Hema Ding FC Recalls

NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTEC
H
LET*PSYCHOMET*RESPIRATORY THERAPY*CIVIL SERVICE*NAPOLCOM
NCLEX*DHA*HAAD* PROMETRIC* UK-CBT
FINAL COACHING EXAMINATION

HEMATOLOGY
Prepared by: Prof; Rene Jesus Dinglasan, RMT,MSMT, 5th Placer
Philippine Medical Technologist Licensure Examination
NAME:
1. Of the following tests listed below, which one must be drawn first?
a. ASAP b. STAT c. Timed d. Fasting
2. Which of the findings below will be helpful in differentiating folate deficiency from vitamin B 12
deficiency?
1. Hypersegmented neutrophils
2. Anisocytosis
3. Hemoglobin level
4. Mean cell volume (MCV)
5. holoTC assay
a. 1, 2, 3, 4, and 5 c. 3 and 5
b. 1, 2, 3, and 4 d. 5 only
holoTC assay = vit b12 – transcobalamin complex

= is the metabolic active form of vitamin b 12
Transcobalamin = Prev. known as Transcobalamin II
3. A blood smear is viewed through the microscope. In there, the erythrocytes appear redder than
normal, the neutrophils are barely visible, and the eosinophils are bright orange. What is the most
probable cause? a. The slide was not stained.
b. The stain was too alkaline.
c. The slide was not rinsed sufficiently.
d. The buffer was too acidic.
4. The morphology of red cells that one would typically find in the blood smear of Sickle Cell Disease patients
is:
a. Microcytic, hypochromic c. Macrocytic, normochromic
b. Normocytic, normochromic d. Any of these
5. All deficiencies of coagulation factors are transmitted as autosomal recessive with the exceptions of: a. Factor
VIII deficiency
b. Factor IX deficiency
1 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

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c. Both A and B
d. Neither A nor B
6. While you are preparing the materials for blood extraction, the patient asked you what information will
the requested blood tests give his physician. What must you do?
a. Tell the patient something about the weather or the celebrity you have a crush on.
b. Enlighten the patient about the purpose of the tests using simple terms so that he can understand.
c. Tell the patient to shut up.
d. Tell the patient that he can ask his physician about this question and politely explain that
this is the protocol.
7. Which of the following RBC anomalies is detectable ONLY by examination of a blood smear?
a. Hypochromia = MCHC, PBS, etc
b. Microcytosis = MCV, Hct , PBS, etc
c. Anisocytosis = PBS, MCV , RDW , RBC histogram
d. Poikilocytosis
8. If you are to obtain blood from an arm on the same side as a mastectomy, physician permission is
required because:
1. The possibility of infection is higher
2. Lymphostasis may adversely affect lab test results
3. Tourniquet application may cause injury
a. 1,2, and 3 b. 2 only c. 2 and 3 d. 1 and 2
9. An erythrocyte containing eosinophilic stippling(A.K.A Schuffner’s dots) may be encountered in:

a. Plumbism b. Thalassemia c. Malarial infection d. All of these
10. Identify the inner nuclear membrane protein that plays a major role in leukocyte nuclear shape changes
that occur during normal maturation.
a. Lamin β-receptor c. NETs

b. Transcobalamin I d. MBP
11. Hypersegmented neutrophils are expected in all of the following cases, except:
a. Myelokathexis c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae infections
b. Vitamin B12 deficiency d. Folate deficiency
12. All of the choices below may be demonstrated with the use of Wright’s stain, except:
a. Cabot rings
b. Basophilic stippling
c. Pappenheimer bodies
d. Hb H inclusion bodies

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13. In the microhematocrit procedure, one should seal

the tubes at the:
a. End of the tube without the colored ring c. Either a or b
b. End of the tube with the colored ring d. Middle part of the tube
14. It is almost 1:00 in the morning when you arrived at the patient’s room and he is already deeply
asleep. You need to draw a timed blood specimen from him. How must you proceed? a. Do not
wake him up and proceed with the blood collection quietly.
b. Softly wake the patient up before proceeding with the blood collection.
c. Make a loud noise while calling out the patient’s name.
d. Inform the physician or the nurse that you will come back later when the patient is already awake.
15. Reticulum cell sarcoma is the solid tumor counterpart of the:

a. Monocytic leukemia c. CLL
b. ALL d. Plasma cell leukemia
16. Identify the drug that is most frequently implicated in acquired aplastic anemia.
a. Amidopyrine c. Cephalosporin
b. Phenacetin d. Chloramphenicol
17. If a person’s genotype is β+ / β+, the kind of beta thalassemia that he has is:
a. β-thalassemia trait c. Hb Bart hydrops fetalis syndrome
b. Cooley’s anemia d. Hb H disease
18. Burr cells are found in large numbers in which of the following conditions?
a. Liver disease c. Erythroblastosis fetalis
b. Uremia d. Leukemia
19. The most common glycolytic enzyme deficiency associated with the aerobic pathway of RBC metabolism
is:
a. Pyruvate kinase
b. Methemoglobin reductase deficiency
c. Hexokinase deficiency
d. Glucose-6-phosphate dehydrogenase (G6PD)
20. In which stage of erythrocytic maturation does hemoglobin formation begin?

a. Reticulocyte
b. Pronormoblast
c. Basophilic normoblast
d. Polychromatic normoblast
21. Which of the following test results is expectedly abnormal in Christmas disease?
a. Platelet count c. Prothrombin time (PT)
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b. Tourniquet test d. Activated

partial thromboplastin time (APTT)
22. You are asked to draw venous blood samples from a patient using ETS (evacuated tube system). After
applying the tourniquet onto the arm and cleansing the site, you inserted the needle into the antecubital fossa.
When should you remove the tourniquet?
a. Once the first tube has been filled completely.
b. Immediately after the first tube starts to fill.
c. Once the last tube has been filled completely.
d. Once the needle has been completely removed from the antecubital fossa.
23. The medical technologist stained a blood smear. He then held it up to the light and noticed that the
smear is bluer than normal. What abnormality may be expected on this smear?
a. Leptocytes c. Rouleaux
b. Lymphocytosis d. Sickle cells
24. The most common clinical application of flow cytometry is:

a. Diagnosis of Sickle Cell Disease
b. Detection of fetomaternal hemorrhage
c. Diagnosis of leukemias and lymphomas
d. Differentiation of anemias
25. The coagulation factors that require vitamin K for their production include all of these, except:
a. Stuart factor c. Fibrinogen
b. Factor IX d. Proconvertin

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26. All of the following findings suggest thalassemia, except:

a. Florid complexion c. Skeletal deformities
b. Jaundice d. Splenomegaly
27. If Hb S is present in the patient’s sample, his specimen will demonstrate this result in the sodium dithionite
tube test: ( AKA SOLUBILITY TEST )
a. Sickle cells or “holly leaf” cells under the microscope
b. Black lines on the reader scale: visible through the solution =
c. Black lines on the reader scale: not visible through the solution
d. Slightly crenated or RBCs with normal shape under the microscope
28. In the granulocytic series of maturation, what is the last stage to undergo mitosis?
a. Myeloblast b. Promyelocyte c. Myelocyte d. Metamyelocyte

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29. Statement 1: EDTA causes swelling of platelets (causes approximately 10%[20%] increase in MPV
during the first hour)
Statement 2: MPV should be based on EDTA specimens that are between 1 to 4 hours old
a. Statement 1 is true; statement 2 is false c. Statement 1 and 2 are both true.

b. Statement 1 is false; statement 2 is true d. Statement 1 and 2 are both false.
30. The first factor to be affected by warfarin is:

a. Factor V c. Factor VIII
b. Factor VII d. Factor IX
31. Which of the tests below will be most helpful in distinguishing IDA from ACI?
1. TIBC 3. Serum ferritin
2. FEP 4. Serum iron
a. 1, 2, 3, and 4 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3
32. The reversal of UFH (unfractionated heparin) overdose is done using protamine sulfate. It is described as a
cationic protein extracted from:
a. Porcine mucosa c. Moldy sweet clover
b. Salmon sperm d. Green tea
33. The critical value for reticulocyte counts (adults):

a. 0.8% b. 5.80% c. 7.8% d. Greater than 20%
34. Which of the following is considered as the storage site for vWF in the blood vessel cells?
a. Platelet alpha granules c. Both A and B
b. Weibel-Palade bodies d. Neither A nor B

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35. RBC basophilic stippling may be found in which of the following conditions?
1. Pyrimidine-5’-Nucleotidase (PN) Deficiency
2. Thalassemia
3. Lead poisoning
a. 1 and 3 b. 1, 2, and 3 c. 2 and 3 d. 3 only
36. These are specialized types of capillaries found in locations such as the bone marrow, spleen and
liver:
a. Sinusoids c. Arterioles
b. Venules d. None of these
37. Prostacyclin, also known as Prostaglandin I2, inhibits thrombocyte activation and is generated by the:
a. Eicosanoid pathway in platelets
b. Eicosanoid pathway in endothelial cells
c. Both A and B
d. Inositol Triphosphate-Diacylglycerol (IP3-DAG) pathway
38. A normal (wedge) blood film must reveal approximately:

a. 7 to 21 platelets per 10x field c. 2 to 6 platelets per 100x field
b. 2 to 6 platelets per 40x field d. 7 to 21 platelets per 100x field
39. The ultrastructure of the platelets is being studied using:

1. Electron microscopy 2. Flow cytometry 3. Molecular sequencing
a. 1 only b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. 1, 2 and 3
40. For this number, refer to the following case:

The following data were obtained from a 23-year-old Filipino female who is currently admitted
in a public hospital. ●WBC count = 13,900/mm3 ●Differential count:
Neutro: 71%
Lympho: 25%
Eosinophils: 2%
Monocytes: 2%
In the case given above, there is:

1. Absolute lymphocytosis 3. Absolute neutrophilia 5. Absolute eosinophilia
2. Relative eosinophilia 4. Absolute monocytopenia 6. Relative neutrophilia
a. 1,3,5 b. 1,2,3 c. 3 and 5 d. 3 and 6
41. The most common cause of clinically important bleeding is:

a. Platelet count of less than 100,000/µL c. Scurvy
b. Platelet count of less than 50,000/µL d. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
42. The surface-connected canalicular system (SCCS) is the route for:

1. secretion of dense granule contents 3. endocytosis
H
2. secretion of α-granule contents 4. secretion

of lysosome contents
a. 1 and 2 b. 1, 2, and 4 c. 2, 3, and 4 d. 1, 2, 3 and 4
43. All of these statements are true for the eosinophils, except:
a. It stores and transports plasminogen.
b. Moderate to severe eosinophilia is observed in helminthic infections.
c. It is classified as a phagocyte.
d. None of the above.
44. Which of the following is considered as the earliest marker of erythroid differentiation?
a. CD 8 b. CD 34 c. CD 71 d. CD 41
45. Faggot cells are most commonly encountered in:

a. Acute promyelocytic leukemia c. Chronic myelogenous leukemia
b. Acute myelomonocytic leukemia d. Acute erythroleukemia
46. A blood smear that shows holes all over the film may mean that the patient’s specimen has:
a. Increased protein levels c. Increased lipid levels
b. Markedly increased WBC counts and platelet counts d. All of these
47. Identify from the choices below which one serves as the platelet receptor for
epinephrine(AKA ADRENALINE).
a. PAR 1 c. IP
b. PAR 4 d. α2-adrenergic
48. Which of the following may be used as a buffer in the staining of peripheral blood films?
1. Methanol 4. Tap water placed in a glass bottle for at least 24 hours
2. Sodium phosphate 5. Distilled water placed in a glass bottle for 26 hours already
3. Methylene blue 6. Distilled water placed in a glass bottle for at least 12 hours
a. 1 and 3 b. 2 and 4 c. 2 and 5 d. 1, 3, 5
49. Which of the following appear as the first markers of megakaryocytic differentiation?
1. CD71 2. CD41 3. CD45 4. CD61
a. 1 and 2 b. 2 and 4 c. 2 and 3 d. 2, 3, and 4
50. The largest molecule in the human plasma is:

a. HMWK b. Factor V c. Fibrinogen d. VWF

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51. Which of the following enzymes regulates the

size of circulating VWF by cleaving ultra-long VWF
multimers (ULVWF) into shorter segments?
a. Fibrinolysin b. TAFI c. ADAMTS-13 d. Plasmin
52. To properly mix the blood and the anticoagulant in the light blue top tube, the medtech must invert
the tube:
a. Five to eight times c. Eight times
b. Three to four times d. Twice
53. The cyclooxygenase of the eosinophils is found in the:

a. Lipid bodies c. Secondary granules
b. Small lysosomal granules d. Primary granules
54. All of the following abnormalities are expected in a Fanconi anemia patient, except:
a. Skeletal abnormalities like thumb malformations
b. Tall stature
c. Cancer susceptibility
d. Skin pigmentation
55. Which of the following machines is used for ESR determination?

a. VES-MATIC 20 Instrument c. Abbott CELL-DYN Sapphire
b. Sysmex R-3500 d. HemoCue

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56. Which of the tests below will be helpful in distinguishing IDA from Thalassemias?
3. 1. TIBC Serum ferritin
4. 2. FEP Serum iron
a. 1, 2, 3, and 4 b. 1 and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 1, 2 and 3
57. A patient’s sample showed the following test results: abnormal PT, abnormal APTT and normal TT.
These results may be found in:
1. Afibrinogenemia 3. Administration of Coumadin
2. Deficiency of Factor II 4. Deficiency of Factor V

a. 1,2,3 b. 2,3,4 c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and
58. Which of the following descriptions is/are true for the fibrinogen group of coagulation factors?
1. Present in serum 3. Adsorbed by barium sulfate
2. NOT vitamin K dependent 4. Acute phase reactants
a. 1 and 3 b. 1 ,2, and 3 c. 2 and 4 d. 2 only
59. Which of the following components of the platelet dense granules supports neighboring platelet
aggregation by binding to P2Y1 and P2Y12?
a. ADP b. Histamine c. Epinephrine d. ATP
60. The four globin chains present in Hemoglobin A1 are:

a. 2 pairs of alpha, 2 pairs of beta c. 1 pair of alpha, 1 pair of beta
b. Two pairs of beta d. 1 pair of alpha
61. Which of the following conditions will produce a falsely increased WBC count?
a. Presence of lysis-resistant RBCs containing abnormal hemoglobins
b. Increased numbers of nucleated RBCs
c. Both A and B
d. Lipemia
62. What is the correct order of draw for the skin puncture procedure?
a. EDTA microcollection tube→Serum microcollection tube→
Other microcollection tubes with anticoagulants→ Slides →Tube for blood gas
analysis
b. Tube for blood gas analysis→ Slides→ EDTA microcollection tube→
Other microcollection tubes with anticoagulants→ Serum microcollection tube
c. EDTA microcollection tube →Other microcollection tubes
with anticoagulants→Serum microcollection tube→ Slides→Tube for blood
gas analysis
d. Tube for blood gas analysis → EDTA microcollection tube→ Other

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microcollection tubes with anticoagulants→Serum

microcollection tube→Slides
63. All of these globin chains are composed of 141 amino acids, except:
1. Alpha 2. Beta 3. Delta 4. Gamma 5. Zeta
a. 1 and 5 b. 2, 3 and 4 c. 1 and 2 d. 1,2, and 3 e. 5 only
64. All of the following situations will produce an increased ESR result, except:
a. Placing the ESR tubes on a table where, currently, a medical technologist is busy writing down laboratory
results.
b. Placing the ESR tubes inside a bacteriology incubator which is currently in use.
c. A specimen coming from a pregnant patient.
d. An EDTA blood specimen that was not properly inverted immediately after blood collection.
65. It is the enzyme involved in the breakdown of ribosomal ribonucleic acid (RNA) in reticulocytes:
a. Pyrimidine 5’-nucleotidase c. Ferrochelatase
b. Uroporphyrinogen synthase d. Heme synthetase
●For nos. 66 to 70, shade or type A if the scenario may cause a SHORTENED coagulation test result; shade or type B if
the scenario may cause a PROLONGED coagulation test result.
66. After collecting the specimen, the technologist immediately inverted the tube four times. He placed the blood
collection tube in the phlebotomy transport box. However, he did not use the tray and allowed the tube to lie down
inside the box. He then carried the transport box containing the specimen to the laboratory. A
67. After inserting the needle into the arm of the patient, the phlebotomist found out that he did not hit the vein. He then
tried to search the vein while the needle was still inside the arm. A
68. After collecting the specimen, the technologist immediately inverted the tube twice. B
69. The patient’s skin was still wet with 70% alcohol when the phlebotomist inserted the needle into the arm and
collected the needed blood specimen. A
70. The phlebotomist was not able to collect the right volume of blood for the coagulation test. The required volume to be
placed in the light blue top is 5 mL but he was only able to get 2 mL of blood. B
71. The process of replacing the active marrow by adipose tissue during development is called:
a. Retrogression c. Extramedullary hematopoiesis

b. Progression d. None of these
72. The most common forms of BSS (Bernard-Soulier syndrome) involve defects in:
a. GP Ibα synthesis or expression

b. GP V synthesis or expression
c. GP Ibβ synthesis or expression
d. GP IX synthesis or expression
73. Which of the following statements regarding the yellow marrow are correct?
1. It is mostly adipose tissue.
2. It is hematopoietically active.
3. During abnormal demand, it may be changed to red marrow.
4. It is found primarily in the bones of the newborn.
a. 1 and 3 c. 1, 2, and 3

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b. 1 and 4 d. 4 only
74. These cells are the most abundant type of cell in the body:
a. Red blood cells b. Macrophages c. Skin cells d. Lymphocytes
75. A blood test is requested for a patient and so you went to the patient’s room right away. Upon arrival, you found out
that he and his physician are currently having a discussion. In what situation would it be proper to interrupt their
conversation?
a. If the blood to be collected is a timed sample.
b. If the blood to be collected is a STAT sample.
c. Both A and B
d. None of the choices. In any given situation, the phlebotomist must never interrupt the conversation between
the physician and the patient.
76. The appropriate name for inorganic iron granules within RBCs on a Wright-stained blood smear is:
a. Siderotic granules c. Howell-Jolly bodies
b. Pappenheimer bodies d. Heinz bodies
77. What component of the coagulation cascade is a strong stimulus to the activation of the platelets?
a. Factor Va b. Thrombin c. Factor XIIIa d. Prostacyclin
78. Which of the following is described as an autosomal recessive disorder with oculocutaneous albinism and
normal platelet count?
a. Hermansky-Pudlak c. Wiskott-Aldrich
b. Chediak-Higashi d. Thrombocytopenia with absent radius
79. Which of the patients below will most likely demonstrate an increased ESR result?
1. A male patient with a hematocrit of 20%
2. A patient with megaloblastic anemia
3. A patient with hereditary spherocytosis
4. A patient with PRV (polycythemia rubra vera)
a. 1, 2, 3 and 4 b. 3 and 4 c. 1 and 2 d. 1 and 3
80. In the first trimester of gestation, the hemoglobins that are normally present are the:
1. Hb A1 4. Gower 2
2. Gower 1 5. Hb A2 3. Hb F
6. Portland
a. 2, 3, 4, and 6 b. 2, 4 and 6 c. 1, 2, 3 and 4 d. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6
81. Which of the following is described as an autosomal recessive disorder with no albinism and normal
platelet count?
a. Hermansky-Pudlak c. Wiskott-Aldrich
b. Chediak-Higashi d. Thrombocytopenia with absent radius
82. Hemolytic Uremic Syndrome (HUS) is characterized by all of the following, except:
1. Kidney failure 3. Helmet cells
2. Mucocutaneous hemorrhage 4. Elevated platelet count
a. 1, 2, and 3 b. 1 and 3 c. 3 and 4 d. 4 only
83. It is reported that the patient’s hematocrit is 0.52 L/L and his RBC count is 5.8 x 1012/L. What will be the
expected MCV of this patient?
a. 86.95 fL b. 0.8966 fL c. 89.66 fL d. 90.21 fL
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84. Which of the following tubes contain gel?

a. Royal blue top b. Pink top c. White top d. Light blue top
85. Calculate the WBC count estimate if you were able to observe the following numbers of leukocytes in 10
fields (using 40x high-dry objective): 13, 12, 12, 15, 11, 12, 11, 11, 10 and 13.
a. 48, 000/µL c. 24, 000/µL
b. 12, 000/µL d. 36, 000/µL
86. From the choices below, identify which one has no nucleus.
1. Basophilic normoblast
2. Polychromatophilic normoblast
3. Orthochromatic normoblast
a. 3 only b. 1 and 2 c. 2 and 3 d. None of the choices
87. Morula cells are an expected finding in:
a. Plasma cell myeloma c. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
b. Hurler syndrome d. Hairy cell leukemia
88. Calculate the WBC count estimate if you were able to observe the following numbers of leukocytes in 10
fields (using 50x oil immersion objective): 7, 8, 9, 10, 8, 10, 9, 10, 10 and 9.
a. 18, 000/µL c. 24, 000/µL
b. 45,000/µL d. 27, 000/µL
89. After you have correctly confirmed an unconscious patient’s identity, you are now about to perform
venipuncture on him. Which of the following is the appropriate approach in the performance of your task?
a. Communicate to this unconscious patient each step of the process.

b. Start the venipuncture procedure without disturbing the patient. Do not talk to the patient.
c. Call a nurse to document consent and witness the venipuncture procedure.
d. Tap the patient’s venipuncture site forcefully so that he will be aware of the procedure.
90. Which of the following statements is false concerning the fibrinogen?

a. It is the most concentrated of all the plasma procoagulants.
b. It is essential for platelet aggregation.
c. Platelet dense granules absorb, transport and release abundant fibrinogen.
d. d. None of the above

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91. The patient demonstrated a prolonged PT result together

with a normal APTT result. This patient most likely has:
a. Factor VII deficiency c. Factor VIII deficiency
b. Factor XIII deficiency d. Christmas disease
92. Which of the following statements is false concerning the DTS (dense tubular system)?
a. It is parallel and closely aligned to the SCCS.
b. It sequesters lithium.
c. It bears a series of enzymes that support platelet activation.
d. It is considered as the “control center” for platelet activation.
93. In Owren’s disease , the results in the patient’s coagulation tests will be:
a. PT: normal, APTT: prolonged
b. PT: prolonged, APTT: prolonged
c. PT: prolonged, APTT: normal
d. PT: normal, APTT: normal
94. Dietary deficiency of vitamin B12 is infrequent. However, this condition is possible for:
a. People who do NOT eat vegetables c. HIV-positive individuals
b. Strict vegetarians d. People who avoid sunlight
95. Which of the following types of myeloblasts is rare in normal marrows, but can be seen in certain types of
acute myeloid leukemias?
a. Type I myeloblast c. Type III myeloblasts
b. Type II myeloblast d. None of these
96. In the Solubility Test for detecting Hb S, the one that causes the lysis of erythrocytes in the sample is:
a. Sodium dithionite c. Saponin
b. Sodium metabisulfite d. Potassium cyanide
97. You are now about to process a blood specimen taken from a patient who has just been transfused with
RBCs because according to his physician, he is demonstrating severe anemia. What will be the expected RBC
histogram and RDW results of this patient?
a. RBC histogram will demonstrate a shift to the left and the RDW will be above normal range.
b. RBC histogram will demonstrate a bimodal curve and the RDW will be within normal range.
c. RBC histogram will demonstrate a shift to the right and the RDW will be above normal range.
d. RBC histogram will demonstrate a bimodal curve and the RDW will be above normal range.
98. While trying to determine the patient’s leukocyte differential count, you were able to observe 16 nucleated
red cells in the blood film. If the patient’s initial WBC count is 24,530/µL, the corrected WBC count will be:
a. 21, 146.55/µL c. 21, 100/µL
b. 153, 312.50/µL d. 211.47/µL

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99. Through what manner will the LMWH be administered to patients?

a. Subcutaneous injection
b. Oral
c. Rectal
d. Either A or B
100. Consumption coagulopathy may be associated with:

1. Abruptio placenta
2. Malaria infection
3. Gram negative septicemia
4. AML M3
a. 1, 2, and 3 c. 1, 2, 3 and 4
b. 2, 3 and 4 d. 3 and 4

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NURSING*RADTECH*DENTISTRY*CRIMINOLOGY*MIDWIFERY*MEDTEC

FINAL COACHING EXAMINATION

holoTC assay = vit b12 – transcobalamin complex

1 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

9. An erythrocyte containing eosinophilic stippling(A.K.A Schuffner’s dots) may be encountered in:

a. Lamin β-receptor c. NETs

2 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

13. In the microhematocrit procedure, one should seal

15. Reticulum cell sarcoma is the solid tumor counterpart of the:

20. In which stage of erythrocytic maturation does hemoglobin formation begin?

b. Tourniquet test d. Activated

24. The most common clinical application of flow cytometry is:

4 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

26. All of the following findings suggest thalassemia, except:

5 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

a. Statement 1 is true; statement 2 is false c. Statement 1 and 2 are both true.

30. The first factor to be affected by warfarin is:

33. The critical value for reticulocyte counts (adults):

6 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

38. A normal (wedge) blood film must reveal approximately:

39. The ultrastructure of the platelets is being studied using:

40. For this number, refer to the following case:

In the case given above, there is:

41. The most common cause of clinically important bleeding is:

42. The surface-connected canalicular system (SCCS) is the route for:

2. secretion of α-granule contents 4. secretion

45. Faggot cells are most commonly encountered in:

50. The largest molecule in the human plasma is:

8 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

51. Which of the following enzymes regulates the

a. Fibrinolysin b. TAFI c. ADAMTS-13 d. Plasmin

53. The cyclooxygenase of the eosinophils is found in the:

55. Which of the following machines is used for ESR determination?

9 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

2. Deficiency of Factor II 4. Deficiency of Factor V

60. The four globin chains present in Hemoglobin A1 are:

10 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

microcollection tubes with anticoagulants→Serum

a. Retrogression c. Extramedullary hematopoiesis

a. GP Ibα synthesis or expression

11 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

84. Which of the following tubes contain gel?

a. Communicate to this unconscious patient each step of the process.

90. Which of the following statements is false concerning the fibrinogen?

13 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

91. The patient demonstrated a prolonged PT result together

14 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

99. Through what manner will the LMWH be administered to patients?

100. Consumption coagulopathy may be associated with:

15 TOPRANK REVIEW ACADEMY

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NURSINGRADTECHDENTISTRYCRIMINOLOGYMIDWIFERY*MEDTEC