NEET TEST SERIES 2022

TEST CODE : NT - 14
Candidate’s Name

A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A A
B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B B
C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C C Important Instructions
D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D D Darken one circle deeply for each questions in the OMR Answer Sheet,
E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E E as faintly darkened, half darkened circle might be rejected by the
F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F F Optical Scanner.
G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G G Wrong Marking Correction Marking
H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H H P
I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I I
J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J J
Use blue/black ball point pen to record the answer.
Rough work must not be done on the answer sheet.
K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K K Please do not make any stray marks on the answer sheet.
L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L L
M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M M Contact No. (with STD Code)/Mobile Number
N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N N
O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O O
P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P P
Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q Q 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0 0
R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R R 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S S 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T T 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3
U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U U 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4
V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V V 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5
W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W W 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6
X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X X 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7
Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y Y 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8
Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z Z 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9

PHYSICS CHEMISTRY BOTANY BIOLOGY ZOOLOGY

Section A Section A Section A Section A
1 1 2 3 4 51 1 2 3 4 101 1 2 3 4 151 1 2 3 4
2 1 2 3 4 52 1 2 3 4 102 1 2 3 4 152 1 2 3 4
3 1 2 3 4 53 1 2 3 4 103 1 2 3 4 153 1 2 3 4
4 1 2 3 4 54 1 2 3 4 104 1 2 3 4 154 1 2 3 4
5 1 2 3 4 55 1 2 3 4 105 1 2 3 4 155 1 2 3 4
6 1 2 3 4 56 1 2 3 4 106 1 2 3 4 156 1 2 3 4
7 1 2 3 4 57 1 2 3 4 107 1 2 3 4 157 1 2 3 4
8 1 2 3 4 58 1 2 3 4 108 1 2 3 4 158 1 2 3 4
9 1 2 3 4 59 1 2 3 4 109 1 2 3 4 159 1 2 3 4
10 1 2 3 4 60 1 2 3 4 110 1 2 3 4 160 1 2 3 4
11 1 2 3 4 61 1 2 3 4 111 1 2 3 4 161 1 2 3 4
12 1 2 3 4 62 1 2 3 4 112 1 2 3 4 162 1 2 3 4
13 1 2 3 4 63 1 2 3 4 113 1 2 3 4 163 1 2 3 4
14 1 2 3 4 64 1 2 3 4 114 1 2 3 4 164 1 2 3 4
15 1 2 3 4 65 1 2 3 4 115 1 2 3 4 165 1 2 3 4
16 1 2 3 4 66 1 2 3 4 116 1 2 3 4 166 1 2 3 4
17 1 2 3 4 67 1 2 3 4 117 1 2 3 4 167 1 2 3 4
18 1 2 3 4 68 1 2 3 4 118 1 2 3 4 168 1 2 3 4
19 1 2 3 4 69 1 2 3 4 119 1 2 3 4 169 1 2 3 4
20 1 2 3 4 70 1 2 3 4 120 1 2 3 4 170 1 2 3 4
21 1 2 3 4 71 1 2 3 4 121 1 2 3 4 171 1 2 3 4
22 1 2 3 4 72 1 2 3 4 122 1 2 3 4 172 1 2 3 4
23 1 2 3 4 73 1 2 3 4 123 1 2 3 4 173 1 2 3 4
24 1 2 3 4 74 1 2 3 4 124 1 2 3 4 174 1 2 3 4
25 1 2 3 4 75 1 2 3 4 125 1 2 3 4 175 1 2 3 4
26 1 2 3 4 76 1 2 3 4 126 1 2 3 4 176 1 2 3 4
27 1 2 3 4 77 1 2 3 4 127 1 2 3 4 177 1 2 3 4
28 1 2 3 4 78 1 2 3 4 128 1 2 3 4 178 1 2 3 4
29 1 2 3 4 79 1 2 3 4 129 1 2 3 4 179 1 2 3 4
30 1 2 3 4 80 1 2 3 4 130 1 2 3 4 180 1 2 3 4
31 1 2 3 4 81 1 2 3 4 131 1 2 3 4 181 1 2 3 4
32 1 2 3 4 82 1 2 3 4 132 1 2 3 4 182 1 2 3 4
33 1 2 3 4 83 1 2 3 4 133 1 2 3 4 183 1 2 3 4
34 1 2 3 4 84 1 2 3 4 134 1 2 3 4 184 1 2 3 4
35 1 2 3 4 85 1 2 3 4 135 1 2 3 4 185 1 2 3 4
Section B (Attempt Any 10) Section B (Attempt Any 10) Section B (Attempt Any 10) Section B (Attempt Any 10)

36 1 2 3 4 86 1 2 3 4 136 1 2 3 4 186 1 2 3 4
37 1 2 3 4 87 1 2 3 4 137 1 2 3 4 187 1 2 3 4
38 1 2 3 4 88 1 2 3 4 138 1 2 3 4 188 1 2 3 4
39 1 2 3 4 89 1 2 3 4 139 1 2 3 4 189 1 2 3 4
40 1 2 3 4 90 1 2 3 4 140 1 2 3 4 190 1 2 3 4
41 1 2 3 4 91 1 2 3 4 141 1 2 3 4 191 1 2 3 4
42 1 2 3 4 92 1 2 3 4 142 1 2 3 4 192 1 2 3 4
43 1 2 3 4 93 1 2 3 4 143 1 2 3 4 193 1 2 3 4
44 1 2 3 4 94 1 2 3 4 144 1 2 3 4 194 1 2 3 4
45 1 2 3 4 95 1 2 3 4 145 1 2 3 4 195 1 2 3 4
46 1 2 3 4 96 1 2 3 4 146 1 2 3 4 196 1 2 3 4
47 1 2 3 4 97 1 2 3 4 147 1 2 3 4 197 1 2 3 4
48 1 2 3 4 98 1 2 3 4 148 1 2 3 4 198 1 2 3 4
49 1 2 3 4 99 1 2 3 4 149 1 2 3 4 199 1 2 3 4
50 1 2 3 4 100 1 2 3 4 150 1 2 3 4 200 1 2 3 4
 AIM NEET Full Test-04

TOPIC COVERED
Physics: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)
Chemistry: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)
Botany: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)
Zoology: Full Syllabus (Class 11 &12)

Duration: 3 hr 20 min Max Marks: 720

Date: 19/06/2022
General Instructions:
• The test will contain 200 Questions of Physics, Chemistry, Botany, and Zoology & The test will be objective type.
(Attempt only 180).
• Every subject contains two Section A-35 Questions and Section B-15 Questions (Attempt only 10).
• All 35 Questions of Section-A are Compulsory to attempt.
• Time given for test is 200 minutes.
• Marking is +4 for every correct answer, –1 for every wrong answer.
• You can reattempt the test in case of any technical issue.
• Test will start at 2:00 pm and students can attempt test at any time of their own preferences

PHYSICS
SECTION - A
1. Three charge 2q, −q, –q are located at the vertices 3. When a piece of aluminium wire of finite length is
of an equilateral triangle. At the center of the drawn through a series of dies to reduce its
triangle diameter to half its original value, its resistance
(1) The field is zero but potential is non-zero will become
(2) The field is non-zero but potential is zero (1) Two times
(3) Both field and potential are zero (2) Four times
(4) Both field and potential are non-zero (3) Eight times
(4) Sixteen times
2. Plates of area A are arranged as shown. The
distance between each plate is d, the net 4. In the given figure, battery E is balanced on 55 cm
capacitance is length of potentiometer wire but when a resistance
of 10  is connected in parallel with the battery
then it balances on 50 cm length of the
potentiometer then fine the internal resistance.

0 A
(1)
d
7 0 A
(2)
d (1) 1
(3)
6 0 A (2) 3
d (3) 10 
5 0 A (4) 5
(4)
d

[1]
5. A wire carrying current I has the shape as shown 9. A diamagnetic material in a magnet field moves
in adjoining figure. Linear parts of the wire are (1) From weaker to the stronger parts of the field
very long and parallel to X-axis while semicircular (2) Perpendicular to the field
portion of radius R is lying in Y-Z plane. magnetic
(3) From stronger to the weaker parts of the field
field at point O is
(4) In none of the above directions

10. A LCR series A.C. circuit is tuned to resonance.

The impedence of the circuit is now
(1) R
1/ 2
  1  
2
(2)  R 2 +  − L 
  C  

1/ 2
  1  
2
0 I (3)  R 2 + (L)2  
(1) B = − (i + 2k )   C  
4 R 
1/ 2
 I   1  
2
(2) B = 0 (i − 2k ) (4)  R 2 +  (L +  
4 R   C  
 I
(3) B = 0 (i + 2k )
4 R 11. If the threshold wavelength for sodium is 5420 Å,
 I then the work function of sodium is
(4) B = − 0 (i − 2k )
4 R (1) 4.58 eV (2) 2.28 eV
(3) 1.14 eV (4) 0.23 eV
6. A charged particle moving in a magnetic field
experience a resultant force
12. The energy of a hydrogen atom in its ground state
(1) In the direction of field is –13.6 eV. The energy of the level
(2) In the direction opposite to the field corresponding to the quantum number n = 2 (first
(3) In the direction perpendicular to both the excited state) in the hydrogen atom is
field and its velocity (1) –2.72 eV (2) –0.85 eV
(4) None of the above (3) –0.54 eV (4) –3.4 eV

7. A, B and C are parallel conductor of equal length 13. If T is the half life of a radioactive material, then
carrying current I, I and 2I respectively. Distance the fraction that would remain after a time 𝑇/2 is
between A and B is 𝓍. Distance between B and C
1 3
is also 𝓍. F1 is the force exerted by B on A and F2 (1) (2)
is the force exerted by C on A. Choose the correct 2 4
answer 1 2 −1
(3) (4)
2 2

14. Consider the junction diode as ideal. The value of

current flowing through AB is

(1) F1 = 2F2 (1) 0A

(2) F2 = 2F1 (2) 10−2 A
(3) F1 = F2 (3) 10−1 A
(4) F1 = –F2 (4) 10−3 A

8. Two lines of force due to a bar magnet 15. In a transistor if collector current is 25 mA and
(1) Intersect at the neutral point base current is 1 mA, then current amplification
factor  is
(2) Intersect near the poles of the magnet
(3) Intersect on the equatorial axis of the magnet 25 24
(1) (2)
(4) Do not intersect at all 24 25
25 26
(3) (4)
26 25

[2]
16. Which logic is represented by following diagram 23. A stone dropped from the top of the tower touches
the ground in 4 sec. The height of the tower is
about
(1) 80 m
(1) AND (2) OR (2) 40 m
(3) NOR (4) XOR (3) 20 m
(4) 160 m
17. A ray of light passes from a medium A having
refractive index 1.6 to the medium B having
24. A missile is fired for maximum range with an
refractive index 1.5. The value of critical angle of
initial velocity of 20m /s. If g = 10 m/𝑠2, the range
medium A is
of the missile is
 16  16
(1) sin −1   (2) sin −1 (1) 20 m
 15  15 (2) 40 m
 1  15  (3) 50 m
(3) sin −1   (4) sin −1  
 2  16  (4) 60 m

18. An object has image thrice of its original size 25. An object start sliding on a frictionless inclined
when kept at 8 cm and 16 cm from a convex lens. plane and from same height another object start
Focal length of the lens is falling freely
(1) 8 cm (1) Both will reach with same speed
(2) 16 cm (2) Both will reach with same acceleration
(3) Between 8 cm and 16 cm (3) Both will reach in same time
(4) Less than 8 cm (4) None of above

19. Two coherent monochromatic light beams of 26. A shell initially at rest explodes into two pieces of
intensities I and 4I are superposed. The maximum equal mass, then the two pieces will
and minimum possible intensities in the resulting (1) Be at rest
beam are (2) Move with different speed in different
(1) 5I and I direction
(2) 5I and 3I (3) Move with the same speed in opposite
(3) 9I and I direction
(4) 9I and 3I (4) Move with the same speed in same direction

20. A single slit of width 0.02 mm is illuminated with 27. Which of the following is not a perfectly inelastic
light of wavelength 500 nm. The observing screen collision
is placed 80 cm from the slit. The width of the (1) Striking of two glass balls
central bright fringe will be (2) A bullet striking a bag of sand
(1) 1 mm (3) An electron captured by a proton
(2) 2 mm (4) A man jumping onto a moving cart
(3) 4 mm
(4) 5 mm 28. Moment of inertia of a ring of mass M and radius
R about an axis passing through the centre and
21. Refractive index of material is equal to tangent of perpendicular to the plane is I. What is the
polarising angle. It is called moment of inertia about its diameter
(1) Brewster s law (1) I (2) I/2
(2) Lambert’s law (3) 𝐼/√2 (4) I + 𝑀𝑅2
(3) Malus’s law
(4) Bragg’s law 29. If the radius of the earth is suddenly contracts to
half of its present value, then the duration of day
will be of
22. The value of ( A + B )  ( A − B ) is
(1) 6 hours
(1) 0
(2) A2 – B2 (2) 12 hours
(3) B  A (3) 18 hours
(4) 24 hours
(4) 2( B  A)

[3]
30. The principle of conservation of angular SECTION - B
momentum, states that angular momentum (ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
(1) Always remains conserved
36. The coefficient of volume expansion of a liquid is
(2) Is the product of moment of inertia and 49 × 10–5 K–1. Calculate the fractional change in
velocity its density when the temperature is raised by
(3) Remains conserved until the toque acting on 30°C.
it remains constant (1) 7.5 × 10–2
(4) None of these (2) 3.0 × 10–2
(3) 1.5 × 10–2
31. The escape velocity of a planet having mass 6 (4) 1.1 × 10–2
times and radius 2 times as that of the earth is
(1) 3 Ve (2) 3 𝑉𝑒 37. If the molecular weight of two gases are M1 and
(3) 2 Ve (4) 2 𝑉𝑒 M2 then at a temperature the ratio of root mean
Square velocity v1 and v2 will be

32. Which one of the following statements is correct M1 M2

(1) (2)
in suspect of a geostationary satellite M2 M1
(1) It moves in a plane containing the Greenwich M1 + M 2 M1 − M 2
meridian (3) (4)
M1 − M 2 M1 + M 2
(2) It moves in a plane perpendicular to the
celestial equatorial plane
(3) Its height above the earth’s about the same as 38. When an ideal monoatomic gas is heated at
the radius of the earth constant pressure, fraction of heat energy supplied
(4) Its height above the surface is about six times which increase the internal energy of gas, is
the radius of the earth (1) 2/5 (2) 3/5
(2) 3/7 (4) 3/4
33. Young’s modulus of the wire depends on
(1) Length of the wire 39. According to Wien’s law
(2) Diameter of the wire m
(1) 𝜆mT (2) = constant
(3) Material of the wire T
(4) Mass hanging from the T
(3) = constant (4) T + 𝜆m = constant
m
34. Blood is following at the rate of 200 cm3s–1 in a
capillary of cross sectional area 0.5 m2. The 40. The velocity of a particle in simple harmonic
velocity of flow, in mms–1, is motion at displacement y from mean position is
(1) 0.1 (2) 0.2
(3) 0.3 (4) 0.4 (1)  a 2 + y 2 (2)  a 2 − y 2

(3) y (4)  2 a 2 − y 2
35. When a body falls in air, the resistance of the
body, 3 different shapes are given. Identify the
combination of air resistance which truly 41. The total energy of the body executing S.H.M is
represents the physical situation. (The cross E. Then the kinetic energy when the displacement
sectional areas are the same). is
Is half of the amplitude, is
E E
(1) (2)
2 4
3E 3
(3) (4) E
4 4

(i) Disc 42. A particle executes SHM with amplitude 0.2 m

(ii) Ball and time period 24 s. The time required for it to
(iii) Cigar sheped move from the mean position to a point 0.1 m is
(1) 1<2<3 (2) 2 < 3 < 1 (1) 2 s (2) 3 s
(3) 3<2<1 (4) 3 < 1 < 2 (3) 8 s (4) 12 s

[4]
43. Doppler effect is application for 48. For a given velocity, a projectile has the same
(1) Moving bodies range R for two angles of projection if t1 and t2 are
(2) One is moving and other are stationary the time of flight in the two cases then
(3) for relative motion (1) t1t2  R2
(4) None of these (2) t1t2  R
1
(3) t1t2 
44. An object is placed 40 cm from concave mirror of R
focal length 20cm. The image formed is 1
(4) t1t2 
(1) Real, inverted and same in size R2
(2) Real, inverted and smaller
(3) Virtual, erect and larger 49. A block is kept on a frictionless inclined surface
(4) Virtual, erect and smaller with angle of inclination ‘a’. The incline is given
an acceleration ‘a’ to keep the block stationary.
Then a is equal to
45. A ray of light is incident normally on one of the
face of a prism of angle 30° and refractive index
√2 . The angle of deviation will be
(1) 26° (2) 0°
(3) 23° (4) 15°
(1) g
46. Two slits are separated by a distance of 0.5 mm (2) g tan 
and illuminated with light of 𝜆 = 6000 Å. If the (3) g/tan 
screen is placed 2.5 m from the slits. The distance
of the third right fringe from the centre will be (4) g cosec 
(1) 1.5 mm (2) 3 mm
50. When two spheres of equal masses undergo
(3) 6 mm (4) 9 mm glacing elastic collision with one of them at rest
after collision they will move
47. Light is incident on a glass surface at polarising (1) Opposite to one another
angle of 57.5°. Then the angle between the (2) In the same direction
incident ray and the refracted ray is (3) Randomly
(1) 57.5° (2) 115° (4) At right angle to each other
(3) 205° (4) 145°

[5]
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION - A
51. A solution of sodium sulphate contains 92 g of 60. The compound which has maximum solubility in
Na+ ions per kilogram of water. The molality of water is?
Na+ ions in that solution in mol kg–1 is (1) Cs2SO4 (2) K2SO4
(1) 16 (2) 4 (3) Na2SO4 (4) Li2SO4
(3) 132 (4) 8
61. Which of the following is responsible for
52. Predict the total spin in Ni+2 ion temporary hardness in H2O?
5 3 (1) Cl– (2) SO 2–
(1)  (2)  4
2 2
(3) NO3– (4) HCO3−
1
(3)  (4) ± 1
2 62. Which of the alkali metal on exposure to air forms
oxide only?
53. The momentum of radiation of wavelength 0.33
(1) Li (2) Na
nm is ……….. kg m/sec.
(3) Rb (4) Cs
(1) 2 × 10–24 (2) 2 × 10–12
(3) 2 × 10–6 (4) 2 × 10–48 63. The gas produced when carbide of Be is
hydrolyzed is?
54. If the temperature of gas is increased by 10%, (1) CH4 (2) C2H6
what will be the % decrease in density? (under (3) C2H2 (4) C2H4
constant pressure)
(1) 10% (2) 20% 64. The strongest lewis acid among the following is?
(3) 5% (4) 9.09% (1) BF3 (2) BCl3
(3) BBr3 (4) BI3
55. Two moles of an ideal gas expanded isothermally
and reversibly from 1 litre to 10 litre at 300 K. 65. Which oxide of Group-14 is amphoteric in nature?
The enthalpy change (in KJ) for the process is:
(1) CO (2) SiO
(1) 11.4 (2) –11.4
(3) GeO (4) PbO
(3) 0 (4) 4.8
66. IUPAC name of the following is
56. The heat of neutralization of three monobasic
acids HA, HB and HC are –1.5 Kcal, –12.4 Kcal CH2 = CH − CH2 − CH2 − C  CH
and –12.7 Kcal respectively. (1) 1, 5-hexenyne (2) 1-hexene-5-yne
What will be the order of their acidic strength? (3) 1-hexyne-5-ene (4) 1, 5-hexynene
(1) A > B > C (2) B > A > C
(3) C > B > A (4) A > C > B 67. The compound with minimum pKa value is?

57. 2A(g) + B(s) 3C(g) + Heat (1) CH3 − OH (2)

‘Bֹ’ is added to equilibrium mixture. Predict the
direction of change? O
(1) Forward (2) Backward (3) C2H2 (4) ||
CH3 − C − OH
(3) No change (4) Can’t be predicted

58. The pH of a monobasic weak acid (Ka = 10–5) is 68. The most stable carbocation among the following
5. Calculate degree of dissociation. is?
(1) 1 (2) 0.5 
(1)  (2) Ph – CH 2
(3) 0.75 (4) 0.25 CH2
Me 
59. Atomic number 83 belongs to which group in | Ph – C – Ph
periodic table? (3) Me – C  (4) |
| Ph
(1) 1st (2) 3rd Me
(3) 14th (4) 15th

[6]
69. The position where the halogen attach after the 78. EMF of cell Reaction
reaction is? 2 Ag+ + Cu → 2 Ag + Cu2+, is 0.46 V
HBr
CH3 − CH 2 − CH = CH 2 ⎯⎯⎯→
H O
If E°Cu2+/Cu is +0.34 V, E°Ag+/Ag is:
4 3 1 2 2
2 (1) 0.80 V (2) 0.12 V
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 0.40 V (4) 1.60 V
(3) 3 (4) 4
79. Calculate the time-needed for the 70% completion
70. Green chemistry means such reactions which of a zeroth order reaction. (t1/2 = 30 min)
(1) produce colour during reactions (1) 20 min (2) 30 min
(2) reduce the use and production of hazardous (3) 42 min (4) 60 min
chemicals
(3) are related to the depletion of ozone layer
80. Which of the following will have the highest
(4) study the reaction in plants coagulating power for Fe(OH)3 colloid?

71. Considering Ellingham diagram, which of the (1) PO34− (2) SO 24−
following metals can be used to reduce alumina? (3) Ca2+ (4) Al3+
(1) Fe (2) Zn
(3) Cu (4) Mg 81. The compound formed after completion of the
following set of reactions is?
72. Which among the following is paramagnetic? (1) H O (2) RHT (3) CH Cl
(1) Cl2O (2) ClO2
CaC2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯
2 → ⎯⎯⎯⎯
→ ⎯⎯⎯⎯
AlCl
3
⎯
→
3
(3) Cl2O7 (4) Cl2O6 (1) Benzene (2) Toluene
(3) Aniline (4) Pyridine
73. In which of the following pairs are both the ions
coloured in aqueous solutions? 82. Find the major product of the following reaction?
(At. No.: Sc = 21, Ti = 22, Ni = 28, Cu = 29,
Co = 27)
(1) Sc3+, Ti3+ (2) Sc3+, Co2+
(3) Ni2+, Cu+ (4) Ni2+, Ti3+

74. Of the following complex ions, which is (1) (2)

diamagnetic in nature?
(1) [NiCl 4 ]2− (2) [Ni(CN) 4 ]2− (3) (4)

(3) [CuCl4 ]2− (4) [CoF6 ]3−

83. The degree of alcohol formed after the reaction of
given substrate with excess of Grignard reagent
75. Which one of the following is employed as followed by hydrolysis is?
Antihistamine?
(1) Chloramphenicol
(2) Diphenhydramine
(3) Norothindrone (1) 1° (2) 2°
(4) Omeprazole (3) 3° (4) 4°
84. A compound gives positive 2, 4-DNP test but
76. The anions (A) form hexagonal closest packing negative Tollen's Test. The given compound is?
and atoms (C) occupy only 2/3 of octahedral voids (1) Alkyl Halide
in it. The general formula of the compound is- (2) Aldehyde
(1) CA (2) CA2 (3) Alcohol
(3) C2A3 (4) C3A2 (4) Ketone

77. At 25°C, the vapour pressure of pure liquid A 85. The basic order strength of given amines is?
(molecular weight = 40) is 100 torr while that of (in aqueous medium)
pure liquid B (molecular weight = 80) is 40 torr.
CH3 − NH 2 (CH3 ) 2 NH (CH3 )3 N
The vapour pressure at 25°C of a solution (a) (b) (c)
containing 20 g of each A and B is
(1) a > b > c (2) c > b > a
(1) 80 torr (2) 59.8 torr
(3) b > c > a (4) b > a > c
(3) 68 torr (4) 48 torr
[7]
 SECTION – B 93. 96.5 A of current was passed through molten
(ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS) NaCl for 1 minute 40 sec. Find out the amount of
86. HVZ reaction is used for introduction of halogen Na deposited at the cathode?
at _______ position with respect to –COOH (1) 46 gm (2) 23 gms
group? (3) 4.6 gms (4) 2.3 gms
(1) alpha
(2) beta 94. How many stereoisomers does this molecule
(3) gamma have?
(4) delta CH3CH = CHCH2CHBrCH3
(1) 4 (2) 6
87. Cellulose is formed by _______ of two glucose (3) 8 (4) 2
molecules?
(1) C1 – C2  glycosidic linkage 95. Ethylene oxide when treated with Grignard
(2) C1 – C2  glycosidic linkage reagent yields
(3) C1 – C4  glycosidic linkage (1) Tertiary alcohol
(2) Cyclopropyl alcohol
(4) C1 – C4  glycosidic linkage
(3) Primary alcohol
(4) Secondary alcohol
88. Buna-S is formed by the combination of?
(1) Butadiene + Acrylonitrile
96. Which one of the following can be oxidized to the
(2) Butadiene + Teflon
corresponding carbonyl compound?
(3) Butadiene + Styrene
(1) 2-hydroxypropane
(4) Butadiene + Syntha-6
(2) Ortho-nitrophenol
(3) Phenol
89. The orbital angular momentum of ‘p’ orbital is?
(4) 2-methyl-2 hydroxypropane
(1) 0
h 97. The compound obtained by heating a mixture of a
(2)
2 primary amine and chloroform with ethanolic
h potassium hydroxide (KOH) is
(3) 3 (1) an alkyl cyanide
2
h (2) a nitro compound
(4) 5 (3) an alkyl isocyanide
2
(4) an amide
90. The compressibility factor when the pressure is
high takes the form of? 98. In borax bead test which compound is formed?
a (1) Ortho-borate
(1) 0 (2) 1 − (2) Meta-borate
VRT
(3) Double oxide
Pb PV
(3) 1 + (4) (4) Tetra-borate
RT RT
99. Acidity of diprotic acids in aqueous solutions
91. The coordination number of atom present at increases in the order:
corner of a primitive cubic cell is?
(1) H2S < H2Se < H2Te
(1) 4 (2) 6
(2) H2Se < H2S < H2Te
(3) 8 (4) 12
(3) H2Te < H2S < H2Se
(4) H2Se < H2Te < H2S
92. The vapour pressure, at a given temperature, of an
ideal solution containing 0.2 mole of a non-
volatile solute and 0.8 mole of solvent is 60 mm 100. Artificial sweetner which is stable under cold
of Hg. The vapour pressure of the pure solvent at conditions only is:
the same temperature is (1) Saccharine (2) Sucralose
(1) 150 mm of Hg (2) 60 mm of Hg (3) Aspartame (4) Alitame
(3) 75 mm of Hg (4) 125 mm of Hg

[8]
 BOTANY
SECTION - A 110. Mark the correctly matched
101. Location of NBRI is (1) Mitochondria - Thylakoid
(1) Kanpur (2) Lucknow (2) Chloroplast- Cristae
(3) Delhi (4) Pune (3) SER – steroid hormone synthesis
(4) Ribosome – rRNA and lipid
102. Methanogen differ from lactobacillus in
(1) Genetic material nature 111. Standing crop of any trophic level measure
(2) Cell wall (1) Productivity
(3) Methanogen show aerobic respiration (2) Amount of organic biomass
(4) Methanogen have membrane bound organelle (3) measure of inorganic nutrient in soil
(4) vertical distribution of species
103. Fungi having conidia but lack perfect stage belong
to genus 112. Recombination nodule visible in …. Phase of cell
(1) Rhizopus (2) Trichoderma cycle
(3) Ustilago (4) Claviceps (1) Pachytene
(2) Diplotene
104. Mark the correctly matched (3) Diakinesis
(1) Chl b – Chlorella (4) Leptotene
(2) Colonial – Fucus
(3) Algin – Spriogyra 113. In tall plants translocation of minerals occur from
(4) Unicellular – kelp old leaf to young leaf by
(1) Xylem
105. Free living gametophyte which is green and (2) Simple diffusion
dominant phase is present in (3) Phloem
(1) psilopsida (2) Moss (4) Cytoplasmic streaming
(3) Cycads (4) Monocot
114. Micronutrient which require in maximum amount
106. Flower with unequal stamen present in in plant is involve in
(1) Salvia (2) Solanum (1) Spindle assembly
(3) Pea (4) China rose (2) ETS
(3) Ribosome assembly
107. Secondary meristem which give rise to cork in (4) Photolysis of water
dicot stem develop from
(1) Medullary rays 115. CO2 acceptor in Bundle sheath cell of C-4 plants is
(2) Cortex (1) RUBP
(3) Conjunctive tissue (2) PEP
(4) Pith (3) PGA
(4) OAA
108. In Transverse section of ………. we can observe 116. When electron move through ETS in between PSII
unequal size vascular bundle with water filled and PSI then proton move from
cavities in vascular bundle (1) Granal thylakoid to stromal thylakoid
(1) Sugarcane stem (2) Maize stem (2) Stroma to lumen of Granal thylakoid
(3) Grass leaf (4) Grass root (3) Stroma to lumen of Stromal lamellae
(4) Lumen of thylakoid to stroma
109. Mark the incorrect about endomembrane system
(1) Plasma membrane is part of this system 117. Number of CO2 produced during ethanol
(2) Coordinated organelles like ER. Golgi bodies fermentation per glucose is
and lysosome work together (1) Two (2) one
(3) all organelles of endomembrane system have (3) Six (4) three
membranes
(4) Peroxisome and mitochondria are not part of 118. Environmental heterophylly is observed in
this system (1) Cotton (2) Buttercup
(3) larakspur (4) Coriander

[9]
119. Plant hormone involve development of root hair to 128. Peptidyl transferase is ribozyme or enzyme involve
increase surface area for water absorption in peptide bond formation is located
(1) 2, 4-D (2) Ethylene (1) mRNA
(3) GA (4) ABA (2) In large subunit of ribosome
(3) both subunit of ribosome
120. From the following option mark the correctly (4) on tRNA
matched
(1) Neelkuranji – Annual 129. Mark the incorrectly matched
(2) Amoeba– Cyst in favorable condition (1) Nuclein – Meischer
(3) Bony fish– internal fertilization (2) Adaptor hypothesis – Watson
(4) Primates – Continuous breeder (3) Polynucleotide phosphorylase – Severo ochoa
(4) Central dogma – Crick
121. Which of following feature absent in plant
pollinated with water 130. In a polypeptide chain total number of amino acids
(1) Open flower is 10 than minimum number of nucleotides in
(2) Mostly monocot mRNA from which polypeptide chain form is
(3) Ribbon shape pollen (1) 30 (2) 90
(4) Nectar present (3) 10 (4) 15

122. Which of the following represents gametophytic 131. From the following varieties, which of the
generation? following is not improved variety of wheat
(1) Vegetative cell in pollen (1) Himgiri (2) Atlas 66
(2) Epidermis in anther (3) Sonlika (4) Pusa komal
(3) Nucellus in ovule
(4) PMC or Pollen mother cell 132. Biocontrol agent is based on
(1) Chemical method
123. Endosperm is absent in mature seed of (2) Direct killing of pest
(1) Castor (3) Predation
(2) Groundnut (4) Use of chemical and natural means
(3) Maize
(4) Coconut 133. Mark the correctly matched
(1) Species area relationship – Tilman
124. In ……… year chromosomal theory of inheritance (2) Joint forest management – 2002
was proposed (3) Earth summit– Johannesburg
(1) 1900 (2) 1802 (4) Biodiversity term – Edward Wilson
(3) 1865 (4) 1902
134. Which of the following is Xerophytic adaptation in
125. Mark the correctly matched - plants
(1) White flower – Dominant trait in pea (1) Solid urine (2) CAM pathway
(2) Skin colour – Incomplete dominance (3) Allen’s rule (4) Sweating
(3) Sturtevant – discovered linkage
(4) Colour blindness – X-linked trait 135. Ramesh Chandra Dagar develop integrated organic
farming with characteristic feature
126. Mutation which is responsible for most of the (1) 60 hectares of marshy land for farming
cancers are (2) plastic waste is managed by recycling
(1) Point mutation (3) zero waste procedure
(2) Aneuploidy (4) less use of agrochemicals
(3) Chromosomal aberration
(4) Deletion SECTION – B
(ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
127. In logistic growth curve proposed by Verhulst 136. Unequal size two flagella, unicellular and fresh
pearl, value of population density (N) cannot be water organism belong to
(1) Equal to carrying capacity (1) Chrysophytes
(2) Very less to carrying capacity (2) Euglenoids
(3) More than carrying capacity (3) Dinoflagellates
(4) Half to carrying capacity (4) Slime moulds

[10]
137. Seed bearing plant not showing double fertilization 144. Biomass available for consumption of primary
also show feature consumer level is
(1) Flowering plant (1) Secondary productivity
(2) Naked seed (2) Gross primary productivity
(3) Fruit wall present (3) Net primary productivity
(4) Zoospore present (4) Respiration rate

138. Whorled phyllotaxy present in leaf of 145. Process of development of seed which give
(1) Calotropis progeny identical to parent
(2) Guava (1) Autogamy (2) Geitonogamy
(3) Alstonia (3) Apomixis (4) Xenogamy
(4) Neem
146. Biodiversity hot spot present in India is
139. Extrachromosomal DNA present in Bacteria not (1) Sundarbans
have feature (2) Western ghat and Srilanka
(1) Double stranded (3) Lake Victoria
(2) Circular (4) Aravalli hills
(3) Essential genes present
(4) Self replicating 147. Example of biogeochemical cycle having main
reservoir is soil is
140. Class of enzymes which introduced double bond (1) Oxygen cycle
and remove water is (2) Phosphorus cycle
(1) Lyase (3) Carbon cycle
(2) Oxidoreductase (4) Water cycle
(3) Isomerase
(4) Ligase 148. El Nino effect or Abnormal climatic conditions is
due to
141. Solute potential and water potential of solution in (1) Ozone hole
open beaker respectively is (2) Greenhouse effect
(1) Zero and positive (3) Excess greenhouse effect leads to global
(2) Zero or negative warming
(3) Negative in both (4) Nuclear waste
(4) Negative and zero
149. Mark the correctly matched
142. Enzyme involve in first step of Amino acid (1) Monascus purpureus – Statins
synthesis in plants from ammonium is (2) Lady bird – Kill all insects
(1) Transaminase (3) Lichen – Glomus
(2) Hexokinase (4) Mycorhizzae – Biocontrol agent
(3) Glutamate dehydrogenase
(4) Nitrogenase 150. Water pollution and prevention act was passed in
(1) 1986 (2) 1974
143. Number of ATP form by Oxidative (3) 1981 (4) 1987
phosphorylation none turn of Krebs cycle is
(1) 11 (2) 1
(3) 12 (4) 10

[11]
 ZOOLOGY
SECTION - A 158. What did S.L. Miller observe in his experimental
151. A complete digestive system has set-up
(1) A single opening that serve as both mouth (1) Formation of sugar and nitrogenous bases
and anus (2) Formation of amino acids
(2) Two openings, one act as mouth and other act (3) Formation of pigments
as anus (4) Formation of fats
(3) Single opening that acts as mouth only
(4) Two openings, both act as mouth as well as 159. In ECG, P-wave represents
anus (1) Depolarisation of ventricles
(2) Repolarisation of atria
152. Which of the following cells secrete testicular (3) Depolarisation of atria
hormones called androgens and form endocrine
part of testis? (4) Repolarisation of ventricles
(1) Leydig cells
(2) Interstitial cells 160. Sea weeds and few plants existed probably around
__________
(3) Sertoli cells
(1) 500 mya (2) 350 mya
(4) Both (1) and (2)
(3) 800 mya (4) 320 mya

153. RNA interference technique has been used to

161. Which of the following is a placental mammal not
(1) Make recombinant insulin marsupial?
(2) Perform gene therapy (1) Numbat
(3) To eliminate nematode Meloidogyne (2) Bobcat
(4) Make golden rice (3) Spotted cuscus
(4) Tasmanian tiger cat
154. Choose the hormones which is only produced
during pregnancy in human female
162. The spread of cancerous cells at distant sites is
(1) hCG termed as
(2) Estrogen (1) Metastasis (2) Metachrosis
(3) Progesterone
(3) Metamorphosis (4) Mutagenesis
(4) LH
163. Treatment of snake bite by antivenom is an
155. Which is not a part of brain stem? example of
(1) Pons (1) Artificially acquired passive immunity
(2) Cerebellum (2) Artificially acquired active immunity
(3) Medulla oblongata (3) Naturally acquired active immunity
(4) Mid brain (4) Naturally acquired passive immunity

156. Which of the following is a hormone releasing 164. Oncogene is another name for
IUD?
(1) Inducer gene
(1) Cu-T
(2) Jumping gene
(2) LNG – 20
(3) Tumor suppressor gene
(3) Multiload 375
(4) Cancer causing gene
(4) Implants
165. Lecithin and Collagen are examples of:
157. Which of the following STD is not completely
(1) Wax and Protein
curable?
(2) Phospholipid and carbohydrate
(1) Gonorrhea (2) Syphilis
(3) Phospholipid and protein
(3) Chlamydia (4) HIV
(4) Simple fatty acid and protein

[12]
166. Which is the most abundant protein in animal 174. Which of the given disorder is commonly caused
world? by decrease level of estrogen in aged woman?
(1) RuBisCO (2) Keratin (1) Arthritis
(3) Collagen (4) Insulin (2) osteoporosis
(3) Myasthenia gravis
167. All of the following are parts of large intestine (4) Gout
except
(1) Caecum (2) Colon 175. Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of
(3) Ileum (4) Rectum (1) Na+
(2) K+
168. What would be the correct sequence of path (3) Glucose
followed by light when it falls on eye and the
(4) Ca+2
impulse generated?
(a) Visual cortex (b) Cornea 176. The Nissl's granules are present in
(c) Vitreous humor (d) Lens (a) Cell body
(e) Aqueous humor (f) Retina (b) Axon
(1) b – c – d – e – f – a (c) Dendrites
(2) b – e – d – c – f – a (d) Glial cells
(3) a – f – b – e – d – c (1) a only (2) a, b and c
(4) d – b – a – c – e – f (3) a, c (4) a, b, c, d

169. The wall of alimentary canal from oesophagus to 177. On application of a stimulus on the axonal
rectum has: membrane,
(1) 5 layers (2) 3 layers (1) There is a rapid influx of K+ at that site
(3) 4 layers (4) 6 layers (2) There is a rapid efflux of Na+ at that site
(3) There is a rapid influx of Na+ at that site
170. Bile can be prevented to be released into (4) There is a rapid efflux of K+ at that site
duodenum by
(1) Sphincter of oddi 178. The association areas are present in the
(2) Cardiac sphincter (1) Cerebral cortex
(3) Pyloric sphincter (2) Corpus callosum
(4) Ileo-caecal valve (3) Amygdala
(4) Hypothalamus
171. Consider the following symptoms of a disorder
(a) Mental retardation 179. Choose the incorrect statement about PCR–
(b) Abnormal skin (1) In this reaction, multiple copies of the gene
(c) Deaf and mutism of interest is synthesised in vitro.
(d) Stunted growth (2) One set of primer and RNA polymerase are
used.
Which disorder is correctly described by these
(3) The thermostable DNA polymerase is
symptoms
obtained from bacterium, Thermus aquaticus.
(1) Acromegaly
(4) The segment of DNA can be amplified to
(2) Myxoedema approximately billion times.
(3) Exophthalmic goitre
(4) Cretinism 180. The separated DNA fragments can be visualised
only after staining the DNA with ____A____ and
172. Cortisol does not cause followed by exposure to ____B____ Choose the
(1) Anti inflammatory reaction option which correctly fill the blanks A and B
(2) Proteolysis respectively
(3) Enhanced RBC production A B
(4) Decreased gluconeogenesis (1) Ethidium bromide UV radiations
(2) Bromophenol blue UV radiations
173. Choose the hormone which is hyperglycemic in (3) Ethidium bromide Visible light
nature. (4) Methylene blue Visible light
(1) Insulin (2) ADH
(3) Secretin (4) Glucagon
[13]
181. The production and ejection of milk by mammary 189. Read the following statements and choose the
gland require the synergestic effect of the correct option.
following hormones. Statement A: Bt toxin gets activated in alkaline
(1) Estrogen, Progesterone pH of insect gut.
(2) Prolactin, oxytocin Statements B: Activated toxin binds to the
(3) Adrenaline, Noradrenaline surface of midgut epithelial cells
(4) Calcitonin and Parathormone (1) Only statement A is correct
(2) Only statement B is correct
182. Among following the technique used to develop (3) Both A and B statements are correct
Hisardale is (4) Both A and B statements are incorrect
(1) Interspecific hybridisation
(2) Inbreeding 190. Stage of embryonic development at which
(3) Cross-breeding implantation occurs in human female is:
(4) Out-crossing (1) Morula
(2) Zygote
183. Tendons connects (3) Completely developed foetus
(1) Muscle to bone (4) Blastocyst
(2) Bone to vertebral column
(3) Bone to bone 191. If frequency of a dominant allele, in a population
(4) Bone to cartilage which is in genetic equilibrium, is 0.6, then
calculate frequency of heterozygotes in that
population.
184. Which of the protein is not a part of thin filament?
(1) 0.4 (2) 0.24
(1) Myosin (2) Actin
(3) 0.48 (4) 0.36
(3) Troponin (4) Tropomyosin

192. Glisson's capsule is related to

185. Restriction endonucleases cut which bonds?
(1) Pancreas
(1) Hydrogen bonds
(2) Lungs
(2) Phosphodiester bonds
(3) Pharynx
(3) Ionic bonds
(4) Liver
(4) Disulphide bonds

193. Which of the following hormone is maintained at

SECTION – B
high level while using oral pills
(ATTEMPT ANY 10 QUESTIONS)
(1) FSH
186. While isolating DNA from bacteria which of the
following enzyme or chemical is not used? (2) LH
(1) Lysozyme (3) Progesterone
(4) Relaxin
(2) Cellulase
(3) Ethanol
194. The GFR in a healthy individual is
(4) RNase
approximately________
187. Parietal cells of stomach secrete (1) 100 ml/minute
(1) Mucus (2) Pepsin (2) 200 ml/minute
(3) Trypsinogen (4) HCl (3) 400 ml/minute
(4) 125 ml/minute
188. Select the treatment method which could be a
permanent cure for ADA deficiency in humans 195. Find out the incorrect match in the following:
(1) Enzyme replacement therapy Column A Column B
(2) Infusion of genetically engineered (1) Thrombocyte - Blood clotting
lymphocytes having functional ADA cDNA (2) Neutrophils - Phagocytosis
(3) Bone marrow transplantation after 10 years (3) SA node - Pace setter
of age
(4) LUB heart - Closure of AV valves
(4) Introducing ADA gene into cells at early
sound
embryonic stages

[14]
196. The part starting from external nostrils upto 199. Which of the following ion is required for muscle
terminal bronchioles is not associated with contraction
(1) Gaseous exchange (1) Ca+2
(2) Clearing air from foreign particles (2) Mg+2
(3) Humidification of air (3) Fe+2
(4) Bringing air to body temperature (4) Both (1) and (2)

197. Which one is a vasodilator? 200. A Drop of each of the following is placed on
(1) ANF (2) ADH different slides, which of the them will not
(3) Angiotensin-II (4) Rennin coagulate?
(1) Blood
198. During contraction and relaxation of skeletal (2) Plasma
muscle, size of which band remains unchanged? (3) Serum
(1) I-band (2) A-band (4) None
(3) H-zone (4) Z-line

[15]
 PHYSICS

ANSWERS

Section-A
1. (2) 27. (1)

2. (1) 28. (2)

3. (4) 29. (1)

4. (1) 30. (4)

5. (1) 31. (1)

6. (3) 32. (4)

7. (4) 33. (3)

8. (4) 34. (4)

9. (3) 35. (3)

10. (1)
Section-B
11. (2)
36. (3)
12. (4)
37. (2)
13. (3)
38. (2)
14. (2)
39. (1)
15. (3)
40. (2)
16. (1)
41. (3)
17. (4)
42. (1)
18. (3)
43. (3)
19. (3)
44. (1)
20. (3)
45. (4)
21. (1)
46. (4)
22. (4)
47. (3)
23. (1)
48. (2)
24. (2)
49. (2)
25. (1)
50. (4)
26. (3)
 CHEMISTRY

ANSWERS

Section-A
51. (2) 77. (1)
52. (4) 78. (1)
53. (1) 79. (3)
54. (4) 80. (1)
55. (3) 81. (2)
56. (3) 82. (3)
57. (3) 83. (3)
58. (2) 84. (4)
59. (4) 85. (4)
60. (1)
61. (4) Section-B
62. (1) 86. (1)
63. (1) 87. (4)
64. (4) 88. (3)
65. (4) 89. (2)
66. (2) 90. (3)
67. (4) 91. (2)
68. (4) 92. (3)
69. (1) 93. (4)
70. (2) 94. (1)
71. (4) 95. (3)
72. (2) 96. (1)
73. (4) 97. (3)
74. (2) 98. (2)
75. (2) 99. (1)
76. (3) 100. (3)
 BOTANY

ANSWERS

Section-A
101. (2) 127. (3)
102. (2) 128. (2)
103. (2) 129. (2)
104. (1) 130. (1)
105. (2) 131. (4)
106. (1) 132. (3)
107. (2) 133. (4)
108. (2) 134. (2)
109. (1) 135. (3)
110. (3)
111. (2) Section-B
112. (1) 136. (2)
113. (3) 137. (2)
114. (2) 138. (3)
115. (1) 139. (3)
116. (2) 140. (1)
117. (1) 141. (3)
118. (2) 142. (3)
119. (2) 143. (1)
120. (4) 144. (3)
121. (4) 145. (3)
122. (1) 146. (2)
123. (2) 147. (2)
124. (4) 148. (3)
125. (4) 149. (1)
126. (3) 150. (2)
 ZOOLOGY

ANSWERS

Section-A
151. (2) 177. (3)
152. (4) 178. (1)
153. (3) 179. (2)
154. (1) 180. (1)
155. (2) 181. (2)
156. (2) 182. (3)
157. (4) 183. (1)
158. (2) 184. (1)
159. (3) 185. (2)
160. (4)
161. (2) Section-B
162. (1) 186. (4)
163. (1) 187. (4)
164. (4) 188. (4)
165. (3) 189. (3)
166. (3) 190. (4)
167. (3) 191. (3)
168. (2) 192. (4)
169. (3) 193. (3)
170. (1) 194. (4)
171. (4) 195. (3)
172. (4) 196. (1)
173. (4) 197. (1)
174. (2) 198. (2)
175. (1) 199. (1)
176. (3) 200. (3)