphanilic acid (d) p-Methoxyphenol
37. Reduction of aromatic nitro-compounds using Sn and HCl gives
(a) aromatic primary amines (c) aromatic tertiary amines
(b) aromatic secondary amines (d) aromatic amides
38. Which of the following has highest pKb value?
(a) (CH3)3CNH2 (c) (CH3)2MH
(b) NH3 (d) CH3NH3
39. Acetylation of a secondary amine in alkaline medium yields
(a) N, N-dialkyl acetamide (c) N, N-dialkyl amide
(b) N, N-dialkyl amine (d) acetyl dialkyl amine
40. The amines are basic in nature, hence they form salts with hydrochloric acid. Which of the
following will be insoluble in dil. HCl?
(a) C6H5NH3 (c) C2H5NH2
(b) (C6H5)3N (d) CH3NHCH3

1. (c) 2.(d) 3.(b) 4.(c) 5.(c) 6.(c) 7.(c) 8.(a) 9.(a) 10.(d) 11.(a) 12.(d) 13.(d) 14.(d) 15.(a) 16.(d) 17.(c) 18.(c)
19.(d) 20.(a) 21.(c) 22.(d) 23.(a) 24.(b) 25.(c) 26.(a) 27.(a) 28.(b) 29.(c) 30.(c) 31.(b) 32.(a) 33.(c) 34.(d)
35.(a) 36.(b) 37.(a) 38.(b) 39.(a) 40.(b)

70
 Assertion- Reason Based Question:-
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
1. Assertion : The diazotisation reaction must be carried in ice cold solution ( 0-4⁰C).
Reason : At higher temperature, benzenediazonium chloride reacts with water to give phenol.
2. Assertion : In strongly acidic solution aniline becomes less reactive towards electrophilic
reagents.
Reason : Due to protonation of amino group the lone pair of electrons on nitrogen is not available
for resonance.
3. Assertion : Gabriel phthalimide synthesis can be used to convert alkyl chlorides into primary
amines.
Reason : With proper choice of reagent Gabriel synthesis can be used to prepare primary,
secondary and tertiary amines.
4. Assertion : N-Ethylbenzenesulphonamide is soluble in alkali.
Reason : Hydrogen attached to nitrogen in sulphonamide is strongly acidic in nature.
5. Assertion : Benzenediazonium chloride can not be stored and is used immediately after its
preparation.
Reason : It is very unstable and dissociates to give nitrogen.

Answers:- 1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a)

Very Short Answer questions: (1 Mark)

Q.1 What is Hinsberg's reagent? Ans. Benzene sulphonyl chloride
Q.2 Why is aniline acylated before its nitration?
Ans. To prevent it from oxidation
Q.3 Ethylamine is soluble in water but aniline is not, why?
Ans. Ethylamine forms intermolecular H‐bond with water, but aniline does not form H‐bond to a
very large extent due to the presence of large hydrophobic –C6H5 group.
Q.4 Write structures and IUPAC names of the amide which gives propanamine by Hoffmann
bromamide reaction. Ans. , Butanamide
Q. 5 Which one is more acidic : anilinium ion or p-fluoroanilinium ion ? (Ans - p-fluoroanilinium ion)
Q.6 Name the effect due to which nitrobenzene does not undergo Friedal Craft reaction.
Ans – Deactivating
Q7. The conversion of primary aromatic amines into diazonium salts is known as——–
Ans- Diazotization.
Q8. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of solubility in water:
C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2
Ans- C6H5NH2 < (C2H5)2NH < C2H5NH2 is the increasing order of solubility in water.
Q9. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of basic strength:-
C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5NH2
Ans-

Q10. Which of the two is more basic and why?

71
 Ans-

Q11. Write the IUPC name of the compound:

Ans- 2-Hydroxy benzaldehyde.

Q12. Out of CH3-NH2 and (CH3)3N, which one has higher boiling point?
Ans- CH3—NH2 has higher boiling point.
Q13. Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strength in aqueous solution:
CH3NH2, (CH3)3N, (CH3)2NH
Ans- (CH3)3N < CH3NH2 < (CH3)2NH
Q14. Write the structure of N-methylethanamine.
Ans- CH3CH2NHCH3
Q15. Why is methylamine more basic than aniline?
Ans- Because of +ve charge on ‘N’ in 3 out of 5 resonating structures of aniline, aniline is less basic
than methylamine in which —CH3 group is an electron releasing and electron density on ‘N’ is higher.
Q16. Ethylamine is soluble in water, whereas aniline is almost insoluble, why?
Ans- It is because ethyl amine can form H-bonds with water whereas aniline cannot form H-bonds.

Q17. Why are diazonium salts of aromatic amines more stable than those of aliphatic amines? [HOTS]
Ans- It is because benzene diazonium ion is stabilized by resonance.
Q18. Which of the two is more basic and why?

Ans-

Q19. Why is an alkylamine more basic than ammonia?

Ans- It is because alkyl groups are electron releasing. In alkyl amines, they will increase electron
density on ‘N’, therefore, they are more basic than NH3.
Q20. Write one reaction that can be used as a test for primary amines.
Ans-
RNH2 + CHC13 + 3KOH  R—NC+ 3KCl+ 3H2O is used as a test for primary amine.

72
Short Answer questions: (2 Mark)
Q1. Arrange the following in increasing order of their basic strengths:

Ans-

Q2. Distinguish between the following pairs by suitable chemical test:

1. Aniline and ethyl amine
2. Aniline and Benzyl amine
Ans- 1. On adding benzene diazonium chloride, aniline forms yellow azo dye, whereas ethyl amine
does not.
2. On adding benzene diazonium chloride, aniline forms yellow azo dye, whereas benzyl
amine does not.
Q3. Describe the following giving the relevant chemical equation in each case:
(i) Carbylamine reaction
(ii) Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction.
Ans-

Q4.

Ans-

Q5. How will you bring about the following conversions:

(i) Nitrobenzene to Phenol

73
 (ii) Aniline to Chlorobenzne
Ans-

Q6. How will you bring about the following conversions:

(i) Ethanamine to Ethanoic acid (ii) Aniline to Benzonitrile
Ans-

Q7.

[HOTS]
Ans-

Q8.

Ans-

Q9 . Give the chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
1. Methylamine and Dimethylamine

74
 2. Aniline and N-methylaniline
Ans- 1. Add CHCl3 and KOH. Methylamine will form offensive smelling compound, dimethylamine
will not react.
2. Add CHC13 and KOH. Aniline will form foul smelling compound, N-methylaniline will not.

Short Answer Type Questions [II] [3 Marks]

Q1. Write chemical equations for the following conversions:
(i) Nitrobenzene to benzoic acid.
(ii) Benzyl chloride to 2-phenylethanamine.
(iii) Aniline to benzyl-alcohol.
Ans-

Q2. How will you convert the following?

I) C6H5CONH2 to C6H5NH2
II) Aniline to Phenol
III) Ethanenitirle to ethanamine

Ans-

Q3. Write the chemical equations involved when aniline is treated with the following reagents:
(i) Br2 Water (ii) CHCl3 +KOH (iii)HCl

75
Ans-

Q4. Give Reasons for the following:

1. Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
2. þmethylaniline is more basic than þ nitroaniline.
3. Acetylation of —NH2 group is done in aniline before preparing its ortho and para compounds.
Ans-1.It is because C6H5NH2 is basic, reacts with Lewis acid AlCl3 to form salt. It is because
2.methyl group is electron releasing, whereas nitrogroup is electron withdrawing.
3.It is done so as to decrease the reactivity of Aniline towards electrophilic substitution reactions.
Q5.

Ans-

Q6. Account for the following:

(i) Primary amines(R-NH2) have higher boiling point than tertiary amines(R3N)
(ii) Aniline does not undergo Friedel-Crafts reaction.
(iii) (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution.
Ans- (i) Primary amines (R-NH2) have higher boiling point than tertiary amines (R3N). ,Due to
maximum intermolecular hydrogen bonding in primary amines (due to presence of more
number of H-atoms) primary amines have high BP in comparison to tertiary amines.
(ii) Aniline, N-substituted and N,N-disubstituted anilines do not undergo Friedel-Craft's
reactions due to salt formation with aluminium chloride which is used as a Lewis acid
catalyst.
(iii) (CH3)2NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in an aqueous solution. The order of basic strength of
aliphatic amines in the aqueous phase is based on the following factors: Steric factor: Alkyl
group is larger than hydrogen atom that causes steric hindrance to attack of acid.

76
 Q7.

Ans-

Q8.

Ans-

Q9.

Ans-

Q10.

Ans-

77
 Q11.

[HOTS]
Ans-

Q12.

[HOTS]
Ans-

78
Q13.

Ans-

Q14.

Ans-

79
Q15.

Ans-

Q16. How will you convert the following: [HOTS]

(i) Aniline to cholorobenzene
(ii) Ethanoic Acid to Methanamine
(iii) Benzene diazonium chloride to Phenol

Ans-

.
Q17. (a) Explain why an alkylamine is more basic than ammonia. [HOTS]

80
 (b) How would you convert
(i) Aniline to nitrobenzene?
(ii) Aniline to iodobenzene?
Ans-

Q18. State reasons for the following:

1. pKb value for aniline is more than that for methylamine.
2. Ethylamine is soluble in water whereas aniline is not soluble in water,
3. Primary amines have higher boiling points than tertiary amines.
Ans- 1. It is because aniline is less basic than methyl amine due to presence of electron
withdrawing phenyl group, it has more pKb
2. Ethylamine is soluble in water owing to its potential to form intermolecular Hydrogen bonds
with water. On the other hand, aniline does not undergo hydrogen bonding because of the presence
of the benzene which is highly hydrophobic. Therefore aniline is insoluble in water.
3. Tertiary amines have no hydrogen atoms bonded to the nitrogen atom and therefore are not
hydrogen bond donors. Thus, tertiary amines cannot form intermolecular hydrogen bonds.

Long Answer Type Questions [5 Marks]

Q1.An aromatic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C7H7ON undergoes a series of reaction as shown
below. Write the structures of A,B,C,D and E in the following reactions: [HOTS]

Ans-

Q2. An aromatic compound ‘A’ of molecular formula C7H6O2 undergoes a series of reactions as given

81
below. Write the structures of A, B, C, D and E in the following reactions: [HOTS]

Ans-

Q3. (a) Write the structures of main products when benzene diazonium chloride reacts with the
following reagents: [ HOTS]
(i) H3PO2 + H2O (ii) CuCN/KCN (iii) H2O
(b) Arrange the following in the increasing order of their basic character in aqueous solution:
C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N
(c) Give a simple chemical test to distinguish between the following pair of compounds:-
C6H5NH2 and C6H5-NH-CH3
Ans-

Q4. (a) Illustrate the following reactions by giving suitable example in each case:-
(i) Ammonolysis (ii) Coupling Reaction (iii) Acetylation Reaction

82
 (b) Describe Hinsberg method for the identification of primary, secondary and tertiary amines.
Also write the chemical equations of the reactions involved.
Ans-

Q5.

[ HOTS]
Ans-

Q6.(a) Illustrate the following reactions by giving suitable example in each case:
(i) Hoffmann Bromamide degradation (ii) Diazotisation (iii) Gabriel phthalimide synthesis

83
 (b) Distinguish between the following pairs of Compounds:-
(i) Aniline and N-Methylaniline (ii) (CH3)2NH and (CH3)3N

Ans-

Q7.

[HOTS]
Ans-

84
85
86
 KMPS
CLASS-12
CHEMISTRY ASSIGNMENT
BIOMOLECULE
Question 1.
During acetylation of glucose it needs ,v moles of.acetic anhydride. The value of x would be
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 4 (d) 1
Answer:: b

Question 2.
On oxidation with a mild oxidising agent like Br2/H20, the glucose is oxidized to
(a) saccharic acid (b) glucaric acid
(c) gluconic acid (d) valeric acid
Answer:: c

Question 3.
Invert sugar is
(a) a type of cane sugar (b) optically inactive form of sugar
(c) mixture of glucose and galactose (d) mixture of glucose and fructose in equimolar quantities
Answer:: d

Question 4.
Which of the following compounds is found abundatly in nature?
(a) Fructose (b) Starch
(c) Glucose (d) Cellulose
Answer:: b and d

Question 5.
Glycosidic linkage is an
(a) amide linkage (b) ester linkage
(c) ether linkage (d) acetyl linkage
Answer:: c

Question 6.
Starch is composed of two polysaccharides which arc
(a) amylopectin and glycogen (b) amylose and gtycogen
(c) amylose (20%) and amylopectin (80%) (d) cellulose and glycogen
Answer:: c

Question 7.
Which reagent is used to convert glucose into saccharic acid?
(a) Br2/H2O (b) Nitric acid
(c) Alkaline solution of iodine (d) Ammonium hydroxide
Answer:: b

Question 8.
Maltose is made up of
(a) two α-D-glucose (b) normal β-D-glucose
(c) α- and β-D-glucose (d) fructose
Answer:: a

Question 9.
What is the basic formulae for starch?
(a) (C6H12O6)n (b) (C6H10O5)n
(c) C12O12O11 (d) (C6H12O4)n
Answer:: b 87
Question 10.
Whicn of the following is an example of an aldopentose?
(a) D-Ribose (b) Glyceraldehyde
(c) Fructose (d) Erythrose
Answer:: a

Question 11.

Identify Z.
(a) 2-lodoheptane (b) Heptane-2-ol
(c) 2-lodohexane (d) Heptanoic acid
Answer:: d

Question 12.
Which of the following treatment will convert starch directly into glucose?
(a) Heating with dilute H2SO4 (b) Fermentation by diastase
(c) Fermentation by zymase (d) Heating with dilute NaOH
Answer:: a

Question 13.
The general formula of carbohydrates is
(a) CnH2n+1O (b) CnH2nO
(c) Cx(H2O)y (d) Cn(H2,O)2n
Answer:: c

Question 14.
The a-and p-forms of glucose are
(a) isomers of D (+) glucose and L (-) glucose respectively (b) diastereomers of glucose
(c) anomers of glucose (d) isomers which differ in the configuration of C-2
Answer:: c

Question 15.
What are the hydrolysis products of sucrose?
(a) Fructose + Fructose (b) Glucose + Glucose
(c) Glucose + Galactose (d) D-Glucose + D-Fructose
Answer:: d

Question 16.
Carbohydrates are stored in human body as the polysaccharide
(a) starch (b) glycogen
(c) cellulose (d) amylose
Answer::b

Question 17.
The glycosidic linkage involved in linking the glucose units in amylose part of starch is
(a) C1-C4 β-linkage (b) C4-C6 β-linkage
(c) C1-C6 α-linkage (d) C1-C4 α-linkage
Answer:: d

Question 18.
The conversion of maltose into glucose is possible by the enzyme
(a) zymase (b) lactase
(c) maltase (d) diastase
Answer:: c

88
Question 19.
Which of the following is a non-reducing sugar?
(a) Glucose (b) Sucrose
(c) Maltose (d) Lactose
Answer:: b

Question 20.
Which one of the following is not correct?
(a) D(-) Fructose exist sin furanose structure (b) D (+) Glucose exists in pyranose structure
(c) In sucrose the two monosaccharides are held together by peptide linkage
(d) Maltose is a reducing sugar
Answer:: c

Question 21.
In cellulose, D-glucose units are joined by
(a) α-1, 4 glycosidic linkage (b) β-1, 6 glycosidic linkage
(c) β-1, 4 glycosidic linkage (d) peptide linkage
Answer::c

Question 22.
The anomeric carbon in D (+) glucose is
(a) C-1 carbon (b) C-2 carbon
(c) C-5 carbon (d) C-6 carbon
Answer:: a

Question 23.
Glucose Product is
(a) hexanoic acid (b) gluconic acid
(c) saccharic acid (d) bromohexane
Answer:: b

Question 24.
How many C-atoms are there is a pyranose ring?
(a) 3 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
Answer:: c

Question 25.
Cellulose is a
(a) hexapolysaccharide (b) pentapolysaccharide
(c) tripolysaccharide (d) None of these
Answer:: d

Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion: and Reason. While Answering
these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion: and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion:.
(b) If both Assertion: and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion:.
(c) If the Assertion: is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion: and Reason are incorrect.

Q.1. Assertion: D(+)– Glucose is dextrorotatory in nature.

Reason : ‘D’ represents its dextrorotatory nature.
Answer: c

Q.2. Assertion: Sucrose is called an invert sugar.

Reason : On hydrolysis, sucrose bring the change in the sign of rotation from dextro (+) to laevo(–).
Answer: (a) The hydrolysis of sucrose brings about a change in the sign of rotation from dextro (+) to laevo (–)
and the product is named as invert sugar. 89
Q.3. Assertion: β-glycosidic linkage is present in maltose

Reason : Maltose is composed of two glucose units in which C–1 of one glucose unit is linked to C–4 of another
glucose unit.
Answer:d

Q.4. Assertion: At isoelectric point, the amino group does not migrate under the influence of electric field.
Reason : At isoelectric point, amino acid exists as a zwitterion.
Answer: a

Q.5. Assertion: Vitamin D cannot be stored in our body

Reason : Vitamin D is not a fat soluble vitamin and is excreted from the body in urine
Answer: (d) Vitamin D is a fat soluble vitamin and can be stored in the body since it is not excreted out of the
body.

Q.6 Assertion: All naturally occurring α-aminoacids except glycine are optically active.
Reason : Most naturally occurring amino acids have L-configuration.
Answer: b

Q.7 Assertion: Deoxyribose, C5H10O4 is not a carbohydrate.

Reason : Carbohydrates are hydrates of carbon so compounds which follow Cx (H2O) y formula are
carbohydrates.
Answer: d

Q.8 Assertion: Glycine must be taken through diet.

Reason : It is an essential amino acid.
Answer: d

Q.9Assertion: In presence of enzyme, substrate molecule can be attacked by the reagent effectively.
Reason : Active sites of enzymes hold the substrate molecule in a suitable position.
Answer: a

Question 1 When a protein in its native form, is subjected to physical changes like change in temperature or
chemical changes like change in pH, the hydrogen bonds are disturbed. Due to this, globules unfold and helix get
uncoiled and protein loses its biological activity. This is called denaturation of protein.The denaturation causes
change in secondary and tertiary structures but primary structures remains intact.Examples of denaturation of
protein are coagulation of egg white on boiling, curding of milk, formation of cheese when an acid is added to
milk.
The following questions are multiple choice question. Choose the most appropriate answer:
(i) Mark the wrong statement about denaturation of proteins.
(a) The primary structure of the protein does not change.
(b) Globular proteins are converted into fibrous proteins.
(c) Fibrous proteins are converted into globular proteins.
(d) The biological activity of the protein is destroyed.
(ii) Which statement(s) of protein remain(s) intact during denaturation process?
(a) Both secondary and tertiary structures
(b) primary structure only
(c) secondary structure only
(d) tertiary structure
90
(iii) α-helix and β-pleated structures of proteins are classified as
(a) primary structure
(b) secondary structures
(c) tertiary structure
(d) quaternary structure
(iv)Cheese is a
(a) globular protein
(b) conjugated protein
(c) denatured protein
(d) derived protein
(v) Secondary structure of protein refers to v(a) mainly denatured of proteins and structures of prosthetic
groups
(b) three-dimensional structure, especially the bond between amino acid residues that are distant from each other
in the polypeptide chain
(c) linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain
(d) regular folding patterns of continuous portions of the polypeptide chain.
Answers (i) c
(ii) b
(iii) b
(iv)c
(v) d

Question2 Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
The sequence of bases along the DNA and RNA chain establishes its primary structure which controls the specific
properties of the nucleic acid. An RNA molecule is usually a single chain of ribose-containing nucleotide. On the
basis of X-ray analysis of DNA, J.D., Watson and F.H.C. crick (shared noble prize in 1962) proposed a three
dimensional secondary structure for DNA. DNA molecule is a long and highly complex, spirally twisted, double
helix, ladder like structure. The two polynucleotide chains or strands are linked up by hydrogen bonding between
the nitrogeneous base molecules of their nucleotide monomers. Adenine (purine) always links with thymine
(pyrimidine) with the help of two hydrogen bonds and guanine (purine) with cytosine (pyrimidine) with the help
of three hydrogen bonds. Hence, the two strands extend in opposite directions, i.e., are antiparallel and
complimentary.
In these questions (i-iv), a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the
correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion: and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for Assertion:.
(b) Assertion: and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for Assertion:.
(c) Assertion: is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion: is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
(i) Assertion: DNA molecules and RNA molecules are found in the nucleus of a cell.
Reason: There are two types of nitrogenous bases, purines and pyrimidines. Adenine (A) and guanine (G) are
substituted purines; cytosine (C), thymine (T) and uracil (U) are substituted pyrimidines

(ii) Assertion: In both DNA and RNA, heterocyclic base and phosphate ester linkages are at C-l' and C-
5' respectively of the sugar molecule.
Reason: Nucleotides and nucleosides mainly differ from each other in presence of phosphate units.

(iii) Assertion: The backbone ofRNA molecule is a linear chain consisting of an alternating units of a heterocylic
base, D-ribose and a phosphate.
Reason: The segment of DNA which acts as the instruction manual for the synthesis of protein is ribose.

(iv) Assertion: The double helical structure of DNA was proposed by Emil Fischer.
Reason: A nucleoside is an N-glycoside of heterocyclic base.

Question3 Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Proteins are high molecular mass complex biomolecules of amino acids. The important proteins required for our
body are enzymes, hormones, antibodies, transport proteins, structural proteins, contractile proteins etc. Extept for
glycine, all a-amino acids have chiral carbon atom and most of them have L-configuration. The amino acids exists
as dipolar ion called zwitter ion, in which a proton goes from the carboxyl group to the amino group. A large
91
number of a-amino acids are joined by peptide bonds forming polypeptides. The pep tides having very large
molecular mass (more than 10,000) are called proteins. The structure of proteins is described as primary structure
giving sequence of linking of amino acids; secondary structure giving manner in which polypeptide chains are
arranged and folded; tertiary structure giving folding, coiling or bonding polypeptide chains producing three
dimensional structures and quaternary structure giving arrangement of sub-units in an aggregate protein molecule.
In these questions (i-iv), a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the
correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion: and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for Assertion:.
(b) Assertion: and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for Assertion:.
(c) Assertion: is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion: is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

(i) Assertion: All amino acids are optically active.

Reason: Amino acids contain asymmetric carbon atoms.

(ii) Assertion: In αα -helix structure, intramolecular H-bonding takes place whereas in ββ -pleated structure,
intermolecular H-bonding takes place.
Reason: An egg contains a soluble globular protein called albumin which is present in the white part.

(iii) Assertion: Secondary structure of protein refers to regular folding patterns of continuos portions of the
polypeptide chain.
Reason: Out of 20 amino acids, only 12 amino acids can be synthesised by human body.

(iv) Assertion: The helical structure of protein is stabilised by intramolecular hydrogen bond between -NH and
carbonyl oxygen.
Reason: Sanger's reagent is used for the identification of N-terminal amino acid of peptide chain.

Question 4 Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
Glucose is known as dextrose because it occurs in nature as the optically active dextrorotatory isomer. It is
essential constituent of human blood. The blood normally contains 65 to 110 mg of glucose per 100 mL (hence
named Blood sugar). The level may be much higher in diabetic persons. The urine of diabetic persons also contain
considerable amount of glucose. In combined form, it occurs in cane sugar and polysaccharides such as starch and
cellulose.
Glucose has an aldehyde group (-CHO), one primary alcoholic group (-CH2OH) and four secondary alcoholic
groups (-CHOH) in their structure. Due to the presence five hydroxyl groups (-OH), glucose acetylation. Glucose
also undergoes oxidation with mild oxidising agents like bromine water as well as with strong oxidising agents
like nitric acid. Since glucose is readily oxidised, it acts as a strong reducing agent and reduces Tollen's reagent
and Fehling solution. Glucose exists in two crystalline forms:αα -D-glucose and ββ -Dglucose undergoes If either
of the two forms is dissolved in water and allowed to stand, the specific rotation of the solution changes gradually,
until a constant value is obtained. This change is called mutarotation.
In these questions (i-iv), a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the
correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion: and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for Assertion:.
(b) Assertion: and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for Assertion:.
(c) Assertion: is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion: is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

(i) Assertion: A diabetic person carries a packet of glucose with him always.
Reason: Glucose increases the blood sugar level almost instantaneously.

(ii) Assertion: On oxidation with nitric acid, glucose as well as gluconic acid both yield saccharic acid.
Reason : The pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxylamine indicating the absence of free -CHO
group.

(iii) Assertion: Glucose reacts with acetyl chloride to form pentaacetyl glucose.
Reason: The formation of pentaacetyl derivative confirms the presence of five -OH groups in glucose.

(iv) Assertion: A certain compound gives negative test with ninhydrin and positive test with Benedict's solution,
92
the compound is an amino acid.
Reason: Glucose is a monosaccharide.

Answers
2. (i) (d): DNA occurs in nucleus of the cell while RNA is found mainly in cytoplasm of the cell.

Nucleosides contain only sugar and a base whereas nucleotides contain sugar, base and a phosphate group as well.
(iii) (c): The segment of DNA which acts as the instruction mannual for the synthesis of protein is gene.
(iv) (d): The double helical structure of DNA was proposed by Watson and Crick.

3. (i) (d) : All amino acids except glycine are optically active because they contain, asymmetric carbon atom.
They exist in both D and L- forms. Most naturally occurring amino acids have L-configuration.
(ii) (b): In a-helix structure, the formation of hydrogen bonds takes place between -co- and -NH groups, whereas
in ~-pleated structure, hydrogen bonds are formed between amide groups of two different chains.
(iii) (c) : Out of 20 amino acids, only 10 amino acids can be synthesised by human body.
(iv) (b)

4.(i) (a)

(ii) (b):
Strong oxidising agents like nitric acid oxidises both the terminal -CHO and -CH2OH groups of glucose to give
the dibasic acid, saccharic acid.
(iii) (b)
(iv) (d): If a certain compound gives negative test with ninhydrin and positive test with Benedict's solution then
the compound should be a monosaccharide.

Short Answer type

What is meant by ‘reducing sugars’?

Answer:
Reducing sugar contains aldehydic or ketonic group in the hemiacetal and hemiketal forms and can reduce
Tollen’s reagent or Fehlmg’s solution.

What are monosaccharides?

Answer:
These are the simplest carbohydrates which cannot be hydrolysed to smaller molecules. Their general formula is
(CH2O)n where n = 3 – 7
Example : glucose, fructose etc.

Write the structure of the product obtained when glucose is oxidised with nitric acid.

93
Answer:

Write a reaction which shows that all the carbon atoms in glucose are linked in a straight chain.
Answer:
On prolonged heating with HI, it forms n-hexane, shows that all the six carbon atoms are linked in a straight
chain :

Where does the water present in the egg go after boiling the egg?
Answer:
Denaturation of proteins is a process that changes the physical and biological properties of proteins without
affecting the chemical composition of protein. In an egg, denaturation of protein is the coagulation of albumin
present in the white of an egg. When an egg is boiled in water, the globular proteins present in it change to a
rubber like insoluble mass which absorbs all the water present in the egg by making hydrogen bond with it.

What is a glycosidic linkage?

Answer:
The two monosaccharide units are joined together through an etheral or oxide linkage formed by loss of a
molecule of water. Such a linkage between two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom is called glycosidic
linkage.

Name the products of hydrolysis of lactose.

Answer:
Lactose on hydrolysis with dilute acids gives an equimolar mixture of D-glucose and D-galactose.

Name the only vitamin which can be synthesized in our body. Name the disease caused due to the
deficiency of this vitamin.
Answer:
Vitamin which can be synthesized in our body : Vitamin A
Its deficiency causes Xerophthalmia.

Mention one important function of nucleic acids in our body.

Answer:
Function of nucleic acid : Nucleic acids control the transmission of hereditary characters from one generation to
another.

Define a ‘Peptide linkage’.

Answer:
Peptide linkage : It is an amide linkage formed between – COOH group of one α-amino acid and NH2 group of the
other α-amino acid by loss of a molecule of water. – CO – NH – bond is called Peptide linkage.

What is the structural difference between glucose and fructose?

Ans: The difference between glucose and fructose are:

Glucose Fructose
94
 Fructose is a
ketohexose that requires
Hexokinase/glucokinase is the enzyme that kick-starts
fructokinase to begin
the metabolism of glucose. Aldohexose is the type of
metabolism.
sugar present in glucose. It takes on the shape of a
It takes the shape of a
pyranose ring.
furan ring.

What is the difference between an oligosaccharide and a polysaccharide?

Ans: The difference between an oligosaccharide and a polysaccharide are:
Oligosaccharide Polysaccharide

An oligosaccharide is a saccharide polymer Polysaccharides are polymeric

with a limited number of monosaccharides carbohydrates with lengthy chains
(usually three to ten simple sugars). Cell made up of monosaccharide units
recognition and cell binding are two tasks linked together by glycosidic
that oligosaccharides can perform. connections.
Example: sucrose, lactose, maltose etc. Example: starch, glycogen etc.

Give the Haworth projection of D-glucopyranose.

Ans:

What are anomers? Give the structures of two anomers of glucose.

Ans: Anomers are epimers of cyclic monosaccharides or glycosides that differ in their
C - 1C - 1
configuration if they are aldoses, or their
C - 2C - 2
configuration if they are ketoses. Anomeric carbon or anomeric centre refers to the epimeric carbon in anomers.
Two anomers of glucose are
α−D−glucopyranoseα−D−glucopyranose
and
β−D−glucopyranose.β−D−glucopyranose.

95
Write the hydrolysed products of
(i) Maltose
Ans: Maltase is an enzyme that breaks down maltose into two molecules of D-glucose.
(ii) Cellulose
Ans: The hydrolysis of cellulose polymers occurs when acids break the 1,4-glycosidic linkages, resulting in the
sugar molecule glucose or oligosaccharides. In the hydrolysis of cellulose, mineral acids such as
HCl and H2SO4have been employed.

Acetylation of glucose with acetic anhydride gives glucose pentaacetate. Write the
structure of the pentaacetate.
Ans.

(ii) Explain why glucose pentaacetate does not react with hydroxylamine?
Ans: D-glucose pentaacetate does not react with
NH2OHNH2OH
. Because pentaacetate does not form an open chain structure.

What are vitamins? How are they classified?

Ans: Vitamins are chemical molecules that are important micronutrients that an organism need in little amounts
for its metabolism to function properly. Essential nutrients are unable to be produced in the body, either entirely or
in adequate amounts, and must therefore be acquired from food.

96
Classification of vitamins: Water-soluble and fat-soluble vitamins are the two types of vitamins. There are 13
vitamins in humans: four fat-soluble vitamins (A, D, E, and K) and nine water-soluble vitamins (8 B vitamins and
vitamin C).

Why is sucrose called a non-reducing sugar?

Ans: Sucrose is a non-reducing sugar because it has a glycosidic connection between
C - 1C - 1
of -glucose and
C - 2C - 2
of -fructose holds the two monosaccharide units of glucose and fructose together. So, sucrose has no free aldehyde
or ketone next to the
CHOHCHOH
group, sucrose is a non-reducing sugar.
(ii) Give the type of glycosidic linkage present in sucrose.
Ans: Sucrose is a disaccharide, which is a molecule made up of two monosaccharides: glucose and fructose.
C - 1C - 1
on the glucosyl subunit and
C - 2C - 2
on the fructose unit form an ether bond, which connects them.

Write the products of oxidation of glucose with

(a) Bromine water
Ans: On reaction with bromine water, oxidation of glucose to gluconic acid occurs.

(b) Nitric acid

Ans: With nitric acid, glucose yields saccharic acid.

Classify the following αα -amino acids as neutral, acidic or basic.

(i) HOOC−CH2−CH(NH2)COOH
Ans: acidic α -amino acid
97
(ii) C6H5−CH2−CH(NH2)COOH
Ans: neutralα -amino acid

(iii) H2N−(CH2)4−CH(NH2)−COOH
Ans: Basic α -amino acid

(iv)

Ans: Basic α -amino acid

You have two amino acids, i,ei,e. glycine and alanine. What are the structures of two possible dipeptides
that they can form?
Ans: Two symmetrical dipeptides (GlyGly and AlaAla) and two unsymmetrical dipeptides (GlyAla and AlaGly)
may be made from glycine (Gly) and alanine (Ala).

What do you understand by

(a) Denaturation of protein
Ans: Denaturation is a process in which proteins or nucleic acids lose their native forms by exposing them to an
external strain or chemical, such as a tough acid or base, a concentrated inorganic salt, an organic solvent,
radiation, or heat. When proteins in a live cell are denatured, the cell's functioning is disrupted, and the cell may
die.
(b) Specificity of an enzyme.
Ans: Enzymes show specificity when it comes to the particular reactions they catalyze. Only a few enzymes have
absolute specificity, which means they will catalyze only one reaction. Other enzymes will have a preference for a
specific chemical bond or functional group. There are four different forms of specificity in general: Absolute
specificity, group specificity, linkage specificity, and stereochemical specificity.

On electrolysis in acidic solution, amino acids migrate towards cathode while in alkaline solution they
migrate towards anode.
Ans: Amino acid exists as a dipolar ion. When an ion transforms to a positive ion during electrolysis in an acidic
medium, it migrates to the cathode, whereas when an ion changes to a negative ion during electrolysis in a basic
medium, it migrates to the anode.
In acidic solution, COO -
group of zwitter ion formed from αα -amino acid is protonated and NH3+ groups is left unchanged while in basic
solution deprotonation converts NH+3to NH2 and COO− is left unchanged.

Define the terms hypervitaminosis and avitaminosis.

Ans:. Hypervitaminosis is a disorder in which a person's body has too much vitamin A and vitamin D. This can
occur if a person consumes too many vitamins or utilizes certain acne treatments for an extended length of time.
Vision difficulties, skin abnormalities, and bone discomfort are all symptoms of hypervitaminosis and can cause
liver damage and put a strain on the brain in long-term instances.
Avitaminosis is a set of illnesses caused by a deficiency in one or more vitamins. It can happen if you have
persistent severe diarrhoea or heavy sweating, or if you have elevated vitamin requirements during periods of fast
growth, such as during infancy or pregnancy.

How are carbohydrates classified?

98
Ans: Carbohydrates are mainly classified into four primary groups—monosaccharides, disaccharides,
oligosaccharides, and polysaccharides. Although there are some other classifications criteria, this one is the most
widely used.

LONG ANSWERS
Q.1 Name four bases present in DNA.
Ans: Adenine, Guanine, Thymine and Cytosine are the four nitrogen bases present in DNA.

(ii) Which of them is not present in RNA.

Ans: Thymine is absent in RNA. Instead of thymine, Uracil is present in RNA.

(iii) Give the structure of a nucleotide of DNA.

A nucleotide includes a sugar molecule with a phosphate group and a nitrogen-containing base linked to it.
Nucleic acids are made up of nucleotides, which are the building blocks of DNA/RNA.
Structure of a Nucleotide of DNA:

Q.2 Differentiate between the following:

(i) Secondary and tertiary structure of the protein.
Ans: The difference between the secondary and tertiary structure of proteins:
Secondary Tertiary

The three-dimensional structure

The secondary structure of a
of a protein is known as the
protein refers to the regular,
tertiary structure. It is the next
repeating arrangements in space
degree of protein folding
of adjoining amino acid
complexity. Individual amino
residues. Hydrogen bonds
acids in the primary sequence
between amide hydrogens and
can interact to form secondary
carbonyl oxygen in the peptide
structures such as helices and
backbone hold it together.
sheets.
99
 Individual amino acids from
different parts of the primary
sequence can interact via charge-
αα -helices and ββ -structures
charge, hydrophobic, disulfide,
are the most commonly
or other interactions, but the
involved structures.
formation of these bonds and
interactions will change the
protein's general structure.

Q.3 (ii) α -Helix and β -pleated sheet structure of protein.

Ans: The difference between α -Helix and β -pleated sheet are:
α - Helix β - Pleated Sheet

The α - Helix is a typical

secondary structural
element in proteins,
created when amino acids The β - Pleated Sheet
"wind up" to form a right- is a frequent secondary structural
handed helix with side style in normal proteins. Beta sheets
chains pointing out from are made up of beta strands that are
the centre coil. joined laterally by at least two or
Hydrogen interactions three backbone hydrogen bonds to
between the carbonyl create a twisted, pleated sheet.
oxygen and the amino Intermolecular -sheets with both a
group of every third hydrophilic and a hydrophobic face
residue in the helical turn are formed by hydrogen bonding
stabilize a -helix between individual strands.
secondary structure, with
each helical turn including
3.6 amino acid residues.

Q.4 (iii) Fibrous and Globular proteins.

Ans: The difference between fibrous and globular proteins are:
Fibrous Proteins Globular Proteins

Polypeptide chains are arranged Globular proteins have a

roughly in parallel along a single three-dimensional molecular
axis in fibrous proteins, resulting structure that can range from a
in long fibres or huge sheets. sphere to a cigar. A globular
These proteins are typically protein's structure is usually
mechanically tough and resistant split into three or four levels.
to water solubilization. In nature, The peptide chain's basic
fibrous proteins frequently serve a structure is just the sequence
structural role. of amino acids.

Q.5 Write chemical equations to show that open structure of D-Glucose contains the following
i. straight chain
ii. five alcohol groups
iii. Aldehyde as carbonyl group

100
 Answer: i.

ii.

iii.
Q.6 What happens when D-Glucose is reacted with the following
i. Br2 water
ii. HCN
iii. (CH3CO)2O
Answer i. When glucose is heated in the presence of HI, it reduces to n−hexane

ii.

iii.
101
 Q.7 Enumerate the reaction of D-Glucose which cannot be explained by open chain structure
Answer: Following reactions cannot be explained by the open chain structure of glucose.
(1) Glucose has aldehyde group but it does not react with 2,4 dinitro phenyl hydrazine, sodium bisulphite and
Schiff's base.
(2) There is no condensation reaction between glucose penta-acetate and hydroxylamine. This indicates that free
aldehyde group is absent.

Q.8 What is the essential difference between alpha-glucose and beta-glucose?

Q.9 What is meant by the pyranose structure of glucose?
Answer: α- glucose and β- glucose are two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose which differ only in the
configuration of hydroxyl group (-OH) at anomeric carbon. Such isomers are called anomers. The six-membered
cyclic structure of glucose is called pyranose structure.
Pyranose structure of glucose: The six memebred ring contains oxygen atom because of its resemblance with pyran
is called pyranose form.
α-D-glucose and β-D-glucose are stereoisomers, they differ in 3-dimensional configuration of atoms/groups at one
or more positions.
Note: that the structures are almost identical, except that in the α form, the OHOH group on the far right is down and
in the β form, the OHOH group on the far right is up.

Q.10 What is Glycogen? How is it different from starch? How is starch structurally different from
cellulose?
Answer: Glycogen is a polymer of α−D−glucose. The carbohydrates are stored in animal body as glycogen.
Starch is also a polymer of α−D−glucose and consist of two components amylose and amylopectin. Amylose is
linear chain polymer of α-D-glucose. Both glycogen and amylopectin are branched chain polymers
of α−D−glucose but glycogen is more highly branched than amylopectin . Starch is the main storage polysaccharide
of plants.
Starch is a 1-4 linkage of α glucose monomers and Cellulose is formed by 1-4 linkage of β glucose monomers.

Q.11 How can reducing and nonreducing sugars be differentiated? Mention the structural features
characterizing reducing sugars.
Answer: By using fehling’s test reducing and non reducing sugars can be distinguished.
The main structure feature of reducing sugars is the presence of an aldehyde group (−CHO) such as in glucose,
mannose, galactose, etc. Or a-ketol group (−CO−CH2OH) as present in fructose.

Q.12 Define the following as related to protein

i. Peptide linkage
ii. Primary structure
iii. Denaturation
Answer: I) Peptide linkage is the peptide bond formed between the amino acids. It is a covalent bond
formed between amino group of one molecule and carboxylic acid group of another molecule.

II)The primary structure of a peptide or protein is the linear sequence of its amino acid structural units. The
primary structure of a protein is reported starting from the amino-terminal (N) end to the carboxyl-terminal
(C) end.

(III) The process in which proteins or nucleic acids lose the quaternary structure, tertiary structure and
secondary structure which is present in their native state known as denaturation. by application of some
external stress or compound such as a strong acid or base, a concentrated inorganic salt, an organic sol.

Q.13 How are vitamins classified? Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of blood
Answer: (a) Vitamins are classified into two groups on the basis of their solubility in water or fat:
(i) Fat soluble vitamins Vitamins, soluble in fat but insoluble in water are called fat soluble vitamins. For example
vitamins A, D, E and K.
(ii) Water-soluble vitamins These vitamins are soluble in water and insoluble in fat. For example, vitamins B-
complex and vitamin C.
(b) Vitamin K is responsible for the coagulation of blood.

Q.14 What are essential and non essential amino acids? Give two examples of each
102
Answer: Essential amino acids are those which are not produced in our body and required to be supplied from
outside, e.g., valine , leucine.
Non-essential amino acids are those which are produced by our body, e.g., glucine , alanine.

Q.15 i. What type of bonding helps in stablising the alpha Helix structure of protiens?
ii. Differentiate between globular and fibrous protiens.
Answer: Hydrogen bonds are stabilizing an alpha-helix. The alpha-helix (α-helix) is a common motif in the
secondary structure of proteins and is a right hand-coiled or spiral conformation (helix) in which every
backbone N−H group donates a hydrogen bond to the backbone C=O group of the amino acid.

Q.16 i. What is the structural difference between nucleoside and nucleotide

ii. The two strans of DNA are not identical but complementary. Explain
Answer: i.
Difference between Nucleotide and Nucleoside

Nucleotide Nucleoside

The chemical composition of nucleotide A nucleoside has a chemical composition that

consists of a phosphate group, a sugar and a consists of a sugar and a base without the phosphate
nitrogenous base. group.

They are used as agents in medicine that are

They are one of the major causes of cancer-
primarily used against viruses and cancer-causing
causing agents to this very day.
agents.

Some of the key examples of nucleosides are the

Some of the major examples of nucleotides are
same as nucleotides only with the addition of
adenosine, guanosine etc.
phosphate groups.

ii. Each strand consist of 4 bases which are Adenine, Guanine, Thymine and Cytosine.

These complementary bases are the following:

Adenine (A) ⇔ Thymine (T)
Cytosine (C) ⇔ Guanine (G)

⇔ This symbol represents that both the left and right hand side bases are complementary to each other.

The two strands are internally connected by hydrogen bonding between complementary bases. The two strands of
DNA are not identical because their sequence of bases has to be complementary to each other.. Ex- If one
sequence is ATCG the other has to be TAGC.

Q.17 Amino acids may be acidic, alkaline or neutral. How did this happen?
What are essential and non essential amino acids? Name one of each type.
Answer: Amino acids may be acidic, basic or neutral depending upon the relative number of amino and
carboxyl group present in their molecule.Equal number of amino and carboxyl groups makes it neutral, more
amino group means basic and more carboxylic group means acidic amino acid.
Essential amino acids are those which are not produced in our body and required to be supplied from outside, e.g.,
valine , leucine.
Non-essential amino acids are those which are produced by our body, e.g., glucine , alanine.

103
 KANHA MAKHAN PUBLIC SCHOOL
CLASS 1 2
WORK SHEET

ATTEMPT ALL THE QUESTIONS IN SEQUENCE ORAS INSTRUCTED BY TEACHER.

ALL QUESTIONS MUST BE DONE IN PRACTICE COPY.
ROUGH WORK MUST ALSO BE DONE IN PRACTICE COPY (SEPERATE ROUGH COPY IS NOT ALLOWED)

COORDINATION COMPOUNDS

Choose and write the correct option(s) in the following questions.

1. Which of the following has highest molar conductivity?
(a) potassiumhexacyanoferrate (II) (b) hexaaquachromium(III)chloride
(c) tetraamminedichloridocobalt (Hl)chloride (d) diamminechlorido platinum (II)
2. W hen 0.1 mol CoC13(NH3)5 is treated with excess of Ag.XO3, 0.2 mol of AgCl are obtained. The
conductivity of solution will correspond to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) 1:3 electrolyte (b) 1:2 electrolyte
(c) 1:1 electrolyte (d) 3:1 electrolyte
3. When 1 mol CrCl3.6II2O is treated with excess of Ag.XO3, 3 mol of AgCl are obtained. The formula
of the complex is: [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) [CrCl3(H2O)3] 3H2O (b) [CrCl2(H2O)4]Cl 2H2O
(c) [CrCl(H2O)5]Cl2.H2O (d) [Cr(H2O)6]Cl3
4. Which of the following species is not expected to be a ligand? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) NO (b) NH*
(c) NH2CH2CH2NH2 (d) CO
5. A chelating agent has two or more than two donor atoms to bind to a single metal ion. W hich of the
following is not a chelating agent? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Thiosulphato (b) Oxalato
(c) Glycinato (d) Ethane- 1,2-diamine
6. Which of the follow ing is n-acid ligand?
(a) NH3 (b) CO
(c) F“ (d) ethylenediammine

1
2
3
4
5
6
7
8
9
10
11
12
13
 KANHA MAKHAN PUBLIC SCHOOL

WORK-SHEET D & F Block Elements

Important Questions
Q. 1. Silver atom has completely filled rf-orbitals (4J10) in its ground state. How can you say that it is a
transition element?
Ans. Silver (Z = 47) can exhibit +2 oxidation state wherein it will have incompletely filled ^-orbitals (4J), hence
a transition element.
Q. 2. In the series Sc (Z = 21) to Zn (Z = 30). the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest, i.e.,
126 kJ mol1. Why?
Ans. In the formation of metallic bonds, no electrons from 3J-orbitals are involved in case of zinc, while in all
other metals of the 3d series, electrons from the J-orbitals are always involved in the formation of metallic
bonds. That is why, the enthalpy of atomisation of zinc is the lowest in the series.
Q. 3. Which of the 3d series of the transition metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation states and why?
Ans. Manganese (Z = 25), as it has the maximum number of unpaired electrons in J-subshell. Thus, it shows
oxidation states from +2 to +7 (+2, +3, +4, +5, +6 and +7) which is the maximum number.
Q. 4. The E" (M2+/M) value for copper is positive (+0.34 V). What is possible reason for this?
(Hint: Consider its high &aH6
and low Alnd//e)
Ans. E°(M2'/M) for any metal is related to the sum of the enthalpy change taking place in the following steps
M(s) + \aH * M(g), (Ao H = Enthalpy of atomisation)
M(g) + * M2+(g), (A, H = Ionisation enthalpy)
M2+(g) + a^ + A^y/, (A^,j/f= Hydration enthalpy)
Copper has high enthalpy of ionisation and relatively low enthalpy of hydration. So, £(°Cu2+/Cu) is positive.
The high energy to transform Cu(s) to Cu2+(a<7) is not balanced by its hydration enthalpy.
Q. 5. How would you account for the irregular variation of ionisation enthalpies (first and second) in first
series of the transition elements?
Ans. Irregular variation of ionisation enthalpies is mainly attributed to varying degree of stability of different 3d
configuration (e.g., d° ,d^ ,d'° are exceptionally stable).
Q. 6. Why is the highest oxidation state of a metal exhibited in its oxide or fluoride only?
Ans. Due to small size and high electronegativity, oxygen or fluorine can oxidise a metal to its highest oxidation
state. As a result of this they can oxidise a metal to its highest oxidation state.
Q. 7.
Ans.
—
Which is a stronger reducing agent Cr2+ or Fe2+ and why? \HOTS]
Cr2+ is a stronger reducing agent than Fe2+ because after the loss of one electron Cr2+ becomes Cr3+ which
has more stable (half-filled) configuration in a medium like water.
Q. 8. Calculate the ‘spin only' magnetic moment of M-+(m/) ion (Z = 27).
OR
Calculate the spin-only magnetic moment of Co2+(Z=27) by writing the electronic configuration of Co
and Co2+. [CBSE 2020 (56/1/1)]
.Ans. Electronic configuration of M atom with Z = 27 is [Ar] 3d1 4s2
.’.Electronic configuration of M2+ = [Ar] 3d1, i.e.,
Hence, it has three impaired electrons.
Spin only magnetic moment (p) = yjn(n + 2) BM
= ^3(3 + 2) BM - 715BM - 3.87 BM
Q. 9. Explain why Cu+ ion is not stable in aqueous solutions? [HOTS]
Ans. In aqueous solution Cu+ undergoes disproportionation to form a more stable Cu2+ ion.
2Cu+ (aq) * Cu2+(o^) + Cu(s)
The higher stability of Cu2+ in aqueous solution may be attributed to its greater negative than that
of Cu+ It compensates the second ionisation enthalpy of Cu involved in the formation of Cu2+ ions.

14
15
16
17
18
19
20
21
22
23
24
25
26
27
28
 KANHAMAKHAN PUBLIC SCHOOL, VRINDAVAN
Class-12

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
CHAPTER-3
ELECTROCHEMISTRY

 Electrochemistry : It is the study of reactions and the use of electrical energy

production of electricity from energy to bring about non-spontaneous chemical
released during spontaneous chemical transformations.
Differences between electrochemical cell and electrolytic cell
Electrochemical cell Electrolytic cell
(Galvanic or Voltaic cell)
1. It is a device which converts chemical energy 1. It is a device which converts electrical energy
into electrical energy. into chemical energy.
2. It is based upon the redox reaction which is 2. The redox reaction is non-spontaneous and
spontaneous. i.e., G = –ve takes place only when electrical energy is
supplied. i.e., G = +ve
3. Two electrodes are usually set up in two 3. Both the electrodes are suspended in the
separate beakers. solution or melt of the electrolyte in the same
beaker.
4. The electrolytes taken in the two beakers are 4. Only one electrolyte is taken.
different.
5. The electrodes taken are of different materials. 5. The electrodes taken may be of the same or
different materials.
6. The electrode on which oxidation takes place 6. The electrode which is connected to the –ve
is called the anode (or –ve pole) and the terminal of the battery is called the cathode;
electrode on which reduction takes place is the cations migrate to it which gain electrons
called the cathode (or +ve pole). and hence, a reduction takes place, the other
electrode is called the anode.
7. To set up this cell, a salt bridge/porous pot 7. No salt bridge is used in this case.
is used.

Conductance in electrolytic solutions :

Property Formula Units Effect of dilution
1  a  a
–1 –1
Conductance (G) Ohm ( )/Siemens (S) Increases as larger number
R l l of ions are produced.
Specific conductance 1 l Ohm–1 cm–1/S m–1 Decreases as number of
() or conductivity or G ions per cm3 decreases.
 a
 Equivalent   V or –1 cm2 eq–1/S m2 eq–1 Increases with dilution due
conductivity (eq) 1000 to large increase in V.

N
Molar conductivity   V or –1 cm2 mol–1/S m2 mol–1 Increases with dilution due
(m) 1000 to large increase in V.

M

 Limiting molar conductivity : When

▶ For weak electrolytes : There is a
concentration approaches zero i.e., at
very large increase in conductance with
infinite dilution, the molar conductivity is
dilution especially near infinite dilution
known as limiting molar conductivity
as no. of ions increases. m increases as
(°m). C decreases but does not reach a constant
 Variation of molar conductivity with value even at infinite dilution. Hence, their
concentration : For a strong electrolyte it m cannot be determined experimentally.
is shown by Debye–Huckel Onsager equation ▶ For a strong electrolyte : There is
as follows :
m  m  A only a small increase in conductance
 with dilution. This is because a strong
 (KCl) electrolyte is completely dissociated in
Strong electrolyte
 like KCl solution and so, the number of ions remain
constant and on dilution, interionic
m Weak electrolyte like attractions decreases as ions move far
CH3COOH apart.
C

Here, m = Molar conductivity at infinite  Kohlrausch’s law of independent

dilution ( L i m i t i n g mo la r migration of ions : It states that limiting
conductivity) molar conductivity of an electrolyte can be
m = Molar conductivity at V-dilution represented as the sum of the individual
A = Constant which depends upon nature contributions of the anion and cation of the
of solvent and temperature electrolyte.
C = Concentration °m = + °+ + –°– ; where °+ and °– are the
Plot of m against C1/2 is a straight line with limiting molar conductivities of the cation
intercept equal to  mand slope equal to ‘–A’. and anion respectively and + and – are

Thus, m decreases linearly with C , when stoichiometric number of cations and anions
C = 0, m = m and m can be determined respectively in one formula unit of the
experimentally. electrolyte.
 Applications of Kohlrausch’s law :  Electrolytic Cells and Electrolysis
▶ Calculation of degree of ▶ Electrolysis is the process of
dissociation : decomposition of an electrolyte by passing
m electricity through its aqueous solution or
Degree of dissociation () =
∘m molten state.

Molar conductivity at concentration c


Molar conductivity at infinite dilution

Nernst Equation for Single Electrode Potential

Ecell = E0 – [RT/nF] ln Q
Where,

 Ecell = cell potential of the cell

  E0 = cell potential under standard conditions
 R = universal gas constant
 T = temperature
 n = number of electrons transferred in the redox reaction
 F = Faraday constant
 Q = reaction quotient
 For a reduction reaction, the Nernst equation for a single electrode reduction potential for a reduction reaction
 Mn+ + ne– → nM is;
 Ered = EMn+/M = EoMn+/M – [2.303RT/nF] log [1/[Mn+]]
log Kc = (nE0cell)/0.0592V

Products of Electrolysis
Products Reactions involved
Electrolyte At At
At cathode At anode
cathode anode
–
–
Molten NaCl Na metal Cl2 gas Na (l)+ e  Na
+ Cl  Cl + e–
(l) (l)

1 – 1
Aqueous
H2 gas
–
Cl2 gas H2O(l + e  H2 + OH Cl  Cl + e–
(aq) 2(g)
NaCl
1
H+ aq) + e–  H2(g) 2H2O(l)  O2(g) + 4H+ + 4e–
Dil. H2SO4 H2 gas O2 gas (aq
)

1
H+ aq) + e–  H2(g) 2SO 2–  S O 2– + 2e–
Conc. H2SO4 H2 gas S2O 82– ( 4 (aq) 2 8 (aq)
2
 Overvoltage/Over potential : Oxidation of
 Discharge potential : The minimum
H2O is relatively slow process and thus needs
potential that must be applied across the
extra potential. This extra potential needed
electrodes to bring about the electrolysis
to oxidise H2O is called overvoltage/over
potential. Due to overvoltage, the oxidation and thus, discharge of the ions on the
of chloride ion occurs at anode in preference electrode is known as discharge potential. It
to H2O. is infact the ability of ions to discharge
first at electrodes.
MCQ
1. Given below are the standard electrode potentials of few half-cells. The correct order of these
metals in increasing reducing power will be

answer(b) : Higher the oxidation potential, more easily it is oxidised and hence greater is the reducing power. Hence, increasing order
of reducing power is Ag < Cr < Mg < K.
2. For a cell reaction: Mn+(aq) + ne–M(s), the Nernst equation for electrode potential at any
concentration measured with respect to standard hydrogen electrode is represented as

answer(a)

3. Limiting molar conductivity for some ions is given below (in S cm2mol–1) :
Na+ - 50.1, Cl– - 76.3, H+ - 349.6, CH3COO– - 40.9,Ca2+ - 119.0.What will be the limiting molar
conductivities
(m) of CaCl2, CH3COONa and NaCl respectively?

answer(c)

4. Electrical conductance through metals is called metallic or electronic conductance and is due to the
movement of electrons. The electronic conductance depends on
(a) the nature and structure of the metal
(b) the number of valence electrons per atom
(c) change in temperature
(d) all of these.
answer(d)

5. A galvanic cell has electrical potential of1.1 V. If an opposing potential of 1.1 V is applied to this cell,
what will happen to the cell reaction and current flowing through the cell?
(a) The reaction stops and no current flows through the cell.
(b) The reaction continuous but current flows in opposite direction.
(c) The concentration of reactants becomes unity and current flows from cathode to anode.
(d) The cell does not function as a galvanic cell and zinc is deposited on zinc plate.
answer(a)

6. In a Daniel cell,
(a) the chemical energy liberated during the redox reaction is converted to electrical energy
(b) the electrical energy of the cell is converted to chemical energy
(c) the energy of the cell is utilised in conduction of the redox reaction
(d) the potential energy of the cell is converted into electrical energy.
answer(a)

7. When an aqueous solution of AgNO3 is electrolysed between platinum electrodes, the substances
liberated at anode and cathode are
(a) silver is deposited at cathode and O2 is liberated at anode
(b) silver is deposited at cathode and H2 is liberated at anode
(c) hydrogen is liberated at cathode and O2 is liberated at anode
(d) silver is deposited at cathode and Pt is dissolved in electrolyte.
answer(a)

8. A standard hydrogen electrode has a zero potential because

(a) hydrogen can be most easily oxidised
(b) hydrogen has only one electron
(c) the electrode potential is assumed to be zero
(d) hydrogen is the lightest element.
answer(c)

9. Mark the correct relationship from the following.

 answer(c)

10. The specific conductivity of N/10 KCl solutionat 20°C is 0.0212 ohm–1 cm–1 and the resistanceof the
cell containing this solution at 20°C is 55ohm. The cell constant is
(a) 3.324 cm–1 (b) 1.166 cm–1
(c) 2.372 cm–1 (d) 3.682 cm–1
answer(b)

11. Limiting molar conductivity of NaBr is

answer(b)
12. Choose the option with correct words to fillin the blanks.According to preferential discharge theory,
outof number of ions the one which requires _____energy will be liberated ____ at a given
electrode.
(a) least, first (b) least, last (c) highest, first (d) highest, last

answer(a)
13. For the cell reaction :
2Cu+(aq) → Cu(s) + Cu2+(aq), the standard cell potential is 0.36 V. The equilibrium constant
for the reaction is
(a) 1.2 × 106 (b) 7.4 × 1012 (c) 2.4 × 106 (d) 5.5 × 108
answer(a)
14. Which of the following is the correct order inwhich metals displace each other from the salt
solution of their salts.
(a) Zn, Al, Mg, Fe, Cu (b) Cu, Fe, Mg, Al, Zn
(c) Mg, Al, Zn, Fe, Cu (d) Al, Mg, Fe, Cu, Zn
answer(c)
15. Molar conductivity of 0.15 M solution of KClat 298 K, if its conductivity is 0.0152 S cm –1 will
be
(a) 124 Ω–1 cm2mol–1 (b) 204 Ω–1 cm2mol–1
(c) 101 Ω–1 cm2mol–1 (d) 300 Ω–1 cm2mol–1
answer(c)
16. Fluorine is the best oxidising agent becauseit has
(a) highest electron affinity (b) highest reduction potential
(c) highest oxidation potential (d) lowest electron affinity.
answer(b)
17. During the electrolysis of dilute sulphuricacid, the following process is possible at anode.
 answer(a)
18. Mark the correct choice of electrolytes represented in the graph.

(a) A → NH4OH, B → NaCl (b) A → NH4OH, B → NH4Cl

(c) A → CH3COOH, B → CH3COONa (d) A → KCl, B → NH4OH
answer(d)
19. Which of the following is/are an application of electrochemical series?
(a) To compare the relative oxidising and reducing power of substances.
(b) To predict evolution of hydrogen gas on reaction of metal with acid.
(c) To predict spontaneity of a redox reaction.
(d) All of these
answer(d)
20. What would be the equivalent conductivityof a cell in which 0.5 N salt solution offersa resistance of
40 ohm whose electrodes are2 cm apart and 5 cm2 in area?
(a) 10 ohm–1 cm2eq–1 (b) 20 ohm–1 cm2eq–1
–1 2 –1
(c) 30 ohm cm eq (d) 25 ohm–1 cm2eq–1
answer(b)
21. The half-cell reactions with their appropriatestandard reduction potentials are
(i) Pb2+ + 2e– → Pb ;E° = –0.13 V
(ii) Ag+ + e– → Ag ;E° = +0.80 V
Based on the above data, which of the followingreactions will take place?
(a) Pb2+ + 2Ag → 2Ag+ + Pb (b) 2Ag + Pb → 2Ag+ + Pb2+
(c) 2Ag+ + Pb → Pb2+ + 2Ag (d) Pb2+ + 2Ag+ → Pb + Ag
answer(c)
22. Units of the properties measured are givenbelow. Which of the properties has not beenmatched
correctly?
(a) Molar conductance = S m2mol–1 (b) Cell constant = m–1
(c) Specific conductance = S m2 (d) Equivalent conductance = S m2 (g eq)–1
answer(c)
23. When water is added to an aqueous solutionof an electrolyte, what is the change in
specificconductivity of the electrolyte?
(a) Conductivity decreases
(b) Conductivity increases
(c) Conductivity remains same
(d) Conductivity does not depend on number of ions.
answer(a)
24. The standard reduction potential for thehalf-cell reaction, Cl2 + 2e– → 2Cl– will be
(Pt2+ + 2Cl– → Pt + Cl2 ,E°cell = –0.15 V ;Pt2+ + 2e– → Pt, E° = 1.20 V)
(a) –1.35 V (b) +1.35 V (c) –1.05 V (d) +1.05 V
answer(b)
25. Zn gives hydrogen with H2SO4 and HCl butnot with HNO3 because
(a) Zn acts as oxidising agent when reacts withHNO3
(b) HNO3 is weaker acid than H2SO4 and HCl
(c) Zn is above the hydrogen in electrochemicalseries
(d) NO3̅ is reduced in preference to H+ ion.
answer(d)
26. In a cell reaction, Cu(s) + 2Ag+(aq) → Cu2+(aq)
 + 2Ag(s)
E°cell= +0.46 V. If the concentration of Cu2+ ions
is doubled then E°cellwill be
(a) doubled (b) halved (c) increased by four times (d) unchanged.
answer(d)
27. Molar conductivity of NH4OH can becalculated by the equation,

answer(c)
28. The equivalent conductivity of N/10 solutionof acetic acid at 25°C is 14.3 ohm–1 cm2equiv–1.What
will be the degree of dissociation of aceticacid (Λ∞CH3COOH = 390.71 ohm–1 cm2equiv–1)?
(a) 3.66% (b) 3.9% (c) 2.12% (d) 0.008%
answer(a)
29. Mark the incorrect statement.
(a) The limiting equivalent conductance forweak electrolytes can be computed with the help of
Kohlrausch’s law.
(b) EMF of a cell is the difference in thereduction potentials of cathode and anode.
(c) For cell reaction to occur spontaneously, theEMF of the cell should be negative.
(d) Fluorine is the strongest oxidising agent asits reducing potential is very high.
answer(c)
30. Which of the following statements regarding fuel cells is false?
a) Because of continuous supply, fuel cells never become dead
b) They do not cause pollution
c) Fuel cells have 100% efficiency practically
d) The cost of catalysts needed for the electrode reactions is high
answer(c)

31. Which of the following can be used as fuel in a fuel cell?

a) Nitrogen
b) Argon
c) Hydrogen
d) Helium
answer(c)

32. Jiya, a class-12 student recorded Λmof variouselectrolytes like acetic acid, sodium chloride
andAlPO4, etc., at various concentrations. Then she plotted Λmversus √𝐶. Graphs obtained by her
are shown below:

Which of the given graph(s) is/are correct?

(a) I only (b) I and II only (c) I and III only (d) I, II and III
answer(b)

ASSERTION- REASON
Directions: These questions consist of two statements, each printed as Assertion and Reason. While
answering these questions, you are required to choose any one of the following four responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are correct and the Reason is a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not a correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) If the Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
(d) If both the Assertion and Reason are incorrect.

33. Assertion :The conductivity depends onthe charge and size of the ions in which they dissociate, the
concentration of ions or ease with which the ions move under potential gradient.
Reason :The conductivity of solutions of different electrolytes in the same solvent and at a given
temperature is same.
answer(c)
34. Assertion : If standard reduction potential for the reaction,
Ag+ + e–→ Ag is 0.80 volt, then for the reaction,
2Ag+ + 2e–→ 2Ag, it will be 1.60 volt.
Reason: If concentration of Ag+ ions is doubled,the standard electrode potential remains same.
answer(d)
35. Assertion: The conductivity of solution is greater than pure solvent.
Reason : Conductivity depends upon number ofthe ions present in solution.
answer(a)
36. Assertion :At the end of electrolysis using platinum electrodes, an aqueous solution ofcopper
sulphate turns colourless.
Reason :Copper in CuSO4 is converted toCu(OH)2 during the electrolysis.
answer(c)
37. Assertion :The electrical resistance of any object decreases with increase in its length.
Reason :The electrical resistance of any object decreases with increase in its area of cross section.
answer(d)
38. Assertion : Molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte at infinite dilution cannot be determined
experimentally.
Reason :Kohlrausch law helps to find the molar conductivity of a weak electrolyte at infinite
dilution.
answer(b)
39. Assertion :The observed conductance depends upon the nature of the electrolyte andthe
concentration of the solution.
Reason :The cell constant of a cell depends upon the nature of the material of the electrodes.
answer(c)
40. Assertion :The molar conductance of weakelectrolyte at infinite dilution is equal to thesum of molar
conductance of cations and anions.
Reason :Kohlrausch’s law is applicable forstrong electrolytes.
answer(c
41. Assertion :Kohlrausch law helps to findthe molar conductivity of weak electrolyte atinfinite dilution.
Reason :Molar conductivity of a weak electrolyteat infinite dilution cannot be determined
experimentally.
answer(a)
42. Assertion : Galvanised iron does not rust.
Reason : Zinc has a more negative electrode potential than iron.

answer(a)
43. Assertion : Copper sulphate cannot be stored in zinc vessel
Reason : zinc is less reactive than copper
answer(c)
44. Assertion : The resistivity for a substance is its resistance when it is one meter long and its area of
cross section is one square meter.
Reason : The SI units of resistivity is ohm metre ( m).
 answer(b)

1 CASE STUDY: Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:

All chemical reactions involve interaction of atoms and molecules. A large number of
atoms/molecules are present in a few gram of any chemical compound varying with their
atomic/molecular masses. To handle such large number conveniently, the mole concept was
introduced. All electrochemical cell reactions are also based on mole concept. For example, a 4.0
molar aqueous solution of NaCI is prepared and 500 mL of this solution is electrolysed. This leads
to the evolution of chlorine gas at one of the electrode. The amount of products formed can be
calculated by using mole concept.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer :
(i) The total number of moles of chlorine gas evolved is
(a) 0.5 (b) 1.0 (c) 1.5 (d) 1.9
(ii) If cathode is a Hg electrode, then the maximum weight of amalgam formed from this solution is

(a) 300 g (b) 446 g (c) 396 g (d) 296 g

(iii) In the electrolysis, the number of moles of electrons involved are

(a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4

(iv) In electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution when Pt electrode is taken, then which gas is liberated
at cathode?

(a) H2 gas (b) C2 gas (c) O2 gas (d) None of these

2 CASE STUDY:
A lead storage battery is the most important type of secondary cell having a lead anode a grid of lead
packed with PbO2 as a cathode. A 38% solution of sulphuric acid is used as electrolyte.
(Density 1.294gm/L)The battery holds 3.5L of the acid. During the discharge of the battery, the density
of H2SO4 falls to .139gm/L.
1.Write the reaction taking place at the cathode when the battery is in use.
2.How much electricity in terms of Faraday is required to carry out the reduction of one mole of PbO2 ?
3.What is the molarity of sulphuric acid before discharge?
4.Lead storage battery is considered a secondary cell. Why?
5.Write the products of electrolysis when dilute sulphuric acid is electrolyzed using Platinum electrodes.

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q1. Two half cell reactions of an electrochemical cell are given below :
MnO–4(aq) + 8H+ (aq) + 5e– → Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O (I), E° = + 1.51 V
Sn2+ (aq) → 4 Sn4+ (aq) + 2e–, E° = + 0.15 V
Construct the redox equation from the two half cell reactions and predict if this reaction favours formation
of reactants or product shown in the equation.
Q2. Given that the standard electrode potentials (E°) of metals are :
K+/K = -2.93 V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80 V, Cu2+/Cu = 0.34 V,
Mg2+/Mg = -2.37 V, Cr3+/Cr = -0.74 V, Fe2+/Fe = -0.44 V.
Arrange these metals in increasing order of their reducing power.
Q3. The chemistry of corrosion of iron is essentially an electrochemical phenomenon. Explain the
reactions occurring during the corrosion of iron in the atmosphere.
Q4. Express the relation among cell constant, resistance of the solution in the cell and conductivity of the
solution. How is molar conductivity of a solution related to its conductivity?
Q5 The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.025 S cm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity.
 Q6. Define the following terms :
(i) Rate constant (k)
(ii) Activation energy
Q7. Two half-reactions of an electrochemical cell are given below :
MnO–4 (aq) + 8H+ (aq) + 5e– → Mn2+ (aq) + 4H2O (I), E° = 1.51 V
Sn2+ (aq) → Sn4+ (aq) + 2e–, E° = + 0.15 V.
Construct the redox equation from the standard potential of the cell and predict if the reaction is reactant
favoured or product favoured.
Q8. Define the term degree of dissociation write an expression that relate the molar conductivity of a
weak electrolyte to its degree of dissociation
Q9. Give reason conductivity of acetic acid decreases on dilution.
Q10. Define limiting molar conductivity why conductivity of an electrolyte solution decreases with the
degrees in concentration.
Q11. Calculate the mass of Ag deposited at cathode when a current of 2 ampere passed through a
solution of AgNO3 for 15 minutes (MM of Ag 108 gm/mole)
Q12. State faradays first law of electrolysis .how much charge in terms of faraday is required for the
reduction of one mole of Cu2+ to Cu.
Q13. Define fuel cell write its two advantages
Q14. Write the name of cell which is generally used in inverters write the reactions taking place at the
anode and cathode of the cell.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q15. Determine the values of equilibrium constant (Kc) and ΔG° for the following reaction:
Ni(s) + 2Ag+ (aq) → Ni2+ (aq) + 2Ag(s), E° = 1.05 V (1F = 96500 C mol-1)

Q16. A solution containing 30 g of non-volatile solute exactly in 90 g of water has a vapour pressure of 2.8
kPa at 298 K. Further 18 g of water is added to this solution. The new vapour pressure becomes 2.9 kPa at
298 K. Calculate (i) the molecular mass of solute and (ii) vapour pressure of water at 298 K.

Q17. Calculate e.m.f. of the following cell at 298 K:

2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+ (0.1 M) → 2Cr3+ (0.01 M) + 3 Fe(s) Given: E0(Cr3+/Cr)=-0.74 V , Eo(Fe2+/Fe)=-0.44 V

Q18. A steady current of 2A was passed through two electrolytic cells X and Y connected in series
containing eletrolytes FeSO4 and ZnSO4 untill 2.8g of of iron deposited at cathode of cell X .how long did
the current flow? calculate the mass of zinc deposited at cathode of cell Y ( molar mass of iron 56 gram per
mole zinc 65.3 gram per mole)

Q19. (a) Predict the products of electrolysis in each of the following:

(i) An aqueous solution of AgNO3 with platinum electrodes.
(ii) An aqueous solution of H2SO4 with platinum electrodes.
(b) Estimate the minimum potential difference needed to reduce Al 2O3 at 500°C. The Gibbs energy change
for the decomposition reaction 23 Al2O3 → 43 Al + O2 is 960 kJ
(F = 96500 C mol-1)

Q20Conductivity of 2.5 × 10-4 M methanoic acid is 5.25 × 10-5 S cm-1. Calculate its molar conductivity and
degree of dissociation.
Given : λ0(H+) = 349.5 Scm2 mol-1 and λ0(HCOO–) = 50.5 Scm2 mol-1

Q21. Calculate emf of the following cell at 25°C :

Fe | Fe2+ (0.001 M) || H+ (0.01 M) | H2(g) (1 bar) | Pt(s)
E0(Fe2+ | Fe) = -0.44 V E0(H+ | H2) = 0.00V
 Q22. (a) Calculate ΔrG0 for the reaction
Mg (s) + Cu2+ (aq) → Mg2+ (aq) + Cu (s) Given : E0cell = + 2.71 V, 1 F = 96500 C mol-1
(b) Name the type of cell which was used in Apollo space programme for providing electrical power.
LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q23. Define conductivity and molar conductivity of the solution of an electrolyte discussed their variation
with concentration.
the conductivity of 0.0001 molar acetic acid is 4x10-5 s/cm. calculate the dissociation constant of acetic
acid if molar conductivity at infinite dilution for acetic acid is 390 scm 2/mol.

Q24. The cell in which the following reaction Occurs:

2Fe3+ (aq) +2I- 2Fe2+(aq) + I2
has Eocell= 0.236 V at 298 K. Calculate the standard Gibbs energy of the cell reaction. (Given: 1 F= 96500C/
mol)
(B) How many electrons flow through a metallic wire if a current of 0.5 A is passed for 2 hours? (Given:
1F= 96500C mol-ł)

Q25. (a) The conductivity of 0.001 mol L-1 solution of CH3COOH is 3.905 × 10-5 S cm-1. Calculate its molar
conductivity and degree of dissociation (α).
Given: λ0(H+) = 349.6 S cm2 mol-1 and λ0 (CH3COO–) = 40.9 S cm2 mol-1
(b) Define electrochemical cell. What happens if external potential applied becomes greater than E 0cell of
electrochemical cell?

HOTS
Q26. (a) When a bright silver object is placed in the solution of gold chloride, it acquires a golden tinge but
nothing happens when it is placed in a solution of copper chloride. Explain this behaviour of silver.
[Given : E0Cu2+/Cu =+0.34V,E0Ag+/Ag =+0.80V, E0Au3+/Au = +1.40V]
(b) Consider the figure given and answer the following questions :
(i) What is the direction of flow of electrons?
(ii) Which is anode and which is cathode?
(iii) What will happen if the salt bridge is removed?

(iv) How will concentration of Zn2+ and Ag+ ions be affected when the cell functions?
(v) How will concentration of these ions be affected when the cell becomes dead?

Q27. . At 291 K, the molar conductivities at infinite dilution of NH,CI, NaOH and NaCl are 129.8, 217.4
and 108.9S cm mol respectively. If the molar conductivity of a centinormal solution of NH,OH is
9.33 S cm mol', what is the percentage dissociation of NH,OH at this dilution? Also calculate the
dissociation constant of NH4OH.
 Chapter- Kinetics

MCQ TYPE QUESTIONS :

1. Rise in temperature leads to a large increase in the rate of a reaction is due to
(a) increase in the number of collisions (b) None
(c) The shortening of mean free path (d) the lowering of activation energy
Answer: The shortening of mean free path

2. In a reversible reaction, the catalyst

(a) activation energy of the backward reaction Increases
(b)None
(c)Forward and backward reaction ,activation energy decreases
(d)activation energy of forward reaction get
decrease
Answer: Forward and backward reaction ,activation energy decreases

3. Following mechanism has been proposed for a reactions,

2A + B —D + E ;
A + B —C + D (Slow);
A + C —E (fast).
For the given reaction Find the rate law expression:
(a) r = K[A]2 (b) r = K[A]2[B]
(c)r=K[A] (d) none
Answer: None

4. For a zero order reaction. Which of the following

statement is false :
(a) The rate is independent of the temperature of the reaction
(b) The rate is independent of the concentration of the reactants
(c) Both A and B
(d) None
Answer: The rate is independent of the temperature of the reaction

5. The first order rate constant k is related to temperature as

log k = 15.0 – (106 / T). Which of the following pair
of value is correct?
(a) A = 1015 and E = 1.9 × 104 KJ (b) A = 10 and E = 4 KJ
(c) none (d) A = 10-15 and E = 1.9 × 104 KJ
Answer: A = 10-15 and E = 1.9 × 104 KJ

6. When a graph between log K and 1/T is drawn a straight

line is obtained. The temperature at which line cuts x-axis
and y-axis
(a) 0, Ea/2.303 R log A (b) 0, Ea/(R ln A)
(c) 0, log A (d) None of these
Answer: None of these

7. 2 and 3 are the temperature coefficients of reaction I and

reaction II respectively. Both have same speed at 25°C and
show I order kinetics. At 75°C, the ratio of rates of reactions
is :
(a) 7.6 (b) 5.6 (c) 6.6 (d) 8.6
Answer: 7.6

8. A reaction of the type A + 2B + C — D occurs by following

mechanism . Find order if reaction
A + B — X rapid equilibrium
X + C — Y Slow
Y + B — D Fast
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) Non determinable
Answer: 1

9. For a chemical reaction, X + 2Y → Z, if the rate of

appearance of Z is 0.50 moles per litre per hour, then the
rate of disappearance of Y is
(a) 0.5 mol L-1 hr-1 (b) 1.0 mol L-1 hr-1
(c) 0.25 mol L-1 hr-1 (d) cannot be predicted
Answer: (b) 1.0 mol L-1 hr-1

10. For the reaction, NO2 (g) + CO (g) → NO (g), the correct
expression for the rate of the reaction is
(a) rate = −d[NO2]dt (b) rate = −d[CO2]dt
(c) rate = d[NO2]−d[CO]dt (d) rate = d[CO2]dt
Answer: (a) rate = −d[NO2]dt

11. The rate of a chemical reaction

(a) Increases as the reaction proceeds (b) Decreases as the reaction proceeds
(c) Decreases or increases (d) Remains constant as the reaction proceeds
Answer: Decreases as the reaction proceeds
12. Substance reacts with each other at rate depends on its
(a) Atomic weight (b) Equivalent weight
(c) Molecular weight (d) Active mass
Answer: Active mass

13. For an elementary reaction 2A + B — products, if A is

doubled and the active mass of B is kept constant. The
rate of reaction will then
(a) Increase 2 times (b) Increase 4 times
(c) Decrease 2 times (d) Decrease 4 times
Answer: Increase 4 times

14. The concentration of ,for a first order reaction:

(a) Is independent of time (b) Varies linearly with time
(c) Varies exponentially with time (d) None
Answer: Varies linearly with time

15. In a first order reaction the concentration of reactant

decreases from 800 mol dm-3 to 50 mol dm-3 in 2×102 sec .
Find sec-1 rate of reaction
(a) 2×10^4 (b) 3.45 ×10^5 (c) 1.386 ×10^2 (d) 2×10^2
Answer: 1.386 ×10^2

16. The half – life of a radioactive isotope is three hours. If the

initial mass of isotope were 256 g, the mass of it remaining
undecayed after 18 hours would be :
(a) 16.0 g (b) 4.0 g (c) 8.0 g (d) 12.0 g
Answer: 4.0 g

17. From the following which is a second order reaction

(a) K =5.47 ×104 sec -1 (b) K =3.9 ×10^3 mole lit sec-1
(c) K =3.94 ×10^4 lit mole-1 sec-1 (d) K = 3.98 ×10^5 lit mole-2 sec-1
-1 -1
Answer: K =3.94 ×10^4 lit mole sec

18. On increasing the temperature, the rate of the reaction

increases because of
(a) Decrease in the number of collisions (b) Decrease in the energy of activation
(c) Effective collisions number get Increase (d) None
Answer: None

19. A sample of a radioactive substance undergoes

80% decomposition in 345 minutes. Its half-life is
______ minutes.
(A) ln 2 /ln 5×345 (B) ln 5 /ln 2 ×345
(C) ln 5 /ln 4×345 (D) ln 4 /ln 5 ×345
Answer: ln 2 /ln 5×345

20. The half-life of a second order process,

2A — products, is
(A) Independent of initial concentration
(B) Directly proportional to initial concentration of A
(C) Inversely proportional to initial concentration of A
(D) Inversely proportional to square of initial concentration
Answer: Inversely proportional to initial concentration of A

21. At 500 K, the half-life period of a gaseous reaction at an

initial pressure of 80 KPa is 350 sec. When the half-life
period is 175 sec and pressure is 40Kpa. The order of the
reaction is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 6
Answer: 0

22. For a reaction Ea =0 and k = 3.2 × 104 s-1 at 300K. At 310

K the value of K would be
(A) 6.4 × 104 s-1 (B) 3.2 × 104 s-1 (C) 3.2 × 104 s-1 (D) 3.2 × 104 s-1
Answer: 3.2 × 104 s-1
23. In a zero-order reaction, for every 10°C rise of
temperature, the rate is doubled. If the temperature is
increased from 100C to 1000C, the rate of the
reaction will become
(A) 256 times (B) 512 times (C) 64 times (D) 128 times
Answer: 512 times

24. During a chemical reaction formed by addition of a catalyst alters which of the following quantities?
(A) Enthalpy (B) Activation energy
(C) Entropy D) Internal energy
Answer: Activation energy

25. Forward reaction activation energy is

50kCal. The energy of activation of its backward
reaction is
(A) Equal to 50kCal (B) Greater than 50kCal
(C) Less than 50kCal (D) Either greater or less than 50kCal
Answer: Either greater or less than 50kCal

26. An exothermic reaction has activation energy 30 kJ mol-1

During reaction, if (∆E) is –20 kJ, then the activation energy
for the reverse reaction is
(A) 10 kJ (B) 20 kJ (C) 50 kJ (D) –30 kJ
Answer: 50 kJ

27. The rate of first order reaction is 0.04 mol L-1s-1at

10 seconds and after initiation of the reaction 0.03 mol L-1s-1
at 20 seconds. Find half-life period of the reaction
(A) 44.1 s (B) 54.1 s (C) 24.1 s (D) 34.1 s
Answer: 24.1 s

28. Rate expression of a chemical change is

dx/dt = k[A]2[B][C]0.
The order of reaction is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) zero
Answer: 3
29. For the reaction, A + B — 2C + D, which one is the
incorrect statement?
(A) None
(B) Rate of disappearance of A= Rate of
appearance of D
(C) Rate of disappearance of B = 2 × rate of
appearance of C
(D) Rate of disappearance of B =12× rate of
appearance of C
Answer: Rate of disappearance of B = 2 × rate of
appearance of C

30.For the reaction: H2(g) + I2(g) — 2HI(g), the rate of

disappearance of H2, is 1.0 × 10-4 mol L-1s-1.
The rate of appearance of HI will be
(A) 1.0 × 10-4 mol L-1s-1 (B) 0.50 × 10-4 mol L-1s-1
-4 -1 -1
(C) 2.0 × 10 mol L s (D) 4.0 × 10-4 mol L-1s-1
Answer: 2.0 × 10-4 mol L-1s-1

31. The rate of the reaction, A + B + C — Products, is

given by –d[A]/dt
= k[A]1/2[B]1/3[C]1/4. The order of the reaction is
(A) ½ (B) 5/4 (C) 1 (D) 2
Answer: 5/4

32. The rate constant, the activation energy and the

Arrhenius parameter (A) of a chemical reaction at 25°C are
3.0 ×10-4 s-1,104.4 kJ mol-1 and 6.0 × 1014 s-1 respectively.
The value of the rate constant at T to infinity is
(a) 2.0 × 10^18 s-1 (b) 6.0 × 10^14 s-1
(c) infinity (d) 6 × 10^30 s-1
-1
Answer: 6 × 10^30 s

33. If a 1-order reaction is completed to the extent of 60%

and 20% in time intervals, t1and t2,
what is the ratio,t1 : t2 ?
(a) 6.32 (b) 5.58 (c) 4.11 (d) 8.33
Answer: 4.11
34. A gaseous hypothetical chemical equation
2A —-4B +C is carried out in a closed vessel. The
concentration of B is found to increase by 5 ×103 mol l-1
in 10 second. Find rate of appearance of B is
(a) 5 ×102 mol l-1sec-1 (b) 5 ×105mol l-1sec-1
(c) 6 ×105 mol l-1sec-1 (d) 4 ×104 mol l-1sec-1
Answer: 5 ×102 mol l-1sec-1
35. A substance (initial concentration ‘a’) reacts
according to zero order kinetics. Find how much time taken for the completion of reaction is
(A) a/k (B) a/2k (C) k/a (D) 2k/a
Answer: a/k
36. Rate expression of a chemical change is
dx/dt= k[A]2[B][C]0. The order of reaction is
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) zero
Answer: 3
37. Activation energy of a reaction is
(A) The energy released during the reaction
(B) when activated complex is
formed energy evolved
(C) To overcome the potential barrier of reaction Minimum energy needed
(D) None
Answer: None

Assertion Reasoning Type Questions

Read the statements given as assertion & reason both and choose the correct option as per the following
instructions.
(A) if both assertion & reason are correct statements and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(B) if both assertion & reason are correct statements and reason is not the correct explanation of
assertion.
(C) if the assertion is the correct statement & the reason is an incorrect statement.
(D) if the assertion is incorrect statement and reason is the correct statement.

1. Assertion: The order of reaction can be zero or fractional.

Reason: The order of a reaction cannot be determined from a balanced chemical reaction.
Ans 1. B

2. Assertion: The order and molecularity of a reaction are always the same.
Reason: Order is determined experimentally whereas molecularity by a balanced elementary reaction.
Ans 2. D

3. Assertion: Rate constant of a zero-order reaction has the same unit as the rate of a reaction.
Reason: Rate constant of a zero-order reaction does not depend upon the concentration of the reactant.
Ans 3. A
4. Assertion: In a first-order reaction, the concentration of the reactant is doubled, its half-life is also
doubled.
Reason: The half-life of a reaction does not depend upon the initial concentration of the reactant in a first-
order reaction.
Ans 4. D
5. Assertion: Average rate and instantaneous rate of a reaction have the same unit.
Reason: Average rate becomes an instantaneous rate when the time interval is too small.
Ans 5. B
6. Assertion: Hydrolysis of methyl ethanoate is a pseudo-first-order reaction.
Reason: Water is present in large excess and therefore its concentration remained constant throughout
the reaction.
Ans 6. A
7. Assertion: The order of a reaction can be zero.
Reason: In the case of heterogeneous catalysis, the reaction becomes independent of concentration at a
high concentration of the reaction.
Ans 7. A
8. Assertion: The slowest elementary step in a complex reaction decides the rate of the reaction.
Reason: The slowest elementary step always has the smallest molecularity.
Ans 8. C
9. Assertion: A catalyst increases the rate of a reaction.
Reason: The catalyst increases the activation energy which in turn increases the rate of the reaction.
Ans 9. C
10. Assertion: Activation complex for the forward reaction will have lower energy than that for the
backward reaction in an exothermic reaction.
Reason: Reactants have greater energy than products for an exothermic reaction.
Ans 10. D
11. Assertion: Complex reaction takes place in different steps and the slowest step determines the rate of
reaction.
Reason: The order and molecularity of a reaction are always equal.
Ans 11. C
12. Assertion: The rate of reaction increases with an increase in temperature.
Reason: The number of effective collisions increases with an increase in temperature.
Ans 12. A
13. Assertion: The order of a reaction with respect to any reactant or product can be zero, positive,
negative, and fractional.
Reason: The rate of a reaction cannot decrease with an increase in the concentration of a reactant or
product.
Ans 13. C
14. Assertion: The rate of a reaction sometimes does not depend on concentration.
Reason: Lower the activation energy faster is the reaction.
Ans 14. B

CASE STUDY BASED QUESTIONS

1.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :
The half-life of a reaction is the time required for the
concentration of reactant to decrease by half, i.e.,
[A]t=12[A] For first order reaction,
t1/2=0.693k this means t1/2 is independent of initial
concentration. Figure shows that typical variation of concentration
of reactant exhibiting first order kinetics. It may be noted that
though the major portion of the first order kinetics may be over in
a finite time, but the reaction will never cease as the
concentration of reactant will be zero only at infinite time
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the
most appropriate answer:
(i) A first order reaction has a rate constant k = 3.01 x 10-3 is. How long it will take to decompose half of
the reactant?
Solution: 230.3 s
(ii) The rate constant for a first order reaction is 7.0x 10-4 s-1. If initial concentration of reactant is 0.080
M, what is the half life of reaction?
Solution: 990 s
(iii) For the half-life period of a first order reaction is independent from:
Solution: Initial concentration.
(iv) The rate of a first order reaction is 0.04 mol L-1 s-1 at 10 minutes and 0.03 mol L-1 s-1 at 20 minutes
after initiation. The half-life of the reaction is
Solution: 0.02878

2.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
A reaction is said to be of the first order if the rate of the reaction depends upon one concentration term
only. For a first order reaction of the type A → Products, the rate of the reaction is given as : rate = k[A].
The differential rate law is given as dA/dt=−k[A] .The integrated rate law : ln [A]/[A] 0=−kt where [A] is the
concentration of reactant left at time t and [A]0 is the initial concentration of the reactant, k is the rate
constant.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer :
(i) The unit of rate constant for a first order reaction is
Solution: s -1
(ii) Half-life period of a first order reaction is 10 min. Starting with initial concentration 12 M, the rate after
20 min is
Solution:0.0693 x 3 M min-1
(iii) For a first order reaction, (A) → products, the concentration of A changes from 0.1 M to 0.025 M in 40
minutes. The rate of reaction when the concentration of A is 0.01 M, is
Solution: 3.47 x 10-4 M/min
(iv) The half-life period of a 1st order reaction is 60 minutes. What percentage will be left over after 240
minutes?
Solution:6.25%
3.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions :
In a reaction, the rates of disappearance of different reactants or rates of formation of different products
may not be equal but rate of reaction at any instant of time has the same value expressed in terms of any
reactant or product. Further, the rate of reaction may not depend upon the stoichiometric coefficients of
the balanced chemical equation. The exact powers of molar concentrations of reactants on which rate
depends are found experimentally and expressed in terms of 'order of reaction'. Each reaction has a
characteristic rate constant depends upon temperature. The units of the rate constant depend upon the
order of reaction.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer :
(i) The rate constant of a reaction is found to be 3 x 10 -3 mol -2 L 2 sec -1 .The order of the reaction is
Solution: 3
(ii) In the reaction A+3B→2C ,the rate of formation of C is
Solution:Twice the rate of consumption of A
(iii) Rate of a reaction can be expressed by following rate expression, Rate = k[A] 2 [B], if concentration of A
is increased by 3 times and concentration of B is increased by 2 times, how many times rate of reaction
increases?
Solution:18 times
(iv) The rate of a certain reaction is given by, rate = k[H +] n . The rate increases 100 times when the pH
changes from 3 to 1. The order (n) of the reaction is
Solution: 1

VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q1. Substance decompose following the first order reaction if the half life period of reaction is 5 minutes
what is the rate constant of this reaction?
Q2. Certain reaction large fraction of molecules as energy more than threshold energy yet the rate of
reaction is very slow why?
Q3. Write the rate law for first order reaction and justify the statement of life period of such a reaction is
independent of initial concentration of reactants
Q4. Why rate of reaction does not remain constant throughout?
Q5. Define rate of reaction and what are its units?
Q6. For the reaction NO2 + CO → CO2 + NO, the experimentally determined rate expression below 400 K is
rate = k[NO2 ]2 . What mechanism can be proposed for this reaction ?
Q7. Show that in case of first order reaction, the time required for 99.9% of the reaction to take place is
about ten times than that required for half the reaction.
Q8. The rate constant for a reaction of zero order in A is 0.0030 mol L-1 s-1. How long will it take for the
initial concentration of A to fall from 0.10 M to 0.075 M?
Q9. For a reaction R → P, half-life (t1/2) is observed to be independent of the initial concentration of
reactants. What is the order of reaction? (
Q10. (a) For a reaction A + B → P, the rate law is given by, r = k[A] 1/2 [B]2.
What is the order of this reaction?
(b) A first order reaction is found to have a rate constant k = 5.5 × 10-14 s-1. Find the half life of the reaction.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE questions
 Q11. What is the difference between order of a reaction and its molecularity?
Q12. Reaction is first order with respect to A and second order with respect to B
(i)Write the differential equation for the rate of reaction
(ii)How is rate affected if concentration of B is tripled
(iii)How is the rate affected when the concentration of both A and B are doubled
Q13. The half life period of a first order reaction is 60 min. What % will be left after 240 mins. ?
Q14. Define the following terms :
(a) Pseudo first order reaction.
(b) Half life period of reaction (t1/2).
Q15. Derive integrated rate equation for rate constant of a first order reaction.
Q16. .(a) Time for half change for a first order reaction is 25 min. What time will be required for 99%
reaction ?
(b) The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60 s-1. How much time will it take to reduce the initial
concentration of the reactant to its l/10th value?
Q17. A first order reaction has a rate constant of 0.0051 min-1. If we begin with 0.10 M concentration of
the reactant, what concentration of reactant will remain in solution after 3 hours?
Q18. Nitrogen pentoxide decomposes according to equation :
2N2O5(g) → 4 NO2(g) + O2(g).
This first order reaction was allowed to proceed at 40°C and the data below were collected :
[N2OJ (M) Time (min)

0.400 0.00

0.289 20.0

0.209 40.0

0.151 60.0

0.109 80.0
(a) Calculate the rate constant. Include units with your answer.
(b) What will be the concentration of N2O5 after 100 minutes?
(c) Calculate the initial rate of reaction.

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q19. (a) For the first order thermal decomposition reaction, the following data were obtained:
C2H5Cl(g) → C2H4(g) + HCl(g)
Time/sec Total pressure/atm
0 0.30
300 0.50
Calculate the rate constant (Given: log 2 = 0.301, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021)
(b) Differentiate between : (a) Average rate and instantaneous rate of a chemical reaction.
Q.20 (a) For a first order reaction, show that time required for 99% completion is twice the time required
for the completion of 90% of reaction. .
(b) For a reaction R → P, half-life (t1/2) is observed to be independent of the initial concentration of
reactants. What is the order of reaction?
Q21. (a) Define order of reaction.
(b) Rates of reaction double with every 10º rise in temperature. If this generalization holds for a
reaction in the temperature ranges 298 K to 308 K, what would be the value of activation energy for their
reaction ? R = 8.314 J K-1 mol-1 .
Q22. For the hydrolysis of methyl acetate in aqueous solution, the following results were obtained :
 t/s 0 30 60
-1
[CH3COOCH3]/mol L 0.60 0.30 0.15
(i) Show that it follows pseudo first order reaction, as the concentration of water remains constant.
(ii) Calculate the average rate of reaction between the time interval 30 to 60 seconds. (Given log 2 =
0.3010, log 4 = 0.6021)
 Chapter-Solution

MCQ
1. The volume occupied by a single gas in a mixture at the same temperature and pressure is referred to as the
single-gas volume.
a. Absolute volume b. Partial volume
c. Total volume of a gas mixture d. None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: At the same temperature and pressure, the volume occupied by a single gas alone in a combination is a
portion of a volume.
2. The pressure that a single component in a gaseous mixture would exert if it existed alone in the same volume as
the mixture and at the same temperature as the mixture is referred to as.
a. Absolute pressure b. Partial pressure
c. Total pressure of a gas mixture d. None of the mentioned
Answer: b
Explanation: Partial pressure is the pressure exerted by a single component in a gaseous mixture if it exists alone in
the same volume.
3. ________________ _ obeys Raoult’s law in all stages of concentration.
a. Ideal Solution b. Non-Ideal solution
c. Real Solution d. None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: At all concentration levels, Ideal Solution follows Raoult’s law.
4. When two perfect solutions with volume V each are combined, What is the volume of the solution as a result?
a. V b. 2V c. Greater than 2V d. Less than 2V
Answer: b
Explanation: When two perfect solutions are mixed, there is no change in volume.
5. The heat of solution or mixing has a negative side.
a. Heat of solution b. Heat of dissolution
c. Heat of reaction d. Heat of mixing
Answer: b
Explanation: The heat of solution or mixing has a negative side. Dissolution’s heat.
6. A solution made up of numerous components in which each component’s property is the weighted sum of its
separate properties. The answer is
a. Ideal Solution b. Non-Ideal solution
c. Real Solution d. None of the mentioned
Answer: a
Explanation: An ideal solution is made up of numerous components, each of which has a property that is the
weighted sum of the attributes of the others.
7. What is an example of camphor in N2 gas?
a. Solid in gas solution b. Gas in gas solution
c. Solid in liquid solution d. Liquid in gas solution
Answer: a
Explanation: Solid in gaseous solution is an example of camphor in N2 gas. Gaseous solution refers to a solution in
which the solvent is gaseous. Other gaseous solutions include air (O2 + N2), iodine vapors in air, humidity in air, and
so on.
8. What happens when a solute crystal is added to a supersaturated solution?
a. It becomes a colloidal solution b. The solute dissolves in the solution
c. The solution desaturates d. The solute precipitates out of the solution
Answer: d
Explanation: Solute particles leave the solution and form a crystalline precipitate when a solute crystal is added to a
supersaturated solution. Seeding refers to the addition of the solute crystal.
9. Which of the following options is not a viable option?
a. Brass b. Bronze c. Hydrated salts d. Aerated drinks
Answer: d
Explanation: A solid solution is a one- or more-solute solid-state solution in a solvent. Solid solutions include brass,
bronze, and hydrated salts. Liquid solutions include aerated beverages.
10. What makes a solution?
a. Solute and solvent b. Solute and solute
c. Solvent and solvent d. None of the above
Answer: a)
Explanation: The solution is made up of two components that is solute and solvent.
11. From the below options, choose the correct example for gaseous solutions.
a. Oxygen dissolved in water b. Camphor in nitrogen gas
c. Carbon dioxide dissolved in water d. Hydrogen in palladium
Answer: (b)
A gaseous solution is a solution in which the solvent is a gas.
12. Which among the following is an example of a solid solution?
a. Copper dissolved in gold b. Ethanol dissolved in water
c. Glucose dissolved in water d. Sodium chloride dissolved in water
Answer: (a)
13. In how many ways can the concentration of a solution be expressed?
a. 1 b. 3 c. 5 d. 8
Answer: (d)
The concentration of a solution can be expressed in 5 ways: Mass %, Volume %, Mole fraction, Parts per million,
Mass by volume percentage, Molarity, Molality and Normality.
14. What is the mole fraction of ethylene glycol in a solution containing 20g by mass?
a. 0.022 b. 0.054 c. 0.068 d. 0.090
Answer: (c)
The mole fraction of ethylene glycol is calculated as shown below:
The molecular mass of ethylene glycol (C2H6O2) = 24 + 6 + 32 = 62 g/mol.
The mass of ethylene glycol in solution = 20g.
The mass of water = 100 – 20 = 80g.
Thus, number of moles of ethylene glycol = mass of ethylene glycol ÷ molecular mass of ethylene glycol
Moles of ethylene glycol = 20 ÷ 62 = 0.322 moles.
Similarly, the number of moles of water = 80 ÷ 18 = 4.444 moles.
The mole fraction of ethylene glycol = 0.322 ÷ (0.322 + 4.444) = 0.068
15. The solubility of a substance in a solvent depends on
a. Temperature b. Pressure
c. Nature of solute and solvent d. All of the above
Answer: (d)
16. Which of the following does not dissolve in benzene?
a. Naphthalene b. Anthracene
c. C6H12O6 d. All of the above
Answer: (c)
Glucose does not dissolve in benzene.
17. Choose the ideal solution from the following.
a. Carbon disulphide and acetone b. Phenol and Aniline
c. Chloroform and Acetone d. Ethyl iodide and ethyl bromide
Answer: (d)
18. How does the solubility of gasses vary with pressure?
a. Increases with pressure b. Decreases with pressure
c. First increases and then decreases d. No effect
Answer: (a)
The solubility of gasses in liquids increases with increase in pressure.
19. How does the solubility of gasses in a liquid vary with increase in temperature?
a. Increases with temperature b. Decreases with temperature
c. First increases and then decreases d. No effect
Answer: (b)
20. Which law explained solubility of gasses in a liquid?
a. Charles law b. Henry’s law
c. Raoult’s law d. Boyle’s law
Answer: (b)
21. Choose the correct example for a non-ideal solution?
a. Benzene + Toluene b. Hexane + Heptane
c. Chlorobenzene + Bromobenzene d. Ethanol + Hexane
Answer: (d)
22. Which condition holds for the ideal solution?
a. Change is volume is zero b. Change in volume is non-zero
c. Change is enthalpy is non-zero d. None of the above
Answer: (a)
23. Which condition holds for a non-ideal solution?
a. Change is volume is zero b. Change in volume is non-zero
c. Change is enthalpy is zero d. None of the above
Answer: (b)
24. What does Henry’s constant depend upon?
a. Nature of gas b. Nature of solvent
c. Temperature d. All of the above
Answer: (d)
25. How is Henry’s constant dependent on temperature?
a. Directly proportional b. Inversely proportional
c. Varies exponentially d. None of the above
Answer: (a)
26.Dissolution of gas in a liquid is
a. Endothermic b. Exothermic
c. No heat change d. No change in temperature
Answer:(b)
27.Which gas dissolves the most in water?
a. Carbon dioxide b. Nitrogen
c. Hydrogen d. Ammonia
Answer:(c)

28.The pair of miscible liquids among the following is

a. Oil and water b. Kerosene and water
c. Vegetable oil and corn syrup d. Ethanol and water
Answer:(d)
29. The example of a colloidal solution is
a. Air b. Milk c. Alcohol d. Urea
Answer:(b)
30.The example of a suspension is
a. Milk b. Alcohol c. Urea d. Mixture of water and chalk
Answer:(d)
Assertion and Reason Type Questions
In the following questions, a statement of Assertion (A) followed by a statement of
Reason (R) is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices: (a) Assertion and reason both are
correct statements and reason is the correct explanation for Assertion.
Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not the correct explanation for Assertion.
Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong.
Assertion and reason both are incorrect.
Assertion is wrong but reason is correct.
Assertion (A): Molarity of a solution in liquid state changes with temperature. Reason (R): The volume of a
solution changes with change in temperature. Solution: (a) Molarity changes with temperature because volume
changes with temperature.
Assertion (A): When methyl alcohol is added to water, boiling point of water increases. Reason (R): When a
volatile solute is added to a volatile solvent, elevation in boiling point is observed.
Solution: (d) When methyl alcohol (volatile) is added to water, boiling point of water decreases because vapour
pressure increases when volatile solute is added to volatile solvent;
Assertion (A): When NaCl is added to water, a depression in freezing point is observed. Reason (R): The lowering
of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the freezing point.
Solution: (a) When a non-volatile solute is added to water, freezing point lowers due to lowering of vapour pressure.
Assertion (A): When a solution is separated from the pure solvent by a semipermeable membrane, the solvent by
a semipermeable membrahe, the solvent molecules pass through it from pure solvent side to the solution side.
Reason (R): Diffusion of solvent occurs from a region of high concentration solution to a region of low
concentration solution.
Solution: (c) Solvent molecules pass through the semipermeable membrane from
Assertion: Chemists prefer to refer the concentration of solutions in terms of molality.
Reason:Molality does not changewith time. .
Solution(a)
Assertion:A solution formed by adding carbon and disulphide to acetone shoe positive deviation from raoult’s law
Reason: The dipolar interaction between solute-solvent molecules are stronger than the respective interaction
among the solute-solvent and solvent-solvent molecules.
Solution:(c)
7.A mixture of phenol and aniline shows positive deviation from raoult’s law.
Reason: The intermolecular H- bonding between phenolic proton and lone pair on nitrogen atom of aniline is
stronger than the respective intermolecular H-bonding between similar molecules. Solution:(d)
8.Assertion:Lowering of vapour pressure is directly proportional to osmoticpressure of the solution.
Reason:Osmtic pressure is a colligative property.
Solution(b)
9.Assertion:An ideal solution obeys Henry’s law.
Reason:In an ideal solution,solutre-solute as well as solvent-solvent interaction.
Solution: (d)
10.Assertion:Elevation in boiling point colligative property.
Reason:Elevation in boiling point is directly proportional to molarity. Solution:(c)
Case Study
1. Read the given passage and answer the questions that follow.
Boiling point or freezing point of liquid solution would be affected by the dissolved solids in the liquid phase. A
soluble solid in solution has the effect of raising its boiling point and depressing its freezing point. The addition of
non-volatile substances to a solvent decreases the vapour pressure and the added solute particles affect the
formation of pure solvent crystals. According to many researches the decrease in freezing point directly correlated to
the concentration of solutes dissolved in the solvent. This phenomenon is expressed as freezing point depression
and it is useful for several applications such as freeze concentration of liquid food and to find the molar mass of an
unknown solute in the solution. Freeze concentration is a high quality liquid food concentration method where
water is removed by forming ice crystals. This is done by cooling the liquid food below the freezing point of the
solution. The freezing point depression is referred as a colligative property and it is proportional to the molar
concentration of the solution (m), along with vapour pressure lowering, boiling point elevation, and osmotic
pressure. These are physical characteristics of solutions that depend only on the identity of the solvent and the
concentration of the solute. The characters are not depending on the solute's identity
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:
When a non volatile solid is added to pure water it will:
Solution:Boil above 1000 C and freeze below 00C
Colligative properties are depend on
Solution: Number of particle of solute
Assume three samples of juices A, B and C have glucose as the only sugar present in them. The concentration of
sample A, B and C are 0.1 M, 0.5 M and 0.2 M respectively. Freezing point will be highest for the fruit juice:
Solution:A
Identify which of the following is a colligative property which is used to calculate the molar mass of polymers
Solution: Osmotic pressure
2.Read the passage given below and answer the following questions:
An ideal solution may be defined as the solution which obeys Raoult’s law exactly over the entire range of
concentration. The solutions for which vapour pressure is either higher or lower than that predicted by Raoult’s law
are called non-ideal solutions.Non-ideal solutions can show either positive or negative deviations from Raoult’s law
depending on whether the A-B interactions in solution are stronger or weaker than A – A and B – B interactions.
The following questions are multiple choice questions. Choose the most appropriate answer:
(i)What is the ideal conditions for ideal solution in terms of interaction?
Solution: Interaction between A-A and B-B is equal to the interaction between A-B
(ii) Condition for positive deviations in terms of in terms of ∆H ?
Solution:∆H=+ve
(iii) Mixture ofwater and nitric acid show _
Solution: -ve deviation
(iv)Which types of solutions forms maximum boiling azeotrope
Solution: Solutions which show +ve deviation

VERY SHORT ANS TYPE QUESTIONS ( 2 MARKS)

Q1. State Henry’s law and write its two applications.
Q2. Out of one mole molar glucose and two molar glucose which one has a higher boiling point and why?
Q3. Calculate the freezing point of a solution containing 60 gram of glucose( molar mass 180 gram per mole) in 250
gram of water KF value of water 1.86 K kg /mole.
Q4. Give reasons for the following. I)Measurement of osmotic pressure method is preferred for determination of
molar masses of macromolecules such as proteins and polymer.
II)Aquatic animals are more comfortable in cold water than in warm water.
Q5. Elevation of boiling point of 1 molar KCL solution is nearly double then that of 1 molar sugar solution explain .
Q6. Define the following terms (i) colligative property (ii) molality
Q7. By mass of sucrose in water has freezing point of 269.5 Kelvin calculate the freezing point of 10% solution of
glucose in water if freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K.
Q8. . At 10% solution of urea is isotonic with 20% solution of an unknown solute X at same temperature calculate
molar mass of x.
Q9. Define the following terms (i)ideal solution and (ii)osmotic pressure
Q10. A solution of glucose molar mass 180 gm/mol in water 10% by mass what would be the molality and molarity
of solution given given density of solution 1.2 gram/ml.
Q11. Differentiate between molality and molarity of a solution. What is the effect of change in temperature of a
solution on its molality and molarity?
Q12. What type of deviation is shown by mixture of ethanol and acetone give reason.
SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS
Q13. Explain why on addition of one mole of NaCl to 1 litre of water boiling point of water increases while addition
of one mole of methyl alcohol to water decrease its boiling point.
Q14. Define the following terms: (i) Mole fraction (ii) Isotonic solutions (iii) van’t Hoff factor
Q15. 214.2 gram of sugar molar mass 342 gram syrup contains 34.2 gram of sugar.Calculate molality of solution and
mole fraction of sugar in syrup.
Q16. What mass of ethylene glycerol molar mass 62.1 gram per mole must be added to 5.5 0 kilogram of water to
lower freezing point of water from zero degree celsius to minus 10 degree Celsius KF value of water 1.86 Kelvin
kilogram per mole
Q17. Vapour pressure of water as 20 degree celsius is 17.5 mm HG calculate the vapour pressure of water at 20
degree Celsius when 15 gram of glucose 180 gram per mole is dissolved in 150 g of water
Q18. Calculate the amount of KCl which must beadded to 1 kg of water so that the freezing point is depressed by 2K.
(Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1)
Q19. Solution of glucose molar mass 180 gram per mole in water has boiling point of hundred point 20 degree
Celsius calculate the freezing point of same solution moral constant for water KF and KBR 1.86 and 0.512 Kelvin
kilogram per mole respectively
Q20. At 10% solution of urea is isotonic with 20% solution of an unknown solute X at same temperature calculate
molar mass of x
Q 21. A 1.00 molal aqueous solution of trichloroacetic acid (CCl3COOH) is heated to its boiling point. The solution has
the boiling point of 100.18°C. Determine the van’t Hoff factor for trichloroacetic acid. (Kb for water = 0.512 K kg mol-
1
)
Q22. Define the following terms :
(i) Mole fraction
(ii) Isotonic solutions
(iii) van’t Hoff factor
Q23. 15.0 g of an unknown molecular material was dissolved in 450 g of water. The resulting solution was
found to freeze at -0.34 °C. What is the molar mass of this material? (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1) (
Q24. 18 g of glucose, C6H12O6 (Molar mass – 180 g mol-1) is dissolved in 1 kg of water in a sauce pan. At what
temperature wil this solution boil? (Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol-1, boiling point of pure water = 373.15 K)

LONG ANSWER TYPE QUESTIONS

Q25. 4% solution w/w of sucrose molecular mass 342 gm/ mole in water has a freezing point of 271.15K.
calculate the freezing point of 5% glucose molecular mass 180 gram per mole in water. ( given freezing point of
pure water 273.15 Kelvin)
Q26. (a) When 2.56 g of sulphur was dissolved in 100 g of CS2, the freezing point lowered by 0.383 K. Calculate the
formula of sulphur (Sx).
(Kf for CS2 = 3.83 K kg mol-1, Atomic mass of Sulphur = 32 g mol-1)
(b) Blood cells are isotonic with 0.9% sodium chloride solution. What happens if we place blood cells in a solution
containing
(i) 1.2% sodium chloride solution?
(ii) 0.4% sodium chloride solution?
Q27. Calculate the freezing point of solution when 1.9 gram of MgCl2 molar mass 95 gram per mole was dissolved in
50 gram of water consuming complete ionization (kf value for water 1.86 Kelvin kilogram per mole)
Q28. (a)Differentiate between molarity and molality for a solution. How does a change in temperature influence
their values?
(b) Calculate the freezing point of an aq solution containing 10.50 g of MgBr2 in 200 g of water. (Molar mass of
MgBr2 = 184 g) (Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1)
Q 29. a) Define the terms osmosis and osmotic pressure. Is the osmotic pressure of a solution a colligative property?
Explain.
(b) Calculate the boiling point of a solution prepared by adding 15.00 g of NaCl to 250.0 g of water.
(Kb for water = 0.512 K kg mol-1, Molar mass of NaCl = 58.44 g)
Q30. (a) A 10% solution (by mass) of sucrose in water has a freezing point of 269.15 K. Calculate the freezing point of
10% glucose in water if the freezing point of pure water is 273.15 K.
Given: (Molar mass of sucrose = 342 g mol-1) (Molar mass of glucose = 180 g mol-1)
(b) Define the following terms:
(i) Molality (m)
(ii) Abnormal molar mass

Q31. (a) 30 g of urea (M = 60 g mol-1) is dissolved in 846 g of water. Calculate the vapour pressure of water for this
solution if vapour pressure of pure water at 298 K is 23.8 mm Hg.
(b) Write two differences between ideal solutions and non-ideal solutions.
HOTS
Q32. Determine the osmotic pressure of a solution prepared by dissolving 2.5 × 10-2 g of K2SO4 in 2L of water at 25°C,
assuming that it is completely dissociated.
Q33. 3.9 g of benzoic acid dissolved in 49 g of benzene shows a depression in freezing point of 1.62 K. Calculate the
Van’t Hoff factor and predict the nature of solute (associated or dissociated).
(Given : Molar mass of benzoic acid = 122 g mol-1, Kf for benzene = 4.9 K kg mol-1)