Wizz Air Questions

1. How many bases does Wizz air have?

25
2. How many destinations?
145 over 644 routes, 44 countries
3. When was Wizz air founded?
September 2003
4. When the first flight took place and where?
19 May 2004 Katowice to Luton
5. What aircraft does Wizz air operate?
A320 180 seats
A321 230 seats

Wizz Air fleet

Aircraft In service Orders Passengers Notes

Airbus A320-200 72 180[46]

Airbus A320neo — 72 186[47]

Airbus A321-200 32 9 230[46]

Airbus A321neo — 184 239[48] Deliveries from 2022 to 2026

Total 104 265

6. How many aircraft does Wizz have?

104 A320-72 A321-32
7. What engines are installed on Wizz air aircraft?
International Aero V2500
8. What is most northern destination?
Tromso, Norway, Reykjavik Iceland
9. What is most southern destination?
Dubai
10. What is most eastern destination?
Astana, Kazakhstan
11. What is most western destination?
Reykjavik, Iceland
12. How many passengers choose Wizz air in the last year?
 28milions
Wizz icao code?
WZZ
13. IATA code?
W6
14. Who is ceo?
Josef Varadi
15. Who is coo?
Diederik Pen
16. Who else in the management?
Gyorgy Abran, Jon Stephenson until August
17. How many bases in Poland?
5
18. How many bases in Romania?
6
19. In which stage of CB clouds can you expect the anvil?

Mature stage.

20. What kind of weather can you expect in the low pressure area?

Low cloud base, precipitation, mild temperatures, good visibility outside precipitation

21. What kind of weather can you expect in the high pressure area?

Clear skies, hazy weather, poor visibility, inversions

22. 1200km/h, what distance will you cover in 1 min?

Around 10NM = 65000ft

23. How does thrust reverse work on the jet engine?

Change of direction of bypass flow.

It works on the redirection of the air mass produced by the fan

24. What processes take place in the carburettor?

It is the engine component where fuel and air mix is taking place

25. What are the phases of reciprocating engine?

Induction, compression, combustion, exhaust, process is intermittent and takes place at constant volume

26. what are the phases of the jet engine?

Same as piston, induction, compression, combustion, exhaust, but this process is continuous and takes place
at constant pressure
 27. When is the jet engine most effective?

High altitude and high RPM speed

Due to low density, minimum cruise airframe drag

Best engine specific fuel consumption

28. What causes the noise in the jet engine?

Most of the engine noise comes from the exhaust or jet behind the engine as it mixes with the air around it.
And sheers at different speeds

29. What is EGT?

Exhaust gas temperature is measured on the turbine stage of the engine. Exceeding this temperature is
increasing the risk of turbine blade creep.

30. How do you call the change of water vapour directly to ice?

Resublimation/ deposition

31. How do you call the change of ice directly to water vapour?

sublimation

32. What is the rumb line?

Is the line between two points on the earth surface cutting all meridian at the same angle

33. What is the great circle?

Is the shortest line between two points on the surface of the earth

34. 10 min on the meridian is equal to?

10NM

35. Picture of runway markings

 36. What is microburst?

It is a strong downdraught from the base of CB, normally about 4km in diameter.

37. What is windshear?

It is a vertical or horizontal change in the wind speed or wind direction that take place over short distance

38. Upper weather chart, the wind is?

In deg true and speed in knots

39. Types of fog

Fog is reported when vis is below 1000m

Radiation fog – Normally in the winter with clear sky and calm wind, cooling of the land at night by thermal
radiation cools the air close to the surface

Evaporation fog (arctic smoke) – where cold air is passed over warmer moist surface

Advection fog – A mild moist airstream flows over snow covered ground and the wind speed is less than
10kt

Frontal fog – The area ahead of a warm front is subject to prolonged continuous rain and the same air mass
is pushed ahead of the front. The reduction in visibility is caused by the very high relative humidity.

40. What is minimum RVR for CAT 3B?

 DH RVR
CAT I More than 200 550m
CAT II 200 – 100 300m
CAT III a Less than 100 200m
CAT IIIb Less than 50 75m

41. Circle to land minima

Vis mda
Cat A 1500 400
Cat B 1600 500
Cat C 2400 600
Cat D 3600 700

42. You have landed on the runway, bad weather conditions, only red centreline is visible,
how much runway you have left?

Not more than 300m, 1000ft

43. You have landed on the runway, bad weather conditions, alternating red and white
centreline is visible, how much runway you have left?

Not more than 900m

44. Runway is 2000m long, you can see only amber edge lights. How much runway you have
left?

At least 600m (its 600m or 1/3 of the runway length, whichever is less)

45. You see yellow light near the centreline. What it indicates?

Rapid exit taxiway. You see the sequence of 3 then 2 then 1, spaced 100m apart. If you see only one it means
that is 100m left to the taxiway

46. Centreline marking has what kind of line?

Dashed white

47. Taxiway markings

Continued yellow

48. Taxiway lighting

Centre lights are green and edge lights are blue

49. What is the name of the height when you are 50 ft over threshold?

Screen height
 50. If you have net performance, you are clear of obstacle how many feet?

35ft

51. What is NET performance?

Is the gross performance diminished to allow for different contingencies, (weather, maintenance, flying
techniques)

Is the minimum performance where you clear obstacles by 35 ft

52. What is GROSS performance?

Is the average performance that fleet should achieve if properly maintained and flown with proper
techniques.

Is the performance assessed during certification, done by the new airplane and test crew, is better than NET

53. What is screen height?

Is the vertical distance from the runway to the aircraft on takeoff and landing, take off is 35ft and on landing
is 50ft above the threshold (at the end of the TODR or at the beginning of LDA)

54. What is Vy?

Best rate of climb, is the highest altitude aircraft can reach in the given time

55. What is Vx?

Best angle of climb, is the highest altitude aircraft can reach over the shortest distance.

56. What is sharklet?

Is the blended wingtip design that is designed to reduce induced drag by not letting the air from underside of
the wing to flow in the wing root direction thus creating wing tip vortices.

57. What is MSA?

Minimum safe altitude or minimum sector altitude when 1000ft obstacle clearance is provided within 25NM
radius of the radio facility or the reference point

58. What is MEA?

Minimum En route altitude is the lowest published altitude between radio fixes, that provides obstacle
clearance within 5NM either side of airway centreline and reception of the navigational signal

59. What is MOCA?

Minimum obstacle clearance altitude is the lowest published altitudes between radio fixes on VOR airways,
off airway routes or route segments which meets obstacle clearance requirements.
1000ft over elevation of 6000ft or less

2000ft over elevation of 6001ft or more

60. What is MORA?

Minimum off route altitude provides the reference point clearance within 10 NM of the route centreline and
end fixes.

1000ft up to 5000ft elev and 2000 over 5000ft elev

61. What is Grid MORA?

Provides reference point clearance within section outlined by the lines of latitude and longitude.

1000ft clearance where reference is 5000ft or lower

2000ft clearance where reference is more than 5000 ft

62. What wind direction in Metar/TAF?

Deg TRUE and speed in knots, cloud height AGL

What you read is TRUE

What you hear is MAG

63. Cloud base in METAR TAF

AGL

64. What is TAF?

TAF - Aerodrome Forecast

An aerodrome TAF is a forecast - it will give the predicted weather conditions expected at an aerodrome,
usually for a 9 or 24 hour period. The standard 9 hour TAF is updated and reissued every three hours.

65. Decode TAF

LHBP 211700Z 2118/2120 35007KT CAVOK BECMG 2118/2120 VRB03KT BECMG 2207/2209 03007KT

66. What is METAR?

METAR - Aerodrome Actual Met Report

The METAR is a report giving the actual weather conditions at an aerodrome at the time of the report.
METAR's are issued every 30 minutes during the opening hours of the aerodrome.

67. Decode METAR

LHBP 211830Z VRB02KT CAVOK 26/15 Q1022 NOSIG

EHAM 1050Z 24015KT 9000 RA SCT025 BKN040 10/09 Q1010 NOSIG

EDDL 1550Z 26005KT 0550 R23L/0450 FZFG OVC002 M02/M02 Q0994 BECMG OVC005

windshear in MERTAR:

WS LDG RWY28L or WS TKOF RWY08

68. What is trend?

Is the forcast for the 2 hrs at the time of observation. NOSIG=no significant change in the next 2 hrs

69. What does TEMPO mean?

Is a temporary change to the forecast lasting not more than 1hr or half of the period indicated

70. Cloud coverage?

Few- 1-2

Sct 3-4

Bkn 5-7

Ovc 8

71. What is jet stream and when you classify jet stream?

Strong and narrow ribbon of air in the upper troposphere characterized by strong vertical and horizontal
windshear CAT. The win speed must be greater than 60kt to be classified as jet stream.

72. Where can you expect strongest CAT in jet stream?

in the warm air mass under tropopause on the cold side. Its to the left when looking downstream of
Jetstream

73. What is geostrophic wind?

Steady wind that blows parallel to straight isobars

74. What is gradient wind?

Is the wind that blows around curved isobars. (wind around pressure systems)

75. What is veering?

Is the clockwise change od wind direction

76. What is backing?

Is the anticlockwise change of the wind direction

77. You are standing back to the wind on the Northern hemisphere, where is the centre of low
pressure?
On your left

78. You are standing back to the wind on the Northern hemisphere, where is the centre of
high pressure?

On your right

79. What is the wind direction around the low pressure area in the southern hemisphere?

Clockwise and towards the centre closer to the surface

80. Winds in Europe

Bora - northeasterly from eastern Europe to northeastern Italy

Scirocco - southerly from north Africa to southern Europe

Fohn - is a warm dry southerly wind off the northern side of the Alps and the North Italy

Mistral - cold northerly from central France and the Alps to Mediterranean

81. What are the cold front characteristics?

Unstable atmosphere, cumuliform clouds and showers of rain9

82. What are the warm front characteristics?

Cloud base is lowering steadily , precipitation is steady and moderate, all cloud types inc, ctratus ao the
lowest levels

83. Which air mass moves the fastest?

Frontal air mass

84. What is the tropopause?

Is the boundary layer between troposphere and stratosphere, temperature stops falling with increase in
altitude,

85. What is optimum altitude?

Is the altitude at which airplane flight is most efficient, there is lowest fuel consumption, where given thrust
setting corresponds to max range speed

86. What is happening to optimum altitude during flight?

As the mass of the aircraft reduces, the optimum altitude increases.

 87. You are on the northern hemisphere, turning left, what are the indications of magnetic
compass?

Depending on course ANDS UNOS

88. You are flying on 290 radial inbound to the beacon, inbound track is 070 non-standard
hold, what is the entry?

direct

89. What is the standard holding pattern?

Right hand, outbound time below FL140 is 1min, outbound time above FL140 1:30, speed for max range

90. What is parasite drag?

Drag resulting from interference body with the airflow, is dependent on the body shape, skin friction and
basically resistance in its motion through the air. As the speed increases, parasite drag increases.

91. What is induced drag?

Induced drag is the result of creating lift, on the typical aerofoil high pressure from below the wing is trying
to flow towards the low pressure at the top of the wing over the wing tip in the wing root direction,
therefore creating counter rotating wing tip vortices, as the speed increases induced drag decreases

92. When is the drag minimum?

When the parasite drag and induced drag are equal.

93. When is the drag maximum?

At Vmo /Mmo

94. What forces act on the plane during steady level flight?

Thrust=drag and lift=weight

95. What is balanced field?

Is when TODA=ASDA, it mean that when airplane performance equals airfield constrains.

96. What is TODA?

Is the length of TORA + clearway

97. What is TORA?

Is the length of the runway that is suitable for use for the take of run portion of the departure

98. What is LDA?

Lda starts at the 50 ft above the threshold and reaches to the end of the runway

99. What is ASDA?

Is the length of TORA + stopway

100. What is clearway?

Is the rectangular area extending beyond the runway that is designed to assist the aircraft at the initial climb
after take off

101. What is stopway?

Is the area on the extension of Tora designed to assists the aircraft to stop in case of rejected take off.

102. What is the planning LDA for cat A jet aircraft?

60%

103. How much wind speed we take in to calculation?

50% of head wind and 150% of the tailwind

104. What is BEM

Basic empty mass is the mass of the basic mass of the aircraft with the unusable fluids

105. What is DOM

Dry operating mass is the mass of the aircraft ready for the specific type of operation excluding usable fuel
and traffic load

106. What is ZFM

Is the mass of the airplane ready for operation with the traffic load but without the usable fuel, it is a
maximum wing loading consideration

107. What is MTOW

Is the maximum permissible mass of the aircraft at the start of the take off run

108. What is MLM

Is the maximum permissible total mass of the aircraft on landing in normal circumstances

109. What is traffic load?

Is the mass of the passengers, baggage and cargo inc any non revenue load

110. After one engine failure what airspeed you have to maintain?

The speed to give the best rate of climb single engine (Blue line or Vyse)
 111. What is Vr

Is the speed at which pilot is putting initial input to rotate the aircraft for the intention of take off

112. Vr for transport category aircraft must be at least

1.05 Vmca

113. What is V1

Is the T/O decision speed by which pilot decided either to continue the take off or abort it. Is the speed after
which pilot is committed for take off in case the engine failure

114. What is V2

Is the take off safety speed at which the aircraft is controllable and can maintain the climb in case the engine
failure at take off

115. Take off segments.

1st segment starts at screen height and finishes at the gear retracted

2nd segment starts when the gear is retracted and finishes when acceleration alt is reached (min. 400ft max
1000ft) speed V2

3rd segment starts at the acceleration alt, minimum 400ft, and finishes when the flaps are retracted.

4th segment starts when the flaps are retracted, MCT is set and finishes at the 1500ft.

116. What is climb gradient?

Climb gradient is the ratio of thrust – drag devided by weight x100 expressed as %
G% = x100

117. What is rate of climb?

Is the rate of change of height in the given time

ROC (fpm)=

118. What is angle of climb?

Is the path that aircraft is flying to a specific height over given distance.

119. what speed will you maintain if there is engine failure just after take off and you
want to maintain positive control with full controls deflection?

Vmca

120. You are taking off on A320 in Dubai, suddenly A/c has reduced rate of climb. What
was that?

Strong inversion layer

121. What is the lift equation?

L=Cl rho S

122. What is the wet start?

Is when the fuel is already in the combustion chamber

123. What is the hung start?

Is the condition when fuel ignites but the engine fails to accelerate to self sustaining speed

124. When does the stall speed increase?

When pulled out of spiral dive, on increase of the load factor, with increase in weight, in the turn

125. Twin propeller aircraft with props rotating clockwise as seen from behind? Which
engine is critical?

Left

126. What is critical engine?

Is the engine that in case the failure will give larger yawing moment produced by the live engine

127. Airbus flight controls are actuated:

hydraulically
 128. You have one part of the system fail, you want to make an auto land, what would
be the landing?

Fail operational

129. What is CAS?

Is the indicated airspeed corrected for the position and instrument errors

130. What is EAS

Is the CAS corrected for compressibility error

131. What is TAS

Is the EAS corrected for the density error, or IAS corrected for instrument, pressure, compressibility and
density errors is the actual speed that body is traveling through the molecules of air

132. What is Mach Number?

Is the ratio of TAS to LSS

133. How to calculate LSS?

38.94xSQRT of temp in Kelvin

134. What is MN depend on?

Temperature

135. GPWS modes

MODE Condition Aural Alert Aural Warning

1 Excessive descent rate SINKRATE PULL UP
2 Excessive terrain closure rate TERAIN, TERAIN PULL UP
3 Excessive terrain closure rate after t/o or g/a Don’t sink
4a Unsafe terrain clearance with l/g not locked down Too-low gear Too-low terrain
4b Unsafe terrain clearance with flap not in landing config Too-low flaps Too-low terrain

4c Terrain rising faster than a/c after t/o Too-low terrain

5 Excessive descent below glideslope Gligeslope
6 Advisory call out of bank angle Bank angle
7 Windshear protection Windshear Terrain terrain,
pull up

136. What is the airflow on the upper side of the wing on the straight wing?

In the root direction

137. What is dihedral?

Is the up inclination of the wings, angle between horizontal plane and leading edge, it is increasing lateral
stability

138. What is anhedral?

Is the design to decrease lateral stability, is the downward inclination of the wings, angle between horizontal
plane and the leading edge.

139. What is mean chord line?

Is the wing area devided by wing span.

140. What is angle of incidence?

Is the angle between wing chord and longitudinal axis

141. What is the advantage and disadvantage of the swept wing?

Adv -Is the design that increases Mcrit, increase in MN during cruise, greater stability in turbulence,

Disadv.- Poor lift qualities, higher stall speed, speed instability at lower airspeeds and wing tip stall
tendency, which causes nose up pitch tendency

142. You are moving centre of pressure in front of CG what will be the tendency?

Nose up

143. What pressure we get from pitot tube?

Total pressure

144. You have static port blocked, what is the indication on the VSI?

Zero

145. What implications on blocked pitot tube?

ASI increase in climb, decrease in descent PUD SOD

146. What implications of blocked static port?

Altimeter shows the altitude at which blockage occurred, VSI is zero, ASI is reducing in climb and increasing
in descent

147. What is centre of pressure?

Imaginary point on the aerofoil where total of all aerodynamic forces is considered to act

148. What is CG?

Is the point on the aircraft where all of the mass is considered to act, is the point about which the aircraft is
rotating in the three dimensions

We calculate CG position by total moment by total weight.

149. What is AOA?

Angle of attack or alpha is the angle between the wing cord and the relative airflow

150. What is critical angle of attack?

Is the maximum angle of attack at which air flows smoothly over the top surface of the wing. Exceeding
critical aoa wing is going to the stall condition where the airflow starts to separate

151. What is washout of the wing?

Is the decrease in angle of incidence from root to tip.

152. What is coefficient of lift?

Is the lifting ability of the wing. It depends on the wing shape and aoa.

153. What are the effects of exxessive aircraft weight?

- Reduced performance,
- Increased stalling speed
- Reduced manoeuvrability
- Reduced range
- Structural safety
- Wear on tires and brakes

154. What give you slats?

Extended slats create the slot that reenergize boundary layer, increase critical aoa and reduce the stall
speed with relatively low increase in drag

155. What flap can you see on the picture?

 156. What is the wake turbulence separation when medium is departing after heavy?

2 min from the same point of the runway and 3 minutes when departing from intermediate point

157. What is the amount of gasses in the atmosphere on FL410?

The same as on the surface, but with lower partial pressure, 78% nitrogen, 21% oxygen, 0.9% argon and rest
is the mix of the other gases

158. What is the time of useful consciousness at fl 400?

FL 180 20-30 min

FL220 10 min

FL250 3-5min

FL300 1-2min

FL350 30 – 60s

FL400 15 – 30s

FL 430 10s

159. What is the ISA (standard atmosphere)

1013.25 mb

15C

1,225kg/m^3
Temp decreases 1.98C/1000ft

Pressure reduces 27ft per hpa/mb

Tropopause at 36092ft where temp is -56C

LLS 661kts

160. At the airport QNH is 1003 one aircraft fly on 5000ft other one is FL 50. Which one
will be higher?

The one at alt 5000ft

161. You fly at night and see green light at 45 deg to your left, its position doesn’t
change. Is there collision risk?

YES , collision green over red, red over green. Safe red over red.

162. Cost index of 50kg/min what does it mean?

That 1 min of flight costs the same as 50 kg of fuel

163. 273 kelvin, how many Celsius?

164. Some IFR point, what is the lowest alt you can fly?

Grid MORA

165. What is the manoeuvring area?

All airside surface of the airfield that is used for take off, landing and taxi, excluding apron

166. What is movement area?

All airside surface of the airfield used for take off, landing, and taxying, inc apron

167. FL 180, temp -21C what is deviation from ISA?

168. What is take off alternate?

Is the airfield where aircraft supposed to go to In case of the diversion or emergency where it is not
advisable or impossible to come back to the airfield of departure Ex. Weather below minima for landing in
case emergency

Take off alternate should be located within 1hr still air flight with 1 eng inoperative cruise speed
 169. What is enroute alternate?

Is the alternate where the aircraft can proceed during the enroute part, Enroute alternate must be reachable
during any point of enroute flight within 1hr single engine cruising speed

170. What is destination alternate?

Is the airfield where the aircraft should proceed it is not possible or inadvisable to continue to the
destination

Destination alternate should be located within 1hr still air flight with 1 eng inoperative cruise speed and
weather must be above planning minima for 1hr before till 1hr after the ETA

At least 1 alternate should be selected unless

Flight is shorter than 6 hrs, 2 separate runways are available and appropriate weather reports indicate
sufficient weather from 1hr before till 1 hr after ETA

2 alternates must be selected when

No appropriate weather reports are indicating that weather will be equal or above planning minima for 1hr
before till 1hr after ETA

No met information is available

Aerodrome is isolated and no alternate exists

171. What is contaminated runway?

Is where 25% or more of the runway is covered with water more than 3mm deep , the compacted snow that
cannot be compressed anymore, ice inc wet ice

172. Fail passive control system

Is the system that in case of the failure of one autopilot when both autopilots are engaged there is no out of
trim condition but the landing is not completed automatically

173. Fail operational control system

Is the system that in case of the failure of one autopilot when both autopilots are engaged allow auto
landing to be completed automatically

174. Flying immediately after scuba diving involves the risk of getting:

Decompression sickness without the proper decompression

175. Deep diving brakes from flying?

24h when diving up to 10m and 48 h when diving more than 10m

176. Fuel required

Taxi
Trip fuel required for the flight from departure to destination

Contingency - 5% of trip fuel or 5% of remainder of the flight if re-planning, or 5min holding speed at 1500ft
overhead destination in standard condition

Alternate

Final reserve fuel to fly for 30min at holding speed at 1500ft (when no alternate is selected, final reserve
needs to be increased to 45min cruise speed )

Extra fuel if required by the commander

177. Final reserve fuel

Fuel to fly for 30min at holding speed 1500ft above destination, or 45min if no alternate selected

178. Isolated aerodrome procedure

Normal fuel quantities , additional fuel to fly for 2 hours normal cruise consumption after arriving overhead
destination including final reserve fuel.

179. How is the runway called with the special holes on its surface?

Grooved runway

180. Icing conditions

Are the atmospheric conditions that may cause ice to form on the aircraft or in the engines, Temperature
below 10C, visible moisture, or standing water, ice or snow is present on runway or taxiway

Icing gives increase in weight, increase in the stalling speed, reduces lift qualities of the aerofoils, can cause
handling difficulties, reduces engine power output, it can block pitot probes and static ports,

181. You are climbing with the constant TAS, what is happening to the MN?

Increases

182. You are descending with constant MN, what is happening to your CAS?

Increases

183. A/C categories

Aircraft categories are based on Vat

A >90

B 91-120

C 121-140 A320

D 141-165
E <166 - 210

184. Q CODES

QDM – magnetic bearing TO the station

QDR – magnetic bearing FROM the station

QTE – true bearing FROM the station

QUJ - true bearing TO the station

QNE – height shown on the touchdown place with 1013 set

QFU – magnetic direction of the runway in use

185. What is absolute ceiling?

Is the maximum attainable altitude where height speed buffet and low speed buffet occurs at the same
speed, aircraft is unable to climb above absolute ceiling

186. During low level flight, 2 roads are crossed at right angles, the time between these
roads can be used to check:

Groundspeed

187. Hoar frost forms directly on the aircraft surface as a result of:

Water vapour turning directly in to ice on the aircraft surface

188. Bonding is used to protect the aircraft against fire by:

Setting all components to the same electrical potential

189. Linear acceleration causing somatogravic illusion false impression of:

Climb

190. What is hypoxia?

Lack of oxygen, condition where amount of oxygen is not sufficient for the body to function normally

191. What is EPR

Engine Pressure Ratio, is the ratio of exhaust pressure to compressor inlet pressure. is used as indication of
engine power output

192. What is Mach tuck?

It’s a nose down pitch tendency of the aircraft caused by the rear movement of the centre of pressure
during transonic speed.
 193. What equipment prevents Mach tuck?

Mach trim

194. You are flying from high pressure to low pressure, what is your drift?

Right

195. What are the effects of flaps?

Reduced stall speed, increased wing surface area/ camber (depending on flap type), increased drag,
increased lift, reduced CLmax , decreased climb rate, reduced take off run.

196. What are the effects of swept wings?

Higher Mcrit, higher cruise speed, more stable in turbulence, tendency to wingtip stalling first, poor lift
qualities

197. What is katabatic wind?

Is the cold wind that flows down the mountain towards the valley at night

198. What is anabatic wind?

Is the wind that blows up the hill during day

199. You are flying from high pressure to low pressure, what is happening to your true
altitude?

Reduces

200. You are flying from low pressure to high pressure, what is happening to your true
altitude?

increases

201. Stages of thunderstorm?

Initial – mainly up droughts

Mature – up droughts and downdraughts, is characterized by anvil top, shower of rain and hail,

Dissipating stage – downdraughts mainly

202. Where do you find the strongest CAT associated with jet stream

On the cold side in the warm air mass below warm air mass tropopause.

203. Communication failure, what do you do?

Set 7600 continue on the last clearance for 7 min and then continue on the filed flight plan, aim to reach FAF
as close as possible to the time on flight plan
 204. What is the difference between MEA and MORA

MEA is lowest published altitude where obstacle clearance is provided for the whole airway route or the
sector where navigational signal coverage exists, and MORA is the lowest altitude within 10NM of airway
centreline and 10NM radius from reference point, MORA clears all obstacles by 1000ft where elevation is up
to 5000ft and 2000ft where elevation is over 5000ft.

205. What do you do during engine failure after V1?

After V1 I am continuing with the take off, no actions below 400ft apart of gear up and silencing warning,
then identify and deal with the problem, make an MAYDAY call, keep climbing to MSA, return to land.

206. What altitude and pitch you will maintain after engine failure?

I would climb to MSA or above and maintain pitch that allows me to climb at blue line (Vyse)

207. You have birds strike the engine, engine fire, what is your decision? What altitude
do you fly?

First of all, Fly the aircraft, maintain positive control, monitor instruments, deal with the procedures for
engine fire, and land at the nearest suitable airfield,

208. What types of fuel we have?

JET A – freezing point -40C density 0.8kg/l

JET A1 – freezing point -47C

JET B – freezing point -60C density 0.76kg/l

209. What is the contingency fuel?

Is the extra amount of fuel to allow for the factors like deviation from planned fuel consumption, deviation
for unexpected weather conditions and deviation from planned routings and flight levels.

Is the higher of:

5% of planned trip fuel or in case of in flight replanning 5% of trip fuel for the remainder of flight

Amount to fly for 5 min at holding speed at 1500ft above destination in standard conditions.

210. At 500ft pilot incapacitation, flying alone, weather for CAT3, you are allowed to
land in CAT1 only, you have been trained to do an auto land, what is your decision?

Take over controls and communications, use maximum automation, monitor MSA, get help from Cabin crew
member, brief properly. Declare Mayday

211. What should you announce after that landing below minimum?

Mayday and PAN medical

212. What airspeed you maintain after engine failure?

Blue line speed in the climb (Vyse) and during cruise it would depend on the aircraft. In DA-42 use normal
cruising speed

213. What is fly by wire and what is the reason to use?

Fly by wire is the system where movements of flight controls are converted in to electronic signals that are
transmitted by the wires, and sent to the actuators controlling control surface

Main advantage is the reduced weight due to smaller amount of hydraulic lines and actuators, lower
maintenance costs and greater flying precision.

214. What would be most difficult with airbus?

Most difficult at the beginning would be to stay ahead of the aircraft, because this will be new experience, I
enjoy new experiences and learning quick so I would do my best to stay ahead of the aircraft and contribute
to efficient operation.

215. What is the APPROACH BAN(altitude)?

It means that approach to land may not be commenced beyond IAF when visibility is below landing minima.
If weather deteriorates after an aircraft has passed the approach ban point, the aircraft already on approach
may continue to DA(H) or MDA(H)

Outer Marker or 1000ft QNH or equivalent

216. What is the procedure in case engine failure in Seneca?

In case of engine failure after take off, half attitude, counteract yaw with rudder, Dead leg=dead engine,
good engine controls push3x, dead engine controls pull3x (slowly).Maintain blue line speed, HDG and
balance, make MAYDAY call, climb to safe alt, and switch systems for affected engine (magnetos, fuel
pumps, generator, fuel)

217. What is the engine failure procedure for DA42?

DA42 has a critical left engine, in case of a failure of that engine full rudder is required to counteract yaw.
Apply full power, identify the failed engine and reset dead engine throttle to idle, switch affected engine
master to OFF and this will feather the prop, in the climb maintain blue line speed, HDG and balance,
MAYDAY call and return for landing.

218. Types of hydroplaning

Dynamic – as a tyre accelerates along a runway with standing water (deeper than tyre tread), a bow
wave of water builds up in front of the tyre. At dynamic hydroplane speed, the pressure exerted by
the water equals the pressure created by the forward movement of the tyre; at this point, a wedge
of water slides between tyre and runway surface, lifting the tyre away from the surface.

Viscous – it happens at much lower speeds (than dynamic hydroplaning) when there is a thin film of
water on a SMOOTH DIRTY surface – typically the touchdown zones of the runway where a build up
of rubber from landing aircraft occurs.
 Steam – typically occurs during heavy braking that results in a prolonged locked-wheel skid. Only a
thin film of water on the runway is required for this type of hydroplaning. The tyre skidding
generates enough heat to cause the rubber in contact with the runway to revert to its original
uncured state. The reverted rubber acts as a seal between the tyre and the runway, and delays
water exit from the tyre footprint area. The water heats and is converted to steam which supports
the tyre off the runway.

219. How do you calculate dynamic hydroplaning speed?

DYNAMIC HYDROPLANING 9 x √P where P = Tyre pressure in PSI

PSI = 14.5 BAR

220. What is drift down procedure?

Is the procedure where during engine failure, cruise altitude is to high for the level flight on one engine.

221. Types of air masses:

Polar maritime

Polar continental

arctic

Tropical maritime

Tropical continental

222. What is SALR?

Saturated adiabatic lapse rate, is 1.8deg C per 1000ft

223. What is DALR?

Dry adiabatic lapse rate 3degC per 1000ft

224. What is ELR?

Environmental lapse rate, defines the stability of the surrounding air. If the parcel of air forced to rise and its
cooling at lower rate than ELR then it will continue to rise causing unstable condition and cumuliform cloud
to form

225. What is bypass ratio?

Is the cold air mass flow divided by hot air mass flow.

226. What is FADEC?

Full Authority Digital Engine Control is a system consisting of a digital computer, called an "electronic engine
controller" (EEC) or "engine control unit" (ECU), and its related accessories that control all aspects of aircraft
engine performance. FADECs have been produced for both piston engines and jet engines.

227. DA-42 info

Vno 151kts

Vfe 113kts

Vlo151kts

Vle 188kts

Vne 188kts

White arc 62kts – 113kts

Green arc 69kts – 151kts

Vyse 85kts

Ils speed 110 kts

Final visual 90kts

Vr 70kts

Vx80kts

Vy80kts

Cruise 130kts

2x austro engine (Fadec) fluid cooled, turbo charged

Clockwise rotating props

Fuell jet-A1

Max T/O mass 1900kg

Max land mass 1805kg

Total fuell 2x 98l

Max usable 2x 95l

fully retractable, hydraulically operated landing gear

flaps are operated electrically

 228. Seneca info

2x Lycoming IO-360ClE6 engines 200BHP

Fuel injected

Constant speed counter rotating props (no critical engine)

Controllable pitch Oil/Nitrogen (oil sends toward high Rpm, Nitrogen towards low RPM)

Vx 80kts

Vy 90kts

MTOW 4200lbs

MLW 4000lbs

Fuel Avgas100LL

Hydraulicly operated landing gear driven by electric pump

Fuel capacity 98 USG

Fuel usable 93 USG

 229. Separation

230. What is dutch roll?

Dutch roll is a type of yaw-roll coupling motion. This motion is normally well damped in most light aircraft,
Dutch roll stability can be artificially increased by the installation of a yaw damper.

Wings placed well above the center of mass, sweepback and dihedral wings tend increase the Dutch roll
tendencies, this is why high-winged aircraft often are slightly anhedral, and transport-category swept-wing
aircraft are equipped with yaw dampers.

231. What causes dutch roll?

Swept wings
 232. Planning minima

Type of approach Planning minima

Cat II and III Cat I

Cat I Non-precision

Non-Precision Non- precision +200ft

Circling Circling

233. Alternates

At lest 1 alternate must be selected for flight unless

- Flight doesn’t exceed 6hrs

- Two separate runways exist and and weather is better than planning minima 1hr before to 1 hr after
ETA
- The destination is isolated and no alternate exist

2 destination alternates must be selected when

- 1hr before till 1hr after weather is below minima

- No met info exists

234. Describe radio altimeter

Pulse radar or continuous wave radar is used to point vertically down and measure time taken for the
reflected signal to return. It works from 2500ft 50ft on pulse radar and down to 0ft on continuous wave

235. What is wheel shimmy?

Is the unstable oscillation of nose wheel due to flexibility of the tire sidewalls especialy at high speeds. It can
vibrate dangerously through entire aircraft causing ware in the wheel bearings and linkages. It is decreased
by the use of the shimmy dampers.

236. What is tire creep?

Tire creep is the circumference movement of the tire around wheel flange due to insufficient pressure, it is
detected by misalignment of paint markings on the tire and wheel flange.

237. What is isobar?

An isobar is the line on the met chart joining the points of equal pressure.
 238. What is the inversion layer?

Is the layer where temperature is increasing with increase of altitude. It is the absolutely stable atmosphere.

Its stopping vertical movement of the air trapping all particles beneath inversion layer thus reducing visibility

239. When you must fill the flight plan?

You must fill the flight plan for the flights:

- Within controlled airspace

- Within UIR
- When you cross FIR

240. What is SID?

Standard Instrument Departure, details specific initial routing from the particular aerodrome or the runway,
often with specific altitude and airspeed constrains along the route

241. What is STAR?

Standard Instrument Arrival details specific final route on to particular runway approach.

242. On ILS when can you descend on the glide path?

- When you have been cleared for the approach
- When you have captured localiser within +/- 5 degrees

243. How can you calculate rate of descent for 3 degree glide slope?

5X groundspeed or half of groundspeed +50

244. What is the FAF?

Final Approach Fix denotes the start of the final approach segment of either precission or non precission
approach. Its usually denoted as a locator marker or final approach distance

The FAF should always be crossed at or above the specified height before final descent is initiated.

245. Non precission minima

ILS LOC 250ft

VOR/DME 250ft
VOR 300ft
NDB 300ft
 246. Aerodrome reference code

247. Best range speed for jet

1,32Vmd

45° 60° 90°

SIN 0.5 0.707 0.866 1

COS 0.866 0.707 0.5 0
TAN 0.57 1 1.73 -

248. What is pressure altitude?

Is the altitude with the 1013(std) set on the altimeter

249. What is air pressure?

Is the weight of the column of air around or the gravity force of the air molecules. Air pressure acts in all
directions and it is decreasing with the increase of altitude.

250. What is density altitude?

Is the altitude where the density is the same in the standard atmosphere.

Its dependant on temperature, humidity and pressure.