Candidate Information Page

Candidate Name :………………………………………………

Contact No. :………………………………………………

Id Card No. :………………………………………………

Date of Joining :………………………………………………

 Message to the students
“Dear all,
These paragraphs do not make you understand how to study; neither do they market our
company. All they ask you is to care about yourself and your country.
After achieving your results with flying colors, you will fly to your dream destination: A
place which will test you, make you struggle but it will make you strong, independent and
accomplished. In the harshest circumstances or in the most wonderful moments, do not
forget your family, friends, teachers and most importantly your country. Always respect &
care about the values, traditions and culture of your country because you will define your
country for a significant time of its lifespan.
While studying abroad you may feel alone, you might struggle with studies and might
encounter other challenges but always remember, Thorny paths lead to the shades of the
beautiful spring. Even after giving your best, if you face failure, embrace it happily and
continue your hard work. Building a success requires the strong bases of failures, sacrifices
and disappointments.
Lastly, utilize your education & knowledge in making this world a better place. Help needy
people, value elders, grow tons of trees and always respect the valorous soldiers of your
country.”

- Team Elite
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Reading

Table of Contents

Sr. No. Category Page No.

1 Diagram Labelling 1

2 Flow chart completion 6

3 Summary Completion 16

4 Short questions 27

5 True, False & Not Given 35

6 Classification 44

7 Match the headings 55

8 Multiple choice Questions 67

9 Paragraph identification 79

10 Scientists categorization 88

11 Matching sentences 100

12 Selecting more than one responses from the list 111

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Diagram labeling
What is the task about?
In this type of tasks, you have to label the diagram using the information given in the
passage.

Challenges
 The main problem with these questions is students focus too much on the diagram
and try to understand everything about it. Unfamiliar diagrams can cause panic and
you lose your time. This is not a test of your technical knowledge but a test of your
reading skills. You should try to understand generally what is happening in the
diagram, but the relationship between the text and the diagram is more important.
 Another big problem is failing to locate the paragraphs that contain the answers
and losing time reading the whole text.
 Students also lose marks in this section by writing the wrong number of words or
by spelling words incorrectly.

How to do it?
TIPS EXPLANATION
Find out where
the information  That’s your primary task to locate the real information.
is?
 Check how many words you are supposed to write, it will tell you
in the question. Remember that numbers count as one word and
hyphenated words like ‘state-of-the-art’ count as one word.
How many  If you are supposed to write limited words and the answer exceeds
words? the word count then write the main or important words only.
 For example if your instructions say ‘ONE WORD ONLY’ and
your answer is ‘beautiful weather’ then just ignore beautiful and
write the main word which is weather.

Identify the part  Identify the type of word (noun, verb, adjective) you need. This
of speech will help you find the correct answer.

 The gaps [answers] might not be in sequence so find out the

Sequence
information accordingly.
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Exercise – 1

Leaves' structure

Plants play a very important role in our surroundings. Trees provide us with fresh air, shade
in summers, food, and other benefits without which we cannot even think of living.

One of the most principal organs of a tree is a leaf. The leaves are the organs
for photosynthesis- a process when carbon dioxide is turned into oxygen. The structures of
leaves are adapted for efficient photosynthesis.

Most leaves are broad and so have a large surface area allowing them to absorb more light.
Also, they are thin, which means a short distance for carbon dioxide to diffuse in and oxygen
to diffuse out easily. The blade is the broad, flat part of the leaf. Photosynthesis occurs in the
blade, which has many green food-making cells.

If you look closer at leaves, you will notice networks of thin threads. Those networks are
called veins: they support the structure of the leaf and transport substances to and from the
cells in the leaf. The main vein of a leaf, running down the centre of the leaf, is called midrib.

The area of some plants that connects the plant's stem and leaf is called the petiole. The
petiole is the pipeline through which the products of photosynthesis are moved from
individual leaves to the rest of a plant and through which necessary chemicals and nutrients
from other parts of the plant are brought to individual leave.

Choose NO MORE THAN ONE WORD from the text for each answer.

1. ………………….

2. ………………….

3. ………………….

4. ………………….
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Exercise – 2
The chicken egg
Chicken egg consists of six main parts: albumin, yolk, shell, germinal disc, chalaza and air cell. In
further paragraphs we will learn all the important information you need to know about these parts.

One of the main parts of the egg is yolk - the yellow, inner part of the egg where the embryo will form.
The yolk contains the food that will nourish the embryo as it grows. Yolk is a major source of vitamins,
minerals, almost half of the protein, and all of the fat and cholesterol. The yolk contains less water
and more protein than the white part of the egg, some fat, and most of the vitamins and minerals of
the egg. The yolk is also a source of lecithin, an effective emulsifier. Yolk color ranges from just a hint
of yellow to a magnificent deep orange, according to the feed and breed of the hen. Yolk is anchored
by chalaza - a spiral, rope-like strand that anchors the yolk in the thick egg white. There are two
chalazae anchoring each yolk; one on the top and one on the bottom.

Another very important part of the egg is the albumin, which is the inner thick white part of the egg.
This part of the egg is a excellent source of riboflavin and protein. In high-quality eggs, the inner thick
albumen stands higher and spreads less than thin white. In low-quality eggs, it appears thin white.

Now let's talk about the outer part of the egg - the shell. It is a hard, protective coating of the egg. It
is semi-permeable; it lets gas exchange occur, but keeps other substances from entering the egg. The
shell is made of calcium carbonate and is covered with as many as 17,000 tiny pores.

Air cell is an air space that forms when the contents of the egg cool and contract after the egg is laid.
The air cell usually rests between the outer and inner membranes at the eggs larger end. As the egg
ages, moisture and carbon dioxide leave through the pores of the shell, air enters to replace them and
the air cell becomes larger.

And last but not least, let's look at the germinal disc. It's a small, circular, white spot (2-3 mm across)
on the surface of the yolk; it is where the sperm enters the egg. The nucleus of the egg is in the
blastodisc. The embryo develops from this disk, and gradually sends blood vessels into the yolk to
use it for nutrition as the embryo develops.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

1. ………………..
2. ………………..
3. ………………..
4. ………………..
5. ………………..
6. ………………..
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Exercise – 3
Introducing dung beetles into a pasture is a simple process: approximately 1,500 beetles are released, a
handful at a time, into fresh cow pats2 in the cow pasture. The beetles immediately disappear beneath
the pats digging and tunnelling and, if they successfully adapt to their new environment, soon become
a permanent, self-sustaining part of the local ecology. In time they multiply and within three or four
years the benefits to the pasture are obvious.
Dung beetles work from the inside of the pat so they are sheltered from predators such as birds and
foxes. Most species burrow into the soil and bury dung in tunnels directly underneath the pats, which
are hollowed out from within. Some large species originating from France excavate tunnels to a depth
of approximately 30 cm below the dung pat. These beetles make sausage-shaped brood chambers along
the tunnels. The shallowest tunnels belong to a much smaller Spanish species that buries dung in
chambers that hang like fruit from the branches of a pear tree. South African beetles dig narrow tunnels
of approximately 20 cm below the surface of the pat. Some surface-dwelling beetles, including a South
African species, cut perfectly-shaped balls from the pat, which are rolled away and attached to the bases
of plants.
For maximum dung burial in spring, summer and autumn, farmers require a variety of species with
overlapping periods of activity. In the cooler environments of the state of Victoria, the large French
species (2.5 cms long), is matched with smaller (half this size), temperate-climate Spanish species. The
former are slow to recover from the winter cold and produce only one or two generations of offspring
from late spring until autumn. The latter, which multiply rapidly in early spring, produce two to five
generations annually. The South African ball-rolling species, being a sub-tropical beetle, prefers the
climate of northern and coastal New South Wales where it commonly works with the South African
tunneling species. In warmer climates, many species are active for longer periods of the year.

Choose the beetle type from the box and answer questions 1, 2 and 3
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Exercise – 4
The dissolution apparatus comprises several ‘U’ shaped vessels made by
borosilicate glass, which remain immersed in one water-bath. The temperature of
water-bath is kept 37°C with an acceptable difference of ± 0.5°C. Depending on
the type and capacity of the apparatus, vessels may range from 1 to 8. The
solution which represents the stomach environment, usually acidic pH solution is
filled in vessels. The stainless steel shaft is immersed in vessels and then rotated
at several RPM. These shafts are modified according to the type of formulation
being tested. The dissolution apparatuses are classified according to the type of
shafts and the type of formulation being tested.

The apparatus is turned on and water in water-bath is allowed to reach at 37°C

with an acceptable difference of ± 0.5°C. Following to this, the formulation,
capsule or tablet for instance, is placed in the vessel. In case of the specialized
or unique formulations like pastes and powders, a shaft is modified to hold the
formulation in place. After specific time, the formulation starts to dissolve in
acidic pH solution. From this solution, samples are withdrawn at specific time
intervals and tested by various analytical instruments. The analytical data derived
from instruments is plotted on graph, which provides the dissolution profile of
the medicine inside the formulation.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the text for each answer.

2
1. ………………
4 11
2. ………………

3. ………………

3 4. ………………
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Flow chart completion

What is the task about?

Flow chart completion as the name suggests asks you to fill in the blanks using some
specific number of words. These questions are usually related to some procedures
which are mentioned in passage.

Challenges
 This task is comparatively easy if you can identify the information you are looking
for.
 If the task asks the information from the specific part of the passage then it is
comparatively easy but if the flow chart asks the information from the entire
passage then you might have to read a lot.
 Just like any other task, in this task too, students get confused with synonyms.

How to do it?

TIPS EXPLANATION
 If the information is from a specific part of the task then find out
Find out where? that part, if the flow chart requires comprehensive reading then
skim the text quickly to get overall information.
 The flowchart provides stages and links that should be matched
Understand the
with the order in which events happen in the reading text. Read
order of a
each stage and identify key words and note the links between
process
stages.
Question is in  The information in flow charts and diagrams is usually in note
the note form form rather than full sentences. So, you should write key words.

Word count  Make sure you read the word count instructions properly.
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Exercise – 1

The best-studied candidate for a caloric-restriction mimetic, 2DG (2-deoxy-D-glucose), works

by interfering with the way cells process glucose. It has proved toxic at some doses in animals
and so cannot be used in humans. But it has demonstrated that chemicals can replicate the
effects of caloric restriction; the trick is finding the right one.
Cells use the glucose from food to generate ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the molecule that
powers many activities in the body. By limiting food intake, caloric restriction minimizes the
amount of glucose entering cells and decreases ATP generation. When 2DG is administered
to animals that eat normally, glucose reaches cells in abundance but the drug prevents most
of it from being processed and thus reduces ATP synthesis. Researchers have proposed
several explanations for why interruption of glucose processing and ATP production might
retard aging.
One possibility relates to the ATPmaking machinery’s emission of free radicals, which are
thought to contribute to aging and to such age-related diseases as cancer by damaging cells.
Reduced operation of the machinery should limit their production and thereby constrain the
damage. Another hypothesis suggests that decreased processing of glucose could indicate to
cells that food is scarce (even if it isn’t) and induce them to shift into an anti-aging mode that
emphasizes preservation of the organism over such ‘luxuries’ as growth and reproduction.

Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.

How a caloric-restriction mimetic works

CR mimetic
↓
Less [1] ………… is processed
↓
Production of ATP is decreased

Theory 1: Theory 2:
cells less damaged by disease The cell focuses on [3] ……………..
because fewer [2] …………… are because food is in short supply
emitted
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Exercise – 2
Careers with Kiwi Air
Flight Attendants – Recruitment and Training Process Recruitment
The position of Flight Attendant is one of prestige and immense responsibility.
Recruitment is conducted according to operational demands and there can be periods of
up to 12 months where no new intake is required. However, applications are always
welcomed.
After you submit your initial application online, the Kiwi Air HR Services Team review
the details you have provided. Candidates whose details closely match the requirements
of the position are then contacted via email advising that their application has progressed
to the next stage of the recruitment process. Potential candidates are then asked to attend
a Walk-In Day. This could occur several weeks or months after the original application
has been submitted depending on current needs.
The Walk-In Day consists of a brief presentation about the role and a short interview.
Candidates who are successful on the Walk-In Day are notified within 10 days and invited
to attend an Assessment Centre. Please note that candidates are required to pass a
swimming test before attending the Assessment Centre. At the Assessment Centre,
candidates attend an interview as well as participating in a number of assessments.
Verbal references are then requested, and candidates attend a medical check.
At times, there may not be a need to recruit for Flight Attendant positions. However, the
company continuously maintains a ‘recruitment pool’ of those who have completed the
Assessment Centre stage. These candidates are contacted when a need for Flight
Attendants is established, and attend a full interview before a decision is made on
whether to extend an offer of employment.
Due to the volume of applications received, Kiwi Air is not able to offer verbal feedback
to candidates at any stage of the recruitment process. Unsuccessful candidates may
reapply at any time after 12 months from the date at which their applications are
declined0.
Training
Upon being offered a role as a trainee Flight Attendant, a 5-week training course is
undertaken at our In-flight Services Training Centre in Auckland. This covers emergency
procedures, customer care and service delivery, and equipment knowledge. To
successfully complete the course, high standards must be attained and maintained in all
subjects.
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Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the text for each answer.

Flight attendants of Kiwi Air – Recruitment and Training Process

Candidates go online to complete their [1]. …………………. .

Suitable candidates are then invited to come to a [2]. ……………….. .

After having satisfactorily completed a [3]. ………………… , successful candidates will

then go to an Assessment Centre.

Kiwi Air then asks for [4]. …………….…… and candidates are required to undergo a
medical check.

If there is no immediate need for flight attendants, successful candidates are put into
a [5]. ………….……….

When the need arises, these candidates will then be given a [6]. …………………. ,
after which they may be offered a job.

On starting the job, a 5-week training program is given which includes how to look
after passengers and what to do in an [7]. ……………………
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Exercise – 3
You Want Any Fruit with That Big Mac?
McDonald's buys so much food that its product decisions affect United States farmers.
Each day, 50,000 shiny red, Gala apples work their way through a sprawling factory
in Swedesboro, New Jersey, where 26 mechanics wash them, core them, peel them,
seed them slice them and chill them. At the end of the line, they are dunked in a
solution of calcium acerbate and then deposited into green bags featuring a jogging
Ronald McDonald. The bags make their way in refrigerated trucks to cavernous
distribution centers and then to thousands of McDonald's restaurants in the eastern
United States. No more than 14 days after leaving the plant, the fruit will take the place
of French fries in some child's Happy Meal.
The apple slices, called Apple Dippers, are a symbol of how McDonald's is trying to
offer healthier foods to its customers. McDonald's has also introduced 'premium
salads' that will soon be joined by a salad of grapes, walnuts - and, of course, apples.
No one knows whether these new offerings will assuage the concerns of public health
officials and other critics of McDonald's highly processed fat- and-calorie-laden
sandwiches, drinks and fries. So far they have not entirely done so. But this much is
already clear: just as its hamburgers and French fries have made McDonald's the
largest buyer of beef and potatoes in America, its new focus on fresh fruits and
vegetables is making it a major player in the $ 80 billion American produce industry.

Complete the flow chart with NOT MORE THAN TWO WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER.

Slices dipped in 1____________

and deposited into bags

Transpirations in 2__________
to distribution center

Fruits eaten within 3__________

of leaving factory
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Exercise – 4

Outside of salted food storage, the ancient Egyptians are famous for their perfection of the
art of mummification. A key ingredient in the process was natrun, which is a natural
mixture of halite, trona and sodium sulphate. The ancients knew its preservative properties
as it readily absorbs water, making it an excellent desiccant/preservative of organic
material. Natrun is found in large quantities in the beds of several Egyptian playa lakes. It
has been mined and traded from such localities for thousands of years. There is some
evidence that the ancient Egyptians artificially precipitated natrun by isolating shallow
basins of salt lake waters for faster evaporation, as is still done in parts of the Faiyum
depression today. For purification and preservation, natrun was preferred over pure halite
as it chemically attacks and destroys grease and fat, and so is a superior drying agent (as is
sodium borate). Its residues are found not only in tombs and in pits, along with other
discarded embalming materials, but also forms nodules and residues in the mummies
themselves.
The mummies of some Buddhist monks (Sokushinbutsu sect) in Japan resulted from the
practise of nyūjō, which ultimately aimed to cause their own death and mummification by
encasement in salt. This ritual took years to complete and involved starvation and
dehydration. During the first three years, an ascetic monk significantly decreased his body
fat by eating only nuts, seeds, and berries, while he increased his physical activity. Towards
the end of the ritual the monk reduced his food intake even further by only consuming bark,
roots, and sometimes stones. Post-mortem preservation was further aided by consumption
of toxic herbs and tea that eliminated bodily fluids and killed bacteria that aid in
decomposition. Japanese Sokushinbutsu monks were known to drink a tea made from the
urushi tree, also known as the Chinese lacquer tree because it’s sap is used to lacquer
tableware, instruments, and jewellery.
After years of starvation and dehydration, when the monk felt like he was close to death,
his fellow monks arranged his body in the lotus position inside a coffin or a tomb. Then
they surrounded the dying man with salt, wood, paper, or lime to pull more moisture away
from the body and further prevent post-mortem decay. Only a small opening for air was
allowed when the tomb was closed. The monk then chanted, meditated and occasionally
rang a bell until he died.
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Complete the flowchart with NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

The mummies of Buddhist monks

The process in which the Japanese monk causes his death by (1)……………………

This is a ritual which took a long period of time and involved starvation and
dehydration.

A strict diet and (2)…………….... helped a monk in reducing the body fat.

After a considerable weight loss, the monk switched to stricter diet which included
even stones. One of the goals of toxic herb consumption was to remove
(3)……………….. which facilitates decay of the body.

After the prolonged starvation and dehydration, when the monk was close to death,
the monk’s body was kept in the tomb in (4)…………………

To remove additional (5)………………., paper, lime and salt were used. The tomb
was then closed leaving only a small opening for (6)…………………

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Exercise – 5
Memory
We’ll begin our discussion of memory with a comprehensive and influential model of how
human memory works. The model is called the modal model and was developed by
Atkinson and Shiffrin (1968) to describe how information is encoded, stored, and retrieved
from memory. The model is not the only one proposed and models have since become even
more complex and specific, but this model will help you understand some of the important
processes that are part of our memory, as well as introduce some of the major terms and
concepts important for understanding how memory works.
The first part of the model involves sensory input from the environment in the form of
stimuli that we encounter in our everyday lives. For example, suppose that you are having
a conversation with a friend. Your senses automatically register everything in the
environment in different ways. You can hear what your friend is saying to you, the cars
passing by the street, and the chirps of the birds flying overhead. You can see your friend
standing in front of you, the people passing by behind, and the building even further in the
distance. You can smell the mulch in the planter, your friend’s cologne, and the sawdust
from a construction site.
All of this information is registered in sensory stores, each compartmentalized by mode:
visual, auditory and haptic, according to Atkinson and Shiffrin. These sensory stores hold
the information for a very short period of time (e.g., a few seconds) and then the information
is either sent to a short-term store or disappears to make room for new information as it
comes in. This is necessary, because we are constantly bombarded with new information
and if this was all stored in our memory for more than a few seconds, we would quickly
run out of storage space. Information that gets processed in some way (e.g., we pay
particular attention to it or we rehearse it) is forwarded from the sensory stores to the short-
term store. This also has a limited capacity, but the capacity can be increased by storing
information in different ways (e.g., organization strategies).
The short-term store can hold information for up to about a minute, but this time limit can
also be increased by certain techniques (e.g., rehearsal). For example, suppose you call the
operator for a phone number you want. The operator gives you the phone number, but you
have nothing to write it on before you redial. What do you do? Well, one obvious strategy
is to repeat the number to yourself over and over. You are rehearsing the number and
keeping it in the short-term store until you need to dial it (called response output from the
short-term store).
If you were to rehearse the number for a long time, it might get stored in a more permanent
place in memory called the long-term store. According to Atkinson and Shiffrin, the long-
term store is the place in our memory where information can be held for long periods of
time (minutes up to many years). This does not mean that information can always be
accessed from the long-term store.
There are many factors that contribute to our ability to retrieve memories. According to the
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moved into the short-term store for a response output. This process can be aided or
impeded, depending on the way in which we try to retrieve the memory. But because the
retrieval process involves moving the information back to the short-term store, a response
needs to be made within about a minute or else it will be lost from your memory.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.

INPUT FROM THE ENVIRONMENT

1. You 2. You can……………. 3. You can…………..

can……………….

4. ……………………... 5. …………………….. 6. ……………………

Information held for 7. ………………………….

8. ……………………..

Response Output

Information held for 9. ……………………….

10. …………………..

Information held for 11. ………………………..

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Exercise – 6
Any snakebite victim should go to a hospital emergency department.
Identification of the snake as venomous or non-venomous should not be used as
criteria whether to seek medical care. If someone can identify the type of snake,
a call to the emergency department will help the staff prepare for quick
treatment with the specific type of anti-venom needed. It is suggested to try to
identify the snake but not at risk of more victims. Keeping the person calm and
at resting position helps till the emergency services arrive. It is never suggested
to cut the wound and suck the venom out of the wound; this may lead to serious
consequences. Additionally, people are encouraged to stay miles away from
superstitions and myths.

Diagnosis of snakebite is made based on the history of the event. The doctor also
looks for evidence of fang marks or local trauma in the area of the bite. Pain and
swelling accompany many snakebites, whether venomous or not. At hospital, if the
symptoms confirm that it was venomous snake bite then the patient will be given
suitable anti-venom along with tetanus shot.

Complete the flow chart using options given below the table. Write A-J in your
answer sheet for questions 1-5.

What to do in an emergency of snake-bite?

Try to identify the snake but not at the cost of risking other [1]………. ……

An identification of snake will enable emergency department to choose exact

[2]……….…… for a particular snake type.

It is suggested to keep the patient calm and it is strictly not recommended to

[3]……….…….. the wounds. It is also advised to not to believe in myths.

Diagnosis and treatment is done by doctors. Patient might show pain and swelling
[4]……. ……of the snake type whether venomous or not.

After the confirmation of venomous snake-bite, anti-venom accompanied with

[5]………. … is given.

A. Suck B. anti-venom C. snakes D. cut E. irrespective

F. resting G. lives H. quick treatment I. tetanus shot J. medical care
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Summary Completion

What is the task about?

Summary completion question in IELTS reading is one of the difficult questions. This
question is in the form of a paragraph which is either the summary of whole passage
or the summary of part of the passage.
It is written in paraphrased form with usage of synonyms. So, it takes time for you to
understand the question properly.
There are two types of questions of summary completion type; one with the options
(usually synonyms) given below the question and the other with no options.
 In the first type, it becomes more complicated to find answers since here, after
you find a word from the passage, you have to think of synonym of that word in
order to find its answer.
 In the second type, there will be word instruction given which you must follow to
find your answer from the passage.

Challenges
 Some students lose lots of time reading the whole text and trying to understand
everything. You don’t need to do this, focus more on the summary in the question.
 Don't look for the exact same words in the reading text. You are unlikely to find
these because the examiners use synonyms and paraphrasing.
 A common mistake is to ignore grammar rules when completing the summary.
 Don’t spend too much time looking for the answer to one question. If you can’t find
it, mark what you think it might be and move on.

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How to do it?

TIPS EXPLANATION
 Try to predict the answers before you look at the options or the
Prediction
text. This will help you spot the correct answer.

 The gap should be filled with a verb, noun, adjective or adverb

which is suitable according to the sentence. If your answer makes
Grammar
the sentence grammatically wrong, then you have the wrong
answer.

 Look for synonyms and paraphrases in the text rather than words
Synonyms
that directly match.

 If you get a list of words, think about the ones that can’t be the
Rule of
correct answer because of meaning or grammar. You can then
elimination
eliminate these words.

 Skim the summary and then find the part of the text where the
Find where is
answer could be, you then need to read in detail in that area of
the information
the text where you feel the answer could be.
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Exercise – 1

Type 1: Summary completion without options.

Tongan Food

The traditional diet of the Tongan people consisted mostly of taro, yams,
bananas, coconuts and of course seafood - the staple of any island nation.
As Westerners began to arrive in the 19th and early 20th centuries, so did
new foods. Oranges, limes and lemons were introduced, with watermelon
being particularly popular. Tongans also began to adopt onions, cabbage,
carrots and tomatoes into their cuisine and even pumpkin have become a
relatively recent addition.
Tongan restaurants and resorts feature German, Italian, Japanese and
Taiwanese cuisine as well as many traditional Tongan dishes and
delicacies.

Fill in the blanks using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS

Despite eating taro, yams, bananas, coconuts, Tongan people also consumed staple
food called [1]……………………
The new food was brought to Tongan people by [2]…………………..
Among all fruits introduced to Tongan people, [3]………………… had a unique
popularity.
Recently [4]…………………. has been added into the Tongan cuisine.

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Exercise – 2

Type 2: Summary completion with options

The Little Ice Age lasted from roughly 1300 until the middle of the nineteenth century.
Only two centuries ago, Europe experienced a cycle of bitterly cold winters; mountain
glaciers in the Swiss Alps were the lowest in recorded memory, and pack ice surrounded
Iceland for much of the year. The climatic events of the Little Ice Age did more than help
shape the modern world. They are the deeply important context for the current
unprecedented global warming. The Little Ice Age was far from a deep freeze, however;
rather an irregular seesaw of rapid climatic shifts, few lasting more than a quarter-
century, driven by complex and still little understood interactions between the
atmosphere and the ocean. The seesaw brought cycles of intensely cold winters and
easterly winds, then switched abruptly to years of heavy spring and early summer rains,
mild winters, and frequent Atlantic storms, or to periods of droughts, light north easterly
winds, and summer heat waves.
Reconstructing the climate changes of the past is extremely difficult, because systematic
weather observations began only a few centuries ago, in Europe and North America.
Records from India and tropical Africa are even more recent. For the time before records
began, we have only ‘proxy records’ reconstructed largely from tree rings and ice cores,
supplemented by a few incomplete written accounts. We now have hundreds of tree-ring
records from throughout the northern hemisphere, and many from south of the equator,
too, amplified with a growing body of temperature data from ice cores drilled in
Antarctica, Greenland, the Peruvian Andes, and other locations. We are close to a
knowledge of annual summer and winter temperature variations over much of the
northern hemisphere going back 600 years.

Complete the summary using the list of words, A—I, below.

Weather during the Little Ice Age

Documentation of past weather condition is limited: our main sources of knowledge
of conditions in the distant past are 1………………. and 2…………….... . We can
deduce that the Little Ice Age was a time of 3……………...., rather than of consistent
freezing. Within it there were some periods of very cold winters, others
of 4…………. and heavy rain, and yet others that saw 5…………....... with no rain at
all.

A. climatic shifts B. ice cores C. tree rings

D. glaciers E. interactions F. weather observations

G. heat waves H. storms I. written accounts

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Exercise – 3
Type 1: Summary completion without options

In 2017, two mangos sold at a Japanese wholesale auction for a record-breaking $3,744.
Taiyo no Tamago (Egg of the Sun) is a variety of mango grown in the Miyazaki
prefecture and sold throughout Japan. Although they don’t usually go for thousands of
dollars, on any given day you would be hard-pressed to find one for less than $50. The
question is: What makes these mangoes so expensive?
The hefty price tag is partially due to the care that goes into growing these fruits.
Japanese farmers surround each mango with a small net, which allows sunlight to hit the
skin at all angles (giving it a uniform, ruby-red color), and cushions the fruit when it falls
from the tree. Allowing the mangoes to simply fall when they’re ready, as opposed to
manually picking them, ensures optimal ripeness. The resulting mangoes are absolutely
delicious. They have very little fibre, are extremely juicy, and practically melt in your
mouth. The taste itself is perfectly sweet and tart, like mango candy with hints of
pineapple and coconut.

Fill in the blanks using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS.

1. Egg of the Sun mangoes are expensive because of ………………. that is required
to grow it.
2. The sunlight hitting the mangoes ………………. gives the mangoes a distinctive
uniform ruby-red color.
3. Allowing mangoes on their own confirms ………………….
4. Egg of the Sun mangoes taste more or less like ……………… with subtle pineapple
and coconut flavor.

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Exercise – 44
Type 2: Summary completion with options

Around 60% of all confectionary is bought on impulse, which makes its availability a
key determinant of sales. Impulse buying also makes the development of a strong
brand image vital, and large, long-established brands control the market. Building up
these brands costs serious money. Media expenditure on confectionary exceeds that
for any other impulse market. The Cadbury & Trebor Bassett 1997 Confectionary
Review reveals that in 1996, media expenditure on chocolate reached £94m,
compared with £69m spent on soft drinks, £31m on the lottery and £23m on crisps and
snacks.
Innovation is also essential for ongoing success, despite the chocolate market being
dominated by 'consistent performers'. In 1996 the chocolate company Mars launched
'Flyte', claiming the be the first mainstream brand to address the demand for lower fat
products. At 98 calories a bar, Flyte is designed to appeal to weight-conscious
women. Another 1997 Mars launch, 'Celebrations', is claimed by the company's
annual review to be showing signs of 'revolutionising the boxed chocolates market by
attracting new, younger customers'. 'Traditionally, the boxed chocolates market hasn't
changed very much. People who buy the products tend to be older and female. With
Celebrations, we are finding that younger people and men are buying because the
chocolate doesn't come in the traditional-shaped box - they look different. Products
such as Flyte and Celebrations are attempts to introduce a different product category
and increase sales for retailers, rather than just shifting market share,' a Mars
spokesman says.
One feature of the chocolate industry in recent years has been the emergence of
special editions. The concept was a marketing triumph. Producers believe that special
editions offer the consumer a new and exciting variation of a product, while suggesting
the same consistent quality they associate with familiar brands. Since special editions
are only available for a few weeks while stocks last, they also have a unique quality
about them. Far from denting sales of the straight version, limited editions appear to
simply boost overall sales.
Complete the summary using the list of words, A - P, below.
The Chocolate Market
The chocolate market is dominated by [1]......................... brands. For this reason,
confectioners spend large sums of money on [2] ......................... advertisements. In
fact, in 1996, the amount of spent totalled 94 million pounds.
However, it is also important for companies to allocate resources to developing [3]
......................... ideas. Examples of these are the ‘Flyte’ and ‘Celebrations’. Chocolate
producers try to increase sales by changing their customers’ [4] .........................
habits. For example, Mars’s new line of products appeals to younger customers
because its packaging does not look [5] .........................
A [6] ......................... increase in sales can be achieved by introducing ‘special
editions’ on to the market. These are successful because they have [7]
......................... value.
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A. purchasing B. low fat C. selection D. media

E. impulse F. similarly G. eating H. outdated
I. novelty J. unsuccessful K. well-known L. international
M. new N. children's O. lasting P. temporary

Exercise – 5
Type 1: Summary completion without options
THE PEOPLE OF CORN

Maize is Mexico’s lifeblood crop – the country’s history and identity are entwined with it. But this
centuries-old relationship is now threatened by free trade. Laura Carlsen investigates the threat
and profiles a growing activist movement.

On a mountain top in southern Mexico, Indian families gather. They chant and sprinkle cornmeal
in consecration, praying for the success of their new crops, the unity of their communities and the
health of their families. In this village in Oaxaca people eat corn tamales, sow maize plots and teach
children to care for the plant. The cultural rhythms of this community, its labours, rituals and
celebrations will be defined – as they have been for millennia – by the lifecycle of corn. Indeed, if it
weren’t for the domestication of teocintle (the ancestor of modern maize) 9,000 years ago
Mesoamerican civilization could never have developed. In the Mayan sacred book, the Popol Vuh,
the gods create people out of cornmeal. The ‘people of corn’ flourished and built one of the most
remarkable cultures in human history.

But in Mexico and Central America today maize has come under attack. As a result of the North
American Free Trade Agreement (NAFTA) Mexico has been flooded with imported corn from north
of the border in the US. The contamination of native varieties with genetically modified imported
maize could have major consequences for Mexican campesinos (farmers), for local biodiversity and
for the world’s genetic reserves.

A decade ago Mexican bureaucrats and business people had it all figured out. NAFTA would drive
‘uncompetitive’ maize farmers from the countryside to work in booming assembly factories across
the country. Their standard of living would rise as the cost of providing services like electricity and
water to scattered rural communities would fall. Best of all, cheap imported maize from the US –
the world’s most efficient and most heavily subsidized producer – would be a benefit to Mexican
consumers.

Unfortunately, it didn’t turn out that way. There weren’t quite enough of those factory jobs and
the ones that did materialize continued to be along the US border, not further in Mexico. And
despite a huge drop in the price farmers received for their corn, consumers often ended up paying
more. The price of tortillas – the country’s staple food – rose nearly fivefold as the Government
stopped domestic subsidies and giant agribusiness firms took over the market. Free trade
defenders like Mexico’s former Under-Secretary of Agriculture Luis Tellez suggest: ‘It’s not that
NAFTA failed, it’s just that reality didn’t turn out the way we planned it.’ Part of that reality was
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that the Government did nothing to help campesinos in the supposed transition. Nor did NAFTA
recognize inequalities or create compensation funds to help the victims of free trade – unlike what
occurred with economic integration in the European Union.

Basically, Mexico adopted a sink-or-swim policy for small farmers, opening the floodgates to tons
of imported US corn. Maize imports tripled under NAFTA and producer prices fell by half. The drop
in income immediately hit the most vulnerable and poorest members of rural society. While more
than a third of the corn grown by small farmers is used to feed their families, the rest is sold on
local markets. Without this critical cash, rural living standards plunged.

Maize is at the heart of indigenous and campesino identity. José Carrillo de la Cruz, a Huichol Indian
from northern Jalisco, describes that relationship: ‘Corn is the force, the life and the strength of
the Huichol. If there were a change, if someone from outside patented our corn, it would end our
life and existence.’

The good news is that the free-trade threat to Mexico’s culture and food security has sparked a
lively resistance. ‘In Defence of Corn’, a movement to protect local maize varieties, is not a
membership organization but a series of forums and actions led by campesinos themselves. It’s a
direct challenge to both free trade and the dictums of corporate science.

The farmers’ tenacity and refusal to abandon the crop of their ancestors is impressive. But larger
economic conditions continue to shape their lives. Rural poverty and hunger have soared under
free trade – and placed a heavier burden on women left to work the land. The battle for food
sovereignty continues. Movement leaders insist that the Government reassess its free trade
policies and develop a real rural development programme.

Complete the summary below.

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Write your answers in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

For thousands of years, corn has been a very important 1 ............................ in the
Mexican culture. After the North American Free Trade
Agreement, 2 ............................. corn has been imported from the USA in very large
amounts. Mexican business people hoped that this would mean that Mexican farmers
had to get jobs in factories and that their 3 .............................. would increase. Instead
of this result, the farmers suffered from the low price of corn and people had to pay
more for their corn. The farmers wish that the government
had 4 ............................... them during this time. As a result of the hardship, the
farmers have organised themselves by forming a 5 ................................
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Exercise – 6
Type 2: Summary completion with options

DELIVERING THE GOODS

A International trade is growing at a startling pace. While the global economy has
been expanding at a bit over 3% a year, the volume of trade has been rising at a
compound annual rate of about twice that. Foreign products, from meat to machinery,
play a more important role in almost every economy in the world, and foreign markets
now tempt businesses that never much worried about sales beyond their nation's
borders.
B What lies behind this explosion in international commerce? The general
worldwide decline in trade barriers, such as customs duties and import quotas, is
surely one explanation. The economic opening of countries that have traditionally been
minor players is another. But one force behind the import-export boom has passed all
but unnoticed: the rapidly falling cost of getting goods to market. Theoretically, in the
world of trade, shipping costs do not matter. Goods, once they have been made, are
assumed to move instantly and at no cost from place to place. The real world, however,
is full of frictions. Cheap labour may make Chinese clothing competitive in America,
but if delays in shipment tie up working capital and cause winter coats to arrive in
spring, trade may lose its advantages.
C At the turn of the 20th century, agriculture and manufacturing were the two most
important sectors almost everywhere, accounting for about 70% of total output in
Germany, Italy and France, and 40-50% in America, Britain and Japan. International
commerce was therefore dominated by raw materials, such as wheat, wood and iron
ore, or processed commodities, such as meat and steel. But these sorts of products
are heavy and bulky and the cost of transporting them relatively high.
D Countries still trade disproportionately with their geographic neighbours. Over
time, however, world output has shifted into goods whose worth is unrelated to their
size and weight. Today, it is finished manufactured products that dominate the flow of
trade, and, thanks to technological advances such as lightweight components,
manufactured goods themselves have tended to become lighter and less bulky. As a
result, less transportation is required for every dollar's worth of imports or exports.
E To see how this influences trade, consider the business of making disk drives
for computers. Most of the world's disk-drive manufacturing is concentrated in South-
east Asia. This is possible only because disk drives, while valuable, are small and light
and so cost little to ship. Computer manufacturers in Japan or Texas will not face
hugely bigger freight bills if they import drives from Singapore rather than purchasing
them on the domestic market. Distance, therefore, poses no obstacle to the
globalisation of the disk-drive industry.
F This is even more true of the fast-growing information industries. Films and
compact discs cost little to transport, even by aeroplane. Computer software can be
'exported' without ever loading it onto a ship, simply by transmitting it over telephone
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become insignificant factors in deciding where to make the product. Businesses can
locate based on other considerations, such as the availability of labour, while worrying
less about the cost of delivering their output.
G In many countries deregulation has helped to drive the process along. But,
behind the scenes, a series of technological innovations known broadly as
containerisation and inter-modal transportation has led to swift productivity
improvements in cargo-handling. Forty years ago, the process of exporting or
importing involved a great many stages of handling, which risked portions of the
shipment being damaged or stolen along the way. The invention of the container crane
made it possible to load and unload containers without capsizing the ship and the
adoption of standard container sizes allowed almost any box to be transported on any
ship. By 1967, dual-purpose ships, carrying loose cargo in the hold* and containers
on the deck, were giving way to all-container vessels that moved thousands of boxes
at a time.
H The shipping container transformed ocean shipping into a highly efficient,
intensely competitive business. But getting the cargo to and from the dock was a
different story. National governments, by and large, kept a much firmer hand on truck
and railroad tariffs than on charges for ocean freight. This started changing, however,
in the mid-1970s, when America began to deregulate its transportation industry. First
airlines, then road hauliers and railways, were freed from restrictions on what they
could carry, where they could haul it and see what price they could charge. Big
productivity gains resulted. Between 1985 and 1996, for example, America's freight
railways dramatically reduced their employment, trackage, and their fleets of
locomotives - while increasing the amount of cargo they hauled. Europe's railways
have also shown marked, albeit smaller, productivity improvements.
I In America the period of huge productivity gains in transportation may be almost
over, but in most countries, the process still has far to go. State ownership of railways
and airlines, regulation of freight rates and toleration of anti-competitive practices,
such as cargo-handling monopolies, all keep the cost of shipping unnecessarily high
and deter international trade. Bringing these barriers down would help the world's
economies grow even closer.
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Complete the summary using the list of words, A-K, below.

Write the correct letter, A-K, in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

THE TRANSPORT REVOLUTION

Modern cargo-handling methods have had a significant effect on 1 ....................... as

the business of moving freight around the world becomes increasingly streamlined.
Manufacturers of computers, for instance, are able to import 2 ....................... from
overseas, rather than having to rely on a local supplier. The introduction
of 3 ....................... has meant that bulk cargo can be safely and efficiently moved over
long distances. While international shipping is now efficient, there is still a need for
governments to reduce 4 ....................... in order to free up the domestic cargo sector.

A. tariffs B. components C. container ships D. output

E. employees F. insurance costs G. trade H. freight

I. fares J. software K. international standards

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Short Questions

What is the task about?

This is very similar to sentence completion questions in which you have to answer of
questions right from the text.
This task tests your ability to find specific information from the given paragraphs.

Challenges
 Paraphrased information is given in paragraphs.
 For this task, you have to write answer to separate ‘who, what, where, when and
how’ type questions, using the given information.
 Rationally, major answers will be nouns, but other parts of speech are supposed
to come.

How to do it?
TIPS EXPLANATION
 Read given instructions properly, as they tell you in how many
Instructions
words you have to give you answer.

 Underline the key words and try to identify what kind of answer
Key words
you are looking for.
 With keeping in mind marked words, start skimming and
scanning.
Proof reading
 Also keep in mind, there can be some synonyms and parallel
expressions.
 Make sure that you choose and write exact words that are given
Exact word in the passage.
 Avoid use of unnecessary words.
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Exercise – 1

IMPORTANT NOTICE: PRODUCT RETURN

Fancy Foods wishes to inform the public that pieces of metal have been found in some
jars of Fancy Foods Chicken Curry (Spicy). The batches of the jars involved have
numbers from J6617 to J6624. The batch number is printed on the bottom of each jar.

If you have any jars with these batch numbers, please return them (preferably
unopened) to the supermarket where you purchased them. You can also return them
to the factory (Fancy Foods Retailers, Blacktown). Fancy Foods will pay $10 for each
jar returned unopened and $5 for each jar already opened.

No payment will be made for empty jars, which do not need to be returned. However,
the Retailing Manager will be interested to hear from people who have consumed
chicken curry from any of the above batch numbers. In particular, it will be helpful if
they can give information about the place of purchase of the product.

Jars of Fancy Foods Chicken Curry (Coconut) and Fancy Foods Chicken Curry
(Mango) have not been affected and do not need to be returned.

REWARD
Fancy Foods will pay a reward of $10,000 to $50,000 for information which leads to
the conviction of any person found guilty of placing metal pieces in its products. If you
have such information, please contact the Customer Relations Manager, Fancy Foods
Retailers, Blacktown.

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Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER from the passage for each
answer.

1. What has been found in some Fancy Foods products?

2. Where can you find the batch number on the jars?
3. How much will you receive for an opened jar of contaminated Chicken Curry?
4. If you have eaten Chicken Curry from a jar with one of the batch numbers listed,
whom should you contact?
5. What is the maximum reward Fancy Foods is offering for information about who
contaminated their product?

Answers

(1) …………………….

(2) …………………….

(3) …………………….

(4) …………………….

(5) …………………….
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Exercise – 2

Whales and Dolphins

An examination of the functioning of the senses in cetaceans, the group of mammals
comprising whales, dolphins and porpoises
Some of the senses that we and other terrestrial mammals take for granted are either
reduced or absent in cetaceans or fail to function well in water. For example, it appears
from their brain structure that toothed species are unable to smell. Baleen species, on
the other hand, appear to have some related brain structures but it is not known
whether these are functional. It has been speculated that, as the blowholes evolved
and migrated to the top of the head, the neural pathways serving sense of smell may
have been nearly all sacrificed. Similarly, although at least some cetaceans have taste
buds, the nerves serving these have degenerated or are rudimentary.

The sense of touch has sometimes been described as weak too, but this view is
probably mistaken. Trainers of captive dolphins and small whales often remark on their
animals’ responsiveness to being touched or rubbed, and both captive and free-
ranging cetacean individuals of all species (particularly adults and calves, or members
of the same subgroup) appear to make frequent contact. This contact may help to
maintain order within a group, and stroking or touching are part of the courtship ritual
in most species. The area around the blowhole is also particularly sensitive and captive
animals often object strongly to being touched there.

The sense of vision is developed to different degrees in different species. Baleen

species studied at close quarters underwater – specifically a grey whale calf in captivity
for a year, and free-ranging right whales and humpback whales studied and filmed off
Argentina and Hawaii – have obviously tracked objects with vision underwater, and
they can apparently see moderately well both in water and in air. However, the position
of the eyes so restricts the field of vision in baleen whales that they probably do not
have stereoscopic vision.

On the other hand, the position of the eyes in most dolphins and porpoises suggests
that they have stereoscopic vision forward and downward. Eye position in freshwater
dolphins, which often swim on their side or upside down while feeding, suggests that
what vision they have is stereoscopic forward and upward. By comparison, the
bottlenose dolphin has extremely keen vision in water. Judging from the way it watches
and tracks airborne flying fish, it can apparently see fairly well through the air–water
interface as well. And although preliminary experimental evidence suggests that their
in-air vision is poor, the accuracy with which dolphins leap high to take small fish out
of a trainer’s hand provides anecdotal evidence to the contrary.

Such variation can no doubt be explained with reference to the habitats in which
individual species have developed. For example, vision is obviously more useful to
species inhabiting clear open waters than to those living in turbid rivers and flooded
plains. The South American boutu and Chinese beiji, for instance, appear to have very
limited vision, and the Indian susus are blind, their eyes reduced to slits that probably
allow them to sense only the direction and intensity of light.
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Although the senses of taste and smell appear to have deteriorated, and vision in
water appears to be uncertain, such weaknesses are more than compensated for by
cetaceans’ well-developed acoustic sense. Most species are highly vocal, although
they vary in the range of sounds, they produce, and many forages for food using
echolocation. Large baleen whales primarily use the lower frequencies and are often
limited in their repertoire. Notable exceptions are the nearly song-like choruses of
bowhead whales in summer and the complex, haunting utterances of the humpback
whales. Toothed species in general employ more of the frequency spectrum, and
produce a wider variety of sounds, than baleen species (though the sperm whale
apparently produces a monotonous series of high-energy clicks and little else). Some
of the more complicated sounds are clearly communicative, although what role they
may play in the social life and ‘culture’ of cetaceans has been more the subject of wild
speculation than of solid science.

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage for each answer.

1. Which of the senses is described here as being involved in mating?

2. Which species swims upside down while eating?
3. What can bottlenose dolphins follow from under the water?
4. Which type of habitat is related to good visual ability?
5. Which of the senses is best developed in cetaceans?

Answers

(1) …………………….

(2) …………………….

(3) …………………….

(4) …………………….

(5) …………………….
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Exercise – 3
Advance Notice of Upcoming Road Works
Sections of the East High Street will be closed from Monday, April 6, for up
to 12 weeks to allow for Campion Gas to replace and reinforce gas networks.
Your local council is taking theclosure as an opportunity to carry out street
lighting improvements at the same time so as tominimize possible future
disruption.

Campion Gas will carry out the work in four phases:

Phase 1: Broad Avenue, from the roundabout to the junction with Winton
Street, will be closedas well as one lane on the Market Square. An alternative

route will be available via East HighStreet, Winton Street and Castle Road.

Phases 2 & 3: East High Street, from the crossroads at Broad Avenue to the
junction withWinton Street, will be closed, as will the junction at Winton Street.

An alternative route will beavailable via Winton Street, Castle Road and Broad

Avenue.

Phase 4: Eastern Road will be closed from the junction with South Street and
No. 15 on

that road. One lane only on South Street will also be closed. Exact details of

the closures,including dates for each phase, are still to be finalized and will

be released in due course.

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the
passage for each answer.
1. What is the main challenge for the company with having homeworkers?
2. Dealing with which emotion can be a challenge for homeworkers?
3. What do homeworkers perceive they are missing out on the most when they are
away from the office?
4. What will the decision depend on if an employee wishes to work part-time as well
as working from home?
5. What process will have to take place before an employee can begin working from
home?
6. What process can employees initiate if their application for homeworking is refused?
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Answers

(1) …………………….

(2) …………………….

(3) …………………….

(4) …………………….

(5) …………………….

(6) …………………….

Exercise – 4
Sifting through the Sands of Time
When you're on the beach, you're stepping on ancient mountains, skeletons of marine
animals, even tiny diamonds. Sand provides a mineral treasure-trove, a record of
geology's earth-changing processes.
Sand: as children we play on it and as adults, we relax on it. It is something we
complain about when it gets in our food, and praise when it is molded into castles. But
we don't often look at it. If we did, we would discover an account of a geological past
and a history of marine life that goes back thousands and in some cases millions of
years.
Sand covers not just sea-shores, but also ocean beds, deserts and mountains. It is
one of the most common substances on earth. And it is a major element in man-made
items too - concrete is largely sand, while glass is made of little else.
What exactly is sand? Well, it is larger than fine dust and smaller than shingle. In fact,
according to the most generally accepted scheme of measurement, devised by the
Massachusetts Institute of Technology, grains qualify if their diameter is greater than
0.06 of a millimeter and less than 0.6 of a millimeter. Depending on its age and origin,
a particular sand can consist of tiny pebbles or porous granules. Its grain may have
the shape of stars or spirals, their edges jagged or smooth. They have come from the
erosion of rocks, or from the skeletons of marine organisms which accumulate on the
bottom of the oceans, or even from volcanic eruptions.
Color is another clue to sand's origins. If it is a dazzling white, its grains may be derived
from nearby coral outcrops, from crystalline quartz rocks or from gypsum, like the white
sands of New Mexico. On Pacific islands jet black sands form from volcanic minerals.
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Other black beaches are magnetic. Some sand is very recent indeed, as is the case

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on the island of Kamoama in Hawaii, where a beach was created after a volcanic
eruption in 1990. Molten lava spilled into the sea and exploded in glassy droplets.
Usually, the older the granules, the finer they are and the smoother the edges. The
fine, white beaches of northern Scotland, for instance, are recycled from sandstone
several hundred million years old. Perhaps they will be stone once more, in another
few hundred million.
Sand is an irreplaceable industrial ingredient whose uses are legion: but it has one
vital function you might never even notice. Sand cushions our land from the sea's
impact, and geologists say it often does a better job of protecting our shores than the
most advanced coastal technology.

Answer the questions below using NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS/ OR A

NUMBER from the passage for each answer.

1. What TWO materials made by humans are mentioned in the passage?

2. Which part of a grain of sand have scientists measured?
3. What TWO factors determine the size and shape of a piece of sand?
4. Which event produced the beach on Kamoama Island?
5. Where, according to the passage, can beaches made of very ancient sand be
found?
6. Who claims that sand can have a more efficient function than coastal technology?

Answers

(1) …………………….
(2) …………………….
(3) …………………….
(4) …………………….
(5) …………………….
(6) …………………….
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True, False & Not given

What is the task about?

In the IELTS reading test you may be asked to identify whether given factual
questions/statements are true, false or not given according to given paragraphs.
This is most probably the most confusing type of question in IELTS reading.
True, False and Not Given questions focus on ‘facts’ according to given in
paragraphs; moreover, Yes, No and Not Given questions are often about the writer’s
opinions.

Challenges
 Needs to make it clear what the given statement is saying.
 Students fail to understand exactly what each of given statement is saying,
therefore cannot identity if it is True, False or Not Given.
 This confusion also can take a huge chunk of whole allocated time and this may
influence the rest of your test.
 Do not match words, always match meanings.
 You are unlikely to find exactly the same phrases or words used in the passage.
Be prepared to look for synonyms or expression to those key words.
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How to do it?

TIPS EXPLANATION
 Be sure whether questions are type of ‘True, False, Not given’ or
Be sure
‘Yes, No, Not given’.

 Reading carefully given statement helps you to make it

Understand first
understood which type of information you are looking for.

 Mark important words in statement and directly jump on

Key words
paragraph in which these keywords are there.

 Take a notice of any word that qualifies the statement

Qualify words  Words such as always, occasionally, mainly, some, all and many
other as well.

Read whole  Never decide your answer by matching only key words.
sentence  Remember, you are matching meaning, not just words.

 Answer of each question would be in consequent paragraphs and

in the same order.
Follow order
 If you fail to get answer of 2, you should know it must be in
between 1 and 3.

 Try to not leave any blank because there is no negative marking

No blanks
for wrong answer.

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Text All of the public property got washed off in floods

Question Most of the public property got washed off in floods
Answer

Text Southern Koalas are bigger in size than Northern ones.

Question There are more koalas in Southern part than northern part.
Answer

Text Both the night-time permits to the Gir National Park and the
delineation of eco-sensitive zones are being challenged through PILs
(Public Interest Litigation) and are being examined by the judiciary.
Question People have supported the idea of government for permitting night stays and
eco- tourism into the Gir National Park.
Answer

Text A phobia is an intense fear of something that, in reality, poses little or

no actual danger.
Question Phobia is a fear of things that are actually not frightening.
Answer

Text Airbus planes are controlled using side-stick; this is similar to a joystick
that is used to play computer games. Boeing uses a central yoke and
has a steering wheel design that is used as the main controller. Airbus
also has incorporated hard protection using the fly by wire systems.
This means that system of the planes cannot be overrun. The pilot
cannot assume full control of the system and do something drastic
such as stall it, overstress the airframe, etc. In Boeing, the pilot can
perform all these functions by simply overriding the pilot system. The
controls in Boeing also have feedback or feels, which are missing in
Airbus controls. Boeings can be stalled, flown beyond airframe limits,
etc. if the pilot ignores warnings.
Question Boeing aircraft’s controls can be overruled.
Answer
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Exercise - 1
Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information.
FALSE if the statement contradicts with the information.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.

Nurse Migration
Routine immunizations and prenatal care fall victim to the nursing shortage in developing
countries and in many cases the results can be life threatening. In African countries
where the 1-DV I AIDS epidemic is rampant, some patients go untreated not because
lifesaving drugs are unavailable but because there are not enough nurses to administer
them.

In developed countries in Europe and North America, the nursing shortage largely stems
from an aging population who require more health care services coupled with a dwindling
supply of nurses. Many of whom are likewise nearing retirement age, with fewer young
people preparing to replace them.

A common threat among nurse-importing countries is underinvestment in nursing

education which has prevented them from creating a stable workforce to meet current
and future needs. The United Kingdom, for example, still feels the effects of a cutback
in nurse training some twenty years ago. In the United States, nursing schools turn down
thousands of qualified applicants every year because of their own shortages of nursing
faculty. Developed countries need to invest in nursing education and focus on retaining
and rewarding nurses appropriately, both financially and through high-quality working
conditions.

Questions

1. A primary reason for the nursing shortage in developed countries is the health care needs
of the aging population.
2. There is not a large enough supply of qualified applicants for nursing schools in the
United States.
3. In the United Kingdom, a high percentage of nurses have retired during the past two
decades.

Answers
1. ……………….
2. ……………….
3. ……………….
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Exercise – 2

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?
TRUE if the statement agrees with the information.
FALSE if the statement contradicts with the information.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.

What is Ecotourism?
The concept of ecotourism has been gaining publicity over the past couple of decades.
It arose out of the "green movement"-a growing interest in developing practices in all
aspects of daily life that preserve rather than injure the natural environment.
Ecotourists strive to have minimal impact on the places they visit. in terms of both
the local ecology and the local culture. Some followers take the concept even further
and define ecotourism as travel that aims not only to avoid harming the environment,
but also to make a positive contribution to the local ecology and culture.

The types of vacations that fit into the category of ecotourism vary widely. Ecotourism
might involve travel to a natural destination such as a national park or a nature
preserve to learn about the natural environment and, in some cases, to volunteer on
environmental protection projects. It could be a few weeks spent with local artisans
learning how to do a traditional craft. Trips that involve hiking or rafting through
wilderness areas with no regard for the natural habitats one passes through would
not be included in the definition of ecotourism. Neither, of course, would be trips with
a focus on hunting.

Ecotourists seek out accommodations that follow environmentally friendly practices

such as C and recycling. Ecotourists look for hotels and tour companies that hire
mainly local staff, keeping tourist dollars within the local economy. Ecotourists might
choose to join a bicycling or walking tour rather than a bus tour that adds to air
pollution and allows tourists to see the local area only through a barrier of glass
windows.

Ecotourists often shun cruise ships, because these are among the biggest culprits in
the tourism industry in terms of environmental pollution. Massive cruise ships release
large quantities of harmful emissions into the air as well as pollute the waters they
sail through with fuel from their engines. The huge numbers of passengers on these
ships generate many tons of garbage and wastewater, which is often dumped into
the sea. Cruise ships also cause damage to coral reefs and other delicate ecosystems
that they travel near. Perhaps in part because of the growing interest in ecotourism,
some cruise companies are now making an effort to be more environmentally friendly.
These efforts include recycling wastes and using fuel more efficiently. Vacationers who
are interested in ecotourism and still get pleasure from cruises can travel with cruise
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companies that follow these practices.

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Because of the growing interest in ecotourism, many companies advertise themselves

as ecotourism companies. especially those that offer trips to remote natural areas,
the type of destination that ecotourists favor. Travelers need to be wary and do their
research carefully. Not all of these companies follow the principles of ecotourism.
Some are simply trying to take advantage of the current interest in this type of travel.
The positive side of this, however, is that it may actually be an indication that the
movement is gaining in popularity.

Questions

1. Ecotourism refers only to trips made to remote wilderness destinations.

2. Ecotourists are interested in preserving delicate natural areas.
3. Ecotourists prefer less expensive accommodations.
4. Ecotourists strive to support the local economy where they travel.
5. Many large cruise ships injure the environment by dumping garbage into the sea.
6. Hunting trips can be included in the category of ecotourism.
7. An ecotourism trip might include volunteering to work on local projects.
8. Some cruise companies are changing their practices to become more
environmentally friendly.

Answers

1. ………………. 5. ……………….
2. ………………. 6. ……………….
3. ………………. 7. ……………….
4. ………………. 8. ……………….

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Exercise – 3

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

TRUE if the statement agrees with the information.

FALSE if the statement contradicts with the information.
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this.

The life and work of Marie Curie

Marie Curie is probably the most famous woman scientist who has ever lived. Born
Maria Sklodowska in Poland in 1867, she is famous for her work on radioactivity, and
was twice a winner of the Nobel Prize. With her husband, Pierre Curie, and Henri
Becquerel, she was awarded the 1903 Nobel Prize for Physics, and was then sole
winner of the 1911 Nobel Prize for Chemistry. She was the first woman to win a Nobel
Prize.

From childhood, Marie was remarkable for her prodigious memory, and at the age of
16 won a gold medal on completion of her secondary education. Because her father
lost his savings through bad investment, she then had to take work as a teacher. From
her earnings she was able to finance her sister Bronia’s medical studies in Paris, on the
understanding that Bronia would, in turn, later help her to get an education.

In 1891 this promise was fulfilled and Marie went to Paris and began to study at the
Sorbonne (the University of Paris). She often worked far into the night and lived on little
more than bread and butter and tea. She came first in the examination in the physical
sciences in 1893, and in 1894 was placed second in the examination in mathematical
sciences. It was not until the spring of that year that she was introduced to Pierre Curie.

Questions
1. Marie Curie’s husband was a joint winner of both Marie’s Nobel Prizes.
2. Marie became interested in science when she was a child.
3. Marie was able to attend the Sorbonne because of her sister’s financial
contribution.

Answers:
1. ……………….
2. ……………….
3. ……………….
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Exercise – 4

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the text?

YES if the statement reflects the claims of the writer.

NO if the statement contradicts the claims of the writer.
NOT GIVEN if it is impossible to say what the writer thinks about this.

The Impact of Wilderness Tourism

The market for tourism in remote areas is booming as never before. Countries all across the
world are actively promoting their ‘wilderness’ regions – such as mountains, Arctic lands,
deserts, small islands and wetlands – to high-spending tourists. The attraction of these areas
is obvious: by definition, wilderness tourism requires little or no initial investment. But that does
not mean that there is no cost. As the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and
Development recognized, these regions are fragile (i.e. highly vulnerable to abnormal
pressures) not just in terms of their ecology, but also in terms of the culture of their inhabitants.
The three most significant types of fragile environment in these respects, and also in terms of
the proportion of the Earth’s surface they cover, are deserts, mountains and Arctic areas. An
important characteristic is their marked seasonality, with harsh conditions prevailing for many
months each year. Consequently, most human activities, including tourism, are limited to quite
clearly defined parts of the year.
Tourists are drawn to these regions by their natural landscape beauty and the unique cultures
of their indigenous people. And poor governments in these isolated areas have welcomed the
new breed of ‘adventure tourist’, grateful for the hard currency they bring. For several years
now, tourism has been the prime source of foreign exchange in Nepal and Bhutan. Tourism is
also a key element in the economies of Arctic zones such as Lapland and Alaska and in desert
areas such as Ayers Rock in Australia and Arizona’s Monument Valley.
Once a location is established as a main tourist destination, the effects on the local community
are profound. When hill-farmers, for example, can make more money in a few weeks working
as porters for foreign trekkers than they can in a year working in their fields, it is not surprising
that many of them give up their farm-work, which is thus left to other members of the family.
In some hill-regions, this has led to a serious decline in farm output and a change in the local
diet, because there is insufficient labour to maintain terraces and irrigation systems and tend
to crops. The result has been that many people in these regions have turned to outside
supplies of rice and other foods.
In Arctic and desert societies, year-round survival has traditionally depended on hunting
animals and fish and collecting fruit over a relatively short season. However, as some
inhabitants become involved in tourism, they no longer have time to collect wild food; this has
led to increasing dependence on bought food and stores. Tourism is not always the culprit
behind such changes. All kinds of wage labour, or government handouts, tend to undermine
traditional survival systems. Whatever the cause, the dilemma is always the same: what
happens if these new, external sources of income dry up?
The physical impact of visitors is another serious problem associated with the growth in
adventure tourism. Much attention has focused on erosion along major trails, but perhaps
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more important are the deforestation and impacts on water supplies arising from the need to

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provide tourists with cooked food and hot showers. In both mountains and deserts, slow-
growing trees are often the main sources of fuel and water supplies may be limited or
vulnerable to degradation through heavy use.

Questions

1. The low financial cost of setting up wilderness tourism makes it attractive to many
countries.
2. Deserts, mountains and Arctic regions are examples of environments that are
both ecologically and culturally fragile.
3. Wilderness tourism operates throughout the year in fragile areas.
4. The spread of tourism in certain hill-regions has resulted in a fall in the amount of
food produced locally.
5. Traditional food-gathering in desert societies was distributed evenly over the year.
6. Government handouts do more damage than tourism does to traditional patterns
of food-gathering.

Answers:
1. ………………. 4. ……………….
2. ………………. 5. ……………….
3. ………………. 6. ……………….
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Classification

What is the task about?

In this type of task, you are asked to categorize/classify the sentences in two or
many categories. This task also needs you to read a lot.

Challenges
 Too much of information to read.
 Traps and distractions.
 Students match words but not meanings.

How to do it?

TIPS EXPLANATION
 The question asks you to categorize the information. So look at
Look for
the categories carefully and highlight or circle all the information
specific words
about that category.

Understand the
 Always understand the use of synonyms.
synonyms

Rule of  If you fail to identify the correct answer, then try to identify
elimination incorrect answer the correct one will automatically pop up.

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Exercise – 1
Boeing and Airbus
Airbus is a popular aircraft manufacturing that is a subsidiary of EADS, a European aerospace
company. The company is based in Blagnac, France and is responsible for the sale of almost
half of the world’s jetliners. Airbus initially began as a consortium of aerospace manufacturers
and later evolved to a joint stock company in 2001. The two main stock holding companies
include EADS and BAE Systems, a defensive systems company. The first airliner produced
and marketed by the company was the A300. In addition to marketing jetliners, the company
also produces military aircrafts, airplane parts and defense systems. The company has also
joined other airway companies in an attempt to reduce carbon footprint by trying to develop a
biofuel that can be used in planes. The name Airbus has become synonymous with aircrafts in
many places.
The Boeing Company is multinational Aerospace Company and Defense Corporation that has
its roots in the United States. It was founded by William E. Boeing in 1916 in Washington. In
1997, the company merged with McDonnell Douglas in an attempt to expand ties and business.
The Boeing Company is made up of multiple divisions: Boeing Commercial Airplanes (BCA);
Boeing Defense, Space & Security (BDS); Engineering, Operations & Technology; Boeing
Capital; and Boeing Shared Services Group. It is one of the largest global aircraft
manufacturers and the second-largest aerospace and defense contractor in the world in 2011.
William Boeing, a veteran in the timber industry, used his knowledge of wood to design and
build airplanes. The company received its major order when it approached the US govt. to
provide it sea planes during World War I.
Both the companies have become synonymous with airplanes and together they deliver the
most airplanes, with major airline companies running their planes. There are also major
difference between the companies’ planes and how they are designed. The easiest way to tell
the planes apart is by checking the lower half of the body for the company’s name. It should
usually mention if it is a Boeing or an Airbus. Another difference also lies in the front of the
planes. Airbus planes have a curved and rounded nose, while the Boeing planes are round but
slightly pointed. Similarly, the cockpit windows are also different; Airbus planes have more
square windows that are in a straight line to the body of the plane. Boeing has designed the
windows in a slight ‘v’ shape, which cuts of the windows’ corners to create a different shape.
Other differences include engine placement, where Airbus generally places the engines under
the wings, while Boeing mounts them on the forward of the wing. However, this placement
changes depending on the design of the planes. One major difference is the electronics that is
used in the planes. Airbus planes are controlled using side-stick; this is similar to a joystick
that is used to play computer games. Boeing uses a central yoke and has a steering wheel design
that is used as the main controller. Airbus also has incorporated hard protection using the fly
by wire systems. This means that system of the planes cannot be overrun. The pilot cannot
assume full control of the system and do something drastic such as stall it, overstress the
airframe, etc. In Boeing, the pilot can perform all these functions by simply overriding the pilot
system. The controls in Boeing also have feedback or feels, which are missing in Airbus
controls. Boeings can be stalled, flown beyond airframe limits, etc. if the pilot ignores
warnings.
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Questions 1-7
Choose appropriate later A, B or C for following statements 1-7.

[Notice the highlighted words]

A: Relates to Boeing
B: Relates to Airbus
C: Relates to Boeing and Airbus both

1. Name of the company has become synonymous to planes.

2. The company manufactures defense aircrafts.
3. Company is planning to combat pollution by collaborating with other airline
Companies.
4. Planes have round but slightly pointed nose.
5. Mounts the engines under the wings.
6. Aircraft can be controlled by a side stick.
7. Maneuvering of aircraft can totally be controlled by pilots.

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Exercise – 2

WHO - Malaria treatment overview

Malaria is a preventable and treatable disease. The primary objective of treatment is to ensure
complete cure, That is the rapid and full elimination of the Plasmodium parasite from the
patient’s blood, in order to prevent progression of uncomplicated malaria to severe disease or
death, and to prevent chronic infection that leads to malaria-related anaemia (blood cell
destruction). From a public health perspective, the goal of treatment is to reduce transmission
of the infection to others, by reducing the infectious reservoir (infected person’s blood), and to
prevent the emergence and spread of resistance to anti malarial medicines.

Patients with suspected malaria should have parasitological confirmation of diagnosis with
either microscopy or rapid diagnostic test (RDT) before anti malarial treatment is started.
Treatment based on clinical grounds should only be given if diagnostic testing is not
immediately accessible within 2 hours of patients presenting for treatment. Prompt treatment –
within 24 hours of fever onset – with an effective and safe anti malarial is necessary to effect
a cure and prevent life-threatening complications.

P. vivax, the second most important species causing human malaria, accounts for about 40%
of malaria cases worldwide and is the dominant malaria species outside Africa. It is prevalent
in endemic areas in the Middle East, Asia, Oceania and Central and South America. In Africa,
it is rare except in the Horn and it is almost absent in West Africa. The other two human malaria
parasite species P. malariae and P. ovale are generally less prevalent but are distributed
worldwide, especially in the tropical areas of Africa. P. knowlesi is being increasingly reported
from SE Asia region.

Treatment of P. falciparum malaria depends on the severity of infection, status of the host and
drug sensitivity pattern in the locality. In view of the potential seriousness of the infection and
combined toxicity of anti malarial drugs, the drugs should be properly chosen right at the start
of the treatment; changing the drugs or adding the drugs half-way through the treatment only
complicates the issue and adds to the adverse effects of treatment.

Uncomplicated malaria is defined as symptomatic malaria without signs of severity or evidence

of vital organ dysfunction. Uncomplicated P. falciparum infection should be treated according
to the sensitivity of the parasite at the area of acquiring the infection. To counter the threat of
resistance of P. falciparum to monotherapies, and to improve treatment outcome, combinations
of antimalarials are now recommended by WHO for the treatment of falciparum malaria.

Plasmodium falciparum malaria is the cause of most of the mortality and morbidity in malaria,
although, rarely, P. vivax or P. ovale also produce serious complications, debilitating relapses,
and even death. Severe malaria is a medical emergency and may rapidly progress to death
without prompt and appropriate treatment. The main objective of the treatment of severe
malaria is to prevent the patient from dying.

P. ovale form hypnozoites, parasite stages in the liver that can result in multiple relapses of
infection, weeks to months after the primary infection. Therefore, treatment of P. vivax (in
some cases) and P. ovale infections should be aimed at curing both the blood stage and the
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period. The only drugs with significant activity against the hypnozoites are the 8-
aminoquinolines like primaquine. A combination of chloroquine + primaquine will therefore
provide radical cure. The frequency and pattern of relapses vary geographically. Whereas 50–
60% of P. vivax infections in South- East Asia relapse, the frequency is lower in Indonesia
(30%) and the Indian subcontinent (15–20%). Some P. vivax infections in the Korean peninsula
have an incubation period of nearly one year.

Treatment of malaria in pregnancy may prove to be difficult due to contra indication for use of
certain anti malarials. Chloroquine can be used safely in all trimesters of pregnancy. High-
grade fever of malaria can exacerbate heart failure and therefore, in all such patients energetic
management of malaria is called for. Fever should be controlled with anti-pyretics and tepid
sponging. The initial dose of anti malarial drugs need not be reduced in patients with kidney
failure. None of the anti malarial drugs have any direct toxic effect to liver.

Questions: 1-6
Choose appropriate later A, B, C or D which represent the species of malarial
parasite and match them with the respective characteristic statements 15-20.

NB: You can use any option more than once

A: P. Falciparum
B: P. Vivax
C: P. Ovale
D: P. knowlesi

1. It is being highly reported in Asian Region.

2. Responsible for Significant cases of Malaria (40%) worldwide.
3. Responsible for major malarial deaths.
4. Treatment depends on several factors which determine the cure of malaria.
5. Have incubation period of approximately one year.
6. Needs cure at all the potential stages of malaria, because the infection may
result in re occurrence of malarial disease.
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Exercise – 3

TOY
A. Play with toys follows two main directions: imitative and instructive. The earliest
types of play probably developed from the instinct for self-preservation. In many
human cultures one of the first things taught to the young was the use of weapons,
and the simple stick or club was the prototype of later military instruments of
play, such as swords and guns. Most games and sports requiring physical action
derived from practice of the skills used in warfare and hunting; nevertheless, the
instruments of the game or sport, such as the small bow and arrow given to a boy
in ancient Rome for training, were regarded not as toys but as weapons. By
the middle Ages, war-related objects—such as miniature soldiers and weapons—
were considered to be toys, however. In modern times the latest developments in
warfare are represented among contemporary toys, as are those weapons and war
machines fantasized in science fiction and motion pictures.

B. One of the most ancient toys for adults and children is the ball, which was used
in both sacred and secular games. Other forms of toys also probably derive from
magical artifacts and fetishes that played a prominent part in primitive religions.
Even today, during the Mexican festival of the Day of the Dead, sugar is formed
into elaborate and beautiful skulls, tombs, and angels; many of these forms are
essentially religious symbols, but in the hands of children they become toys that
are played with and finally eaten. Christmas-tree decorations, Easter eggs, and
the Neapolitan presepio (crèche), with its wealth of elaborate figures representing
the birth of Jesus, are other obvious examples of toys of religious origin.

C. A modern relic of early culture, the kachina doll of the Pueblo Indians, while
essentially an instructive sacred object, is played with by children as a means to
learn the myths of their culture. In fact, the doll is perhaps the most ancient and
basic toy. Every epoch and culture has provided its children with miniature
versions of human beings. Dolls from early Roman times and from Christian
Rome have been found preserved in the graves of their young owners. The
collections of the British Museum and the Royal Ontario Museum in Toronto
both contain early Roman dolls; made of linen and stuffed with papyrus, these
dolls date from the 3rd century AD.

D. Moving toys include a wider variety of types of objects. It is probable that many
experiments with basic physical principles were first realized in the form of
moving toys known through literary description. Explosive toy weapons
and rockets developed from the early use of gunpowder for fireworks by the
Chinese. Balance and counterbalance, the wheel, the swing,
the pendulum, flight, centrifugal force, magnetism, the spring, and a multitude of
other devices and principles have been utilized in toys.
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E. In contrast, indigenous materials are often used by children to fashion folk toys.
For example, Huli children in Papua New Guinea make pu abu, a whirling toy
created from a flat piece of wood with a hole in the end to which the child ties a
piece of string or grass so that the toy can be whirled around to produce a
humming noise. (Similar toys are known as bullroarers in other parts of the
world.) Many dolls, especially early dolls, were made of materials commonly
at hand, such as a block of wood, remains of cloth, or pieces of corn husk.

F. Under the pressure of industrialization, folk culture and tradition are rapidly
disappearing, but in many countries a variety of folk or homemade toys can still
be found. Toys sold in developed countries are usually mass-produced and often
manufactured in developing countries, with technology providing their
locomotion and other actions. However, in spite of Western modification, toys
often reflect the child’s cultural environment. For example, in eastern India
common toys include clay monkeys that climb up a string, paper snakes fastened
to wood, and rattles created from gourds with pebbles inside.

G. It is generally accepted that children are attracted to toys along gender lines.
Modern studies demonstrate that while boys consistently choose trucks or
soldiers, girls’ choices are more flexible and may include so-called masculine
toys as well as baby dolls and household objects. Some of this preference is
related to parental beliefs about the appropriateness of certain toys for boys and
girls. In a 1970s study conducted in Taiwan, boys preferred electrical toys, then
playground slides and swings, tricycles, toy guns, and kites, in that order. Girls,
on the other hand, chose playground slides and swings first, then kites and such
activities as paper folding, singing, and playing house. In a 1990 study, also done
in Taiwan, researchers noted that in 150 randomly selected toy commercials, very
few doll advertisements depicted boys and girls playing together, except for a
few involving stuffed animals.

H. During the first two years of life, children absorb information about gender-
appropriate toys. This starts with the different types of toys bought for boys and
girls. Some parental influence on children’s toy choices is more subtle. For
example, when girls play with dolls, parents are typically not even aware as they
nod and smile at them, whereas parents are apt to make nonverbal, if not overt,
negative reactions when boys play with dolls. In strict gender-segregated
societies in Africa, boys may help girls make dolls by gathering the materials for
them, but they would be strongly discouraged from playing with dolls
themselves. Instead, the boys use the same gathered materials to create vehicles,
military men, or toy weapons for their own playthings. Most researchers in
Western societies generally agree that boys prefer toy guns and other toys linked
to aggression, whereas girls prefer to play with dolls and household objects.
American psychologist Jeffrey Goldstein has asserted, “These preferences
develop early and appear to have biological as well as social origins. Of the latter,
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modeling by peers and parents seems to be especially potent.”

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Questions 1-7

Match the following toys with the people of their origin countries. Write the correct
letter A – F, in boxes 13-19 on your answer sheet.
NB: You can choose any option more than once

A. Mexican
B. Chinese
C. Eastern Indian
D. Pueblo India
E. Huli
F. Roman

1. Physics was introduced in toys to make them mobile and working.

2. A spinning toy which made a unique noise.
3. The Toys made from paper and clay.
4. The toys made from edible ingredients.
5. Toys to learn cultural importance.
6. Use of explosives and flammable material in making of toys.
7. The dead children were buried with dolls.
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Exercise – 4

THE ART OF PROBLEM SOLVING

Problem solving is considered to be the process of finding solutions to difficult
issues. The term “problem solving skills” refers not only to one’s ability to solve math
problems but also to a number of academic and real life situations that require the
ability to dissect problems and effectively resolve them.

Problem solving skills are also of extreme importance in the academic setting because
they are an inalienable part of one’s studies, effective work and life. Your teachers,
tutors, professors, instructors will often give you problem-solving assignments as
means of building up your life and academic competencies. Globally speaking, your
entire education is built on problem solving, and here is why: when you are given a
problem that ranges 1 out 3 on the complexity scale, you might not be able to deal
with it at first.

As a matter of fact, solving different types of problems requires a considerable number

of skills, but they all may be divided into two main types: analytical and creative. Let
us find out the role of these two skill groups. Analytical skills, which are also
collectively called ‘logical thinking’, is a kind of thinking responsible for selecting the
best solution out of all possible solutions. Analytical thinking involves the following
skills: ordering, comparing, contrasting, evaluating and selecting. Creative skills or
creative thinking can be characterized as a thinking process, which creates a solution
that is both new and valuable. The search for such solution is based on imagination,
intelligence and cognition. Creative thinking helps to see beyond the obvious and plays
an important role in solving the problem.

Effective problem solving usually involves a number of specific steps. Depending on

the situation and the type of problem, you will use one or the other problem-solving
pattern. Ability to identify a problem is the first step which means that a person can
adequately detect and recognize the problem, identify its source and nature. It may
sound obvious, but this step requires more thought and analysis than it may seem at
first. Secondly, understanding the structure of problem is very important step. This skill
requires the ability to observe, carefully inspect and develop a clear picture of the
problem. When working on a problem, you need to find as much information about the
problem as possible; as a result, you will build a more comprehensive picture of goals
and barriers. This may not be needed for simple problems but is necessary for
complicated ones.

When trying to solve a problem you will need to identify all possible solutions and
select the most viable of them, this makes the third step. It works like brainstorming,
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difference is that your solutions are limited to whatever ideas come to your head, and
that narrows down your choices. Nevertheless, you are still getting a list of viable
solutions and are able to select the ones that you think are most effective. Decision
making is the fourth and very crucial step. Once you have generated all solutions it is
essential that you select the best one. This is perhaps the most complex part of the
problem-solving process. Some solutions may not be possible due to circumstance
like time constraints, budget, complexity etc. Evaluate all pros and cons and make a
decision – which course of action do you want to take?

Implementation: the fifth step involves accepting and carrying out the chosen course
of action. Implementation implies that you need to act based on the chosen solution.
Implementation stage may bring some unexpected surprises; in most cases, they are
a result of inadequate analysis of the problem. The last step: the sixth one of effective
problem solving is reviewing outcomes of problem solving. This step means that you
need to make sure your decision was successful and effective. This can be achieved
by monitoring and gaining feedback from people affected by the changes that
occurred.

In order to effectively solve problems, you need to be attentive, well-organized, flexible

and motivated to find the solution. This level of problem-solving skills will require you
to build up considerable experience in problem solving. Once you have dealt with a
number of complex issues and have attained certain expertise in it, you will start
solving most problems subconsciously and automatically.

Question 1-7

Categorize the following problem solving steps according to the problem-solving

strategies given. Write A-F in front of appropriate statements.

NB: you may use one option more than once

A. The first step

B. The second step
C. The third step
D. The fourth step
E. The fifth step
F. The sixth step
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1. This step may have some un-anticipated confrontations.

2. This step is about confirming that the judgment was taken in correct and most
appropriate way.
3. This step instructs about figuring out the type of the problem.
4. This step tells about understanding the framework of a problem.
5. This step focuses on listing out all possible solutions.
6. This step is the most complicated step as it involves crucial parts like selection
and elimination.
7. This step recommends doing a thorough analysis of the problem.

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Match the headings

What is the task about?

In the IELTS reading test you may be asked to match headings to sections of text.
This type of question tests your ability to understand the main idea of each
paragraph.
Headings are short sentences that summarise the information in a paragraph. You
have to pick the one that best summarises the information in a paragraph.
You will be given a range of headings and asked to match each paragraph in the
reading text to one heading. There are always more headings than paragraphs .

Challenges
 Too much of information to read.
 Students usually match the words or try to look for matching words which are
given in headings.
 Students usually do not understand the inference of text; they would rather read
only first line and make their choice.
 Two or more paragraphs are suitable for one heading OR two or more headings
are suitable for one paragraph.
 Students spend too much of time after one paragraph.
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How to do it?

TIPS EXPLANATION
 Understanding the headings will help you out the information that
Understand the
you should look for. Try to imagine the information that might
headings
have under those headings.
 Always read one paragraph at a time, choose a suitable title and
then jump to next paragraph. Once you make a choice cross the
chosen heading off so it will avoid confusions while looking at the
Go paragraph options.
by paragraph  If you are confused between two headings, make a bubble around
both and move further. After coming across the suitable heading,
you would be able to make a choice among two bubbled headings.
In this way you would be able to get two answers.

 Do not read everything in extreme detail but it does not mean not
Scan the text to read carefully. Try to grasp overall meaning of the paragraph. If
very carefully you don’t know some words, do not worry about them but take
help of other words around them to make a guess.

 Many students look for words that match exactly with words in the
text and ignore synonyms. For example, a keyword in the heading
Synonyms might be ‘Excursion’, however the word you’re looking for could
be many different synonyms of ‘excursion’ like ‘trip’,
‘expedition’, ‘journey’ or ‘tour’.

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Exercise – 1
Match these two paragraphs with one of the following three headings:
I. Phobia can change your lifestyle
II. Helping people in countering phobias
III. When to seek support for phobias

A. If you have a phobia, you probably realize that your fear is irrational, yet you still
can’t control your feelings. Just thinking about the feared object or situation may
make you anxious. And when you’re actually exposed to the thing you fear, the
terror is automatic and overwhelming. The experience is so nerve-wracking that
you may go to great lengths to avoid it—inconveniencing yourself or even changing
your lifestyle. If you have claustrophobia, for example, you might turn down a
lucrative job offer if you have to ride the elevator to get to the office. If you have a
fear of heights, you might drive an extra 20 miles in order to avoid a tall bridge.

B. Although phobias are common, they don’t always cause considerable distress or
significantly disrupt your life. For example, if you have a snake phobia, it may cause
no problems in your everyday activities if you live in a city where you're not likely
to run into one. On the other hand, if you have a severe phobia of crowded spaces,
living in a big city would pose a problem. If your phobia doesn’t impact your life that
much, it’s probably nothing to be concerned about. But if avoidance of the object,
activity, or situation that triggers your phobia interferes with your normal
functioning, or keeps you from doing things you would otherwise enjoy, it’s time to
search for help.

Answers:
Paragraph A ………

Paragraph B ………
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Exercise – 2
Match these two paragraphs with one of the following three headings:
I. How wildlife benefits from big trees

II. Factors that enable trees to grow to significant heights

III. How other plants can cause harm

A. Big trees are incredibly important ecologically. For a start, they sustain countless
other species. They provide shelter for many animals, and their trunks and
branches can become gardens, hung with green ferns, orchids and bromeliads,
coated with mosses and draped with vines. With their tall canopies basking in the
sun, they capture vast amounts of energy. This allows them to sustain much of the
animal life in the forest.

B. Only a small number of tree species have the genetic capacity to grow really big.
The mightiest are native to Northern America, but big trees grow all over the globe,
from the tropics to the boreal forests of the high latitudes. To achieve giant stature,
a tree needs three things: the right place to establish its seedling, good growing
conditions and lots of time with low adult mortality. Disrupt any of these, and you
can lose your biggest trees.

Answers:
Paragraph A ………

Paragraph B ………

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Exercise – 3
Match these paragraphs with one of the following four headings:
i. Threats to the Bhavai play
ii. A ritualistic and religious enactment
iii. An art on the edge of dead-end
iv. An art with historical roots

A. Asaita Thakar began writing Bhavai plays with prose dialogues. He was perhaps
inspired by one of the medieval Sanskrit Uparupaka forms, enacted in the open. It is
believed that Asaita Thakar wrote about 360 plays or Veshas, but only about 60 have
survived including some with his own names. In one of his plays, Asaita had dated his
composition as AD 1360. It thus seems that Bhavai as a dramatic art form emerged in the
late 14th century. Out of gratitude, Hemala Patel also gave him a plot of land and financial
support. This marked the start of the patronage of Bhavaiya, the performers of Bhavai, by
villages.

B. Women are strictly prohibited from taking part in the Bhavai, hence, the male artists
only have to perform the female roles, in a way making the entire drama more joyful.
Bhavai is staged open-air in front of temples as a community ritual, honouring the goddess
Amba. Before the actors begin, they gather near a large earthen lamp and a drawing of a
‘trishula’ or trident symbolizing the goddess. They sing ‘garbi’ which are religious songs in
her praise, invoking blessings for the success of the performance. The chief of the Bhavai
troupe, called the Nayaka, enters from the makeshift dressing room and marks a large
circle called the ‘chachara’ or ‘podha’, considered a sacred place of pilgrimage and inside
which the performance takes place.

C. Famous twentieth-century Bhavai entertainers included Muljibhai Nayak, Pransukh

Nayak and Chimanlal Naik. But the village environment has radically changed owing to
cinema and television, and Bhavai has lost its charm and is decaying. Some workers of
modern Gujarati theatre attempted to write new plays to suit the times, though hardly any
concerted effort was made in this direction.

Answers:
Paragraph A ………

Paragraph B ………

Paragraph C ………
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Exercise – 4
Match these paragraphs with one of the following five headings:
i. Stress reduction in animals
ii. Effect of city life on mental health
iii. Two types of stress
iv. How stress can be useful
v. The fallout of cell death

A. Despite its bad reputation, stress historically had a vital role to play. Commonly referred to
as the ‘fight or flight’ mode, the sudden release of stress hormones like adrenalin and
cortisol causes the heart to beat faster, airways to dilate and blood vessels to open up, all
of which push the body towards optimal performance and, ultimately, survival. In the rest
of the animal kingdom, this is still often the difference between life and death. As he springs
off to freedom, the lucky gazelle who escapes the lion can thank this primal evolutionary
response.
B. In ordinary modern life, although we’re in little danger of being stalked by wild beasts down
city streets, our bodies react to stress in the same ways. Experiencing anxiety, fear and
stress is considered a normal part of life when it is occasional and temporary, such as
feeling anxious and stressed before an exam or a job interview. It is when these acute
reactions are prolonged or cannot be switched off, however, that serious physical, social
and cognitive issues can result. In contrast to the normal everyday stress of modern life,
chronic stress is a pathological state which can significantly interfere with daily living
activities such as work, school and relationships, wreaking havoc on the body’s immune,
metabolic and cardiovascular systems.
C. Of major concern is the impact on the brain. Researchers have found that the
hippocampus, the control centre of memory and our ability to learn, can physically shrink
in response to prolonged release of stress hormones like cortisol which result from chronic
stress. Neurons in this area do not just get smaller, but actually die, which weakens the
neural connections, affecting the way memories are organised and stored in the brain. A
chronically stressed person would recognise this as a ‘brain fog’, and it also has
ramifications for other areas such as creativity and adaptability.

Answers:
Paragraph A ………

Paragraph B ………

Paragraph C ………
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Exercise – 5
Match these paragraphs with one of the following seven headings:
I. Geography of the sun
II. The sun’s size and strength
III. How the sun will die?
IV. Formation of the sun
V. The sun’s bright future
VI. The centre of the sun
VII. Extremely speedy photons

A
The sun lies at the heart of the solar system, where it is by far the largest object. It
holds 99.8 percent of the solar system's mass and is roughly 109 times the diameter
of the Earth — about one million Earths could fit inside the sun. The visible part of the
sun is about 10,000 degrees Fahrenheit (5,500 degrees Celsius), while temperatures
in the core reach more than 27 million F (15 million C), driven by nuclear reactions.
One would need to explode 100 billion tons of dynamite every second to match the
energy produced by the sun, according to NASA.

B
The sun was born about 4.6 billion years ago. Many scientists think the sun and the
rest of the solar system formed from a giant, rotating cloud of gas and dust known as
the solar nebula. As the nebula collapsed because of its gravity, it spun faster and
flattened into a disk. Most of the material was pulled toward the center to form the sun.

C
The sun has enough nuclear fuel to stay much as it is now for another 5 billion years.
After that, it will swell to become a red giant. Eventually, it will shed its outer layers,
and the remaining core will collapse to become a white dwarf. Slowly, this will fade, to
enter its final phase as a dim, cool theoretical object sometimes known as a black
dwarf.

D
The sun and its atmosphere are divided into several zones and layers. The solar
interior, from the inside out, is made up of the core, radiative zone and the convective
zone. The core extends from the sun's center to about a quarter of the way to its
surface. Although it only makes up roughly 2 percent of the sun's volume, it is almost
15 times the density of lead and holds nearly half of the sun's mass. Next is the
radiative zone, which extends from the core to 70 percent of the way to the sun's
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convection zone reaches up to the sun's surface, and makes up 66 percent of the
sun's volume but only a little more than 2 percent of its mass.

E
Deep in the sun's core, nuclear fusion converts hydrogen to helium, which generates
energy. Particles of light called photons carry this energy through a spherical shell
called the radiative zone to the top layer of the solar interior, the convection zone.
There, hot plasmas rise and fall like the ooze in a lava lamp, which transfers energy
to the sun's surface, called the photosphere. It can take 170,000 years for a photon to
complete its journey out of the sun, but once it exits, it zips through space at more than
186,000 miles a second. Solar photons reach Earth about eight minutes after they're
freed from the sun's interior, crossing an average of 93 million miles to get here—a
distance defined as one astronomical unit (AU).

Answers:
Paragraph A ………

Paragraph B ………

Paragraph C ………

Paragraph D ………

Paragraph E ……....

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Exercise – 6
Match these paragraphs with one of the following headings:
i. Hurricanes in history
ii. How hurricanes form
iii. How a laboratory exercise re-routed a hurricane
iv. Exciting ways to utilise future technologies
v. Are hurricanes unbeatable?
vi. Re-visiting earlier ideas
vii. How lives might have been saved
viii. A range of low-tech methods

Can Hurricanes be Moderated or Diverted?

A Each year, massive swirling storms bringing along winds greater than 74 miles per
hour wipe across tropical oceans and land on shorelines—usually devastating vast
swaths of territory. When these roiling tempests strike densely inhabited territories,
they have the power to kill thousands and cause property damage worth of billions of
dollars. Besides, absolutely nothing stands in their way. But can we ever find a way to
control these formidable forces of nature?

B To see why hurricanes and other severe tropical storms may be susceptible to
human intervention, a researcher must first learn about their nature and origins.
Hurricanes grow in the form of thunderstorm clusters above the tropical seas. Oceans
in low-latitude areas never stop giving out heat and moisture to the atmosphere, which
brings about warm, wet air above the sea surface. When this kind of air rises, the water
vapour in it condenses to form clouds and precipitation. Condensation gives out heat
in the process the solar heat is used to evaporate the water at the ocean surface. This
so-called invisible heat of condensation makes the air more buoyant, leading to it
ascending higher while reinforcing itself in the feedback process. At last, the tropical
depression starts to form and grow stronger, creating the familiar eye -- the calm centre
hub that a hurricane spins around. When reaching the land, the hurricane no longer
has a continuous supply of warm water, which causes it to swiftly weaken.

C Our current studies are inspired by my past intuition when I was learning about
chaos theory 30 years ago. The reason why long-range forecasting is complicated is
that the atmosphere is highly sensitive to small influences and tiny mistakes can
compound fast in the weather-forecasting models. However, this sensitivity also made
me realise a possibility: if we intentionally applied some slight inputs to a hurricane,
we might create a strong influence that could affect the storms, either by steering them
away from densely populated areas or by slowing them down. Back then, I was not
able to test my ideas, but thanks to the advancement of computer simulation and
remote-sensing technologies over the last 10 years, I can now renew my enthusiasm
in large-scale weather control.
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D To find out whether the sensitivity of the atmospheric system could be exploited
to adjust such robust atmospheric phenomena as hurricanes, our research team ran
simulation experiments on computers for a hurricane named Iniki that occurred in
1992. The current forecasting technologies were far from perfect, so it took us by
surprise that our first simulation turned out to be an immediate success. With the goal
of altering the path of Iniki in mind, we first picked the spot where we wanted the storm
to stop after six hours. Then we used this target to generate artificial observations and
put these into the computer model.

E The most significant alteration turned out to be the initial temperatures and winds.
Usually, the temperature changes across the grid were only tenths of a degree, but
the most noteworthy change, which was an increase of almost two degrees Celsius,
took place in the lowest model layer to the west of the storm centre. The calculations
produced wind-speed changes of two or three miles per hour. However, in several
spots, the rates shifted by as much as 20 mph due to minor redirections of the winds
close to the storm’s centre. In terms of structure, the initial and altered versions of
Hurricane Iniki seemed almost the same, but the changes in critical variables were so
substantial that the latter one went off the track to the west during the first six hours of
the simulation and then travelled due north, leaving Kauai untouched.

F Future earth-orbiting solar power stations, equipped with large mirrors to focus the
sun’s rays and panels of photovoltaic cells to gather and send energy to the Earth,
might be adapted to beam microwaves which turn to be absorbed by water vapour
molecules inside or around the storm. The microwaves would cause the water
molecules to vibrate and heat up the surrounding air, which then leads to the hurricane
slowing down or moving in a preferred direction.

G Simulations of hurricanes conducted on a computer have implied that by changing

the precipitation, evaporation and air temperature, we could make a difference to a
storm’s route or abate its winds. Intervention could be in many different forms:
exquisitely targeted clouds bearing silver iodide or other rainfall-inducing elements
might deprive a hurricane of the water it needs to grow and multiply from its formidable
eyewall, which is the essential characteristic of a severe tropical storm.

Answers:
Paragraph A …….
Paragraph B …….
Paragraph C ……
Paragraph D …….
Paragraph E …….
Paragraph F …….
Paragraph G …….
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Exercise – 7
Match these paragraphs with one of the following headings:

LIGHT POLLUTION

i Why lights are needed

ii Lighting discourages law breakers
iii The environmental dangers
iv People at risk from bright lights
v Illuminating space
vi A problem lights do not solve
vii Seen from above
viii More light than is necessary
ix Approaching the city

A After hours of driving south in the pitch-black darkness of the Nevada desert, a dome
of hazy gold suddenly appears on the horizon. Soon, a road sign confirms the obvious:
Las Vegas 30 miles. Looking skyward, you notice that the Big Dipper is harder to find than
it was an hour ago.

B Light pollution—the artificial light that illuminates more than its intended target area—
has become a problem of increasing concern across the country over the past 15 years.
In the suburbs, where over-lit shopping mall parking lots are the norm, only 200 of the
Milky Way’s 2,500 stars are visible on a clear night. Even fewer can be seen from large
cities. In almost every town, big and small, street lights beam just as much light up and
out as they do down, illuminating much more than just the street. Almost 50 percent of the
light emanating from street lamps misses its intended target, and billboards, shopping
centres, private homes and skyscrapers are similarly over-illuminated.

C America has become so bright that in a satellite image of the United States at night,
the outline of the country is visible from its lights alone. The major cities are all there, in
bright clusters: New York, Boston, Miami, Houston, Los Angeles, Seattle, Chicago, and,
of course, Las Vegas. Mark Adams, superintendent of the McDonald Observatory in west
Texas, says that the very fact that city lights are visible from on high is proof of their
wastefulness. “When you’re up in an airplane, all that light you see on the ground from the
city is wasted. It’s going up into the night sky. That’s why you can see it.”

D But don’t we need all those lights to ensure our safety? The answer from light
engineers, light pollution control advocates and astronomers is an emphatic “no.”
Elizabeth Alvarez of the International Dark Sky Association (IDA), a non-profit organization
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in Tucson, Arizona, says that overly bright security lights can actually force neighbours to
close the shutters, which means that if any criminal activity does occur on the street, no
one will see it. And the old assumption that bright lights deter crime appears to have been
a false one: A new Department of Justice report concludes that there is no documented
correlation between the level of lighting and the level of crime in an area. And contrary to
popular belief, more crimes occur in broad daylight than at night.

E For drivers, light can actually create a safety hazard. Glaring lights can temporarily
blind drivers, increasing the likelihood of an accident. To help prevent such accidents,
some cities and states prohibit the use of lights that impair night-time vision. For instance,
New Hampshire law forbids the use of “any light along a highway so positioned as to blind
or dazzle the vision of travellers on the adjacent highway.”

F Badly designed lighting can pose a threat to wildlife as well as people. Newly hatched
turtles in Florida move toward beach lights instead of the more muted silver shimmer of
the ocean. Migrating birds, confused by lights on skyscrapers, broadcast towers and
lighthouses, are injured, sometimes fatally, after colliding with high, lighted structures. And
light pollution harms air quality as well: Because most of the country’s power plants are
still powered by fossil fuels, more light means more air pollution.

Answers:
Paragraph A …….

Paragraph B …….

Paragraph C ……

Paragraph D …….

Paragraph E …….

Paragraph F …….
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Multiple choice questions

What is the Task about?

In the IELTS Reading Test, multiple choice questions are testing your skills or abilities
to understand the central idea in the given text and then look out for some specific
information.
You need to identify the main idea in order to locate the correct section of the text.
Some multiple choice questions start with a question that has three or four possible
answers. Others may start with an unfinished sentence that has three to four possible
endings. Your task is to simply choose the correct answer from a list of possible
choices.
Note**: Read the instructions thoroughly and answer accordingly. There might be possibilities
of more than one answer coming true. You have to select the answer based on what guidelines are
given before the questions.

For example:
 If the instruction before the question reads: Choose any ONE suitable option, you
must select only one.
 If the instruction before the passage says: Which TWO of the following describes
the best, you are supposed to select two options as your answer.

Challenges
 Reading the text blindly: Do not read the passage without being unaware of what
information is to be acquired. Get to know what the question is about and then start
reading, which might save up your time.
 Not understanding the whole sentence: Students are always in a hurry to
answer quickly. It is necessary to read the whole sentence in order to avoid wrong
answer as the answers may be sometimes tricky, changing its overall concept in
the latter half of the sentence.
 Reading text in a hurry: When a candidate reads the passage quickly, there are
probabilities that he/she might find the keyword or its synonym considering the
same to be correct and note it as their answer. Answers selected in this way proves
to be incorrect many a times and the candidate ends up losing marks.
 Being trapped by the examiner: There are some distractors that is actually the
incorrect answers which might look correct. For each question, there might be
atleast one matched synonym or a keyword which is kept to drag your attention
towards it. However, one should try to understand the overall meaning of the
sentence given both in question as well as in passage and try to match whether it
is correct in order to avoid such distractions.
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How to do it?

TIPS EXPLANATION

Read Read the questions carefully.

Highlight the keywords especially the ones that are unique or you
may also underline dates, names or years. Try to think out its
Highlight
synonyms which may appear in the text. This will help you to find
out the answers easily.

Locate the part of the text with either the keywords or their
synonyms, read it carefully, understand it in context and then
decide if it fits as the answer to the question asked. If the keywords
Locate the text
are in more than one part of the text, read them properly and
understand the difference in their meaning before selecting the
best suitable answer.

Read for correct Also, don’t forget to read the next few lines of the text to ensure
answers that it is correct.

Check of not only which options are correct, but also about how
Rule of elimination the other options are incorrect. Eliminating wrong options is also
one of the ways to find the correct answer.

If you are running out of time or you really don’t know the answer,
At least guess make a guess and don’t leave it empty. There is a possibility of
25% of the answer being correct.

Avoid getting trapped by the ‘distracters’ especially with the

Match the meaning keywords from the questions that look the same as the text. Try to
not words
understand the meaning of how the sentence is rephrased.
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Example:
Consider the following passage that is given to you and along with it are the multiple
choice questions to be answered.
Reading Passage:

August 1985: The worst month for air disasters

There are many grim landmarks in the history of aviation. One in particular stands out. Three decades
ago, 720 travellers and crew lost their lives on board commercial aircraft in a single month - more than
in any other before or since.

The deaths occurred in four separate accidents in August 1985. Each disaster had quite different
causes. The aircraft involved ranged from a 747 with hundreds on board to a tiny twin engine
turboprop carrying just eight people.

There was Japan Air Lines flight 123, the worst single-aircraft accident in history, in which 520 of 524
on board were killed. A further 137 died when Delta flight 191 flew into heavy winds as it approached
Dallas-Fort Worth International. A fire on board British Airtours flight 28M at Manchester Airport led
to 55 deaths. And all those on board the smallest aircraft, Bar Harbor Airlines flight 1808, lost their
lives as it flew into a small airport in Maine, USA.

Each, in their own way, had a lasting legacy, whether in the memories of those left bereaved or in
changes in technology and procedure introduced as a direct result. The worst death toll was on Japan
Air Lines Flight 123, a Boeing 747, which was en route from Tokyo to Osaka on 12 August 1985 when
the airtight bulkhead between its cabin and tail tore open. The change in pressure blew off the vertical
stabiliser, or tail fin. It also destroyed the hydraulic systems. The plane lurched up and down.

Choose any one correct letter A, B, C or D from the options given.

1. When did the 720 travellers die?
A. Thirteen decades ago.
B. A few decades ago.
C. 30 years ago.
D. There is no information about it.
Here, Answer C is correct, as in the first paragraph it clearly shows, 3 decades
ago. 3 decades that is equal to 30 years.

2. Twin engine turboprop carried:

A. Eight people.
B. Four people.
C. Two people.
D. Only a pilot.
Here, Answer A is correct, as in the last line of second paragraph it mentions
carrying just eight people.
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3. The worst accident in history, according to the paragraph, was:

A. Flight 123.
B. Delta flight 191.
C. British Airtours flight 28M.
D. Bar Harbor Airlines flight 1808.
Here, AnswerA is correct as the beginning of the third paragraph reads that:
"Japan Air Lines flight 123, the worst single-aircraft accident in history ".

4. Why did the Japan Air Lines Flight 123 crashed?

A. The change in pressure blew off the vertical stabiliser.
B. Destruction of the hydraulic systems.
C. The airtight bulkhead between its cabin and tail tore open.
D. It is unknown.
Here, Answer C is correct. Although answer A and B seem plausible as they are
given to trick you, the correct answer would be C as it was the reason the Flight
crashed.

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Exercise – 1
Reading Passage:
A polygraph, popularly referred to as a lie detector, measures and records several
physiological indices such as blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and skin conductivity
while a person is asked and answers a series of questions. The belief underpinning the
use of the polygraph is that deceptive answers will produce physiological responses
that can be differentiated from those associated with non-deceptive answers. There
are, however, no specific physiological reaction associated with lying, making it
difficult to identify factors that separate liars from truth tellers. Polygraph examiners
also prefer to use their own individual scoring method, as opposed to computerized
techniques, as they may more easily defend their own evaluations.

Choose any one possible answer from the given four options below:
Why does some polygraph examiners use their own scoring method?

A. Because for them it will be easy to monitor physiological indices such as

blood pressure, pulse, respiration, and skin conductivity.
B. Because polygraph machine only tests non-deceptive answers.
C. Because they can back-up their assessments.
D. Because computerized techniques offer many disadvantages.

Exercise – 2
Reading Passage:
An ideal location of this ancient and historic city and University provides a beautiful
setting for the study of museums, their history, purpose and contemporary development.
The history division is based in the College of Art History and our competent staff offers
a series of full-time and part-time courses in Museum and Gallery Studies. Taught
modules on the Theory and Practice of Museums are balanced with practical projects
based either on the museum collections of the university, or on those to be found at a
local museum or gallery. Study visits to a range of museums, art galleries, historic houses
and other heritage sites in the neighbourhood are an essential part of the program.

Choose any one possible answer from the given four options below:
What feature of the university does the passage highlight as significant?
A. University’s location.
B. Courses being offered by the university.
C. University’s teaching staff.
D. History and origin of university.
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Exercise – 3
Reading Passage:
You’ll also have the opportunity to review the work of fellow writers and receive comments
on your own, learning to read as a writer and respond to feedback. This course is intended for
those with an interest in starting to write fiction or improving their fiction writing, and does not
require any previous experience of studying this subject.
Please be aware that participation in this course involves reviewing work posted by other
learners. You may find some material used in these stories is of an adult nature (e.g. language,
sex, violence) and although captured in context, may offend. Learners on this course are
instructed to place warnings at the top of their work to indicate use of such content.
This course is recommended for learners of age 16+.

Which statement cannot be supported from this paragraph?

A. No any previous experience or qualification is required for pursuing the course.

B. Learners must have a specific minimum age.
C. Adult and explicit materials must be handled carefully with the notice on top of
the articles.
D. Participation in this course involves reviewing work posted by other learners.
E. This course is intended for people who specifically want to become script writers.

Exercise – 4

Reading Passage:
Many of us have become aware that statistically, the majority of Americans
are overweight. Although we hear this often in the media, not everybody may
realize the implications of this fact for health care and ultimately for our
national economy. Not only is excess weight associated with heart disease, a
number of different cancers, and other problems; it especially is associated
with diabetes. In 2011, 28.5 million of American citizens had diabetes. An
additional 66 million Americans had pre-diabetic symptoms. In 2011, medical
costs for diabetics were $174 billion per year. Research from a health
insurance company projected that by 2020, diabetes would cost America
$3.4 trillion per year. The federal government would pay over 60% of that
total. Accordingly, some organizations have recommended that losing weight
by reducing our intake of high-calorie foods could help save the government
money by lowering the risk, and hence the incidence, of diabetes. As a
result, improving our physical health also can improve our fiscal health.
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Which of the following statements best expresses the main idea of this passage?

A. More than 28 million Americans had diabetes in 2011.

B. Losing weight reduces diabetes risk, thereby saving government expense.
C. The federal deficit must be reduced to allow for medical expense.
D. Diabetes has become an American epidemic unrelated to weight.

Exercise – 5

Reading Passage:
Exposure to high levels of noise can cause permanent hearing loss. Neither
surgery nor a hearing aid can help correct this type of hearing loss. Short-
term exposure to loud noise can also cause a temporary change in hearing
(your ears may feel stuffed up) or a ringing in your ears (tinnitus). These
short-term problems may go away within a few minutes or hours after
leaving the noise. However, repeated exposures to loud noise can lead to
permanent tinnitus and/or hearing loss.
Loud noise can create physical and psychological stress, reduce productivity,
interfere with communication and concentration, and contribute to workplace
accidents and injuries by making it difficult to hear warning signals. The
effects of noise-induced hearing loss can be profound, limiting your ability to
hear high-frequency sounds, understand speech, and seriously impairing your
ability to communicate.
When sound waves enter the outer ear, the vibrations impact the ear drum
and are transmitted to the middle and inner ear. In the middle ear, three
small bones called the malleus (or hammer), the incus (or anvil), and the
stapes (or stirrup) amplify and transmit the vibrations generated by the
sound to the inner ear. The inner ear contains a snail-like structure called
Cochlea which is filled with fluid and lined with cells with very fine hairs.
These microscopic hairs move with the vibrations and convert the sound
waves into nerve impulses–the result is the sounds we hear. Exposure to loud
noise can destroy these hair cells and cause hearing loss!

Which of the following statements about health can be supported by the text?
A. Even after long exposure, the sound is unlikely to cause hearing loss.
B. The cochlea is not responsible for the transfer of sound waves into nerve
impulses.
C. Exposure to noise at work can harm worker’s health.
D. Three small bones of outer ear– malleus, incus, and stapes are attached like
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a chain to the tympanic membrane and convert sound waves.

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Exercise – 6

Reading Passage:
The Sacred Pipe

The sacred pipe was one of the most important artefacts of the indigenous people of North
America. In almost every culture, the sacred pipe was considered a gift from The Great Spirit.
The Cree believed that the pipe, the tobacco, and the fire were given as parting gifts from the
Creator, while the Iowa Black Bear clan believed that the pipe bowl and later the pipe stem
emerged from the earth as gifts to the earth's first bears. In most cases, the sacred pipe was
considered a medium through which humans could pray to The Great Spirit, asking for
guidance, health, and the necessities of life. In order for the prayers to reach the Great Spirit,
they had to travel in the plumes of smoke from the sacred pipe. Because of its connection to
the spiritual world, the pipe was treated with more respect than any human being, especially
when the pipe bowl was joined to the stem.

Unlike the common pipe, which was used by average tribesmen for casual smoking purposes,
the sacred pipe was built with precise craftsmanship. Before a pipe was carved, the catlinite
(pipestone) was blessed and prayed over. The bowl of the traditional sacred pipe was made
of red pipestone to represent the Earth. The wooden stem represented all that grew upon the
Earth. In the Lakota Society, as in many Native American tribes, the people believed that the
pipe bowl also represented a woman while the pipe stem represented a man. Joined together,
the pipe symbolized the circle of love between a man and woman. The sacred pipe was the
only object that was built by both genders; men carved the bowl and stem while women
decorated the pipe with porcupine quills. In many tribes the man and woman held onto the
sacred pipe during the marriage ceremony.

Cultivating the tobacco was the responsibility of certain members of the tribe. Generally,
tobacco was mixed with herbs, bark, and roots, such as bayberry, mugwort, and wild cherry
bark. These mixtures varied depending on the plants that were indigenous to the tribal area.
Ceremonial tobacco was much stronger than the type that was used for everyday smoking.
Rather than being inhaled, the smoke from the sacred pipe was puffed out the mouth in four
directions.

Pipestone, Minnesota, is considered hallowed ground for North American tribes. Regardless
of their conflicts, tribes put their weapons down and gathered in peace in these quarries.
According to the Dakota tribe, The Great Spirit once called all Indian nations to this location.
Here the Spirit stood on the red pipestone and broke a piece away from the rock to make a
giant pipe. He told his people that the red stone was their flesh and that it should be used to
make a sacred pipe. He also said that the pipestone belonged to all native tribesmen and that
the quarries must be considered a sacred place. Thus, people who had sacred pipes in their
possession were considered caretakers, not owners.
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Choose the correct letter from A-C, and write them down in your Answer
Sheet.

1. The sacred pipe was important in native American cultures because

A. it was part of their spiritual practice.
B. it was used in gift exchanges between tribes.
C. it represented traditional handicrafts.
2. The pipe was made of
A. stone and wood.
B. bark and roots.
C. red clay from the Earth.
3. The pipe was sometimes used at
A. funerals.
B. births.
C. weddings.
4. During the pipe ceremony, tribe members smoked
A. plain tobacco.
B. a combination of plants.
C. only bark.
5. Pipestone, Minnesota, is an important place because it is
A. the site of a major battle.
B. the origin of the Dakota tribe.
C. the source of stone for pipes.
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Exercise – 7
Reading Passage:
Palaeolithic Cave Art
Students of art history tend to be familiar with the images of horses and bison
discovered in the famous cave art site in Lascaux, France, in 1940. Less well-known
but vitally important to understanding Ice Age art and culture is the art discovered by
three cave explorers in the Chauvet Cave near Vallon-Pont- d’Arc in southern France
in 1994.

The Chauvet Cave hosts one of the largest group of Palaeolithic drawings yet
discovered on one site, as well as the fossilized remains of a number of now extinct
animals. The art found in the Chauvet Cave differs from that found in most other
European cave art sites, which primarily feature prey animals such as horses, bison,
wild cattle, and reindeer. The Chauvet paintings include many animals that humans
would have feared—panthers, bears, lions, hyenas, and rhinoceroses. While the
Chauvet paintings also include many species that would have been hunted by the
artists—horses, aurochs, bison, and extinct species of moose and deer—the presence
of non-prey animals calls into question a common theory that the primary purpose of
cave art was to magically ensure plentiful game. Perhaps the discovery of the Chauvet
art points to a shift in emphasis from the hunters’ predators to the hunters’ prey over
time, but more evidence is needed.

Carbon-14 dating has established three of the paintings (one bison and two
rhinoceroses) as being 31,000 years old. This discovery pushes the common
understanding of the date range for European cave art much further back than what
had been assumed. It has also clearly disproved theories that earlier cave art was
cruder and more primitive because these older images are equally sophisticated in
execution.

In addition to the hundreds of animal paintings, the Chauvet Cave also has an image
of a being, referred to as the Sorcerer, with the body of a human and the head of a
bison. There is also part of an image of a woman. In addition, explorers found the skull
of a cave bear placed on a squared-off altar like rock. The cave had been untouched
for thousands of years due to a rock slide that had sealed off the cave; the floor of the
cave contains the footprints of humans and cave bears, and fire pits, stone tools,
remnants of torches, and bones from meals. After scientists collected data and
recorded images, the site was placed off-limits to prevent the damage that has
occurred at many other caves known for their rock art.

Ice Age paintings in certain European caves have been extremely well preserved and
have reached iconic status because of their beauty and the artists’ skill in execution.
As a result, many people assume that the art of early hunters and gathers was limited
to cave paintings. While the artwork in the deep caves has been the best preserved,
artwork was also done on the walls of rock shelters and on rock faces out in open light.
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scratching designs into rock with pointed tools, as well as creating low-relief
sculptures. Often the artists seemed to have seen a suggestion of an animal’s shape
in a rock, and then added detail through incising lines, incorporating clay, or applying
pigment. In addition to animal images, most sites also have geometrical designs,
including dots and quadrangles. Archaeologists have also discovered small sculpted
figures from the same time period.

Images of hands, created either by wetting the palm of the hand with paint and
pressing the hand onto rock or by applying paint around the hand, perhaps by spitting
pigment from the mouth, are common. However, full images of humans are rare in the
European caves. Images combining human and animal elements such as the Chauvet
Cave Sorcerer have been found in various sites as have partial images of women, but
portrayals of a full human are few and far between, and they tend to be simple abstract
depictions. Most of the animal images, on the other hand, are detailed, realistic
portrayals of an individual animal species, not simply an abstract symbol meant to
depict an animal such as a horse or bison.

Choose the correct letter. Write the correct letter A, B, or C, on your answer
sheet.

1. As compared with the Chauvet Cave, the cave art site in Lascaux is
A. more well known.
B. less important.
C. more difficult to explore.

2. The art discovered in the Chauvet Cave differs from other European cave art
because
A. it does not include images of horses and bison.
B. it shows images of now-extinct animals.
C. it includes images of predatory animals.

3. According to the passage, a common belief about the function of cave art is that
A. it was meant to bring animals to be hunted.
B. it was intended to drive away predatory animals.
C. it was used to warn others about the presence of fearsome animals.

4. As compared with other European cave art sites, the art in the Chauvet Cave is
A. cruder and more primitive.
B. significantly older.
C. more sophisticated in subject matter.

5. Images found in the Chauvet Cave include

A. a crude map.
B. a part-human, part-animal being.
C. a complete drawing of a woman.
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6. In addition to art, other discoveries in the Chauvet Cave include

A. implements made of stone.
B. human bones.
C. bison pelts.

7. No humans had visited the Chauvet Cave for thousands of years because
A. cave bears lived inside it.
B. it was declared off limits.
C. the entrance was blocked by rocks.

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Paragraph Identification

What is the task about?

In this kind of question, you are asked to match statements to paragraphs in the
reading text. This type of question tests your ability to read comprehensively.

Challenges
 The biggest problem is the fact that you need to look at the whole text. The
answers could be anywhere in the text and they do not come in order, so it takes
time.
 Also, the answers might not be the main idea of each paragraph.
 There is also lots of irrelevant information that you do not need to consider.
 Not all paragraphs contain an answer and some paragraphs contain more than
one answer.

How to do it?

TIPS EXPLANATION
Do this question  As this type of question requires a lot of reading, it would be
last better you finish other types of questions in the passage.
Read the
 This will tell what exactly you are looking for?
questions first

Instructions  ‘NB: You may select one option more than once’

 Be mindful of synonyms.
Synonyms
For example, you might see ‘34%‘ in the question but it might say
‘just over a third‘ or ‘about a third‘ in the text.
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Exercise – 1
LOOKING FOR A JOB

A. I am a 25-year-old nanny with 6 years experience in childcare with babies, toddlers and older
children. I also worked with newborn babies in a hospital. I have checkable references, a childcare
certificate, police check and a First Aid Certificate. I am a driver and non-smoker. I have lived in Berlin
for more than 7 years; my English and Spanish are very good.

I am looking for a live-in nanny job in Madrid from November. If you need a loving, caring, responsible
person to look after your children and teach them English, please contact me by email or by phone.

B. Australian woman 32yrs, experienced PA, seeks job in Malaysia. Available end May. Bilingual
in English and French. Partner: French. Work as a couple possible. Email: ...

C. Indian web publisher seeks work: Website design, desktop publishing, book layout, graphic design.
Part time or contract. Experienced, skilled, reliable. Contact: ...

D. I have experience within banking, hotels, local government and manufacturing - all mostly working in
administration type roles with vast experience of Microsoft packages, Sage and a range of other
bespoke systems.
I look forward to any replies or guidance ...

E. Driving job needed

- Highly skilled driver, over 25

- Have held full clean Class Cl licence for 10 years
- Know London extremely well
- Willing to do physical work such as loading trucks
- Want full time work
- Contact ...

F. Science and Maths lessons given. Experienced tutor, specialising in helping secondary
school students with their state exams.
Degree in Physics.
Email ...

Look at the six job advertisements A-F. Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 1-4 on
your answer sheet.

NB You may use any letter more than once.

1. Which person wants a teaching job?

2. Which two people mention their foreign language skills?
3. Who would be willing to do part-time work?
4. Which person describes their personal qualities?
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Exercise – 2

A. Chicago Pizza Party Festival

Chicago, home of the famous deep dish pizza and known for its culinary scene. Enjoy pizza
from over 25 of Chicago’s best pizza restaurants. Not only is this festival a pizza lover
paradise, but you also get local beer tasting stands, cocktails, wine, music, games, and even
surprise prizes.

B. International Pizza Expo

The International Pizza Expo is the largest, most important pizza festival in the country. Only
the best of the best gather at this festival to celebrate pizza. Hundreds of pizza lovers gather
each year to see what’s new in the pizza world. With pizza workshops, exclusive pizza chef
presentations, and more, if you’re serious about pizza, this is a festival you can’t miss.

C. Lemoore Pizza Festival

Another California-based pizza festival. It seems Californians really enjoy their pizza.
Celebrate pizza by participating in one of the many pizza contests, including a pizza
decorating contest, pizza relay race, and pizza eating contest. We’re sure you can win that
pizza eating contest without a problem.

D. New York Pizza Festival

If you’re a New York pizza fan, this festival is for you. Join the biggest pizza lovers gathering
in New York City. This is a five-day pizza festival that features over 40 iconic New York pizza
restaurants and over 50 craft beers and wine.

E. Cleveland Pizza Fest

Picture this, a 3-day food and music festival with pizza restaurants from all over Cleveland.
Most restaurants offer free sample-size slices so you get to try all their pizza options. Enjoy
live music, a super cool motorcycle and classic car show, and rides and attractions for kids.

F. Boston Pizza Festival

A 2-day pizza event where you can eat all the pizza you want, pair it with the best booze and
have fun with all the games. Last year, pizza lovers who attended the event ate over 27,000
pizzas, that’s how much they like pizza. Stick around to see the pizza tossers, and don’t you
dare leave without taking a selfie with the costume pizza slice that’s walking around the
festival.

Which Pizza Festival matches with following information?

Write A-F for questions 1-6
NB: you can use same letter more than once.

1. A longest pizza festival.

2. A pizza festival where you can eat pizza for free of cost.
3. A pizza festival organizing many competitions.
4. A pizza festival where you can win prizes.
5. A pizza festival where you can get an opportunity to take a photograph with a
special figure.
6. A previous pizza festival had an impressive record.
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Exercise – 3

How to Save Electricity at Home: Top Tips

A. Turn it off at the switch
Leaving electronics on standby means that electricity is still being used so they can be
turned on at a moment’s notice. Turning these appliances off stops this from
happening – you could even use a smart switch: There's loads available, from simple
timed switches to ones that can be controlled remotely from your smart phone. This
makes it much easier to ensure that your electronics aren't left on standby.

B. Keep your fridge and freezer full

A full fridge-freezer needs less energy to keep cold as the items inside maintain the
temperature. You don’t always need to do a food shop to make this happen – simply
filling up a jug with water for the fridge will have the same effect, plus this allows you
to always have cold water straight from the fridge, saving water when running the tap.
To keep your freezer full why not fill the empty spaces with paper?

C. Be efficient when cooking

Use lids when boiling pans on the hob and make sure that you’re using the right
saucepan on the right ring. This can make a huge difference, speeding up cooking
times and using far less energy. Another great tip is to steam the food before frying.

D. Wash clothes on a lower temperature

Most of your washing can be done at a lower temperature – like 30 degrees – and still
provide the same results. Doing this will help to reduce your electricity consumption
as your washing machine won’t need to heat the water to such a high temperature.

E. Purchase energy efficient appliances

This is an expensive one to get into, but if you’re upgrading appliances then making
sure you get one with a high efficiency rating will help save you money every day that
it’s running.

F. Spend less time in the shower

Especially true if you have an electric shower and a water meter. Spending even a
minute less in the shower every day can make a real difference to your annual
consumption, although how much will depend on your shower unit.

G. Generate your own electricity

If you’re really serious about saving electricity in your house, then investing in solar
panels or other renewable technology is a great way of doing this. It will take a few
years to break even on this investment, but you’ll start saving money on your electricity
bills straight away as you can use the electricity you generate rather than taking it from
the grid.

Look at the following statements. Match each statement with the correct electricity saving
tip, A-G. Write the correct letter, A-G, in boxes 15-21 on your answer sheet.
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1. A tip that gives surety that the energy saving investment is worth doing.
2. A tip that asks to install modernized devices.
3. A tip that asks about buying standardized appliances.
4. A tip that focuses on your yearly energy utilization.
5. A tip that asks about using a correct thing at a correct place.

Exercise – 4

How Do Animals Communicate?

A. What do an individual thinks what animals are saying to each other when they utter
the wide variety of cries, squawks, barks, and growls? Is there something behind
the noises, or are they just meaningless sounds? A little digging on how animals
communicate will tell you that uttering sounds, which is the dominant means of
communication for humans, is only one of the many ways in which the members
of animal and avian kingdoms communicate.

B. Unlike humans, visual communication in animals is the least effective, since it has
prerequisites of proximity and adequate illumination, but birds and animals that
conduct their activities during the day do utilize this form of communication.
Amongst avian creatures, males usually have colorful plumage to attract the
attention of females. Birds of paradise and peacocks are classic examples of this.
The thickness and depth of color of a lion’s mane, for example, is a visual indicator
for a female of his strength as a prospective mate. Color in the animal kingdom
conveys a lot of information, and is also used as a threat, which signals predators
to stay away. Brightly-colored insects and animals have the appearance of being
venomous, which acts as a defense mechanism for these creatures.

C. Movement is another characteristic visual cue. Research has shown that the
hovering and waggle-dancing of forager bees is not random, but in fact, by moving
up and down, the bees are informing other bees of the distance and location of a
food source. Not to mention, the whole exchange is quite amusing to watch!

D. The cries that animals utter are limited to signals related to signifying danger,
mating or foraging activities. Auditory signals are more advantageous for survival
in the animal kingdom, since sound can travel much greater distances than visual
recognition. Almost all animals and birds have some type of cry that informs other
of the presence of danger to animals of their own species. The cuckoo sings and
the frog croaks to communicate and attract potential sexual partners in their
vicinity, as is true with millions of other species. Animals emit a very different cry
to indicate pain, which is understood by members of the species, but perhaps not
that different to human ears. This isn’t exclusive land animals, but also mammals
living in the oceans, such as whales and dolphins, which “speak” at ultrasonic
frequencies to communicate over long distances, as visibility is greatly
compromised.
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E. Again, touch is a limiting aspect of communication, as it requires close proximity,

but is nonetheless vital for social communication in the animal kingdom.
Chimpanzees greet each other by holding hands, monkeys groom each other and,
as pet owners should know very well, domestic animals commonly lick with their
tongue to show affection. Elephants, for example, are extremely tactile creatures
and use their bodies to show many emotions, including affection, aggression,
playfulness etc. Their trunks are generally used to caress, direct their young ones
or hold other trunks as a sign of affection. Tusks are generally used to fight for herd
dominance or protect the clan. Touching helps to strengthen bonds between
animals both big and small, just like in humans!

F. Chemical communication mainly involves pheromones, but it can also include

bodily fluids, such as urine and venom for certain animals for defense purposes.
This probably represents the strongest form of signal transmission among our four-
legged brethren. Pheromones are a substance produced by an animal’s body that
are released to convey information. Two different systems are required for
chemical communication, classified based on whether it requires direct or indirect
contact. In the case of indirect contact through airborne or aqueous mediums,
chemical communication is perceived through the sense of smell and taste. For
example, snakes can literally taste their enemies from a distance. They use their
forked tongues and receptors in the roofs of their mouth to collect pheromones
from potential prey and predators before making their next slithering move! Most
big cats like lions or tigers mark their territory by urinating, which warns other
animals to stay away due to the pheromones in the smell. Cats have a unique way
of saying ‘you belong to me’. They rub their heads against a person or object to
release the pheromones in glands located in their head and ear region, so that any
other animal knows that they’ve claimed you already! There are also alarm
pheromones that the animal kingdom uses to ward off predators. When a bee
stings, they inject a chemical, Isopentyl acetate, into the sting to warn other bees.
This sometimes causes swarming (mass attack launched on the predator).

G. Communication between species can play important roles as well. One study
suggested that the reason Madagascan spiny-tailed iguanas have well-developed
ears -- despite the fact that they don't communicate vocally -- is so they can hear
the warning calls of the Madagascan paradise flycatcher. The two species have
nothing in common except for the fact that they share a general habitat and raptors
like to snack on them. So when an iguana hears a bird raise the alarm among other
birds, it likely knows to be on alert for incoming predators, too.

H. However, as noise pollution interferes with animal communiqués all across the
globe, many animals' ability to communicate effectively comes under fire.
Increased shipping traffic over the last century has dramatically affected the
transfer of whale sounds around the ocean basin. Studies have found that
songbirds, too, suffer from noisy urban environments. Some species have had to
modify their singing styles, producing songs that are louder and shriller, in order to
be heard above the clamor. Pumped up volume usually leads to simpler and
somewhat inferior styles of singing that female birds seem to find decidedly less
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Which paragraph contains following information? Write A-H in boxes 1-8 on your
answer sheet.

NB: You can use one letter more than once.

1. The mode of communication which can happen during the day only.
2. The communication that is entertaining to witness.
3. Animal sounds which express different meanings, cannot be distinguished by
human beings.
4. Animals using sounds where vision is not useful in communication.
5. Animals experiencing awful consequences due to globalization and urbanization.
6. Animal’s way of showing possession.
7. One species taking the advantage of other species’ communication.
8. The communication which requires nearness, and helps in socializing and
establishing the close connection.
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Exercise – 5

MYTHS ABOUT PUBLIC SPEAKING

A
Fear of public speaking results not only from what one does not know or understand
about public communication, but also from misconceptions and myths about public
encounters. These misconceptions and myths persist among professional people as well
as the general public. Persistent myths about public communication simply increase fear
in people and prevent their development into competent public speakers.

B
Perhaps the most persistent myth about public communication is that it is a 'special'
activity reserved for unusual occasions. After all, public speeches are not made that often.
There are only a few special occasions during the year when even an
outgoing professional person will step behind a podium to give a public speech, and many
professional people can count on one hand the number of public speeches given in a
career. Surely, then, public communication is a rare activity reserved for
especially important occasions. This argument, of course, ignores the true nature of
public communication and the nature of the occasions in which it occurs. To engage with
people whom one does not know well, to solve problems, share understanding and
perspectives, advocate points of view, or seek stimulation, means to engage in public
speaking. Public communication, therefore, is a familiar, daily activity which occurs in the
streets, restaurants, boardrooms, courtrooms, parks, offices, factories and
meetings. Contrary to widespread misunderstandings, public speaking is not an unusual
activity reserved for special occasions and restricted to the lectern or the platform. Rather
it is, and should be developed as, an everyday activity occurring in any location where
people come together.

C
A related misconception about public communication is the belief that the public speaker
is a specially gifted individual with innate abilities and God-given propensities. While
most professional people would reject the idea that public speakers are born, not made,
they never the less often feel that the effective public communicator has developed
unusual personal talents to a remarkable degree. At the heart of this misconception—like
the myth of public speaking as a 'special' activity—is an overly narrow view of what a
public person is and does. Development as an effective public communicator begins with
the understanding that it is not necessary to be a nationally-known, speak-for-pay,
professional platform speaker to be a competent public person. The public speaker is an
ordinary person who confronts the necessity of being a public person and uses common
abilities.
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D
A less widespread but serious misconception of public speaking is reflected in the belief
that public speeches have a lasting purpose. A public speech is something viewed as an
historical event which will be part of a continuing and generally available public record.
Some public speeches are faithfully recorded, transcribed, reproduced and made part of
broadly available historical records. Those instances are rare compared to the thousands
of unrecorded public speeches made' every day. Public communication is usually
situation-specific and ephemeral. Most audiences do well if they remember as much as
40 per cent of what a speaker says immediately after the speaker concludes; even less is
retained as time goes by. This fact is both reassuring and challenging to the public
communicator. On the one hand, it suggests that there is room for human error in making
public pronouncements; on the other hand, it challenges the public speaker to overcome
the poor listening habits of most audiences.

E
Finally, professional people, perhaps more than other groups, often subscribe to the
misconception that public communication must be an exact science, that if it is done
properly it will succeed. The troublesome corollary to this reasoning is that if public
communication fails, it is because it was improperly prepared or executed. This argument
unfortunately ignores the uncertainties of human interaction. Public speakers achieve
their goals through their listeners, and the only truly predictable aspect of human
listeners is their unpredictability. Further, public messages may succeed
despite inadequate preparation and dreadful delivery.

F
It should be added that professional people often mismanage their fears of public
communication. However, once an understanding of what public encounters assume and
demand, once the myths which handicap the growth of a public person are unburdened,
development as a competent public communicator can properly begin.

Reading Passage has six sections, A-F. Which section contains the following
information? Write the correct letter, A-F, in boxes 1-5 on your answer sheet.

[1] A person’s ability to be a public speaker

[2] Conditions under which one begins developing as a public speaker
[3] A definition of public speaking
[4] The relationship of preparation to success in public speaking
[5] Reasons why public speaking is feared
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Scientists Categorization

What is the task about?

This task is almost similar to classification tasks. The difference is that the options are
people or things, whereas in classification tasks the options are categories.
There are many possibilities but matching people to statements is the most common
one.
This type of question tests your ability whether you are able to identify and understand
different arguments or not.

Challenges
 Some given sentences are just of no use; they are just distractors.
 Do not expect that given statements come in the same order as given in the
paragraphs.
 Sometimes, names come more than one time that may create confusion for reader
to reach to final answer.
 Synonyms are often found to express person’s opinion. So, make sure that you are
aware from all those different words: says, opines, contends, felt and many more.

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How to do it?

TIPS EXPLANATION

 Underline the scientists’ names as you read

Underline
 This will help you to find which information is where

 Skim and scan the paragraphs and keep in mind all marked
words.
Proof reading
 Some of the names may seem to appear more than once, so
find them all before you go for any answer.

 To find correct match, read out all listed statements.

Read statements
 You may find distracters and you need to find them all.

Start with the  Start with the questions. Understand all the statements
questions completely and then find out the correct matches.

Understand whole  Never decide your answer by matching all key words.
sentences  Remember, you are matching meaning, not just words.

Cross out the  Cross off the answers which you have already found. This
finished answers will avoid the confusions.
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Exercise – 1

Here's how your desk should be organized

In the office, your desk is your command center. And experts said how well it's organized can help set
the tone and productivity level at work.

Get your layout right. “Your monitor should be in front of you at eye-level and about 17-inches from
your body” says Garry Jaslow. Put frequently-used items, like the phone or supplies, on your
dominant side to avoid having to reach across.

Mind your office supplies. Supplies used every day can go on the desk. Items used a couple times
a week should go in a drawer under or to the side of a desk.
"Getting up even just once a day for a pencil or paper clip is shutting your brain off a project you are
working on and you will have to come back and re-center," said Amy Trager, a
professional organizer in Chicago.
It's also best to group like items together. "All your office supplies should be kept together, not split up
in multiple drawers," said David Skotney, a professional organizer.

Go easy on reminders. When it comes to sticky notes, moderation is a key.

Framing your monitor with notes isn't the most effective. "They've lost their usefulness at that point,"
said Jen Muller. Use them for important short-term reminders.

Don't go overboard with personal knick-knacks. Maintaining work-life balance is hard, especially
on your desk. Family pictures, vacation souvenirs and other trinkets can provide positive feelings
during the work day, but too many mementos can be a distraction.
"Our eyes pull every single thing in front of us and our brain processes it -- even if we don't realize it,"
explained Zaslow. A desk full of stuff means "that is a lot of work and editing for you."
He recommended keeping no more than three personal items on a desk.

Control your inbox. E-mail is a convenient way to communicate, but it can also be a major
distraction.
If it becomes too much of a distraction, Skotney recommended designating certain time periods
throughout the day to check and respond to email. "The rest of the time is for work."
Also, don't be afraid to disable the pop-up notices of new mail if it interrupts work flow.

Embrace white space. Keep a paper-sized free space to your dominant side as a designated work
space to make it easier to review or sign documents.

Reassess frequently. Keeping a desk organized requires frequent upkeep and assessments, so be
sure to take a weekly scan of your desk to make sure everything still deserves a spot on your work
space.
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Look at the following people and the list of statements below.

Match each person with the correct statement.

NB: you can use one option more than once

A. Jen Muller
B. Andrew Mellen
C. Amy Trager
D. David Skotney
E. Garry Jaslow

1. Looking for necessary office supplies which are out of reach, results in
distraction.
2. Put extremely needy items on the dominant side of you.
3. Allocate a specific time for a certain activity.
4. Overloading the desk with too many personal items leads to distraction.
5. Sticky notes have lost their utility.
6. Office supplies should not be kept disorganized; keeping them together would
rather be helpful.

Answers

1. ………
2. ………
3. ………
4. ………
5. ………
6. ………
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Exercise – 2
Flawed Beauty: the problem with toughened glass

On 2nd August 1999, a particularly hot day in the town of Cirencester in the UK, a large pane
of toughened glass in the roof of a shopping center at Bishops Walk shattered without warning
and fell from its frame. When fragments were analyzed by experts at the giant glass
manufacturer Pilkington, which had made the pane, they found that minute crystals of nickel
sulphide trapped inside the glass had almost certainly caused the failure.

‘The glass industry is aware of the issue,’ says Brian Waldron, chairman of the standards
committee at the Glass and Glazing Federation, a British trade association, and standards
development officer at Pilkington. But he insists that cases are few and far between. ‘It’s a very
rare phenomenon,’ he says.

Others disagree. ‘On average I see about one or two buildings a month suffering from nickel
sulphide related failures,’ says Barrie Josie, a consultant engineer involved in the Bishops Walk
investigation. Other experts tell of similar experiences. Tony Wilmott of London-based
consulting engineers Sandberg, and Simon Armstrong at CladTech Associates in Hampshire
both say they know of hundreds of cases. ‘What you hear is only the tip of the iceberg,’ says
Trevor Ford, a glass expert at Resolve Engineering in Brisbane, Queensland. He believes the
reason is simple: ‘No-one wants bad press.’

Toughened glass is found everywhere, from cars and bus shelters to the windows, walls and
roofs of thousands of buildings around the world. It’s easy to see why. This glass has five times
the strength of standard glass, and when it does break it shatters into tiny cubes rather than
large, razor-sharp shards. Architects love it because large panels can be bolted together to make
transparent walls, and turning it into ceilings and floors is almost as easy.

It is made by heating a sheet of ordinary glass to about 620°C to soften it slightly, allowing its
structure to expand, and then cooling it rapidly with jets of cold air. This causes the outer layer
of the pane to contract and solidify before the interior. When the interior finally solidifies and
shrinks, it exerts a pull on the outer layer that leaves it in permanent compression and produces
a tensile force inside the glass. As cracks propagate best in materials under tension, the
compressive force on the surface must be overcome before the pane will break, making it more
resistant to cracking.

The problem starts when glass contains nickel sulphide impurities. Trace amounts of nickel
and Sulphur are usually present in the raw materials used to make glass, and nickel can also be
introduced by fragments of nickel alloys falling into the molten glass. As the glass is heated,
these atoms react to form tiny crystals of nickel sulphide. Just a tenth of a gram of nickel in the
furnace can create up to 50,000 crystals.

These crystals can exist in two forms: a dense form called the alpha phase, which is stable at
high temperatures, and a less dense form called the beta phase, which is stable at room
temperatures. The high temperatures used in the toughening process convert all the crystals to
the dense, compact alpha form.
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But the subsequent cooling is so rapid that the crystals don’t have time to change back to the
beta phase. This leaves unstable alpha crystals in the glass, primed like a coiled spring, ready
to revert to the beta phase without warning.

When this happens, the crystals expand by up to 4%. And if they are within the central, tensile
region of the pane, the stresses this unleashes can shatter the whole sheet. The time that elapses
before failure occurs is unpredictable. It could happen just months after manufacture, or
decades later, although if the glass is heated – by sunlight, for example – the process is speeded
up. Ironically, says Graham Dodd, of consulting engineers Arup in London, the oldest pane of
toughened glass known to have failed due to nickel sulphide inclusions was in Pilkington’s
glass research building in Lathom, Lancashire. The pane was 27 years old.

Data showing the scale of the nickel sulphide problem is almost impossible to find. The picture
is made more complicated by the fact that these crystals occur in batches. So even if, on
average, there is only one inclusion in 7 tonnes of glass, if you experience one nickel sulphide
failure in your building, that probably means you’ve got a problem in more than one pane. Josie
says that in the last decade he has worked on over 15 buildings with the number of failures into
double figures.

One of the worst examples of this is Waterfront Place, which was completed in 1990. Over the
following decade the 40 storey Brisbane block suffered a rash of failures. Eighty panes of its
toughened glass shattered due to inclusions before experts were finally called in. John Barry,
an expert in nickel sulphide contamination at the University of Queensland, analyzed every
glass pane in the building. Using a studio camera, a photographer went up in a cradle to take
photos of every pane.

These were scanned under a modified microfiche reader for signs of nickel sulphide crystals.
‘We discovered at least another 120 panes with potentially dangerous inclusions which were
then replaced,’ says Barry. ‘It was a very expensive and time-consuming process that took
around six months to complete.’ Though the project cost $1.6 million (nearly 700,000 Pounds),
the alternative – re-cladding the entire building – would have cost ten times as much.

Look at the following people and the list of statements below.

Match each person with the correct statement.

List of Persons

1. Brain Waldron
2. Trevor Ford
3. Graham Dodd
4. John Barry
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List of Statements

A. suggests that publicity about nickel sulphide failure has been suppressed.
B. regularly sees cases of nickel sulphide failure.
C. closely examined all the glass in one building.
D. was involved with the construction of Bishops Walk.
E. recommended the rebuilding of Waterfront Place.
F. thinks the benefits of toughened glass are exaggerated.
G. claims that nickel sulphide failure is very unusual.
H. refers to the most extreme case of delayed failure.

Answers

1. ………
2. ………
3. ………
4. ………

Exercise – 3
Gifted children and learning
A.
Internationally, 'giftedness' is most frequently determined by a score on a general
intelligence test, known as an IQ test, which is above a chosen cut off point, usually at around
the top 2-5%. Children's educational environment contributes to the IQ score and the way
intelligence is used. For example, a very close positive relationship was found when children's
IQ scores were compared with their home educational provision (Freeman, 2010). The higher
the children's IQ scores, especially over IQ 130, the better the quality of them educational
backup, measured in terms of reported verbal interactions with parents, number of books
and activities in their home etc. Because IQ tests are decidedly influenced by what the child
has learned, they are to some extent measures of current achievement based on age norms;
that is, how well the children have learned to manipulate their knowledge and know how
within the terms of the test. The vocabulary aspect, for example, is dependent on having
heard those words. But IQ tests can neither identify the processes of learning and thinking
nor predict creativity.

B.
Excellence does not emerge without appropriate help. To reach an exceptionally high
standard in any area very able children need the means to learn, which includes material to
work with and focused challenging tuition -and the encouragement to follow their dream.
There appears to be a qualitative difference in the way the intellectually highly able think,
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teacher often compensates for lack of internal regulation. To be at their most effective in
their self-regulation, all children can be helped to identify their own ways of learning – meta
cognition - which will include strategies of planning, monitoring, evaluation, and choice of
what to learn. Emotional awareness is also part of meta cognition, so children should be
helped to be aware of their feelings around the area to be learned, feelings of curiosity or
confidence, for example.

C.
High achievers have been found to use self-regulatory learning strategies more often and
more effectively than lower achievers, and are better able to transfer these strategies to deal
with unfamiliar tasks. This happens to such a high degree in some children that they appear
to be demonstrating talent in particular areas. Over viewing research on the thinking process
of highly able children, (Shore and Kanevsky, 1993) put the instructor's problem succinctly: '
If they [the gifted] merely think more quickly, then we need only teach more quickly. If they
merely make fewer errors, then we can shorten the practice '. But of course, this is not
entirely the case; adjustments have to be made in methods of learning and teaching, to take
account of the many ways’ individuals think.

D.
Yet in order to learn by themselves, the gifted do need some support from their teachers.
Conversely, teachers who have a tendency to 'over direct' can diminish their gifted pupils'
learning autonomy. Although 'spoon-feeding' can produce extremely high examination
results, these are not always followed by equally impressive life successes. Too much
dependence on the teachers risks loss of autonomy and motivation to discover. However,
when teachers encourage pupils to reflect on their own learning and thinking activities, they
increase their pupils' self-regulation. For a young child, it may be just the simple question
'What have you learned today?' which helps them to recognise what they are doing. Given
that a fundamental goal of education is to transfer the control of learning from teachers to
pupils, improving pupils' learning to learn techniques should be a major outcome of the
school experience, especially for the highly competent. There are quite a number of new
methods which can help, such as child-initiated learning, ability-peer tutoring, etc. Such
practices have been found to be particularly useful for bright children from deprived areas.

E.
But scientific progress is not all theoretical, knowledge is a so vital to outstanding
performance: individuals who know a great deal about a specific domain will achieve at a
higher level than those who do not (Elshout, 1995). Research with creative scientists191by
Simonton (1988) brought him to the conclusion that above a certain high level,
characteristics such as independence seemed to contribute more to reaching the highest
levels of expertise than intellectual skills, due to the great demands of effort and time needed
for learning and practice. Creativity in all forms can be seen as expertise se mixed with a high-
level of motivation (Weisberg, 1993).
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To sum up, learning is affected by emotions of both the individual and significant others.
Positive emotions facilitate the creative aspects of earning and negative emotions inhibit it.
Fear, for example, can limit the development of curiosity, which is a strong force in scientific
advance, because it motivates problem-solving behaviour. In Boekaerts' (1991) review of
emotion the learning of very high IQ and highly achieving children, she found emotional
forces in harness. They were not only curious, but often had a strong desire to control their
environment, improve their learning efficiency and increase their own learning
resources.5MG

Look at the following people and the list of statements below.

Match each person with the correct statement.

List of Persons

A. Freeman
B. Shore and Kanevsky
C. Elshout
D. Simonton
E. Boekaerts

List of Statements

1. Less time can be spent on exercises with gifted pupils who produce accurate
work.
2. Self-reliance is a valuable tool that helps gifted students reach their goals.
3. Gifted children know how to channel their feelings to assist their learning.
4. The very gifted child benefits from appropriate support from close relatives.
5. Really successful students have learnt a considerable amount about their subject.

Answers

1. ………

2. ………

3. ………

4. ………

5. ………
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Exercise – 4

Second Nature
Your personality isn't necessarily set in stone. With a little experimentation, people can
reshape their temperaments and inject passion, optimism, joy and courage into their
lives.

A.
Psychologists have long held that a person's character cannot undergo a
transformation in any meaningful way and that the key traits of personality are
determined at a very young age. However, researchers have begun looking more
closely at ways we can change. Positive psychologists have identified 24 qualities we
admire, such as loyalty and kindness, and are studying them to find out why they come
so naturally to some people. What they're discovering is that many of these qualities
amount to habitual behaviour that determines the way we respond to the world. The
good news is that all this can be learned. Some qualities are less challenging to
develop than others, optimism being one of them. However, developing qualities
requires mastering a range of skills which are diverse and sometimes surprising. For
example, to bring more joy and passion into your life, you must be open to
experiencing negative emotions. Cultivating such qualities will help you realize your
full potential.

B.
'The evidence is good that most personality traits can be altered,' says Christopher
Peterson, professor of psychology at the University of Michigan, who cites himself as
an example. Inherently introverted, he realized early on that as an academic, his
reticence would prove disastrous in the lecture hall. So, he learned to be more
outgoing and to entertain his classes. 'Now my extroverted behaviour is spontaneous,
' he says.

C.
David Feigenbaum had to make a similar transition. He was preparing for university,
when he had an accident that put an end to his sports career. On campus, he quickly
found that beyond ordinary counselling, the university had no services for students
who were undergoing physical rehabilitation and suffering from depression like him.
He therefore launched a support group to help others in similar situations. He took
action despite his own pain - a typical response of an optimist.

D.
Suzanne Segerstrom, professor of psychology at the University of Kentucky, believes
that the key to increasing optimism is through cultivating optimistic behaviour, rather
than positive thinking. She recommends you train yourself to pay attention to good
fortune by writing down three positive things that come about each day. This will help
you convince yourself that favorable outcomes actually happen all the time, making it
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E.
You can recognize a person who is passionate about a pursuit by the way they are so
strongly involved in it. Tanya Streeter's passion is free diving - the sport of plunging
deep into the water without tanks or other breathing equipment. Beginning in 1998,
she set nine world records and can hold her breath for six minutes. The physical
stamina required for this sport is intense but the psychological demands are even more
overwhelming. Streeter learned to untangle her fears from her judgment of what her
body and mind could do. 'In my career as a competitive free-diver, there was a limit to
what I could do - but it wasn't anywhere near what I thought it was,' she says.

F.
Finding a pursuit that excites you can improve anyone's life. The secret about
consuming passions, though, according to psychologist Paul Silvia of the University of
North Carolina, is that 'they require discipline, hard work and ability, which is why they
are so rewarding. 'Psychologist Todd Kashdan has this advice for those people taking
up a new passion: ' As a newcomer, you also have to tolerate and laugh at your own
ignorance. You must be willing to accept the negative feelings that come your way,'
he says.

G.
In 2004, physician-scientist Mauro Zapatero began his PhD research at Harvard
Medical School. Unfortunately, he was miserable as his research wasn't compatible
with his curiosity about healing. He finally took a break and during eight months in
Santa Fe, Zappaterra learned about alternative healing techniques not taught at
Harvard. When he got back, he switched labs to study how cerebrospinal fluid
nourishes the developing nervous system. He also vowed to look for the joy in
everything, including failure, as this could help him learn about his research and
himself.
Look at the following people and the list of statements below.
Match each person with the correct statement.

List of Persons

A. Christopher Peterson
B. David Fajgenbaum
C. Suzanne Segerstrom
D. Tanya Streeter
E. Todd Kashdan
F. Kenneth Pedeleose
G. Cynthia Pury
H. Boekaerts
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List of Statements

1. People must accept that they do not know much when first trying something new.
2. It is important for people to actively notice when good things happen.
3. Courage can be learned once its origins in a sense of responsibility are
understood.
4. It is possible to overcome shyness when faced with the need to speak in public.

Answers

1. ………

2. ………

3. ………

4. ………
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Matching Sentences

What is the task about?

In this IELTS reading question, you will be given a list of incomplete sentences with
no endings and another list with possible endings. Your task is to match them together
based on the information in the reading text.

Challenges
 Some people try to answer these questions by using logic and grammar without
looking at reading text. Don’t do this. It is a test of your understanding of the reading
text more than a test of how sentences generally go together.
 Many people look for the exact words contained in the question in the reading text
instead of looking for the synonyms and paraphrases.

How to do it?
TIPS EXPLANATION
Start with the
incomplete  There are more endings than required, so looking at all of these
sentences in detail is a waste of time.
(questions) first

Grammatical  The grammar of the two halves of the sentence must match. If
structure they don’t, you have the wrong match.

Rule of
 Use a process of elimination to select the correct answers
elimination

 You don’t need to read the whole text in detail, just the relevant
Skim and Scan
sentences.

 Many students look for words that match exactly with words in
the text and ignore synonyms. For example, a keyword in the
Synonyms heading might be ‘Excursion’, however the word you’re looking
for could be many different synonyms of ‘excursion’ like ‘trip’,
‘expedition’, ‘journey’ or ‘tour’.
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Exercise – 1

How can overweight and obesity be reduced?

Overweight and obesity, as well as their related non-communicable diseases, are

largely preventable. Supportive environments and communities are fundamental in
shaping people’s choices, by making the choice of healthier foods and regular physical
activity the easiest choice (the choice that is the most accessible, available and
affordable), and therefore preventing overweight and obesity.
At the individual level, people can:
 limit energy intake from total fats and sugars;
 increase consumption of fruit and vegetables, as well as legumes, whole grains
and nuts; and
 engage in a regular physical activity (60 minutes a day for children and 150
minutes spread through the week for adults).
Individual responsibility can only have its full effect where people have access to a
healthy lifestyle. Therefore, at the societal level, it is important to support individuals
in following the recommendations above, through sustained implementation of
evidence-based and population-based policies that make regular physical activity and
healthier dietary choices available, affordable and easily accessible to everyone,
particularly to the poorest individuals. An example of such a policy is a tax on sugar-
sweetened beverages.

Complete each sentence with the correct ending A-J from the box below. Write only
the letter. You do not need to use all of the sentence endings.

1. Being overweight ...........................

2. People can ....................................
3. Society must ..................................

A. offer help to those who are overweight, making sure that healthy diet options
and regular activities are easily accessible
B. can be stopped, by making changes and receiving help from the community
C. is caused by being irresponsible
D. watch what they eat
E. be careful with their daily eating habits, making sure they consume a healthy
amount of fruits and vegetables
F. promote a sugar tax on all unhealthy foods
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Exercise – 2

Irish Potato Famine

A. In the ten years following the Irish potato famine of 1845, over 750,000 Irish people
died, including many of those who attempted to immigrate to countries such as the
United States and Canada. Prior to the potato blight, one of the main concerns in
Ireland was overpopulation. In the early 1500s, the country’s population was
estimated at less than three million, but by 1840 this number had nearly tripled. The
bountiful potato crop, which contains almost all of the nutrients that a person needs
for survival, was largely to blame for the population growth. However, within five
years of the failed crop of 1845, the population of Ireland was reduced by a quarter.
A number of factors contributed to the plummet of the Irish population, namely the
Irish dependency on the potato crop, the British tenure system, and the inadequate
relief efforts of the English.

B. It is not known exactly how or when the potato was first introduced to Europe,
however, the general assumption is that it arrived on a Spanish ship sometime in the
1600s. For more than one hundred years, Europeans believed that potatoes belonged
to a botanical family of a poisonous breed. It was not until Marie Antoinette wore
potato blossoms in her hair in the mid-eighteenth century that potatoes became a
novelty. By the late 1700s, the dietary value of the potato had been discovered, and
the monarchs of Europe ordered the vegetable to be widely planted.

C. By 1800, the vast majority of the Irish population had become dependent on the
potato as its primary staple. It wasn’t uncommon for an Irish potato farmer to
consume more than six pounds of potatoes a day. Families stored potatoes for the
winter and even fed potatoes to their livestock. Because of this dependency, the
unexpected potato blight of 1845 devastated the Irish. Investigators at first suggested
that the blight was caused by static energy, smoke from railroad trains, or vapours
from underground volcanoes; however, the root cause was later discovered as an
airborne fungus that travelled from Mexico. Not only did the disease destroy the
potato crops, it also infected all of the potatoes in storage at the time. Their families
were dying from famine, but weakened farmers had retained little of their agricultural
skills to harvest other crops. Those who did manage to grow things such as oats,
wheat, and barley relied on earnings from these exported crops to keep their rented
homes.

D. While the potato blight generated mass starvation among the Irish, the people were
held captive to their poverty by the British tenure system. Following the Napoleonic
Wars of 1815, the English had turned their focus to their colonial land holdings.
British landowners realised that the best way to profit from these holdings was to
extract the resources and exports and charge expensive rents and taxes for people to
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live on the land. Under the tenure system, Protestant landlords owned 95 percent of
the Irish land, which was divided up into five-acre plots for the people to live and farm
on. As the population of Ireland grew, however, the plots were continuously
subdivided into smaller parcels. Living conditions declined dramatically, and families
were forced to move to less fertile land where almost nothing but the potato would
grow.

E. During this same period of colonisation. The Penal Laws were also instituted as a
means of weakening the Irish spirit. Under the Penal Laws, Irish peasants were denied
basic human rights, such as the right to speak their own native language, seek certain
kinds of employment, practice their faith, receive education, and own land. Despite
the famine that was devastating Ireland, the landlords had little compassion or
sympathy for tenants unable to pay their rent. Approximately 500,000 Irish tenants
were evicted by their landlords between 1845 and 1847. Many of these people also
had their homes burned down and were put in jail for overdue rent.

F. The majority of the British officials in the 1840s adopted the laissez-faire philosophy,
which supported a policy of non-intervention in the Irish plight. Prime Minister Sir
Robert Peel was an exception. He showed compassion toward the Irish by making a
move to repeal the Corn Laws, which had been put in place to protect British grain
producers from the competition of foreign markets. For this hasty decision, Peel
quickly lost the support of the British people and was forced to resign. The new Prime
Minister, Lord John Russell, allowed assistant Charles Trevelyan to take complete
control over all of the relief efforts in Ireland. Trevelyan believed that the Irish
situation should be left to Providence. Claiming that it would be dangerous to let the
Irish become dependent on other countries, he even took steps to close food depots
that were selling corn and to redirect shipments of corn that were already on their
way to Ireland. A few relief programs were eventually implemented, such as soup
kitchens and workhouses; however, these were poorly run institutions that facilitated
the spread of disease, tore apart families, and offered inadequate food supplies
considering the extent of Ireland’s shortages.

G. Many of the effects of the Irish potato famine are still evident today. Descendants of
those who fled Ireland during the 1840s are dispersed all over the world. Some of the
homes that were evacuated by absentee landlords still sit abandoned in the Irish hills.
A number of Irish descendants still carry animosity toward the British for not putting
people before politics. The potato blight itself still plagues the Irish people during
certain growing seasons when weather conditions are favourable for the fungus to
thrive.

Complete each sentence with the correct ending, A-L from the box at the top of the
next page. Write the correct letter in boxes 1-8 on your Answer Sheet. There are
more endings than sentences, so you won’t use them all.
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1. At first Europeans didn’t eat potatoes

2. European monarchs encouraged potato growing
3. The potato blight was devastating to the Irish
4. Farmers who grew oats, wheat, and barley didn’t eat these crops
5. Many Irish farmers lived on infertile plots
6. Many Irish farmers were arrested
7. Sir Robert Peel lost his position as prime minister
8. Soup kitchens and workhouses didn’t relieve the suffering

Sentence Endings
A. because they couldn’t pay the rent on their farms.
B. because railroad trains caused air pollution.
C. because potatoes were their main source of food.
D. because Charles Trevelyan took over relief efforts.
E. because they needed the profits to pay the rent.
F. because they weren’t well-managed.
G. because there wasn’t enough land for the increasing population.
H. because his efforts to help the Irish were unpopular among the British.
I. because they believed that potatoes were poisonous.
J. because the British instituted penal laws.
K. because it was discovered that potatoes are full of nutrients.
L. because Marie Antoinette used potato blossoms as decoration.

Answers:
1. ..........................
2. ..........................
3. ..........................
4. ..........................
5. ..........................
6. ..........................
7. ..........................
8. ..........................
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Exercise – 3

Amber - Frozen Moments in Time

Amber has a deep fascination both for ordinary people as a gem and for the scientist
for whom it provides a glimpse into the past, a window into history. The majority of
amber which has been discovered and studied originates in the Cenzoic Era. The
earlier Mesozoic which consists of the Cretaceous, Jurassic and Triassic periods has
also produced amber but in smaller and scarcer quantities due to its much older age.
One of the problems associated with Mesozoic amber is the level of degradation it
undergoes. Ancient fossil resin can be badly affected by oxidation, erosion, excessive
heat and pressure.

Amber begins as resin exuded from trees millions of years ago possibly to protect
themselves against fungal or insect attack or as a by-product of some form of growth
process. Most known deposits of amber come from various tree species which are
now extinct. Baltic amber was produced by a giant tree called Pinites succinifer, a
tree sharing many characteristics of the currently living genus Pseudolarix. The true
reason for this resin discharge from various species of trees is not fully understood.
Scientists have theorised that it also could be a form of desiccation control, an aid to
attract insect pollinators or even a reaction to storm or weather damage.

The resin from the trees needs to go through a number of stages in order to become
amber. The first stage involves the slow cross chain linking of the molecular structure
within the resin, a kind of polymerisation. This makes the resin hard but easily broken
compared to its original state of being soft and plastic. Once it is in this state, the resin
can be called copal. Following the polymerisation the next stage is the evaporation
of volatile oils inside the copal. The oils, called turpenes, slowly permeate out of the
amber. This second stage may take millions of years before the process turns the copal
into something approaching the structure of amber. It is speculated that either one or
both of these stages in the formation of amber must take place in an anaerobic
environment or it may have to sustain a period of immersion in sea water. Amber
which is exposed to air for several years undergoes oxidation which causes a distinct
darkening and crusting of the gem’s surface producing over many years tiny splinters
and shards.

The chemical structure of amber is not consistent, not even within a single fragment,
let alone a single deposit. Consequently numerous chemical formulas have been
attributed to it. The reason for this wide variation is simply because amber is not a true
mineral; it is an organic plastic with variable mixtures. Some aspects of amber are fairly
consistent though. On Moh’s scale of hardness it lies between 2 and 2.5. It has a
refraction index of 1.54 and a melting point between 150 - 180oC. The colour range is
extremely varied, ranging from near white (osseous) through all shades of yellow,
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brown and red. There are even examples of blue and green amber. Blue - green

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amber is thought to have two possible causes: either the permeation of raw resin by
mineral deposits present in the soil into which it fell, or the settling of volcanic dust and
ash onto the resin when it was first secreted.

One of the most exciting and interesting aspects of amber are the inclusions, both
flora and fauna, which are found within it. The most frequent inclusions to be found in
amber, particularly Baltic, are examples of the order Diptera or true flies. These tiny
flies would have lived on the fungus growing on the rotting vegetation of the amber
forest of which no doubt there was enough to support an enormous population.
Occasionally a small lizard will be found trapped and encased in amber, particularly
from the Dominican Republic deposits. The American Natural History Museum has a
famous example of a 25,000,000 year old gecko. Another unusual find is the remains
of a frog discovered in a piece mined in the Dominican Republic.

At first it was thought to be just one animal with some tissue preserved. The distinct
shape of the frog can be seen but most of the flesh has deteriorated and several
bones are exposed, some broken. Under closer scrutiny a count of the bones suggests
that this particular frog must have had at least 6 legs. Palaeontologists speculate that
a bird that ate the frogs may have had a feeding site, perhaps on a branch directly
above an accumulating pool of resin; hence the numerous bones present. The
complete frog was perhaps an unlucky drop by the bird when it alighted on the
branch. Mammalian hair can also infrequently be found trapped as tufts or single
strands. When found in the Baltic area, hair in amber is often attributed to sloths that
lived within the ancient forest. Resin in the process of hardening usually develops a
skin whilst the interior is still soft. Occasionally amber of this nature has impressions
stamped on its surface and thus becomes a trace fossil. For instance the clear
impression of a cat’s paw has ben found on a piece of amber found in the Baltic area.

The faking of inclusions in amber has been a major cottage industry since the earliest
times. Gum is melted gently and suitable inclusions placed into the matrix; this is
frequently some kind of colourful insect. Artificial colour is always a dead giveaway of
a bogus amber fossil.

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Complete the following statements with the best ending from the box on the next page
Write the appropriate letters A - G in boxes 1 - 4 on your answer sheet.

1. For the most part Baltic amber found today was originally created by plant life
which…
2. The faking of encasing things in amber is something which…
3. Prehistoric decaying forests provided food which…
4. Amber is a natural material which…

A. grew to a great height all over the world.

B. takes place in small houses.
C. entrapped flies would have fed on.
D. can be spotted by the colour
E. happened only in the Baltic area.
F. produced gases conducive to amber
formation.
G. has a broad diversity in its chemical formula.

Answers:
1. ......................
2. ......................
3. ......................
4. ......................
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Exercise – 4

Malaria

A Approximately 300 million people worldwide are affected by malaria and between
1 and 1.5 million people die from it every year. Previously extremely widespread,
malaria is now mainly confined to Africa, Asia and Latin America. The problem of
controlling malaria in these countries is aggravated by inadequate health structures
and poor socio-economic conditions. The situation has become even more complex
over the last few years with the increase in resistance to the drugs normally used to
combat the parasite that causes the disease.

B Malaria is caused by protozoan parasites of the genus Plasmodium. Four species

of Plasmodium can produce the disease in its various forms: plasmodium falciparum,
plasmodium vivax, plasmodium ovale and plasmodium malaria. Plasmodium
falciparum is the most widespread and dangerous of the four: untreated it can lead to
fatal cerebral malaria. Malaria parasites are transmitted from one person to another
by the female anopheline mosquito. The males do not transmit the disease as they
feed only on plant juices. There are about 380 species of anopheline mosquito, but
only 60 or so are able to transmit the parasite. Their sensitivity to insecticides is also
highly variable.

C Plasmodium develops in the gut of the mosquito and is passed on in the saliva of
an infected insect each time it takes a new blood meal. The parasites are then carried
by the blood into the victim’s liver where they invade the cells and multiply. After nine
to sixteen days they return to the blood and penetrate the red cells where they multiply
again, progressively breaking down the red cells. This induces bouts of fever and
anaemia in the infected individual. In the case of cerebral malaria the infected red cells
obstruct the blood vessels in the brain. Other vital organs can also be damaged often
leading to the death of the patient.

D Malaria is diagnosed by the clinical symptoms and microscopic examination of the

blood. It can normally be cured by anti-malarial drugs. The symptoms - fever,
shivering, pain in the joints and headache - quickly disappear once the parasite is
killed. In certain regions, however, the parasites have developed resistance to certain
anti-malarial drugs, particularly chloroquine. Patients in these areas require treatment
with other more expensive drugs. In endemic regions where transmission rates are
high, people are continually infected so that they gradually develop immunity to the
disease. Until they have acquired such immunity, children remain highly vulnerable.
Pregnant women are also highly susceptible since the natural defence mechanisms.

E Malaria has been known since time immemorial but it was centuries before the true
causes were understood. Surprisingly in view of this some ancient treatments were
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remarkably effective. An infusion of qinghao containing artemisinin has been used for

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at least the last 2000 years in China and the antifebrile properties of the bitter bark of
Cinchona Ledgeriana were known in Peru before the 15th century. Quinine, the active
ingredient of this potion, was first isolated in 1820 by the pharmacists. Although people
were unaware of the origin of malaria and the mode of transmission, protective
measures against the mosquito have been used for many hundreds of years. The
inhabitants of swampy regions in Egypt were recorded as sleeping in tower-like
structures out of the reach of mosquitoes, whereas others slept under nets as early as
450 B.C.

F Malaria has social consequences and is a heavy burden on economic development.

It is estimated that a single bout of malaria costs a sum equivalent to over 10 working
days in Africa. The cost of treatment is between $US0.08 and $US5.30 according to
the type of drugs prescribed as determined by local drug resistance. In 1987 the total
cost of malaria - health care, treatment, lost production, etc. - was estimated to be
$US800 million for tropical Africa and this figure is currently estimated to be more than
$US1800 million.

G The significance of malaria as a health problem is increasing in many parts of the

world. Epidemics are even occurring around traditionally endemic zones in areas
where transmission had been eliminated. These outbreaks are generally associated
with deteriorating social and economic conditions and the main victims are
underprivileged rural populations. Economic and political pressures compel entire
populations to leave malaria free areas and move into endemic zones. People who
are non-immune are at high risk of severe disease. Unfortunately, these population
movements and the intensive urbanisation are not always accompanied by adequate
development of sanitation and health care. In many areas conflict, economic crises
and administrative disorganization can result in the disruption of health services. The
absence of adequate health services frequently results in recourse to self-
administration of drugs often with incomplete treatment. This is a major factor in the
increase in resistance of the parasites to previously effective drugs.

H The hope of global eradication of malaria was finally abandoned in 1969 when it
was recognised that this was unlikely ever to be achieved. Ongoing control programs
remain essential in endemic areas. In all situations control programs should be based
on half a dozen objectives: provision of early diagnosis, prompt treatment to all people
at risk, selective application of sustainable preventive measures, vector control
adapted to the local situations, the development of reliable information on infection risk
and assessment of living conditions of concerned populations. Malaria is a complex
disease but it is a curable and preventable one.
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Complete the following statements (Questions 1-4) with the best ending from the box
below (A - H) according to the information in the reading passage Malaria.

Write the appropriate letter (A - H) in boxes 1-4 on your answer sheet.

There are more sentence endings (A - H) than questions so you will not need to use
them all.

1. Anopheline mosquitoes…
2. Parasites located in victims’ livers…
3. Unfinished courses of anti-malarial drugs…
4. Control programs to protect people from malaria…

Sentence endings

A. …have finally been eradicated.

B. …are not always affected by insecticides.
C. …are the results of incompetent doctors.
D. …are always female.
E. …have been taken for hundreds of years.
F. …should be based on seven clear goals.
G. …have resulted in parasitic resistance to treatment.
H. …are later found again in the bloodstream.

Answers:

1. ...........................
2. ...........................
3. ...........................
4. ...........................

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SELECTING MORE THAN ONE RESPONSES FROM THE LIST

What is the task about?

You will be provided with a number of statements, phrases or just words as options.
All these options will have a question to be answered. The question will ask many
answers. For example: Which THREE of the following statements are mentioned in
this passage?

What is being tested is your ability to:

 skim and scan the text for details

 understand paraphrase
 understand inference

Challenges

 The biggest problem is the fact that you need to look at the whole text. The answers
could be anywhere in the text and they do not come in order, so it takes time.
 Also, the answers might not be the main idea of each paragraph. Normally
paragraphs contain one main idea and reading the first and last lines of the
paragraph can help you understand this. With these questions, the answer could
be in any part of the paragraph and you cannot therefore just quickly skim to find
it.
 There is also a lot of irrelevant information that you do not need to consider. The
strategy below will help you ignore much of this irrelevant information.
 Finally, as stated above, not all paragraphs contain an answer and some
paragraphs contain more than one answer.
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How to do it?

TIPS EXPLANATION
 IELTS is about distractions and traps. Read the question very
carefully.
Read the
 For example: Which THREE among given sentences are not
question
true? Notice NOT in the last part.
carefully
In other way you might be asked the question in this way:
Which THREE among given sentences are true?

 It would be better to carefully read all the options first. Once

Read the
you read the text you would get a click of the options which
options first
already have been read by you.

Match meanings  Always match the inferences of the statements. You might
not words encounter distracters in the question.

 It would be better if you do this task at last while solving the

passage. Finish all the questions of a particular passage and
Do this task at then do this task at last. You will get an overall idea about the
last passage once you will read everything and as this task requires
too much of reading, if you have done it already, it will save
your time.

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Exercise – 1

Shaken, Not Stirred

A properly made martini is mostly dry gin with a bit of dry vermouth and ice
(Epicurious recommends 5 parts gin to 1 part vermouth). All three should be placed
into a cocktail shaker, but rather than shaking, they should be stirred to combine the
ingredients gently, and in fact, stirred with a wooden spoon rather than a metal one, to
reduce impacting the drink’s temperature.

Shaking such a mixture would have several deleterious effects that would normally
offend the sensibilities of a martini connoisseur: it would dilute the drink via melting
more ice, make it cloudier via aeration (both aesthetically displeasing for otherwise
clear drinks and affecting the texture), result in the drink being served much colder
than normal, and would “bruise” the included gin via the dissolved air. In fact, shaking
cocktails in general is only recommended for those drinks that are intended to be
aerated and frothy, like a Tom Collins or a margarita. Others are either “built,” such as a
highball where the ingredients are simply poured one on top of the other in the glass
and served, or stirred, such as the martini or a Manhattan.

The writer mentions a number of factors related to why martinis should be stirred and
not shaken.

Which THREE of the following factors are mentioned?

A. Mixes ingredients gently.

B. Adds more water to the mixture.
C. Avoids adding air.
D. Keeps the drink looking nice.
E. Affects the drink’s translucence.
F. Harms the flavor of the gin.
G. Keeps the drink cold.
H. Make it frothy
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Exercise – 2

Identify the sentences from the paragraphs.

Lessons from the Titanic

A. From the comfort of our modern lives we tend to look back at the turn of the twentieth
century as a dangerous time for sea travelers. With limited communication facilities, and
shipping technology still in its infancy in the early nineteen hundreds, we consider ocean travel
to have been a risky business. But to the people of the time it was one of the safest forms of
transport. At the time of the Titanic’s maiden voyage in 1912, there had only been four lives
lost in the previous forty years on passenger ships on the North Atlantic crossing. And the
Titanic was confidently proclaimed to be unsinkable. She represented the pinnacle of
technological advance at the time. Her builders, crew and passengers had no doubt that she was
the finest ship ever built. But still she did sink on April 14, 1912, taking 1,517 of her passengers
and crew with her.

B. In the ten hours prior to the Titanic’s fatal collision with an iceberg at 11.40pm, six warnings
of icebergs in her path were received by the Titanic's wireless operators. Only one of these
messages was formally posted on the bridge; the others were in various locations across the
ship. If the combined information in these messages of iceberg positions had been plotted, the
ice field which lay across the Titanic’s path would have been apparent. Instead, the lack of
formal procedures for dealing with information from a relatively new piece of technology, the
wireless, meant that the danger was not known until too late. This was not the fault of the
Titanic crew. Procedures for dealing with warnings received through the wireless had not been
formalized across the shipping industry at the time. The fact that the wireless operators were
not even Titanic crew, but rather contracted workers from a wireless company, made their role
in the ship’s operation quite unclear.

C. Captain Smith’s seemingly casual attitude in increasing the speed on this day to a dangerous
22 knots or 41 kilometers per hour, can then be partly explained by his ignorance of what lay
ahead. But this only partly accounts for his actions, since the spring weather in Greenland was
known to cause huge chunks of ice to break off from the glaciers. Captain Smith knew that
these icebergs would float southward and had already acknowledged this danger by taking a
more southerly route than at other times of the year. So why was the Titanic travelling at high
speed when he knew, if not of the specific risk, at least of the general risk of icebergs in her
path? As with the lack of coordination of the wireless messages, it was simply standard
operating procedure at the time. Captain Smith was following the practices accepted on the
North Atlantic, practices which had coincided with forty years of safe travel. He believed,
wrongly as we now know, that the ship could turn or stop in time if an iceberg was sighted by
the lookouts.
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D. The belief that the Titanic was unsinkable was so strong that passengers and crew alike
clung to the belief even as she was actually sinking. This attitude was not helped by Captain
Smith, who had not acquainted his senior officers with the full situation. For the first hour after
the collision, the majority of people aboard the Titanic, including senior crew, were not aware
that she would sink, that there were insufficient lifeboats or that the nearest ship responding to
the Titanic’s distress calls would arrive two hours after she was on the bottom of the ocean. As
a result, the officers in charge of loading the boats received a very halfhearted response to their
early calls for women and children to board the lifeboats. People felt that they would be safer,
and certainly warmer, aboard the Titanic than perched in a little boat in the North Atlantic
Ocean. Not realizing the magnitude of the impending disaster themselves, the officers allowed
several boats to be lowered only half full.

E. As the Titanic sank, another ship, believed to have been the Californian, was seen motionless
less than twenty miles away. The ship failed to respond to the Titanic’s eight distress rockets.
Although the officers of the Californian tried to signal the Titanic with their flashing Morse
lamp, they did not wake up their radio operator to listen for a distress call. At this time,
communication at sea through wireless was new and the benefits not well appreciated, so the
wireless on ships was often not operated around the clock. In the case of the Californian, the
wireless operator slept unaware while 1,500 Titanic passengers and crew drowned only a few
miles away.

The writer mentions a number of factors related to poor communication which

contributed to the disaster.

Which THREE of the following factors are mentioned?

A. The Titanic was travelling too fast.

B. Ships were not required to operate their wireless continually.
C. There were insufficient lifeboats on the ship.
D. The Titanic’s wireless was not operating around the clock.
E. Ice warnings were not dealt with systematically.
F. The Californian’s wireless had broken down.
G. The Titanic’s wireless had broken down.
H. Captain Smith did not give his officers enough information.
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Exercise – 3
The Great War

The commonly held notion that it was started out of outrage over the assassination
of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of Austria and his wife Sophie at the hands of a Serbian
nationalistic secret society known as the “Black Hand” isn’t entirely correct. In fact,
the Emperor Franz Josef himself expressed relief over the assassination because it
rid him of an heir whom he deeply disliked. The Emperor commented that “God will
not be mocked. A higher power had put back the order I couldn’t maintain.”

Indeed, it wasn’t just the Emperor who was relieved; it was reported by an Austrian
newspaper that the general consensus among the various political circles was that
the assassination, though a tragedy, was for the best. As far as the Austrian people
were concerned, it was noted “The event almost failed to make any impression
whatever. On Sunday and Monday, the crowds in Vienna listened to music and drank
wine as if nothing had happened.” Indeed, it took the government itself a full three
weeks to react.
In fact the “treaty alliance system” that was prevalent in Europe with numerous treaties
interconnecting the various states was really at the heart of why what would have
been a small conflict, not noteworthy in any way in history, escalated into one of the
bloodiest wars in human history with over 15 million people dead. Somewhat ironically,
the spark that set it all off was the assassination that nobody really cared about.

So why go to war over an assassination, if nobody cared? Because, while nobody

seemed to much care about the assassination itself, Austria-Hungary had been looking
for an excuse to wage a “preventative war” against Serbia as a state in order to
weaken or destroy them so as to take back territory in the Balkans, which had been
taken during the Balkan Wars. They had not taken it back up to this point because
they lacked Germany’s support; without that support, they feared Russia too much,
because of the treaty Russia had with Serbia.

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The list contains factors that contributed to the starting of World War One. Which
THREE factors does the writer mention?

A. Agitation by newspapers
B. International pacts between nations
C. A minor land dispute
D. The murder of an Austrian emperor
E. Germany’s lack of support of Austria
F. Russia’s support of Austria
G. Plotting by unpatriotic conspirators
H. The death of the successor to an empire

Exercise – 4
The wind in the central Pacific tends to blow from the east. This pushes water from South
America towards Australia and Indonesia. As a result, sea levels have been found to be up
to 60 centimeters higher in the west. The water that is pushed westward from the South
American coast is replaced by colder water, which has a high nutrient level that
consequently attracts fish. This makes the waters off Peru and Ecuador good fishing
grounds.

An El Nino happens when the winds weaken and sea levels drop. The warmer water moves
east and less water evaporates to form clouds. The results of this are twofold. The warmer
water in the east reduces the number of fish and the lack of rain causes droughts. This can
cause problems such as the forest fires that have plagued Indonesia and Australia in recent
years. Additionally, El Nino is thought to be one of the causes of hurricanes that have
devastated Central and North West America.

As the population has increased the effects of changing weather have had a greater impact.
People are living in places, often in areas more likely to be affected by adverse weather,
than they ever did before and in increased densities. This means that natural disasters affect
more people. Natural resources are being used closer to their limits, so small changes in
their availability can cause disruption. For example, in the past, South American fishermen
could make a profit even during an EL Nino, but modern industrial fishing needs larger fish
stocks to be profitable.

Which THREE of the following are effects of El Nino?

A) There are more clouds.

B) The level of the sea goes down.
C) There is a lack of rain.
D) Fewer fish for fishermen to catch.
E) There are plagues in Australia and Indonesia.
F) There are more strong storms.
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Exercise – 5
Reading Passage:
America is one of only a few countries in the Western world that still puts criminals to
death. Even there, executions are on the wane: just 20 were carried out in
2016,down from a peak of 98 in 1999. Popular support is declining, too. Just 60% of
Americans approve of the death penalty for murder, down from 80% in the 1990s.
Only eight states have carried out an execution since 2015, and around two-thirds
either have abolished capital punishment or have a moratorium on its use. But it has
not disappeared altogether: during an eight-day stretch in April, Arkansas executed
four people, so as not to waste its expiring supply of a lethal injection drug. And last
month in Alabama, a man who spent 35 years on death row—and eluded seven
execution dates—was finally put to death. Why does America continue to execute
people?

Which TWO of the following points best describe the paragraph?

A. Though the American people mostly agree with the death penalty, it has been
declining over the past few years
B. Punishing people to the extreme
C. America's judiciary system still includes execution in selected areas
D. All Americans believe in lethal injections as a punishment for committing murder
E. Death row is a place where many criminals wait for sentencing

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Exercise – 6
Reading Passage:

The CT scanner
A
The computed tomography scanner, better known as the CT scanner, was originally
designed to provide cross-sectional images of the brain. The word tomography comes from
the Greek word tomos, meaning “section,” and graphic meaning “picture.” Godfrey
Hounsfield developed the technique in 1972 and was later knighted and awarded the Nobel
Peace Prize for his contribution to the medical field. Within four years of this development,
CT scans, also called CAT scans (computed axial tomography), were restructured, allowing
technicians to scan the entire body for evidence of tumors, injuries, and other abnormalities.
Rather than taking a single picture as in an X ray, a CT scanner sends several beams into
an area and takes photographs from many different angles.

B
While the original CT scans took Hounsfield several hours to reconstruct into a useful image,
today’s machines can produce an in-depth image in a fraction of a second. Creating a
scanner that could produce images at a faster rate was crucial in the development of
tomography, as it reduced the degree of distortion in an image caused when patients
breathed and moved. As well as providing images with better resolution, today’s scanners
also provide more comfort for the patient.

C
In many cases, a patient must be given a contrast material before undergoing a CT scan.
During “dynamic CT scanning,” iodine dye is either injected into the blood or added to a drink
that the patient must ingest approximately forty-five minutes before entering the scanner.
The liquid X-ray dye makes it easier to see the organs and blood vessels when the pictures
are developed. The intravenous contrast material is typically used for chest or pelvic scans,
while oral-contrast material is used for abdominal scans. In some cases, physicians request
that pictures be taken both before and after the contrast material enters the patient’s body.
Patients who receive contrast material in the arm often report feeling a warm sensation, and
in rare cases an allergic reaction occurs. Contrast material causes water loss and is avoided
when scanning patients who suffer from kidney failure.

D
The danger of radiation exposure caused by X-ray beams is generally considered minimal
compared to the benefits that a CT scan can provide. In many cases, especially in the
detection of tumors and internal bleeding, CT scans provide information that can save a
person’s life. Full-body scanning, which is saved for serious conditions such as coronary
artery disease, remains a controversial procedure as prolonged exposure to radiation is
linked to cancer. Pregnant women are excluded from receiving CT scans, as the X rays can
be harmful to the foetus. When pregnant woman require an evaluation, most physicians
favor using other procedures such as an ultrasound or an MRI.
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Which of the following are facts about the original CT scanner mentioned in the
passage? Choose THREE answers from the list below and write the correct letters,
A-F for number 1 – 3 on your answer sheet.
A. It made it difficult for patients to breathe.
B. It was created to take pictures of the brain.
C. It was much bigger than current CT scanners.
D. It was developed in 1972.
E. It took several hours to produce a completed image.
F. It produced images in color.

Which of the following are facts about contrast materials used for CT scans
mentioned in the passage? Choose THREE answers from the list below and write
the correct letters, A-F, for number 4 – 6 on your answer sheet.
A. They are bright in color.
B. They can be given by injection.
C. They have a bitter taste.
D. They might cause a feeling of warmth in the arm.
E. They are administered only by a specially trained technician.
F. They may cause allergies in a few patients.

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Exercise – 7
Reading Passage:
It’s called K2 because it’s found in the Karakoram Range to the northeast of the Himalayas
on the border of today’s Pakistan and China. When they were doing the original survey,
they gave all of the mountains K numbers. The surveyor would get the altitude of a
mountain, write that down as K1 and the next one would be K2, K3, and so forth. Later,
they went back and asked local people, “What’s this mountain over here called?” Then
they would give it a local name, like Gasherbrum or KanjutSar. But K2 is so remote even
today – it’s 75 miles from the nearest village – that there wasn’t an agreed local name. So
K2 stuck. I actually think it’s very poetic because it sums up a mountain that is very bare,
very austere, a perfect pyramid. It’s the very epitome of a mountain.
It’s so deadly because of the combination of elements. It is about 800 feet lower than
Everest, but the topography is much tougher. Climbing Everest you have stretches that are
steep, then it flattens off. Very little of K2 ever flattens off. There’s a shoulder at about
24,000 feet when it flattens off briefly but that’s about the only respite. It’s also avalanche
and rock fall-prone. It’s within the death zone, defined as above 25,000 feet. And the
weather is terrible and unpredictable. There have been several years recently in which
nobody managed to climb K2 because the weather was so bad.

Choose TWO correct letters from A-E.

Which of the following are not true according to this passage?

A. Most of the K2 is steep unlike Everest.
B. No one has ever climbed the K2 because of horrendous weather conditions.
C. K2 was named after the Karakoram Range in which it is located.
D. K2 got its name as ‘K2’ because it was so remote that even closest community
could not give a local name.
E. Unlike K2, Mount Everest is a pyramid shaped mountain with flattened stretches.
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Exercise – 8
Reading Passage:
The boa constrictor is a large snake, although it is only modestly sized in comparison to other
large snakes, such as the reticulated python and Burmese python, and can reach lengths from
3–13 ft (0.91–3.96 m) depending on the locality and the availability of suitable prey. Clear
sexual dimorphism is seen in the species, with females generally being larger in both length
and girth than males. The largest documented non-stretched dry skin is deposited at
Zoologische Staatssammlung München (ZSM ) and measures 14.6 ft (4.45 m). A report of a
boa constrictor growing up to 18.5 ft (5.6 m) was later found to be a misidentified green
anaconda.

Several populations of boa constrictors are known as "dwarf boas", such as the population of
B. c. imperator on Hog Island. These smaller subspecies are generally insular populations. B.
c. constrictor reaches, and occasionally tops, the averages given above, as it is one of the
relatively large subspecies of Boa constrictor.

Other examples of sexual dimorphism in the species include males generally having longer
tails to contain the hemipenes and also longer pelvic spurs, which are used to grip and
stimulate the female during copulation. Pelvic spurs are the only external sign of the
rudimentary hind legs and pelvis, seen in all boas and pythons.

Choose THREE possible correct letters from A-E.

Which are true options among these statements?

A. Boa constrictors are usually smaller in size than Burmese pythons.
B. Male and female Boa Constrictors are usually similar in lengths and widths.
C. All boas and pythons have pelvic spurs.
D. The largest alive Boa constrictor is present at Zoologische Staatssammlung
München.
E. A report of a Boa Constrictor growing up to 18.5 feet (5.6 m) was a rumour

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DIAGRAM LABELLING
Exercise Answers
1. veins 3. blade
1.
2. midrib 4. petiole
1. shell 4. albumin
2. 2. germinal disc 5. yolk
3. chalaza 6. air cell
1. South African
3. 3. Spanish
2. French
1. ‘U’ shaped vessel 3. water-bath
4.
2. stainless steel shaft 4. specific time intervals

FLOW CHART COMPLETION

Exercise Answers
1. 1. glucose 2. free radicals 3. preservation
1. Application
5. Recruitment
2. Walk-in day
2. 6. Full interview
3. Swimming test
7. Emergency
4. Verbal references

1. Calcium acerbate
3. 2. Green bags/ refrigerated trucks
3. fourteen days
1. Encasement in salt
4. Lotus position
2. Increased physical
4. 5. Moisture
activity
6. Air
3. Bodily fluids
7. a few seconds
1. hear
8. short term store
2. see in any order
9. (about) a minute
3. smell
5. 10. long term store
4. Visual
11. long periods / many years /
5. Auditory in any order
minutes to years (any one
6. Haptic
answer)
1. G 3. D
6. 5. I
2. B 4. E
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SUMMARY COMPLETION
Exercise Answers
1. seafood 3. watermelon
1
2. Westerners 4. pumpkin
1. C
4. H
2 2. B {1 & 2 in either order}
5. G
3. A
1. the care 3. optimal ripeness
3
2. at all angles 4. mango candy
1. K 3. M 5. H
4 7. I
2. D 4. A 6. P
1. crop
4. helped
5 2. genetically modified
5. movement
3. standard of living
1. G 3. C
6
2. B 4. A

SHORT QUESTIONS
Exercise Answers
1. pieces of metal
4. (The) Retailing Manager
1 2. (on) the bottom
5. $ 50,000
3. $5
1. touch / sense of touch 3. airborne flying fish
2 2. (the) freshwater 4. clear (open) water(s)
dolphin(s) 5. (the) acoustic sense
1. (the)(staff)management 4. (the) (employee’s) post
3 2. loneliness 5. (a) (risk) assessment
3. promotion 6. (an) appeal
1. concrete
4. Volcanic eruption
4 2. diameter
5. Northern
3. age and origin
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TRUE / FALSE / NOT GIVEN

Exercise Answers
1. False 3. False
Tables 5. True
2. Not given 4. True
1 1. True 2. False 3. Not given

1. False 4. True
7. True
2 2. True 5. True
8. True
3. Not given 6. False

3 1. False 2. Not given 3. True

1. Yes 3. No 5. No
4
2. Yes 4. Yes 6. Not given

CLASSIFICATION
Exercise Answers
1. C 3. B 5. B
1 7. A
2. C 4. A 6. B
1. D 3. A 5. B
2
2. B 4. A 6. C
1. B 3. C 5. D
3 7. F
2. E 4. A 6. B
1. E 3. A 5. C
4 7. B
2. F 4. B 6. D

MATCH THE HEADINGS

Exercise Answers
1 i, iii
2 i, ii
3 iv, ii, iii
4 iv, iii, v
5 ii, iv, iii, vi
6 v, ii, vi, iii, vii, iv, viii
7 ix, viii, vii, vi, iv, iii
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MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

Exercise Answers
1 C
2 A
3 E
4 B
5 C
6 1 – A, 2 – A, 3 – C, 4 – B, 5 – C
7 1 – A, 2 – C, 3 – A, 4 – B, 5 – B, 6 – A, 7 – C

PARAGRAPH IDENTIFICATION
Exercise Answers
1 1. F 2. A, B 3. C 4. A
5. D 7. C 9. F
2
6. E 8. A 10. F
1. G 3. E
3 5. C
2. A 4. F
1. B 3. D 5. H 7. G
4
2. C 4. D 6. F 8. E
5 1. F 2. B 3. E 4. A

SCIENTISTS CATEGORIZATION
Exercise Answers

1. C 3. D 5. A
1
2. E 4. E 6. D

1. G
Last sentence of Paragraph Two: ‘But he insists that
cases are few and far between. ‘It’s a very rare
2 phenomenon,’ he says.’ A short disclaimer: Looking for
proper names (just like this task requires us to) is the
easiest because they are capitalized, which makes them
ideal keywords – they really stand out in the text.
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2. A
Last but one sentence of Paragraph Three: ‘‘What you
hear is only the tip of the iceberg,’ says Trevor Ford’. He
then clarifies that the likely reason for such situation is
that ‘No-one wants bad press.’

3. H
Middle of Paragraph Nine has a description of an
extreme case of delayed failure in a research building in
Lathom, Lancashire.

4. C
Last but one paragraph mentions Waterfront Place
undergoing a thorough glass examination due to a high
number of failures. The examination was conducted by
John Barry.

1. B
[Paragraph 3-Line 5-7]
If they [the gifted] merely think more quickly, then we
need only teach more quickly. If they merely make fewer
errors, then we can shorten the practice.

2. D
[Paragraph 5 -Line 3-5]
Research with creative scientists191by Simonton (1988)
brought him to the conclusion that above a certain high
level,characteristics such as independence seemed to
contribute more to reaching the highest levelsof expertise
3
3. E
[Paragraph 6 -Line 4-6]
In Boekaerts' (1991) review of emotion the learning of
very high IQ and highly achieving children, she found
emotional forces in harness.

4. A
[Paragraph 1 -Line 4-5]
a very close positive relationship was found when
children's IQ scores were compared with their home
educational provision (Freeman, 2010).
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5. C
[Paragraph 5 -Line 2-3]
individuals who know a great deal about a specific
domain will achieve at a higher level than those who do
not (Elshout, 1995).

1. E
[Paragraph 7 -Line 4-5]
As a newcomer, you also have to tolerate and laugh at
your own ignorance.

2. C
[Paragraph 5 -Line 3-4]
She recommends you train yourself to pay attention to
good fortune by writing down three positive thing that
come about each day.
4
3. G
[Paragraph 10 -Line 7-8]
Courage is not motivated by fearlessness, but by moral
obligation. Pury also believes that people can acquire
courage.

4. A
[Paragraph 6 -Line 4-5]
The physical stamina required for this sport is intense but
the psychological demands are even more overwhelming.

MATCHING SENTENCES
Exercise Answers
1 1. B 2. E 3. A

1. I 3. C 5. G 7. H
2
2. K 4. E 6. A 8. F

3 1. A 2. D 3. C 4. G
4 1. B 2. H 3. G 4. E
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SELECTING MORE THAN ONE RESPONSE FROM THE LIST

Exercise Answers
1. A, C, D
2. B, E, H
3. B, C, H
4. C, D, F
5. A, C
6. B, D, E & B,D,F
7 B, E
8 A, C, E
NB: For each exercise, the answers are in any order.
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Example of a Very Poorly Worked Answer Sheet

Poorly
shaded
grids

Mix use of
small and
capital
letters

Unclear
Wrong answers
spellings

Inappropriate
answers

Untidy
work

Confusing
alphabets

Writing in ✓X boxes
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Example of a Very Good Answer Sheet

Clear &
Readable
spellings

Correctly
spelled
case-
sensitive
spellings
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Example of a Very Good Answer Sheet

Proper
error
Clear & correction
Readable [or you
spellings Can erase
and re-
write the
answer]

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Writing all the answers in capital letters is the best to avoid case-sensitive errors.

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