MD and PIPE PROBLEMS

Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

STRESSES & MACHINE ELEMENTS

PROBLEM SET (Topic 1)
INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. Two cylinders rolling in the opposite direction has a speed ratio of 3. If the diameter of driver is 10 inches,
find the center distance between cylinders. A. 15 in B. 10 in C. 25 in D. 20 in
2. Two cylinders rolling in the same direction has speed ratio of 2.5 and center distance of 50 cm. Find the
diameter of the larger cylinder. A. 56.34 in B. 263.45 in C. 166.67 in D. 66.67 in
3. Four cylinders rolling in opposite directions has a speed ratio of A:B:C:D = 5:3:1:4. If center distance
between cylinder A and C is 70 inches, find the diameter of cylinder D.
A. 18.75 in B. 26.34 in C. 12.45 in D. 16 .37 in
4. A pulley has a tangential velocity of 75 fpm. If pulley diameter is 10 inches, find the speed of the speed.
A. 24.34 rpm B. 28.65 rpm C. 34.22 rpm D. 32.34 rpm
5. Shaft A with 12 inches diameter pulley running at 250 rpm is connected to shaft B by means of 26 inches
diameter pulley. Another pulley on shaft B 16 inches diameter is connected to 10 inches diameter pulley on
shaft C. Find the speed of shaft C. A. 184.61 rpm B. 284.56 rpm C. 173.45 rpm D. 197.44 rpm
6. A steel tie rod on bridge must be withstand a pull of 6200 lbs. Find the diameter of the rod assuming a factor
of safety of 4 and ultimate stress of 66,000 psi. A. 0.234 in B. 0.534 in C. 0.691 in D. 0.734 in
7. If the ultimate shear strength of steel plate is 45,000 psi, what force is necessary to punch a 0.9 in diameter
hole in a 0.5 in thick plate using a factor of safety of 3.5.
A. 63,617 lbs B. 61,567 lbs C. 65,378 lbs D. 69,345 lbs
8. A 2.5 in diameter by 1.8 in long journal bearing is to carry 5000 lb load at 320 rpm using SAE 40 lube oil at
200oF through a single hole at 30 psi. Compute the bearing pressure.
A. 1111.11 psi B. 142.23 psi C. 123.34 psi D. 197.34 psi
9. A journal bearing has 8 cm diameter and length to diameter ratio of 3. Find the projected area in mm 2.
A. 19,200 B. 20,009 C. 18,058 D. 17,017
10. A cable steel has a length of 100 m and stretch to 5 cm when the load is applied at both ends. If tensile
stress is 50 psi, find the modulus of elasticity of the steel.
A. 100,000 psi B. 120,000 psi C. 110,000 psi D. 130,000 psi
11. A shaft whose torque varies from 2200 to 6400 in-lb. It has a diameter of 1.25 inches and yield stress of
63,000 psi. Find the variable component stress.
A. 6524.45 psi B. 4245.56 psi C. 5475.95 psi D. 7834.56 psi
12. How many 1/2 inch diameter hole that can be punch in one motion of a 1/8 inch thick plate using a force of
50 tons. The ultimate shear stress is 52 ksi and factor of safety of 3. A. 7 B. 9 C. 8 D. 10
13. Determine the minimum diameter of a taper pin for use to fix a lever to a shaft, if it is to transmit a maximum
torque of 750 in-lb. The shaft diameter is 1.5 inches and has a stress of 20,000 psi.
A. 0.252 in B. 0.452 in C. 0.642 in D. 0.826 in
14. A 19mm stud bolts is used to fastened on a 250 mm diameter cylinder head of diesel engine. If there are
10 stud bolts, determine the pressure inside the cylinder if bolt stress is 50 Mpa.
A. 288.8 KPa B. 2888 KPa C. 3426 KPa D. 4828 Kpa
15. A column supports a compressive load of 250 KN. Determine the outside diameter of column if inside
diameter is 185 mm and compressive stress of 50 Mpa.
A. 200.62 mm B. 201.47 mm C. 216.42 mm D. 208.41 mm
16. A steel hollow tube is used to carry a tensile load of 500 KN at a stress of 140 Mpa. If outside diameter is
10 times the tube thickness of the tube. A. 11.24 mm B. 107 mm C. 20.64 mm D. 22.61 mm
17. A 20 mm diameter rivet is used to fastened two 25 mm thick plate. If the shearing stress of rivet is 80 Mpa,
what tensile force applied each plate to shear the bolt?
A. 26.35 KN B. 28.42 KN C. 30.41 KN D. 25.13 KN
18. Two 30 mm thick plate is fastened by two bolts, 25 mm in diameter. If the plate is subjected to 50 KN
tension, find the bearing stress in bolts.
A. 33333.33 KPa B. 4444.44 KPa C. 5555.55 KPa D. 555555 Kpa
19. What force is necessary to punch a 30 mm hole in 12.5 mm thick plate if ultimate shear stress is 410 Mpa?
A. 480 KN B. 481 KN C. 482 KN D. 483 KN
20. A 2.5 inches shaft is subjected to 3 KN.m torque. Find the stress developed.
A. 48.62 MPa B. 52.75 MPa C. 59.67 MPa D. 38.64 Mpa
21. A shaft when subjected to pure torsion developed a stress of 50 Mpa. If polar moment of inertia is 6.1359 x

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
10-7 m4, determine the maximum torque the shaft could handle.
A. 1.23 KN.m B. 1.68 KN.m C. 1.84 KN.m D. 2.48 KN.m
22. A lever, secured to a 50 mm round shaft by a steel tapered pin (d = 10 mm), has a pull of 200 N at a radius
of 800 mm. Find S, the working stress on the pin, in Mpa. Consider double shear on the pin.
A. 41 B. 43 C. 46 D. 48
23. In a 2.0 m cantilevered I-beam, 2 Mton weight is applied at free end. If the allowable stress in beam is 110
Mpa, determine the section modulus. A. 18.54 in3 B. 21.77 in3 C. 26.83 in3 D. 24.28 in3
24. A 6 mm steel wire is 5 m long and stretches 8 mm under a given load. If modulus of elasticity is 200 Gpa,
find the load applied. A. 7 KN B. 8 KN C. 9 KN D. 10 KN
25. A steel wire 10 m long, hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 2 KN. Neglecting the weight of wire,
determine the required diameter if the stress is not to exceed 140 Mpa and the total elongation is not to
exceed 5 mm. Assume E = 200 Gpa. A. 2 mm B. 3 mm C. 4 mm D. 5 mm
26. An iron rod 4 m long and 0.5 cm2 in cross section stretches 1 mm when a mass of 225 kg is hang on it.
Compute the modulus of elasticity of the iron.
A. 176.58 GPa B. 169.81 Gpa C. 160.41 GPa D. 180.26 Gpa
27. A 20 m rod is stretches to a strain of 0.001. Determine the deflection of the rod.
A. 20 mm B. 25 mm C. 30 mm D. 35 mm
28. A rail having a coefficient of linear expansion of 11.6 x 10 -6 m/mC increases its length when heated from
70F to 133F. Determine the strain. A. 2.04 x 10-4 B. 6.05 x 10-4 C. 4.06 x 10-4 D. 2.77 x 10-4
29. What temperature will the rails just touched if steel railroad is 10 m long are laid with clearance of 3 mm at
initial temperature of 15C. Use k = 11.7 x 10-6 m/mC.
A. 35.64C B. 40.56C C. 45.64C D. 50.64C
30. A hollow shaft has an inner diameter of 0.035 m and outer diameter of 0.086 m. Determine the polar
moment of inertia of the hollow shaft.
A. 1.512 x 10-6 m4 B. 1.215 x 10-6 m4 C. 1.52 x 10-6 m4 D. 1.125 x 10-6 m4
31. It is a problem of expansion and shrinkage of steel material so that the slightly smaller hole of a steel
bushing of 1.999 diameter with the following process/materials/data to apply:
Coefficient of expansion of carbon steel = 0.0000068 in/in-F. Temperature raised by gas heating = 24.5 oF
Cooling media to use dry ice with boiling point of -109.3 oF (-78.5oC). Shrinkage rate below boiling point is
0.00073 in/in. Determine the final clearance between the expanded steel bushing hole against the
shrinkage of the steel shaft. A. 0.000793 B. 0.000693 in C. 0.000750 in D. 0.000800 in
32. What modulus of elasticity in tension is required to obtain a unit deformation of 0.00105 m/m from a load
producing a unit tensile stress of 44,000 psi?
A. 42,300 x 106 psi B. 41,202 x 106 psi C. 43,101 x 106 psi D. 41,905 x 106 psi
33. If the weight of 6” diameter by 48” long SAE 1030 shafting is 174.5 kg, then what will be the weight of
chromium SAE 51416 of same size? A. 305.5 lbs B. 426.4 lbs C. 384.6 lbs D. 465.1 lbs
34. Compute the maximum unit shear in a 3 inches diameter steel shafting that transmits 2400 in-lb of torque at
99 rpm. A. 4530 psi B. 4250 psi C. 3860 psi D. 4930 psi
35. If the ultimate shear stress of a 1/8 inch thick drawn steel plates is 35 ksi what force is required to punch a 1
1½ inch diameter hole? A. 10,011 lbs B. 22,322 lbs C. 11 Mtons D. 20620 lbs
36. The shaft whose torque varies from 2000 to 6000 in-lbs has 1 ½ inch in diameter and 60,000 psi yield
strength. Compute for the shaft mean average stress.
A. 6036 psi B. 6810 psi C. 5162 psi D. 5550 psi
37. A link has a load factor of 0.80 the surface factor of 0.80. The surface factor is 0.92 and the endurance
strength is 28000 psi. Compute the alternating stress of the link if it is subjected to a reversing load.
Assume a factor of safety of 3. A. 8150 B. 10920 C. 9,333 D. 7260
38. The shaft is subjected to a steady load of 36,000 in-lb at a shear stress of 10,000 psi. Compute the
diameter of the said shaft in inches. A. 1 7/8 B. 2 ¼ C. 3 D. 2 ¾
39. A shear pin is to be shear at 15 hp and 1000 rpm. The pin attaches a hub to a shaft 1.5 inches in diameter
and ultimate shearing stress of 50,000 psi. Find the diameter of the pin.
A. 1/8 in B. ¼ in C. ¾ in D. 1 in
40. A steel 0.5 inch x 1 inch steel 200 ft long is subjected to a 5000 lbs tensile load. Find the deformation along
its width if poison’s ratio is 0.25. A. 0.000007 in B. 0.0000417 in C. 0.000015 in D. 0.000067 in
41. A steel rod is stretched between two rigid walls and carries a tensile load of 5000 N at 20 oC. If the
allowable stress is not to exceed 130 MN/m2 at -20oC, what is the minimum diameter of the rod? Assume
k = 11.7 µm/(m-oC); E = 200 Gpa A. 10.22 mm B. 11.22 mm C. 12.22 mm D. 13.22 mm

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

SHAFTING
PROBLEM SET (Topic 2)
INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. A shaft is used to transmit 200 KW at 300 rpm by means of a 200 mm diameter sprocket. Determine the
force tangent to the sprocket.
A. 60.44 KN B. 60.33 KN C. 60.88 KN D. 63.66 KN
2. Find the diameter of a steel shaft which will be used to operate a 110 KW motor rotating at 5 rps if torsional
stress is 90 Mpa. A. 60.20 mm B. 58.30 mm C. 38.30 mm D. 46.20 mm
3. A shaft has an ultimate stress of 350 Mpa and has a factor of safety of 5. The torque developed by the shaft
is 3 KN-m and the diameter outside diameter is 80 mm. Find the inside diameter of the shaft.
A. 83.45 mm B. 76.45 mm C. 69.62 mm D. 66.34 mm
4. What is the speed of 63.42 mm shaft transmitted 75 KW if stress is not to exceed 26 Mpa.
A. 550 rpm B. 600 rpm C. 650 rpm D. 700 rpm
5. A steel shaft transmit 50 hp at 1400 rpm. If allowable stress is 500 psi, find the shaft diameter.
A. 3.58 in. B. 2.84 in. C. 1.65 in. D. 2.54 in.
6. The shaft of a motor has a length of 20 times its diameter and has a maximum twist of 1 degrees when
twisted at 2 KN-m torque. If the modulus of rigidity of the shaft is 80 Gpa, find
the shaft diameter. A. 69.23 mm B. 73.23 mm C. 64.23 mm D. 66.33 mm
7. A hollow shaft developed a torque of 5 KN and shaft stress is 40 Mpa. If outside diameter of shaft is 100
mm, determine the shaft inner diameter.
A. 68.43 mm B. 63.28 mm C. 58.38 mm D. 77.64 mm
8. A hollow shaft that has 100 mm outside diameter and 80 mm inside diameter is used to transmit 100 KW at
600 rpm. Determine the shaft stress. A. 13.73 MPa B. 16.82 MPa C. 19.86 MPa D. 17.21 Mpa
9. What is the polar moment of inertia of a solid shaft that has a torque of 1.5 KN and a stress of 25 Mpa?
A. 2.46 x 10-6m4 B. 2.02 x 10-6m4 C. 3.46 x 10-6m4 D. 1.24 x 10-6m4
10. A force tangent to 1 foot diameter pulley is 5 KN and is mounted on a 2 inches shaft. Determine the
torsional deflection if G = 83 x 106 Kpa. A. 0.804/m B. 0.654/m C. 0.786/m D. 0.938/m
11. What is the minimum diameter of a steel shaft which will be used to operate a 14 KN.m torque and will not
twist more than 3 in a length of 6 m? (G = 83 x 106 kPa)
A. 100.64 mm B. 96.80 mm C. 118.45 mm D. 120.72 mm
12. A solid shaft 5 m long is stressed to 60 Mpa when twisted through 4. Find the shaft diameter if G =6 83
Gpa. A. 95. 46 mm B. 90.42 mm C. 101.32 mm D. 103.54 mm
13. Compute the maximum unit shear in a 2 inches diameter steel shafting that transmits 24,000 in-lb of torque
at 120 rpm. A. 15,279 psi B. 17,456 psi C. 14,233 psi D. 16,344 psi
14. What is the diameter of line shaft that transmit 150 KW at 15 rps?
A. 2.28 in. B. 3.54 in. C. 1.62 in. D. 2.06 in.
15. A main shaft has 50 mm diameter is running at 300 rpm. What is the power that could be deliver by the
shaft. A. 30.40 hp B. 28.60 hp C. 32.50 hp D. 16.42 hp
16. A 2 inches diameter main shaft running at 600 rpm is mounted by a 12 inches diameter pulley and is then
connected to the shaft of driven machine mounted by a 40 inches diameter pulley by means of a belt. The
belt efficiency is 90%. Find the diameter of the short shaft.
A. 4.23 inches B. 3.23 inches C. 2.25 inches D. 1.45 inches
17. A 1.5” diameter short shaft is used to transmit 44.4 hp. Determine the shaft speed.
A. 500 rps B. 8.33 rps C. 400 rpm D. 450 rpm
18. A 3” diameter solid shaft is desired to replace a hollow shaft having 4” outside diameter. Consider the
strength to be the same, determine the inside diameter of hollow shaft.
A. 2.5 in. B. 3.0 in. C. 3.5 in. D. 4.0 in.
19. A motor is used to drive a centrifugal pump that discharges 3000 li/min at a head of 10 m. The pump
efficiency is 68% and running at 550 rpm. Find the torsional stress of shaft if shaft diameter is 35 mm.
A. 13.85 MPa B. 11.85 MPa C. 12.85 MPa D. 14.87 Mpa
20. A circular saw blade has a circular speed of 25 m/sec and 500 mm diameter is driven by a belt that has a
slip of 7%. Find the required speed of driven shaft if speed ratio is 3.
A. 954.80 rpm B. 2533.56 rpm C. 3542.45 rpm D. 3015.57 rpm
21. An 800 mm diameter circular saw blade is driven by a 1800 rpm motor with gear speed ratio of 1.8. Find

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
the peripheral speed of the blade.
A. 137.43 ft/sec B. 140.65 ft/sec C. 132.43 ft/sec D. 135.21 ft/sec
22. A machine shaft is supported on bearings 1 m apart is to transmit 190 KW at 300 rpm while subjected to
bending load of 500 kg at the center. If shearing stresses 40 Mpa, determine the shaft diameter.
A. 100 mm B. 90 mm C. 94 mm D. 98 mm
23. A 100 mm diameter shaft is subjected to a torque f 6 KN.m and bending moment of 2.5 KN.m. Find the
maximum bending stress developed.
A. 45.84 MPa B. 60.25 MPa C. 50.28 MPa D. 55.46 Mpa
24. A shaft has a length of 10 ft. Find the diameter of the shaft that could safely deliver.
A. 1.18 in B. 7.55 in C. 2.34 in D. 1.64 in
25. A 12 ft shaft is running at 260 rpm. What that this shaft could safely deliver?
A. 3.37 hp B. 5.34 hp C. 4.56 hp D. 2.34 hp
26. Two circular shafts, one hollow shaft and one solid shaft, are made of the same material and have
diameters as follows: hollow shaft inside diameter is one-half of the external diameter. The external
diameter is equal to the diameter of the solid shaft. What is the ratio of the twisting moment of the hollow
shaft to that of the solid shaft? A. ¼ B. 1/3 C. 9/16 D. 15/16
27. Determine the thickness of a hollow shaft having an outside diameter of 100 mm if it is subjected to a
maximum torque of 5,403.58 N-m without exceeding a shearing stress of 60 Mpa or a twist of 0.5 degree
per meter length of shaft. G = 83,000 Mpa.
A. 15 mm B. 86 mm C. 16.8 mm D. 14.2 mm
28. An engine of a motor vehicle with a wheel diameter of 712 mm develops 50 KW at 2,000 rpm. The
combined efficiency of the differential and transmission is 75% with an overall speed reduction of 25 is to 1.
Determine the torque to be delivered by the clutch in N-m.
A. 239 B. 359 C. 432 D. 471
29. An engine of a motor vehicle with a wheel diameter of 712 mm develops 50 KW at 2,000 rpm. The
combined efficiency of the differential and transmission is 75% with an overall speed reduction of 25 is to 1.
Determine the draw bar pull developed in KN.
A. 13.40 KN B. 15.45 KN C. 14.55 KN D. 12.57 KN
30. A 102 mm diameter solid shaft is to be replaced with a hollow shaft equally strong (torsion) and made of the
same material. The outside diameter of the hollow shaft is to be 127 mm. What should be the inside
diameter? The allowable shearing stress is 41.4 Mpa.
A. 107.88 Mpa B. 105.82 Mpa C. 291.53 mm D. 109.60 mm
31. A steel shaft operates at 188 rad/sec and must handle 2 KW of power. The shearing stress is not to exceed
40 MN/m2. Calculate the minimum shaft diameter based on pure torsion.
A. 9 mm B. 11 mm C. 13 mm D. 15 mm
32. A round steel shaft transmits 373 watts at 1800 rpm. The torsional deflection is not to exceed 1 deg in a
length equal to 20 diameters. Find the shaft diameter.
A. 6.53 mm B. 8.72 mm C. 12.84 mm D. 18.16 mm
33. A 25 mm diameter shaft is to be replaced with a hollow shaft of the same material, weighing half as much,
but equally strong in torsion. The outside diameter of the hollow shaft is to be 38 mm. Find the inside
diameter. A. 21.25 mm B. 33.64 mm C. 47.21 mm D. 50.28 mm
34. What factor of safety is needed for a 1.998 in diameter shaft with an ultimate strength of 50,000 psi to
transmit 40,000 in-lb torque. A. 2.25 B. 1.95 C. 2.14 D. 1.55
35. A tubular shaft, having an inner diameter of 30 mm and an outer diameter of 42 mm, is to be used to
transmit 90 KW of power. Determine the frequency of rotation of the shaft so that the shear stress cannot
exceed 50 Mpa. A. 26.6 Hz B. 20.6 Hz C. 97.5 Hz D. 66.5 Hz
36. A solid transmission shaft is 3.5 inches in diameter. It is desired to replace it with a hollow shaft of the
same material and same torsional strength but its weight should only be half as much as the solid shaft.
Find the outside diameter and inside diameter of the hollow shaft in millimeters.
A. 107.315 mm ; 86.97 mm B. 112.231 mm ; 84.60 mm C. 120.217 mm ; 65.97 mm
D. 131.204 mm ; 54.30 mm
37. A 76 mm solid shaft is to be replaced with a hollow shaft of equal torsional strength. Find the percentage of
weight saved, if the outside of the hollow shaft is 100 mm.
A. 56.53% B. 67.31% C. 48.49% D. 72.50%
38. A solid steel shaft whose Sy = 300 Mpa and Su = 400 Mpa, is used to transmit 300 KW at 800 rpm.
Determine its diameter. A. 70 mm B. 65 mm C. 80 mm D. 90 mm

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
Keys and Coupling and Flywheel
PROBLEM SET (Topic 3)
INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. A flange coupling having 180 mm bolt circle and 19 mm thick uses 8 bolts, 16 mm diameter to connect two
shafts. It is use to transmit 60 KW at 180 rpm. Determine the factor of safety in bearing if yield point in
compression is 448 Mpa.
A. 15.6 B. 18.5 C. 30.8 D. 25.4
2. A turbine is connected to a generator by means of flange coupling that has a bolt circle diameter of 500 mm.
The generator output is 40 MW, 3600 rpm and 90% efficiency. If there are 16 bolts, determine the force
acting on each bolt.
A. 26.41 KN B. 29.47 KN C. 35.62 KN D. 32.61 KN
3. A 75 mm diameter shaft is transmitting 300 KW at 600 rpm. As solid coupling has a bolts of 6 and each 18
mm in diameter. Find the required bolt circle diameter if shearing stress in bolt is 27.5 Mpa.
A. 227.4 mm B. 233.6 mm C. 254.5 mm D. 272.6 mm
4. The total force of 125 KN is required of flange coupling that has 5 bolts has also a shearing stress of 30 Mpa
for bolt. Determine the required bolt diameter.
A. 62.45 KN B. 54.21 KN C. 45.62 KN D. 32.57 KN
5. A flange coupling with bolt circle diameter of 250 mm uses 8 bolts, 25 mm diameter. The torque transmitted
is 15 KN-m and compressive stress of bolts is 15 Mpa. Determine the required flange thickness.
A. 25 mm B. 30 mm C. 35 mm D. 40 mm
6. A flat key is to be designed for 75 mm diameter shaft which will transmit 150 KW at 400 rpm.
If allowable shearing stress is 200 Mpa and key width is 15 mm, determine the length of key.
A. 30.65 mm B. 31.83 mm C. 33.75 mm D. 32.85 mm
7. A 70 mm diameter shafting of SAE 1040 grade, cold rolled, having a yied point of 52 ksi and 1/2 x 3/4 x 4
inches key. Compute the minimum yield point in the key in order to transmit the torque of the shaft. The
factor of safety is 3.
A. 51,698 psi B. 45,986 psi C. 54,907 psi D. 58,096 psi
8. A rectangular key is used in pulley connection to transmit 100 KW at 1000 rpm on 50 mm shaft diameter.
Determine the force required to remove the shaft from the hub if f = 0.4.
A. 33.24 KN B. 36.85 KN C. 38.19 KN D. 30.55 KN
9. A 7/16” height x 3” length flat key is keyed to a 2 inches diameter shaft. Determine the torque
developed in key if bearing stress allowable is 25 Ksi.
A. 16.406.25 in-lb B. 15,248.56 in-lb C. 17,420 in-lb D. 16,246.75 in-lb
10. A rectangular key was used in a pulley connected to a line shaft at 15 KW and 600 rpm. If shearing of key
is 230 Mpa, determine the force acting on key length if key width is one-fourth of shaft diameter and key
length of one inch.
A. 43 KN B. 48 KN C. 45 KN D. 46 KN
11. A square key is to be used in a 40 mm diameter flat key and that will develop a 2 KN.m torque. If bearing
stress of the key is 448 Mpa, determine the cross sectional dimension of flat key to be used using key length
of 21.12 mm. A. 21.12 mm B. 25.61 mm C. 28.21 mm D. 18.61 mm
12. A 100 KN force is acting on a key that has a length of 4 times its height. If bearing stress of key is 400 Mpa,
determine the height of key.
A. 10.54 mm B. 11.18 mm C. 12.65 mm D. 15.25 mm
13. A one meter pulley is fastened to a 100 mm shaft by means of 25 mm square key and 150 mm long. What
force tangent to pulley rim will shear the key if shearing stress is 200 Mpa.
A. 65 KN B. 70 KN C. 75 KN D. 80 KN
14. A 1.2 m pulley is fastened to a 120 mm shaft by means of square key with 140 mm long. What force
tangent to pulley rim will crush and key if bearing stress is 410 Mpa. Assume key and shaft are of the same
material.
A. 160.25 KN B. 172.20.25 KN C. 180.42 KN D. 86. 10 KN
15. A press is used to punch 10 holes per minute of 30 mm diameter hole from 25 m thick plate. Determine the
power needed to punch a hole if ultimate shear stress is 400 Mpa.
A. 2.68 KW B. 1.96 KW C. 3.58 KW D. 0.96 KW
16. The kinetic energy needed to punch a hole is 5 kj. What is the maximum thickness of hole that can be

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
punched if hole diameter is 25 mm and ultimate stress of plate is 420 Mpa.
A. 12.61 mm B. 14.68 mm C. 17.41 mm D. 19.62 mm
17. During a punching process of 350 kg flywheel the speed varies from 200 rpm to 180 rpm with 1m mean
diameter. Determine the kinetic energy needed.
A. 3.63 KJ B. 6.28 KJ C. 4.51 KJ D. 5.62 KJ
18. A plate 200 mm wide and 25 mm thick with strength of 410 Mpa. is to be shear. During shearing process
an 800 mm mean diameter flywheel changes its speed from 200 rpm to 180 rpm. Determine the weight of
flywheel to be used.
A. 3265.84 kg B. 3452.71 kg C. 3621.72 kg D. 3846.86 kg
19. The energy required to punch a square from 20 mm thick plate is 10 KJ. If the ultimate strength of plate is
420 Mpa, determine the maximum sides of square that can be punched.
A. 45 mm B. 30 mm C. 60 mm D. 55 mm
20. A 1 m mean diameter flywheel, 500 kg weight changes its speed from 220 rpm to 200 during shearing
process. What force is needed to shear a 30 mm thick plate.
A. 384.13 KN B. 683.71 KN C. 4216.12 KN D. 4565.25 KN
21. The energy required to punch a hole is 3.0 KJ from a flywheel mean diameter of 800 mm that slows down to
3 rps from 3.3 rps during punching. If weight of arm and hub account 10% of rim weight, determine the rim
weight.
A. 421.68 kg B. 456.68 kg C. 482.68 kg D. 416.68 kg
22. A flywheel has a total weight of 500 kg and the weight of arm and hub is 8% of total weight. If it has a mean
diameter of 1 m and (weight) width of 300 mm. Determine the thickness of the flywheel if density of material
is 7000 kg/m3.
A. 60 mm B. 65 mm C. 70 mm D. 75 mm
23. A flywheel has a rim weight of 450 kg and mean radius of 450 mm. If rim width is 5 times the rim thickness
and material density is 7200 kg/m3, determine the width of flywheel.
A. 332.45 mm B. 242.61 mm C. 286.76 mm D. 298.78 mm
24. The power required to shear a plate 50 mm thick for 10 sec. is 5 kw. If ultimate strength of plate materials
is 420 Mpa, how wide should the plate be?
A. 80.42 mm B. 85.65 mm C. 90.28 mm D. 95.23 mm
25. A 900 mm mean diameter flywheel has a width of 350 mm, 75 mm thick and density of 7100 kg/m 3.
Neglecting the weight of arm and hub, find the energy released if its speed changes from 280 rpm to 250
rpm.
A. 7.79 KJ B. 9.30 KJ C. 2.87 KJ D. 6.71 KJ
26. A 48 in. diameter flywheel has a weight of 800 lb. During operation the speed is 180 rpm. If coefficient of
fluctuation is 0.1, determine the energy released by flywheel.
A. 3541.71 ft-lb B. 3842.68 ft-lb C. 3911.62 ft-lb D. 4612.71 ft-lb
27. A flywheel weighing 1000 kg has a (weight of 800 lb. During operation) a radius of gyration of 1.5 m. The
normal operation speed is160 rpm and coefficient of fluctuation is 0.08. Determine the kinetic energy
released by flywheel.
A. 31 KN.m B. 36 KN.m C. 41.56 KN.m D. 46.65 KN.m
28. A 5 ft. mean diameter flywheel has to absorb 3500 ft-lb of energy and maintain a coefficient of fluctuation of
0.09. If mean speed is 80 ft/sec, find the weight of the flywheel.
A. 190.66 lbs. B. 195.66 lbs. C. 198.66 lbs D. 200.77 lbs.
29. A mechanical press is used to punch 6 holes per minute on a 25 mm thick plate. The hole is 25 mm in
diameter and the plate has an ultimate strength in shear of 420 Mpa. The normal operating speed is 200
rpm and it slows down to 180 rpm during the process of punching. The flywheel has a mean diameter of
one meter and the rim width is 3 times the thickness. Assume that the hub and arm account for 5% of the
rim weight concentrated at the mean diameter and the density of cast iron is 7200 kg per cubic meter. Find
the power in KW required to drive the press.
A. 1.310 KW B. 5.67 KW C. 8.92 KW D. 9.03 KW
30. It is found that the shearing machine requires 205 Joules of energy to shear a specific gauge of sheet
metal. The mean diameter of the flywheel is to be 76.2 cm. The normal operating speed is 200 rpm and
slows down to 180 rpm during shearing process. The rim width is 30.48 cm and the weight of cast iron is
7,196.6 kg/m3. Find the thickness of the rim, assuming that the hub and arms account for 10% of the rim
weight concentrated on the mean diameter.
A. 0.583 cm B. 0.587 cm C. 0.672 cm D. 0.480 cm
31. A sheet metal working company purchase a shearing machine from a surplus dealer without a flywheel. It
is calculated that the machine will use 238 Joules of energy to shear a 1.2 mm thick sheet metal. The

6
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
flywheel to be used will have a mean diameter of 91.44 cm with a width of 25.4 cm. The normal operating
speed is 180 rpm and slows down to 160 rpm during the shearing process. Assuming that the arms and the
hub will account for 12% of the rim weight concentrated at the mean diameter and that the material density
is 0.26 lb/cu.in, compute for the weight of the flywheel.
A. 296 kg B. 304 kg C. 347 kg D. 493 kg
32. A shearing machine requires 150 kg-m of energy to shear a steel sheet, and a normal speed of 3.0 rev/sec,
slowing down to 2.8 rev/sec during the shearing process. The flywheel of the machine has a mean
diameter of 75 cm and weighs 15.5 kg/cm3. The width of the rim is 30 cm. If the hub and arms of the
flywheel account for 15% of its total weight, find the thickness of the rim in cm.
A. 0.00487 cm B. 0.00432 cm C. 0.00363 cm D. 0.00482 cm
33. A cast iron flywheel with a mean diameter of 36 inches changes speed from 300 rpm to 280 while it gives
up 8000 ft-lb energy. What is the coefficient of fluctuation?
A. 0.069 B. 0.015 C. 0.082 D. 0.020
34. Two short shafts having identical diameters of 38.1 mm and rotating at 400 rpm are connected by a flange
coupling having 4 bolts with 100 mm bolt circle. The design shearing stress of the bolts is 12 N/mm 2 and
design compressive stress of the flange is 15 N/mm2. What is the power transmitted by the short shaft in
KW? A. 30.4 KW B. 26.5 KW C. 29.3 KW D. 32.3 KW
35. Two short shafts having identical diameters of 38.1 mm and rotating at 400 rpm are connected by a flange
coupling having 4 bolts with 100 mm bolt circle. The design shearing stress of the bolts is 12 N/mm 2 and
design compressive stress of the flange is 15 N/mm2. What is the diameter of bolt should be used?
A. 19.30 mm B. 22.37 mm C. 20.40 mm D. 18.32 mm
36. Two short shafts having identical diameters of 38.1 mm and rotating at 400 rpm are connected by a flange
coupling having 4 bolts with 100 mm bolt circle. The design shearing stress of the bolts is 12 N/mm 2 and
design compressive stress of the flange is 15 N/mm2. How thick should the flange be?
A. 11.51 mm B. 13.60 mm C. 12.49 mm D. 15.65 mm
37. A flange coupling is to be designed, using 25 mm diameter bolts at a distance of 152 mm from the center of
the shaft. Allowable shearing stress on the bolt is 103 Mpa. If the shaft is to transmit 5,800 hp at a speed
of 1,200 rpm, how many bolts are needed in the connection?
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
38. A flange bolt coupling consists of eight steel 20 mm diameter steel bolts spaced evenly around a bolt circle
300 mm in diameter. If the coupling is subjected to a torque of 15.1 KN-m, determine the maximum
shearing stress in the bolts.
A. 40450 KPa B. 63320 Kpa C. 40054 Kpa D. 31298 Kpa
39. A pulley is keyed to a 2 and ½ inches diameter shaft by a 5/8 in x 7/16 in x 3 in flat key. The shaft rotates at
50 rpm. The allowable shearing stress for the key is 22 ksi. The allowable compressive stress for the key,
hub and shaft are 66 ksi, 59 ksi and 72 ksi, respectively. Determine the maximum torque the pulley can
safely deliver. A. 48398.4 in-lb B. 54140.6 in-lb C. 51562.5 in-lb D. 67495.2 in-lb
40. A rectangular key was used in a pulley connected to a line shaft with a power of 7.46 KW at a speed of
1200 rpm. If the shearing stress of the shaft and key are 30 N/mm 2 and 240 N/mm2, respectively. What is
the diameter of the shaft? A. 18.7 mm B. 21.7 mm C. 25.8 mm D. 30.2 mm
41. What pressure is required to punch a hole 2” diameter through a ¼ in steel plate?
A. 10 tons B. 20 tons C. 30 tons D. 40 tons
42. Find the force needed to punch 2 in hole from a 1.5 in thick plate.
A. 200 tons B. 210 tons C. 220 tons D. 240 tons
43. A 2 in diameter 6-spline shaft (d = 0.9D, w = 0.25D, h = 0.25D) and permanent fit has a compressive force
of 2000 lbs. Find the compressive stress if hub length is 1 ½ in.
A. 244.44 psi B. 344.44 psi C. 444.44 psi D. 544.44 psi
44. A 4-spline shaft (d = 0.75D, w = 0.24D, h = 0.25D) and to slide when not under load has a diameter of 2.5
in. Find the shearing stress if shearing force is 2500 lbs. If hub length is 2 inches.
A. 420.83 psi B. 520.83 psi C. 620.83 psi D. 720.83 psi
45. A 1.5 in diameter 10-spline shaft d = 0.91D, w = 0.156D, h = 0.045D) and permanent fit has a
compressive force of 2200 lbs. Find the torque applied if hub length 1 ¾ in.
A. 1,575.75 psi B. 1,675.75 psi C. 1,775.75 psi D. 1,875.75 psi

7
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

BEAMS AND MACHINESHOP

1. A horizontal cantilever beam, 20 ft long is subjected to a load of 5000 lb located to its center. The
dimension of the beam is 8 x 12 inches respectively. w = 120 lb/ft, find its flexural stress.
A. 3150 psi B. 2912 psi C. 4625 psi D. 5663 psi
2. A vertical load of 1000 N acts at the end of a horizontal rectangular cantilever beam 3 m long and 30 mm
wide. If the allowable bending stress is 100 Mpa, find the depth of the beam.
A. 77.46 mm B. 38.43 mm C. 54.77 mm D. 45.34 mm
3. A simply supported beam is 50 mm by 150 mm in cross section and 5 m long. If the flexural stress is not to
exceed 8.3 Mpa, find the maximum mid-span concentrated load.
A. 0.623 KN B. 0.987 KN C. 1.245 KN D. 4.34 KN
4. A horizontal cantilever beam, 20 ft long is subjected to a load of 5000 lb located to its center. The
dimension of the beam is 8 x 12 inches respectively. w = 120 lb/ft, find its flexural stress.
A. 3150 psi B. 2912 psi C. 4625 psi D. 5663 psi
5. The maximum bending moment induced in a simply supported beam of a 200 ft span by a 200 lb load at the
midspan is: A. 25,000 ft-lb B. 15,000 ft-lb C. 30,000 ft-lb D. 10,000 ft-lb
6. Calculate the rpm for machining a cast iron workpiece 6 inches in diameter. The lowest cutting speed for
cast iron is 50 fpm. A. 35.3 B. 33.3 C. 43.3 D. 53.32
7. To facilitate the milling (roughing) work of a cast iron material using a 1 ½ inch diameter cutter choose
between the two available stock. Find the speed of the cutter in rpm. High speed steel cutter with a cutting
speed of 50 fpm. Carbide tipped cutter with a cutting speed of 200 fpm.
A. 389 B. 572 C. 509 D. 412
8. Calculate the cutting speed in fpm when spindle speed of a lathe is turning 8 inches diameter bronze
casting using a spindle speed of 120 rpm. A. 220 fpm B. 3016 fpm C. 2510 fpm D. 251 fpm
9. Using oxyacetylene welding method to weld a 3 ft long seam in a 3/8 thick plate at a consumption rate of 9
cu. ft/ft of weld for oxygen and 7 cu. ft/ft acetylene. What is the total combined gas consumption in cu. ft?
A. 51 B. 48 C. 45 D. 55
10. With the electric arc welding rate of 18 in/min, how long will it take to weld a ½ in thick plate by 3 ft long
seam? A. 3 min B. 2 min C. 1.5 min D. 4 min
11. How long will it take to mill a ¾” by 2” long keyway in a 3” diameter shafting with a 24 tooth cutter turning at
100 rpm and 0.005” feed/tooth? A. 0.136 min B. 0.196 min C. 0.166 min D. 0.106 min
12. How long will it take to saw a rectangular piece of aluminum plate 8 in wide and 1 ½ in thick if the length of
the cut is 8 in, the power hacksaw makes 120 rev/min and average feed per stroke is 0.0060 in?
A. 13.11 B. 11.11 C. 14.01 D. 12.03
13. Compute the cutting speed in fpm of a workpiece with 2 inches diameter and running at 100 rpm?
A. 72 B. 102 C. 62 D. 52
14. Determine the time in seconds to saw a rectangular magnesium bar 5 in wide and 2 in thick if the length of
cut is 5 in. The power hacksaw does 120 strokes/min and the feed/stroke is 0.127 mm.
A. 189 B. 500 C. 90 D. 20
15. Using oxyacetylene welding method to weld a 3.5 ft long seam in a 0.375” thick steel plate at a
consumption rate of 9 cu. ft/ft of weld for oxygen and 7 cu. ft/ft acetylene. What is the total combined gas
consumption in cu. ft? A. 48 B. 24.5 C. 56 D. 31.5
16. How long will it take to mill a 3/4” by 2” long keyway in a 3” diameter shafting with a 30 tooth cutter turning
at 90 rpm and 0.004” feed/tooth? A. 13.60 sec B. 9.69 sec C. 16.96 sec D. 11.1 sec
17. Compute for the drill penetration in in/min when a drill turns at 1200 rpm and the feed of 0.005 in/rev.
Material is steel. A. 1.8 B. 12 C. 3.6 D. 6
18. Compute the manual cutting time in minutes, of a steel plate 4 ft by 8 ft by 2.5 cm thick with a hand cutting
speed of 3.8 to 4 mm/sec, cutting lengthwise. A. 10.42 B. 0.38 C. 1.81 D. 8.16
19. A machine shaft is mounted with 16 inches diameter pulley running at 450 rpm. Find the peripheral speed
in ft/min. A. 1885 fpm B. 1983 fpm C. 2345 fpm D. 2845 fpm

8
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

BOLT AND POWER SCREW

PROBLEM SET (Topic 4)
INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. Determine the permissible working stress of a UNC bolts that has a stress area of 0.606 in 2 if material used
in carbon steel. A. 4055.5 psi B. 5244.5 psi C. 4675.5 psi D. 4186.5 psi
2. The stress area of UNC bolt is 0.763 in2, if material used is carbon steel, determine te applied load on the
bolt. A. 3407.14 lbs. B. 3846.71 lbs. C. 4025.86 lbs. D. 3102.74 lbs.
3. Compute the working strength of 1 1/2 in. bolt which is screwed up tightly in packed joint when the
allowance working stress is 13,000 psi.
A. 11,465.5 lbs. B. 13,860.5 lbs. C. 11,212.5 lbs. D. 11,854.5 lbs.
4. Determine the diameter of bolt needed to tightly packed the joint is bolt working strength is 90.76 KN and
working stress is 82.71 Mpa. A. 0.5 in. B. 1.0 in. C. 1.5 in. D. 2.0 in.
5. A 12 cm x 16 cm air compressor have 5 bolts on cylinder head with yield stress of 440 Mpa. If the bolt stress
area is 0.13 in2, determine the maximum pressure inside the cylinder.
A. 142.23 psi B. 671.96 psi C. 742.78 psi D. 840.60 psi
6. The cylinder head of ammonia compressor has core gasket are of 80 cm 2 and flange pressure of 90 kg/cm2.
Determine the torque applied on the bolt if nominal diameter of bolt used is 3/5 inch and there are 5 bolts.
A. 476.28 in.lb B. 586.28 in.lb C. 381.02 in.lb D. 666.28 in.lb
7. The total torque required to turn the power screw is 50 N.m. If the linear speed of screw is 7 ft./min and lead
of 8mm, find the horsepower input of the power screw.
A. 2.86 hp B. 1.84 hp C. 2.14 hp D. 2.38 hp
8. A single square thread power screw has a lead of 6 mm and mean diameter of 34 mm. If it is used to lift a
load of 26 KN and coefficient of friction of thread is 0.15, determine the torque required to turn the screw.
A. 91.9 N.m B. 65.8 N.m C. 72.6 N.m D. 86.5 N.m
9. An acme thread power screw that has a mean diameter of 25 mm and pitch of 5 mm is used to lift a load of
500 kg. If friction on threads is 0.1, determine the torque needed to turn the screw.
A. 11.10 N.m B. 126.3 N.m C. 13.10 N.m D. 10.30 N.m
10. A double square thread power screw has a mean radius of 80 mm and a pitch of 10 mm is used to lift a load
of 80 KN. If friction of screw is 0.13 and collar torque is 20% of input torque, determine the input torque
required. A. 830.75 N.m B. 1365.40 N.m C. 840.76 N.m D. 846.76 N.m
11. The root diameter of a double square thread power screw is 0.55 in. The screw has a pitch of 0.2 in.
Determine the major diameter. A. 0.524 in. B. 0.750 in. C. 0.842 in. D. 0.961 in.
12. A power screw consumes 6 hp in raising a 2800 lb weight at the rate of 30 ft/min. Determine the efficiency
of the screw. A. 12.5% B. 16.8% C. 42.42% D. 66.62%
13. A square thread power screw has a pitch diameter of 1.5 and a lead of 1 in. Neglecting collar friction,
determine the coefficient of friction for threads if screw efficiency is 63.62%
A. 0.113 B. 0.121 C. 0.146 D. 0.151
14. A square thread screw has an efficiency of 70% when friction of threads is 0.10 and collar friction is
negligible. Determine the lead angle. A. 12.6 B. 14.3 C. 16.5 D. 18.3
15. A 12 cm x 16 cm air compressor is operating with a maximum pressure of 10 kg/cm 2. There are 5 bolts
which held the cylinder head to the compressor. What is the maximum load per bolt in KN?
A. 2.22 B. 4.44 C. 3.33 D. 5.55
16. What weight can be lifted by a screw that has an efficiency of 80% if it is operated by a 50 lb force at the
end of a 30 in lever? The pitch diameter of the screw is ½ in.
A. 12,000 lbs B. 13,000 lbs C. 14,000 lbs D. 15,000 lbs
17. Find the horsepower lost when a collar is loaded with 1000 lb, rotates at 25 rpm, and has a coefficient of
friction of 0.15. The outside diameter of the collar is 4 inches and inside diameter is 2 inches.
A. 0.0629 Hp B. 0.0926 Hp C. 0.0269 Hp D. 0.0692 Hp
18. Compute the working strength of 1” bolt which is screwed up tightly in a packed joint when the allowable
working stress is 13,000 psi. A. 3600 lbs B. 3950 lbs C. 3900 lbs D. 3800 lbs
19. What is the working strength of 2” bolt which is screwed up tightly in packed joint when the allowable
working stress is 12,000 psi. A. 20,120 lbs B. 20,400 lbs C. 20,400 lbs D. 20,200 lbs
20. What is the frictional HP acting on a collar loaded with 100 kg weight? The collar has an outside diameter
of 100 mm and an internal diameter of 40 mm. The collar rotates at 1000 rpm and the coefficient of friction
between the collar and the pivot surface is 0.15.
A. 0.8 HP B. 0.5 HP C. 0.3 HP D. 1.2 HP

9
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
21. If the pitch of a screw is 2/9, find the thread per inch.
A. 0.34 B. 4.5 C. 5.4 D. 17
22. An eyebolt is lifting a block weighing 350 lbs. The eyebolt is of SAE 1040 material with S u = 67 ksi and Sy =
55 ksi what is the stress area (in inches square) of the bolt if it is under the unified coarse series thread?
A. 1341 B. 0.1134 C. 0991 D. 1043
23. Compute how many 3/8 inch diameter set screws required to transmit 3 Hp at a shaft speed of 1000 rpm.
The shaft diameter is 1 inch. A. 1 ½ B. 2 C. 3 D. 1
24. For a bolted connection, specification suggests that a high grade material of 13 mm bolt be tightened to an
initial tension of 55,000 N. What is the appropriate tightening torque?
A. 41 N-m B. 139 N-m C. 145 N-m D. 143 N-m
25. An eye bolt is lifting 500 lbs weight. The S u = 70 ksi ans Sy = 58 ksi. What is the stress area of the bolt?
A. 0.009 in2 B. 0.026 in2 C. 0.1388 in2 D. 0.1276 in2
26. Find the horsepower required to drive a power screw lifting a load of 4000 lbs. A 2 and ½ inches double
square thread with two threads/inch is to be used. The frictional radius of the collar is 2 inches and the
coefficients of friction are 0.10 for the threads and 0.15 for the collar. The velocity of the nut is 10 ft/min.
A. 5.382 HP B. 4.395 HP C. 3.683 HP D. 6.472 HP
27. Determine the diameter of the stud bolt that are required to fasten down the cylinder head of a 203 mm x
304 mm gas engine. There are ten bolts on the block. The explosion pressure is 31 kg/sq cm and studs
are made of ordinary bolts material SAE 1020. How deep should the bolt be drilled?
A. 38.1 mm B. 40.2 mm C. 37.3 mm D. 35.5 mm
28. A double thread Acme screw driven by a motor at 400 rpm raises the attached load of 900 kg at a speed of
10 meters per minute. The screw has a pitch diameter36 mm. The coefficient of friction on threads is 0.15.
The friction torque on the thrust bearing of the motor is taken as 20% of the total torque input. Determine
the motor power required to operate the screw.
A. 3.239 KW B. 4.658 KW C. 2.482 KW D. 4.391 KW
29. A 12 cm x 16 cm air compressor is operating with a maximum pressure of 10 kg/cm 2 which held the cylinder
head to the compressor. The core gasket area is 60 cm 2 with a flange pressure of 100 kg/cm2. Determine
the size of UNF bolts in inches. A. ½ in B. ¼ in C. 1/3 in D. ½.5 in
30. The root diameter of a double square thread is 0.55 inch. The screw has a pitch of 0.20 inch. Find the
outside diameter and the number of threads per inch.
A. 0.75 inch and 5 threads/inch B. 0.50 inch and 5 threads/inch C. 0.75 inch and 4 threads/inch
D. 0.50 inch and 4 threads/inch
31. A single square thread power screw is to raised load of 70 KN. The screw has a major diameter of 36 mm
and a pitch of 6 mm. The coefficient of thread friction and the collar friction are 0.13 and 0.10 respectively.
If the collar mean diameter is 90 mm and the screw turns at 60 rpm, find the combined efficiency of screw
and collar. A. 13.438% B. 15.530% C. 14.526% D. 12.526%
32. A single threaded trapezoidal metric thread has a pitch of 4 mm, and a mean diameter of 18 mm. It is used
as a translation screw in conjunction with a collar having an outside diameter of 37 mm and an inside
diameter of 27 mm. Find the required torque in N-m to raise a load of 400 kg if the coefficient of friction is
0.3 for both threads and collar. A. 34.6 N-m B. 32.6 N-m C. 39.1 N-m D. 38.5 N-m
33 The collar of the capstan has an outside diameter of 8 in and an inside diameter of 6 in. The total load
supports is 2000 lbs. If the coefficient of friction is 0.10, what is the collar friction torque?
A. 705 in-lb B. 802 in-lb C. 1012 in-lb D. 972 in-lb
34. Calculate the bolt area in mm2 of each of 20-bolts used to fasten the hemispherical joints of a 580 mm
pressure vessel with an internal pressure of 10 MPa and a material strength of 80 MPa and a bolt strength
of 150 MPa: A. 880.69 B. 920.5 C. 820 D. 790
35. A double-thread Acme-form power screw of 50 mm major diameter is used. The nut makes 1 turn per cm
of axial travel. A force of 60 kg is applied at the end of a 750 mm wrench used on the nut. The mean
diameter of the collar is 90 mm. If the coefficient of friction at the thread and at the collar are 0.15 and 0.13,
respectively. Determine the weight that is being lifted.
A. 42.95 KN B. 39.50 Kn C. 45.82 KN D. 32.72 KN
36. Determine the stress area in in2 of a 1-8UNC bolt.
A. 0.563 in2 B. 0.606 in2 C. 0.334 in2 D. 0.785 in2
37. Determine the stress in psi of a 1-4UNC bolt if applied force is 4000 lb.
A. 4991 psi B. 5991 psi C. 6991 psi D. 8901 psi

10
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PRESSURE VESSEL
1. Determine the internal pressure of cylindrical tank 500 mm internal diameter, 20 mm thick and 3 m length if
stresses limited to 140 Mpa. A. 10.06 MPa B. 10.53 C. 11.20 Mpa D. 12.88 Mpa
2. Determine the bursting steam pressure of a steel shell with diameter of 20 inches and made of 5/16 steel
plate . The joint efficiency is at 80% and a tensile strength is 63,000 psi.
A. 2,445.6 psi B. 3,150.0 psi C. 5,233.4 psi D. 4,736.4 psi
3. A water tank 10 m x 12 m is completely filled with water. Determine the minimum thickness of the plate if
stress is limited to 50 Mpa. A. 11.77 mm B. 12.66 mm C. 14.55 mm D. 12.44 mm
4. Determine the safe wall thickness of a 50 inches steel tank with internal pressure of 8 Mpa. The ultimate
stress is 296 Mpa. The factor of safety to use is 3. A. 2 in B. 3 in C. 5 in D. 4 in
5. The internal pressure of a 400 mm inside diameter cylindrical tank is 10 Mpa and thickness is 25 mm.
Determine the stress developed if joint efficiency is 95%.
A. 80 MPa B. 84.21 Mpa C. 86.75 MPa D. 78.42 Mpa
6. A cylinder has maximum load of 2500 kg while the pressure is 2,550 kpa. If the ultimate stress is 55,000
Kpa and factor of safety of 4, find the required wall thickness of the cylinder.
A. 8.45 mm B. 11.42 mm C. 9.34 mm D. 10.26 mm
7. A spherical tank 15 mm thick has an internal pressure of 5 Mpa. The joint efficiency is 96% and stress is
limited to 46875 Kpa. Find the inner diameter of the tank.
A. 150 mm B. 200 mm C. 250 mm D. 540 mm
8. A spherical tank has a diameter of 10 m and 80 cm thickness. If tangential stress of tank is 16 Mpa, find the
maximum internal pressure of the tank can carry if the wall thickness is 25.4 cm.
A. 1625.60 kpa B. 1863.45 kpa C. 2357.43 kpa D. 3422.45 kpa
9. A cylindrical tank has an inside diameter of 5 in and is subjected to internal pressure of 500 psi. If
maximum stress is 1200 psi, determine the required thickness.
A. 1.0 in. B. 1.2 in C. 1.4 in. D. 1.6 in.
10. A thickness of cylindrical tank is 50 mm. The internal diameter is 300 mm and has an tangential stress of
8423.58 Kpa. Determine the maximum internal pressure.
A. 20 MPa B. 25 Mpa C. 30 Mpa D. 2358.41 kpa
11. A round vertical steel tank has an inside diameter of 3 m and is 6 m in height. It contains gasoline with a
density of 750 kg/m3. If the allowable tensile stress is 25 Mpa, find the minimum thick required.
A. 2.65 mm B. 2.85 mm C. 3.65 mm D. 1.82 mm
12. A cylinder having an internal diameter of 18 inches and an external diameter of 30 inches is subjected to an
internal pressure of 8,000 psi. If the hoop stress at the inner is 13,000 psi, find the external pressure.
A. 1280 psi B. 1384 psi C. 1450 psi D. 1653 psi
13. A cylinder having an internal diameter of 16 in and wall thickness of 6 inches is subjected to an internal
pressure of 65 Mpa and external pressure of 13 Mpa. Determine the hoop stress at the outer
A. 23.58 Mpa B. 28.45 Mpa C. 37.42 Mpa D. 33.45 Mpa
14. The pressure inside the cylindrical tank varies from 800 kpa to 3200 kpa continuously. The diameter of
shell is 1.6 m. Find the wall thickness if yield point is 460 Mpa, endurance strength is 200 Mpa and factor of
safety of 3. A. 18.34 mm B. 24.83 C. 20.45 mm D. 28.45 mm
15. Determine the bursting steam pressure of a steel shell with diameter of 12 inches and made of 1/4 thick
steel plate. The joint efficiency is at 85% and the tensile strength is 64 ksi.
A. 4234.32 psi B. 8382.44 psi C. 4533.33 psi D. 5345.55 psi
16. Determine the safe wall thickness of a 26 inches steel tank with internal pressure of 8 Mpa. The yield
stress of material is at 280 Mpa. The factor of safety is 3.
A. 23.23 mm B. 28.30 mm C. 30.12 mm D. 39.23 mm
17. A water tank 10 m x 12 m is completely filled with water. Determine the minimum thickness of the plate if
stress is limited to 50 Mpa. A. 11.77 mm B. 14.55 mm C. 12.66 mm D. 12.44 mm
18. Determine the bursting steam pressure of a steel shell with diameter of 10 inches and made of ¼ inch thick
steel plate. The joint efficiency is at 70% and the tensile strength is 60 ksi.
A. 4200 psi B. 10.5 ksi C. 42.8 ksi D. 8500 psi
19. Compute the safe wall thickness of a 76.2 cm diameter steel tank. The tank is subjected to 7.33 Mpa
pressure and the steel material has yield stress of 215.4 Mpa. The factor of safety to use is 3.
A. 1 ½ inches B. 3.89 cm C. 4.09 cm D. 3.59 cm
20. A cylinder tank with 10 inches inside diameter contains oxygen gas at 2500 psi. Calculate the required
wall thickness in millimeter under stress of 28,000 psi. A. 10.54 B. 11.34 C. 10.24 D. 12.24

11
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

SPRING
1. A squared and ground ends spring has a pitch of 20 mm, wire diameter of 12.5 mm. If there are 12
actual number of coils the deflection when spring is compressed to its solid length.
A. 78 mm B. 75 mm C. 77 mm D. 79 mm
2. A spring with plain ends has 15 active coils diameter of 6 mm and pitch of 10 mm. If spring rate is 100
KN/m, determine the solid force. A. 4 KN B. 5 KN C. 6 KN D. 7 KN
3. A spring rate has a spring rate of 30 KN/m. If wire diameter is 10mm with a mean diameter of 70 mm,
determine the number of active coils. G = 80 GN/m 2.
A. 6.54 B. 7.82 C. 8.42 D. 9.72
4. A spring has a load of 50 lb. with a spring index of 8. If stress induced is 90,000 psi,
determine the wire diameter. A. 0.058 in. B. 0.828 in. C. 0.452 in. D. 0.1157 in.
5. It is found that a load of 50 lb. an extension coil spring deflects 8.5 in. What load deflect the spring 2.5 in?
A. 10.64 lb. B. 12.48 lb. C. 13.48 lb. D. 14.70 lb.
6. A spring sustain 200 ft-lb of energy with deflection of 3 in. Assume that the main coil diameter is 7 times the
wire diameter and allowable stress of 100,000 psi, determine the wire diameter.
A. 0.416 in. B. 0.321 in. C. 0.568 in. D. 0.672 in.
7. A weight of 100 lbs. strikes a coil spring from a height of 18 inches and deflects the spring of 6 inches.
Find the average force acting on the spring. A. 600 lb. B. 700 lb. C. 800 lb. D. 900 lb.
8. If it is determined experimentally that a load of 20 kg applied to an extension coil spring will provide a
deflection of 200 mm. What load will deflect the spring 60 mm.
A. 4 kg B. 5 kg C. 6 kg D. 7 kg
9. Three extension coil spring are hooked in series and supports a weight of 70 kg. One spring has a spring
rate of 0.209 kg/mm. and the other two have spring rates of 0.643 kg/mm. Find the deflection.
A. 346.71 mm B. 389.30 mm C. 426.71 mm D. 552.66 mm
10. Four compression coil spring in parallel support a load of 360 kg. Each spring has a gradient of 0.717
kg/mm. A. 125.52 mm B. 132.52 mm C. 138.52 mm D. 145.52 mm
11. A spring has a diameter of 25 mm and 12 active coils. If a load of a 10 KN is applied it deflects 75 mm.
Determine the mean diameter of the spring G = 80 GN/m 2.
A. 20 mm B. 134.65 mm C. 150.34 mm D. 40 mm
12. A coil spring is to have a mean diameter of 50 mm and is to support a load of 1000 N. The allowable
working stress is 415 Mpa and the modulus of elasticity in shear is 80 Gpa. Find the wire diameter of the
spring in mm. A. 7.195 mm B. 5.719 mm C. 5.197 mm D. 1.579 mm
13. All four compression coil spring support one load of 400 kg. All four springs are arranged in parallel and
rated same at 0.709 kg/mm. Compute the deflection in mm.
A. 564 B. 1457 C. 171 D. 141
14. A force of 1.1 KN is acting on a 7.5 active coils with wire diameter of 13 mm. The outside diameter of coil is
117 mm and G = 80 GN/m2. Determine the deflection.
A. 27.6 mm B. 29.8 mm C. 32.5 mm D. 34.6 mm
15. A spring with plain ends has 15 active coils diameter of 6 mm and pitch of 10 mm. If spring rate is 100
KN/m, determine the solid force. A. 4 KN B. 5 KN C. 6 KN D. 7 KN
16. Compute deflection of a 16 coils helical spring having a load of 120 kg. The modulus of elasticity in shear
of spring is 100 Gpa, outside diameter of 10 cm and with 10 mm wire diameter. The spring is squared and
ground ends. A. 96.12 mm B. 90.43 mm C. 102.34 mm D. 108.45 mm
17. Find the Wahl factor of the spring having an inside diameter of 10 inches and wire diameter of 0.75 in.
A. 1.056 B. 0.374 C. 1.863 D. 1.099
18. A high alloy spring having squared and ground ends and has a total of 16 coils and modulus of elasticity in
shear of 85 Gpa. Compute the Wahl factor. The spring outside diameter is 9.66 cm and wire diameter is
0.65 cm. A. 1.056 B. 1.10 C. 1.185 D. 1.2
19. A coiled spring with 5 cm of outside diameter is required to work under the load of 190 N with square and
ground end. The wire diameter is 5 mm, the spring is to have 6 active coils. The modulus of rigidity is 809
Gpa and the mean radius is to be 23 mm, with 7 mm pitch of the spring.
A. 6.5 coils B. 7.5 coils C. 8.5 coils D. 9.5 coils
20. A helical spring having squared and ground ends has a total of 18 coils and its material has modulus of
elasticity in shear of 78.910 Gpa. If the spring has an outside diameter of 10.42 cm and a wire diameter of
0.625 cm, compute the deflection in the spring due to a load of 50 kgs.
A. 302 mm B. 490 mm C. 400 mm D. 322 mm
21. Compute the maximum deflection of a 20 coils helical spring having a load of 75 kgs. The spring is a

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
square/ground ends with modulus of elasticity in shear of 79.84 Gpa outside diameter of 101.6 mm and wire
diameter of 9.525 mm. A. 140.7 mm B. 112.7 mm C. 15.17 mm D. 126.7 mm
22. The smaller of two concentric helical springs is made of 22 mm diameter steel spring and has an outside
diameter of 100 mm with 10 active coils. The outer spring is made of 32 mm steel spring and has an
outside diameter of 250 mm with 8 active coils. Before load is applied, the outer spring is 25 mm longer
than the inner spring. If the load is 90 KN is applied to this rest of springs. Find the rate of each spring.
A. 507.5 KN/m, 143.6 KN/m C. 493.8 KN/m, 126.5 KN/m
B. 731.5 KN/m, 212.5 KN/m D. 976.1 KN/m, 318.8 KN/m
23. Calculate the wire diameter of a steel spring that could support a load of 50 kg. Allowable working stress is
427 x 106 N/m2, the spring mean diameter is to be 44.45 mm and G = 79.3 Gpa.
A. 0.2106 in B. 0.3028 in C. 0.3924 in D. 0.6931 in
24. A semi-elliptic laminated spring is made of No. 10 BWG steel 2 inches wide. The length between support is
26 ½ inches and the band is 2 ½ in wide. The spring has two full-length and five graduated leaves. A central
load of 350 lb is carried. Assume that the distance from bolt to end of band is 1/6 of the band width and plate
thickness is 0.134 inch.
Le=L /2- (bw-1/3 bw)/2--- effective length Where: bw—band width; L—length bet support
A. Determine the maximum stress if each set of leaves for an initial condition of no stress in the leaves.
Ans. Sf = 68,000 psi, Sg = 45,300 psi
B. Determine the maximum stress if initial stress is provided to cause equal stresses when loaded.
Ans. 51,900 psi
C. Determine the deflection in Part A. Ans. 1.74 inches

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PROBLEM SET # 5

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

SPUR GEAR
1. Find the tooth thickness of a 14 deg. Involute gear having a diametral pitch of 6.
A. 5.33 mm B. 6.65 mm C. 8.45 mm D. 12.36 mm
2. A gear set having a gear ratio of 3 is to be used at a center distance of 10 inches. If the gear has 60 teeth,
what must be the circular pitch? A. 0.7236 in. B. 0.7851 in. C. 0.8970 in. D. 0.7283 in.
3. Compute the speed of the gear mounted in a 52.5 mm diameter shaft receiving power from a prime motor
with 250 hp. A. 2182 rpm B. 2081 rpm C. 2265 rpm D. 2341 rpm
4. Find the distance between centers of a pair of gears, one of which has 12 teeth and the other 37 teeth. The
diametral pitch is 8. A. 3 in B. 4 in C. 5 in D. 6 in
5. Two parallel shafts have an angular velocity ratio of 3 to 1 are connected by gears, the largest of which
has 54 teeth. Find the number of teeth of smaller gear.
A. 14 B. 16 C. 12 D. 18
6. A spur pinion rotates at 1800 rpm and transmits to a mating gear 30 hp. The pitch diameter is 8 inches and
the pressure angle is 14 1/2. Determine the total load in lbs.
A. 123.45 lbs B. 653.45 lbs C. 271.24 lbs D. 327.43 lbs
7. A spur pinion rotates at 1800 rpm and transmits to mating gear 30 HP. The pitch diameter is 4” and the
pressure angle is 14 1/2 . determine the tangential load in lbs.
A. 495 B. 525 C. 535 D. 475
8. Two idlers of 28 T and 26 T are introduced between the 24 T pinion with a turning speed of 400 rpm driving
a final 96T gear. What would be the final speed of the driven gear and its direction relative to the driving
gear rotation? A. 120 rpm and opposite direction C. 80 rpm and same direction
B. 100 rpm and opposite direction D. 100 rpm and same direction
9. A spur pinion supported on each side by ball bearings rotates 1750 rpm and transmit to a mating gear at 25
Hp. The pressure angle is 20 degrees and the pitch diameter is 5. Determine the tangential load in lbs.
A. 420 B. 300 C. 360 D. 400
10. The minimum clearance allowed for meshing spur gears with a circular pitch of 0.1571 and diametral pitch
of 20. The spur gear has 25 teeth. A. 0.007855 B. 0.008578 C. 0.007553 D. 0.007565
11. Compute the speed of the speed of the gear mounted on a 52.5 mm diameter shaft receiving power from a
driving motor with 250 hp. A. 2182 rpm B. 2071 rpm C. 2282 rpm D. 2341 rpm
12. The minimum whole depth of spur gear of 4-1/2 deg involute type with diameter pitch of 24 and circular
pitch of 0.1309: A. 0.09000 B. 0.09900 C. 0.089875 D. 0.089758
13. An internal gear is set up with a 5-in diameter pinion and center distance of 18 inches. Find the diameter of
the internal gear. A. 38” B. 21.5” C. 26” D. 41”
14. The tooth thickness of a gear is 0.5 inch and its circular pitch is 1.0 inch. Calculate the dedendum of the
gear. A. 0.3183 B. 1.250 C. 0.3979 D. 0.1114
15. Compute for the tooth thickness of 14 ½ spur gear with diameter pitch = 5.
A. 0.3979 B. 3.1831 C. 0.03141 D. 0.31416
16. Compute the circular pitch (in inch) of a pair of gears having a ratio of 4 and a center distance of 10.23.
Each gear has 72 teeth and pinion has 18 teeth.
A. 0.8095 B. 0.7825 C. 0.8035 D. 0.8085
17. A 36 tooth pinion with a running speed of 300 rpm drives 120 tooth gear of 14 ½ degrees involute full depth
pressure angle. What would be the speed of the driven gear?
A. 1000 rpm B. 100 rpm C. 90 rpm D. 140 rpm
18. Find the tooth thickness on the tooth circle of a 20 degree full depth in volute tooth having a diametral pitch
of 3 circular pitch of 1.0472 and whole depth of tooth at 0.60.
A. 10.7 mm B. 13.2 mm C. 10.1 mm D. 7.9 mm
19. A pair of gear ratio of 3 and 60 gear teeth of 14 ½ degree full depth tooth. The diametral pitch is 10.
Compute the tooth thickness on the pitch circle.
A. 0.570 B. 0.352 inch C. 0.157 inch D. 0.142 inch

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
20. A pair of gear/pinion of 42 tooth and 18 tooth with a diametral pitch of 0.7874 teeth/cm and the addendum
is 0.8/p and dedendum 1/p. The gear pressure angle is 20o. Compute the center distance of the pair of
gears in meters. A. 0.5026 B. 0.3426 C. 0.3516 D. 0.4013
21. An internal gear requires an idler gear if the driving gear of 6 inches in diameter and the center distance of
the idler to the driver is 20 inches. What is the inside diameter of the driven gear?
A. 62 in B. 70 in C. 74 in D. 81 in
22. A cut gear transmits 25 HP at a pitch line velocity of 6000 ft/min. If the service is intermittent the dynamic
load is: A. 244 lb B. 264 lb C. 274 lb D. 284 lb
23. A precision gear transmits 25 HP at a pitch line velocity of 6000 ft/min. If the service is intermittent
A. 244 lb B. 264 lb C. 274 lb D. 284 lb
24. An engine of a motor vehicle with a wheel diameter of 712 mm develops 50 KW at 2,000 rpm. The
combined efficiency of the differential and transmission is 75% with an overall speed reduction of 25 is to 1.
Determine the torque to be delivered by the clutch in N-m.
A. 239 B. 359 C. 432 D. 471
25. An engine of a motor vehicle with a wheel diameter of 712 mm develops 50 KW at 2,000 rpm. The
combined efficiency of the differential and transmission is 75% with an overall speed reduction of 25 is to 1.
Determine the draw bar pull developed in KN.
A. 13.40 KN B. 15.45 KN C. 14.55 KN D. 12.57 KN
26. An engine of a motor vehicle with a wheel diameter of 712 mm develops 50 KW at 2,000 rpm. The
combined efficiency of the differential and transmission is 75% with an overall speed reduction of 25 is to 1.
Determine the speed reduction of travel of the vehicle in km/hr.
A. 10.74 B. 11.69 C. 12.58 D. 13.80
27. A four wheel vehicle must develop a draw-bar pull of 17,500 lbs. The engine which develops 500 hp and
drives 500 hp and drives through a gear transmission a 34 tooth spiral bevel pinion gear which meshes with
a spiral bevel gear having 51 teeth. This gear is keyed to the drive shaft of the 48 in diameter rear wheels
of the vehicle. What transmission gear ratio should be used if the engine develops maximum torque at 1500
rpm? Note: the efficiency of the bevel gear differential is 80%.
A. 17.493:1 B. 16.667:1 C. 18.562:2 D. 11.492:2
28. A speed reduction gear box consist of an SAE 4140 steel pinion mounted to a shaft on a 30 HP, 1750 rpm
electric motor. The pinion drives a cast steel (with 0.25% carbon) gear with a speed reduction of 5:1.
Assuming 20 degrees involute stub teeth and 16 teeth pinion, determine the pitch diameters.
A. 2.67, 13.35 in B. 3.23, 15.43 in C. 2.50, 16.61 in D. 2.45, 20.11 in
29. A pinion rotating at 1800 rpm and supported on each side by a ball bearing transmit 18 KW to a mating spur
gear. If the pressure angle is 20 degrees and pitch diameter is 102 mm, determine the tangential load.
A. 3,231 N B. 2,244 N C. 1,320 N D. 1,583 N
30. Two shaft are connected by spur gears. The pitch radii of the gears A and B are 207 mm and 842 mm
respectively. If shaft A makes 350 rpm and is subjected to twisting moment of 236 N-m, what is the tooth
pressure of the two gears. A. 1177 N B. 1255 N C. 890 N D. 878 N

WORM GEAR
1. A work rotating at 1150 rpm drives a worm gear. The velocity ratio is 15 to 1. A 10 hp motor is used to
supply the worm with worm pitch gear diameter of 3 in. Find the tangential force on the worm.
A. 365.37 lbs B. 465.37 lbs C. 565.37 lbs D. 665.37 lbs
2. A double thread worm gear has a pitch of 1 1/8 and a pitch diameter of 3 in. It has a coefficient of friction of
0.20 and normal angle (pressure angle) of 14.5 o. The worm is supplied by 12 hp at 1200 rpm motor. Find
the tangential force on the gear. The worm is left hand threads.
A. 597.08 lbs B. 697.08 lbs C. 797.08 lbs D. 897.08 lbs
3. A single worm gear has a pitch diameter of 2 in and a pitch of 1 in with coefficient of friction of 0.21. The
normal angle is 14.5 degrees with tangential force on gear of 1000 lbs. Find the separation force on gear
and worm considering a left hand threads.
A. 171.23 lbs B. 271.23 lbs C. 371.23 lbs D. 471.23 lbs
4. A double thread worm gear has a lead angle of 7.25 degrees and pitch radius of 2 ½ in. Find the pitch of the
worm.
A. ¼ in B. ½ in C. 1 in D. 1 ½ in
5. A triple thread worm gear has a helix angle of 78 degrees. It has a pitch of ¾ in. Find the pitch diameter of
the gear.

15
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
A. 2.37 in B. 2.77 in C. 3.07 in D. 3.37 in
6. A double thread worm has a lead of 1.5 in and pitch diameter of 3.5 in. If normal pressure angle is 14.5
degrees, find the pressure angle of the worm.
A. 11.68o B. 12.68o C. 13.68o D. 14.68o
7. A triple thread worm gear has pitch of ¾ in and pitch diameter of 2 ¼ in. Find the helix angle.
A. 72.34o B. 62.34o C. 52.34o D. 42.34o
8. A three-thread worm, rotating at 1,000 rpm, drives a 31-tooth gear. Find the speed of the gear.
A. 76.77 rpm B. 86.77 rpm C. 96.77 rpm D. 106.77 rpm
9. A double thread worm having a pitch of 1 in is use to drive a 40 teeth gear. Find the pitch diameter of the
gear.
A. 9.73 in B. 10.73 in C. 11.73 in D. 12.73 in
10. A triple thread worm gear is use to drive a 25 teeth gear having a pitch of ¾ in. Find the center distance.
A. 2.34 in B. 3.34 in C. 4.34 in D. 5.34 in
11. A double thread worm has a helix angle of 82 o and a pitch diameter of 1 ¾ in. The worm rotates at 800
rpm. Find the linear speed of the worm.
A. 129.82 fpm B. 139.82 fpm C. 149.82 fpm D. 159.82 fpm
12. A triple thread worm gear having a diametral pitch of 5 in is use to deliver a gear. The speed ratio is 10.
Find the pitch line velocity of gear id the worm rotates at 600 rpm.
A. 64.25 fpm B. 74.25 fpm C. 84.25 fpm D. 94.25 fpm
13. A double thread worm gear having a pitch of 1 in and has a linear speed of 200 fpm. The pitch diameter of
worm is 4 in. Find the tangential speed of the worm.
A. 1,256.64 fpm B. 1,356.64 fpm C. 1,456.64 fpm D. 1,556.64 fpm
14. A triple thread worm gear has a pitch of ¾ in and pitch diameter of 3.5 in. The normal pressure angle is
14.5 degrees and coefficient of friction is 0.10. Find the worm efficiency.
A. 50.05% B. 55.05% C. 60.05% D. 65.05%
15. A triple thread worm gear has normal pressure angle of 14.5 o and coefficient of friction is 0.15. If worm
efficiency is 70%, find the lead angle.
A. 25.74o B. 27.74o C. 29.74o D. 31.74o
16. A worm has four threads of 14.5 normal pressure angle and pitch diameter of 4 ¼ in. The gear has 52
o

teeth of 1 ¾ in pitch. Find the center distance of the shafts.

A. 12.61 in B. 14.61 in C. 16.61 in D. 18.61 in
17. A worm has four threads of 14.5o normal pressure angle and pitch diameter of 4 ¼ in. The gear has 52
teeth of 1 ¾ in pitch. Find the efficiency of the worm if friction is 0.03.
A. 82.88% B. 86.88% C. 89.88% D. 92.88%
18. A triple thread worm has a pitch diameter of 3 inches. The wheel has 25 teeth and a pitch diameter of 5
inches. Material for both the worm and the wheel is of phosphor bronze. Compute the helix angle.
A. 0.20 B. 0.30 C. 0.40 D. 14
19. A triple thread worm gear is use to drive a 25 teeth gear having a pitch of ¾ in. Find the center distance.
A. 2.34 in B. 3.34 in C. 4.34 in D. 5.34 in
20. A double threaded right handed worm gear transmits 15 HP at 1150 rpm. The pitch of the worm is 0.75
inches and pitch diameter of 3 inches. The pressure angle is 14 and ½ degrees and the coefficient of
friction is 0.12. Find the separating force in pounds.
A. 504 lbs B. 501 lbs C. 407 lbs D. 5091 lbs

HELICAL GEAR
1. A 20-tooth helical gear has a pitch diameter of 10 in. Find the diametral pitch of the gear.
A. 2 B. 3 C. 4 D. 5
2. A 28 –tooth helical gear having a pitch diameter of 7 has a helix angle of 22 degrees. Find the circular pitch
in a plane normal to the teeth.
A. 0.528 B. 0.628 C. 0.728 D. 0.828
3. A helical gear having a helix angle of 23o and pressure angle of 20o. Find the pressure angle normal to the
teeth. A. 0.235 B. 0.335 C. 0.435 D. 0.535
4. A 75 hp motor, running at 450 rpm is geared to a pump by means of helical gear having a pinion diameter of
8 in. Find the tangential force of the gear.
A. 2,326 lbs B. 2,426 lbs C. 2,526 lbs D. 2,626 lbs
5. A turbine at 30,000 rpm is used to drive a reduction gear delivering 3 hp at 3,000 rpm. The gears are 20

16
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
degrees involute herringbone gears of 28 pitch and 2 1/8 in effective width. The pinion has 20 teeth with a
helix angle of 23 deg. Determine the load normal to the tooth surface.
A. 20.4 lbs B. 24.4 lbs C. 28.4 lbs D. 32.4 lbs
6. A helical gear having 20 teeth and pitch diameter of 5 in. Find the normal diametral pitch if helix angle is 22
degrees. A. 3.31 in B. 4.31 in C. 5.31 in D. 6.31 in
7. A helical gear tangential load of 200 lbs and axial load of 73 lbs. Find the helix angle.
A. 14 degrees B. 16 degrees C. 18 degrees D. 20 degrees
8. A helical gear having 20 teeth and pitch diameter of 5 in. Find the normal diametral pitch if helix angle is 22
degrees. A. 3.31 in B. 4.31 in C. 5.31 in D. 6.31 in
9. Two helical gear transmit 50 HP at 3600 rpm. What should be the bore diameter of each gear be if the
allowable stress in gear shafts is 12,500 psi?
A. 1.252 in B. 1.3275 in C. 1.4568 in D. 1.5276 in

BEVEL GEAR
1. A 20o full depth straight tooth gear has a face width of 3 ¾ in and a pitch diameter of 12 in with cone pitch
angle of 37.5o. Find the mean diameter.
A. 6.72 in B. 7.72 in C. 8.72 in D. 9.72 in
2. A straight tooth bevel gear has a face width of 4” and a pitch diameter of 14 in with cone pitch angle of 40 o. If
the torque on the gear is 8000 in-lb, what is the tangential force on the gear?
A. 1400 lbs B. 1400 lbs C. 1400 lbs D. 1400 lbs
3. A pair of straight tooth bevel gear connect a pair of shafts 90 o. The velocity ratio is 3 to 1. What is the cone
pitch angle of smaller gear?
A. 71.57 deg B. 65.34 deg C. 18.43 deg D. 12.34 deg
4. A spiral bevel pinion with a left hand spiral rotates clockwise transmits power to a mating gear with speed
ratio of 2 to 1. Determine the pitch angle of the pinion.
A. 16.56 deg B. 20.56 deg C. 26.56 deg D. 32.56 deg
5. A spiral bevel pinion with a left hand spiral transmits 4 hp at 1200 rpm to a mating gear. The mean diameter
of the pinion is 3 in. Find the tangential force at the mean radius of the gear.
A. 110 lbs B. 120 lbs C. 130 lbs D. 140 lbs
6. A pair of 4-pitch, 14.5o, involute bevel gear have 2:1 reduction. The pitch diameter of the driver is 1 0 in and
face width of 2 in. Determine the face angle of pinion. (Shafts at right angle)
A. 20.85 deg B. 23.85 deg C. 25.85 deg D. 27.85 deg
7. The cone angle of pinion of a pair of bevel gear is 30o while for the gear 60o. If the pinion turns at 300 rpm,
find the speed of the gear.
A. 173.21 rpm B. 183.21 rpm C. 193.21 rpm D. 203.21 rpm
8. The cone angle of pinion and the gear are 25o and 65o respectively. Find the speed ratio.
A. 1.5 B. 5.2 C. 4.23 D. 2.14
9. A pair of bevel gear having a speed ratio of 3 has a 5-pitch at 14.5 deg involute. The pitch angle of the
pinion is 8 in. Find the addendum angle of the pinion. (At right angle between shafts)
A. 0.906o B. 1.45o C. 2.34o D. 3.20o
10. A pair of bevel gear having a speed ratio of 2 has 4-pitch at 14.5 o involute. The pitch diameter of pinion is 7
in. Find the dedendum angle of the gear.
A. 1.11 deg B. 2.11 deg C. 3.11 deg D. 4.11 deg
11. A class 3 pinion bevel gear is made of alloy steel hardened to 300 Brinell. The pinion runs at 850 rpm with
5 in pitch diameter. Find the gear stress at factor of safety 3.
A. 35,023 psi B. 45,023 psi C. 55,023 psi D. 65,023 psi
12. Compute the pitch angle of a bevel gear given the pinion’s number of teeth of 14 and 42 teeth on the gear.
A. 18.4” B. 28.4” C. 33.4” D. 38.4”
13. In a standard bevel gear, the pinion rotates at 150 rpm, its number of teeth is 14 while th gear has 42 teeth,
what is the pitch angle of the pinion?
A. 18.4 degrees B. 20 degrees C. 14.5 degrees D. 20.5 degrees
14. A four wheel vehicle must develop a draw-bar pull of 17,500 lbs. The engine which develops 500 hp and
drives 500 hp and drives through a gear transmission a 34 tooth spiral bevel pinion gear which meshes with
a spiral bevel gear having 51 teeth. This gear is keyed to the drive shaft of the 48 in diameter rear wheels
of the vehicle. What transmission gear ratio should be used if the engine develops maximum torque at 1500
rpm? Note: the efficiency of the bevel gear differential is 80%.

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
A. 17.493:1 B. 16.667:1 C. 18.562:2 D. 11.492:2

PROBLEM SET (Topic 6)

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

BELTS
1. Find the angle of contact on the small pulley for a belt drive with center distance of 72 inches if pulley
diameters are 6 in. and 12 in., respectively.
A. 180.60 deg. B. 243.40 deg. C. 203.61 deg. D. 175.22 deg.
2. Determine the belt length of an open belt to connect the 6 cm and 12 cm diameter pulley at a center distance
of 72 cm.
A. 172.39 cm B. 160.39 cm C. 184.39 cm D. 190.39 cm
3. A 12 cm pulley turning at 600 rpm is driving a 20 cm pulley by means of belt. If total belt slip is 5%,
determine the speed of driving gear.
A. 360 rpm B. 342 rpm C. 382 rpm D. 364 rpm
4. The torque transmitted in a belt connected 300 mm diameter pulley is 4 KN.m. Find the power driving the
pulley if belt speed is 20 m/sec.
A. 358.88 KW B. 565.88 KW. C. 533.33 KW D. 433.33 KW
5. A 3/8 inch flat belt is 12 inches wide and is used on 24 inches diameter pulley rotating at 600 rpm. The
specific weight of belt is 0.035 lb/in3. The angle of contact is 150 degrees. If coefficient of friction is 0.3 and
stress is 300 psi, how much power can it deliver?
A. 65.4 Hp B. 69.5 Hp C. 60.5 Hp D. 63.5 Hp
6. A belt connected pulleys has 10 cm diameter and 30 cm diameter. If center distance is 50 cm, determine the
angle of contact of smaller pulley.
A. 152 deg. B. 154 deg. C. 157 deg. D. 159 deg.
7. A compressor is driven by an 18 KW motor by means of V-belt. The service factor is 1.4 and the corrected
horsepower capacity of V-belt is 3.5. Determine the number of belts needed.
A. 4 B. 6 C. 8 D. 10
8. A pulley 600 mm in diameter transmits 50 KW at 600 rpm by means of belt. Determine the effective belt pull.
A. 2.65 KN B. 3.65 KN C. 4.65 KN D. 5.65 KN
9. A pulley have an effective belt pull of 3 KN and an angle of belt contact of 160 degrees. The working
stress of belt is 2 Mpa. Determine the thickness of belt to be used if width is 350 mm and coefficient of
friction is 0.32.
A. 6.42 mm B. 7.24 mm C. 8.68 mm D. 9.47 mm
10. A pulley has a belt pull of 2.5 KN. If 20 Hp motor is use to drive the pulley, determine the belt speed.
A. 19.58 ft/sec B. 5.97 ft/sec C. 7.42 m/sec D. 10.86 m/sec
11. A belt connects a 10 cm diameter and 30 cm diameter pulleys at a center distance of 50 cm. Determine the
angle of contact at the smaller pulley.
A. 137.8o B. 146.4o C. 165.2o D. 156.9o
12. An 8 in diameter pulley turning at 600 rpm is belt connected to a 14” diameter pulley. If there is a 4% slip,
find the speed of 14 in pulley.
A. 482 rpm B. 523 rpm C. 238 rpm D. 329 rpm
13. A 3/8” thick flat belt is 12” wide and is used on a 24” diameter pulley rotating at 600 rpm. The specific
weight of the belt is 0.035 lb/in3. The angle of contact is 150o. IF the coefficient of friction is 0.3 and the
safe stress is 300 psi, how much power can it deliver?
A. 69.5 hp B. 75.6 hp C. 48.3 hp D. 35.2 hp
14. The standard width of a B85 premium quality V-belt is ________.
A. 7/8” B. 13/32” C. ½” D. 21/32”
15. Determine the width of a 6 ply rubber belt required for a ventilating fan running at 150 rpm driven from a 12
inch pulley on a 70 hp at 800 rpm. The center distance between pulley is 2 ft and the rated belt tension is
78.0 lb/in width.
A. 2” B. 8” C. 10” D. 15”
16. A 25.4 cm pulley is belt-driven with a net torque of 339 N-m. The ratio of tension in the tight side of the belt
is 4:1. What is the maximum tension in the belt?
A. 3559 N B. 3549 N C. 3539 N D. 3569 N
17. A 500 rpm shaft is fitted with a 30 inches diameter pulley weighing 250 lb. This pulley delivers 35 hp to a

18
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
load. The shaft is also fitted with a 24 in pitch diameter gear weighing 200 lb. This gear delivers 25 hp to a
load. Assume that the tension of the tight side of the belt is twice that on the slack side of the belt,
determine the concentrated load produces on the shaft by the pulley and the gear in lb.
A. 2,123 lbs B. 1,321 lbs C. 1,132 lbs D. 1,431 lbs
18. An open belt drive connects a 450 mm driving pulley to another driven pulley 1000 mm in diameter. The
belt is 300 mm wide and 10 mm thick. The coefficient of friction of the belt drive is 0.3 and the mass of the
belt is 2.8 kg/m of the belt length. Other data are:
A. center distance between shaft = 4 meters
B. maximum allowable tensile stress on the belt = 1,500 Kpa
C. speed of driving pulley = 900 rpm
Determine the maximum power that can be transmitted in KW.
A. 59.49 KW B. 40.72 KW C. 38.78 KW D. 37.80 KW
19. An electric motor running at 1200 rpm drives a punch press shaft at 200 rpm by means of a 130 mm wide
and 8 mm thick belt. When the clutch is engaged the belt slips. To correct this condition, an idler pulley
was installed to increase the angle of contact but the same belt and pulley were used. The original contact
angle on the 200 mm motor pulley is 160 degrees. The original contact ratio is 2.4 and the net tension is 12
N/mm of the belt width. If an increase in transmission capacity of 20% will prevent slippage, determine the
new angle of contact.
A. 320 degrees B. 220 degrees C. 250 degrees D. 219 degrees
20. An ammonia compressor is driven by a 20 KW motor. The compressor and the motor RPM are 360 and
1750, respectively. The small sheave has a pitch diameter of 152.4 mm. If the belt to be used is standard
C-120, determine the center distance between sheaves.
A. 709 mm B. 865 mm C. 806 mm D. 686 mm
21. An air compressor is driven by a 7.5 HP electric motor with a speed of 1750 rpm with standard A-60 V-
belts. The pitch diameter of the small sheave is 110 mm and the larger sheave is 200 mm. Service factor
is 1.2. Determine the arc of contact.
A. 173.92 degrees B. 183.56 degrees C. 169.87 degrees D. 212.65 degrees
22. A pulley 610 mm in diameter transmits 40 KW at 500 RPM. The arc of contact between the belt pulley is
0.35 and the safe working stress of the belt is 2.1 Mpa. Find the tangential force at the rim of the pulley in
Newton. A. 2,406 N B. 4,321 N C. 2,405 N D. 3.321 N
23. A pulley 610 mm in diameter transmits 40 KW at 500 rpm. The arc of contact between the belt and pulley is
144 degrees, the coefficient of friction between belt and pulley is 0.35 and the safe working stress of the belt
is 2.1 and the safe working stress of the belt is 2.1 Mpa. What is the effective belt pull in Newton.
A. 2,505 N B. 3,931 N C. 4,528 N D. 2,823 N
24. A reciprocating ammonia compressor is driven by a squirrel cage induction motor rated 15 HP at 1750 rpm,
across the line starting motor pulley 203.2 mm diameter, compressor pulley 406.4 mm diameter. Find the
width of belt. A. 129 B. 132 C. 130 D. 127
25. A pulley 610 mm in diameter transmits 37 KW at 600 rpm. The arc of contact between the belt and pulley is
144 degrees, the coefficient of friction between the belt and pulley is 0.35, and the safe working stress of
the belt is 2.1 Mpa. Find: A. The tangential force at the rim of the pulley. Ans. 1.93 KN
B. The effective belt pull. Ans. 1.93 KN
C. The width of the belt used if its thickness is 6 mm. Ans. 261 mm
26. A nylon-core flat belt has an elastomer envelop; is 200 mm wide, and transmits 60 KW at a belt speed of
25 m/s. The belt has a mass of 2 kg/m of the belt length. The belt is used in a crossed configuration to
connect a 300 mm diameter driving pulley to a 900 mm diameter driven pulley at a shaft spacing of 6 m.
A. Calculate the belt length and the angles of wrap. Ans. 13.95 m, 3.34 rad or 191.4o
B. Compute the belt tensions based on a coefficient of friction of 0.33. Ans. 1.76 KN, 1.96 KN
27. The tension ratio for a belt in a pulley with a 200o angle and a frictional coefficient of 0.3 is:
A. 2.85 B. 1.85 C. 3.0 D. 3.85

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

BRAKE
1. A brake has a difference in band tension of 4 KN. The drum diameter is 1 meter and rotating at 300 rpm.
Determine the power needed to drive the drum.
A. 54.62 KW B. 56.85 KW C. 62. 83 KW D. 64.86 KW
2. In a brake, the tension on tight side is thrice the slack side. If coefficient of friction is 0.25, find the angle of
contact of the band.
A. 240.61 deg. B. 251.78 deg. C. 286.75 deg. D. 275.65 deg.
3. On a brake drum the difference in tension between the slack side and tight side is 5. If the ratio in band
tension is 3, determine the tension in tight side.
A. 5.0 KN B. 5.5 KN C. 6.5 KN D. 7.5 KN
4. A steel band have a maximum tensile stress of 55mpa and thickness of 4 mm. If the tension in tight side is 6
KN, what width of band should be used?
A. 25.64 mm B. 27.27 mm C. 28.28 mm D. 29.29 mm
5. A band brake has a straight brake arm of 1.5 m and is placed perpendicular to the diameter bisecting the
angle of contact of 270 degrees which is 200 mm from the end of slack side. If 200 N force is applied at the
other end downward of brake arm, determine the tension at slack side.
A. 2121.32 N B. 4646.32 N C. 3131.32 N D. 4141.32 N
6. A band brake has a 76 cm diameter drum sustains a load of 1 Mton to a hoisting drum 50 cm in diameter.
What is the band tension difference?
A. 657.89 kg.m B. 785.98 kg.m C. 686.86 kg.m D. 948.71 kg.m
7. The ratio of band tension in a band brake is 4. If angle of contact is 260 degrees, determine the coefficient of
friction.
A. 0.10 B. 0.25 C. 0.35 D. 0.30
8. A band brake has an angle of contact of 280 degrees and is to sustain a torque of 10,000 in-lbs. The band
bears against a cast iron drum of 14 in diameter. The coefficient of friction is 0.30. Find the tension at the
tight side.
A. 1,857.29 lbs B. 2,501.50 lbs C. 3,854.84 lbs D. 9,501.50 lbs
9. A band brake is installed on a drum rotating at 250 rpm and a diameter of 900 mm. The angle of contact is
1.5π rad and one end of the brake band is fastened to a fixed pin while the other end to the brake arm 150
mm from the fixed pin. The coefficient of friction is 0.25 and the straight brake arm is 1000 mm long and is
placed perpendicular to the diameter bisecting the angle of contact. Determine the minimum force in
Newtons applied at the end of the brake arm necessary to stop the drum if 60 KW is being absorbed.
A. 200 N B. 220 N C. 240 N D. 260 N
10. A band brake is use to fastened to an 800 mm brake drum with tight side is 3 times the slack side of force.
The torque transmitted is 2 KN.m and a steel band with a maximum tensile stress of 60 Mpa and 3 mm thick
will be used. What should be its width in mm?
A. 71.67 mm B. 61.67 mm C. 51.67 mm D. 41.67 mm
11. A simple band brake has a 76 cm drum with coefficient of friction of 0.25 and arc of contact of 245 o. The
drum sustains a load of 820 kg and rotates at 260 rpm. Find the power absorbed by the band.
A. 53.23 KW B. 63.23 KW C. 73.23 KW D. 83.23 KW
12. Determine the force with which the brake shoe of a diesel electric train must be pressed against the wheel
to absorb. 250,000 ft-lb of energy in 20 sec if the mean velocity of wheel relative to the brake shoe is 45 fps
and coefficient of friction is 0.20.
A. 1,389 lb B. 1,489 lb C. 1,589 lb D. 1,689 lb
13. A band brake is used to operate on a 600 mm diameter drum that is rotating at 200 rpm. The coefficient of
friction is 0.25. The brake band has an angle of contact of 270 o and one end is fastened to a fixed pin while
the other end is fastened on the brake arm 120 mm from the fixed pin. The straight brake arm is 760 mm
long and is placed perpendicular to the diameter bisecting the angle of contact. Determine the minimum pull
necessary at the end of the brake arm to stop the drum 34 KW is absorbed.
A. 269 N B. 1200 N C. 456 N D. 200 N
14. A simple band brake has a 76 cm drum and fitted with a steel band 2/5 cm thick lined with a bake lining
having a coefficient of friction of 0.25. The arc of contact is 245 degrees. The drum is attached to a 60 cm
hoisting drum, that sustain a rope load of 820 kg. The operating force has a moment arm of 1.50 m and the
band is attached 12 cm from the pivot point. Find the torque just required to support the load(clockwise).
A. 2,413.26 N-m B. 3,492.31 N-m C. 2,453.29 N-m D. 1,894.82 N-m
15. What band thickness in mm is necessary for a 500 mm diameter drum if the maximum lining pressure is

20
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
0.05 Mpa, and the allowable band’s stress is 4 Mpa?
A. 5.234 B. 2.530 C. 3.125 D. 4.621

CLUTCH
1. A cone clutch has an angle of 12o and coefficient of friction of 0.42. Find the axial force required if the
capacity of the clutch is 8 KW at 500 rpm. The mean diameter of the active conical sections is 300 mm. Use
uniform wear method. A. 504.27 N B. 604.27 N C. 704.27 N D. 804.27 N
2. How much torque can a cone clutch transmit if the angle of the conical elements is 10 degrees. The mean
diameter of conical sections is 200 mm and an axial force of 600 N is applied. Consider a coefficient of
friction of 0.45. A. 135.49 N.m B. 155.49 N.m C. 175.49 N.m D. 195.49 N.m
3. A clutch has an outside diameter of 8 in and inside diameter of 4 in. An axial force of 500 lb is used to hold
the two parts together. If friction is 0.4, how much torque can the clutch handle?
A. 322.22 in-lb B. 422.22 in-lb C. 522.22 in-lb D. 622.22 in-lb
4. A disc clutch has 6 pairs of contacting friction surfaces. The frictional radius is 2 in and the coefficient of
friction is 0.30. An axial force of 100 lb acts on the clutch. The shaft speed is 400 rpm. What is the power
transmitted by the clutch?
A. 1.28 HP B. 2.28 HP C. 3.28 HP D. 4.28 HP
5. A cone clutch has cone elements at an angle of 12o. The clutch transmit 25 HP at a speed of 1200 rpm. The
mean diameter of the conical friction section is 16 in and the coefficient of friction is 0.35. Find the axial force
needed to engage the clutch.
A. 238.04 lbs B. 248.04 lbs C. 258.04 lbs D. 268.04 lbs
6. A band clutch has an angle of contact of 270 o on a 15 in diameter drum. The rotational speed of the drum is
250 rpm and the clutch transmits 8 HP. The band is 1/16 in thick and has a design stress of 5000 psi. How
wide should the band be? Use coefficient of friction to be 0.40.
A. 1.0145 in B. 1.3145 in C. 1.5145 in D. 1.7145 in
7. The angle of contact of a band clutch is 250 degrees. The cross-section of the band is 1/16 in x 1.5 in. The
design stress for the band material is 8000 psi. If the drum is 16 inch in diameter and rotates at 350 rpm,
what is the power capacity of the clutch if f = 0.40.
A. 20.50 hp B. 24.50 hp C. 27.50 hp D. 30.50 hp
8. A simple disc clutch has an outside diameter of 200 mm and inside diameter of 100 mm. The friction is 0.40
and applied load is 1,500 N. Find the torque transmitted using uniform wear.
A. 16.67 N.m B. 26.67 N.m C. 36.67 N.m D. 46.67 N.m
8. Find the power capacity of a cone clutch with mean diameter of 250 mm if the conical elements inclined at 8
degrees and axial force of 450 N. The rotational force of driver is 200 rpm and the friction is 0.20.
A. 0.693 KW B. 1.693 KW C. 2.693 KW D. 3.693 KW
9. Determine the power capacity of a cone clutch under uniform pressure having 250 mm major diameter, 200
mm minor diameter, length of contact 125 mm, 870 rpm and f = 0.30 if allowable pressure is 70 Kpa.
A. 19 KW B. 21 KW C. 23 KW D. 25 KW
10. Find the cone angle of a clutch having a major diameter of 300 mm and minor diameter of 250 mm and
length of contact of 250 mm.
A. 3.74o B. 5.74o C. 7.74o D. 9.74o
11. Find the power capacity of uniform wear of a cone clutch having major diameter of 250 mm, minor diameter
of 200 mm, length of contact 125 mm, f = 0.30, speed of 870 rpm and has an operating force of 500 N.
A. 1.69 KW B. 3.69 KW C. 5.69 KW D. 7.69 KW
12. Using a uniform wear, find the power capacity of a single disc clutch with an outside diameter of 200 mm
and inside diameter of 100 mm, rotating at 1160 rpm (f = 0.35). The axial operating force is 800 N.
A. 0.55 KW B. 1.55 KW C. 2.55 KW D. 3.55 KW
13. A jaw clutch for a 4 3/16 in shaft has three jaws with radial forces. The inside diameter of jaws is 4 3/8”
outside diameter is 11 ½ in and axial height of jaws is 2 in. The working stress in the shaft is 6,000 psi.
What is the bearing stress in jaw faces?
A. 1,220 psi B. 1,120 psi C. 1,020 psi D. 1,320 psi
14. An engine developing 40 HP at 1250 rpm is fitted with a cone clutch built into the flywheel. The cone has a
face angle of 12.5 degrees and maximum diameter of 14 in. The coefficient of friction is 0.20. The normal
pressure on the clutch face is not to exceed 12 psi. Determine the face width required.
A. 1 in B. 2 in C. 3 in D. 4 in
15. A block clutch has four wooden shoes each contacting with 75 degrees of the inside of a 12 in drum. The
coefficient of friction is 0.30 and the maximum contact pressure is not exceed 35 psi. This clutch is to
transmit 15 hp at 250 rpm. Determine the required with of shoes.

21
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
A. 1 in B. 2 in C. 3 in D. 4 in
16. The larger diameter and face of the disk of multiple disk clutch are 255 mm and 25 mm respectively. The
load applied to the spring of the clutch axially is 1,688 N. Assuming that there are 10 pairs of friction 0.15
and turning 1000 rpm. Find the power transmitted by the clutch using uniform pressure method.
A. 24.61 KW B. 26.61 KW C. 28.61 KW D. 30.61 KW
17. An engine of a motor vehicle with a wheel diameter of 712 mm develops 50 kw at 2000 rpm. Determine the
axial force on the clutch in KN. Outside and inside diameter of the clutch are 300 mm and 240 mm,
respectively. There are 4 pairs of mating surfaces with f = 0.30.
A. 1.474 KN B. 2.474 KN C. 3.474 KN D. 4.474 KN
18. A multiple disc clutch of 10 steel disc and 9 bronze disc. The effective outside and inside diameters are
20.32 cm and 15.24 cm, respectively. If the axial force of 540 Newton is applied and the shaft turns at 1200
rpm, find the horsepower capacity. Assume a coefficient of friction of 0.27.
A. 39.566 hp B. 40.482 hp C. 37.458 hp D. 35.659 hp
19. A disc clutch has 6 pairs of containing friction surfaces. The frictional radius is 2-in and the coefficient of
friction is 0.3. An axial force of 100 lb acts on the clutch. The shaft speed is 400 rpm. How much
horsepower can the clutch transmitted?
A. 2.28 hp B. 3.12 hp C. 5.2 hp D. 4.51 hp
20. A cone clutch has an angle of 10 degrees and a coefficient of friction of 0.42. Find the axial force required if
the capacity of the clutch is 7.46 KW at 500 rpm. The mean diameter of the active conical section is 300
mm.
A. 0.40332 KN B. 0.3928 KN C. 0.2453 KN D. 0.2384 KN
21. A multiple disc clutch consists of 10 steel discs and 9 bronze discs. The effective outside and inside
diameters are 203 mm and 152 mm respectively. If an axial force of 445 N is applied and the shaft turns at
1000 rpm, determine the power transmitted. Assume a coefficient of friction of 0.25 and base the design on
uniform pressure.
A. 18.77 KW B. 21.3 KW C. 16.5 KW D. 14.3 KW
22. The effective radius of the pads in a single-collar thrust block is 230 mm and the total load on the thrust
block is 240 KN when the shaft is running at 93 rpm. Taking the coefficient of friction between thrust collar
and pads as 0.025, determine the power loss due to friction.
A. 14.34 KW B. 18.24 KW C. 25.62 KW D. 13.44 KW
23. A cone clutch is to transmit 30 KW at 1250 rpm. The face angle of the cone clutch is 12.5 o and the mean
diameter is to be 355 mm. The coefficient of friction between the contacting surfaces is 0.20 and the
maximum normal pressure is 83 Kpa. Determine the axial force in KN required to transmit the power
A. 1.4 B. 1.5 C. 1.6 D. 1.3
24. A Pajero jeep wagon’s engine develops 40 KW at 1200 rpm, with a single plate clutch having two pairs of
friction surfaces transmitting the power. Consider the coefficient of friction to be 0.30 and the mean
diameter of discs to be 200 mm. Determine the axial force required to engage the clutch and to transmit the
power.
A. 5.31 KN B. 6.34 KN C. 4.32 KN D. 5.68 KN

22
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

BEARING:
1. The main bearing of a one cylinder steam are 152 mm diameter by 280 mm long and support a load of 4400
kg. Find the bearing stress. A. 507.10 kpa B. 517.10 kpa C. 527.10 kpa D. 537.10 kpa
2. A bearing 150 mm diameter and 300 mm long supports a load of 5000 kg. If coefficient of friction is 0.18,
find the torque required to rotate the shaft. A. 331 N-m B. 662 N-m C. 873 N-m D. 1020 N-m
3. A bearing journal rotates at 460 rpm is use to support a load of 50 KN. It has a diameter of 20 cm and length
of 40 cm. Find the friction loss in kw per bearing. Use f = 0.12.
A. 20.45 KW B. 18.45 KW C. 16.45 KW D. 14.45 KW
4. A bearing has a per unit load of 550 Kpa. The load on bearing is 20 KN and it has a diametral ratio of
0.0012. If diametral clearance is 0.120 mm, find the length of journal.
A. 163.63 mm B. 263.63 mm C. 363.63 mm D. 463.63 mm
5. A bearing whose shaft rotates at 500 rpm, has a friction loss of 15 KW. The bearing load is 30 KN and
friction of 0.14. Find the bearing diameter.
A. 136.42 mm B. 146.42 mm C. 156.42 mm D. 166.42 mm
6. A shaft revolving at 1740 rpm is supported by bearing with a length of 105 mm and diameter of 64 mm. If the
load is light and SAE Oil No. 20 (u = 2.4 x 10-6 reyns) is used and diametral clearance is 0.136 mm, find the
power loss due to friction. A. 164 watts B. 174 watts C. 184 watts D. 194 watts
7. A shaft is supported by 3 in diameter and 4 in long bearing that uses oil with viscosity of 2.5 x 10 -6 reyns.
The bearing has a diametral clearance of 0.008 in. At what speed should the shaft rotates so that the friction
power is limited only to 1 hp. A. 1,765 rpm B. 2,765 rpm C. 3,383 rpm D. 4,765 rpm
8. A 76 mm bearing using oil with an absolute viscosity of 0.70 poise running at 500 rpm gives satisfactory
operation with a bearing pressure of 14 kg/cm2. The bearing clearance is 0.127 mm. Determine the unit
pressure at which the bearing should operate if the speed is changed to 600 rpm.
A. 16.8 kg/cm2 B. 18.8 kg/cm2 C. 20.8 kg/cm2 D. 22.8 kg/cm2
9. A 76 mm bearing using oil with an absolute viscosity of 0.70 poise running at 1500 rpm gives satisfactory
operation with a bearing pressure of 14 kg/cm2. The bearing clearance is 0.127 mm. If the bearing is given a
total clearance of 0.076 mm and speed to 600 rpm, what change should be made in oil?
A. 0.051 poise B. 0.151 poise C. 0.251 poise D. 0.351 poise
10. A journal bearing 50 mm in diameter and 25 mm long supports a radial load of 1500 kg. If the coefficient of
bearing friction is 0.01 and the journal rotates at 900 rpm, find the horsepower loss in the bearing.
A. 0.465 HP B. 0.665 HP C. 0.865 HP D. 0.965 HP
11. A bearing 2.085 inches in diameter and 1.762 in long supports a journal running at 1200 rpm. It operates
satisfactorily with a diametral clearance of 0.0028 in and a total radial load of 1,400 lbs. At 160 oF operating
temperature of the oil film, the bearing modulus ZN/P was found to be 16.48. Determine the bearing stress
A. 281 psi B. 381 psi C. 481 psi D. 581 psi
12. A bearing 2.085 inches in diameter and 1.762 in long supports a journal running at 1200 rpm. It operates
satisfactorily with a diametral clearance of 0.0028 in and a total radial load of 1,400 lbs. At 160 oF operating
temperature of the oil film, the bearing modulus ZN/P was found to be 16.48. Determine the viscosity,
centipoises A. 4.23 B. 5.23 C. 6.23 D. 7.23
13. The main bearings of an engine are 152 mm diameter and 280 mm long and supports a load of 4400 kg
midway between the bearings. Find the bearing pressure in Kpa.
A. 101 B. 705 C. 507 D. 1014
14. A sleeve bearing has an outside diameter of 38.1 mm and length of 50 mm, the wall thickness is 3/16 inch.
The bearing is subjected to a radial load of 450 lb. Determine the bearing pressure.
A. 100 psi B. 150 psi C. 200 psi D. 250 psi
15. A 2.5” diameter by 2 in long journal bearing is to carry a 5500-lb load at 3600 rpm using SAE 40 lube oil at
200oF through a single hole at 25 psi. Compute the bearing pressure.
A. 1100 psi B. 900 psi C. 1000 psi D. 950 psi
16. A journal bearing with diameter of 76.2 mm is subjected to a load of 4900 N while running at 200 rpm. If its
coefficient of friction is 0.02 and L/D = 2.5, find its projected area in mm 2.
A. 12,090 B. 14,165 C. 13,050 D. 14,516

23
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

ROLLER CHAINS
1. A chain and sprocket has 18 teeth with chain pitch of 1/2 in. Find the pitch diameter of sprocket.
A. 0.879 in B. 1.879 in C. 2.879 in D. 3.879 in
2. A chain and sprocket has 24 teeth with chain pitch of ½ in. If the sprocket turns at 600 rpm, find the speed of
chain. A. 601.72 fpm B. 621.72 fpm C. 641.72 fpm D. 661.72 fpm
3. A chain and sprocket has a pitch diameter of 9.56 in and a pitch of ¾ in. How many teeth are there in
sprocket? A. 25 B. 30 C. 35 D. 40
4. A chain and sprocket has a pitch diameter of 28.654 in and there are 90 teeth available. Find the pitch of the
chain. A. ½ in B. ¾ in C. 1 in D. 1 ¼ in
5. A fan require at least 4.5 hp to deliver 18,000 CFM of air running at 320 rpm. For a service factor of 1.15,
find the designed horsepower of the sprocket. A. 4.5 hp B. 4.84 hp C. 6.34 hp D. 5.175 hp
6. A 20-tooth driving sprocket that rotates at 600 rpm and pitch chain of ½ in drives a driven sprocket with a
speed of 200 rpm. Find the diameter of the driven sprocket.
A. 7.55 in B. 8.55 in C. 9.55 in D. 10.55 in
7. A chain with speed 800 fpm has driving sprocket turns at 900 rpm. If the pitch of chain is ¾ in, find the
number of teeth of driving sprocket. A. 12 teeth B. 14 teeth C. 16 teeth D. 18 teeth
8. Find the standard distance between sprocket having 4 in and 16 in diameters.
A. 18 in B. 20 in C. 22 in D. 24 in
9. An 18 teeth sprocket driving with 98 teeth sprocket at a center distance of 34 pitches. Find the chain length
in pitches. A. 131 B. 136 C. 140 D. 142
10. A sprocket with 8 in diameter and pitch of ¾ in drives another sprocket at standard center distance of 48
pitches. Find the diameter of larger sprocket. A. 30 in B. 32 in C. 34 in D. 36 in
11. A driving sprocket with 12 teeth drives another sprocket with 48 teeth by means of a chain having a pitch of
½ in. If chain length is 72 in, find the center distance between sprockets.
A. 28.36 in B. 26.36 in C. 24.36 in D. 22.36 in
12. A certain farm equipment which requires 2200 N-m torque at 500 rpm has diesel engine to operate at 1500
rpm as its prime mover. A No. 60 roller chain with total length of 60 pitches and a small sprocket of 23 teeth
are to be used with operating temperature to remain constant at 45 oC. Determine the number of teeth of
larger sprocket. A. 49 teeth B. 59 teeth C. 69 teeth D. 79 teeth
13. A pump that operates a head of 30 m is use to deliver 80 liters per second of water at an efficiency of 85%.
The pump is driven by a diesel engine by means of chain and sprocket with a service factor of 1.3. If
horsepower per strand is 25, find the approximate number of strands needed.
A. 1 strand B. 2 strands C. 3 strands D. 4 strands
14. A 3-strand chain and sprocket turns at 600 rpm has a service factor of 1.4. If 14 hp/strand chain is to be
used, find the torque can the chain and sprocket be deliver?
A. 262.61 ft-lb B. 362.61 ft-lb C. 462.61 ft-lb D. 562.61 ft-lb
15. A certain farm equipment which requires 2200 Newton meter torque at 500 rpm has a diesel engine to
operate at 1500 rpm as its prime mover. A No. 60 roller chain with a total length of 60 pitches and a small
sprocket with 23 teeth are to be used with an operating temperature to remain constant at 45 degrees C.
Determine the no. of teeth of the larger sprocket.
A. 70 B. 69 C. 68 D. 69
16. A 4 inches’ diameter shaft is driven at 3600 rpm by a 400 HP motor. The shaft drives a 48 inches diameter
chain sprocket and having an output efficiency of 85%. The output force of the driving sprocket and the
output of the driven sprocket are:
A. 200 lb and 250 HP B. 261.8 lb and 300 HP C. 291.66 lb and 340 HP D. none of the above
17. In chain of ordinary proportions the term RC 40 means a pitch of _____.
A. 4.0 mm B. ½ inch C. 4.0 cm D. 3/8 inch
18. The chain speed of an RC 80 chain on a 21-tooth sprocket turning at 600 rpm is ______.
A. 5.355 m/s B. 1500 fpm C. 1005 fpm D. 310 m/min
19. What maximum chain number can be used if the small sprocket is to run at 1200 rpm?
A. RC60 B. RC80 C. RC40 D. RC70
20. A motor transmits 40 hp to an air conditioning apparatus by means of a roller chain. The motor runs at 720
rpm. The pitch diameter of the sprocket on the motor should not exceed 6 ¾ in. If the drive calls for a
service factor of 1.2 and a chain pitch of 1 in, determine the number of teeth of the small sprocket.
A. 21 teeth B. 25 teeth C. 19 teeth D. 18 teeth
21. A 10-hp engine with a speed of 1200 rpm is used to drive a blower with a velocity ratio of 3:1. The pitch

24
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
diameter of the driven sprocket is 85 mm and the center distance between the sprockets is 260 mm. Use an
RC 40 drive and a service factor of 1.2. Find the number of strands needed.
A. 2 strands B. 4 strands C. 3 strands D. 1 strand
22. A silent chain SC 4 is used for a design hp of 12. What chain width is needed if the 21-tooth driving
sprocket runs at 1200 rpm? A. 1.25 in B. 1.75 in C. 1.5 in D. 2 in
23. With a sprocket bore of 2”, the minimum number of sprocket teeth for RC40 is _______.
A. 20 B. 19 C. 21 D. 23
24. A 10-hp engine with a speed of 1200 rpm is used to drive a blower with a velocity ratio of 3:1. The pitch
diameter of the driven sprocket is 85 mm and the center distance between the sprockets is 260 mm. Use an
RC 40 drive and a service factor of 1.2. Find the number of teeth of the driving sprocket:
A. 17 B. 18 C. 21 D. 24

Wire Ropes

PROBLEM SET # 8

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

WIRE ROPES

1. A 6 x 19 IPS wire rope with rope diameter of 44.5 mm is to be used for hoisting. Find the weight of the rope
if the depth of mine hoist is 100 m.
A. 1411.31 lbs B. 1511.31 lbs C. 1611.31 lbs D. 1711.31 lbs
2. A 6 x 19 IPS wire rope has a wire rope diameter of 50.8 mm and sheave diameter of 40 in. Find the bending
stress of the rope.
A. 96,500 psi B. 97,500 psi C. 98,500 psi D. 99,500 psi
3. A 6 x 19 IPS wire rope has a wire rope diameter of 2 in and sheave diameter of 50 in. Find the equivalent
bending load of the rope.
A. 124,800 lbs B. 134,800 lbs C. 144,800 lbs D. 154,800 lbs
4. A mine hoist is to carry a cage loaded with ore at a total load of 8 tons. The depth of mine shaft is 328 ft. A
6 x 19 IPS wire rope with rope diameter of 1.75 in is to be use with sheave diameter of 39 in. The cage
loaded is to start from rest and will attain a maximum velocity of 525 fpm in 10 seconds. Find the total load
of the rope.
A. 12,086 lbs B. 14,086 lbs C. 16,086 lbs D. 18,086 lbs
5. A wire rope is used with total load of 9000 kg and bending load of 50,000 kg. If bearing strength of the rope
is 110,000 kg, find the factor of safety of the rope.
A. 4.67 B. 6.67 C. 8.67 D. 10.67
6. What is the factor of safety when a 0.50 in, 6 x 19 medium plow steel wire rope carrying a 8820 lb load is
bent around a 24 in sheave if breaking strength of rope is 8.13 tons.
A. 4.369 B. 8.369 C. 1.369 D. 6.369
7. In a high rise building, the elevator rises at a height of 1200 ft with an acceleration of 3.84 ft/s 2 and loaded
with 2000 kg. Determine the number of 15.6 mm diameter ropes needed if total load in each rope is
2178.77 lbs. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
8. Determine the probable bending stress and equivalent bending load in a 1 ½ in 6 x 19 steel rope made from
a 0.095 in wire when it is used on a 92 in sheave.
A. 10,400 psi B. 12,400 psi C. 14,400 psi D. 16,400 psi
9. Determine the probable bending load and equivalent bending load in a 2 in 6 x 9 steel rope made from a
0.098 in wire, when it is used on a 90 in sheave.
A. 15,861.34 lbs B. 17,861.34 lbs C. 19,861.34 lbs D. 21,861.34 lbs

25
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

BEARING
1. Determine the force necessary to move a weight of 5000 lbs supported on four steel wheels of 2 ft diameter,
assuming the coefficient of rolling friction to be 0.008.
A. 10 lbs B. 20 lbs C. 30 lbs D. 40 lbs
2. Determine the desired life of life of ball bearing to support a radial load of 4,200 if with moderate shock and a
thrust load of 2,100 lb for 18 hrs per day for 10 years.
A. 55,700 hrs B. 65,700 hrs C. 75,700 hrs D. 85,700 hrs
3. The weight on each wheel of a motor-driven traveling crane moving at 500 fpm is 6000 lbs. If coefficient of
rolling friction is 0.02, find the horsepower required to overcome rolling friction.
A. 7.27 HP B. 9.27 HP C. 5.27 HP D. 3.27 HP

Beam, Mechanics, Machine Shop and Pressure Vessel

1. A horizontal cantilever beam, 20 ft long is subjected to a load of 5000 lb located to its center. The
dimension of the beam is 8 x 12 inches respectively. w = 120 lb/ft, find its flexural stress.
A. 3150 psi B. 2912 psi C. 4625 psi D. 5663 psi
2. A 10 m simply supported beam has a uniform load of 3 KN/m extended from left end to 4 m and has a
concentrated load of 10 KN, 2 m from the right end. Find the maximum moment at the 10 KN concentrated
load. (EI = 9,000 KN.m2) A. 20.80 KN.m B. 26.34 KN.m C. 23.45 KN.m D. 12.34 KN.m
3. A 12 m simply supported beam with uniform load of 2.5 KN/m from right end to left end has a maximum
deflection of: (EI = 11,000 KN.m2) A. 43.23 mm B. 32.55 mm C. 54.23 mm D. 61.36 mm
4. An 9 m simply supported beam has a uniform load of 3 KN/m from left end to right end and concentrated
load of 15 KN at the center has a maximum deflection of: (EI = 7,000 KN.m2)
A. 12.34 mm B. 42.66 mm C. 56.62 mm D. 34.34 mm
5. A 14 m cantilever beam has a concentrated load of 25 KN at the mid-span. Find the maximum slope of the
beam. (EI = 10,000 KN.m2) A. 95.24 mm B. 68.86 mm C. 123 mm D. 23.94 mm
6. A 10 m cantilever beam has a uniform load of 4 KN/m from left to right end. Find the maximum slope of
the beam. (EI = 12,000 KN.m2) A. 0.0164 rad B. 0.0556 rad C. 0.0264 rad D. 0.4564 rad
7. A 11 m cantilever beam has a uniform load of 2.3 KN/m from left to right end and with concentrated load of
11 KN at the center. Find the maximum slope of the beam. (EI = 12,000 KN.m2)
A. 0.011 rad B. 0.022 rad C. 0.033 rad D. 0.056 rad
8. A vertical load of 1000 N acts at the end of a horizontal rectangular cantilever beam 3 m long and 30 mm
wide. If the allowable bending stress is 100 Mpa, find the depth of the beam.
A. 23.45 mm B. 38.43 mm C. 54.77 mm D. 45.34 mm
9. A simply supported beam is 50 mm by 150 mm in cross section and 5 m long. If the flexural stress is not to
exceed 8.3 Mpa, find the maximum mid-span concentrated load.
A. 0.623 KN B. 0.987 KN C. 0.0345 KN D. 4.34 KN
10. An occupant moves toward the center of a merry go around at 10 m/s. If the merry go around rotates at 8
rpm. Compute the acceleration component of the occupant normal to the radius.
A. 6.79 B. 8.38 C. 7.54 D. 6.11
11. A car travels with an initial velocity of 36 km/hr. If it is decelerating at the rate of 2 m/s2, how far, in meters
does it travel before stopping? A. 17 B. 21 C. 25 D. 15
12. A block weighing 60 lbs rest on horizontal surface. The force needed to move along the surface is 15 lbs.
Determine the coefficient of friction. A. 0.0 B. 0.112 C. 0.36 D. 0.25
13. A baseball is thrown straight upward with a velocity of 25 m/s. Compute for the time elapse for the baseball
to return. Assume for a zero drag. A. 5.10 sec B. 2.21 sec C. 2.50 sec D. 2.04 sec
14. A wheel accelerates from rest with a = 4 rad/sec.sec. Compute how many revolutions are made in 6
seconds. A. 5.71 rev B. 6.36 rev C. 11.46 rev D. 20.00 rev
15. What minimum distance can a truck slide on a horizontal asphalt road if it is traveling at 20 m/s. The
coefficient of sliding friction between asphalt and rubber is at 0.5. The weight of the truck is 8500 kg.
A. 44.9 m B. 58.5 m C. 53.2 m D. 40.77 m
16. A liquid full is to be rotated in the vertical plane. What minimum angular velocity in rpm is needed to
keep the liquid not spilling if the rotating arm is 1.5 meters?
A. 2.26 B. 24.42 C. 37.16 D. 2.86
17. Compute the speed a satellite to orbit the earth at an elevation of 150 km. Earth’s radius is at 6500 km.
Assume no change of gravity with the elevation.
A. 6320 m/s B. 7120 m/s C. 8077 m/s D. 7920 m/s

26
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
18. Compute the cutting speed in fpm of a workpiece with 5 inches diameter and running at 120 rpm.
A. 314.16 B. 301.23 C. 157.08 D. 483.45
19. Determine the time in seconds, to saw a rectangular bar 7 in wide and 1.5 in thick if the length of cut is 7 in.
the power hacksaw does 120 strokes/min and the feed/stroke is 0.154 mm.
A. 482.45 B. 304.50 C. 577.27 D. 653.45
20. Compute the drill penetration in in/min when a drill turns at 1000 rpm and the feed of 0.004 in per
revolution. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
21. In an Oxygen-acetylene manual welding method, to weld a 5 ft long seam in a 0.375 in thick steel plate at a
consumption rate of 10 ft3/ft for oxygen and 8 ft3/ft for acetylene. Compute the total combined gas
consumption in ft3. A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100
22. Compute the manual cutting time in minutes of a steel plate 4 ft x 8 ft by ¾ in thick with a hand cutting
speed of 3 to 4 mm/sec, cutting crosswise.
A. 4.94 B. 5.81 C. 6.49 D. 7.12
23. How long will it take to mill a ½ by 3” long keyway in a 4 in diameter shafting with a 24 tooth cutter turning at
90 rpm and 0.006 in feed per tooth.
A. 10.34 sec B. 13.89 sec C. 15.40 sec D. 17.34 sec
24. A 6 ft by 12 ft steel plate is to be divided into three parts equally by cutting crosswise. If the cutting rate is
0.5 in per in, how long will it take to do the job?
A. 288 min B. 234 min C. 197 min D. 349 min
25. Determine the internal pressure of cylindrical tank 500 mm internal diameter, 20 mm thick and 3 m length if
stresses limited to 140 Mpa.
A. 10.06 MPa B. 10.53 C. 11.20 Mpa D. 12.88 Mpa
26. Determine the bursting steam pressure of a steel shell with diameter of 20 inches and made of 5/16 steel
plate . The joint efficiency is at 80% and a tensile strength is 63,000 psi.
A. 2,445.6 psi B. 3,150.0 psi C. 5,233.4 psi D. 4,736.4 psi
27. A water tank 10 m x 12 m is completely filled with water. Determine the minimum thickness of the plate if
stress is limited to 50 Mpa. A. 11.77 mm B. 12.66 mm C. 14.55 mm D. 12.44 mm
28. Determine the safe wall thickness of a 50 inches steel tank with internal pressure of 8 Mpa. The ultimate
stress is 296 Mpa. The factor of safety to use is 3.
A. 2 in B. 3 in C. 5 in D. 4 in
29. The internal pressure of a 400 mm inside diameter cylindrical tank is 10 Mpa and thickness is 25 mm.
Determine the stress developed if joint efficiency is 95%.
A. 80 MPa B. 84.21 Mpa C. 86.75 MPa D. 78.42 Mpa
30. A cylinder has maximum load of 2500 kg while the pressure is 2,550 kpa. If the ultimate stress is 55,000
Kpa and factor of safety of 4, find the required wall thickness of the cylinder.
A. 8.45 mm B. 11.42 mm C. 9.34 mm D. 10.26 mm
31. A spherical tank 15 mm thick has an internal pressure of 5 Mpa. The joint efficiency is 96% and stress is
limited to 46875 Kpa. Find the inner diameter of the tank.
A. 150 mm B. 200 mm C. 250 mm D. 540 mm
32. A spherical tank has a diameter of 10 m and 80 cm thickness. If tangential stress of tank is 16 Mpa, find the
maximum internal pressure of the tank can carry if the wall thickness is 25.4 cm.
A. 1625.60 kpa B. 1863.45 kpa C. 2357.43 kpa D. 3422.45 kpa
33. A cylindrical tank has an inside diameter of 5 in and is subjected to internal pressure of 500 psi. If
maximum stress is 1200 psi, determine the required thickness.
A. 1.0 in. B. 1.2 inC. 1.4 in. D. 1.6 in.
34. A thickness of cylindrical tank is 50 mm. The internal diameter is 300 mm and has an internal pressure of
8423.58 Kpa. Determine the maximum internal pressure.
A. 20 MPa B. 25 Mpa C. 30 Mpa D. 2358.41 kpa
35. A round vertical steel tank has an inside diameter of 3 m and is 6 m in height. It contains gasoline with a
density of 750 kg/m3. If the allowable tensile stress is 25 Mpa, find the minimum thick required.
A. 2.65 mm B. 2.85 mm C. 3.65 mm D. 1.82 mm
36. A cylinder having an internal diameter of 18 inches and an external diameter of 30 inches is subjected to an
internal pressure of 8,000 psi. If the hoop stress at the inner is 13,000 psi, find the external pressure.
A. 1280 psi B. 1384 psi C. 1450 psi D. 1653 psi
37. A cylinder having an internal diameter of 16 in and wall thickness of 6 inches is subjected to an internal
pressure of 65 Mpa and external pressure of 13 Mpa. Determine the hoop stress at the outer
A. 23.58 Mpa B. 28.45 Mpa C. 37.42 Mpa D. 33.45 Mpa
38. The pressure inside the cylindrical tank varies from 800 kpa to 3200 kpa continuously. The diameter of
shell is 1.6 m. Find the wall thickness if yield point is 460 Mpa, endurance strength is 200 Mpa and factor of
safety of 3. A. 18.34 mm B. 24.83 C. 20.45 mm D. 28.45 mm

27
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

Beam, Mechanics, Machine Shop and Pressure Vessel

PROBLEM SET # 7

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Compute the cutting speed in fpm of a workpiece with 5 inches diameter and running at 120 rpm.
A. 314.16 B. 301.23 C. 157.08 D. 483.45
2. Determine the time in seconds, to saw a rectangular bar 7 in wide and 1.5 in thick if the length of cut is 7 in.
the power hacksaw does 120 strokes/min and the feed/stroke is 0.154 mm.
A. 482.45 B. 304.50 C. 577.27 D. 653.45
3. Compute the drill penetration in in/min when a drill turns at 1000 rpm and the feed of 0.004 in per
revolution.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
4. In an Oxygen-acetylene manual welding method, to weld a 5 ft long seam in a 0.375 in thick steel plate at a
consumption rate of 10 ft3/ft for oxygen and 8 ft3/ft for acetylene. Compute the total combined gas
consumption in ft3.
A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100
5. Compute the manual cutting time in minutes of a steel plate 4 ft x 8 ft by ¾ in thick with a hand cutting
speed of 3 to 4 mm/sec, cutting crosswise.
A. 4.94 B. 5.81 C. 6.49 D. 7.12
6. How long will it take to mill a ½ by 3” long keyway in a 4 in diameter shafting with a 24 tooth cutter turning at
90 rpm and 0.006 in feed per tooth.
A. 10.34 sec B. 13.89 sec C. 15.40 sec D. 17.34 sec
7. A 6 ft by 12 ft steel plate is to be divided into three parts equally by cutting crosswise. If the cutting rate is
0.5 in per in, how long will it take to do the job?
A. 288 min B. 234 min C. 197 min D. 349 min
8. Determine the internal pressure of cylindrical tank 500 mm internal diameter, 20 mm thick and 3 m length if
stresses limited to 140 Mpa.
A. 10.06 MPa B. 10.53 C. 11.20 Mpa D. 12.88 Mpa
9. Determine the bursting steam pressure of a steel shell with diameter of 20 inches and made of 5/16 steel
plate . The joint efficiency is at 80% and a tensile strength is 63,000 psi.
A. 2,445.6 psi B. 3,150.0 psi C. 5,233.4 psi D. 4,736.4 psi
10. A water tank 10 m x 12 m is completely filled with water. Determine the minimum thickness of the plate if
stress is limited to 50 Mpa. A. 11.77 mm B. 12.66 mm C. 14.55 mm D. 12.44 mm
11. Determine the safe wall thickness of a 50 inches steel tank with internal pressure of 8 Mpa. The ultimate
stress is 296 Mpa. The factor of safety to use is 3.
A. 2 in B. 3 in C. 5 in D. 4 in
12. The internal pressure of a 400 mm inside diameter cylindrical tank is 10 Mpa and thickness is 25 mm.
Determine the stress developed if joint efficiency is 95%.
A. 80 MPa B. 84.21 Mpa C. 86.75 MPa D. 78.42 Mpa
13. A cylinder has maximum load of 2500 kg while the pressure is 2,550 kpa. If the ultimate stress is 55,000
Kpa and factor of safety of 4, find the required wall thickness of the cylinder.
A. 8.45 mm B. 11.42 mm C. 9.34 mm D. 10.26 mm
14. A spherical tank 15 mm thick has an internal pressure of 5 Mpa. The joint efficiency is 96% and stress is
limited to 46875 Kpa. Find the inner diameter of the tank.
A. 150 mm B. 200 mm C. 250 mm D. 540 mm
15. A spherical tank has a diameter of 10 m and 80 cm thickness. If tangential stress of tank is 16 Mpa, find the
maximum internal pressure of the tank can carry if the wall thickness is 25.4 cm.
A. 1625.60 kpa B. 1863.45 kpa C. 2357.43 kpa D. 3422.45 kpa
16. A cylindrical tank has an inside diameter of 5 in and is subjected to internal pressure of 500 psi. If
maximum stress is 1200 psi, determine the required thickness.
A. 1.0 in. B. 1.2 in C. 1.4 in. D. 1.6 in.
17. A thickness of cylindrical tank is 50 mm. The internal diameter is 300 mm and has an internal pressure of

28
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
8423.58 Kpa. Determine the maximum internal pressure.
A. 20 MPa B. 25 Mpa C. 30 Mpa D. 2358.41 kpa
18. A round vertical steel tank has an inside diameter of 3 m and is 6 m in height. It contains gasoline with a
density of 750 kg/m3. If the allowable tensile stress is 25 Mpa, find the minimum thick required.
A. 2.65 mm B. 2.85 mm C. 3.65 mm D. 1.82 mm
19. A cylinder having an internal diameter of 18 inches and an external diameter of 30 inches is subjected to an
internal pressure of 8,000 psi. If the hoop stress at the inner is 13,000 psi, find the external pressure.
A. 1280 psi B. 1384 psi C. 1450 psi D. 1653 psi
20. A cylinder having an internal diameter of 16 in and wall thickness of 6 inches is subjected to an internal
pressure of 65 Mpa and external pressure of 13 Mpa. Determine the hoop stress at the outer
A. 23.58 Mpa B. 28.45 Mpa C. 37.42 Mpa D. 33.45 Mpa
21. The pressure inside the cylindrical tank varies from 800 kpa to 3200 kpa continuously. The diameter of
shell is 1.6 m. Find the wall thickness if yield point is 460 Mpa, endurance strength is 200 Mpa and factor of
safety of 3. A. 18.34 mm B. 24.83 C. 20.45 mm D. 28.45 mm
22. An extension coil spring is to be elongate 5 n. under a load of 50 lb. What is the spring rate?
A. 5 lb/min B. 10 lb/min C. 151 lb/min D. 20 lb/min
23. A spring has a load of 50 lb. with a spring index of 8. If stress induced is 90,000 psi,
determine the wire diameter. A. 0.058 in. B. 0.828 in. C. 0.452 in. D. 0.1157 in.
24. It is found that a load of 50 lb. an extension coil spring deflects 8.5 in. What load deflect the spring 2.5 in?
A. 10.64 lb. B. 12.48 lb. C. 13.48 lb. D. 14.70 lb.
25. A spring sustain 200 ft-lb of energy with deflection of 3 in. Assume that the main coil diameter is 7 times the
wire diameter and allowable stress of 100,000 psi, determine the wire diameter.
A. 0.416 in. B. 0.321 in. C. 0.568 in. D. 0.672 in.
26. A weight of 100 lbs. strikes a coil spring from a height of 18 inches and deflects the spring of 6 inches.
Find the average force acting on the spring.
A. 600 lb. B. 700 lb. C. 800 lb. D. 900 lb.
27. If it is determined experimentally that a load of 20 kg applied to an extension coil spring will provide a
deflection of 200 mm. What load will deflect the spring 60 mm.
A. 4 kg B. 5 kg C. 6 kg D. 7 kg
28. Three extension coil spring are hooked in series and supports a weight of 70 kg. One spring has a spring
rate of 0.209 kg/mm. and the other two have spring rates of 0.643 kg/mm. Find the deflection.
A. 346.71 mm B. 389.30 mm C. 426.71 mm D. 552.66 mm
29. Four compression coil spring in parallel support a load of 360 kg. Each spring has a gradient of 0.717
kg/mm. A. 125.52 mm B. 132.52 mm C. 138.52 mm D. 145.52 mm
30. A spring has a diameter of 25 mm and 12 active coils. If a load of a 10 KN is applied it deflects 75 mm.
Determine the mean diameter of the spring G = 80 GN/m 2.
A. 20 mm B. 134.65 mm C. 150.34 mm D. 40 mm
31. A concentric helical spring is use to support load of 90 KN. The inner spring has spring rate of 495.8 KN/m
and outer spring is 126.5 KN/m. If initially the inner spring is 25 mm shorter, than the other spring, find the
percent load carried by inner spring. A. 34.65% B. 55.86% C. 86.25% D. 76.81%
32. How long a wire is needed to make a helical spring having a mean coil diameter of 1 inch if there are 8
active coils. A. 25.13 in B. 26.56 in C. 30.21 mm D. 32.34 mm
33. A 0.08” diameter spring has a length of 20 in. If density of spring is 0.282 lb/in, determine the mass of
spring. A. 0.0395 lb. B. 0.0283 lb. C. 0.0485 lb. D. 0.0686 lb.
34. A square and ground spring ends spring has a free length of 250 mm. There are 10 active coils with wire
diameter of 12.5 mm. If the spring rate is 150 KN/m and mean diameter is 100 mm, determine the solid
stress. A. 2315.54 Mpa B. 7654.8 Mpa C. 7842.7 Mpa D. 8432.9 Mpa
35. Find the effective length of leaf spring whose length between supports is 28 in and distance between bolts
is 2 ¼ in.
A. 11.875 in B. 12.875 in C. 13.875 in D. 14.875 in
36. A leaf spring is made of 2 in wide with effective length of 15 in and thickness of 0.125 in. The spring has
two full-length and four graduated leaves. If central load is 320 lb is carried, determine the stress for full
length.
A. 22,800 psi B. 24,800 psi C. 26,800 psi D. 28,800 psi
37. A leaf spring is made of 2.5 in wide with effective length of 14 in and thickness of 0.14 in. The spring has
three full-length and five graduated leaves. If central load is 400 lb is carried, determine the stress for
graduated length.
A. 36,090 psi B. 34,090 psi C. 32,090 psi D. 28,800 psi

29
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
38. A leaf spring is made of 3 in wide with effective length of 15 in and thickness of 0.2 in. The spring has two
full-length and five graduated leaves. If central load is 500 lb is carried, determine the maximum stress for
the leaves.
A. 20,786 psi B. 22,786 psi C. 24,786 psi D. 26,786 psi
39. A leaf spring is made of 3 in wide with effective length of 16 in and thickness of 0.18 in. The spring has
three full-length and six graduated leaves. If central load is 1000 lb is carried, determine the deflection.
A. 0.23 in B. 1.23 in C. 2.23 in D. 3.23 in
40. Find the effective length of leaf spring whose length between support is 30 in with band is 2.5 in wide
assuming the distance from band edge to the bolt is 1/6 of the band width.
A. 14.167 in B. 16.167 in C. 18.167 in D. 20.167 in
41. A truck spring has 10 leaves of graduated length with effective length of 20 in. The central load is 1200 lb
with a permissible stress of 40,000 psi. Determine the thickness of the steel if the ratio of total depth to
width is 2.5.
A. ¼ in B. 3/8 in C. ¾ in D. 1 in

MACHINE DESIGN PROBLEMS

WIRE ROPES

1. A 6 x 19 IPS wire rope with rope diameter of 44.5 mm is to be used for hoisting. Find the weight of the rope
if the depth of mine hoist is 100 m.
A. 1411.31 lbs B. 1511.31 lbs C. 1611.31 lbs D. 1711.31 lbs
2. A 6 x 19 IPS wire rope has a wire rope diameter of 50.8 mm and sheave diameter of 40 in. Find the bending
stress of the rope.
A. 96,500 psi B. 97,500 psi C. 98,500 psi D. 99,500 psi
3. A 6 x 19 IPS wire rope has a wire rope diameter of 2 in and sheave diameter of 50 in. Find the equivalent
bending load of the rope.
A. 124,800 lbs B. 134,800 lbs C. 144,800 lbs D. 154,800 lbs
4. A mine hoist is to carry a cage loaded with ore at a total load of 8 tons. The depth of mine shaft is 328 ft. A
6 x 19 IPS wire rope with rope diameter of 1.75 in is to be use with sheave diameter of 39 in. The cage
loaded is to start from rest and will attain a maximum velocity of 525 fpm in 10 seconds. Find the total load
of the rope.
A. 12,086 lbs B. 14,086 lbs C. 16,086 lbs D. 18,086 lbs
5. A wire rope is used with total load of 9000 kg and bending load of 50,000 kg. If bearing strength of the rope
is 110,000 kg, find the factor of safety of the rope.
A. 4.67 B. 6.67 C. 8.67 D. 10.67
6. What is the factor of safety when a 0.50 in, 6 x 19 medium plow steel wire rope carrying a 8820 lb load is
bent around a 24 in sheave if breaking strength of rope is 8.13 tons.
A. 4.369 B. 8.369 C. 1.369 D. 6.369
7. In a high rise building, the elevator rises at a height of 1200 ft with an acceleration of 3.84 ft/s 2 and loaded
with 2000 kg. Determine the number of 15.6 mm diameter ropes needed if total load in each rope is
2178.77 lbs. A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
8. Determine the probable bending stress and equivalent bending load in a 1 ½ in 6 x 19 steel rope made from
a 0.095 in wire when it is used on a 92 in sheave.
A. 10,400 psi B. 12,400 psi C. 14,400 psi D. 16,400 psi
9. Determine the probable bending load and equivalent bending load in a 2 in 6 x 9 steel rope made from a
0.098 in wire, when it is used on a 90 in sheave.
A. 15,861.34 lbs B. 17,861.34 lbs C. 19,861.34 lbs D. 21,861.34 lbs

30
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

BEARING
1. Determine the force necessary to move a weight of 5000 lbs supported on four steel wheels of 2 ft diameter,
assuming the coefficient of rolling friction to be 0.008.
A. 10 lbs B. 20 lbs C. 30 lbs D. 40 lbs
2. Determine the desired life of life of ball bearing to support a radial load of 4,200 if with moderate shock and a
thrust load of 2,100 lb for 18 hrs per day for 10 years.
A. 55,700 hrs B. 65,700 hrs C. 75,700 hrs D. 85,700 hrs
3. The weight on each wheel of a motor-driven traveling crane moving at 500 fpm is 6000 lbs. If coefficient of
rolling friction is 0.02, find the horsepower required to overcome rolling friction.
A. 7.27 HP B. 9.27 HP C. 5.27 HP D. 3.27 HP

MACHINE SHOP

1. Compute the cutting speed in fpm of a workpiece with 5 inches diameter and running at 120 rpm.
A. 314.16 B. 301.23 C. 157.08 D. 483.45
2. Determine the time in seconds, to saw a rectangular bar 7 in wide and 1.5 in thick if the length of cut is 7 in.
the power hacksaw does 120 strokes/min and the feed/stroke is 0.154 mm.
A. 482.45 B. 304.50 C. 577.27 D. 653.45
3. Compute the drill penetration in in/min when a drill turns at 1000 rpm and the feed of 0.004 in per
revolution.
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
4. In an Oxygen-acetylene manual welding method, to weld a 5 ft long seam in a 0.375 in thick steel plate at a
consumption rate of 10 ft3/ft for oxygen and 8 ft3/ft for acetylene. Compute the total combined gas
consumption in ft3.
A. 70 B. 80 C. 90 D. 100
5. Compute the manual cutting time in minutes of a steel plate 4 ft x 8 ft by ¾ in thick with a hand cutting
speed of 3 to 4 mm/sec, cutting crosswise.
A. 4.94 B. 5.81 C. 6.49 D. 7.12
6. How long will it take to mill a ½ by 3” long keyway in a 4 in diameter shafting with a 24 tooth cutter turning at
90 rpm and 0.006 in feed per tooth.
A. 10.34 sec B. 13.89 sec C. 15.40 sec D. 17.34 sec
7. A 6 ft by 12 ft steel plate is to be divided into three parts equally by cutting crosswise. If the cutting rate is
0.5 in per in, how long will it take to do the job?
A. 288 min B. 234 min C. 197 min D. 349 min

PRESSURE VESSEL

8. Determine the internal pressure of cylindrical tank 500 mm internal diameter, 20 mm thick and 3 m length if
stresses limited to 140 Mpa.
A. 10.06 MPa B. 10.53 C. 11.20 Mpa D. 12.88 Mpa
9. Determine the bursting steam pressure of a steel shell with diameter of 20 inches and made of 5/16 steel
plate . The joint efficiency is at 80% and a tensile strength is 63,000 psi.
A. 2,445.6 psi B. 3,150.0 psi C. 5,233.4 psi D. 4,736.4 psi
10. A water tank 10 m x 12 m is completely filled with water. Determine the minimum thickness of the plate if
stress is limited to 50 Mpa. A. 11.77 mm B. 12.66 mm C. 14.55 mm D. 12.44 mm
11. Determine the safe wall thickness of a 50 inches steel tank with internal pressure of 8 Mpa. The ultimate
stress is 296 Mpa. The factor of safety to use is 3.
A. 2 in B. 3 in C. 5 in D. 4 in
12. The internal pressure of a 400 mm inside diameter cylindrical tank is 10 Mpa and thickness is 25 mm.
Determine the stress developed if joint efficiency is 95%.
A. 80 MPa B. 84.21 Mpa C. 86.75 MPa D. 78.42 Mpa
13. A cylinder has maximum load of 2500 kg while the pressure is 2,550 kpa. If the ultimate stress is 55,000
Kpa and factor of safety of 4, find the required wall thickness of the cylinder.
A. 8.45 mm B. 11.42 mm C. 9.34 mm D. 10.26 mm
14. A spherical tank 15 mm thick has an internal pressure of 5 Mpa. The joint efficiency is 96% and stress is
limited to 46875 Kpa. Find the inner diameter of the tank.
A. 150 mm B. 200 mm C. 250 mm D. 540 mm

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
15. A spherical tank has a diameter of 10 m and 80 cm thickness. If tangential stress of tank is 16 Mpa, find the
maximum internal pressure of the tank can carry if the wall thickness is 25.4 cm.
A. 1625.60 kpa B. 1863.45 kpa C. 2357.43 kpa D. 3422.45 kpa
16. A cylindrical tank has an inside diameter of 5 in and is subjected to internal pressure of 500 psi. If
maximum stress is 1200 psi, determine the required thickness.
A. 1.0 in. B. 1.2 in C. 1.4 in. D. 1.6 in.
17. A thickness of cylindrical tank is 50 mm. The internal diameter is 300 mm and has an internal pressure of
8423.58 Kpa. Determine the maximum internal pressure.
A. 20 MPa B. 25 Mpa C. 30 Mpa D. 2358.41 kpa
18. A round vertical steel tank has an inside diameter of 3 m and is 6 m in height. It contains gasoline with a
density of 750 kg/m3. If the allowable tensile stress is 25 Mpa, find the minimum thick required.
A. 2.65 mm B. 2.85 mm C. 3.65 mm D. 1.82 mm
19. A cylinder having an internal diameter of 18 inches and an external diameter of 30 inches is subjected to an
internal pressure of 8,000 psi. If the hoop stress at the inner is 13,000 psi, find the external pressure.
A. 1280 psi B. 1384 psi C. 1450 psi D. 1653 psi
20. A cylinder having an internal diameter of 16 in and wall thickness of 6 inches is subjected to an internal
pressure of 65 Mpa and external pressure of 13 Mpa. Determine the hoop stress at the outer
A. 23.58 Mpa B. 28.45 Mpa C. 37.42 Mpa D. 33.45 Mpa
21. The pressure inside the cylindrical tank varies from 800 kpa to 3200 kpa continuously. The diameter of
shell is 1.6 m. Find the wall thickness if yield point is 460 Mpa, endurance strength is 200 Mpa and factor of
safety of 3. A. 18.34 mm B. 24.83 C. 20.45 mm D. 28.45 mm

32
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

ALCORCON ENGINEERING REVIEW CENTER

4th Flr. Anacleta Bldg. 891 Galicia St. cor. Espana Ave. Sampaloc Manila
Tel # 742-56-00

SPUR GEAR
PROBLEM SET # 8

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Find the distance between centers of a pair of gears, one of which has 12 teeth and the other 37 teeth. The
diametral pitch is 7.
A. 3.0 in. B. 3.5 in. C. 4.0 in. D. 4.5 in.
2. Determine the pitch diameter of a gear with 28 teeth, 4 diametral pitch.
A. 7 in. B. 8 in. C. 9 in. D. 10 in.
3. Two parallel shafts have an angular velocity ratio of 3 to 1 are connected by gears, the largest of which has
36 teeth. Find the number of teeth of smaller gear.
A. 10 B. 11 C. 12 D. 13
4. Two parallel shafts have a center distance of 15 in. One of the shaft carries a 40-tooth 2 diametral pitch gear
which drives a gear on the other shaft at a speed of 150 rpm. How fast is the 40-tooth gear turning?
A. 600 rpm B. 300 rpm C. 150 rpm D. 75 rpm
5. A 14.5 degrees full-depth involute gear has an outside diameter of 8.5 and diametral pitch of 4. Find the
number of teeth.
A. 30 B. 32 C. 34 D. 36
6. A pair of meshing gears has a diametral pitch of 10, a center distance of 2.6 inches, and velocity ratio of 1.6.
Determine the number of teeth of smaller gear.
A. 10 B. 20 C. 30 D. 40
7. A spur gear 20 degrees full-depth involute teeth has an outside diameter of 195 mm and a module of 6.5.
Determine the number of teeth.
A. 20 B. 25 C. 28 D. 41
8. What is the pitch diameter of a 40 teeth spur gear having a circular pitch of 1.5708.
A. 20 in. B. 25 in. C. 30 in. D. 35 in.
9. How many revolutions per minute is a spur gear turning at, if it has 28 teeth, a circular pitch of 0.7854 in. and
a pitch line velocity of 12 ft/sec?
A. 378.44 rpm B. 643.82 rpm C. 954.66 rpm D. 392.88 rpm
10. How many revolutions per minute is a spur gear turning if it has a module of 2 mm, 40 teeth, and pitch line
velocity of 2500 mm/sec?
A. 596.83 rpm B. 386.83 rpm C. 476.85 rpm D. 312.83 rpm
11. A standard 20 degrees full-depth spur gear has 24 teeth and circular pitch of 0.7854 in. Determine the
working depth.
A. 0.25 in. B. 0.45 in. C. 0.50 in. D. 0.60 in.
12. What is the equivalent diametral pitch of a gear that has a module of 2.5?
A. 5.68 B. 10.16 C. 7.42 D. 8.96
13. A 20 degrees full-depth gear has tooth thickness of 0.25 in., find the addendum distance.
A. 0.159 B. 0.625 C. 0.246 D. 0.189
14. A 14.5 degrees full-depth gear has tooth thickness of 0.25 in., find the addendum distance.
A. 0.3462 in. B. 0.2145 in. C. 0.1658 in. D. 0.2096 in.
15. A gear has a pitch diameter of 10 inches and diametral pitch of 5, determine the outside diameter.
A. 10.0 in. B. 9.03 in. C. 10.4 in. D. 10.2 in.
16. A 14.5 degrees full-depth has a dedendum of 0.2 inch. determine the tooth space.
A. 0.0418 B. 0.0586 C. 0.6995 D. 0.0885
17. An internally meshing gear has a center distance of 20 in. If larger gear has a diameter of 50 inches, find
the diameter of internal gear.

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
A. 5 in. B. 10 in. C. 15 in. D. 20 in.
18. A 10 inches diameter gear is use to transmit 20 KW at 900 rpm. Determine the tangential force acting on
each gear.
A. 1.761 KN B. 1.671 KN C. 1.842 KW D. 2.614 KW
19. A 200 mm diameter 14.5 degrees involute gear is use to transmit 40 KW at 600 rpm. Determine the total
force transmitted on gear.
A. 6.57 KN B. 8.42 KN C. 7.61 KN D. 9.21 KN

20. A squared and ground ends spring has a pitch of 20 mm, wire diameter of 12.5 mm. If there are 12
actual number of coils the deflection when spring is compressed to its solid length.
A. 78 mm B. 75 mm C. 77 mm D. 79 mm
21. A spring with plain ends has 15 active coils diameter of 6 mm and pitch of 10 mm. If spring rate is 100
KN/m, determine the solid force.
A. 4 KN B. 5 KN C. 6 KN D. 7 KN
22. A spring rate has a spring rate of 30 KN/m. If wire diameter is 10mm with a mean diameter of 70 mm,
determine the number of active coils. G = 80 GN/m 2.
A. 6.54 B. 7.82 C. 8.42 D. 9.72
23. A machinist made two 8 diametral pitch spur gears to be mounted at a center distance of 16 inches with a
speed ratio of 7 to 9. Find the following:
A. Number of teeth of each gear. Ans. 144 and 112 teeth
B. Pitch diameter of each gear. Ans. 18 inches 14 inches
C. Outside diameter of each gear. Ans. 18.25 inches and 14.25 inches
D. Circular pitch Ans. 0.393 inches
24. There are three parallel shafts A, B and C. Shaft A carries a 24-tooth gear of 4 DP meshing with a large
gear of shaft B having 70 teeth. A small gear with 20 teeth and 3 DP of shaft B meshes with a 50-tooth
gear of shaft C.
A. If the shafts are on level plane, find the distance between shaft A and C. Ans. 23.417 in
B. Find the rpm of shaft C if shaft A turns at 1200 rpm. Ans. 164.57 rpm
C. Find the torque of shaft C if the input hp at shaft A is 50 HP and efficiency of each pair of gears is
98%. Ans. 18,383 in-lbs
25 A pair of meshing spur gears has a module of 2. The pinion has 18 teeth and the gear has 27 teeth. Find:
A. Pitch diameter of each gear. Ans. 36 mm and 54 mm
B. Center distance between gears Ans. 45 mm

34
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

ALCORCON ENGINEERING REVIEW CENTER

4th Flr. Anacleta Bldg. 891 Galicia St. cor. Espana Ave. Sampaloc Manila
Tel # 742-56-00

DIFFERENTIAL EQUATIONS
PROBLEM SET # 3

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. Find the general solution of ( y + 2 ) dx + ( x - 2 ) dy = 0

2. Find the general solution of ( x + y ) dx – x dx = 0

3. Find the general solution of tan y dx + ( x + 1 ) dy = 0

4. Find the general solution of y2 dx – (1 - x) dy = 0

5. Find the general solution of ( x2 + y2 ) dx – x y dy = 0

6. Find the general solution of (3x2 + 2y) dx + 2xdy = 0

7. Find the general solution of 2x2 ydx + y dx + x dy = 0

8. Find the general solution of x ( ) – 2y = -x

9. Find the general solution of

1. A three-thread worm gear, rotating at 1000 rpm, drives a 31-tooth worm gear and transmit 15 HP. The
worm has 14 ½ o teeth with ¾ pitch, 2 in pitch diameter, and an included face angle of 60 o. The coefficient
of friction is 0.05. (Assume Y = 0.322)
A. Determine the helix angle of the worm. Ans. 70.30o
B. Determine the speed ratio. Ans. 10.33
C. Determine the center distance. Ans. 4.70 in
D. Determine the apparent stress in the worm wheel teeth. Ans. 31,100 psi
E. Determine the efficiency of this worm-gear set. Ans. 85.70%

2. An elevator is driven by a 50-HP 1,200 rpm motor through a worm drive. The worm has four threads of
14.5o pressure angle and pitch diameter 4.25 in. The worm gear has 52 teeth of 1 ¾ in pitch and 4 in face.
The worm bearings are 18 in center to center, and the worm gear bearings are 9 in center to center.
Assume the coefficient of friction to be 0.03.
A. Determine the diameter of the gear. Ans. 28.95 in
B. Determine the center distance of the shafts. Ans. 16.60 in
C. Lead angle of the worm. Ans. 27.65%
D. Determine the load of each bearing. Ans. 92.70%

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
E. Tangential speed of the worm Ans. 1,335 fpm
F. Tangential load on the worm. Ans. 1,235 lbs
G. Total load on the worm. Ans. 2,598 lbs

3. A 20-tooth helical gear has a pitch diameter of 10 in. The helix angle is 23 deg. And the pressure angle
measured in a plane perpendicular to the axis of rotation is 20 o. The addendum is 0.80 divided by the diametral
pitch.
A. Find the diametral pitch. Ans. 2.0
B. Find the circular pitch in a plane normal to the teeth. Ans. 1.445 inches
C. Find the pressure angle in a plane normal to the teeth. Ans. 18.51 deg.

4. A single stage turbine running at 30,000 rpm is used to drive a reduction gear delivering 3 hp at 3,000 rpm.
The gears are 20 deg involute herringbone gear of 28 pitch and 2 1/8 in effective width. The pinion has 20 teeth
with helix angle of 23 deg. Determine:
A. Number of teeth of the gear. Ans. 200 teeth
B. Pitch diameter of the pinion. Ans. 0.715 in
C. Pitch line velocity. Ans. 5,610 fpm
D. Determine the tangential pressure between gear teeth at the pitch line. Ans. 17.63 lbs
E. Determine the load normal to the tooth surface. Ans. 20.40 lbs

5. A pair of 4 diametral pitch 14½ degree involute machine cut bevel gears of SAE 3245 steel have a 2:1
reduction. The pitch diameter of the driver is 10 in and the face 2 in. Determine:
A. pitch angle of the pinion Ans. 26.55o
B. pitch angle of the gear Ans. 63.45o
C. pinion addendum angle Ans. 1.28o
D. Face angle of the pinion Ans. 27.83o
E. gear addendum angle Ans. 1.28o
F. Face angle of the gear Ans. 64.73o
G. Gear dedendum angle Ans. 1.48o
6. A pair of bevel gears have their shafts at right angles. The larger gear has 50 teeth of 4 diametral pitch and
is made of SAE 1045 steel. The pinion has 20 teeth and runs at 850 rpm and transmit 30 hp. Determine:
A. the gear diameter Ans. 12.5 in
B. the pinion diameter Ans. 5 in
C. the length of contact Ans. 6.73 in
D. the pitch line velocity of the pinion Ans. 1,112 fpm
E. the tangential force Ans. 890 lbs

7. A pair of bevel gear have a 1:1 velocity ratio, a pitch diameter of 8 in, a face of 1 ½ in and they rotate at 250
rpm. The teeth are 5 diametral pitch 14 ½ deg involute. These gears transmit 8 hp. Determine:
A. the outside diameter of the gears Ans. 8.28 in
B. the pitch line velocity of the gear Ans. 523 fpm
C. the tangential force of the gear Ans. 504 lbs

1. A 10 HP engine with a speed of 1200 RPM is used to drive a blower with a velocity ratio of 3. The pitch
diameter of the driving sprocket is 85 mm and the center distance between the sprockets is 260 mm. The
service factor is 1.2 while a No. 40 roller chain is used with an equivalent pitch of 13 mm. Find:
A. Number of teeth of driver sprocket Ans. 21 teeth
B. Number of teeth of driven sprocket Ans. 63 teeth
C. Length of power chain in pitches Ans. 84 pitches
D. Number of strands Ans. 2 strands

2. A No. 80 roller chain is used in a conveyor drive that requires 60 HP. The driver sprocket has 23 teeth and
runs at 1200 rpm. Assuming a service factor of 1.2, determine the number of strands required for the chain
drive. Ans. 2 strands

18. The force applied by the clutch pedal to disengage the clutch from the engine while it is running at 8 rps is
1810 kg. If the clutch disk has an outside diameter of 36 cm and inside diameter of 12 cm, determine:

36
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
A. The spring pressure in kg/cm2 when the coefficient of friction is 0.60. Ans. 2 kg/cm2
B. The power transmitted by the clutch disk in KW. Ans. 69.6 KW

19. An automobile engine develops maximum torque at 1000 rpm, at which speed the horsepower is 35. The
engine is to be equipped with a single plate clutch having two pairs of friction surfaces. Using the equation
for torque derived on the basis of “uniform wear” distribution and assuming f = 0.40 and that the mean
diameter of the clutch disks is 7 5/8 inches, determine the axial force required to be applied to the clutch.
Ans. 722.95 lbs

20. A band brake is to operate on a 600 mm diameter drum rotating at 200 rpm. The coefficient of friction
between band and drum is 0.25. The band brake has an angle of contact of 1.5 π radians and the band
width is 60 mm. One end of the band is fastened to the fixed end pin at the end of the lever while the other
end on the brake arm is 760 mm long and is placed perpendicular to the diameter bisecting the angle of
contact.
A. Calculate the torque capacity of the brake if the maximum band pressure is not to exceed 300 Kpa.
B. What is the minimum pull necessary at the end of the lever arm in order to absorb the torque.
C. How much power can be handled at the given speed?
D. Calculate the tensile stress in the band if the band thickness is 10 mm.

Ans. A. 1.12 KN-m; B. 0.185 KN; C. 23.478 KW; D. 9000 Kpa

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

BRAKE
1. A brake has a difference in band tension of 4 KN. The drum diameter is 1 meter and rotating at 300 rpm.
Determine the power needed to drive the drum.
A. 54.62 KW B. 56.85 KW C. 62. 83 KW D. 64.86 KW
2. In a brake, the tension on tight side is thrice the slack side. If coefficient of friction is 0.25, find the angle of
contact of the band.
A. 240.61 deg. B. 251.78 deg. C. 286.75 deg. D. 275.65 deg.
3. On a brake drum the difference in tension between the slack side and tight side is 5. If the ratio in band
tension is 3, determine the tension in tight side.
A. 5.0 KN B. 5.5 KN C. 6.5 KN D. 7.5 KN
4. A steel band have a maximum tensile stress of 55mpa and thickness of 4 mm. If the tension in tight side is 6
KN, what width of band should be used?
A. 25.64 mm B. 27.27 mm C. 28.28 mm D. 29.29 mm
5. A band brake has a straight brake arm of 1.5 m and is placed perpendicular to the diameter bisecting the
angle of contact of 270 degrees which is 200 mm from the end of slack side. If 200 N force is applied at the
other end downward of brake arm, determine the tension at slack side.
A. 2121.32 N B. 4646.32 N C. 3131.32 N D. 4141.32 N
6. A band brake has a 76 cm diameter drum sustains a load of 1 Mton to a hoisting drum 50 cm in diameter.
What is the band tension difference?
A. 657.89 kg.m B. 785.98 kg.m C. 686.86 kg.m D. 948.71 kg.m
7. The ratio of band tension in a band brake is 4. If angle of contact is 260 degrees, determine the coefficient of
friction. A. 0.10 B. 0.25 C. 0.35 D. 0.30
8. A band brake has an angle of contact of 280 degrees and is to sustain a torque of 10,000 in-lbs. The band
bears against a cast iron drum of 14 in diameter. The coefficient of friction is 0.30. Find the tension at the
tight side.
A. 6,501.50 lbs B. 7,501.50 lbs C. 8,501.50 lbs D. 9,501.50 lbs
9. A band brake is installed on a drum rotating at 250 rpm and a diameter of 900 mm. The angle of contact is
1.5π rad and one end of the brake band is fastened to a fixed pin while the other end to the brake arm 150
mm from the fixed pin. The coefficient of friction is 0.25 and the straight brake arm is 1000 mm long and is
placed perpendicular to the diameter bisecting the angle of contact. Determine the minimum force in
Newtons applied at the end of the brake arm necessary to stop the drum if 60 KW is being absorbed.
A. 200 N B. 220 N C. 240 N D. 260 N
10. A band brake is use to fastened to an 800 mm brake drum with tight side is 3 times the slack side of force.
The torque transmitted is 2 KN.m and a steel band with a maximum tensile stress of 60 Mpa and 3 mm thick
will be used. What should be its width in mm?
A. 71.67 mm B. 61.67 mm C. 51.67 mm D. 41.67 mm
11. A simple band brake has a 76 cm drum with coefficient of friction of 0.25 and arc of contact of 245 o. The
drum sustains a load of 820 kg and rotates at 260 rpm. Find the power absorbed by the band.
A. 53.23 KW B. 63.23 KW C. 73.23 KW D. 83.23 KW
12. Determine the force with which the brake shoe of a diesel electric train must be pressed against the wheel
to absorb. 250,000 ft-lb of energy in 20 sec if the mean velocity of wheel relative to the brake shoe is 45 fps
and coefficient of friction is 0.20. A. 1,389 lb B. 1,489 lb C. 1,589 lb D. 1,689 lb

38
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

SPLINE

33. A 6-spline shaft (d = 0.85D, w = 0.25D, h = 0.075D) and to slide when not under load has a diameter of 2.5
in. Find the power transmitted if shearing force is 2500 lbs and shaft rotates at 2500 rpm.
A. 105.36 hp B. 115.36 hp C. 125.36 hp D. 135.36 hp
34. A 1 ¾ in diameter 4-spline shaft (d = 0.9D, w = 0.25D, h = 0.25D) and permanent fit has permissible
pressure of 700 psi. Find the compressive force if hub length is 2 inches.
A. 2150 lbs B. 2250 lbs C. 2350 lbs D. 2450 lbs
35. The transmission gears of an automobile are carried on a 2 in, 6-spline shaft (d = 0.80D, w = 0.25D, h =
0.10D) to slide when under load. The hub length of each gear is 1 5/8 in. Determine the total horsepower
transmitted at 3,000 rpm with 800 psi permissible pressure on the splines.
A. 60.83 hp B. 66.83 hp C. 70.83 hp D. 76.83 hp
36. A 1.5 in diameter 10-spline shaft (d = 0.91D, w = 0.156D, h = 0.045D) and permanent fit is use to transmit
100 kw power at 2000 rpm. Find the compressive force of the spline.
A. 2,898 lbs B. 3,898 lbs C. 4,898 lbs D. 5,898 lbs
37. A 1.5 in diameter 10-spline shaft (d = 0.91D, w = 0.156D, h = 0.045D) and permanent fit is use to transmit
100 kw power at 2000 rpm. Find the shearing stress of the spline if hub length is 1 ¾ in.
A. 1,311.44 psi B. 1,411.44 psi C. 1,511.44 psi D. 1,611.44 psi
38. A 6-spline shaft (d = 0.85D, w = 0.25D, h = 0.075D) and to slide when not under load has a diameter of 2.5
in is use to transmit 125 hp at 1800 rpm. Find the compressive stress of the spline if hub length is 20% of
shaft diameter.
A. 1,122 psi B. 2,122 psi C. 3,122 psi D. 4,122 psi
39. A 1 ¾ in diameter 4-spline shaft (d = 0.9D, w = 0.25D, h = 0.25D) and permanent fit has permissible
pressure of 850 psi. Find the shearing force of the splines if hub length is 2 in.
A. 1,578 lbs B. 2,578 lbs C. 3,578 lbs D. 4,578 lbs
40. A 6-spline shaft (d = 0.85D, w = 0.25D, h = 0.075D) has a compressive area of 2 in 2 and shearing area of
3 in2. Find the minimum diameter of shaft is required if hub length is 2 ¼ in.
A. 1.975 B. 0.889 C. 1.286 D. 3.609

39
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PIPE
PPE - PROBLEM SET # 1

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. A vacuum gage connected to a tank reads 30 kpa at a location where the barometric reading is 755 mm Hg.
Determine the absolute pressure in the tank.
A. 70.6 kpa B. 84.23 kpa C. 90.34 kpa D. 98.45 kpa
2. Determine the pressure exerted on a diver at 30 m below the free surface of the sea. Assume a barometric
pressure of 101 kpa and the specific gravity of sea water is 1.03.
A. 404 kpa B. 410 kpa C. 420 kpa D. 430 kpa
3. A compressed spring above the piston exerts a force of 60 N on the piston. If the atmospheric pressure is 95
kpa, determine the pressure inside the cylinder.
A. 108.20 kpa B. 112.56 kpa C. 123.4 kpa D. 137.40 kpa
4. If the absolute temperature is 300oK, what is the equivalent in oR?
A. 530.34oR B. 534.23oR C. 537.20 oR D. 540.6oR
5. If the oF scale thrice the oC scale, what are the value oF and oC?
A. 26.67oC and 50oF B. 26.67oC and 80oF C. 16.67oC and 70oF D. 56.67oC and 60oF
6. Water enters the heater at 30oC and leaves at 150oF, what is the temperature difference in oC?
A. 25.55oC B. 35.55oC C. 45.55oC D. 55.55oC
7. A 5 kg plastic tank that has a volume of 0.2 m3 is filled with liquid water. Assuming the density of water is
1000 kg/m3, determine the weight of the combine system.
A. 195 kg B. 200 kg C. 205 kg D. 210 kg
8. Determine the mass of the air contained in a room whose dimensions are 15 ft x 20 ft x 20 ft. Assume the
density of the air is 0.0724 lb/ft3. A. 11.49 slugs B. 13.49 slugs C. 15.49 slugs D. 17.49 slugs
9. The water flows in the channel 200 mm x 300 mm at the rate of 2 m/sec. What is the volume flow in
ft3/sec? A. 1.24 ft3/s B. 2.24 ft3/s C. 3.24 ft3/s D. 4.24 ft3/s
10. Two gaseous streams are mixed together with one stream contains a diameter of 120 mm and specific
gravity of 0.86 and speed of 5 m/s and on the other stream is 150 mm and density of 890 kg/m3 at 2 m/s.
Find the mass flow rate at the exit if diameter of exit is 200 mm.
A. 65 kg/s B. 70 kg/s C. 75 kg/s D. 80 kg/s
11. In one section of water flow the pressure is 1500 kpa. If internal energy is 20 KJ/kg find the enthalpy at this
point. A. 21.50 KJ/kg B. 23.50 KJ/kg C. 25.50 KJ/kg D. 27.50 KJ/kg
12. In a constant temperature process at 150oC, heat is transferred with an entropy change of 0.5 KJ/K.
Determine the heat added for the system. A. 201.50 KJ B. 211.50 KJ C. 221.50 KJ D. 231.50 KJ
13. Two hundred kg of water is added to 4000 kg of alcohol with specific gravity of 0.8. Determine the specific
volume after mixing, m3/kg. A. 0.00124 B. 0.02124 C. 0.00124 D. 0.000124
14. A batch of concrete consisted of 240 lbs fine aggregate, 380 lbs coarse aggregate, 100 lbs, cement, and 5
gallons water. The specific gravity of the sand and gravel may be taken as 2.65 and that of the cement as
3.10. How much by weight of cement is required to produce one cubic yard?
A. 547.14 lb/yd3 B. 647.14 lb/yd3 C. 747.14 lb/yd3 D. 847.14 lb/yd3
15. A vessel has a pressure of 200 Kpag. The atmospheric pressure is 10 m of water equivalent. Find the
absolute pressure in m of water.
A. 28.39 m of H2O B. 30.39 m of H2O C. 32.39 m of H2O D. 34.39 m of H2O
16. Water flows in a pipe at the rate of 10 kg/s. If speed of flow is 10 m/s, find the pipe diameter.
A. 30.23 mm B. 35.68 mm C. 38.39 mm D. 42.39 mm
17. R-134a flows in a pipe at 30oC with a specific volume of 0.04434 m3/kg. The internal energy and enthalpy
of R-134a are 250.8 KJ/kg and 273.0 KJ/kg respectively. The pressure of the refrigerant in Mpa is
A. 0.5 B. 0.4 C. 0.3 D. 0.1
18. Water is heated on an electrical range with a power rating of 1.5 KW for a period of 18 minutes. The initial
and final temperatures of the water are 15oC and 85oC and 70% of electrical heat is transferred to the
water. What is the amount of water? A. 1.4 kg B. 3.9 kg C. 5.5 kg D. 9.2 kg
19. A new temperature scale is to be used where freezing and boiling temperature of water is at 1000N and
5000N respectively. Calculate the absolute zero in degrees 0N. A. -460 B. -992.6 C. -273.15 D. -100
20. The increase of enthalpy of a certain gas is 141.9 KJ KJ when the pressure increases from 103.448 kpa to
1034.48 Kpa and the volume decreases from 0.4772 cu. m to 0.0745 cu. m. Find the change of internal
energy in KJ. A. 121.45 B. 114.25 C. 141.5 D. 154.21
21. In a constant temperature, closed system process, 120 KJ of heat is transferred to the working fluid at 38oC.

40
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
What is the change of entropy of the working fluid in KJ/K. A. 0.683 B. 0.386 C. 0.854 D. 0.92
22. Five hundred kilocalories of heat is added to 2 kg of water at 80oC. How much steam is produced?
A. 0.85 kg B. 1 kg C. 1.1 kg D. 1.25 kg
23. An engineer carried an aneroid Barometer from the ground floor to his office atop the Shangri-La Hotel in
Mandaluyong City. On the ground level, the barometer reads 102.5 Kpa absolute; topside it read 95 kpa
absolute. Assuming that the average air density was 1.2 kg/m3, estimate the height of the hotel.
A. 500 m B. 550 m C. 580 m D. 637 m
24. The fluid in a manometer tube is 60% water and 40% alcohol (SG = 0.80). What is the manometer fluid
height difference if a 10 Kpa pressure difference is applied across the two ends of the manometer?
A. 1.27 m B. 1.5 m C. 1.75 m D. 1.18 m
25. One hundred grams of water is mixed to 150 grams of alcohol (density = 790 kg/m3). Calculate the specific
volume of the solution assuming that it is mixed completely.
A. 1.2 cm3/gm B. 1.5 cm3/gm C. 1.75 cm3/gm D. 2.0 cm3/gm
26. A fluid flows through a 20 tubes on a single cooler with a velocity of 5 mps. The tube inside diameter is 40
mm and a fluid density of 0.80 gram/ML. What is the volume flow rate in gpm?
A. 99.6 B. 105 C. 94 D. 89
27. A double purpose tank 18 ft wide, 24 ft long and 4 ft depth is filled with water. What is the weight of water in
the tank in long tons? A. 49 tons B. 48 tons C. 54 tons D. 50 tons
28. Oil flow though a 16 tubes on a single cooler with a velocity of 2 m/s. The internal diameter of the tube is
30mm and oil density is 0.85 gm/ml. Find the volume flow in liters per sec.
A. 22.62 B. 32.22 C. 62.22 D. 42.62
29. The barometer of a mountain hiker reads 930 mbars at the beginning of a hiking trip and 780 mbars at the
end. Neglecting the effect of altitude on local gravitational acceleration, determine the vertical distance
climbed. Assume g = 9.7 m/s2 A. 1274.21 m B. 1289.00 m C. 1267.34 m D. 1583.34 m
30. Determine the atmospheric pressure at a location where barometric reading is 740 mm Hg and gravitational
acceleration is g = 9.7 m/s2. Assume the temperature of mercury to be 10oC, at which the density is 13,570
kg/m3. A. 99.45 kpa B. 97.41 kpa C. 95.44 kpa D. 98.66 kpa
31. What is the kinetic energy of a 500 kg body traveling at 20 m/s? A. 80 KJ B. 85 KJ C. 90 KJ D. 100 KJ
32. What is the potential energy of a 300 kg body if it strikes the ground from a 50 m elevation?
A. 127.15 KJ B. 137.15 KJ C. 147.15 KJ D. 157.15 KJ
33. Five kilograms water enters the heater at 25oC and leaves the heater at 180oF. Determine the heat added
in kw. A. 1198 KW B. 1298 KW C. 1398 KW D. 1498 KW
34. Water enters the condenser at 30oC which has a mass of 3 kg/s. If heat added is 100 kw, determine the
outlet temperature in oC. A. 37.96oC B. 39.96oC C. 41.96oC D. 43.96oC
35. The enthalpy of air is increased by 140 KJ/kg in a compressor. The rate of air flow is 16.42 kg/min. The
power input is 48.2 kw. What is the heat loss from the compressor?
A. 9.88 kw B. 10.56 kw C. 12.39 kw D. 15.35 kw
36. Steam enters a turbine 80 lbs of steam per minute with an enthalpy of 1700 Btu/lb and velocity of 98 ft/s. It
leaves the turbine at 1400 Btu/lb at 880 ft/s. The heat loss is 90,000 Btu/hr. Find the horsepower output of
the turbine. A. 304.56 hp B. 483.45 hp C. 501.62 hp D. 601.62 hp
37. Steam enters a turbine stage with an enthalpy of 3620 KJ/kg at 75 m/s and leaves the same stage with an
enthalpy of 2800 KJ/kg at 128 m/s. Calculate the work done by steam.
A. 514.62 KJ/kg B. 614.62 KJ/kg C. 714.62 KJ/kg D. 814.62 KJ/kg
38. A steam turbine developed 2372.20 Hp when its inlet condition is 1300 Btu/lb enthalpy and 400 ft/s velocity
and steam flow of 200 lb/min. The exit enthalpy is 800 Btu/lb. Find the exit velocity.
A. 50 fps B. 52 fps C. 54 fps D. 56 fps
39. The mass flow rate of the gas in a gas turbine is 40 kg/sec. The specific enthalpy and velocity in the inlet
are 1300 KJ/kg and 160 m/sec respectively while in the outlet are 350 KJ/kg and 50 m/sec respectively.
Calculate the power output in KW of the turbine if there is a heat loss of 1000 KW.
A. 37462 B. 34605 C. 41872 D. 30405
40. A house is to be heated by hot water that receives heat from a furnace. Air with a enthalpy of 305 KJ/kg and
fuel with an enthalpy of 45360 KJ/kg enters the furnace and the gases leaving have a enthalpy of 608
KJ/kg. There are 17 kg-air per kg-fuel and the water for heating receives 18.3 KW of heat by circulating
through the furnace. What is the fuel consumption in kg/hr?
A. 1,863 B. 1,289 C. 1,664 D. 1,071

41
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 2

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. Air in a 10 m3 tank has a pressure of 500 kpa and temperature of 40oC. Determine the mass of air in the
tank. A. 44.66 kg B. 55.66 kg C. 66.66 kg D. 77.66 kg
2. The pressure and temperature of the vessel is 380 kpa and 60oC, what is the density of air in kg/m3?
A. 3.976 kg/m3 B. 4.976 kg/m3 C. 5.976 kg/m3 D. 6.976 kg/m3
3. What is the specific volume of air at 15 psia and 90oF in ft3/lb?
A. 13.57 ft3/lb B. 15.57 ft3/lb C. 17.57 ft3/lb D. 19.57 ft3/lb
4. The temperature of an ideal gas remains constant while the absolute pressure changes from 100 kpa to
800 kpa. If initial volume is 100 liters, what is the final volume?
A. 10.00 liters B. 12.50 liters C. 15.00 liters D. 17.50 liters
5. An automobile tire is inflated to 35 psig at 54oF. After being driven, the temperature rise to 80oF.
Determine the final gage pressure assuming volume remains constant.
A. 36.51 psig B. 37.51 psig C. 38.51 psig D. 39.51 psig
6. An air bubble from the bottom of a lake becomes triple itself as it reaches on the water surface. How deep
is the lake? A. 10.65 m B. 15.65 m C. 20.65 m D. 25.65 m
7. Find the mass of ammonia in the 100 ft3 tank having a pressure of 70 psi at 120oF.
A. 11.61 lb B. 19.12 lb C. 24.34 lb D. 31.61 lb
8. If the initial pressure of ideal gas at 110 kpa is compressed to one-half its original volume and to twice its
original temperature, what is the final pressure? A. 400 kpa B. 410 kpa C. 430 kpa D. 440 Kpa
9. A closed rigid container has a volume of 1 m3 and holds air at 344.8 kpa and 273oK. Heat is added until the
temperature is 600oK. Determine change of internal energy
A. 758.80 KJ B. 1034.00 KJ C. 1230.35 KJ D. 1330.35 KJ
10. A perfect gas has a value of R = 58.8 ft-lb/lb-R and k = 1.26. If 20 Btu are added to 5 lb of this gas at
constant volume when the initial temperature is 90oF, find the change in entropy
A. 0.1350 Btu/oR B. 0.2350 Btu/oR C. 0.0350 Btu/oR D. 0.3350 Btu/oR
11. A 2 kg mass oxygen expands at constant pressure pf 172 kpa in a piston-cylinder system from a
temperature of 32oC to a final temperature of 182oC. Determine the work done
A. 77.90 KJ B. 86.1 KJ C. 96.1 KJ D. 106.1 KJ
12. While the pressure remains constant at 689.5 kpa the volume of a system of air changes from 0.567 m3 to
0.283 m3. Determine the heat added/rejected. A. 682.29 KJ B. 782.29 KJ C. 882.29 KJ D. 982.29 KJ
13. A piston-cylinder containing air receives heat at a constant temperature of 500oK and an initial pressure of
200 kpa. The initial volume is 0.01 m3 and the final volume is 0.07 m3. Determine the work.
A. -3.89 KJ B. -4.89 KJ C. -5.89 KJ D. -5.89 KJ
14. An ideal compressor compresses 12 kg/min of air isothermally from 99 kpa and a specific volume of 0.81
m3/kg to a final pressure of 600 kpa. Determine the work in kw
A. 8.89 kw B. 18.89 kw C. 28.89 kw D. 38.89 kw
15. A rigid tank contains a perfect gas with R = 2.08 KJ/kgoK and k = 1.67. Calculate the final temperature in oC
if it initially at 30oC and 15 KJ/kg of heat is added. A. 34.83 B. 36.54 C. 32.72 D. 38.43
16. A thermodynamic system contains 10 cubic meters of air at 300 kpa and 127oC. The weight of this system
in Newtons is A. 93 B. 127 C. 192 D. 256
17. Air in a closed piston-cylinder device arranged to maintain a pressure of 400 kpa is heated from 27oC to
227oC. Initially the volume of the air is one liter. What is the final air volume?
A. 0.5 liter B. 0.00167 m3 C. 2.4 liter D. 0.036 m3
18. Air is heated from 27 C to 327 C. How much does the specific internal energy of the air changed as a
o o

result of this heating? A. 301.5 KJ/kg decrease B. 301.5 increase C. 215.4 decrease D. 215.4 inc.
19. Oxygen at 200 kpa, 27oC is contained in a piston-cylinder device arrange to maintain a constant pressure.
How much work in KJ/kg is produced by this system when it is heated to 227oC?
A. 0 B. 11.2 C. 37.1 D. 52.0
20. Air at 1 Mpa, 27oC is contained in a piston-cylinder device that is arranged to maintain a constant pressure.
How much heat in KJ/kg is required to raise the temperature of this air to 527oC?
A. 180 B. 370 C. 500 D. 1040
21. A piston-cylinder device contains 1 kg hydrogen gas. Heat is transferred to the hydrogen as its temperature
increases by 10oC. What is the boundary work done during this process?
A. 143 KJ B. 102 KJ C. 80 KJ D. 41 KJ
22. Air enters an adiabatic, steady-flow turbine at 1 Mpa, 527oC through a one square meter duct with a velocity
of 100 m/sec. The air leaves the turbine at 100 kpa, 157oC. The mass flow rate of the air in kg/sec is:
A. 87.4 B. 137.3 C. 327.2 D. 435.6
23. A 0.5 kg steel (c = 0.5 KJ/kgoK) rivet cools from 800oK to 300oK upon being installed in a riveted structure.
The entropy change in KJ/oK of this rivet is: A. -0.631 B. -0.245 C. 0.245 D. 0.631

42
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
24. A 1750 kg car is raised to a height of 1.8 m by hydraulic hoist. The hydraulic pump has a constant pressure
of 800 kPa on its piston. How much volume in m3 should the pump displace to deliver the required work for
lifting the car? A. 0.0386 B. 0.0581 C. 0.0213 D. 0.0472
25. The rate of heat transfer to the surroundings from a person at rest is about 400 KJ/hr. Suppose that the
ventilation system fails in an auditorium containing 100 people and assuming that the energy goes into the
air of volume 1500 m3 initially at 300oK and 101 kPa, calculate the rate in oC/min of air temperature change.
A. 0.81 B. 0.53 C. 0.24 D. 1.0
26. A fresh poured concrete hardens the chemical transformation release energy at a rate of 2 W/kg. Assume
the center of a poured layer does not have any heat loss and that it has as average heat capacity of 0.9
KJ/kgoK, find the temperature rise in oC during one hour of the hardening (curing) process.
A. 7 B. 6 C. 8 D. 9
27. Air at a pressure of 100 kpa has a volume of 0.32 m3. The air is compressed in a reversible adiabatic
manner until the temperature is 190OC. The reversible work is –63 KJ/kg. Determine the initial temperature
A. 98.23oC B. 102.19oC C. 123.45oC D. 143.45oC
28. Air at a pressure of 100 kpa has a volume of 0.32 m3. The air is compressed in a reversible adiabatic
manner until the temperature is 190OC. The reversible work is –63 KJ/kg. Determine the change of internal
energy A. 68.68 KJ B. 18.68 KJ C. 20.34 KJ D. 38.68 KJ
29. Three cubic feet of oxygen are compressed in a piston-cylinder in reversible adiabatic process from a
temperature of 300oK and a pressure of 102 kpa until the final volume is one tenth the initial volume.
Determine final temperature A. 753.56oK B. 853.56oK C. 953.56oK D. 1,053.56oK
30. In a reversible adiabatic manner, 17.6 m /min of air are compressed from 277 K and 101 kpa to 700 kpa.
3 o

Determine the change of enthalpy A. 56.24 kw B. 66.24 kw C. 76.24 kw D. 86.24 kw

31. In a reversible adiabatic manner, 17.6 m3/min of air are compressed from 277oK and 101 kpa to 700 kpa.
Determine the power required A. 34.71 kw B. 44.71 kw C. 64.71 kw D. 54.71 kw
32. Air contained in a piston-cylinder and is compressed in a reversible adiabatic manner from a temperature of
300oK and a pressure of 120 kpa to a final pressure of 480 kpa. Determine final temperature A.
345.79oC B. 445.79oC C. 545.79oC D. 645.79oC
33. Air contained in a piston-cylinder and is compressed in a reversible adiabatic manner from a temperature of
300oK and a pressure of 120 kpa to a final pressure of 480 kpa. Determine work per kilogram. A. -
94.61 KJ/kg B. -124.61 KJ/kg C. -104.61 KJ/kg D. -304.61 KJ/kg
34. Air is compressed polytropically from 101 kpa and 23oC and delivered to a tank at 1500 kpa and 175oC.
Determine per kilogram of air the heat removed during compression
A. 131.38 KJ B. 231.38 KJ C. 331.38 KJ D. 431.38 KJ
35. One kilogram per second of air initially at 101 kpa and 300oK is compressed polytropically according to the
process PV11.3 = C. Calculate the power necessary to compress the air to 1380 kpa.
A. 37.72 kw B. 137.72 kw C. 237.72 kw D. 337.72 kw
36. Air is compressed polytropically in a cylinder according to PV2 = C. The work required is 180 KJ/kg.
Determine the change of internal energy.
A. 449.06 KJ/kg B. 179.62 KJ/kg C. 159.62 KJ/kg D. 169.62 KJ/kg
37. Air is compressed polytropically in a cylinder according to PV2 = C. The work required is 180 KJ/kg.
Determine the heat transferred. A. 107.77 KJ/kg B. 269.44 KJ/kg C. 127.77 KJ/kg D. 137.77 KJ/kg
38. Air is expanded from 1 Mpa, 327oC to 200 kpa in a closed piston-cylinder device executing PV1.2 = constant
process. The work produced during this process in KJ/kg is:
A. 202.6 B. 263.4 C. 361.7 D. 422.8
39. An air compressor has an inlet air enthalpy of 35 Btu/lb and exit enthalpy of 70 Btu/lb. The mass flow of air
is 3 lbs/s. If heat loss is 466.62 Btu/min, find the work input to the compressor.
A. 139.51 hp B. 149.51 hp C. 159.51 hp D. 169.51 hp
40. An air compressor has an inlet enthalpy of 32 Btu/lb and exit enthalpy of 68 Btu/lb. If heat loss is 5 Btu/lb,
find the compressor work. A. 41 Btu/lb B. -41 Btu/lb C. 20 Btu/lb D. -20 Btu/lb

43
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 3

1. In an air standard Otto cycle, the clearance volume is 12% of the displacement volume. Find the
compression ratio and or thermal efficiency.
A. 0.52 B. 0.55 C. 0.53 D. 0.60
2. A Carnot cycle has a maximum temperature of 220oC and minimum temperature of 20oC. Find the cycle
efficiency. A. 54.23% B. 58.35% C. 43.20% D. 40.57%
3. A steam engine operation between 150oC and 500oC. What is the theoretical maximum thermal efficiency?
A. 99% B. 27% C. 49% D. 45.30%
4. An engine has a bore of 15 cm and stroke of 48 cm. If the volumetric compression is 2200 cm3, find the
engine efficiency. A. 46.2 B. 44.2 C. 45.4 D. 40.3
5. A Carnot engine requires 40 KJ/sec from the hot source. The engine produces 20 kw of power and the
temperature of the sink is 26oC. What is the temperature of the hot source?
A. 245.57oC B. 210.10oC C. 250.18oC D. 325.00oC
6. A Carnot engine receives 130 Btu of heat from a hot reservoir at 600oF and rejects 49 Btu of heat.
Calculate the temperature of the cold reservoir.
A. -21.9oF B. -60.46oF C. -20.8oF D. -22.7oF
7. The maximum thermal efficiency possible for a power cycle operating between 1400oF and 280oF is:
A. 58% B. 58.73% C. 60.22% D. 57.40%
8. A heat engine is operated between temperature limits of 1380 oC and 230oC. Engine supplied with 14,142
KJ per KWH. Find the Carnot cycle efficiency in percent.
A. 70.10 B. 65.05 C. 67.56 D. 69.32
9. An Otto engine has clearance volume of 9%. It produces 350 kw power. What is the amount of heat
rejected in KW? A. 204.45 B. 160.50 C. 152.10 D. 145.85
10. An air standard engine has a compression ratio of 15 and a cut-off ratio of 3. If the intake air pressure and
temperature are 100 kpa and 28oC, find the work in KJ per kg.
A. 2976 B. 2166 C. 2437 D. 992.50
11. The thermal efficiency of a particular engine operating on an ideal cycle is 45%. Calculate the heat
supplied per 1500 watt-hr of work developed in KJ. A. 12,343 B. 12,000 C. 14,218 D. 11,108
12. An Otto cycle has an initial condition of 98 kpa and 30oC. The compression ratio is 11 and the maximum
temperature of the cycle is 1400oC. Find the heat added in KJ/kg.
A. 632 B. 689 C. 763 D. 876
13. An Otto cycle has an initial condition of 100 kpa and 30oC. The compression ratio is 10 and the maximum
temperature is 1400oC. Find the cycle mean effective pressure per kg of air.
A. 395.67 kpa B. 491.34 kpa C. 503.95 kpa D. 674.30 kpa
14. An Otto cycle has a heat added of 1000 Btu and work output of 550 Btu. Find the percent clearance.
A. 6.32% B. 8.97% C. 12.04% D. 15.72%
15. Air is compressed in an Otto cycle from 100 kpa to 700 kpa. Find the cycle efficiency.
A. 42.65% B. 39.45% C. 48.56% D. 58.34%
16. A diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 8 and cut-off ratio of 2.5. Find the cyle efficiency.
A. 42% B. 44% C. 46% D. 48%
17. A diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 6 and cut-off ratio of 2. If heat added is 1500 KJ, find the heat
rejected. A. 857.60 KJ B. 982.34 KJ C. 1,082.34 KJ D. 1209.34 KJ
18. A diesel cycle has an initial temperature of 30oC, compression ratio of 14 and cut-off ratio of 5. Find the
maximum temperature of the cycle. A. 3984oC B. 4081oC C. 4764.33oC D. 5836.40oC
19. In an air standard diesel cycle, compression starts at 100 Kpa and 300K. The compression ratio is 12 to 1.
The maximum cycle temperature is 2000K. Determine the cycle efficiency.
A. 60.34% B. 56.23% C. 54.22% D. 45.45%
20. A diesel engine is operating on a 4-stroke cycle, has a heat rate of 10,000 KJ/KW-hr brake. The
compression ratio is 10. The cut-off ratio is 2. Using K = 1.32, what is the brake engine efficiency.
A. 63.5 B. 51.2 C. 73.5 D. 78.72
21. Determine the air-standard efficiency of an engine operating on the diesel cycle with clearance of 6% when
the suction pressure is 100 Kpa and the fuel is injected for 5% of the stroke. Assume K = 1.4.
A. 54.96% B. 63.68% C. 43.07% D. 76.05%
22. An Otto cycle has an efficiency of 54%. If heat added is 400 KJ, find the work done.
A. 216 KJ B. 218 KJ C. 220 KJ D. 222 KJ
23. An Otto cycle has an efficiency of 60%. If work is 700 KJ, find the heat rejected.
A. 466.67 KJ B. 476.67 KJ C. 486.67 KJ D. 496.67 KJ
24. An Otto cycle has an efficiency of 48%. If heat rejected is 1000 Btu, find the heat added.
A. 1716 Btu B. 1918 Btu C. 1923 Btu D. 2023 Btu
25. An Otto cycle has an initial condition of 31oC and 100 Kpa. The compression ratio is 8 and the heat added

44
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
during the process is 1000 KJ/kg. Find the mean effective pressure.
A. 659.73 KJ/kg B. 689.73 KJ/kg C. 709.73 KJ/kg D. 739.73 KJ/kg
26. The compression ratio of Otto cycle is 10. If maximum temperature of the cycle is 1200oC, find the
temperature after expansion. A. 30.5.41oC B. 307.41oC C. 311.41oC D. 313.41oC
27. The initial temperature and pressure of Otto cycle are 28oC and 100 Kpa respectively. The compression
ratio is 6 and heat added during the process is 1300 KJ/kg. Find the maximum pressure of the cycle.
A. 4648 Kpa B. 4748 Kpa C. 4848 Kpa D. 4948 Kpa
28. An diesel cycle has a cycle efficiency of 58%. If heat added is 1600 KJ/kg, find the work.
A. 928 KJ B. 938 KJ C. 948 KJ D. 958 KJ
29. A diesel cycle has a compression ratio of 8 and initial temperature of 34oC. If maximum temperature of the
cycle is 2000oK, find the cycle efficiency. A. 40.06% B. 41.06% C. 42.06% D. 44.06%
30. An Ocean –Thermal Energy Conversion power plant generates 10,000 KW using a warm surface water
inlet temperature of 26oC and a cold deep-water temperature of 15oC. On the basis of a 3oC drop in the
temperature of the warm water and a 3oC rise in the temperature of the cold water due to removal and
addition of heat, calculate the power required in KW to pump the cold-deep water to the surface and
through the system heat exchanger if the required pumping pressure increase is 7kPa.
Assume a Carnot cycle efficiency and density of cold water to be 1000 kg/m3.
A. 108 B. 120 C. 146 D. 160
31. The compression ratio of an air-standard gasoline engine is 8. The heat added is 1850 KJ/kg. If the initial
pressure and temperature are 100kPa and 25oC respectively. Determine the temperature in oC at the end
of the isentropic expansion. A. 1368 B. 1147 C. 969 D. 1452
32. Calculate the thermal efficiency of an air-standard Diesel cycle operating with a compression ratio of 23 and
cut-off ratio of 2.25 A. 0.603 B. 0.587 C. 0.656 D. 0.714
33. Calculate the thermal efficiency of an air-standard limited pressure cycle with a compression ratio of 23,
initial pressure and temperature of 100 kPa and 25oC respectively, a pressure limited of 12 MPa, and total
heat input of 1500 KJ/kg of air. A. 0.687 B. 0.593 C. 0.648 D. 0.714
34. An elastic sphere containing gas at 120 kPa has a diameter of 1.0 m. Heating the sphere causes it to
expand to a diameter of 1.2 m. During the process the pressure is proportional to the sphere diameter.
Calculate the work done by the gas in KJ. A. 41.8 B. 50.6 C. 45.6 D. 35.4
35. An ideal gas with a molecular weight of 7.1 kg/kg mol is compressed from 600 kPa and 280 oK to a final
specific volume of 0.5 m3/kg. During the process the pressure varies according to p = 600 + 150v + 95v2
where p is in kPa and v in m3/kg. Calculate the work of compression in KJ/kg?
A. 32.8 B. 28.7 C. 35.6 D. 30.4
36. Air is used in a Carnot engine where the volumes at the beginning of the constant temperature heat addition
and the constant-temperature heat rejection are 0.356 m3 and 5.573 m3 respectively. Calculate the thermal
efficiency. A. 0.754 B. 0.782 C. 0.713 D. 0.667
37. An air-standard Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 8. At the beginning of compression the pressure and
temperature of air are 100 kPa and 25 oC respectively. The heat added is 1500 KJ/kg. Calculate the mean
effective pressure in kPa. A. 1230 B. 1132 C. 1354 D. 1068
38. The cycle work of an air-standard Otto engine is 1000 KJ/kg. The maximum cycle temperature is 3200oC
and the temperature at the end of isentropic compression is 650 oC. Calculate the compression ratio of the
engine. A. 8.5 B. 7.22 C. 8.0 D. 0.311
39. Calculate the thermal efficiency of an air-standard Diesel cycle with minimum temperature and pressure of
20 oC and 100 kPa, and maximum temperature of 1000oC. The heat added is 800 KJ/kg.
A. 0.223 B. 0.365 C. 0.283 D. 0.311
40. An inventor presented the following test results of the engine he designed: power developed, 35 KW; fuel
consumption, 3.1 kg/hr; fuel heating value, 49,540 KJ/kg; operating temperature limits, 28oC and 1200oC.
A. his claim is valid B. his claim is not valid C. inconclusive D. none of the above
41. A three-process cycle operating with 5.0 kgs of air as the working substance has the following process:
constant volume (1-2); constant pressure (2-3); and constant temperature (3-1). Given that P1 = 100kPa,
T1 = 300oK and V1/V3 = 6, determine the heat added in KJ.
A. 6141 B. 5382 C. 7710 D. 1504
42. Two Carnot engines A and B operate in series between a high-temperature reservoir at 1200oK and low-
temperature reservoir at 450oK. Engine A rejects heat to engine B, which in turn rejects heat to the low-
temperature reservoir. The heat received by engine A is 600 KJ. The two engines have equal thermal
efficiencies. Calculate the work of engine B in KJ. A. 300 B. 168.5 C. 254.7 D. 140.6
43. A heat engine has a thermal efficiency of 45%. How much power does the engine produce when heat is
transferred into it at a rate of 109 KJ/hr? A. 50 MW B. 75 MW C. 100 MW D. 125 MW
44. The thermodynamic efficiency of a heat engine that rejects heat at a rate of 20 MW when heat is supplied to
it at a rate of 60 MW is: A. 33.3% B. 50% C. 66.7% D. 75%
45. A Carnot engine operates using a 527oC energy reservoir and a 27oC energy reservoir. The
thermodynamic efficiency of this engine is: A. 50% B. 62.5% C. 73.6% D. 103%
46. An inventor claims to have created a heat engine which produces 10 KW of power for a 15 KW input while
operating between energy reservoirs at 27oC and 427oC. Is this claim valid?
A. Yes B. No C. Probably D. None of the above

45
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
47. An Otto cycle has a compression ratio of 8 and a maximum temperature of 627oC. At the beginning of the
compression stroke, the pressure and temperature of the working fluid are 100kPa and 27oC. Based upon
the cold air-standard analysis assumption, how much work is produced per cycle completion?
A. 43.7 KJ/kg B. 85.6 KJ/kg C. 97.4 KJ/kg D. 114.2 KJ/kg
48. A Sterling engine uses an energy source whose temperature is 727oC and energy sink whose temperature
is 27oC. How much heat must be added to the engine to produce 1 unit of work?
A. 1.0 B. 1.19 C. 1.43 D. 2.01
49. A Brayton cycle has a compression ratio of 9. Find the cycle efficiency.
A. 42.62% B. 44.62% C. 46.62% D. 48.62%
50. A Brayton cycle has an initial air temperature of 30oC. If pressure ratio is 12, find the compressor work.
A. 310.28 KJ/kg B. 313.28 KJ/kg C. 316.28 KJ/kg D. 319.28 KJ/kg
51. A Brayton cycle has an initial temperature of 27oC and pressure ratio of 8. If maximum temperature is
1400oC, find the heat added in the combustor.
A. 1109.56 KJ/kg B. 1119.56 KJ/kg C. 1129.56 KJ/kgD. 1139.56 KJ/kg
52. The maximum temperature of Brayton cycle is 1600oC and its pressure ratio is 6. Find the turbine work.
A. 750.44 KJ/kg B. 760.44 KJ/kg C. 770.44 KJ/kg D. 780.44 KJ/kg
53. The compression ratio of Brayton cycle is 10. Find the cycle efficiency.
A. 60.19% B. 56.18% C. 54.18% D. 52.18%
54. The temperature of four corners of Brayton cycle are t1 = 30oC, t2 = 400oC, t3 = 1300oC, t4 = 100oC. Find
the cycle efficiency. A. 56.39% B. 64.34% C. 76.45% D. 92.22%
55. A Brayton cycle has an initial condition of 28oC and maximum temperature of 1450oC. If pressure ratio is
10, find the backwork ratio. A. 0.227 B. 0.337 C. 0.447 D. 0.557
56. A gas turbine on an air standard Brayton cycle has air entering into the compressor at atmospheric
condition and 23oC. The pressure ratio is 10 and the maximum temperature in the cycle is 1000oC.
Compute the cycle efficiency per kg of air in percent.
A. 48.21% B. 31.89% C. 38.23% D. 56.23%
57. Air enter the combustion chamber of a gas turbine unit at 500 Kpa, 227oC and 40 m/s. The products of
combustion leaves the combustor at 598 kpa, 1007oC and 150 m/s. Liquid fuel enters with a heating value
of 43,000 KJ/kg. The combustor efficiency is 92%. What is the air-fuel ratio? Properties of air: At 500oC,
h = 503.02; At 1280oC, h = 1372.25 KJ/kg A. 44.95 B. 43.40 C. 50.05 D. 32.52
58. Air enters the compressor of a gas turbine at 102 kpa and 320oK with a volume flow rate of 6 m3/s. The
compressor pressure ratio is 10 and its isentropic efficiency is 82%. At the inlet to the turbine, the pressure
is 1000 kpa and the temperature is 1450oK. The turbine has isentropic efficiency of 0.87 and the exit
pressure is 102 kpa. On the basis of air standard analysis, what is the thermal efficiency of the cycle in
percent? A. 29.98 B. 30.18 C. 28.97 D. 31.94
59. In a gas turbine unit, air enters the combustion chamber at 550 kpa, 227oC and 43 m/s. The products of
combustion leave the combustor at 511 kpa, 1004oC and 140 m/s. Liquid fuel enters with a heating value of
43,000 KJ/kg. For fuel-air ratio of 0.0229, what is the combustor efficiency of the unit in percent?
Properties of air: At 500oC: h = 503.02 ; At 1280oC: h = 1372.25
A. 64 B. 92 C. 80 D. 102
60. An ideal gas turbine operates with a pressure of 8 and temperature limits of 20oC and 1000oC. The energy
input in the high temperature heat exchanger is 200 KW. Determine the air flow rate in kg/hr.
A. 650 B. 859 C. 970 D. 732

46
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 4

1. At 180oC the entropy of a substance is 5.2 KJ/K, the quality of the substance is:
A. 34.23% B. 68.83% C. 56.34% D. 87.56%
2. A 10 m3 vessel initially contains 5 m3 of liquid water and 5 m3 of saturated water vapor at 100 Kpa.
Calculate the internal energy of the system using the steam tables.
At 100 Kpa: vf = 0.001043 m3/kg, vg = 1.6940 m3/kg, Uf = 417.3 KJ/kg, Ug = 2506 KJ/kg
A. 5 x 106 KJ B. 8 x 105 KJ C. 1 x 106 KJ D. 2 x 106 KJ
3. A vessel with a volume of 1 m3 contains liquid water and vapor in equilibrium at 600 Kpa. The liquid water
has a mass of 1 kg. Using steam tables, calculate the mass of the water vapor.
At 600 Kpa: vf = 0.001101 m3/kg, vg = 0.3157 m3/kg,
A. 0.99 kg B. 1.57 kg C. 2.54 kg D. 3.16 kg
4. A steam has a condition of 2 Mpa and 250oC undergoes constant pressure process until its quality is 50%.
What is the heat rejected by steam?
A. 981.33 KJ/kg B. 1986.23 KJ/kg C. 1046.16 KJ/kg D. 1542.34 KJ/kg
5. Steam with specific volume of 0.09596 m3/kg undergoes a constant pressure process at 1.70 Mpa until its
specific volume 0.13796 m3/kg. What is the work done?
A. 71.4 KJ/kg B. 67.1 KJ/kg C. 82.78 KJ/kg D. 97.23 KJ/kg
6. Steam with an enthalpy of 2843.5 KJ/kg undergoes a constant pressure process at 0.90 Mpa until the
enthalpy becomes 2056.1 KJ/kg. What is the internal energy?
A. -703.2 KJ/kg B. 703.2 KJ/kg C. 564.3 KJ/kg D. 984.4 KJ/kg
7. One kg of steam at 260oC and with enthalpy of 1861 KJ/kg is confined in a rigid container. Heat is applied
until the steam becomes saturated. Determine the heat added.
A. 770 KJ B. 828 KJ C. 790 KJ D. 800 KJ
8. One kilogram of steam at 121oC and 10% moisture undergoes a constant volume process until the pressure
becomes 0.28 Mpa. Determine the final temperature.
A. 200.4oC B. 374.5oC C. 206.5oC D. 873.4oC
9. A tank contains 0.50 m /kg of steam. Heat is transferred at constant volume until the pressure reaches 100
3

kpa. Determine the final steam quality. A. 23.34% B. 45.32% C. 29.47% D. 39.45%
10. There are 2.27 kg/min of steam undergoing an isothermal process from 27.5 bar, 316oC to 6.8 bar.
Determine the change in entropy, KJ/min-K. A. 1.6176 B. 2.1734 C. 3.465 D. 0.204
11. Steam at 200oC and with entropy of 5.6105 KJ/kg-K expands isothermally to 0.515 Mpa. For 5 kg mass,
what is the work done? A. 2119.06 KJ B. 1103.4 KJ C. 1372.4 KJ D. 1408.2 KJ
12. One kg of steam expands isentropically from 2.1 Mpa and 374oC to 93oC. Find the final quality.
A. 76.44% B. 87.34% C. 93.15% D. 98.34%
13. Steam flows isentropically through a nozzle from 1500 kpa, 288oC to 960 kpa. For 0.454 kg/s mass
determine the change in volume. A. 0.031 m3/s B. 0.043 m3/s C. 0.054 m3/s D. 0.076 m3/s
14. A steam turbine receives 0.52 Mpa of steam at 300oC. Then expanded in an irreversible adiabatic process
a pressure of 0.012 Mpa. If the exhaust steam is dry and saturated, calculate the stage efficiency of the
process. A. 67.45% B. 69.50% C. 74.23% D. 87.45%
15. Steam at 1.4 Mpa and 270oC flows steadily through a steam throttle valve that reduces its pressure by 50%.
Find the change in entropy, KJ/kg-K. A. 0.31 B. -0.058 C. 0.63 D. 0.76
16. A steam calorimeter receives steam from a pipe at 0.1 Mpa and 20 oSH. For a pipe steam pressure of 2
Mpa, what is the quality of the steam? A. 88.34% B. 90.34% C. 92.34% D. 95.56%
17. An isobaric steam generating process starts with saturated liquid at 20 psia. The change in entropy is equal
to the initial entropy. What is the change in enthalpy. At 20 psia: (hfg = 960.2 Btu/lb, sf = 0.3359 Btu/lb-R).
A. -230.4 Btu/lb B. -196.2 Btu/lb C. 196.2 Btu/lb D. 230.4 Btu/lb
18. A cylinder and piston arrangement contains saturated water vapor at 110oC. The vapor is compressed in a
reversible adiabatic process until the pressure is 1.6 Mpa. Determine the work done by the steam per
kilogram of water. (Hint: Use steam table to solve this problem)
A. -637 KJ/kg B. -509 KJ/kg C. -432 KJ/kg D. -330 KJ/kg
19. A car with frontal area a = 2 m2, and traveling at 80 km/hr in air at 20 oC is experiencing a drag force of Fd =
0.225Apairv2. How much power in KW is needed in order to maintain its speed?
A. 8.92 B. 3.64 C. 7.81 D. 5.92

47
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 5

1. A steam condenser in a Rankine cycle has an inlet condition of 150 kpa and 90% quality. If the mass of
steam is 2 kg/s, find the gallons per minute of cooling water in the condenser for 12oC rise in temperature.
A. 1093.34 gpm B. 1198.34 gpm C. 1284.56 gpm D. 1274.48 gpm
2. A boiler feed pump operate at 40oC suction. If pump efficiency is 85% and needs 20 kw power of motor
needed to drive the pump, find the maximum pressure of the boiler could attain for a mass of 2 kg/s.
A. 8108.26 kpa B. 8232.34 kpa C. 8441.60 kpa D. 9825.45 kpa
3. A boiler feed is available at 5 Mpa and 200oC. The boiler has a steam generated at 10 kg/s at 5 Mpa and
380oC. Find the developed boiler horsepower of turbine.
A. 1092.45 hp B. 1265.34 hp C. 1573.45 hp D. 2336 hp
4. A Rankine cycle has an output of 5000 kw. The overall efficiency of 65% and factor of evaporation of 1.2.
Find the mass of steam evaporated. A. 982.45 kg/hr B. 10,224.60 kg/hr C. 6171.27 kg/hr D. 8745.23 kg/hr
5. A Rankine cycle has a steam throttle condition of 4 Mpa and 400oC. The turbine exhaust is 1 atm, find the
cycle efficiency. A. 23.23% B. 27.06% C. 34.23% D. 43.23%
6. A Rankine cycle has a turbine work of 600 KJ/kg and efficiency of 88%, pump work is 3 KJ/kg and efficiency
of 75%. If cycle efficiency is 26%, find the heat added to the cycle.
A. 2577.60 KJ/kg B. 2345.19 KJ/kg C. 2015.38 KJ/kgD. 1852.40 KJ/kg
7. A Rankine cycle has an initial mass of liquid flowing at 15 kg at 75oC. If final enthalpy is 1200 KJ/kg, find the
change of enthalpy of the system. A. 655.75 KJ B. 834.34 KJ C. 763.45 KJ D. 885.97 KJ
8. A turbine has an available enthalpy of 3300 KJ/kg in a Rankine cycle. The pump work has also 25 KJ/kg.
For a flow of 3 kg/s, find the system output. A. 5960 kw B. 6080 kw C. 6343 kw D. 9825 kw
9. In a Rankine cycle, the system turbine inlet has a condition of 3126 KJ/kg enthalpy and entropy of 6.68
KJ/kg-K. The quality after expansion is 82% and enthalpy of 2103 KJ/kg with hf = 233 KJ/kg. Find the
efficiency of the cycle. A. 23.45% B. 35.40% C. 30.34% D. 38.44%
10. The available enthalpy of steam at the exit of boiler in a Rankine cycle is 2900 KJ/kg and enthalpy at the
entrance of turbine is 2870 KJ/kg. If mass of steam is 3.5 kg/s, find the heat loss between the boiler exit
and turbine entrance. A. 105 kw B. 30 kw C. 20 kw D. 50 kw
11. In a Rankine cycle steam enters the turbine at 3 Mpa (enthalpies & entropies given) and condenser of 60
Kpa (properties given), what is the thermal efficiency of the cycle?At 3 Mpa: hg = 2804.2 sg = 6.1869
At 60 kpa: hf = 359.86 hfg = 2293.6 sf = 1.1457 sfg = 6.3867 vf = 0.0010331
A. 25.55% B. 45.23% C. 34.23% D. 12.34%
12. A diesel electric plant supplies energy for Meralco. During 24 hrs period, the plant consumed 220 gallons of
fuel at 28oC and product 4,000 kw-hr. Industrial fuel used is 28oAPI and was purchased at P15.50 per liter at
15.6oC. What should be the cost of fuel to be produced per kw-hr?
A. P1.05 B. P2.10 C. P3.20 D. P1.00
13. A 750 bhp diesel engine uses fuel oil of 30oAPI gravity, fuel consumption is 0.75 lb/bhp-hr. Cost of fuel is
P17.95 per liter. For continuous operation, determine the minimum volume of cubical day tank in m3,
ambient temp is 45oC. A. 4.98 B. 6.25 C. 7.135 D. 9.04
14. A diesel power plant uses fuel that has a density of 892.74 kg/m3 at 15.66oC. Find the heating value.
A. 44,690 KJ/kg B. 19,301 Btu/lb C. 43,000 KJ/kg D. 4356.2 KJ/kg
15. A diesel power plant uses fuel with heating value of 45,038.8 KJ/kg. What is the density of fue at 30oC?
A. 0.9 kg/li B. 0.877 kg/li C. 0.850 kg/li D. 0.878 kg/li
16. A diesel engine consumed 940 li of fuel per day at 30oC. If the fuel was purchased at 15oC and 30 oAPI at
P4.00/li, determine the cost of fuel to operate the engine per day.
A. P5,677.50 B. P4677.50 C. P3721.98 D. P5,000.00
17. A cylindrical tank 3 m long and 2 m diameter is used for oil storage. How many days can the tank supply
the engine having 27oAPI with fuel consumption of 65 kg/hr? A. 5.84 B. 5.39 C. 7.83 D. 7.39
18. The specific gravity of fuel oil having a heating value of 44,899.2 KJ/kg is:
A. 0.90 B. 0.80 C. 0.877 D. 0.893
19. Steam flows into a turbine at a rate of 10 kg/s, and 10 kilowatts of heat are lost from the turbine. Ignoring
elevation and kinetic energy effects, calculate the power output of the turbine. Inlet conditions are 2.0 Mpa
and 350oC (h = 3137 KJ/kg) and 0.10 Mpa & 100% quality (h = 2675.5 KJ/kg).
A. 4000 KW B. 4375 KW C. 4605 KW D. 4973 KW

48
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 6

1. A fuel is represented with C5 H8 is burned with 40% excess air. If mass of fuel is 0.17 kg, find the mass of
air needed.
A. 3.38 kg B. 1.638 kg C. 2.34 kg D. 5.34 kg
2. The analysis of a product of combustion on dry basis, when C6 H18 was burned with atmospheric air, is as
follows: CO2 = 12%, CO = 1.75%, O2 = 3.01%, N2 = 83.24%. Compute the actual air-fuel ratio. A. 12.34
B. 15.29 C. 17.35 D. 14.73
3. A boiler burns fuel oil with 15% excess air. The fuel may be represented by C14 H30. Calculate the molal
air-fuel ratio.
A. 14 B. 117.69 C. 102.34 D. 17.14
4. Given the following ultimate analysis: C = 71%, N2 = 4%, H2 = 4%, O2 = 3%, S2 = 5%, Ash = 6%,
Moisture = 8%. Using 20% excess air, determine the actual air-fuel ratio.
A. 11.56 B. 11.21 C. 21.21 D. 9.22
5. A certain coal has the following ultimate analysis C = 70%, N2 = 4%, H2 = 2.5%, O2 = 3.5%, S2 = 7%,
Ash = 5%, Moisture = ? Determine the heating value of fuel in Btu/lb.
A. 27,299.65 B. 11,735.35 C. 26,961.45 D. 27,320
6. A fuel gas has the following volumetric analysis: CH4 = 68% C2H6 = 32% Assume complete combustion
with 15% excess air at 101.325 Kpa, 21oC wet bulb and 27oC dry bulb. What is the partial pressure of water
vapor in Kpa?
A. 9.62 B. 12.81 C. 17.28 D. 15.94
7. There are 23 kg of flue gases formed per kg of fuel oil burned in the combustion of a fuel oil C12 H26. What is
the excess air in percent?
A. 46.67 B. 26.67 C. 36.67 D. 45.66
8. By how much is the change of volume of the products of combustion of benzene (C6H6) with theoretical
air? Both volumes of reactants and products are taken at the same pressure and temperature.
A. 1.3% increase B. 1.3% decrease C. no change D. 9.2% increase
9. Calculate the amount of air in kg necessary for combustion of 1 kg of octane (C8H18) with theoretical air.
A. 12.5 B. 14.8 C. 15.1 D. 13.5
10. Calculate the mass in kg of the combustion products of 12 kg diesel fuel oil (C16H30) with 30% excess air.
A. 185.2 B. 284.6 C. 208.7 D. 235.44
11. Five kg-mol of octane are burned with stiochiometric amount of air. How much water is formed in the
products if the combustion is complete?
A. 15 kg-mol B. 25 kg-mol C. 35 kg-mol D. 45 kg-mol
12. Methyl alcohol (CH3OH) is burned with 30% excess air. How much unburned oxygen in kg-mol-oxygen/kg-
mol-fuel will there be in the products if the combustion is compete?
A. 0.35 B. 0.45 C. 0.55 D. 0.65
13. Dodecane (C12H26) is burned at constant pressure with 150% excess air. What is the air-fuel for this
process?
A. 37.5 B. 42.3 C. 48.7 D. 51.3
14. A complete combustion of one kilogram of C16H32 resulted to 20 kilograms of products of combustion.
Calculate the percent excess air.
A. 29.16 B. 40.5 C. 35.4 D. 55.6
15. Calculate the heating value of coal having the following composition by weight using Dulong formula.
Carbon 75%, hydrogen 5%, oxygen 6%, nitrogen 1.5%, sulfur 3%, water 1.5%, ash 8%
A. 150,450 Btu/lb B. 13,658 Btu/lb C. 12,640 Btu/lb D. 14,580 Btu/lb
SITUATIONAL PROBLEM
A central station has annual factors as follows:
Load factor = 58.50% Capacity factor = 40.95% Use factor = 45.20%
The reserve carried over and above the peak load is 8900 kw. Find the following
16. Installed capacity.
A. 59,600 kw B. 49,600 kw C. 39,600 kw D. 29,667 kw
17. Annual energy production:
A. 106 x 106 kw-hrs B. 206 x 106 kw-hrs C. 306 x 106 kw-hrs D. 406 x 106 kw-hrs
18. Hours per year not in service.
A. 880 hrs. B. 823 hrs. C. 800 hrs. D. 750 hrs.
19 A water tube boiler has a heating surface area of 500 m2. For a developed boiler hp of 933. Determine the
percent rating of the boiler.
A. 169.81% B. 150.17% C. 160.17% D. 180.17%
20 The factor of evaporation of the boiler is 1.12 and a steam rate of 0.73 kg/s. What is the developed boiler
hp?
A. 1.98 hp B. 188.074 hp C. 1.88 hp D. 198.2 hp

49
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
21. The percent rating of water tube boiler is 200%, factor of evaporation is 1.1 and heating surface are is 300
m2. Find the rate of evaporation.
A. 8,153.02 kg/hr B. 8513.02 kg/hr C. 9,380.61 kg/hr D. 9830.61 kg/hr
22. The actual specific evaporation of a certain boiler is 8. Factor of evaporation is 1.15. If the heating value is
26,000 KJ/kg. Find the boiler efficiency.
A. 79% B. 78.11% C. 76.39% D. 80.00%
23. The ASME evaporation units of a boiler is 24,827,500 KJ/hr. The boiler auxiliaries consumes 2.5 MW.
What is the net boiler efficiency if the heat generated by fuel is 32,000,000 KJ/hr.
A. 49.46% B. 59.40% C. 64.75% D. 60.10%
24. A 150,000 kg of coal supplied to two boiler. One has a capacity of 350 kg/hr and the other boiler has a
capacity of 100 kg/hr. How many days to consume the available fuel?
A. 15 B. 14 C. 51 D. 13
25. A boiler operates at 82.5% efficiency while the mass of steam generated is 995,000lbs in 5 hrs. The
enthalpy of steam is 1400 Btu/lb and feed is 250 Btu/lb while the fuel used for boiler has a heating value of
14,850 Btu/lb. Find the mass of fuel needed in short tons per day.
A. 10.78 B. 98.34 C. 224.16 D. 313.45
26. A coal-fired power plant has a turbine-generator rated at 1200 MW gross. The plant required about 10% of
this power for its internal operations. It uses 10,000 tons of coal per day. The coal has a heating value of
6,500 Kcal/kg and the steam generator efficiency is 85%. What is the net station efficiency of the plant in
percent?
A. 30% B. 25% C. 33% D. 38%
27. Two boilers are operating steadily on 94,000 kg of coal contained in a bunker. One boiler producing 1600
kg/hr of steam at 1.2 factor of evaporation and an efficiency of 65% and another boiler produces 1464 kg/hr
of steam at 1.15 factor of evaporation and efficiency of 60%. How many hours will the coal in the bunker
run the boilers if the heating value is 7,600 Kcal/kg?
A. 240.4 B. 220.5 C. 230.09 D. 225.3
28. A typical steam generator with an efficiency of 75% is producing 10 kg/sec of steam. The enthalpy of the
entering water is 125.79 KJ/kg and is superheated to an enthalpy of 3034.8 KJ/kg. The fuel used has s
heating value of 42150 KJ/kg. The A/F ratio by weight is 14. Determine the amount of air needed in kg/hr.
A. 38371 B. 48378 C. 56873 D. 46378
29. A steam generator evaporated 20,000 kg of water per hour from feed water with enthalpy of 461.3 kJ/kg of
steam with enthalpy of 2706.3 kJ/kg. Coal consumption is 2100 kg/hr. Its heating value as fired is 28,300
kJ/kg. Calculate the Boiler Horsepower. A. 1271 B. 1352 C. 1586 D. 1873
30. A diesel power plant consumes 650 li of fuel at 26oC in 24 hrs with 28oAPI. Find the fuel rate in kg/hr.
A. 23.83 B. 24.85 C. 22.85 D. 26.85
31. The following data were obtained in a small power generating plant:
Power developed by the steam turbine = 2800 KW
Heat supplied to the steam turbine generator = 3500 KJ/kg
Heat rejected by the steam to the cooling water in the condenser = 2200 KJ/kg
Power required by the feedwater pump to return the condensate to the steam generator = 12 KW
Determine the mass flow rate of steam in kg/sec.
A. 1.685 B. 2.537 C. 3.082 D. 2.145
32. A simple Rankine cycle produces 40 MW of power, 50 MW of process heated and rejects 60MW of heat to
the surroundings. What is the utilization factor of this cogeneration cycle neglecting the pump work?
A. 50% B. 60% C. 70% D. 80%

50
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 7

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. A steam engine develops 60 Bhp with saturated steam at 1034.25 Kpa absolute and exhaust at 124.11
Kpa. Steam consumption is 736.36 kg/hr. Calculate the indicated engine efficiency based on 90%
mechanical efficiency.
A. 69.74% B. 67.74% C. 66.74% D. 68.74%
2. The crank of a double acting steam engine rotates at 220 rpm. The bore and stroke of the steam engine is
300 mm x 470 mm, and the mean effective pressure acting upon the piston is 4.5 kg/cm2. Find the indicated
horsepower developed in the cylinder.
A. 144.14 KW B. 144.14 hp C. 150.14 hp D. 153.51 KW
3. Steam enters a steam engine at 2 Mpa and 230oC and exit at 0.1 Mpa. Steam consumption is 1500 kg/hr.
Determine the equivalent Rankine efficiency.
A. 31.22% B. 21.22% C. 33% D. 22.12%
4. The indicated efficiency of a steam engine is 65%. The engine entrance is 2600 KJ/kg and exit is 2100
KJ/kg. if steam consumption is 3000 kg/hr and mechanical efficiency is 90%, what is the brake power of the
engine? A. 55 KW B. 84 KW C. 243.75 KW D. 70 KW
5. A steam engine 18” x 24” runs at 250 rpm. The diameter of piston rod is 3.5 in. The indicator card is 3.5 in
long and the area of the head end is 1.96 sq. in. Area of the crank end card is 1.86 sq. in. Spring scale is
800 lb. In the test, a prony brake with 10 ft lever arm registered an average load on the scale of 100 psi/in.
What is the mechanical efficiency of the engine?
A. 86.50% B. 88.00% C. 92.20% D. 84.10%
6. A steam engine has 10% brake thermal efficiency and consumes 750 kg/hr steam. The enthalpy of steam
at the entrance and exit of the engine are 2800 and 450 KJ/kg respectively. Determine the brake power of
the engine in KW. A. 87 B. 76 C. 49 D. 35
7. Available enthalpy of turbine is ∆h = 1200 KJ/kg, turbine efficiency is 75%, full load capacity is 4,300 kw.
Find the full load steam consumption in kg/kw-hr.
A. 2.34 B. 4.51 C. 4.0 D. 7.45
8. A steam condenser receives 12 kg/s of steam with an enthalpy of 2670 KJ/kg. Steam condenses into a
liquid and leaves with an enthalpy of 260 KJ/kg. Cooling water passes through the condenser with
temperature increases from 13 degrees C to 28oC. Calculate the water flow rate in kg/s.
A. 533 B. 518 C. 460.50 D. 528
9. Steam expands adiabatically in a turbine from 2500 kpa, 400oC to 350 kpa, 240oC. What is the
effectiveness of the process in percent assuming an atmospheric pressure of 15oC. Neglect changes in
kinetic and potential energy. Steam Properties are: At 2500 Kpa and 400oC: h = 3239.3 s = 7.0148
At 350 Kpa and 240oC: h = 2945.8 s = 7.4174
A. 61 B. 72 C. 80 D. 86
10. A heat exchanger was installed purposely to cool 0.80 kg of gas per second. Molecular weight is 28 and
k = 1.32. The gas is cooled from 150 oC to 70oC. Water is available at the rate of 0.50 kg/s and at a
temperature of 14oC. Calculate the exit temperature of the water in oC.
A. 48 B. 42 C. 46 D. 51.44
11. A steam turbine with 90% stage efficiency receives steam at 5 Mpa and 550C and exhausts as 50 Kpa.
Determine the turbine work. At 5 Mpa and 550C: h1 = 3550.3 s1 = 7.1218
At 50 Kpa: hf = 340.49 hfg = 2305.4 sf = 1.091 sfg = 6.5029
A. 117 KJ/kg B. 132 KJ/kg C. 964.60 KJ/kg D. 143 KJ/kg
12. A steam turbine with 92% stage efficiency receives steam at 7 Mpa and 550oC and exhausts as 20 Kpa.
Determine the actual exhaust enthalpy.
A. 2413.89 KJ/kg B. 2389.07 KJ/kg C. 2341.9 KJ/kg D. 2541.9 KJ/kg
13. A steam turbine of 6 MW capacity has a Willan’s line equation of ms = 5.5L + 3,200 kg/hr. Determine the
steam consumption at 73% load, kg/hr.
A. 27,290 B. 26,100 C. 30,000 D. 28,920
14. A 18,000 KW geothermal plant has a generator efficiency and turbine efficiency of 90% and 80%,
respectively. If the quality after throttling is 16% and each well discharges 220,000 kg/hr, determine the
number of wells are required to produce if the change of enthalpy at entrance and exit of turbine is 500
KJ/kg.
A. 4 wells B. 5 wells C. 6 wells D. 8 wells
15. In a 10 MW geothermal power plant, the mass flow of steam entering the turbine is 20 kg/sec. The quality
after throttling is 25% and enthalpy of ground water is 750 KJ/kg. Determine the overall efficiency of the

51
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
plant.
A. 7.4% B. 9.6% C. 16.67% D. 15.4%
16. A liquid dominated geothermal plant with a single flash separator receives water at 204C. The separator
pressure is 1.04 Mpa. A direct contact condenser operates at 0.034 Mpa. The turbine has a polytropic
efficiency of 0.85. For a cycle output of 40 MW, what is the mass flow rate of the well-water in kg/s?
At 204C: hf = 870.51 KJ/kg
At 1.04 Mpa: hf = 770.38 hfg = 2009.2 hg = 2779.6 sg = 6.5729
At 0.034 Mpa: hf = 301.40 hfg = 2328.8 sf = 0.9793 sfg = 6.7463
A. 2871 B. 2100 C. 1725.31 D. 2444
17. Ground water in a Geothermal Plant has a ground water flow of 46 kg/s. If the quality of hot water entering
the flash tank is 12%, find the mass of steam entering the turbine.
A. 5.52 kg/s B. 2.54 kg/s C. 3.40 kg/s D. 4.80 kg/s
18. In a 13 MW geothermal power plant, the mass flow of steam entering the turbine is 27 kg/s. The quality
after throttling is 23% and enthalpy of ground water is 730 KJ/kg. Determine the overall efficiency of the
plant.
A. 15.72% B. 15.49% C. 15.17% D. 15.38%
19. Steam in a Rankine cycle is expanded from a 200 psia saturated vapor state to 20 psia. The turbine has an
efficiency of 0.8. What is the actual enthalpy after expansion.
At 200 psia (saturated vapor): h = 1199.3 Btu/lb, s = 1.5466 Btu/lb-R
At 20 psia: sf = 0.3359 Btu/lb-R, sfg = 1.3963 Btu/lb-R, hf = 196.2 Btu/lb, hfg = 960.2 Btu/lb
A. 960.2 Btu/lb B. 986.1 Btu/lb C. 1028.7 Btu/lb D. 1062.8 Btu/lb
20. A 150 MW turbo-generator requires 700,000 kg of steam per hour at rated load and 22,000 kg per hour at
zero load. Calculate the steam rate in kg/KW-hour at 75% of its rated load.
A. 5.83 B. 4.72 C. 3.54 D. 6.32
21. A 10 MW steam turbine-generator power plant has a full load steam rate of 5.5 kg/KW-hr. No load steam
consumption is around 10% of the full load steam consumption. Calculate the hourly steam consumption at
half load in kg/hr.
A. 30250 B. 29830 C. 32510 D. 31820
22. A 5-MW steam turbine generator power plant has a full-load steam rate of 6.0 kg/KW-hr. Assuming no-load
consumption at 10% of the full-load. Compute the hourly steam consumption at 60% load in kg/hr.
A. 14500 B. 19200 C. 26500 D. 35600

52
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 8

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. During the dynamometer test of an engine for 1 hr steady load, the engine consumes 40 kg fuel having
43,300 KJ/kg heating value. If the torque developed is 2.5 KN-m during the test at 600 rpm, what is the
efficiency of the engine?
A. 31.22% B. 32.65% C. 55.77% D. 25.99%
2. A 4-stroke Gasoline engine has a bore and stroke of 400 mm x 450 mm running at 750 rpm. If the
clearance volume is 0.0527 m3/s, calculate the engine efficiency.
A. 55.82% B. 65.82% C. 35.82% D. 45.82%
3. A 3 MW diesel engine consumes 240 li of 25oAPI fuel and generates 900 KW-hr. Determine the rate of fuel
consumed by the engine.
A. 0.2 kg/s B. 0.4 kg/s C. 0.6 kg/s D. 0.8 kg/s
4. A 20 cm x 35 cm diesel engine with 4 cylinders and operating on a four stroke, has a rated power of 160 kw
and is running at 250 rpm. Find the volume displacement per brake power developed.
A. 0.9 m3/min-kw B. 0.1 m3/min-kw C. 0.06 m3/min-kw D. 0.0344 m3/min-kw
5. An engine has a power output of 8.5 hp with 70% efficiency. What will be the kw/hp? Registered to the
meter?
A. 1 B. 2 C. 41.33% D. 4
6. A 2500 KW diesel engine unit uses 1 bbl oil per 550 KWH produced. Oil is 25API. Efficiency of generator
90%, mechanical efficiency of engine 83%. What is the thermal efficiency of engine based on indicated
power(%)?
A. 31.69 B. 41.33 C. 39.60 D. 35.60
7. A single-acting, four-cylinder, 4 stroke cycle diesel engine with a bore x stroke of 22 x 28 cm, operating at
375 rpm, consumes 9 kg/h of fuel whose heating value is 43,900 KJ/kg. The indicated mean effective
pressure is 500 Kpa. The load on the brake arm, which is 100 cm is 115 kg. What is the brake mean
effective pressure in Kpa?
A. 415.20 B. 332.98 C. 319.95 D. 645.33
8. In a double acting, 2 stroke compression ignition engine, 12-cylinder, the diameter of the cylinder is 750
mm, stroke is 1450 mm and the piston rod diameter is 240 mm. When running at 120 rpm, the indicated
mean effective pressure above and below the pistons are 6 bar and 5 bar respectively. Calculate the brake
power of the engine with a mechanical efficiency of 80% in kilowatts.
A. 6050 B. 6030 C. 12,900 D. 8375
9. Determine the output power (KW) of a diesel power plant if the engine and generator efficiency is 80% and
96%, respectively. The engine uses 250API fuel and has a fuel consumption of 0.08 kg/s.
A. 2741.45 B. 2815 C. 1096.6 D. 9758.6
10. A four-cylinder four-stroke Diesel engine with 20 cm bore and 25 cm stroke running at 1000 rpm has a
reading of 350 kpa mean effective pressure in the indicator diagram. Calculate the indicated power
generated in KW. A. 183.26 B. 114.54 C. 229.1 D. 91.63
11. A prony brake for m
easuring the power generated of a six-cylinder, two-stroke Diesel engine running at
2000 rpm indicates a reading of 180 N. The length of the arm of the prony brake is a 1.25 m. In an hour
operation it consumes 14 kg of fuel with a heating value of 53,000 KJ/kg. Determine the brake thermal
efficiency.
A. 0.2391 B. 0.2857 C. 0.2583 D. 0.2286
12. The following data are the results on a test of an Otto cycle engine torque = 1200 N-m; indicated mean
effective pressure = 800 kPa, fuel consumption = 0.004 kg/sec; fuel heating value = 43,816 KJ/kg;
bore x stroke = 30 cm x 32cm; speed = 300 rpm. Calculate the brake mean effective pressure.
A. 253 B. 333 C. 393` D. 287
13. A Diesel engine consumed 400 liters of fuel having a density of 860 gms/liter and a heating value of 42500
KJ/kg. If the thermal efficiency is 35%, how many hp-hrs will be generated?
A. 1678 B. 2152 C. 1812 D. 1905
14. Determine the brake power of an engine having a brake thermal efficiency of 35% and uses 25oAPI fuel with
fuel consumption of 40 kg/hr.
A. 165.84 KW B. 173.52 KW C. 133.54 KW D. 60.67 KW
15. A diesel engine develops a torque of 5 KN-m at 1800 rpm. If the brake thermal efficiency is 31%, find the
heat generated by fuel.
A. 3050 KW B. 3040.25 KW C. 3000.25 KW D. 5000 KW

53
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
16. A 500 KW diesel engine operates at 101.3 Kpa and 27oC in Manila. If the engine will operates in Baguio
having 93 Kpa and 23oC, what new brake power developed if mechanical efficiency is 85%?
A. 600 kw B. 754 KW C. 459 KW D. 971 KW
17. A 50 Bhp blast furnace engine uses fuel with 10 ft3/Bhp-hr. The heating value of the gas is 33,700 KJ/m3.
Determine the brake thermal efficiency.
A. 28.15 % B. 56% C. 28.34% D. 25.24%
18. During the dynamometer test of an engine for 1 hr steady load, the engine consumes 40kg fuel having
44,000 KJ/kg heating value. If the torque developed is 2.5 KN-m during the test at 600 rpm, what is the
brake thermal efficiency?
A. 30.11% B. 32.13% C. 34.556% D. 23.45%
19. Find the power which a 2.81MW natural gas engine can developed at an altitude of 1981.2 m taking into
consideration the pressure change alone.
A. 1.975 MW B. 2.199 MW C. 1.769MW D. 1.997MW
20. A waste heat recovery boiler produces 4.8 Mpa ( dry saturated ) steam from 1040C feedwater. The boiler
receives energy from 6 kg/s of 9540C dry air. After passing through a waste heat boiler, the temperature of
air is has been reduced to 3430C. How much steam in kg/s produced? Note: At 4.80 Mpa dry saturated,
h= 2796. A. 1.89 B. 1.3 C. 1.55 D. 2.55
21. A water brake coupled to an engine on test absorbs 90 kw of power. Find the mass flow of fresh water
through the brake, in kg/min if the temperature increases of the water is 12oC. Assume all the heat
generated is carried away by the cooling water.
A. 107.50 kg/min B. 110 kg/min C. 100 kg/min D. 128 kg/min
22. A 350 hp diesel engine has a cooling water that enters at 100oF and leaves at 180oF with cp = 4.19 KJ/kg-K.
Find the gallons per minute of water required.
A. 10.23 B. 19.61 C. 14.56 D. 16.5
23. A 310 mm x 460 mm four stroke single acting diesel engine is rated at 170 KW at 280 rpm. Fuel
consumption at rated load is 0.28 kg/KW-hr with a heating value of 43,912 KJ/kg. Calculate brake thermal
efficiency. A. 31.53% B. 27.45% C. 29.28% D. 54.23%
24. A six cylinder, four stroke diesel engine with 76 mm bore x 89 mm stroke was run in the laboratory at 1800
rpm, when it was found that the engine torque was 163.5 N-m with all cylinders firing but 133 N-m when one
cylinder was out. The engine consumed 12.5 kg of fuel per hour with a heating value of 52,120 KJ/kg and
252 kg of air at 15.6oC per hour. Determine the indicated power.
A. 32.1 kw B. 38.4 kw C. 34.5 kw D. 48.3 kw
25. A car engine produces an average of 25 KW of power in a period of 10-min during which 1.25 kg of
gasoline is consumed. If the heating value of gasoline is 43000 KJ/kg, the efficiency of this engine during
this period is: A. 24% B. 28% C. 32% D. 36%
26. A 4 liter ( 2-liter per revolution at standard pressure and temperature) spark ignition engine has a
compression ratio of 8 and 2000 KJ/kg heat addition by the fluid combustion. Considering a cold air-
standard Otto cycle model, how much power will the engine produce when operating at 2500 rpm?
A. 50.2 hp B. 73.1 hp C. 97.4 hp D. 151.39 hp
27. A pure Diesel cycle operates with a compression ratio of 15, and a cut-off ratio of 2.5. what is the rate of
heat input in KJ/sec required for this cycle to produce 300 hp?
A. 227 B. 386 C. 438 D. 556
28. A 15.24 cm x 22.86 cm single acting, 8 cylinder, 4 stroke diesel engine operates at 1200 rpm. The load on
the brake arm is 101.6 cm length is 120 kg. What is the brake mean effective pressure in kPa?
A. 451 kPa B. 500 C. 625 D. 354
29. A gasoline engine generates 250 kw while consuming 0.018 kg/sec of fuel. The friction power is 25 kw.
The higher heating value of fuel is 44,000 kJ/kg. Calculate the indicated thermal efficiency.
A. 0.372 B. 0.333 C. 0.347 D. 0.316
30. Calculate the volumetric efficiency of a tour stroke six-cylinder car engine of 8.5 cm bore and 9.5 cm stroke
running at 2000 rpm with 2.0 m3/min of entering air.
A. 0.71 B. 0.75 C. 0.55 D. 0.62

54
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 9

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. In a hydroelectric power plant the tailwater level fixes at 480m. The net head is 27 m and head loss is 5% of
the gross head. What is the head water elevation?
A. 508.97 m B. 456.7 m C. 508.421 D. 903.9 m
2. For a proposed hydroelectric plant, the tailwater and the head water elevation is 160m and 195 m,
respectively. If the available flow is 10m3/s and head loss of 4% of available head. What is the water power?
A. 3261.825 KW B. 3678.2 KW C. 3296.16 KW D. 2425.78 KW
3. In a hydroelectric plant the brake power is 1,850 KW running at 450rpm and net head of 30m. Determine
the specific speed of the turbine.
A. 90.17 rpm B. 65.65 rpm C. 72.41 rpm D. 76.87 rpm
4. In a Francis turbine, the pressure gage leading to the turbine casing reads 400 kPa and center of spiral
casing is 3m above the tail race. If the velocity of water entering the turbine is 8m/s, what is the net head of
the turbine?
A. 45 m B. 65 m C. 54 m D. 47 m
5. From a height of 65m, water flows at the rate of 0.85 m3/s and driving a water turbine connected to an
electric generator revolving at 170 rpm. Calculate the power developed by the turbine in KW if the total
resisting torque due to friction is 540 N-m and the velocity of the water leaving the turbine blades is 4.75 m/s.
A. 623.34 B. 656.89 C. 522.8 D. 541.98
6. A pelton type turbine was installed 31m below the head gate of the penstock. The head loss due to friction
is 15% of the given elevation. The length of the penstock is 80 m and the coefficient of friction is 0.00093
(Morse). Determine the diameter in meters of the penstock and the power output in KW.
A. 0.422, 820.50 B. 2.457; 12,345.7 C. 1.899; 2,348.20 D. 1.686; 13,128.05
7. At a proposed hydroelectric plant site, the average elevation of headwater is 600 m, the tailwater elevation
is 480m. The average annual water flow is determined to be equal to that volume flowing through a
rectangular channel 4m wide and 0.5 m deep and average velocity of 5.5m/s. Assuming the plant will
operate 350 days/year, find the energy Kwh that the plant site can developed if the hydraulic turbine that will
be used has an efficiency of 78% and generator efficiency of 90%. Consider a headwork loss of 4% of the
available head.
A. 76,876,852 B. 76,900,353 C. 78,987,567 D. 73,304,488
8. A running at 400 rpm has a specific speed of 60 rpm and head available is 41 m. If the rating of each
turbine installed is 100 kw, how many turbines must be used?
A. 2 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7
9. The available flow of water is 25 m3/s at 39 m elevation. If a hydroelectric plant is to be installed with
turbine efficiency of 0.86 and generator efficiency of 92%, what maximum power that the plant could
generate?
A. 7567.63 kw B. 8520.3 kw C. 6520.30 kw D. 6545.90 kw
10. The difference between the head race and the tail race of a hydro-electric plant is 190 m. The friction loss
through the penstock is equivalent to 8 m. Water flow at the rate of 2.5 m3/sec. Power loss due to friction in
the turbine is 65 kw and the leakage loss is 0.02 m3/sec. Determine the electrical power generated in kw if
the generator efficiency is 96%.
A. 5052 B. 4188 C. 4631 D. 3942
11. A 40-m wide and 5-m deep river lows at the rate of 1.5 m/sec. A hydroplant installed nearby develops a
gage pressure of 320 kPa at the turbine entrance. Calculate the maximum power available in MW.
A. 98 B. 84 C. 96 D. 90
12. The specific speed of turbine is 75 rpm and running at 450 rpm. If the head is 28 m and generator
efficiency is 96%, what is the maximum power delivered by the generator.
A. 1610 kw B. 650.5 kw C. 750 kw D. 853 kw
13. For a generator running at 5 rps and 60 hz, find the number of generator poles.
A. 18 poles B. 8 poles C. 24 poles D. 20 poles
14. In Francis turbine, the pressure gage leading to the turbine casing reads 385 kpa and center of spiral casing
is 3.5 m above the tailrace. If the velocity of water entering the turbine is 9 m/s, what is the net head of the
turbine?
A. 45 m B. 46 m C. 47 m D. 48 m
15. A Pelton type turbine has 30 m head friction loss of 5.0 m. The coefficient of friction head loss (from
Morse) is 0.00093 and penstock length of 85 m. What is the penstock diameter?
A. 1.52m B. 1.69 m C. 1.58 m D. 1.89 m
16. From a height of 70 m water flows at the rate of 0.85 m3/s and is driving a turbine connected to 160 rpm

55
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
generator. If frictional torque is 545 N-m, calculate the turbine brake power.
A. 532.95 kw B. 574.563 kw C. 560.74 kw D. 579.48 kw
17. A boiler uses 2400 kg of coal per hour and air required for combustion is 15 kg per kg coal. If ash loss is
10%, determine the mass of gas entering the chimney.
A. 42,250 kg/hr B. 38,160 kg/hr C. 40,250 kg/hr D. 37,200 kg/hr
18. The gas density of chimney is o.75 kg/m3 and air density of 1.167 kg/m3 . If the driving pressure is 0.26
kpa, determine the height of the chimney.
A. 65.71 m B. 63.56 m C. 64.63 m D. 87.2 m
19. The actual velocity of gas entering in a chimney is 5 m/s . The gas temperature is 25oC and pressure of 97
kpa with a gas constant of 0.287 kJ/kg-k. Determine the chimney diameter if mass of gas is 53,000 kg/hr.
A. 1.82 m B. 1.37 m C. 1.58 m D. 1.92 m
20. A coal fired steam boiler uses 3,000 kg of coal per hour. Air required for combustion is 15.5 kg/kg of coal at
barometric pressure of 98.2 kpa. The flue gas has temperature of 285oC and an average molecular weight
of 30. Assuming an ash loss of 11% and allowable gas velocity of 8.5 m/s, find the diameter of chimney.
A. 1.794 m B. 1.91 m C. 2.3 m D. 1.81 m
21. A steam generator with economizer and air heater has an overall draft loss of 22.17 cm of water. If the
stack gases are at 177oC and if the atmosphere is at 101.3 kpa and 26oC, what theoretical height of stack
in meters is needed when no draft fan are used? Assume that the gas constant for the flue gases is the
same as that for air.
A. 560 m B. 550 m C. 589 m D. 540 m
22. A power plant situated at an altitude having an ambient air of 96 kpa and 24oC . Flue gases at a rate of 5.0
kg/sec enter the stack at 200oC and leaves at 160oC . The flue gases gravimetric analysis are 18% CO2
, 7% O2 and 75% N2 . Calculate the height of stack necessary for a driving pressure of 0.20 kpa.
A. 57.33 m B. 52.42 m C. 59.2 m D. 50.2 m
23. A boiler uses 2500 kg of coal per hour. The amount of air needed for the combustion of one kg of coal is
16 kg. If ash loss is 10%, calculate the mass of gas entering the chimney.
A. 42250 B. 50300 C.35600 D. 48950
24. A hydro-electric power plant consumes 52,650,000 KW-hrs per annum. Expected flow is 1665 m3/min and
overall efficiency is 65%. What is the net head in meters?
A. 52 B. 35 C. 74 D. 34
25. A hydroelectric power has the following data: catchment area -- 120 sq km, average annual rain fall -- 135
cm, run off – 85% , available head – 350 m, overall station efficiency – 85%. Calculate the power that it can
develop in kw.
A. 12,743 B. 10,641 C. 11,435 D. 13,502

56
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 10

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

MULTIPLE CHOICE:
1. What is the required base area (ft2) of the foundation to support an engine with specific speed of 1200 rpm,
and weight of 11000 kg, assume bearing capacity of soil as 48 kpa. Use e = 0.12.
A. 11.6 B. 131.2 C. 124.803 D. 126.8
2. Determine the required speed of an engine having a weight and foundation area to be 23,750 lbs and 150
ft2, respectively. Assume a soil bearing capacity as 0.45 kg/cm2. Use e = 0.11.
A. 1500 rpm B. 1520 rpm C. 1820 rpm D. 1920 rpm
3. The heat transfer across a 5” wall of firebrick is 500 W/m2. If the surface temperature on cold side is 30oC
and thermal conductivity of brick is 0.7 Btu/hr-ft-oF, find the temperature on hot side.
A. 82.41oC B. 65.37oC C. 73.45oC D. 87.25oC
4. Two walls of a storage plant composed of insulating material (k = 0.25 KJ/hr-m-oC) with 15 cm thick and
concrete (k = 3.2382 KJ/hr-m-oC) with 10 cm thick. The surface temperature on hot side is 35oC and cold
side is -10oC. If the area is 8 m square, find the temperature between walls. Note: Insulating material is on
cold side.
A. 28.34oC B. 34.12oC C. 32.79oC D. -7.78oC
5. Determine the thermal conductivity of a material that is used a 4 m2 test panel, 25 mm thick with a
temperature difference of 20oF between surfaces. During the 4 hrs of test period, the heat transmitted is 500
KJ.
A. 0.0432 W/m-oC B. 0.0723 W/m-oC C. 0.0321 W/m-oC D. 0.0195 W/m-oC
6. Steam initially is saturated at 250 C passed through a 12 cm steel pipe for a total distance of 200 m. The
o

steam line is insulated with material having k = 10 W/m2-K and thickness of 6 cm. The ambient temperature
of 25oC. Determine the surface film conductance of air if the moisture at the discharge end is 10% and
steam rate is 0.13 kg/s.
A. 0.124 W/m2-oC B. 0.872 W/m2-oC C. 0.661 W/m2-oC D. 0.452 W/m2-oC
7. At an average temperature of 110 C, hot air flows through a 5 m pipe with outside diameter of 80 mm and
o

pipe thickness is 1 cm. The temperature of the tube along its entire length is 24oC. If heat transfer is 650 W,
find the convective film coefficient, W/m2-oC .
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
8. A tank contains liquid nitrogen at -190oC is suspended in a vacuum shell by three stainless steel rods 0.80
cm in diameter and 3 meters long with a thermal conductivity of 16.3 W/m-oC. If the ambient air outside the
vacuum shell is 25oC, calculate the magnitude of the conductive heat flow in watts along the support rods.
A. 0.143 B. 0.0587 C. 0.182 D. 0.176
9. The volume of concrete needed for the foundation of an engine is 12 cubic meters. The concrete mixture is
1:3:5 by volume. Calculate the number of 40 kg-bags of cement needed considering the density of cement
as 1500 kg/m3.
A. 60 B. 55 C. 45 D. 50
10. A composite furnace is to be constructed. The inside wall temperature is 1300oC while the outside wall
temperature is 40oC. Three types of bricks are available with the following properties:
Brick Thermal Thickness Maximum allowable
Conductivity temperature
(W/moK) (meters) (oC)
A 1.5 0.12 2000
B 0.2 0.070 1000
C 0.7 0.10 500
The heat loss must not exceed 800W/m2. Calculate the minimum wall thickness in meters.
A. 0.76 B. 0.88 C. 0.82 D. 0.77
11. The surface of a furnace wall is at a temperature of 1350oC. The outside wall temperature is 42oC. The
furnace wall is made of 25 cm of refractory material having a thermal conductivity of 1.4 W/moK. The
outside wall is steel, 1 cm thick with thermal conductivity of 47 W/moK. Calculate the thickness in meters of
brick to be installed in between the refractory material and steel if its thermal conductivity is 0.28 W/moK and
the heat loss is not to exceed 750 W/m2.
A. 0.438 B. 0.402 C. 0.481 D. 0.513
12. A counterflow heat exchanger is designed to cool 0.65 kg/sec of oil with specific heat Cp = 3.4 KJ/kgoK from
150oC to 70oC. Water for cooling, Cp = 4.18 KJ/kgoK is available at 20oC and flow rate of 0.6 kg/sec.
Calculate the length of a 3.5 cm inside diameter tubing in meters. The overall coefficient of heat transfer is
90 W/m2 oK.

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MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
A. 337 B. 452 C. 296 D. 543
13. A cold soda initially at 2oC gains 18 KJ of heat in a room at 20oC during a 15-minute period. What is the
average rate of heat transfer during the process?
A. 20 W B. 18 W C. 12 W D. 10 W
14. The air contained in a room loses heat to the surroundings at a rate of 50 KJ/min while work is supplied to
the room by computer. TV, and lights at a rate of 1.2 KW. What is the net amount of energy change in KJ of
air in the room during a 30-minute period?
A. 0.36 B. 70 C. 660 D. 1100
15. Saturated steam at 500oK flows in a 0.20 m inside diameter, 0.21 m outside diameter pipe. The pipe is
covered with 0.08 m of insulation with a thermal conductivity of 0.10 W/m-K. The pipe’s conductivity is 52
W/m-K. The ambient temperature is 300oK. The unit convective coefficients are h1 = 18,000 W/m2-K and
ho = 12 W/m2-K. Determine the heat loss from 4 m of pipe.
A. 778.21 watts B. 825.80 watts C. 830.80 watts D. 835.80 watts
16. An insulated steam pipe located where the ambient temperature is 32C, has an inside diameter of 50 mm
with 10 mm thick wall. The outside diameter of the corrugated asbestos insulation is 125 mm and the
surface coefficient of still air, ho = 12 W/m2-K. Inside the pipe is steam having a temperature of 150C with
film coefficient hi = 6000 W/m2-K. Thermal conductivity of pipe and asbestos insulation are 45 and 0.12
W/m-K respectively. Determine the heat loss per unit length of pipe.
A. 110 W B. 120 W C. 130 W D. 140 W
17. Sea water for cooling enters a condenser at 25oC and leaves at 40oC. The condenser temperature is 45oC,
what is the log mean temperature difference?
A. 16.34oC B. 10.82 oC C. 23.34oC D. 12.34oC
18. The hot combustible gasses of a furnace are separated from the ambient air and its surrounding, which are
28oC, by a brick wall 120 mm thick. The brick has a thermal conductivity of 1.23 W/m-oK and a surface
emissivity of 0.82. At steady state conditions the outer surface temperature is 120oC. Air surface film
conductance is 15 W/m2-oK. What is the total heat transmitted for 20 square meter area.
A. 42.15 KW B. 23.45 KW C. 45.45 KW D. 52.45 KW
19. A counterflow heat exchanger is designed to heat fuel oil from 26oC to 100oC while the heating fluid enters
at 138oC and leaves at 105oC. The fuel oil is 27oAPI and has a specific heat of 2.3 KJ/kg-oK and enters the
heat exchanger at the rate of 1000 gallons per hour. Determine the heating surface area if overall
coefficient of heat transfer is 420 Kcal/hr-m2-oK.
A. 4.21 m2 B. 3.12 m2 C. 2.34 m2 D. 5.84 m2
20. A plate-type solar energy collector with an absorbing surface covered by a glass plate is to receive an
incident radiation of 800 W/m2. The glass plate has a reflectivity of 0.12 and a transmissivity of 0.80. The
absorbing surface has an absorptivity of 0.90. The area of the collector is 5 m2. How much solar energy in
watts is absorbed by the collector?
A. 2500 B. 2880 C. 3510 D. 3168
21. What is the log mean temperature difference in oC of a double-pipe counterflow heat exchanger where a
fluid enters at 90oC and exits at 50oC. Inside the inner pipe another fluid enters at 20oC and exits at 60oC.
A. 0 B. 30 C. 75 D. 35
22. Heat is transferred from hot water to an oil in a double-pipe counterflow heat exchanger. Water enters the
outer pipe at 95oC and exits at 40oC while the oil enters the inner pipe at 25oC and exits at 50oC. Calculate
the log mean temperature difference.
A. 38.05 B. 30.83 C. 27.31 D. 52.5
23. The filament of a 100-watt bulb maybe considered a black body radiating into a black enclosure at 80oC.
Considering only radiation, calculate the filament temperature in oC if the filament diameter is 0.10 mm and
the length is 6 cm.
A. 2514 B. 2837 C. 3122 D. 2674

58
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 11

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.
MULTIPLE CHOICE:

1. A pump delivers 1000 gallons per minute of water at a head of 100 ft. Find the water power needed.
A. 12.34 hp B. 34.12 hp C. 23.23 hp D. 25.28 hp
2. Find the power of motor needed to pumped the water at a head of 100 m at the rate of 400 lps if pump
efficiency is 70%.
A. 301.34 kw B. 627.56 kw C. 560.57 kw D. 426.24 kw
3. A pump has a suction condition of 50 mm Hg vacuum pressure, 100 mm diameter pipe and discharge
condition of 250 kpa at, 90 mm diameter. The discharge tank is 50 m elevation and the suction is 5 m below
the pump center line. If discharge is 0.20 m3/s, find the pump efficiency for 260 kw brake power.
A. 74.32% B. 77.12% C. 79.23% D. 82.45%
4. The suction diameter of 60 mm reads 2 psi vaccum and 50 mm diameter discharge with 250 kpag. The
suction water level is 5 m above water pump centerline and discharge water level is 25 m above pump
center line. The total head loss at suction and discharge is 2 m. If discharge is 0.01 m3/s, find the
horsepower needed to pump the water for 80% pump efficiency.
A. 6.23 hp B. 8.15 hp C. 16.23 hp D. 12.45 hp
5. The suction water level of a reservoir A is 5 m above pump centerline a and discharge water level is 50 m
above pump centerline. The discharge is 0.2 m3/s with suction pipe of 100 mm diameter and 90 mm
diameter discharge pipe. The total head loss is 50% of the velocity head at suction pipe. If pump runs at 360
rpm, find the torque developed by the shaft of motor if pump efficiency is 76%.
A. 3.7 KN-m B. 8.9 KN-m C. 5.4 KN-m D. 6.7 KN-m
6. A water jet has a diameter of 75 mm and has a velocity of 15 m/s. What is the horsepower exerted by the
jet.
A. 12 hp B. 10 hp C. 9 hp D. 8 hp
7. A pump has a head of 20m at 450 rpm. What is the increase in head developed by the pump is speed
increased to 1000 rpm?
A. 43.23 m B. 83.56 m C. 65.23 m D. 78.76 m
8. The power developed by the pump is 30 kw. What is the percent decrease in power if speed
will decrease by 40%.
A. 78.4% B. 90.1% C. 65.3% D. 82.4%
9. A reciprocating pump has 350 mm x 400 mm cylinder running at 360 rpm. If percent slip is 10%, find the
volumetric efficiency of the pump.
A. 70% B. 80% C. 90% D. 98%
10. A pump develops a power of 50 kw at 300 rpm with fluid specific gravity of 1.02 when impeller diameter is
150 mm. If increases to 650 rpm, impeller diameter of 120 mm and specific gravity of 0.8. Find the new
power.
A. 190.34 kw B. 204.19 kw C. 207.23 kw D. 302.23 kw
11. A pump has a specific speed of 42 and 600 rpm when it delivers 0.01 m3/s. Find the head developed by the
pump.
A. 582.45 ft B. 813.45 ft C. 658.69 ft D. 1015.29 ft
12. A boiler feed pump has a suction enthalpy of 2500 KJ/kg and exit of 2505 KJ/kg. Find the velocity of water
in the flowing in the pump.
A. 300 m/s B. 50 m/s C. 200 m/s D. 100 m/s
13. A swimming pool measuring 10 m by 25 m x 2 m is to be filled with water from an artesian well by a motor
pump operating with a total dynamic head of 50 m. Assuming an overall motor efficiency of 55%, energy
cost of P0.45/kw-hr, find the total cost of energy to fill up the swimming pool.
A. P23.23 B. P82.34 C. P55.74 D. P132.34
14. A 20 m3 tank can be filled with water in one hour by a motor driven pump. Pump efficiency is 90% and
motor efficiency is 80% if the total head is 20 m, find the cost of one filling for energy cost of P0.40/kw-hr.
A. P0.606 B. P1.321 C. P0.812 D. P4.234
15. A pump delivers 4 m3/min of water from 100 kPa to 300 kPa. The inlet and outlet pipe diameters are 15 cm
and 12 cm respectively. Both pipes are on the same level. The inlet and outlet temperatures are both 25oC
and mass density of water is 997 kg/m3. Calculate the pump work in KW.
A. 20 B. 14 C. 16 D. 12
16. A centrifugal pump delivers 1.8 m3/s of water against a head of 30m when rotating at 1200 rpm. The
diameter of its impeller is 45 cm. If a pump with the same specific speed is to discharge 6.0 m3/sec at 1100
rpm, what is its impeller diameter?

59
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
A. 45 cmB. 60.5 cm C. 69.2 cm D. 74.3 cm
17. A double suction centrifugal pumps delivers 25 ft 3/sec of water at a head of 12 m and running at 650 rpm.
What is the specific speed of the pump?
A. 5014.12 rpm B. 6453.12 rpm C. 3097.77 rpm D. 9968.73 rpm
18. Determine the number of stages needed for a centrifugal pump if it is used to deliver 420 gal/min of water
and pump power of 15 Hp. Each impeller develops a head of 30 ft.
A. 6 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7
19. The suction pressure of a pump reads 3.5 in. of mercury vacuum and discharge pressure reads 140 psi is
use to deliver 120 gpm of water with specific volume of 0.0163 ft 3/lb. Determine the pump work.
A. 4.6 KW B. 5.7 KW C. 7.4 KW D. 8.4 KW
20. A submersible pump delivers 370 gpm of water to a height of 7 ft from the ground. The pump were installed
150 ft below the ground level and a draw down of 8 ft during the operation. If water level is 25 ft above the
pump, determine the pump power.
A. 7.13 KW B. 4.86 KW C. 7.24 KW D. 9.77 KW
21. A vacuum pump is used to drain a flooded mine shaft of 20C water. The pump pressure of water at this
temperature is 2.84 Kpa. The pump is incapable of lifting the water higher than 18 m. What is the
atmospheric pressure?
A. 159.30 B. 132.33 C. 198.22 D. 179.4
22. A submersible, multi-stage, centrifugal deep well pump 260 gpm capacity is installed in a well 32 feet below
the static water level and running at 3000 rpm. Drawdown when pumping at rated capacity is 10 feet. The
pump delivers the water into a 25,000 gallons capacity overhead storage tank. Total discharge head
developed by pump, including friction in piping is 243 feet. Calculate the diameter of the impeller of this
pump in inches if each impeller diameter developed a head of 36 ft.
A. 3.68 B. 5.33 C. 3.71 D. 6.34
23. Pump at its best efficiency point (BEP) has a capacity of 12,500 gpm while developing a head of 60 ft at a
rotative speed of 1450 rpm. What is the specific speed of the pump?
A. 2760 B. 1450 C. 7520 D. 6892
24. A radial-flow pump operating at maximum efficiency at a specific speed of 2300 is to deliver 260 gpm
against a head of 129 ft at a rotative speed of 2100 rpm. Find the required number of stages
(i.e., impellers).
A. 2 stages B. 3 stages C. 4 stages D. 5 stages
25. A 30-hp pump delivers 475 gpm of gasoline (γ = 42.5 lb/ft3) at 20oC with 78% efficiency. What pressure rise
result across the pump?
A. 30.2 psi B. 84.5 psi C. 120.3 psi D. 73.2 psi
26. The diameter of the discharge pipe is 7 in. and that of the intake pipe is 9 in. The pressure gage at
discharge reads 32 psi, and vacuum gage at the intake reads 12 in Hg. If the discharge flow rate = 4.0 ft3/s
of water and the brake horsepower is 49.0, find the efficiency. The intake and the discharge are at the
same elevation.
A. 82.1% B. 80.9% C. 96.0% D. 58.46%
27. A piston positive-displacement pump (PDP) has 8-in diameter and a 2.5-in. stroke. Its crankshaft rotates at
300 rpm. Calculate its output at 94 percent volumetric efficiency.
A. 12.27 cfm B. 20.51 cfm C. 10 cfm D. 11.53 cfm
28. A centrifugal pump (efficiency 86%) lifts water through a total height of 42m from reservoir to discharge.
Pumping is through 300m of 75mm diameter pipe at the rate of 20 liter/sec. If pipe friction factor, f = 0.025,
what KW is required?
A. 28.4 kW B. 33.4 kW C. 25 kW D. 9 kW
29. The speed of a centrifugal pump is triple. By what factor does the pump head change?
A. 0.125 B. 0.25 C. 4 D. 9
30. A pump delivers 5000 gallons per minute of fluid with specific gravity of 0.9 at a head of 100 ft. Find the
horsepower needed for the motor if overall efficiency is 60% and motor efficiency is 80%.
A. 142.18 hp B. 178.45 hp C. 162.34 hp D. 189.54 hp

60
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 12

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

1. An air compressor takes air at 99 kpa and compress it isentropically at 700 kpa. If volume flow at discharge
is 2 m3/sec, determine the capacity of air in cfm.
A. 14,153.34 B. 13,103.45 C. 15,244.24 D. 17,135.77
2. The discharge pressure of an air compressor is 5 times the suction pressure. If volume flow at suction is
0.5 m3/s, what is the compressor power using PV1.38 = C and suction pressure is 100 kpa.
A. 123.34 kw B. 136.23 kw C. 101.25 kw D. 213.23 kw
3. A 12 hp motor is used to drive an air compressor . The compressor efficiency is 70%. Find the mass of air
needed per minute if air is available at 30oC. The pressure compresses to 6 times the initial pressure.
A. 2.12 kg/min B. 1.85 kg/min C. 3.12 kg/min D. 1.43 kg/min
4. The initial condition of air in an air compressor is 98 kpa and 27oC and discharges at 500 kpa. The bore
and stroke are 360 mm and 380 mm, respectively with percent clearance of 7% running at 300 rpm. Find
the mass flow of air at suction?
A. 0.186 kg/s B. 0.11 kg/s C. 0.33 kg/s D. 0.44 kg/s
5. An air compressor has a suction volume of 0.3 m3/s at 28oC at 1 atm and discharges to 650 kpa. How
much power saved by the compressor if two staging?
A. 9.84 kw B 8.23 kw C. 6.23 kw D. 7.34 kw
6. The suction condition of air compressor is 99 kpa, 27oC and 0.21 m3/s. If surrounding air is 100 kpa and
22oC, determine the free air capacity in m3/s.
A. 0.345 B. 0.423 C. 0.123 D. 0.204
7. The compressor work of an air compressor in 120 kw. If piston displacement is 18 m3/min, determine the
mean effective pressure.
A. 400 kpa B. 300 kpa C. 500 kpa D. 600 kpa
8. A double acting air compressor has a cylinder dimensions of 50 cm x 60 cm, 650 rpm will have a volume
displacement of:
A. 4.12 m3/s B. 3.12 m3/s C. 2.55 m3/s D. 1.34 m3/s
9. A 2-stage air compressor has an intercooler pressure of 4 kg/cm2. What is the discharge pressure if suction
pressure is 1 kg/cm2.
A. 14 B. 15 C. 16 D. 17
10. The piston speed of an air compressor is 150 m/min and has a volume displacement of 0.2 m3/s.
Determine the diameter of compressor cylinder.
A. 512.34 mm B. 319.15 mm C. 354.23 mm D. 451.35 mm
11. A two stages compressor takes air at 100 kpa and 25oC with volume flow of 0.123 m3/s and discharges to
700 kpa. What is the heat rejected by the intercooler?
A. 12.45 kw B. 13.73 C. 45.34 kw D. 32.34 kw
12. An air compressor takes air at 97 kpa at the rate of 0.4 m3/sec and discharges to 600 kpa. If power input to
the compressor is 110 kw, determine the heat loss in the compressor.
A. 16.34 kw B. 25.80 kw C. 18.34 kw D. 17.23 kw
13. A two stage air compressor has a suction volume of 700 m3/hr at 100 kpa and 22oC discharges to 690 kpa,
determine the heat rejected in intercooler.
A. 21.53 kw B. 23.45 kw C. 45.23 kw D. 6.34 kw
14. A single-acting compressor with a 15 cm bore and 18 cm stroke operates at 350 rpm. The clearance is 5%
and it receives air at 100 kPa and discharges it at 650 kPa. The compression is polytropic with n= 1.35.
Determine the power required in KW.
A. 4.6 B. 5.2 C. 3.1 D. 3.8
15. A two stage compressor with an ideal intercooler receives 0.2 kg/s of Helium at 150 kPa and 3000K and
discharges it at 7,500 kPa. Calculate the intercooler pressure in kPa.
A. 2050 B. 3820 C. 1061 D. 1503
16. Calculate the compressor work in kJ required to compress 1 kg of an ideal gas from an initial volume and
pressure of 0.65 m3 and 101.3 kPa to a final pressure of 517 kPa. Compression is with n = 1.35.
A. 133.6 B. 105.8 C. 148.3 D. 142.7
17. A 3-stages air compressor compresses air from 100 kpa to 700 kpa. Find the intercooler pressure between
the 2nd and 3rd stage.
A. 365.88 kpa B. 375.88 kpa C. 385.88 kpa D. 395.88 kpa
18. Find the air horsepower of an industrial fan that delivers 30 m3/s of air through a 700 mm x 1000 mm duct if
static pressure is 150 mm of water gage and air density is 1.18 kg/m3.

61
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
A. 89.70 hp B. 105.56 hp C. 102.75 hp D. 90.85 hp
19. A boiler requires 100,000 m3/hr of standard air. The mechanical efficiency of fan to be installed is 70%.
Determine the size of driving motor needed assuming fan can deliver a pressure head of 160 mm of water
and outlet velocity of 20 m/s.
A. 60 kw B. 81.80 kw C. 75.80 kw D. 71.81 kw
20. At 1.180 kg/m3 air density a fan can developed a brake power of 100 kw. If it will operate at 100 kpa and
35oC, find the new brake power needed.
A. 95.87 kw B. 96.78 kw C. 100 kw D. 85.37 kw
21. A fan has suction static pressure of 40 mm of water vacuum with air velocity of 5 m/s. The discharge has
160 mm of water gage and discharge velocity of 8 m/s. What is the total head of the fan if air density is 1.2
kg/m3, mm of water gauge.
A. 168.66 B. 170.55 C. 218.23 D. 202.38
22. A 50 kw motor is used to drive a fan that has a total head of 120 m. If fan efficiency is 75%, what is the
maximum capacity of the motor needed if air is available at 100 kpa and 26oC.
A. 27.34 m3/s B. 48.59 m3/s C. 50.60 m3/s D. 49.58 m3/s
23. A fan that operates at 30 C and 101 kpa has a static pressure of 300 mm water gage. If the fan will operate
o

at 95oC and 14 psi, find the new static pressure required.

A. 136 mm B. 236 mm C. 250 mm D. 300 mm
24. The total head of fan is 200 m and has a static pressure of 210 mm of water gage. What is the velocity of
air flowing if density is 1.16 m3/s.
A. 20 m/s B. 18.89 m/s C. 16.25 m/s D. 19.29 m/s
25. A fan has a static head of 100 m at 1 kg/cm2 and 70oF. If air velocity is 15 m/s, find the total equivalent
head in mm of water gage.
A. 120.44 mm B. 129.53 mm C. 135.53 mm D. 140.56 mm
26. The fan is rated to deliver 600 m3/min when running at 350 rpm and required 7 kw motor to drive it. If the
fan speed is changed to 600 rpm and the air handled at 55oC instead of 28oC, find the power in kw.
A. 32.36 kw B. 40.25 kw C. 36.50 kw D. 45 kw
27. What is the horsepower required for a fan to deliver 200 ft/sec of air through a 2 ft x 4 ft duct under a total
pressure of 4 in water gage?
A. 175.83 hp B. 194.24 hp C. 146.17 hp D. 204.25 hp
28. A certain fan delivers 6 m3/sec of air at 250C and 101.3 kPa is operating at 500 rpm and requires 3 kw of
power. If the air temperature is increases to 940C and the speed of the fan remains the same, calculate the
new power in kw.
A. 2.63 B. 3.00 C. 2.44 D. 3.7
18. What is the static air powering watts of a fan designed to deliver 800 m3/hr of air with a static pressure of 5
cm of water column on full delivery.
A. 155.3 B. 95.7 C. 105.8 D. 122.6

62
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 13

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

1. A refrigeration system is used to cooled water in the evaporator a 8 kg/s of water from 30oC to 2oC. Find
the tons of refrigeration is required. A. 266.75 TR B. 137.45 TR C. 120.34 TR D. 130.84 TR
2. A reversed Carnot cycle has an evaporator temperature of -5oC and condenser temperature of 45oC. Find
the performance factor if it will operate in a heat pump.
A. 4.45 B. 3.45 C. 6.36 D. 5.23
3. A simple saturated refrigeration cycle for R-12 system operates at an evaporating temperature of -5oC and
a condensing temperature of 40 oC. For refrigerating capacity of 10 kw, determine the work of the
compressor. At 40 oC, hf = 238.5 KJ/kg; at -5 oC, hg = 349.3 KJ/kg. Enthalpy entrance to the condenser
is h = 375 KJ/kg. A. 1.205 kw B. 2.32 kw C. 3.502 kw D. 4.906 kw
4. A refrigeration system using refrigerant 22 is to have a refrigerating capacity of 60 TR. The evaporating
temperature is -10 oC and the condensing temperature is 42 oC. Determine the heat rejected by the
condenser. Enthalpy of condenser entrance = 440 KJ/kg, exit = 254 KJ/kg. Evaporator exit = 406
KJ/kg, evaporator entrance = 254 KJ/kg. A. 512.34 kw B. 417.35 kw C. 315.44 kw D. 258.15 kw
5. A refrigerator has a coefficient of performance of 1.6. How much work in KJ must be supplied to this
refrigerator for it to reject 1000 KJ of heat? A. 385 B. 627 C. 836 D. 1000
6. A Carnot heat pump uses thermal reservoirs at -27oC and 57oC. How much power does this pump
consume to produce a 100 KW heating effect? A. 9.1 KW B. 12.7 KW C. 15.3 KW D. 20.7 KW
7. A manufacturer claims that its has a COP of 1.4 when cooling food at 7oC using ambient air at 23oC as a
heat sink. Is his claim valid? A. Yes B. No. C. Probably D. None of the above
8. A reversed Carnot cycle is used for cooling. The input work is 12 kw, while the COP is 3.8 . Calculate the
refrigerating effect in tons of refrigeration. A. 12.97 B. 10.6 C. 15.4 D. 9.65
9. Consider a refrigeration whose 40 watts light bulb remains on continuously as a result of a malfunction of
the switch. If the refrigerator has a COP of 1.5 and the cost of electricity is 10 cents per kw-hr, determine
the increase in the energy consumption of the refrigerator and its cost per year if the switch is not fixed.
A. P58.40 B. P47.59 C. P65.40 D. P83.59
10. A household refrigerator that has a power input of 450 watts and a COP of 2.5 is to cool six large
watermelons, 12 kg each, to 8oC. If the watermelons are initially at 20oC, determine how long will take for
the refrigerator to cool them. The watermelons can be treated as water whose specific heat is 4.2 KJ/kg- oK.
A. 1220 seconds B. 2230 seconds C. 3226 seconds D. 4250 seconds
11. When a man returns to his wall-sealed house on a summer day, he finds that the house is at 32 oC. He
returns on the air conditioner which cools the entire house to 20oC in 20 minutes. If COP is 2.7, determine
the power drawn by the airconditoner. Assume the entire mass within the house is 800 kg of air for which
cv = 0.72 KJ/kg-K, cp = 1.0 KJ/kg-K A. 1.072 KW B. 2.130 KW C. 3.072 KW D. 4.072 KW
12. A Carnot refrigerator operates in a room in which the temperature is 25oC and consumes 3 KW of power
when operating. If the food compartment of the refrigerator is to be maintained at 3oC, determine the rate of
heat removal from the food compartment.
A. 1504.8 kJ/min B. 12.86 kJ/min C. 1625 kJ/min D. 2258.18 KJ/min
13. A household refrigerator with EER of 10 removes heat from the refrigerated space at a rate of 100 kJ/min.
Determine the rate of heat transfer to the kitchen air.
A. 101.25 kJ/min B. 134.12 kJ/min C. 128.46 kJ/min D. 80 kJ/min
14. A house that was heated by electric resistance heaters consumed 1300 kWh of electric energy in a winter
month. If this house were heated instead by a heat pump that has an average performance factor, PF of
2.5, determine how much money the homeowner would be saved that month. Assume a price of
0.090$/kWh for electricity. A. $42.5 B. $70.20 C. $102 D. $97.75
15. A Freon 22 air conditioning under standard operating conditions of 35 oC condensing and 5oC evaporating temperatures.
The volume flow rate entering the compressor is 25 L/s Determine the refrigerating capacity if the refrigerating effect is
164 kJ/kg. From the table for R22 the specific volume at the compressor entrance is 42 L/kg. A. 339.3 TR B.
79.3 TR C. 96.4 TR D. 27.76 TR
16. A refrigeration system consumed 30,800 kw-hr per month of energy. There are 20% of energy is lost due to
cooling system of compressor and motor efficiency is 90%. If COP of the system is 6, find the tons of
refrigeration of the system. A. 63.15 TR B. 46.15 TR C. 52.56TR D. 41.15 TR
17. A refrigeration system is to be used to cool 45,000 kg of water from 29 oC to 8 oC in 8 hours. The refrigerant
is ammonia and the operating conditions are 616 Kpa evaporating pressure and 1737 kpa liquefaction
pressure. Determine the quantity of cooling water in the condenser for an increase in temperature of 10 oC.
Enthalpy at condenser entrance = 1650 and exit = 410.4 KJ/kg. Evaporator entrance = 410.4, exit = 1471.6

63
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
KJ/kg. A. 4.59 kg/s B. 3.83 kg/s C. 5.94 kg/s D. 8.54 kg/s
18. A 60 tons refrigeration system has COP of 4.5. Find the gallons per minute of cooling water required in the
condenser for a temperature rise of 12 oC. A. 81.35 gpm B. 90.34 gpm C. 74.56 gpm D. 64.67 gpm
19. A vapor compression cycle is designed to have a capacity of 90 tons of refrigeration. It produces chilled
water from 25 oC to 2 oC. Its coefficient of performance is 5 and 30% of the power supplied is lost.
Determine the size of electric motor required to drive the compressor in kw.
A. 60.5 kw B. 92.5 kw C. 100. 5 kw D. 90.41 kw
20. A reversed Carnot cycle that operates between -2 oC and 50 oC needs 45 Kw compressor power. Find the
tons of refrigeration system needed. A. 56.34 B. 73.45 C. 60.34 D. 68.51
21. An ammonia compressor operates at an evaporator pressure of 316 kpa and a condenser pressure of
1514.2 kpa. The refrigerant is subcooled by 5 oC and is superheated by 8 oC. For an evaporator load of
85 kw, determine the quantity of cooling water in the condenser if the increase in temperature of water is
6 oC. Condenser entrance = 1715 KJ/kg, exit = 361.2 KJ/kg. Evaporator entrance = 361.2, exit = 1472
KJ/kg. A. 11,350 kg/hr B. 12,845 kg/hr C. 13,100 kg/hr D. 14,845 kg/hr
22. A refrigeration compressor has a volume flow of 0.15 m3/s. The percent clearance is 8% and has a
compression ratio of 6. The bore and stroke are equal running at 360 rpm. Find the bore of the
compressor. A. 375.75 mm B. 275.78 mm C. 303.37 mm D. 343.45 mm
23. An ammonia refrigeration system operates at 316 Kpa pressure evaporator and 1514.2 kpa condenser
pressure. Find the fraction of water evaporized. Condenser exit = 362 KJ/kg, Evaporator at 310 Kpa
hf = 163; hg = 1127 KJ/kg. A. 10.23 % B. 13.35 % C. 15.34 % D. 20.64 %
24. Find the performance factor of a heat pump that operates between -4 oC and 30 oC.
A. 8.91 B. 9.58 C. 7.30 D. 6.20
25. A heat pump has a compressor power of 10 kw and heat rejected of 50 kw to the low temperature region.
Find the temperature of the low temperature region if high temperature region is 40 oC.
A. -.8.45 oC B. 15.04 oC C. -22.60 oC D. -34.23 oC
26. A heat pump operates between 36 F and 120 F. If heat added from the low temperature region is 500
o o

Btu/min, find the horsepower needed of the compressor.

A. 2.0 B. 3.0 C. 4.0 D. 5.0
27. A heat pump operates between -4 oC and 28 oC. If the compressor power needed is 6 kw, find the KJ/min
added from the low temperature source. A. 2395 B. 2522 C. 2798 D. 2984
28. A refrigeration system has an evaporator temperature of -4 oC and compressor suction temperature is 8 oC.
Find the degree superheat, oF. A. 12 B. 14 C. 16 D. 18
29. A cascade refrigeration system operates between 100 kpa and 800 kpa. Find the cascade condenser
pressure. A. 269.34 kpa B. 276.45 kpa C. 282.84 kpa D. 298.45 kpa
30. Find the mass of water that can be cooled from 26oC to -10oC from a 15 tons refrigeration system for 14
hrs. A. 5447 kg B. 6383 kg C. 5719 kg D. 4923 kg
31. The refrigerant volume flow rate at the entrance of compressor were obtained from a test on a twin cylinder,
single acting 15 cm x 20 cm, 350 rpm compressor ammonia refrigerating plant to be 35 L/s. Determine the
volumetric efficiency of the compressor. A. 77.65% B. 84.88% C. 97.6 % D. 65.65%
32. A twin cylinder ammonia compressor with volume displacement of 15,726 cm3 operates at 320 rpm.
Condenser and evaporator pressure are 1200 kPa and 227 kPa respectively. Specific volume of refrigerant
at the entrance of compressor is 528.26 L/kg. Compression process is polytropic with n = 1.20 and
clearance factor of compressor is 2 percent. Determine horsepower required.
A. 60 hp B. 70 hp C. 80 hp D. 92 hp
33. A reversed Carnot cycle has a refrigerating COP of 3.0. Determine the ratio TH/TL?
A. 1.4 B. 1.5 C. 1.33 D. 1.2
34. Saturated vapor ammonia at –16oC ( h7 = 1442.60 kJ/kg) leaves the evaporator and enters the compressor
at –6oC (h1 = 1465 kJ/kg). The refrigerant leaves the condenser as saturated liquid at 40oC (h4 = 390.6
kJ/kg) and enter the expansion valve at 35oC ( h5 = 366.1 kJ/kg). Heat rejected from the condenser
amount to 60 kW. The work to compressor is 208 kJ/kg, while the heat loss from compressor is 33 kJ/kg. If
95 kJ/kg of heat are lost in the piping between the compressor discharge and condenser inlet, determine
the refrigerating capacity of the system.
A. 49.5 TR B. 15.91 TR C. 12.88 TR D. 13.24 TR

64
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 14

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

1. A refrigeration system is to cool bread loaves with an average mass of 600 g from 22oC to –12oC at a rate
of 500 loaves per hour by refrigerated air. Taking the average specific and latent heats of bread to be 2.93
kJ/kg.oC and 109.3 kJ/kg, respectively, determine the product load.
A. 1044.6 kJ/min B. 1351.6 kJ/min C. 761.5 kJ/min D. 409.9 KJ/min
2. A 10,000 kg fish is to be cooled from 25 oC to -10 oC in 10 hrs. The freezing temperature of fish is -2 oC and
latent heat of fusion is 280 KJ/kg. The specific heat above freezing is 3.80 KJ/kg-K and below freezing is 1.8
KJ/kg-K. Find the tons of refrigeration is required.
A. 31.36 B. 34.56 C. 36.34 D. 43.23
3. A 12 tons beef is to be cooled from 25 oC to -25 oC with freezing temperature at -3 oC in 15 hrs. The cp
above freezing is 2.8 KJ/kg-K and below freezing is 1.5 KJ/kg-K. The latent heat of fusion is 220 KJ/kg. If
miscellaneous losses is 14%, find the tons of refrigeration needed for the system.
A. 28.34 B. 16.45 C. 21.65 D. 23.23
4. In an actual refrigeration cycle using R12 as working fluid, the refrigerant flow rate is 0.05 kg/s. Vapor
enters the expansion valve at 1.15 MPa, 40oC (h = 238.5 kJ/kg) and leaves the evaporator at 175 kPa, –
15oC ( h = 345 kJ/kg). The electric input to motor driving the compressor is measured and found 3.5 kW.
Motor efficiency at this load is 92 percent and mechanical efficiency 82%. Determine the actual coefficient
of performance for this cycle. A. 1.58 B. 2.02 C. 1.78 D. 1.34
5. Find the enthalpy of air with wet bulb temperature of 25 oC and dry bulb temperature of 32 oC using
psychrometric chart.
A. 65.45 KJ/kg B. 76.50 KJ/kg C. 74.29 KJ/kg D. 78.40 KJ/kg
6. Find the enthalpy of air with wet bulb temperature of 25 oC and 60% RH using psychrometric chart.
A. 74.56 KJ/kg B. 60.34 KJ/kg C. 76.50 KJ/kg D. 77.40 KJ/kg
7. Find the dew point temperature of air with dry bulb temperature of 303 oK and RH of 80% using
psychrometric chart. A. 26.50 oC B. 24.50 oC C. 85.25 oC D. 32 oC
8. Find the humidity ratio of air with enthalpy of 40 KJ/kg and RH of 40%. Using psychrometric chart.
A. 0.0123 B. 0.045 C. 0.00600 D. 0.0068
9. At 30 oC, air-vapor mixture has a relative humidity of 75%. Find the humidity ratio if barometric pressure is
100 kpa. At 30 oC, Psat = 4.246 kpa
A. 0.123 B. 0.0205 C. 0.054 D. 0.019
10. The humidity ratio of air is 0.05. If barometric pressure is 99 kpa, find the partial pressure of water vapor.
A. 4.23 kpa B. 7.37 kpa C. 6.81 kpa D. 5.23 kpa
11. Air at 32 oC and pressure of 101 kpa has a density of 1.10 kg/m3. Find the humidity ratio of air.
A. 0.0304 B. 0.6350 C. 0.0635 D. 0.0173
12. What is the enthalpy of the air-vapor mixture at 70% RH and 33 oC when the barometric pressure is 101
kpa? At 33 oC: Psat = 5.628, hg = 2565.3
A. 97.76 KJ/kg B. 74.23 KJ/kg C. 67.34 KJ/kg D. 53.34 KJ/kg
13. Air-vapor mixture has an enthalpy of 73 KJ/kg at 31 oC. Find the partial pressure of water vapor. At 31 oC:
hg = 2556.3 KJ/kg A. 6.34 kpa B. 1.34 kpa C. 4.231 kpa D. 2.61 kpa
14. An ammonia ice plant operates between a condenser temperature of 35oC and evaporator of –15oC. It
produces 12 metric tons of ice per day from water at 30oC to ice at –5oC. Assuming simple saturation cycle,
determine the horsepower of the motor if the adiabatic efficiency of the compressor ηc = 0.87 and
mechanical efficiency ηm = 0.96. The specific heat of ice is 2.094 kJ/kg.oC and the latent heat is 335 kJ/kg.
From the table for ammonia the following enthalpies are: condenser entrance = 1703 kJ/kg, exit =
366.1 kJ/kg; compressor entrance = 1443.9 kJ/kg, exit = 1703 kJ/kg
A. 17.68 hp B. 18.61 hp C. 15.5 hp D. 25.2 hp
15. A two stage cascade vapor compression refrigeration system uses ammonia in the low-temperature loop
and R-12 in the high-temperature loop. The ammonia provides 18 tons cooling. If the high-loop
temperature requires 10.12 kW compressor power and low-loop 15.93 kW, determine the COP of the
system. A. 2.429 B. 5.22 TR C. 3.314 TR D. 9.1 TR

65
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval

PPE - PROBLEM SET # 15

INSTRUCTION: Encircle the letter that corresponds to the correct answer of your choice.

1. Air in an airconditioner enters at 65% RH with w = 0.025 and leaves at 25 oC dry bulb and 16 oC wet bulb. If
mass of air is 10 kg/s, find the refrigeration capacity in tons of refrigeration.
At 65% RH, w = 0.025: h = 85 KJ/kg, v = 0.803 m3/kg At 25 oC db, 16 oC wb: h = 43 KJ/kg;
A. 134.34 TR B. 119.45 TR C. 102.45 TR D. 98.34 TR
2. A 140 kw air conditioner has a has an initial condition of 40 oC db and 60% RH and leaves at 20o db and
20% RH. Find the volume of air entering the conditioner.
At 40 oC db and 60% RH: h = 112 KJ/kg, w = 0.93m3/kg; At 20 oC db and 20% RH: h = 26 KJ/kg
A. 3.22 m3/s B. 2.62 m3/s C. 1.51 m3/s D. 1.93 m3/s
3. Outside air in an air conditioning unit has a mass of 52 kg at 42 oC is mixed with re-circulated air at 32 kg at
28 oC, find the temperature after mixing.
A. 35.23 oC B. 32.23 oC C. 36.67 oC D. 45.32 oC
4. Twenty five kilogram air enters the dryer at 24 C db and 35% RH. Fifteen kg of re-circulated air from the
o

dryer has a partial pressure of water vapor of 10 kpa. Find the humidity ratio after mixing.
At 24 oC db, 35% RH: w = 0.0059
A. 0.0325 B. 0.1930 C. 0.0653 D. 0.0292
5. Sixty two kilogram of air with enthalpy of 80 KJ/kg is mixed with another x air until the mixture is 110 kg and
70 KJ/kg enthalpy. Find the enthalpy of x air before mixing.
A. 40.23 KJ/kg B. 57.10 KJ/kg C. 13.75 KJ/kg D. 15.34 KJ/kg
6. Air in a conditioned space has 26 oC db and 70% RH, find the wet bulb depression.
A. 6.00 oC B. 15.34 oC C. 7.20 oC D. 17.80 oC
7. A 6 x 5 x 4 m room has a pressure of 101 kpa and temperature of 30oC (Psat = 5 kpa). If percent
relative humidity is 65%, find the mass of vapor (RV = 0.423 KJ/kgoK).
A. 0.345 kg B. 1.23 kg C. 3.04 kg D. 2.19 kg
8. A 75% efficient cooling tower has a water entering at 45o C and wet bulb temperature of air entering at
25 oC. Find the water exit temperature of water.
A. 32o CB. 30oC C. 34.34oC D. 23.44oC
9. Water enters the cooling tower at 55 oC and leaves at 30 oC while the heat rejected to air is 120 KW. Find
the capacity of the pump needed to pump the water.
A. 1.15 li/s B. 3.22 li/s C. 2.34 li/s D. 4.23 li/s
10. Air enters the tower at the rate of 60 kg/s. The entrance enthalpy is 86 KJ/kg and exit enthalpy of 53 KJ/kg.
Find the temperature range of the tower if mass flow rate of water is 30 kg/s.
A. 14.34 oC B. 16.34 oC C. 10.23 oC D. 15.76 oC
11. A 100 BHP diesel engine has a brake thermal efficiency of 30% and jacket water loss of 34%. The engine
is to be cooled by means of a cooling tower having a range of 27 oC. Find the mass of water leaving the
tower. A. 5,238.45 kg/hr B. 2692.35 kg/hr C. 7038.45 kg/hr D. 6108.62 kg/hr
12. A 120 tons refrigeration system with COP of 5 has a condenser which is to be cooled by means of a cooling
tower. Air enters the tower at 25 oC db and 50% RH and leaves at 35 oC db and 80% RH. Find the volume of
air needed m3/hr. At 25oC and 50% RH: h = 50 KJ/kg, v = 0.86 m3/kg At 350C db and 80% RH: h = 108 A.
7.51 m3/s B. 2.34 m3/s C. 4.98 m3/s D. 3.16 m3/s
13. The evaporative condenser of an ammonia refrigeration plant has a water flow rate of 100 kg/s and enters a
natural draft cooling tower at 43 oC. The water is cooled to 30 oC by air entering at 27 oC db 24 oC wet bulb.
The air leaves the tower as 90% RH and 32 oC db. Calculate the percent of make-up water needed the
tower. At 27 oC db and 24 oC wb: h = 72.5 KJ/kg, w = 0.0178
At 90% RH and 32 oC db: h = 102 KJ/kg, w = 0.0275
A. 2.34% B. 1.79% C. 3.12% D. 2.84%
14. A cooling tower cools water from 39 oC to 24 oC at the rate of 25 kg/s. Air enters the tower at 18 oC at the
rate of 35 kg/s. Find the temperature of air leaving the tower.
A. 50.71 oC B. 62.86 oC C. 45.23 oC D. 34.45 oC
15. An airconditioning system has a sensible heat load of 120 kw and latent heat load of 25 kw. Find the
sensible heat factor. A. 64.45% B. 73.45% C. 56.34% D. 82.76%
16. Find the dew point temperature of air whose humidity ratio is 0.0150 kg water/kg dry air.
A. 22.50 oC B. 23.50 oC C. 20.30 oC D. 25.5 oC
17. The moisture removed from a material is 200 lb/hr and change of humidity ratio in dryer is 0.015. Determine
the fan capacity if specific volume of air entering is 38 ft3/lb.
A. 400,000 ft3/hr B. 450,000 ft3/hr C. 506,667 ft3/hr D. 550,000 ft3/hr
18. A dryer has a 17% moisture wet feed and 3% moisture of dried product. Find the moisture removed for

66
MD and PIPE PROBLEMS
Prepared by; Engr. Rodel T. Naval
every 5 kg of solids in the final product. A. 0.187 kg B. 0.395 kg C. 0.234 kg D. 0.84 kg
19. An auditorium is supplied with 35 m3/s of air at 14oC db. The total heat load is 320 kw and has a sensible
heat factor of 0.82. Find the temperature inside the auditorium using air at standard pressure.
A. 16 oCB. 18 oC C. 20 oC D. 24 oC
20. An air conditioned theater is to be maintained at 80 oF dry bulb temperature and 50% RH(h = 31.35 Btu/lb).
The calculated total sensible heat load in the theater is 500,000 Btu/hr, and the latent heat load is 150,000
Btu/hr. The air mixture at 84 oF db and 72 oF wb temperature(h = 35.82 Btu/lb) is cooled to 63 oF dry bulb
and 59 oF wet bulb temperature (h = 25.78 Btu/lb)by chilled water cooling coils and delivered as supply air to
the theater. Calculate the tons of refrigeration required.
A. 83 B. 130 C. 127 D. 122
21. Bypass factor of coil is 0.8 for one row. What is the bypass factor if there are 8 coils in a row?
A. 0.029 B. 0.70 C. 0.80 D. 0.49
22. A coil has an inlet temperature of 50 oF and outlet of 85 oF. If the mean temperature of coil is 100 oF, find
the bypass factor of the coil. A. 0.4 B. 2 C. 1.667 D. 0.3
23. Find the sensible heat factor of an airconditioning unit having a sensible heat load of 60 kw and latent heat
load of 20 kw. A. 70% B. 80% C. 75% D. 85%
24. An air conditioned theater is to be maintained at 80oF dry bulb temperature and 50% RH(h = 31.35 Btu/lb).
The calculated total sensible heat load in the theater is 620,000 Btu/hr, and the latent heat load is 210,000
Btu/hr. The air mixture at 84oF db and 72oF wb temperature(h = 35.82 Btu/lb) is cooled to 63oF dry bulb and
59oF wet bulb temperature (h = 25.78 Btu/lb)by chilled water cooling coils and delivered as supply air to the
theater. Calculate the tons of refrigeration required. A. 125 B. 130 C. 127 D. 122
25. Wet material, containing 200% moisture (dry basis) is to be dried at the rate of 1.6 kg/s in a continuous
dryer to give a product containing 10% moisture (dry basis) . Find the moisture removed, kg/hr.
A. 3543.75 kg/hr B. 3513.75 kg/hr C. 3563.75 kg/hr D. 3648.00 kg/hr
26. Copra enters a dryer containing 75% moisture and leaves at 6% moisture. Find the moisture removed on
each pound of solid in final product. A. 6.258 lb B. 1.258 lb C. 4.258 lb D. 2.936 lb
27. An auditorium seating 1600 people is to be maintained at 80 oF dry bulb and 65oF wet bulb temperature
when outdoor air is at 91oF dry bulb and 75oF wet bulb. Solar heat load is 120,000 Btu/hr and supply air is
at 60oF, determine the amount of supply air. (Use sensible heat load of 225 Btu/hr per person)
A. 100,000.00 lb/hr B. 83,229.17 lb/hr C. 73,229.17 lb/hr D. 63,229.17 lb/hr
28. A classroom that normally contains 40 people is to be air-conditioned with window air-conditioning units of
5 KW cooling capacity. A person at rest may be assumed to dissipate heat at a rate of about 360 KJ/hr.
There are 10 light bulbs in the room, each with a rating of 100 watts. The rate of heat transfer to the
classroom through the walls and the windows is estimated to be 15,000 KJ/hr. If the room air is to be
maintained at a constant temperature of 21oC, determine the number of window air-conditioning units
required. A. 1 unit B. 2 units C. 3 units D. 4 units
29. Compute the specific volume of an air-vapor mixture in cubic meters pre kilogram of dry air when the
following conditions prevail : t = 45C, w = 0.015 kg/kg, and Pt = 100 kPa.
A. 0.99 m3/kg B. 0.93 m3/kg C. 0.79 m3/kg D. 0.69 m3/kg
30. A coil has an inlet temperature of 70F and outlet of 80F. If the mean temperature of the coil is 120F, find
the bypass factor of the coil. A. 0.28 B. 0.80 C. 0.82 D. 0.83
31. Compute the pressure drop of 35C air flowing with a mean velocity of 7 m/s in a circular sheet-metal duct
450 mm in diameter and 25 m long. Use a friction factor, f = 0.04, and air = 1.3799 kg/m3.
A. 43.22 Pa B. 21.34 Pa C. 75.12 Pa D. 52.31 Pa
32. A pressure difference of 500 Pa is available to force 20C air through a circular sheet-metal duct 450 mm in
diameter and 30 m long. At 20C,  = 1.204 kg/m3 and take friction factor, f = 0.016. Determine the velocity.
A. 27.34 ft/s B. 43.72 ft/s C. 91.54 ft/s D. 86.98 ft/s
26. An air-conditioning system is used to maintain a house at 65oF when the temperature outside is 85oF. The
house is gaining heat through the walls and windows at a rate of 1250 Btu/min, and the heat generation rate
within the house from people, lights, and appliances amounts to 350 Btu/min. Determine the minimum
power input required for this air-conditioning system. A. 10.06 hp B. 1.36 hp C. 1.44 hp D. 7.94 hp

67