APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Workbook
1. Number system (a) 16 (b) 11
(c) 12 (d) 14
Q.1 Number of factors of 1800 Q.9 A = 486-2171. How many digits would be
(a) 48 (b) 36 there in binary notation of A
(c) 54 (d) 72 (a) 172 (b) 86
Q.2 Number of prime factors of (30)7 × (c) 87 (d) None of these
(22)5 × (34)11 Q.10 If 784 divided by 342 then find the
remainder is
(a) 4 (b) 3
(c) 5 (d) 7 (a) 0 (b) 49
Q.3 The highest power of 3 in 80! (c) 1 (d) 341

Q.11 Remainder when 1523 + 2323 is divided

(a) 36 (b) 34
(c) 23 (d) 24 by 19 is

Q.4 How many numbers between 300 and 700 A) 4 B) 18

are divisible by all of 2, 3 and 7 together? C) 15 D) 0

(a) 10 (b) 9 Directions (Q.12 – Q.13): If N = 10800

(c) 11 (d) 8 Q.12 Then number of total factors of N is
Q.5 if 10001-2222=4446, then value of 2342- (a) 32 (b) 64
1656= (c) 60 (d) 120
(a) 453 (b) 353 Q. 13 Number of even factors of N
(c) 893 (d) 686 (a) 48 (b) 60
(c) 36 (d) 12
Q.6 40!40! end with how many zeros?
Q. 14 What is the remainder when
(a) 40! (b) 8 x 40!
(c) 9 X 40! (d) 840! (163 + 173 + 183 + 193 ) is divided by 70?
Q.7 How many zeroes will be there at end of (a) 16 (b) 17
product of 2!2! × 4!4! × 6!6! × 8!8! × 10!10! ? (c) 19 (d) 0
(a) 10! +8! +6! (b) 2 x 10! Q. 15 1.2 + 2.3 + 3.4+…. sum of n terms =
(c) 10! + 8! (d) 6! + 8! + 2(10!)
𝑛(𝑛+1)2 n(n+1)(n+2)
Q.8 50! ends with how many trailing zeroes (a) 2
(b) 2n+1
𝑛(𝑛+1)(𝑛+2) n(n+1)2
(c) (d)
3 4

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

and by C on the next day, alternatively. How

2. Time and Work long the work would take to finish?
Q. 1 A and B can do a work in 3 days. B and C (a) 8 days (b) 6 days
can do it in 4 days, A and C can do it in 6 days. (c) 10 days (d) 4 days
How long will it take A alone to do it?
Q. 8 A and B can do a work respectively in 10
(a) 8 days (b) 6 days days and 12 days. If they work on alternate days
(c) 4 days (d) 12 days beginning with A. Then when will the work will
Q. 2 A and B can do a work in 25 days and 20 be completed?
days respectively. A worked on it for 10 days 5
(a) 11 days (b) 10 6 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
and then B joins him, in how many days work
2
will be completed? (c) 12 days (d) 12 𝑑𝑎𝑦𝑠
3
2 1
(a) 16 (b) 12 Q. 9 A can finish a piece of work in 15 days of 8
3 2 2
2 2 hours each and B finishes it in 6 days of 9
(c) 20 (d) 15 3
3 3
hours each. Find in how many days can they
Q. 3 4 men or 7 women can do a work in 40 finish the work, if they work together for 10
days. In how many days 8 men and 6 women hours each day.
can do that work?
(a) 2 (b) 4
(a) 18 (b) 14 (c) 50 (d) 6
(c) 20 (d) 12
Q. 10 A and B together can do a piece of work
Q. 4 If A is 20% less efficient than B. if B alone in 12 days which B and C together can finish in
can do the work in 40 days. In how many days 16 days. After A has worked on it for 5 days,
can A and B together complete the same work? and B for 7 days, C finishes remaining work in
2 1
13 days. In how many days can A finish the
(a) 22 (b) 20 work alone?
9 9
2 2
(c) 21 (d) 32
9 9 (a)16 (b) 14
(c) 48 (d) 24
Q. 5 A and B earn Rs 320 in 4 days. B and C earn
Rs 450 in 10 days. A, B and C earn Rs 600 in 5 Q. 11 A and B can do a work in 24 days and 36
days. Find the daily earning of B. days respectively. A starts the work and B joins
him after some days and they do the remaining
(a) Rs 15 (b) Rs 5
work in 6 days. After how many days did B
(c) Rs 25 (d) Rs 40
joined A?
Q. 6 If 4 Men and 3 Women can do a work in 8
(a) 12 days (b) 14 days
days. 6 men and 9 women can do the work in 4
(c) 15 days (d) 10 days
days. In how many days can 20 men and 6
women do the same work? Q. 12 A alone can do a work in 40 days. Along
with B he finishes the work and earns Rs 2000
(a) 2 (b) 4
for himself. If B earns Rs 4000, then in how
(c) 5 (d) 6
many days can he do the same work
Q. 7 A, B and C can do a work in 20, 15 and 12 individually?
days respectively. A is assisted by B on first day

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(a) 20 (b) 30 per day. In how many days 3 men and 6 boys
(c) 40 (d) 50 can do that work working 8 hrs per day?

Q.13 P and Q can do a work in 30 and 60 days (a) 40 days (b) 36 days
respectively. They agreed to work together and (c) 45 Days (d) 48 days
finish the work for 𝑅𝑠 1000. But they worked
only for 10 days. How much money should they Q. 15 A man and a boy received 𝑅𝑠 800 as
together get? wages for 5 days for the work they did together.
The man’s efficiency in the work was three
(a) 500 (b) 100 times that of the boy. What are the daily wages
(c) 800 (d) 200 of the boy?

Q. 14 5 men and 7 boys can do a work in 24 (a) Rs 76 (b) Rs 56

days working 10 hrs per day. 9 men and 18 boys (c) Rs 44 (d) Rs 40
can do the same work in 15 days working 8 hrs

3. Set Theory Direction (Q. 5-Q.9): The diagram given below

shows the number of students who got
Q. 1 25 Person are in a room. 15 of them play distinction in 3 subjects out of 500 students.
hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of them Study the diagram and answer the following:
play both hockey and football. Then the number
of persons playing neither hockey nor football is
(a) 2 (b) 17
(c) 13 (d) 3
Direction (Q. 2-Q4): A TV survey gives this data
for TV viewing. 60% see programme A, 50% see
programme B, 30% See programme C. 30% see
programme A and B, 20% see programmes B
and C and 10% see programmes A and C. 10%
see all programmes A, B, C. then answer the
following Questions

Q. 2 What percent view A and B but not C Q. 5 What is the percentage of the student who
(a) 20 (b) 10 got distinction in exactly two subjects?
(c) 30 (d) 7
(a) 8% (b) 9%
Q. 3 what percent do not view any of the three (c) 10% (d) 12%
programmes?
(a) 30 (b) 10 Q.6 What is the percentage of students who got
(c) 15 (d) 17 distinction?

Q. 4 What percent view exactly two (a) 28% (b) 30%

programmes? (c) 38% (d) 40%

(a) 20 (b) 30 Q. 7 The percentage of students with

distinctions in mathematics is
(c) 50 (d) 24
(a) 17.8 % (b) 18.6%
(c) 19.2 % (d) 20.36%

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Q.8 In a certain school 30 students play football, are 10 employees who are supervisors,
15 play hockey and 25 take part in athletics. 8 Technicians and also managers. There are 50
play both football and hockey, 6 play hockey employees who are only technicians. 40
and athletics, 12 play football and athletics. 4 employees are only supervisors. Then answer
take part in all three games. How many the following questions.
students in all are involved in any of the three
games? Q. 10 How many employees are only
managers?
(a) 50 (b) 48
(c) 46 (d) 66 (a) 80 (b) 120
(c) 140 (d) 160
Q. 9 In a certain locality of Delhi, there are
1000 families. A survey indicated of 300 Q. 11 How many employees do exactly one
subscribes to the Hindustan times Daily news type of job?
paper and 250 subscribe to statesman daily
(a) 160 (b) 150
news paper and of these two categories 100
(c) 170 (d) 180
subscribe both. find the number of families
which do not subscribe to any of these news Q. 12 How many employees are neither
papers technicians nor managers nor supervisors?
(a) 550 (b) 450 (a) 100 (b) 250
(c) 600 (d) 650 (c) 150 (d) 200
Direction (Q. 10 – Q. 13): In an organization 500 Q. 13 How many employees are managers and
employees are working. Among them 200 are supervisors but not technicians?
technicians, 220 are managers and 120 are
supervisors. 100 employees are managers who (a) 30 (b) 70
are also technicians but not supervisors. There (c) 10 (d) 80

4. Ratio and Proportion (a) 42 (b) 32

(c) 56 (d) 24
Q. 1 if A : B = 3 : 4 and B : C = 2 : 5, then A : B : C
Q. 4 In a bag number of 25 p coins, 20 p coins
(a) 4 : 10 : 3 (b) 3: 4: 10
and 10 p coins are in the ratio 3 : 7 : 9 and
(c) 4: 3: 10 (d) 10: 3: 4
together worth of Rs 61. Find the number of 20
Q. 2 If A: B = 3: 2, B: C = 5: 4, C: D = 3: 7, then A: p coins
B: C:D
(a) 180 (b) 60
(a) 45 : 30 : 24 : 56 (b) 45: 24: 30: 56
(c) 140 (d) 90
(c) 45 : 56 : 30 : 24 (d) 45 : 30 : 56 : 24
Q. 5 The ratio of the ages of a man and his wife
Q. 3 Two numbers are in the ratio 4 : 7. If 4 is
is 6 : 5. After 16 years, the ratio becomes 10 : 9
added to each number then the ratio becomes
find the husband’s age when the wife was born
3 : 5 then the smallest numbers
(a) 3 (b) 4

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(c) 24 (d) 6 (a) Rs 60 (b) Rs 80

(c) Rs 75 (d) Rs 90
Q. 6 There are peacocks and deers in a park. If
the total number of their heads is 150 and that Q. 13 A mixture contains milk and water in the
of legs is 400. The number of deers is ratio 4 : 3 when 5 liters of water is added, then
ratio becomes 1 : 1. Then find the amount of
(a) 50 (b) 100 milk in the mixture
(c) 60 (d) 90
(a) 15 liters (b) 20 liters
Q. 7 Find the fourth proportion of 1.75, 5.25,
3.5 (c) 25 liters (d) 30 liters

(a) 10.5 (b) 6.5 Q. 14 Find the mean proportion of 0.7 and 2.8
(c) 12.5 (d) 4.5
(a) 0.7 (b) 2.8
Q. 8 Find the third proportion of 36 and 48
(c) 1.4 (d) 0.4
(a) 64 (b) 48
Q. 15 A and B enter into a partnership with
(c) 60 (d) 72 capitals of ratio 5: 8, at the of 8 months A with
draw from the business, if their profit are in the
Q. 9 75 men can dig a canal in 90 days. How ratio 1 : 2. How long B invest his capital
many more men are required to dig the canal in
only 18 days? (a) 8 months (b) 10 months
(c) 9 months (d) 6 months
(a) 250 (b) 300
(c) 375 (d) 275 Q. 16 In a hostel there is enough food for 25
days for 40 students. After 5 days 10 students
Q. 10 15 men working 10 days earn Rs 500 how left from the hostel. Find the number of days
much will 12 men earn working 14 days? for which the remaining food will be sufficient
(a) Rs 480 (b) Rs 560 for remaining students.
(c) Rs 750 (d) Rs 600 1 2
(a) 13 3 (b) 16 3
Q. 11 if 3 men or 6 women can do a work in 16 2 2
(c) 26 (d) 24
3 3
days. in how many days can 12 men and 8
women do the same work Q. 17 In what ratio must tea at Rs 62 per kg are
mixed with tea at Rs 72 per kg so that the
(a) 3 (b) 2
mixture must be worth Rs 64.50 per kg?
(c) 4 (d) 5
(a) 3 : 1 (b) 3: 2
Q. 12 5 chairs cost as much as 12 stools, 7 stools
as much as 2 tables, 3 tables as much as 2 sofas. (c) 4: 3 (d) 5: 3
If the cost of 5 sofas is Rs 875. Then find the
cost of a chair

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

5 2
5. Percentages Q. 7 The ratio of two numbers is : . By what
6 3
% is the second number more or less than the
Q. 1 The length and breadth of a rectangle first number?
increased by 10% and 20%. What is the (a) 25% more (b) 25% less
percentage increase in the area of the (c) 20% less (d) 20% more
rectangle?
(a) 32% (b) 40% Q. 8 1000 students appeared for an
(c) 30% (d) 38% examination. The boys and girls ratio is 6: 4.
60% of boys and 40% of girls passed the exam.
Q. 2 The population of a city increases by 20% The % of candidates failed the exam is
every year. If the present population is (a) 62% (b) 48%
5,76,000. What was population of the city two (c) 36% (d) 24%
years ago?
(a) 4, 00, 000 (b) 4, 40, 000 Q. 9 The value of a machine increases by 20%
(c) 4, 20, 000 (c) 4, 10, 000 every year, and its present value is Rs 2,24,000.
What will be its value after 2 years?
Q. 3 40 liters of mixture of milk and water (a) Rs 2, 72,000 (b) Rs 3, 22, 560
contains 25% of water. When 10 liters of water (c) Rs 3, 32, 560 (d) Rs 3, 14, 460
is added, what will be percentage of milk in the
final mixture?
(a) 40% (b) 60% Q. 10 if 5% of A = 20% of B and 10% of B = 15%
(c) 80% (d) 70% of C. if income of C is Rs 1500. Find the income
of A
(a) Rs 9000 (b) Rs 6000
Q. 4 If Rs 636 is divided between A, B, C such (c) Rs 8000 (d) Rs 3000
that A great 20% more than B and B gets 25%
less than C. Find the share of C Q. 11 A shopkeeper increased the selling price
(a) Rs 280 (b) Rs 240 of an article by 25% and then decreased by
(c) Rs 220 (d) Rs 200 25%. If the present selling is Rs 225. Then what
was his original selling price?
(a) Rs 240 (b) Rs 300
Q. 5 The income of a person decreased by 20% (c) Rs 320 (d) Rs 225
and then again decreased by 20%. Find the total
decrease in his income
(a) 36% (b) 40% Q. 12 In an exam 80% passed in English, 70%
(c) 28% (d) 32% passed in science and 15% failed in both the
subjects. If 195 passed in both the subjects. Find
Q. 6 A man spend 5% of his money and then the total number of students.
after spending 75% of the remainder, then he
(a) 250 (b) 300
had Rs 950 left with him. How much money he
had at the beginning? (c) 400 (d) 350
(a) Rs 9000 (b) Rs 6575
Q. 13 In an election between two candidates,
(c) Rs 4000 (d) Rs 6000
one got 52% of the total valid votes. If 25% of
the total votes were invalid. The total number

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

of votes was 8400. How many valid votes did (a) 3276 (b) 3196
the other person get? (c) 3024 (d) can’t be determined

6. Profit and Loss (a) 25% loss (b) 25% gain

Q. 1 A shopkeeper sells two computers for Rs (c) 20% gain (d) 20% loss
24,000 each. On first he gained 20% and on the Q. 8 Find the single discount equivalent to two
other he lost 20% what is the overall gain or successive discounts 10% and 20%
loss percentage (a) 25% (b) 30%
(a) 4% gain (b) 4% loss (c) 28% (d) 35%
(c) 6% gain (d) 6% loss
Q. 9 An article is marked at Rs 2500 and the
Q. 2 Ravi purchases two TV’s at Rs 3500 each. shopkeeper allows successive discounts 10%,
He sold one TV at 10% gain and the other at 20% and 10% then find the S.P
10% loss. What is his total gain or loss (a) Rs 1620 (b) Rs 1840
percentage? (c) Rs 2000 (d) Rs 2100
(a) 6 % gain (b) 6% loss
(c) No profit, no loss (d) None of these Q. 10 A person gives 25% discount on M.P and
still gains 20%. How much percent is M.P above
Q. 3 By selling an article for Rs 110. The trader the C. P?
has a loss of 12%. At what price should be sell in (a) 25 % (b) 60%
order to gain 8%. (c) 40% (d) 30%
(a) Rs 150 (b) Rs 135
(c) Rs 160 (d) Rs 140 Q. 11 After giving two successive discounts of
10% and 20%. The selling price of an article is Rs
Q.4 By selling an article for Rs 3000, person 216. Then find the marked price
losses by 20%. How much will he gain or loss, if (a) Rs 250 (b) Rs 300
he sells it for Rs 3900? (c) Rs 290 (d) Rs 400
(a) 6% gain (b) 6% loss
(c) 4% gain (d) 4% loss Q. 12 A person marks a product of 50% over the
cost price and then gives some discount. If he
Q. 5 A man buys an article for Rs 7290 and sold makes a profit of 5%. what is the percentage
2 discount that he offered on the marked price?
at a loss of 7 of selling price. Find the S.P.
(a) 10% (b) 20%
(a) 5820 (b) 5670 (c) 30% (d) 40%
(c) 6000 (d) 6120
Q. 13 A person bought an article and sold it at a
Q. 6 A man bought 27 tables for Rs 5940 and loss of 10%. if he has bought at 20% less and
sold them at a gain equal to the selling price of sold it for Rs 55 more, he would be gained 40%.
5 tables. Find his gain percent Find C.P.
8 8
(a) 21 11 % (b) 22 11 % (a) Rs 250 (b) Rs 225
8 8 (c) Rs 275 (d) Rs 300
(c) 20 11 % (d) 24 11
%

Q.14 ‘A’ sells a DVD to ‘B’ at a gain of 17% and

Q. 7 if the cost price of 15 tables is equal to the
‘B’ again sells it to ‘C’ at a loss of 25%. If ‘C’ pays
selling price of 12 tables. Find gain or loss
Rs 1053 to ‘B’ then what is the cost price of the
percentage
DVD to ‘A’

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(a) Rs 1200 (b) Rs 1450 (a) 20% gain (b) 20% loss
(c) Rs 1250 (d) Rs 1375 (c) 25% gain (d) 25% loss

Q. 15 A fruit seller buys apples at the rate of Rs Q. 16 An article is listed as Rs 800 and given two
12 per dozen and sells them at the rate of 15 successive discounts. One of them is 10%. Find
apples for Rs 12. Find his percentage gain or the other discount if its S.P.is Rs 576
loss. (a) 10% (b) 20%
(c) 25% (d) 30%

7. Simple interest and Q. 7 Find the S.I. on Rs 500 for 8 months at 3

paisa per rupee per month?
compound interest (a) Rs 118.50 (b) Rs 120
Q. 1 Find the simple interest for Rs 22,000 for 5 (c) Rs 118.75 (d) Rs 125.40
years at 8% per annum.
(a) Rs 8000 (b) Rs 8200 Q. 8 Rs 1080 is divided into two parts such that
(c) Rs 8800 (d) Rs 8400 if the first is lent at 6% for 5 years and second is
lent at 10% for 4 years, the interest will be in
Q. 2 The simple interest on a sum of money is the ratio 3: 5 find the first part.
1/25th of the principal. If the rate of interest is (a) Rs 500 (b) Rs 480
8% p.a what is the time period? (c) Rs 780 (d) Rs 680
(a) 3 months (b) 2 months
(c) 8 months (d) 6 months Q. 9 Anil invested Rs 8000 for 3 years at 5%
compound interest in a post office. If the
Q. 3 A certain sum of money amounts to Rs interest is compounded once in a year. What
3080 in 3 years and Rs 3400 in 5 years at S.I.. sum will be get after 3 years
What is the sum? (a) Rs 10, 200 (b) Rs 11, 261
(a) Rs 2600 (b) Rs 3600 (c) Rs 9261 (d) Rs 12, 261
(c) Rs 4600 (d) Rs 1700
Q. 10 Find the amount in 2 years for a principal
Q. 4 In how many years will a sum of money of Rs 25, 000. If the rate of interest being 5% for
become 5 times at 8% p.a. simple interest? the first year and 10% for the second year.
(a) 10 years (b) 20 years (a) Rs 28, 475 (b) Rs 28, 875
(c) 30 years (d) 50 years (c) Rs 18, 875 (d) Rs 19, 875

Q. 5 A sum of money Rs 15000 is lent in two Q. 11 Find the compound interest on Rs 2000
parts one at 7% p.a and other at 4% p.a. if the for 9 months at 40% p.a. compounded quarterly
annual interest received is Rs 900. What is the (a) Rs 662 (b) Rs 362
amount lent at 4% p.a? (c) Rs 862 (d) Rs 962
(a) Rs 4000 (b) Rs 6000
(c) Rs 5000 (d) Rs 8000 Q. 12 Find the difference between C.I and S.I.
on Rs 6400 for 2 years at 12.5% P.a.
Q. 6 What principal will amount to Rs 570 at 4% (a) Rs 400 (b) Rs 300
p.a in 3.5 years? (c) Rs 100 (d) Rs 200
(a) Rs 800 (b) Rs 500
(c) Rs 400 (d) Rs 1000 Q. 13 The C.I. on a certain sum for 2 years at
10% p.a. is Rs 1260. What is the. S. I. on the
same sum at the same rate for 2 years.

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(a) Rs 1100 (b) Rs 1200 Q. 16 The S. I. on a certain sum of money for 2

(c) Rs 600 (d) Rs 1400 year at 5% P.a is Rs 600. What is the C. I. on the
same sum at the same rate and for the same
Q. 14 The value of a building is Rs 2,66,200 and time?
that of a land is Rs 1,45,800. After how many (a) Rs 415 (b) Rs 615
years will the values of both will be same. Given (c) Rs 815 (d) Rs 960
that the value of the building decreases at 10%
p.a and that of land increases at 10% p.a Q. 17 At C.I. a certain sum becomes twice itself
(a) 2 (b) 3 in 7 years. In how many years will it becomes 32
(c) 4 (d) 6 times?
(a) 45 (b) 40
Q. 15 A sum of money amounts to Rs 4840 in 2 (c) 35 (d) 30
years and Rs 5324 in 3 years at C.I what is the
rate percent? Q. 18 Find the difference between C. I. and S. I
(a) 9% (b) 8% on Rs 32, 000 for 3 years at rate 5% p.a.
(c) 4% (d) 10% (a) Rs 244 (b) Rs 304
(c) Rs 444 (d) Rs 344

8. Time, Speed and Distance (A) 81 m (b) 100 m

(c) 90 m (d) 110 m
Q. 1 In a 200 m race ‘A’ beats ‘B’ by 20 m. ‘B’
beats C by 10 m in a 250 race. By how many
Q. 5 A, B, C are running on a circular track of
meters will ‘A’ beat C in a 1 km race.
100 m circumference with speeds 10 m/s, 20
(a) 146 m (b) 164 m
m/s, 25 m/s respectively. If they started from
(c) 136 m (d) 144 m
common starting point at the same time then
they will again meet at starting point after how
Q. 2 If a boat with speed 20 m/s in still water
much time.
take 1/3 hr and ½ hr in order to cover same
(a) 100 sec (b) 25 sec
distance downstream and upstream
(c) 20 sec (d) 200 sec
respectively. Then the speed of the current is
(a) 6 m/s (b) 8 m/s
Q. 6 Two trains separated by 480 kms are
(c) 3 m/s (d) 4 m/s
approaching each other with speeds 70 kmph
and 50 kmph respectively. A bird with speed
Q. 3 Vijay goes Delhi to Bhopal at a uniform
100 km/hr started from the front of first train
speed of 40 km/hr and comes back at a uniform
goes to front of second train and comes back to
speed of 60 km/hr. then his average speed over
first train and continues to and fro so on till the
the entire journey
trains collide. What is the total distance
(a) 50 (b) 52.5
travelled by the bird?
(c) 48 (d) 51.5
(a) 500 km (b) 400 km
(c) 480 km (d) 600 km
Q. 4 Ravi and Gautama are heading towards
each other. If they meet at 45 m from Ravi’s
Q. 7 Two trains are approaching each other
stating point. Now after meeting they move
from opposite sides and crosses each other in
towards the other’s starting point in 16 hrs and
14 seconds. What is the speed of second train if
25 hrs respectively, then initial separation
speed of first train is 7 km/hr and the length of
between Ravi and Gautama.
the trains is 126 m and 240 m respectively?

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(a) 67.14 kmph (b) 87.11 kmph Q. 12 Two trains are moving in the same
(c) 77.14 kmph (d) 97. 11 kmph direction at the speeds of 70 kmph and 90
kmph respectively. The faster train crosses a
Q. 8 A bus has to go a distance of 80 km in 10 man sitting in the slower train in 36 sec. find the
hrs. if it covers first half of journey in 3/5 of length of the faster train.
time, what should be its speed to cover the (a) 200 m (b) 225 m
remaining distance in the assigned time (c) 250 m (d) Can’t be determined
(a) 20 km/hr (b) 10 km/hr
(c) 5 km/hr (d) 8 km/hr Q.13 If A and B run at 6 km/hr and 12 km/hr on
a circular track 6 km long when will they meet
Q. 9 A train’s average speed including for the first time if they are running in opposite
stoppages in 45 km/hr while excluding direction
stoppages it is 54 km/hr. what is the stoppage (a) 20 min (b) 28 min
time per hour? (c) 29 min (d) 10 min
(a) 12 min (b) 9 min
(c) 15 min (d) 10 min Q. 14 A and B run around a circular track of
length 600 m at the respective speeds of 15
Q. 10 Dalbir and Asim are approaching from m/sec and 20 m/sec starting from the same
opposite ends of a linear race track of 100 m. point and at the same time travelling in the
After passing each other the rich end points of same direction. When will they meet each other
the track and turn back. They now meet at 35 m at the starting point for the first time?
from where Dalbir started after 45 seconds. (a) 2 min (b) 4 min
Find the speed of Asim (c) 6 min (d) 7 min
(a) 3 m/s (b) 3.5 m/s
(c) 4.5 m/s (d) 5 m/s Q. 15 A car travels a distance 840 km at a
uniform speed if the speed of the car is 10
Q. 11 A boy covers a certain distance between km/hr more, it takes 2 hours less to cover the
his house and school on a cycle. Having an same distance then the original speed of the car
average speed of 15 kmph, he is late by 10 min. was
however with an average speed of 20 kmph. He (a) 80 km/hr (b) 70 km/hr
reaches the school 5 min earlier. Find the (c) 60 km/hr (d) 40 km/hr
distance between his house and school.
(a) 15 km (b) 20 km
(c) 25 km (d) 30 km

9. Permutation, Combination Q. 2 If number of diagonals of an ’n’ sided

polygon is 50% higher than its number of sides.
and Probability Then the polygon is a
(a) Quadrilateral (b) Hexagon
Q. 1 In a party every one handshakes with each (c) Octagon (d) None of these
presentees exactly once. If total number of
handshakes made were 153. Then the number Q. 3 Total number of ways of distributing 10
of people present in the party. identical balls among three kids such that each
(a) 17 (b) 18 of the kid gets at least one ball
(c) 19 (d) 36 (a) 66 (b) 36
(c) 28 (d) 42

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Q. 4 In the adjoining figure, total number of

shortest routes from A to C. if moving along Q. 10 How many four digit numbers can be
only straight lines is allowed formed using digits 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9 with
repetition such that digit 5 appears exactly
once.
(a) 1024 (b) 2048
(c) 4096 (d) none of these

Q. 11 what is the probability of getting 53

Sundays in a leap year
1 2
(a) 7 (b) 7
(a) 9 (b) 720 3 1
(c) 7 (d) 2
(c) 120 (d) 20
Q. 12 In a theatre, seven seats are vacant in a
Q. 5 Line ‘l’ has 6 points on it and ‘m’ has five
row. Three persons take seats at random. Find
points lying on it. If 𝑙 𝑝𝑎𝑟𝑎𝑙𝑙𝑒𝑙 𝑚, then how
the probability that middle seat is always
many triangles can we get from these 11 points
occupied and no two consecutive seats are
(a) 60 (b) 75
occupied
(c) 135 (d) 125 9 9
(a) (b)
70 35
4 3
For (Q. 6 – Q.7): Consider the word (c) 35 (d) 5
‘GATEWAY’
Q. 6 In how many ways can 4 letters are Q. 13 A problem is given to four students A, B,
selected from the word C, D. their respective individual probabilities of
1 1 1 1
(a) 26 (b) 28 the Problem solving are 3 , 4 , 5 , 6. find the
(c) 27 (d) 20 probability that the problem will be solved
1 2
(a) 3 (b) 3
Q. 7 How many arrangements can be made by
4
taking these 4 letters from the word (c) 5 (d) None of these
(a) 360 (b) 600
(c) 1020 (d) 366 Q. 14 If a fair coin is tossed four times. What is
the probability that two heads and two tails will
Q. 8 Four different pens (A, B, C, D) are to be result
distributed at random in four pen stands (a)
3
(b)
1
marked as 1, 2, 3, 4. what is the probability that 8 2
5 3
none of the pen occupies the place (c) 8 (d) 4
corresponding to its number
17 3 Q. 15 A speaks truth in 60% cases and B in 75%
(a) 24 (b) 8
1 5 cases. While stating a same fact in either ‘yes’
(c) 2 (d) 8 or ‘no’ only, they are likely to contradict in what
percentage cases
Q. 9 Total number of squares in a chessboard (a) 25 (b) 35
(a) 1024 (b) 64 (c) 45 (d) 55
(c) 1296 (d) 204

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

10. Calendar Q. 7 On which dates of August 1988 Friday

were there?
Q. 1 How many odd days are there in first 75
(a) 6, 13, 20, 27 (b) 4, 11, 18, 25
years?
(c) 5, 12, 19, 26 (d) 3, 10, 17, 24
(a) 2 (b) 1
(c) 3 (d) 4
Q. 8 Which year will have the same calendar as
Q.2 How many odd days are there till 1947? that 1991?
(a) 1 (b) 2 (a) 1996 (b) 2001
(c) 3 (d) 4 (c) 1998 (d) 2002

Q. 3 What was the day on 22nd July 1992? Q. 9 If 16th July 2000 was Sunday then what will
(a) Friday (b) Saturday be the day on 20th December 2000?
(c) Wednesday (d) Sunday (a) Monday (b) Saturday
(c) Wednesday (d) Friday
Q. 4 What was the day on 26th January 1950?
(a) Thursday (b) Monday Q. 10 If any calendar consists of 385 days and 8
(c) Tuesday (d) Friday days in a week, how many odd days will be
there in that year?
Q. 5 If 11th August 2010 was Wednesday, then (a) 4 (b) 3
what day 11th August 2001 was? (c) 2 (d) 1
(a) Sunday (b) Saturday
(c) Friday (d) Monday Q. 11 if August 15th 2010 was Sunday, on which
day of the week would be 15th August in 2025?
Q. 6 If 5th January 1991 was Saturday, what day (a) Sunday (b) Saturday
was on 3rd March 1992? (c) Friday (d) Monday
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Thursday (d) Friday Q. 12 In a leap year January 26th is Friday, what
is the day of August 15th in the same year?
(a) Monday (b) Tuesday
(c) Thursday (d) Friday

11. Clocks Q. 3 At what time between 4’O clock and 5’O

clock, hands of the clock are at right angle?
Q. 1 At what time between 3’O clock and 4’O 5 2
clock, hands of the clock are together? (a) 4 ∶ 5 11 b) 4 ∶ 38 11
4 4 5 2
(a) 3 ∶ 15 11 (b) 3 ∶ 16 11 (c) 4: 5 11 , 4: 38 11 (d)None of these
4 11
(c) 3 ∶ 17 11 (d) 3 ∶ 16 4
Q. 4 At what time between 2’O clock and 3’ O
Q. 2 At what time between 11’O clock and 12’O clock, hands of the clock are at right angle?
3
clock, hands of the clock coincide? (a) 2 ∶ 27 11 (b) 3.00
2 2 11 11
(a) 11 ∶ 55 11 (b) 11 ∶ 56 11 (c) 2 ∶ 27 3
(d) 2 ∶ 26 3
4
(c) 11 ∶ 55 (d) None of these
11

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Q. 5 At what time between 8’O clock and 9’O Q. 10 How many degrees will the minute hand
clock, hands of the clock opposite to each move in 7 minutes?
other? (a) 140 (b) 420
10 9 0
(a) 8 ∶ 10 11 (b) 8 ∶ 10 10 (c) 35 (d) 630
11 2
(c) 8 ∶ 10 14 (d) 8 ∶ 10 11 Q. 11 At what time between 2’ O clock and 3’O
clock, the angle between the hands will be 400 ?
Q. 6 What is the angle between the two hands 7 6
(a) 2 ∶ 3 11 (b) 2 ∶ 5 11
of a clock when the clock shows 5 hours 20 5 4
minutes? (c) 2 ∶ 10 (d) 2 ∶ 16
12 11
(a) 400 (b) 600
0
(c) 30 (d) 700 Q. 12 How many degrees will the second hand
move, in the same time in which minute hand
Q. 7 What is the angle between the two hands move 60 ?
of a clock, when the time is 3 hours 40 minutes? (a) 3400 (b) 3600
(a) 1300 (b) 1400 (c) 1500 (d) 1800
(c) 1700 (d) 1200
Q. 13 A clock is set right at 9 A.M. and the clock
Q. 8 At what angle are the two hands of a clock will gain 5 min in 12 hrs. What is the correct
inclined at 9 hours 45 minutes? time when it shows 3 P.M. on the next day?
1 1 17 17
(a) 23 2 𝑜 (b) 25 2 𝑜 (a) 2 ∶ 47 29 𝑃. 𝑀 (b) 2 ∶ 48 29 P. M
1 1 17
(c) 22 𝑜 (d) 2 0 (c) 2 ∶ 47 P. M (d) None of these
2 2 28

Q. 9 if the time in a watch is 9 hours 30 Q. 14 A clock is set right at 7 AM and the clock
minutes. What time does it show on the mirror? loses 15 min in 24 hrs. What is the correct time
(a) 2 : 30 (b) 2 : 45 when it shows 4 PM. after 2 Days?
(c) 3 : 30 (d) 2 : 15 (a) 4 : 32 PM (b) 4 : 30 PM
(c) 4 : 36 PM (d) 4 : 35 PM

(a) 48 (b) 24
12. Cubes, Dice and (c) 12 (d) 36
Directions
Direction (Q.1-Q4): Large cube after painting it Q. 4 How many cubes are painted from only
from all faces was divided into 125 smaller one side
equal cubes. Answer the following. (a) 54 (b) 64
(c) 48 (d) 36
Q. 1 How many cubes are not painted at all
(a) 8 (b) 27 Direction (Q.5-Q7): A cube of side 8 cm has
(c) 64 (d) 12 been painted black, red and blue on pair of
opposite faces. Then it is divided into smaller
Q. 2 How many cubes are pained from 3 sides equal cubes of side 2 cm each. Answer the
(a) 8 (b) 12 following:
(c) 24 (d) 4
Q. 5 How many cubes will be having two face
Q. 3 How many cubes are painted from exactly painted black
2 sides (a) 2 (b) 4

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(c) 8 (d) None of these (a) North – east (b) North – west
(c) South – east (d) South – west
Q. 6 How many cubes will have one face
painted blue and one face painted red? (The Q.13 Rahul a college student is facing north-
other faces many or may not be painted) west he turns 900 in the clockwise direction and
(a) 16 (b) 8 then 1350 in the anticlockwise direction. Which
(c) 0 (d) None of these direction is he facing now?
(a) East (b) West
Q. 7 How many cubes will have exactly one (c) North (d) South
face painted and that too red color
(a) 8 (b) 16 Q.14 Rakesh starts walking straight towards
(c) 12 (d) None of these east. After walking 75 meters, he turns to the
left and walks 25 meters straight. Again he
Direction (Q.8-Q11): A dice having face turns to the left, walks a distance of 40 meters
numbered from 1 to 6 is shown from three straight, again he turns to the left and walks a
different orientations (I, II, III) distance of 25 meters. How far is he from the
starting point?
(a) 25 meters (b) 50 meters
(c) 140 meters (d) None of these

Q.15 I am facing south. I turn right and walk 20

m. then I turn right again and walk 10m. Then I
turn left and walk 10 m and then turning right
walk 20 m. then I turn right again and walk 60
Q. 8 Which number is just opposite to 6? m. In which direction am I from the starting
(a) 1 (b) 4 point?
(c) 2 (d) 5 (A) North (B) North – west
(C) East (D) North – east
Q. 9 Which will be number at the bottom in
orientation (i)? Q.16 A man walks 1 km towards east and then
(a) 2 (b) 3 he turns to south and walks 5 km. Again he
(c) 5 (d) Can’t be determined turns to east and walks 2 km. after this he turns
to north and walks 9 km. now far is he from his
Q. 10 Which number is opposite to 5? starting point?
(a) 3 (b) 2 (A) 3 km (B) 4 km
(c) 1 (d) 6 (C) 5 km (D) 7 km

Q. 11 Which number is at the bottom of Q. 17 From his house sanjay went 15 kms to
orientation (II) the north. Then he turned west and covered 10
(a) 6 (b) 5 kms. Then, he turned south and covered 5 kms.
(c) 2 (d) 1 Finally, turning to east he covered 10 kms. in
which direction is he from his house?
Direction (Q. 12 – Q21): Answer the following: (A) East (B) West
Q.12 Dalbir is facing south. He turns 1350 in the (C) North (D) South
anticlockwise direction and then 1800 in the
clockwise direction. Which direction is he facing Q.18 Going 50 m to the south of her house,
now? Radhika turns left and goes another 20 m. then
turning to the north, she goes 30 m and then

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

starts wailing to her house. In which direction is Q.20 A child is looking for his father. He went
she walking now? 90 meters is the east before Turing to his right.
(a) North – west (b) North He went 20 meters before Turing to his right
(c) South-east (d) East again to look for his uncle’s place 30 meters
from this point. His father was not there. From
Q.19 Michael walks 20 m North. Then he turns here he went 100 meters to the north before
right and walks 30 m. then he turns right and meeting his father in a street. How far did the
walks 35 m. then he turns left and walks 15 m. son meet his father from the starting point?
then he again turns left and walks 15 m. in (a) 80 meters (b) 100 meters
which direction and how many meters away is (c) 140 meters (d) 260 meters
he from his original position?
(a) 15 meters west (b) 30 meters east
(c) 30 meters west (d) 45 meters east

Q. 4 if the total amount spent on sports during

13. Data interpretation the year was Rs 2 crores then the amount spent
Directions (Q. 1-Q.5): The pie-chart drawn here on cricket and hockey together was
shows the spending of a country at various (a) Rs 800,000 (b) Rs 80, 00,000
sports during particular years. (c) Rs 16, 000 (d) Rs 16, 00, 000

Q. 5 If the total amount spent on sports during

the year is Rs 18,00,00,00. The amount spent on
basketball exceeds tennis by
(a) Rs 250,000 (b) Rs 360,000
(c) Rs 375,000 (d) Rs 40,10,000

Directions (Q.6-Q.10): The pie chart given

below shows the expenditure incurred in
Q. 1 How much percent of the total spending is bringing out a book by a publisher.
spent on tennis?
1
(A) 45% (B) 22 %
2
1
(C) 12 2 % (d) 25%

Q. 2 How much percent more is spent on

hockey then that on Golf?
(a) 27% (b) 35%
(c) 37.5% (d) 75%

Q.3 How much percent less is spent on Football

than that on Cricket?
1 Q. 6 What is the central angle of the sector of
(a) 27% (b) 33 %
3 the cost of the paper?
1 2
(c) 33 % (d) 22 % (a) 1400 (b) 1050
6 9
0
(c) 122.5 (d) 1260

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Q. 7 If the cost of printing is Rs 94380 the Q. 13 The two consecutive years in which rate
royalty is of change of production of foodgrains is
(a) Rs 47190 (b) Rs 39325 minimum are
(c) Rs 31460 (d) Rs 40960 (a) 1987 and 1988 (b) 1989 and 1990
(c) 1990 and 1991 (d) 1991 and 1992
Q. 8 If the miscellaneous charges are Rs 15730,
the advertisement charges are Q. 14 The difference of the production food
(a) Rs 47190 (b) Rs 37637.50 grains for the years 1988 and 1992 is
(c) Rs 58987.50 (d) Rs 68,190 (a) 500 tones (b) 1000 tones
(c) 5000 tones (d) 10,000 tones
Q. 9 Royalty on the book is less than the
advertisement charges by Direction (Q. 15-Q. 17): Study the following bar
1
(a) 50% (b) 33 3 % graph and answer the following
1
(c) 26 4 % (d) 5%

Q. 10 if 5500 copies are published and

miscellaneous expenditure on them amount Rs
15,730 and the publisher earns a profit of 30%.
Then market price of each copy is
(a) Rs 71.50 (b) Rs 55
(c) Rs 74.36 (d) Rs 92.95

Directions (Q.11-Q.14)
The following bar diagram shows the Q. 15 In which year the sales value per tin was
production of food grains of a country in minimum?
different years (a) 1983 (b) 1984
(c) 1985 (d) 1986

Q. 16 What was the approximate percent

increase in sales value from 1983 to 1987?
(a) 350 (b) 233.33
(c) 133.33 (d) 96

Q. 17 if in 1986 the tins were exported at the

same rate per tin as that in 1985. What would
Q. 11 The percentage increase in production
be the sales value in crores of rupees of export
from 1991 to 1992 was
in 1986?
(a) 15% (b) 30%
(a) 400 (b) 352
(c) 50% (d) 100%
(c) 375 (d) 360
Q. 12 The sum of the production of food grains
in the years 1989 and 1991 is same as that in
the year
(a) 1987 (b) 1988
(c) 1990 (d) 1992

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Directions (Q. 18-Q.21): Study the following

table and answer the following Q.20 Who among the following employees
Income of employees from different heads in earns maximum bonus in comparison to his
different categories of a company total income?
Source of Employees (a) K (b) L
income K L M N O (c) M (d) N

Salary 12000 6000 21000 9000 12000 Q. 21 who among the following employees has
maximum percentage of his salary out of the
Bonus 2400 1200 4500 2400 3000 total income?
(a) K (b) L
Over Time 5400 2100 6000 5100 6000
(c) M (d) N

Arrears Q. 22 Refer to the following pie charts

6000 5400 12000 4200 7500

Miscellan
1200 300 1500 300 1500
eous

Total 27000 15000 45000 21000 30000

Q. 18 How many employees have their salary

less than four times of their bonus?
(a) 0 (b) 1
(c) 2 (d) 3 In which department is the percentage change
(from 2005 to 2006) in number of employees
Q. 19 The income from overtime is what maximum?
percent of income from arrears in case of (a) A (b) D
employees in category O? (c) B (d) E
(a) 80 (b) 25
(c) 70 (d) 60

Q. 2 Who is the left of B?

14. Seating Arrangement (a) C (b) A
Q. 1 There are five different houses A to E in a (c) D (d) E
row. A is the right of B. E is the left of C and
right of A. B is the right of D. which of the house Q. 3 Who is the right of C?
is in the middle (a) E (b) B
(a) A (b) B (c) A (d) F
(c) D (d) E
Directions (Q. 4-Q.6): Eight boys P, Q, R, S, T, U,
Direction (Q. 2-Q. 3): six friends A, B, C, D, E, F V, W are sitting around a circular table facing
are sitting in a close circle facing the centre. E is the centre. further information as follows:
the left of D. C is between A and B. F is between (i). W sits between T and Q while Q sits
E and A opposite to U

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(ii) P sits to the immediate right of T and

opposite to R Q. 7 Which of the following are in one of the
(iii) S does not sit next to R two rows?
(a) FBC (b) CEB
Q. 4 Who sits opposite to V? (c) DBF (d) AEF
(a) Q (b) R
(c) S (d) T Q. 8 Who is facing B?
(a) A (b) C
Q. 5 Who sit two places left of S? (c) D (d) E
(a) P (b) T
(c) R (d) Q Directions (Q. 9-Q. 10): A, B, C, D, E, F are
sitting in a closed circle facing the centre. D is
Q. 6 If S and Q interchange their places then between F and B, A is the second to the left of D
who sits opposite to Q? and second to the right of E.
(a) W (b) U Q. 9 Who is facing D?
(c) R (d) T (a) A (b) C
(c) F (d) can’t be determined
Direction (Q. 7-Q. 8): 6 Persons A, B, C, D, E, F Q. 10 Who is facing A?
are sitting in two rows, three in each row. E is (a) B (b) D
not at the end of any row. D is the second to (c) A (d) Can’t be determined
the left of F, C is the neighbor of E is sitting
diagonally opposite to D. B is the neighbor of F.

(a) 675 (b) 575

15. Number Series, Analogy (c) 475 (d) 875
and Number Odd man out
Direction (Q. 1-Q 17): Find out the missing term Q. 6 20, 141, 310, 599, 960,
in each of the following: 1489,…………….
Q. 1 113, 85, 61, 41 ……….13, 5 (a) 2430 (b) 2330
(a) 24 (b) 23 (c) 2230 (d) 2130
(c) 25 (d) 22
Q. 7 1900, 939,………….,377, 376
Q. 2 2, 5, 16, 65…… (a) 398 (b) 698
(a) 131 (b) 326 (c) 498 (d) 598
(c) 325 (d) 327
Q. 8 1, 3, 11, 47……1439
Q. 3 15, 10, 5, 150, 16, 12, 4, 192, 20, 15, (a) 187 (b) 239
5…………. (c) 339 (d) 259
(a) 400 (b) 300
(c) 600 (d) 700 Q. 9 2, 12, 56, 182, 462,…………….
(a) 870 (b) 990
Q. 4 3, 10, 33, 104, ………………. (c) 992 (d) 982
(a) 318 (b) 319
(c) 320 (d) 321 Q. 10 2, 20, 110………………992
(a) 280 (b) 380
Q. 5 55, 66, 187, 200, 369, 386, (c) 480 (d) 580
…………………………

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Q. 11 2, 12, 36, 80, 150,…………………… (a) 343 (b) 216

(a) 242 (b) 262 (c) 162 (d) 600
(c) 252 (d) 232
Directions (Q. 18-Q.23): All of these terms have
Q. 12 992, 552 …. 132, 30, 6 same relationship except one of the terms
(a) 305 (b) 306 which is different, identify the odd one which is
(c) 312 (d) 326 different.
Q. 18 (a) 43 (b) 47
Q. 13 1695, 1700, 1710, 1727, (c) 53 (d) 64
1753,……………….
(a) 1760 (b) 1790 Q. 19 (a) 100 (b) 125
(c) 1780 (d) 1770
(c) 196 (d) 225
Q. 14 4 : 9 : 25 : ……………….
(a) 36 (b) 72 Q. 20 19, 23, 32, 57, 106, 187
(c) 78 (d) None (a) 19 (b) 57
(c) 187 (d) 106
Q.15 196:169:81:…………………….
(a) 64 (b) 72 Q. 21 2, 8, 20, 44, 92, 184, 380
(c) 78 (d) None (a) 92 (b) 184
(c) 380 (d) 44
Q. 16 6 : 30 : ………………. :992
(a) 552 (b) 532 Q. 22 (a) 121 (b) 100
(c) 522 (d) 562 (c) 11 (d) 111

Q. 23 (a) 12 (b) 22
(c) 56 (d) 132
Q. 17 23: 125 :: 34 : ……………..

16. Letter Series, analogy, Letter Q. 5 (a) AB = E (b) CD = Y

(c) EA = Y (d) BC = M
odd man out and coding
decoding Q. 6 (a) GJ (b) MP
Directions (Q. 1 – Q. 8): All of these have same (c) KR (d) CF
relationship, while one is different. Identify the
odd, Which is different? Q. 7 (a) BE (b) EG
Q. 1 (a) PQR (b) XYZ (c) MO (d) GI
(c) ABC (d) MLN
Q. 8 (a) CAT = 24 (b) MAT = 34
Q. 2 (a) DB (b) GC
(C) HD (d) JF (c) RAT = 39 (d) COT = 39

Q.3 (a) ABD (b) EFH Directions (Q. 9-Q. 17): Fill in the blanks.
(c) IJK (d) PQS Q. 9 CGKO: AEIM: DHLP: …………………..
(a) BFJN (b) GJFN
Q. 4 (a) OA (b) IU (c) FNJI (d) BJNF
(c) EB (d) AI

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Q. 10 876: FGH:: 345: …………………….

(a) CDE (b) EDC Q. 18 A, CD, GHI, ……………………UVWXY
(c) DEC (d) CED (a) LMNO (b) MIVO
(c) NOPQ (d) MNOP
Q. 11 BARODA: CBSPEB:: ……………………..
CPNCBZ Q. 19 AB9, BC25, CD49, DE81, ………………..
(a) MADRAS (b) BOMBAY (a) EF100 (b) EF64
(c) BANGURU (d) BANGLA (c) EF121 (d) EF144

Q. 12 CARPET: TCEAPR : : ………… Direction (Q. 20 – Q. 24): Choose the correct

LNAANTOI answer for the following:
(A) NATIONPL (B) NATIONAL Q. 20 If code of BOARD is CPBSE then code of
(C) NATIOLNL (D) NATERANL CHAIR
(a) DIJBS (b) DIBJS
Q. 13 RANCHI : SZOBIH : : ………………….. (c) DIJSB (d) DISJB
LNMJBSB
(A) KOLKATA (B) KOLTAKA Q. 21 If code BHOPAL is EERMDI then code of
(C) KOLKACS (D) KALMADI NAGPUR
(A) QXJMXO (B) QXJMXQ
Q. 14 AEI : LPT : : CGK : ……………. (C) QXMJXO (D) QXJMXP
(A) CSV (B) RUY
(C) TXC (D) NRV Q. 22 MONKEY is coded as XDJMNL, then code
of TIGER
Q. 15 OST : NQQ : : KFO : ……… (a) QDFHS (b) SDFHS
(A) LEQ (B) JDL (c) SHFDS (d) UJFHS
(C) DEL (D) LDJ
Q. 23 Code of APPLE is 50. Then code of
Q.16 ABK : V : : BCD : …………. ORANGE is
(A) N (B) I (a) 60 (b) 70
(C) X (D) Y (c) 80 (d) 50

Q. 24 If CIRCLE is coded as DKUFNF, then code

Directions (Q. 17 – Q. 19): fill in the blanks. of SQURAE
Q. 17 XUW, TQS, PMO, ……………..HEG (a) TSXDFT (b) TSXDTF
(a) LKI (b) LIK (c) TXSDFT (d) TXDTFS
(c) LQR (d) LOB

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

17. Logical Venn diagram

Directions (Q. 1-Q 4): These questions are
based on the diagram given below.

Q. 5 Non – rural, employed, hard working and

intelligent people are indicated by region
(a) 8 (b) 9
Square represents the people who are (c) 10 (d) 11
intelligent; rectangle represent the people who
work hard, triangle represents the people who Q. 6 Non – rural, employed people who are
are employees. Circle represents the people neither intelligent nor hard working are
represented by region
who are professors.
Q. 1 How many intelligent people, who work (a) 12 (b) 11
hard, are neither employees nor professors? (c) 10 (d) 7
(a) 14 (b) 18
Q. 7 Intelligent, employed and hard working
(c) 30 (d) 20
non rural people are indicated by region
Q. 2 which of the following numbers represents (a) 11 (b) 6
people who are only intelligent? (c) 9 (d) 4
(a) 14 (b) 1
Q. 8 Hard working non-rural people who are
(c) 12 (d) 18
neither employed nor intelligent are shown in
region
Q. 3 How many professors are intelligent and
(a) 8 (b) 7
work hard but are not employees?
(a) 6 (b) 9 (c) 6 (d) 12
(c) 10 (d) 16
Q. 9 Employed, hard working and intelligent
rural people are indicated by region
Q. 4 What does number 10 represent in the
above diagram? (a) 1 (b) 2
(a) Only employees (c) 3 (d) 4
(b) Only intelligent
Q. 10 Rural hard working people who are
(c) Only employees who are professors
neither employed nor-intelligent are indicated
(d) Only hard worker
by region
Direction (Q. 5-Q.14): In the following figure, (a) 6 (b) 5
the circle stands for employed, the square (c) 4 (d) 3
stands for hard working, the triangle stands for
Q. 11 Rural employed people who are neither
rural and the rectangle stands for intelligent.
intelligent nor hard working are indicated by
study the figure carefully and answer the
region
questions that follow.
(a) 2 (b) 4

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(c) 6 (d) 9 (a) 1 (b) 2

(c) 3 (d) 4
Q. 12 Rural people who are hard working and
employed but intelligent are indicated by region Q. 14 Rural employed people who are neither
(a) 1 (b) 2 intelligent nor hard working are indicated by
(c) 3 (d) 4 region
(a) 10 (b) 9
Q. 13 Unemployed rural hard working and (c) 6 (d) 4
intelligent people are indicated by region

18. Previous Years GATE Q. 4 Given digit 2, 2, 3, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 4 how many

Questions distinct 4 digit numbers greater than 3000 can
GATE – 2010 be domed?
Q. 1 25 persons are in a room. 15 of them play (a) 50 (b) 51
hockey, 17 of them play football and 10 of them (c) 52 (d) 54
play both hockey and football. Then the number
of persons playing neither hockey nor football is Q. 5 Hari (H), Gita (G), lrfan (I) and Saira (S) are
(a) 2 (b) 17 siblings (i. e. brothers and sisters). All were born
(c) 13 (d) 3 on 1st January. The age difference between any
two successive siblings (that is born one after
Q. 2 If 137 + 276 = 435 how much is 731 + 672? another) is less than 3 years. Given the
(a) 534 (b) 1403 following facts:
(c) 1623 (d) 1531 1. Hari’s age + Gita’s age > Irfan’s age + saira’s
age.
Q. 3 5 skilled workers can build a wall in 20 2. The age difference between Gita and Saira is
days; 8 semiskilled workers can build a wall in 1 year. However, Gita is not the oldest and Saira
25 days 10 unskilled workers can build a wall in is not the youngest.
30 days, if a team has 2 skilled, 6 semiskilled 3. There are no twins.
and 5 unskilled workers, how long will it take to In what order were they born (oldest first)?
build the wall? (a) HSIG (b) SGHI
(a) 20 days (b) 18 days (C) IGSH (d) IHSG
(c) 16 days (d) 15 days

GATE – 2011 liter of the mixture is again replaced with 1 liter

of water and this process is repeated one more
Q. 6 If Log (P) = (1/2)Log (Q) = (1/3) LogR, then time. How much spirit is now in the container?
which of the following options is TRUE? (a) 7.58 liters (b) 7.84 liters
(a) P2 = Q3 R2 (b) Q2 = PR (c) 7 liters (d) 7.29 liters
(c) Q2 = R3 𝑃 (d) R = P2 Q2
Q. 8 The variable cost (V) of manufacturing a
Q. 7 A container originally contains 10 liters of product varies according to the equation V = 4q.
pure spirit. From container 1 liter of spirit is Where q is the quantity produced. The fixed
replaced with 1 liter of water. Subsequently, 1 cost (F) of production of same product reduces

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

with q according to the equation 𝐹 = 100/𝑞. promised to vote for P and rest for Q. However,
How many units should be produced to on the day of election 15% of the voters went
minimize the total cost (V + F)? back on their promise to vote for P and instead
(a) 5 (b) 4 voted for Q. 25% of the voters went back on
(c) 7 (d) 6 their promise to vote for Q and instead voted
for P. suppose, P lost by 2 votes, then what was
Q. 9 P, Q, R and S four types of dangerous the total number of voters?
microbes recently found in a human habitat. (a) 100 (b) 110
The area of each circle with its diameter printed (c) 90 (d) 95
in brackets represents the growth of a single
microbe surviving human immunity system Q. 12 Three friends, R, S and T shared toffee
within 24 hours of entering the body. The from a bowl. R took 1/3rd of the toffees, but
danger to human beings varies proportionately returned four to the bowl. S took 1/4th of what
with the toxicity, potency and growth attributed was left but returned three toffees to the bowl.
to a microbe shown in the figure below: T took half of the remainder but returned two
back into the bowl. if the bowl has 17 toffees
left, how many toffees were originally there in
the bowl?
(a) 38 (b) 31
(c) 48 (d) 41

Q. 13 The sum of n terms of the series 4 + 44+

444+ …is
(a) (4/81) [10𝑛+1 − 9𝑛 − 1]
(b) (4/81) [10𝑛−1 − 9𝑛 − 1]
(c) (4/81) [10𝑛+1 − 9𝑛 − 10]
(d) (4/81) [10𝑛 − 9𝑛 − 10]
A pharmaceutical company is contemplating the
development of a vaccine against the most Q. 14 The fuel consumed by a motorcycle
dangerous microbe. Which microbe should the during a journey while travelling at various
company target in its first attempt? speeds is indicated in the graph below:
(a) P (b) Q
(c) R (d) S

Q. 10 A transporters receives the same number

of orders each day. Currently, he has some
pending orders (backlog) to be shipped. If he
uses 7 trucks, then at the end of the 4th day he
can clear all the orders. Alternatively, if he uses
only 3 trucks, then all the order are cleared at
the end of the 10th day. What is the minimum
number of trucks required so that there will be
no pending order at the end of the 5th day? The distance covered during four laps of the
(a) 4 (b) 5 journey is listed in the table below:
(c) 6 (d) 7 Lap Distance Average speed
(Kilometers) (kilometers per hour)
Q. 11 There are two candidates P and Q in an P 15 15
election. During the campaign 40% of the voters
Q 75 45

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

R 40 75 (a) P (b) Q
S 10 10 (c) R (d) S

From the given data, we can conclude that the Q. 15 given that f(y) = l y l /y, and q is any non-
fuel consumed per kilometer was least during zero real number, the value of lf(q) – f(-q)l is
the lap (a) 0 (b) -1
(c) 1 (d) 2

GATE – 2012 absorbers. All shock absorbers are subjected to

a quality test. The ones that pass the quality
Q. 16 The cost function for a product in firm is test are considered reliable. Of X’s shock
given by 5q2, where q is the amount of absorbers, 96% are reliable. Of Y’s shock
production. The firm can sell the product at a absorbers, 72% are reliable.
market price of Rs 50 per unit. The number of The probability that a randomly chosen shock
units to be produced by the firm such that the absorber, which is found to be reliable, is made
profit is maximized is by Y is
(a) 5 (b) 10 (a) 0.288 (b) 0.334
(c) 15 (d) 25 (c) 0.667 (d) 0.720

Q. 17 A political party orders an arch for the Q. 21 If (1.001)1259 = 3.52 𝑎𝑛𝑑 (1.001)2062 =
entrance to the ground in which the annual 7.85, then (1.001)3321 =
conventions is being held. The profile of the (a) 2.23 (b) 4.33
arch follows the equation y = 2x -0.1 x2 where y (c) 11.37 (d) 27.64
is the height of the arch in meters. The
maximum possible height of the arch is Q. 22 A and B are friends. They decide to meet
(a) 8 meters (b) 10 meters between 1. P. M. and 2 P. M. on a given day.
(c) 12 meters (d) 14 meters There is a condition that whoever arrives first
will not wait for the other for more than 15
Q. 18 Given the sequence of terms, AD CG FK minutes. The probability that they will meet on
JP the next term is that day is
(a) OV (b) OW 1 1
(a) 4 (b) 16
(c) PV (d) PW 7 9
(c) 16 (d) 16
Q. 19 Which of the following assertions are
CORRECT? Q. 23 Raju has 14 currency notes in his pocket
P. Adding 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the consisting of only Rs 20 notes and Rs 10 notes.
mean of the list The total money value of the notes is Rs 230.
Q: addling 7 to each entry in a list adds 7 to the The number of Rs 10 notes that Raju has is
standard deviation of the list (a) 5 (b) 6
R: Doubling each entry in a list leaves the (c) 9 (d) 10
standard deviation of the list unchanged
(a) P, Q (b) Q, R Q. 24 There are eight bags of rice looking alike,
(c) P, R (d) R, S seven of which have equal weight and one is
slightly heavier. The weighing balance is of
Q. 20 An automobile plant contracted to buy unlimited capacity. Using this balance, the
shock absorbers from two suppliers X and Y. X minimum number of weighing required to
supplies 60% and Y supplies 40% of the shock identify the heavier bag is

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(a) 2 (b) 3 Rent 2000

(c) 4 (d) 8 Savings 1500
Q. 25 The data given in the following table Others 1800
summarizes the monthly budget of an average
household The approximate percentage of the monthly
Category Amount budget NOT spent on savings is
Food 4000 (a) 10% (b) 14%
(c) 81% (d) 86%
Clothing 1200

GATE – 2013 Q. 31 From the data given below:

2010 2011
Q. 26 A number is as much greater than 75 as it
is smaller than 117. Then the number is Raw material 5200 6240
(a) 91 (b) 93 Power & fuel 7000 9450
(c) 89 (d) 96 Salary & wages 9000 12600
Plants & 20000 25000
Q. 27 A reduction of 5% in price of sugar machinery 15000 19500
enables a housewife to buy 3 kg more for Rs. Advertising 22000 26400
280. Find the reduce price. Research &
(a) 4.67/kg (b) 5.5/kg development
(c) 3.33/kg (d) 7.76/kg
Which one of the following increased by same
Q. 28 X and Y are two positive real numbers, percentage in year 2010-2011?
satisfying the equations (a) Raw material and salary & wages
2𝑥 + 𝑦 ≤ 6, 𝑥 + 2𝑦 ≤ 8 (b) Salary & wages and advertising
For which values of (x, y) the function f(x, y) = 3x (c) Power & fuel and Advertising
+ 6y will give maximum value (d) Raw material and research & development
(a) 4/3, 10/3 (b) 8/3, 20/3
(c) 8/3, 10/3 (d) 4/3, 20/3 Q. 32 what will be the maximum sum of 44, 42,
40………
Q. 29 A firm is selling its product at Rs 60/unit. (a) 502 (b) 504
The total cost of production is Rs 100 and film is (c) 506 (d) 500
earning total profit of Rs 500, later the total
cost increased by 30%. By what percentage Q. 33 Out of all 2-digit integers between 1 and
selling price per unit should be increased to 100, a 2-digit number has to be selected at
maintain the same profit percentage. random. What is the probability that the
(a) 5 (b) 15 selected number is not divisible by 7?
(c) 10 (d) 30 (a) 13/90 (b) 12/90
(c) 78/90 (d) 77/90
Q. 30 Abhishek is elder to Savan, Savan is
younger to Anshul. The correct relations is Q. 34 A tourist covers half of this journey by
(a) Abhishek is elder to Anshul train at 60 km/hr, half of the remainder by bus
(b) Anshul is elder to abhishek at 30 km/hr and the rest by cycle at 10 km/hr.
(c) Abhishek and Anshul are of same age the average speed of the tourist in km/hr during
(d) No conclusion can be drawn his entire journey is

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(a) 36 (b) 30 (a) 40 (b) 43

(c) 24 (d) 18 (c) 46 (d) 49

Q. 35 Find the sum of the expression Q. 38 find the sum upto n terms of the series
1 1 1 10 + 84 + 734 + …..
+ + +⋯ 9(9n +1) 9(9n −1)
√1 + √2 √2 + √3 √3 + √4 (a) +1 (b) +1
1 10 8
+ 9(9n −1) 9(9n −1)
(c) +n (d) + n2
√80 + √81 8 8
(a) 7 (b) 8
(c) 9 (d) 10 Q. 39 The set of values of p for which the roots
of the equation 3x 2 + 2x + p(p − 1) = 0 are of
Q. 36 The current erection cost of a structure is opposite sign is
Rs 13,200. if the labour wages per day increase (a) (−∞, 0) (b) (0, 1)
by 1/5 of the current wages and the working (c) (1, ∞) (d) (0, ∞)
hours decrease by 1/24 of the current period
then the new cost of erection in Rs, is Q. 40 A cars travels 8 km in the first quarter of
(a) 16,500 (b) 15,180 an hour, 6 km in the second quarter and 16 km
(c) 11,000 (d) 10,120 in the third quarter. The average speed of the
car in km per hour over the entire journey is
Q. 37 In the summer of 2012, in new Delhi, the (a) 30 (b) 36
mean temperature of Monday to Wednesday (c) 40 (d) 24
was 410C and of Tuesday to Thursday was 430C.
If the temperature on Thursday was 15% higher Q. 41 What is the chance that a leap year,
than that of Monday, then the temperature in selected at random, will contain 53 Saturdays?
0
C on Thursday was. (a) 2/7 (b) 3/7
(c) 1/7 (d) 5/7

GATE-2014 tones. What is the cost of production in Rs. per

ton for a daily production of 100 tones?
Q.42 Rajan was not happy that Sajan decided
to do the project on his own. On observing his Q.44 Find the odd one in the following group:
unhappiness, Sajan explained to Rajan that he ALRVX, EPVZB, ITZDF, OYEIL
preferred to work independently. (a) ALRVX (b) EPVZB
Which one of the statements below is logically (c) ITZF (d) OYEIK
valid and can be inferred from the above
sentences? Q.45 Anuj, bhola, chandan, dilip, eswar and
(a) Rajan has decided to work only in a group. Faisal live on different floors in a six-storeyed
(b) Rajan and sajan were formed into a group bylining (the ground floor is numbered 1, the
against their wishes. floor above it 2 and so on). Anuj lives on an
(c) Sajan had decided to give in to rajan’s even-numbered floor. Bhola does not live on an
request to work wishes. odd numbered floor; bhola does not live on an
(d) Rajan had believed that sajan and he would odd numbered floor. Chandan does not live on
be working together. any of the floors below Faisal’s florr. Dilip does
not live on floor number 2. Eswar does not live
Q.43 A foundry has a fixed daily cost of Rs. 50, on a floor immediately above or immediately
000 whenever it operates and a variable cost of below bhola. Faisal lives three floors above
Rs. 800Q, where Q is the daily production in

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

dilip. Which of the following floor- person

combinations is correct?
Anu Bhol chanda dili eswa fais
j a n p r al
(a 6 2 5 1 3 4
)
(b 2 6 5 1 3 4
)
(c 4 2 6 3 1 5
)
(d 2 4 6 1 3 5
)

Q.46 The smallest angle of a triangle is equal to

two thirds of the smallest angle of a (i) On average, it rains more in July than in
quadrilateral. The ratio between the angles of December
the quadrilateral is 3:4:5:6. The largest angle of (ii) Every year, the amount of rainfall in august
the triangle is twice its smallest angel. What is is more than that in January
the sum, in degrees, of the second largest angle (iii) July rainfall can be estimated with better
of the triangle and the largest angle of the confidence than February rainfall
quadrilateral? (iv) In august, there is at least 500 mm of
rainfall
Q.47 One percent of the people of country X (a) (i) and (ii) (b) (i) and (iii)]
are taller than 6 ft. two percent of the people of (c) (ii) and (iii) (d) (iii) and (iv)
country Y are taller than 6 ft. there are thrice as
many people in country X as in country. Taking CE, IN (Online Exam) Set: II
both countries together, what is the percentage Q. 49 Which of the following options is the
of people taller than 6 ft? closest in meaning to the sentence below?
(a) 3.0 (b) 2.5 ‘As a woman, I have no country.”
(c) 1.5 (d) 1.25 (a) Woman have no country
(b) Woman is not citizens of any country.
Q.48 The monthly rainfall chart based on 50 (c) Women’s solidarity knows no national
years of rainfall in Agra is shown in the boundaries.
following figure. Which of the following are (d) Women of all countries have equal legal
true? (K percentile is the value such that k rights.
percent of the data fall below that value)
Q.50 In any given year, the probability of an
earthquake greater than magnitude 6 occurring
in the Garhwali Himalayas is 0.04. The average
time between successive occurrences of such
earthquakes is …..Years.

Q.51 The population of a new city is 5 million

and is growing at 20 % annually. How many
years would it ake to double at this growth
rate?
(a) 3-4 years (b) 4-5 years
(c) 5-6 years (d) 6-7 years

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Q.52 In a group of four children, some is kilogram to the revenue generated through
younger to raiz. Shiv is elder to ansu. ansu is export of item 4 per kilogram?
youngest in the group. Which of the following
statements is/are required to find the eldest
child in the group?
Statements
1. Shiv is younger to riaz
2. Shiv is elder to Som.
(a) Statement 1 by itself determines the eldest
child.
(b) Statement 2 by itself determines the eldest (a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1
child. (c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1
(c) Statement 2 by and are both required
determining the eldest child. Q.55 X is 1 km northeast of Y. Y is 1 km
(d) Statements 1 and 2 are not sufficient to southeast of Z. W is 1 km west of Z. P is 1 km
determine the eldest child. south of W. Q is 1 km east of P. what is the
distance between X and Q in km?
Q.53 Moving into a world of big data will (a) 1 (b) √2
require us to change our thinking about the
(c) √3 (d) 2
merits of exactitude. to apply the conventional
mindset of measurement to the digital, Q.56 10% of the population in a town is HIV+. A
connected world of the twenty-first century is new diagnostic kit for HIV detection is available;
to miss a crucial point. As mentioned earliear, this kit correctly identifies HIV+ individuals 95%
the obsession with exactness is an artifact of of the time, and HIV- individuals 89% of the
the information deprived analog era. When time. A particular patient is tested using this kit
data was sparse, every data point was critical, and is found to be positive. The probability that
and thus great care was taken to avoid letting the individual is actually positive is………….
any point bias the analysis. From “BIG DATA “
viktor mayer- schonberger and Kenneth cukier ME, EC (online Exam) set: I – IV
The main point of the Kenneth cukier Q.57 Read the statement:
() the twenty-first century is a digital world All women are entrepreneurs.
(b) Big data is obsessed with exactness Some women are doctors.
(c) Exactitude is not critical in dealing with big Which of the following conclusions can be
data logically inferred from the above statements?
(d) Sparse data leads to a bias in the analysis (a) All women are doctors
(b) All doctors are entrepreneurs
Q.54 The total exports and revenues from the
(c) All entrepreneurs are women
exports of the country are given in the two pie
(d) Some entrepreneurs are doctors
charts below. The pie chart for exports shows
the quantity of each item as a percentage of the Q.58 The statistics of runs scored in a series by
total quantity of exports, the pie chart for the four batsmen are provided in the following
revenues shows the percentage of the total table.
revenue generated through export of each Who is the most consistent batsman of these
item. The total quantity of exports of all the four?
items is 5 lakh tones and the total revenues ar
Batsman Average Standard Deviation
250 crore rupees. What is the ratio of the
K 31.2 5.21
revenue generated through export of item 1 per
L 46.0 6.35

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

M 54.4 6.22 Q.66 In a sequence of 12 consecutive odd

N 17.9 5.90 numbers the sum of the first 5 numbers is 425,
what is the sum of the last 5 number is the
(a) K (b) L sequence?
(c) M (d) N
Q.67 Find the odd one from the following
Q.59 What is the next number in the series? group:
12 35 81 173 357… WEKO IQWA FNTX NVBD
(a) WEKO (b) IQWA
Q.60 Regular die has six sides with numbers 1 (c) FNTX (d) NVBD
to 6 marked on its sides. if a very large number
of throes show the following frequencies of Q.68 For submitting tax returns, all resident
occurrence; males with annual income below Rs 10 lakh
1->0.167; 2->0.167; 3->0.152:4->0.166:5- should fill up form P and all resident females
>0.168:6->0.180. with income below Rs 8 lakh should fill up form
We call this die Q. All people with incomes above Rs 10 lakh
(a) irregular (b) Biased should fill up form R, except non residents with
(c) Gaussian (d) Insufficient income above Rs 15 lakhs, who should fill up
Form S. All others should fill form T. An example
Q.61 Fill in the missing number in the series. of a person who should fill form T is
2 3 6 15 -?- 157.5 630 (a) a resident male with annual income Rs 9
lakh
Q.62 “India is a country of rich heritage and (b) a resident female with annual income Rs 9
cultural diversity”. Which one of the following lakh
facts best supports the claim made in the above (c) a non – resident male with annual income Rs
sentence? 16 lakh
(a) India is a union of 28 states and 7 union (d) a non –resident female with annual income
territories. Rs 16 lakh
(b) India has a population of over 1.1 billion.
(c) India is home to 22 official languages and Q.69 A tain that is 280 metres long, travelling
thousands of dialects. at a uniform speed, crosses a platform in 60
(d) The Indian cricket team draws players from seconds and passes a man standing on the
over ten states. platform in 20 seconds. What is the length of
the platform in metres?
Q.63 The next term in the series 81, 54, 36, 24
….is Q.70 The exports and imports (in croes of Rs. of
a country from 2000 to 2007 are given in the
Q.64 In which of the following options will the following bar chatt. if the trade deficit is defined
expression P < M be definitely true? as excess of imports over exports, in which year
(a) M < R > P > S (b) M > S < P < F it is the trade deficit 1/5th of the exports?
(c) Q < M < F = P (d) P = A < R < M

Q.65 Let f = (x, y) = x n y m = P. if x is

doubled and y is halved, the new value of f is
(a) 2𝑛−𝑚 𝑃 (b) 2𝑚−𝑛 𝑃
(c) 2 (n – m) P (d) 2(m – n) P

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

consecutive even numbers is 87. What is the

sum of the smallest odd number and second
largest even number?

Q.75 The total exports and revenues from the

exports of a country are given in the two charts
shown below. The pie chart for exports shows
the quantity of each item exported as a
percentage of the total quantity of exports. The
pie chart for the revenues shows the
percentage of the total revenue generated
(a) 2005 (b) 2004 through export of each item. The total quantity
(c) 2007 (d) 2006 of exports of all the items is 500 thousand tones
and the total revenues are 250 crore rupees.
Q.71 you are given three coins: one has heads Which item among the following has generated
on both faces, the second has tails on both the maximum revenues per kg?
faces, and the third has a head on one face and
a tail on the other. You choose a coin at random
and toss it, and it comes up heads. The
probability that the other face is tails is
(a) 1/4 (b) 1/3
(c) 1/2 (d) 2/3

Q.72 Find the odd one in the following group

QWZB, BHKM, WCGJ, MSVX, (a) Item 2 (b) Item 3
(a) QWZB (b) BHKM (c) Item 6 (d) Item 5
(c) WCGJ (d) MSVX
Q.76 It takes 30 minutes to empty a half – full
Q.73 Lights of four colors (red, blue, green, tank by draining it at a constant rate. it is
yellow) are hung on a ladder. On every step of decided to simultaneously pump water into the
the ladder there are two lights, if one of the half-full tank while draining it. What is the rate
lights is red, the other light on that step will at which water has to be pumped is so that it
always be blue. If one of the lights on a step is gets fully filled in 10 minutes?
green, the other light on that step will always (a) 4 times the draining rate
be yellow. Which of the following statements is (b) 3 times the draining rate
not necessarily correct? (c) 2.5 times the draining rate
(a) The number of red lights is equal to the (d) 2 times the draining rate
number of blue lights
(b) The number of green lights is equal to the Q.77 Find the next tern in the sequence. 7G,
number of yellow lights 11K, 13M, ……….
(c) The sum of the red green lights is equal to
the sum of the yellow and blue lights Q.78 The multi-level hierarchical pie chart
(d) The sum of the red and blue lights is equal to shows the population of animals in reserve
the sum of the green and yellow lights forest. the correct conclusions from this
information are:
Q.74 The sum of eight consecutive odd
numbers is 656. The average of four

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(i) Butterflies are birds

Q.81 A batch of one hundred bulbs is inspected
(ii) There are more tigers in this forest than red
by testing four randomly chosen bulbs. The
ants
batch is rejected if even one of the bulbs is
(iii) All reptiles in this forest are either snakes or
defective. A batch typically has five defective
crocodiles
bulbs. The probability that the current batch is
(iv) Elephants are the largest mammals in this
accepted is ……….
forest
(a) (i) and (ii) only (b)
Q.82 Find the next term in the sequence;
(i), (ii) ,(iii) and (iv)
13M, 17Q, 19S, …
(c) (i), (iii) and (iv) only (d)
(a) 21W (b) 21V
(i), (ii) and (iii) only
(c) 23W (d) 23V
Q.79 A man can row at 8 km per hour in still
Q.83 if ‘KCLFTSB’ stands for ‘best of luck’ and
water, if it takes him thrice as long to row
‘SHSWDG’ stands for ‘good wishes’, which of
upstream, as to row downstream, then find the
the following indicates ‘ace the exam?
stream velocity in km per hour.
(a) MCHTX (b) MXHTC
(c) XMHCT (d) XMHTC
Q.80 A firm producing air purifiers sold 200
units in 2012. The following pie chart presents
Q.84 Industrial consumption of power doubles
the share of raw material, labor, energy, plant&
from 2000-2001 to 2010-2011. Find the annual
machinery, and transportation costs in the total
rate of increase in percent assuming it to be
manufacturing cost of the firm in 2012. The
uniform over the years.
expenditure on labor in 2012 is Rs. 4, 50, 000. In
(a) 5.6 (b) 7.2
2013, the raw material expenses increased by
(c) 10.0 (d) 12.2
30% and all other expenses increased by 20%. If
The Company registered a profit of Rs. 10 lakhs Q.85 A five digit number is formed using the
in 2012, at what price (in Rs) was each air digits 1,3,5,7 and 9 without repeating any of
purifier sold? them what is the sum of all such possible five
digit numbers?
(a) 6666660 (b) 6666600
(c) 6666666 (d) 6666606

1 2 1
Q. 86 if (z + z) = 98, compute (z 2 + z2 )

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Q.87 The roots of 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏𝑥 + 𝑥 = 0 are real (a) Strategies are now available for eliminating
and positive a, b and c are real. psychiatric illness.
Then 𝑎𝑥 2 + 𝑏|𝑥| + 𝑐 = 0 has. (b) Certain psychiatric illness has a genetic
(a) No roots (b) 2 real roots basis.
(c) 3 real roots (d) 4 real roots (c) All human disease can be traced back to
genes and how they are expressed.
Q.88 What is the average of all multiples of 10 (d) In the future, genetics will become the only
from 2 to 198? relevant field for identifying psychiatric illness.
(a) 90 (b) 100
(c) 110 (d) 120 Q.93 Round – trip tickets to a tourist
destination are eligible for a discount of 10% on
the total fare. In addition, groups of 4 or more
Q.89 The value of √12 + √12 + √12 + ⋯ 𝑖𝑠 get a discount of 5% on the total fare. if the one
(a) 3.464 (b) 3.932 way single person fare is Rs. 100, a group of 5
(c) 4.000 (d) 4.444 tourists purchasing round trip tickets will be
charged Rs……..
Q.90 Which number does not belong in the
series below? Q.94 in a survey, 300 respondents were asked
2, 5, 10, 17, 26, 37, 50, 64 whether they own a vehicle or not. If yes, they
(a) 17 (b) 37 were further asked to mention whether they
(c) 64 (d) 26 own a car or scooter or both. Their responses
are ablated below. What percent of
Q.91 The table below has question wise data respondents do not own a scooter?
on the performance of students in an Men Women
examination. The marks for each question are Car 40 34
also listed. There is no negative or partial Own vehicle Scooter 30 20
marking in the examination.
Both 60 46
Q. Mark Answere Answere Not
No s d d Attempte Do not own vehicle 20 50
. Correctly Wrongly d
1 2 21 17 6 Q.95 When a point inside of a tetrahedron (a
2 3 15 27 2 solid with four triangular surfaces) is connected
by straight lines to corners, how many (ne)
3 2 23 18 3
internal planes are created with these lines?
What is the average of the marks obtained by Q.96 If x is real and |𝑥 2 − 2𝑥 + 3| = 11, then
the class in the examination? possible values of |−𝑥 3 + 𝑥 2 − 𝑥| include
(a) 1.34 (b) 1.74 (a) 2, 4 (b) 2, 14
(c) 3.02 (d) 3.91 (c) 4, 52 (d) 14, 52
Q.92 Geneticists say that are very close to Q.97 The ratio of male to female students in a
confirming the genetic roots of psychiatric college for five years is plotted in the following
illnesses such as depression and schizophrenia, line graph. If the number of female students
and consequently, that doctors will be able to doubled in 2009, by what percent did the
eradicate these diseases through early number of male students increase in 2009?
identification and gene therapy.
On which of the following assumptions dose the
statements above rely?

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

come at 9.00 am. All other should come at

10.00 am.

Q.100 By the beginning of the 20th century,

several hypotheses were being proposed,
suggesting a paradigm shift in our
understanding of the universe. However, the
clinching evidence was provided by
experimental measurements of the position of a
star which was directly behind out sun.
Q.98 At what time between 6 a.m. and 7 a.m. Which of the follow inference (s) may be drawn
will the minute hand and hour hand of a clock from the above passage?
make an angle hand of a clock make an angle (i) Out understanding of the universe changes
closest to 600? based on the positions of stars
(a) 6.22 a.m. (b) 6.27 a. m. (ii) Paradigm shifts usually occur at the
(c) 6.38 a.m (d) 6.45 a.m beginning of centuries
(iii) Stars are important objects in the universe
Q.99 A dance program me is scheduled for 10, (iv) Experimental evidence was important in
00 a.m. some students are participating in the confirming this paradigm shift
program me and they need to come an hour (a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (iii) only
earlier than the start of the event. These (c) (i) and (iv) (d) (iv) only
students should be accompanied by a parent.
Other students and parents should come in Q.101 The gross domestic product (GDP) in
time for the program me. The instruction you Rupees grew at 7% during 2012-2013. For
think that is appropriate for is international comparison, the GDP is compared
(a) Students should come at 9.00 am and in US Dollars (USD) after conversion based on
parents should come at 10.00 am. the market exchange rate. During the period
(b) Participating students should come at 9.00 2012-2013 the exchange rate for the USD
am accompanied by a parent, and other parents increased from Rs. 50/USD to Rs. 60/USD.
and students should come by 10.00 am. India’s GDP in USD during the period 2012-
(c) Students who are not participating should 2013.
come by 10. Am they should not bring their (a) Increased by 5%
parent. Participating students should come at (b) Decreased by 13%
9.00 am. (c) Decreased by 20%
(d) Participating students should come before (d) Decreased by 11%
9.00 am. Parents who accompany them should

GATE-2015 corresponding electricity consumption are

shown in the table below.
102. An electric bus has onboard instruments St Cu Ele
that report the total electricity consumed since re mul ctri
the start of the trip as well as the total distance tc ativ city
covered. During a single day of operation, the h e Use
bus travels on stretches M.N, O and P in that Dist d
order. The cumulative distances travelled and anc (k
the corresponding distances travelled and the e Wh

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

(km ) 108. Choose the most appropriate word from

) the options given below to complete the
M 20 12 following sentence.
N 45 25 The athlete had wanted to come first in the
O 75 45 race, he…………………. several hours every day.
P 100 57 (a) Should practice
(b) Should have practiced
The stretch where the electricity consumption: I (c) Practiced
per km is minimum (d) Should be practicing
(a) M (b) N
(c) O (d) P 109. If x > y > 1, which of the following must be
true?
103. What is the adverb for the given word I. lnx > lny II. 𝑒 𝑥 > 𝑒 𝑦
𝑥 𝑦
below? III. 𝑦 > 𝑥 Iv. cos x > cos y
Misogynous (a) I and ii (b) I and iii
(a) Misogynousness (b) Misogynity (c) iii and iv (d) ii and iv
(c)Misogynously (d) Misogynous
110. Choose the most suitable one word
104. Choose the appropriate word/phrase, out substitute for the following expression.
of the four options given below to complete the Connotation of a road or way
following sentence: (a) Pertinacious (b) Viaticum
Dhoni, as well as the other team members of (c) Clandestine (d) Ravenous
Indian team ………………present on the
occasion. 111. Find the missing sequence in the letter
(a) Were (b) Was series below:
(c) Has (d) Have A, CD, GHI, ? UVWXY
(a) LMN (b) MNO
105. Choose the word most similar in meaning (c) MNOP (d) NOPQ
to the given word:
Awkward 112. Fill in the blank with the correct
(a) Inept (b) Graceful idiom/phrase.
(c) Suitable (d) Dreadful That boy from the town was a …………….. in the
sleepy village.
106. Ram and Ramesh appeared in an interview (a) Dog out of herd (b) Sheep from
for two vacancies in the same department. The the heap
probability of ram’s selection is 1/6 and that of (c) Fish out of water (d) Bird from the
ramesh is 1/8 what is the probability that only flock
one of them will be selected?
47 1 113. Choose the appropriate word/ phase, out
(a) 48 (b) 4
13 35
of the four options given below, to complete
(c) 48 (d) 48 the following sentence.
Apparent lifelessness…………dormant lite.
107. Choose the correct verb to fill in the blank (a) Harbors (b) Lead to
below: (c) Supports (d) Affects
Let us………..
(a) Introvert (b) Alternate 114. Five teams have to compete in a league,
(c) Atheist (d) Altruist with every team playing every other team
exactly once, before going to the next round.

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

How may matches will have to be held to 118. A tiger in 50 leap of its own behind a deer.
complete the league round of matches? The tiger takes 5 leaps per minute to the deer’s
(a) 20 (b) 10 4. If the tiger and the deer cover 8 metre and 5
(c) 8 (d) 5 meter per leap respectively, what distance in
meters will the tiger have a run before it
115. Tanya is older than Eric. catches the deer? _____________________
Cliff is older than Tanya
Eric is older than cliff. 119. Given below are two statements followed
If the first two statements are true, then the by two conclusions. Assuming these statements
third statement is: to be true, decide which one logically follows.
(a) True (b) False Statement:
(c) Uncertain (d) Data insufficient i. All film stars are playback singers.
ii. All film directors are film stars.
116. Choose the statements where underlined Conclusions
word is used correctly i. All film directors are layback singers.
(a) When the teacher alludes to different ii. Some film stars are film directors
authors, he is being elusive (a) Only conclusion I follow
(b) When the thief keeps eluding the police, he (b) Only conclusion II follows
is being elusive (c) Neither conclusion I nor Ii follows
(c) Matters that are difficult to understand, (d) Both conclusions I and II follow
identify or remember are allusive
(d) Mirages can be allusive, but a better way to 120. IF a2 + b2 + c 2 = 1, then ab + bc + ac lies
express them is illusory in the interval
2 −1
(a) [1, 3] (b) [ 2 , 1]
117. Lamenting the gradual sidelining of the −1
arts in school curricula, a group of prominent (c) [−1, 2
] (d) [2, -4]
artists wrote to the chief minister last year,
asking him to allocate more funds to support 121. In the following sentence certain parts are
arts education in schools. However, no such underlined and marked P, Q and R. one of the
increase has been announced in this year’s parts may contain certain error or may not be
budget. The artists expressed their deep acceptable in standard written communication.
anguish at their request not being approved, Select the part containing an error. Choose D as
but many of them remain optimistic about your answer if there is no error.
funding in the future. 𝑎𝑙𝑙 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑒𝑟𝑟𝑜𝑟𝑠
𝑇ℎ𝑒 𝑠𝑡𝑢𝑑𝑒𝑛𝑡 𝑐𝑜𝑟𝑟𝑒𝑐𝑡𝑒𝑑
Which of the statement(s) below is/ logically 𝑃
valid and can be inferred from the above 𝑡ℎ𝑒 𝑖𝑛𝑠𝑡𝑟𝑢𝑐𝑡𝑜𝑟 𝑚𝑎𝑟𝑘𝑒𝑑
𝑡ℎ𝑎𝑡 𝑜𝑛 𝑡ℎ𝑒
statements? 𝑄
i. the artists expected funding for the arts to 𝑎𝑛𝑠𝑤𝑒𝑟 𝑏𝑜𝑜𝑏
increase this year. 𝑅
ii. The chief minister was receptive to the idea (a) P (b) Q
of increasing funding for the arts. (c) R (d) No Error
iii. The chief minister is a prominent artist.
iv. Schools are giving less importance to arts 122. Ms. X will be in Bagdogra from
education nowadays. 01/05/2014 to 20/05/2014 and from
(a) iii and iv (b) I and iv 22/05/2014 to 31/05/2014, on the morning of
(c) I, ii and iv (d) I and iii 21/05/2014 whe will reach Koch via Mumbai.

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Which one of the statement below is logically the following ways as given in the choices
valid and can be inferred from the above below. Identify the correct way as per Standard
sentences? English.
(a) Ms. X will be in Kochi for one day, only in (a) It would remain between you and me
may. (b) Ms. X will be in Kochi for only one (b) It would remain between I and you
day in May. (c) It would remain between you and I
(c) Ms. X will be only in Kochi for one day in (d) It would remain with me
May. (d) Only Ms. X will be in Kochi for one
day in May. 127. Select the appropriate option in place of
underlined part of the sentence.
123. Log tan 10 + log tan 20 + …+ log tan 890 is … Increased productivity necessary reflects
1
(a) 1 (b) greater efforts made by the employees.
√2
(a) Increase in productivity necessary
(c) 0 (d) -1
(b) Increase productivity is necessary
124. From a circular sheet of paper of radius 30 (c) Increase productivity is necessary
cm, a sector of 10% area is removed. If the (d) No improvement required
remaining part is used to make a conical
128. A coin is tossed thrice. Let X be the event
surface, then the ratio of the radius and height
that head occurs in each of the first two tosses,
of the cone is ______________
Let Y be the event that a tail occurs on the third
125. In the following questions, the first and toss. Let Z be the event that two tails occurs in
the last sentence of the passage are in order three tosses. Based on the above information
and numbered 1 and 6. The rest of the passage which one of the Based on the above
is split into 4 parts and numbered as 2, 3, 4 and information which one of the following
5. These 4 parts are not arranged in proper statements is TRUE?
order. Read the sentences and arrange them in (a) X and Y are not independent (b) Y and
a logical sequence to make a passage and Z are dependent
choose the correct sequence from the given (c) Y and Z are independent (d) X and
options. Z independent
1. On diwali, the family rises early in the
129. Right triangle PQR is to be constructed in
Moring.
the xy-plane so that the right angle is at P and
2. The whole family, including the youg and the
line PR is parallel to the –axis. The x and y
old enjoy doing this
coordinates of P, Q and R are to be integers that
3. Children let off fireworks later in the night
satisfy the inequities:
with their friends.
−4 ≤ 𝑥 ≤ 5 𝑎𝑛𝑑 6 ≤ 𝑦 ≤ 16 How many
4. At sunset, the lamps are lit and the family
different triangles could be constructed with
performs various rituals.
these properties?
5. Father, mother, and children visit relatives
(a) 110 (b) 1,100
and exchanges gifts and sweets.
(c) 9,900 (d) 10,000
6. Houses look so pretty with lighted lamps all
around
130. In the given figure angle Q is a right angle,
(a) 2, 5, 3, 4 (b) 5, 2, 4, 3
PS: QS = 3:1, RT: QT = 5:2 and PU: UR = 1:1. If
(c) 3, 5, 4, 2 (d) 4, 5, 2, 3
area of triangle QTS is 20 cm, then the area of
triangle PQR in cm2 is …
126. Ram and shy am shared a secret and
promised to each other that it would remain
between them. Ram expressed himself in one of

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Statements:
I. No manager is a leader
II. All leaders are executive.
Conclusions:
I. No manager is a executive.
II. All executive is a manager.
(a) Only conclusion I follow
(b) Only conclusion II follows.
(c) Neither conclusion I nor II follows
131. Given below are two statements followed (d) Both conclusion I and II follow.
by two conclusions. Assuming these statements
to be true, decide which one logically follows.

GATE-2016 (Chemical) Q.136 A window is made up of a square portion

and an equilateral triangle portion above it. The
Q.132 The volume of a sphere of diameter 1 base of the triangular portion coincides with the
unit is -----than the volume of a cube of side 1 upper side of the square. If the perimeter of the
unit. window is 6 m, the area of the window in m2 is--
(a) Least (b) less ---------
(c) lesser (d) low (A) 1.43 (b) 2.06
(c) 2.68 (d) 2.88
Q.133 The unruly crowd demanded that the
accused be---------------without trial. Q.137 Students taking an exam are divided into
(a) hanged (c) hanging two groups, P and Q such that each group has
(c) hankering (d) hung the same number of students. The performance
of each of the students in a test was evaluated
Q.134 choose the statement (s) where the out of 200 marks. It was observed that the
underlined word is used correctly: mean of group P was 105, while that of group Q
(i) A prone is a dried plum. was 85. The standard deviation of group P was
(ii) He was lying Prone on the floor. 25, while that of group Q was 5. Assuming that
(iii) People who eat a lot of fat are prone to the marks were distributed on a normal
heart disease. distribution, which of the following statements
(A) (i) and (iii) only (B) (iii) only will have the highest probability of being TRUE?
(C) (i) and (ii) only (D) (ii) and (iii) only (A) No student in group Q scored less marks
than any student in group P.
Q.135 Fact: if it rains, then the field is wet. (b) No student in group P scored less marks
Read the following statements: than any student in group Q.
(i) It rains (c) Most students of group Q scored marks in a
(ii) The field is not wet narrower range than students in group P.
(iii) The field is wet (d) The median of the marks of group P is 100.
(iv) It did not rain
Which one of the options given below is NOT Q.138 A smart city integrates all modes of
logically possible, based on the given fact? transport, uses clean energy and promotes
(a) If (ii), then (iv) (b) if (i), then (iii). sustainable use of resources. It also used
(c) If (i), then (ii) (d) if (ii), then (iv). technology to ensure safety and security of the

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

city, something which critics argue, will lead to

a surveillance state.
Which of the following can be logically inferred
from the above paragraph?
(i) All smart cities encourage the formation of
surveillance states.
(ii) Surveillance is an integral part of smart city.
(iii) Sustainability and surveillance go hand in
hand in a smart city.
(iv) There is a perception that smart cities
promote surveillance.
(A) (i) and (iv) only (B) (ii) and (iii) only
(C) (iv) only (D) (i) only

Q.139 Find the missing sequence in the letter

series.
B, FH, LNP, ----
(A) SUWY (B) TUVW
(C) TVXZ (D) TWXZ

Q.140 The binary operation is defined as

a b = ab + (a + b) , where a and b are any two
real numbers. The value of the identity element
of this operation, defined as the number x such
that a x = a, for any a is ……….
(A) 0 (B) 1
(C) 2 (D) 10

Q. 141 Which of the following curves represent

the function y = ln(|e[| sin(|x|)|] |) for |x| < 2𝜋?
Here, x represents the abscissa and y represents
the ordinate.

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

Answers
1. Number system

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (c) 7. (d) 8. (c) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (d) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15. (c)

2. Time and work

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (b) 12. (a) 12. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d)

3. Set theory

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (b) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11. (c) 12. (c) 13. (a)

4. Ratio and proportional

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (b) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16.
(c) 17.(a)

5. Percentages

1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (b) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (c)

6. Profit and loss

1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (c) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16.
(b)

7. Simple and compound interest

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (a) 4. (d) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (b)
17.(c) 18. (a)

8. Time, speed and distance

1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (c) 6. (b) 7. (b) 8. (b) 9. (d) 10. (a) 11. (a) 12. (a) 13. (a) 14. (a) 15. (c)

9. Permutation, combination and probability

1.(b) 2.(b) 3.(b) 4.(d) 5.(c) 6.(a) 7.(c) 8.(b) 9.(d) 10.(b) 11.(b) 12.(c) 13.(b) 14.(a) 15.(c)

10. Calendar

1.(a) 2.(c) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (d) 11. (c) 12. (c)

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 APTITUDE AND REASONING 2022-2023

11. Clocks

1. (b) 2. (d) 3. (c) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c)

12. Cubes, dice and directions

1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (a) 10. (a) 11 (c) 12. (d) 13. (b) 14. (d) 15. (d) 16. (c) 17.
(c) 18. (a) 19. (d) 20. (b)

13. Data interpretation

1.(c)2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (b) 8. (c) 9. (b) 10. (d) 11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (a) 16. (b) 17.
(b) 18. (b) 19. (a) 20. (d) 21. (c) 22. (d)

14. Seating Arrangement

1. (a) 2. (c) 3. (c) 4. (d) 5. (a) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (d)

15. Number series, analogy and number odd man out

1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (a) 6. (b) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (c) 10. (b) 11. (c) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (b) 15. (a) 16. (a) 17.
(b) 18. (d) 19. (b) 20. (c) 21. (b) 22. (c) 23. (b)

16. Letter series, analogy, letter odd man out and coding- decoding

1. (d) 2. (a) 3. (c) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (a) 10. (b) 11. (b) 12. (b) 13. (a) 14. (d) 15.(b) 16.
(c)17.(b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20.(b) 21. (b) 22. (a) 23. (a) 24. (b)

18. Previous Years GATE Questions

1. (d) 2. (c) 3. (d) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (b) 7. (d) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (c) 11. (a) 12. (c) 13. (c) 14. (b) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17.
(b) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b) 21. (d) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (a) 29. (d) 30. (d) 31. (d)
32. (c) 33. (d) 34. (c) 35. (b) 36. (b) 37. (c) 38. (d) 39. (b) 40. (c) 41. (a)

Aptitude and Reasoning (Rahul Agrahari) Page 40