PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

WRITTEN TEST 2011

FOR RECRUMTMENT TO THE POST OF LECTURER PHYSICS BS-17
(MALE/FEMALE)
1. Write your rill no. at the right corner of QUESTION PAPER and in separate ANSWER SHEET.
2. Read QUESTION PAPER carefully and mark your answer on the ANSWER SHEET.
3. Each question has four options. Fill only one box that you think is the correct answer. Each question has
1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer.
4. Instructions for filling box have been given on the Answer sheet. Read them carefully before you answer.
5. Read the instructions for filling your ROLL NO. and marking your answer on the ANSWER SHEET
before you start answering.
6. Sign in Answer Sheet in the box provided at the bottom corner.
7. Return both Question Paper and Answer Sheet to the Staff at the end of the test.

Note: Use of calculator is not allowed.

(1) If A= 6i-8j, then 4A has the magnitude:
(a) 40 (b) 10 (c) 20 (d) None of these
2) Let A= 2i+6j-3k and B= 4i+2j+k then A.B equals:
(a) 8i+12j-3k (b) 17 (c) 23 (d) None of these
3) If V is an operator, then .V means:
(a) Gradient of a Scalar field (b) Curl of a vector field
(c) Divergence of a Vector field (d) None of these
4) The volume of a parallelepiped bounded by Vectors A,B and C can be obtained from the
expression:
(a) ( A x B ).C (b) (A.B)x C (c) ( A x B ) x C (d) None of these
5) A force acting on a particle is conservative if:
(a) It obeys Newton’s third law (b) It obeys Newton’s second law
(c) It works equals the change in Kinetic energy (d) None of these
6) A torque applied to a rigid object always tends to produce:
(a) A rotational acceleration (b) A linear acceleration
c) Precision (d) None of these
7) When the velocity of a body is constant, its acceleration is:
(a) Maximum (b) Zero (c) Infinity (d) None of these
8) In the absence of external torque the total angular momentum is:
(a) Constant (b) Zero (c) infinity (d) None of these
9) The rate of change of Momentum of the particle is:
(a) Energy (b) Force (c) Impulse (d) None of these
10) The intensity of a wave is proportional to the square of:
(a) Amplitude (b) Time (c) Intensity (d) None of these
11) The colours in soap bubbles, oil slick etc. in a thin film is due to:
(a) Diffraction (b) Polarization (c) Interference (d) None of these
12) For higher resolution, in a diffraction grating, one needs to have:
(a) Large number of ruling (b) Small number of ruling
(c) No rulings at all (d) None of these
13) To produce interference, the sources must be:
(a) Intense (b) Incoherent (c) Coherent (d) None of these
14) Interference fringes are of:
(a) Unequal width (b) Equal width (c) Variable width (d) None of these
15) A Carnot Cycle is:
(a) a rectangle on a P-V graph (b) bounded by two isotherms and two adiabatics
(c) any four sided process on a P-V graph (d) None of these
16) In an Adiabatic process:
(a) The temperature of the system remains constant
(b) The temperature of the system must change
(c) The internal energy of the system remains constant
(d) None of these
17) A Carnot Cycle heat engine operates between 227°C and 127° C. Its efficiency is:
(a) 44% (b) 20% (c) 79% (d) None of these
18) Metals pipe carrying water sometimes bursts in winter because:
(a) Water expands (b) Ice expands when melts
(c) Metal contracts more than water (d) None of these
19) A Fahrenheit thermometer and Celsius thermometer shows the same reading at:
(a) 200° (b) -40° (c) 100° (d) None of these
20) Constructive and destructive superposition of waves is observed in:
(a) Polarization (b) Interference (c) Diffraction (d) None of these
21) A Watt – sec is a unit of:
(a) Force (b) Energy (c) Power (d) None of these
22) The direction of any magnetic induction effect is such as to oppose the cause of the effect. This is:
(a) Coulomb’s Law (b) Ampere’s Law (c) Lenz’s Law (d) None of these
23) A magnetic field cannot:
(a) accelerate a charge (b) Exert a force on a charge
(c) change the kinetic energy of a charge (d) None of these
24) The inverse of resistivity is called Conductivity. Its unit is:
(a) Ohm-1 (b) ohm-metre (c) (ohm-meter)-1 (d) None of these
25 An LRC Circuit has R= 4Ω, Xc = 3 and XL=6, the impedance of the circuit is:
(a) 5 Ω (b) 7 Ω (c) 13 Ω (d) None of these
26) A “step-down” transformer is used to:
(a) increase the power (b) decrease the voltage (c) Increase the voltage (d) None of these
27) Electrical potential is the potential energy per unit:
(a) Charge (b) Voltage (c) Force (d) None of these
28) The force on a charge moving with the velocity in a magnetic field B is given by:
(a) F = (q/v x B) (b) F = ( qv x B ) (c) F = (qv + B) (d) None of these
29) A changing current “i” in any circuit induces an emf “e” in that circuit, which is equal to:
(a) e = di/dt (b) E = i dΦ/dt (c) e = – L di/dt (d) None of these
30) Inductive reactance of an inductor is:
(a) XL= ω2L (b) XL= ω/L (c) e = -L di/dt (d) None of these
31) The resonant frequency of an LC-Circuit is:
(a) f = 2Π LC (b) f = 1 / 2Π√ LC (c) f = 1/ 2LC (d) None of these
32) The deliberate addition of an impurity element in a semi-conductor is called:
(a) doping (b) annealing (c) mixing (d) None of these
33) The conversion of AC into DC is called:
(a) amplification (b) rectification (c) modulation (d) None of these
34) The Laser light is:
(a) monochromatic (b) coloured (c) chromatic (d) None of these
35) The Laser light may be obtained from:
(a) quartz crystal (b) NaCl crystal (c) ruby crystal (d) None of these
36) The emission of photoelectrons in photoelectric effect is dependent on:
(a) threshold frequency (b) intensity of light (c) Nature of metal (d) None of these
37) Which one of the following is NOT needed in Nuclear Fission reactor:
(a) fuel (b) accelerator (c) moderator (d) None of these
38) The half-life of a r adioactive isotope is 140 days. How many days would it take to lose 3/4 of its
initial activities:
(a) 105 days (b) 280 days (c) 35 days (d) None of these
39) Most of the energy produced in Sun is due to:
(a) Nuclear fusion (b) Chemical reaction (c) Nuclear Fission (d) None of these
40) A U-235 nucleus will split when it captures:
(a) an α-particle (b) e.m. radiation (c) neutron (d) None of these
41) Two particles each of mass 5.0kg are mounted 4.0m apart on a mass-less light rod which is
capable of rotation about its center? The moment of inertia is:
(a) 1.25 kgm2 (b) 20 kgm2 (c) 40 kgm2 (d) None of these
42) The time period of mass of 1kg attached to a spring of spring constant of 100N/m is:
(a) 0.2π (b) π (c) 2π (d) None of these
43) A 14cm inner diameter water main furnishes water (through intermediate pipes) to a 1.00cm inner
diameter faucet pipe. If the average speed in the faucet pipe is 3.0 cm/s, what will be the average
speed it causes in the water main?
(a) 0.015 cm/s (b) 0.15 m/s (c) 0.5 m/s (d) None of these
44) What is the tension T in the rope if a 10N weight is being pulled upward by it with a constant
velocity of 2m/s?
(a) 12N (b) 8N (c) 5N (d) None of these
45) The ratio of linear Stress/Linear Strain is called:
(a) Young’s Modulus (b) Bulk Modulus (c) Deformation (d) None of these
46) A body is moving with constant speed in a circle, its velocity vector:
(a) Remains constant (b) Changes its magnitude (c) Changes its direction (d) None of these
47) When a constant torque is acting on a rotating system, which of the following is constant?
(a) Angular velocity (b) Angular acceleration (c) Angular momentum (d) None of these
48) A geo-stationary satellite revolves around the earth from:
(a) East to west (b) West to east (c) North to south (d) None of these
49) According to Einstein, with the great increase in the speed of a body, the relativistic is:
(a) Length remains constant (b) Time decreases
(c) Mass increases (d) None of these
50) A body is moving northward and the force applied is eastward, the acceleration produced is:
(a) Northward (b) At 45o East of North (c) Eastward (d) None of these
51) Which particles has spin half integer
(a) Northward (b) At 45o East of North (c) Eastward (d) None of these
52) A person moving away from stationary electron will observe?
(a) electric field (b) magnetic field (c) both (d) no observation
53) Waves transmits?
(a) wavelength (b) mass (c) frequency (d) none of these
54) Which of the electromagnetic waves have longest wavelength?
(a) X rays (b) Gama rays (c) Infrared waves (d) None of these
55) Electric dipole moment vector is directed from charge:
(a) +ve to -ve (b) -ve to +ve (c) +ve to +ve (d) -ve to –ve
56) With the passage of time the rate of decay of a radioactive element will,
(a) Increase Exponentially (b) Decrease Linearly
(c) Becomes Zero in 2 half-lives (d) None of these
57) Gibb's function is associated with:
(a) enthalpy (b) entropy (c) temperature (d) all of these
58) With the increase in quantum no. momentum will
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Same (d) 0
59) Which of the following fundamental particles is heaviest:
(a) Electron (b) Muon (c) Neutrino (d) Meson
60) Depletion layer in p-n junction is due to?
(a) Holes (b) Electrons (c) Ions (d) Forbidden zone
61) What type of light can be coherent?
(a) Spontaneous emission (b) monochromatic and in phase
(c) Narrow beam divergence (d) Monochromatic only
62) Buoyant force act as
(a) Upward (b) Downward (c) Parallel (d) Perpendicular
63) Two charges of 1nC and 4nC are placed ½ apart. The ratio of coulomb forces experienced by the two
charges is.
(a) 1:1 (b) 1:9 (c) 9:1 (d) 1:81
64) Faraday law deals with
(a) induced emf (b) motional emf (c) induced current (d) none of these
65) The colour of sky is blue due to phenomenon of...
(a) Refraction (b) Polarization (c) Diffraction (d) Total internal reflection
66) Refractive index is the function of....
(a) Wavelength (b) Speed (c) Frequency (d) Time period
67) The impedance of a circuit does not depend on
(a) I (b) f (c) R (d) C
68) The speedometer in your car tells you the ____ of your car.
(a) acceleration (b) average speed (c) instantaneous speed (d) velocity
69) Green’s function changes line integral into
(a) Surface integral (b) Volume integral (c) No change (d) Both a and b
70) The area under the hysteresis loop is proportional to:
(a) Magnetic energy density (b) Thermal energy per unit volume
(c) Electrical energy per unit volume (d) Mechanical energy per unit volume
 PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
WRITTEN TEST 2015
FOR RECRUMTMENT TO THE POST OF LECTURER PHYSICS BS-17
(MALE/FEMALE)
1. Write your rill no. at the right corner of QUESTION PAPER and in separate ANSWER SHEET.
2. Read QUESTION PAPER carefully and mark your answer on the ANSWER SHEET.
3. Each question has four options. Fill only one box that you think is the correct answer. Each question has
1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer.
4. Instructions for filling box have been given on the Answer sheet. Read them carefully before you answer.
5. Read the instructions for filling your ROLL NO. and marking your answer on the ANSWER SHEET
before you start answering.
6. Sign in Answer Sheet in the box provided at the bottom corner.
7. Return both Question Paper and Answer Sheet to the Staff at the end of the test.

Note: Use of calculator is not allowed.

1. A vector is a tensor of rank
a) 1 b) 2 c) Zero d) 3

2. If [ Aˆ , Bˆ ] = 0 . then two operators  & B̂ are said to be

a) Anticommute b) Do not commute c) Commute d) None of these


3. +  J = 0 is called
t
a) Laplace’s equation b) Equation of continuity
c) Tensor equation d) Equation of polar coordinates
4. First law of thermodynamics is a special form of:
a) Law of conservation of energy b) Law of conservation of momentum
c) Law of inertia d) None of these
5. In spherical polar coordinates, the range of ‘  ’ variable is from
a) 0→π/2 b) π/2→ π c) 0→π d) 0→2π
6. Moment of inertia is a tensor of rank
a) 3rd b) 2nd c) 0th d) 4th
7. The Range of projectile will be same when the angle of projection is
a) 20o & 80o b) 30o & 60o c) 25o & 50o d) 20o & 45o
8. The work done by compound pendulum in one complete oscillation is:
a) Zero b) Equal to K.E. of pendulum
c) Equal to P.E. of pendulum d) Equal to total energy of pendulum
9. A man inside an artificial satellite feels weightlessness because the force of attraction due to the earth is
a) Zero at the pole b) Equal to centripetal force
c) Balance the force of attraction due to the moon d) None of these

10. The component of a vector P along y-axis is | P | /2 , the angle made by the vector with horizontal is:

a) 60o b) 45o c) 30o d) 90o

11. ERG stands for
a) Electro Radio Graphy b) Energy Radio Graphy
c) Electric Retino Graphy d) None of these
12. It is possible to distinguish between transverse & longitudinal wave by studying the property of
a) Polarization b) c) 30o d) 90o
13. Which one of the following represents a travelling wave
a) A cos(t +  ) b) A cos(t − kx) c) A sin(t +  ) d) A sin(t − kx)

14. Which one of the following waves cannot be polarized

a) X-rays b) Sound waves c) Radio waves d) Ultraviolet rays
15. Alternative current is converted to direct current by a
a) Motor b) Dynamo c) Transformer d) Rectifier
16. At resonance the value of power factor in an L.C.R series circuit is:
a) Zero b) ½ c) Infinite d) One
17. Two parallel wires carrying current in the opposite direction:
a) Repel each other b) Attract each other
c) Do not attract each other d) Get rotated perpendicular to each other
18. If the distance between two charges is doubled the Coulomb force will become:
a) One fourth b) Double c) Half d) Same
19. An electric or magnetic field cannot accelerate:
a) Electron b) Neutron c) Proton d) α-particle
20. The penetrating power of x-rays increases with
a) Increase in its velocity b) Decrease in its velocity
c) Increase in its intensity d) Decrease in intensity
21. Some amount of heat given to gas under isothermal condition will result in:
a) Doing external work b) Rise in temperature
c) Doing external work & change in temperature d) An increase in internal energy
22. z-component of r x p:
a) XPY – YPX b) ZPY - YPZ c) XPY – YPX d) XPY – YPX
23. The heaviest class of elementary particles consists of the:
a) Photons b) Leptons c) Mesons d) Baryons
24. The quantum number which is not involved in describing the orbit of an atomic electron is:
a) n b) m c) l d) s
25. The ionization energy of an atom relative to binding energy of the nucleus is:
a) Greater b) The same c) Smaller d) Sometimes greater & sometimes smaller
26. Macroscopic coordinated do not involve special assumption about (i) Structure of matter (ii) radiations (iii)
Fields
a) only (i) is true b) Only (ii) is true c) Only (iii) is true d) All are true
27. If two systems “A” & “B” are in thermal equilibrium with a system “C”, then ________ are not in
equilibrium:
a) A & C b) C & B c) B & C d) None
28. The following is an intensive coordinate of thermodynamics system in equilibrium state:
a) Volume b) Pressure c) Charge d) Total polarization
29. The type of work which cannot be described in macroscopic thermodynamics
a) Hydrostatic work b) External work c) Internal work d) Adiabatic work
30. In thermodynamics, work done by the system is taken as:
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) None
31. The SI unit of specific heat capacity is
a) J/Kg-K b) J/Kg c) J/K d) JKg/K
32. All natural process are:
a) Reversible b) Irreversible c) Cycle d) Non-dissipative
33. When a horse pulls a wagon, the force that causes the horse to move forward is the force
a) He exerts on the wagon b) The wagon exerts on him
c) He exerts on the ground d) The ground exerts on him
34. The minimum number of unequal forces whose vector sum can be equal to zero is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
35. A force of 3N acts perpendicularly to a force whose vector sum can equal zero is:
a) 1N b) 5N c) 7N d) 12N
36. A body in equilibrium may not have:
a) Velocity b) Acceleration c) Momentum d) Kinetic energy
37. In order to cause a moving body to peruse a circular path, it is necessary to apply:
a) Inertial force b) Gravitational force c) Centrifugal force d) Centripetal force
38. A hole is drilled through the earth along a diameter & a stone dropped into it. When a stone is at the Centre
of the earth it has:
a) Mass b) Weight c) Acceleration d) Potential energy
39. The rotational analog of force in linear motion is:
a) Moment of inertia b) Angular momentum
c) Torque d) Weight
40. According to Hooke’s Law, the force needed to elongate an elastic body by an amount “s” is proportional
to:
a) s b) 1/s c) s2 d) 1/s2
41. A sharing stress that acts on a body affects its:
a) Length b) Width c) Volume d) Shape
42. In simple harmonic motion, there is always a constant ratio between the displacement of the mass and its:
a) Velocity b) Acceleration c) Period d) Mass
43. Waves transmit from one place to another:
a) Mass b) Amplitude c) Wavelength d) Energy
44. Of the following properties of a wave, the one that is independent of the other is its:
a) Amplitude b) Velocity c) Wavelength d) Frequency
45. When a sound wave goes from air into water, the quantity that remains unchanged is its:
a) Speed b) Amplitude c) Wavelength d) Frequency
46. Two blocks of lead, one twice as heavy as the other, are both at 50oC. The ratio of the heat content of the
heavier block to that of the lighter block is
a) ½ b) 1 c) 2 d) 4
47. Heat is closely related to:
a) Momentum b) Energy c) Temperature d) Friction
48. Sublimation refers to:
a) The vaporization of solid without first becoming a liquid b) The melting of a solid
c) The vaporization of a liquid d) Condensation of a gas into a liquid
49. Under conditions corresponding to its triple point, s substance:
a) is in the solid state b) is in the Liquid state
c) is in the gaseous state d) May be in any or all of the above state
50. The ratio between the energy dissipated in some process & the heat that appears as a result in the:
a) Triple point b) Specific heat c) Kilocalorie d) Mechanical equivalent of heat
51. The smallest sub division of a compound that exhibit its characteristics properties is called:
a) An elementary particle b) An atom
c) A molecule d) An element
52. The energy of the molecular motion appears in the form of:
a) Power b) Heat c) Temperature d) Potential energy
53. The physics underlying the operation of a refrigerator most closely resemble the physics underlying:
a) A heat engine b) The melting of ice c) The freezing of water d) The evaporation of water
54. The law that governs the force between electric charges bears the name of:
a) Newton b) Bernoulli c) Coulomb d) Ampere
55. The electron volt is a unit of:
a) Charge b) Potential difference c) Energy d) Momentum
56. A certain wire has a resistance “R”. The resistance of another wire, identical with the firce except for having
twice its diameter, is:
a) ¼ R b) ½ R c) 2R d) 4R
57. The separation between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor whose original capacitance was “C”, is
doubled. The capacitance is now:
a) ¼ C b) ½ C c) 2C d) 4C
58. The time required to charge a capacitor depends upon:
a) The magnitude of the charge b) The applied potential difference
c) Its capacitance only d) The product of its capacitance & the resistance in the circuit
59. A current is flowing north along a power line. The direction of the magnetic field above it, neglecting the
earth’s field, is:
a) North b) East c) South d) West
60. When a diamagnetic substance is inserted in a current carrying coil, the magnetic field:
a) Decreased b) Unchanged
c) Increased d) First increase then decrease
61. The time required for a charged particle to make a complete revolution in a magnetic field does not depend
upon:
a) Its mass b) Its charge c) Its energy d) The magnetic flux density
62. The fact that an electric field is produced in a conductor whenever magnetic lines of force move across it to
referred to as:
a) Ampere’s Law b) Ohm’s law c) Faraday’s law d) Lenz’s law
63. Lenz’s Law is a consequence of the law of conservation of:
a) Charge b) Momentum c) Lines of force d) Energy
64. A dynamo is often set to generate electricity. It actually acts as a source of:
a) Charge b) emf c) Electrons d) Magnetism
65. The time required for a current to be established in a circuit depends upon:
a) The magnitude of the current b) The applied potential difference
c) Its inductance only d) Its inductance & its resistance
66. Which of the following is not electromagnetic in nature?
a) Infrared ray b) Ultraviolet rays c) Radio waves d) Sound waves
67. Beats are the results of:
a) Diffraction b) Constructive interference
c) Destructive interference d) Constructive & Destructive interference
68. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit:
a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Diffraction d) Polarization
69. A crucial experiment that led to the theory of relativity was performed by
a) Michelson & Morley b) Albert Einstein c) Poincaré d) Michelson
70. An observer moves past a stationary electron on the earth’s surface. Its wavelength is function of
a) Only on electric field b) Only a magnetic field
c) Both electric & magnetic field d) Multiple function with magnetic field
71. Relative to the original photon, the photon that emerges from a source with the property
a) More energy b) More momentum c) Higher frequency d) Long wavelength
72. Modern physical theories indicate that
a) All particles exhibit wave behavior b) Only moving particle exhibit wave behavior
c) Only charged particles wave behavior d) Only uncharged particles exhibit wave behavior
73. When a beam of light is used to determine the position of an object, the greatest momentum is obtained if
the light:
a) is polarized b) Has short wavelength
c) Has long wavelength d)
74. The total energy in an atomic electron is
a) Les than zero b) Zero c) More than zero d) All of these
75. A hydrogen atom is in its ground state when the orbital electron
a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Diffraction d) Polarization
76. The energy of a quantum state is physically dependent upon the quantum number
a) n b) l c) s d) m
77. The two electrons in a helium atom
a) Occupy different shell b) occupy different subshell
c) Have opposite spins d) have parallel spins
78. There are no expected lines absent from the spectra of
a) Hydrogen b) Alkali metals c) The inert gases d) The halogens
79. A molecule whose charge distribution is not perfectly symmetrical is called
a) A polar molecule b) A non-polar molecule
c) An electrolyte d) An organic molecule
80. Water is an excellent solvent because its molecules are
a) Neutral b) Polar c) Non-polar d) Covalent
81. The electric and magnetic fields without deflection have
a) Mass b) Speed c) Momentum d) Energy
82. Relative to the sum of the masses of its constituent nucleons, the mass of a nucleus is
a) Greater b) The same c) Smaller d) Sometimes greater & sometimes smallest
83. The ionization energy of an atom relative to the binding energy of its nucleus is
a) Greater b) The same c) Smaller d) Sometimes greater & sometimes smallest
84. Yukawa’s theory suggest that the nuclear forces arrives through the exchange of
a) Electrons b) Protons c) Neutrons d) Masons
85. The tunnel affect makes possible:
a) Alpha decay b) -ve beta decay c) +ve beta decay d) Gamma decay
86. A nucleus with an excess of neutrons may decay radioactively with the emission of
a) A neutron b) A proton c) An electrons d) A positron
87. Of the following elementary particles, the one that never decays in free space is the
a) u-masons b) Hyperons c) Protons d) Neutrons
88. The first phase of a nuclear reactions involves the formation of
a) An alpha particle b) A compound nucleus c) An isotope d) A mason
89. Unstable elementary particles heavier than the proton are called
a) Leptons b) K-mesons c) Strange particles d) Hyperons
90. A quantity not always conserve in the decays of an elementary particles is
a) Electric charge b) Lepton number c) Baryon number d) Strangeness number
91. The grid is moved closer to the cathode without changing anything. The amplification factor of the valve
will
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remains unchanged d) First decreases then increases
92. On making grid potential excessively negative, plate resistance (rp):
a) Become zero b) Becomes infinite c) Remains same d) Nothing can be decided
93. In an amplifier maximum voltage gain is obtained when load resistance is equal to
a) Zero b) Infinity c) Plate resistance d) Unity
94. The temperature coefficient of resistance is a semi-conductor
a) Constant b) Positive c) Negative d) None of above
95. For rectifying action we use:
a) Choke b) Diode c) Transformer d) Condenser
96. AC plate resistance of a diode valve at saturation is
a) Zero b) Infinite
c) Depends on plate potential d) None of these
97. LDR becomes essential when op-amp is used as a
a) Comparator b) Inverter c) Non-inverter d) Night switch
98. Which is not the basic operation of Boolean variables:
a) YES operation b) NOT operation c) AND operation d) OR operation
99. A forward biased p-n junction practically offers
a) Zero resistance b) Very low resistance c) Very high resistance d) None of these
100. A solid state detector basically
a) A reverse biased p-n junction b) A forward biased junction
c) A p-n-p junction d) A n-p-n junction
 ANSWERS

Q A Q A Q A Q A

1 a 26 d 51 c 76 A

2 c 27 d 52 c 77 C

3 b 28 b 53 a 78 A

4 a 29 c 54 c 79 A

5 d 30 a 55 c 80 B

6 a 31 a 56 a 81 b

7 b 32 b 57 b 82 c

8 a 33 d 58 d 83 c

9 b 34 b 59 b 84 d

10 c 35 c 60 a 85 a

11 a 36 b 61 c 86 c

12 a 37 d 62 c 87 c

13 c 38 a 63 d 88 b

14 b 39 c 64 b 89 d

15 d 40 a 65 a 90 d

16 d 41 d 66 d 91 a

17 a 42 b 67 d 92 b

18 a 43 d 68 d 93 a

19 b 44 a 69 a 94 c

20 c 45 c 70 c 95 b

21 a 46 c 71 d 96 d

22 c 47 b 72 b 97 b

23 b 48 a 73 b 98 a

24 c 49 d 74 a 99 b

25 c 50 d 75 c 100 a
 PUNJAB PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION
WRITTEN TEST 2017
FOR RECRUMTMENT TO THE POST OF LECTURER PHYSICS BS-17
(MALE/FEMALE)
1. Write your rill no. at the right corner of QUESTION PAPER and in separate ANSWER SHEET.
2. Read QUESTION PAPER carefully and mark your answer on the ANSWER SHEET.
3. Each question has four options. Fill only one box that you think is the correct answer. Each question has
1 mark. 0.25 mark will be deducted for each incorrect answer.
4. Instructions for filling box have been given on the Answer sheet. Read them carefully before you answer.
5. Read the instructions for filling your ROLL NO. and marking your answer on the ANSWER SHEET
before you start answering.
6. Sign in Answer Sheet in the box provided at the bottom corner.
7. Return both Question Paper and Answer Sheet to the Staff at the end of the test.

Note: Use of calculator is not allowed.

1. A vector is a tensor of rank
a) 1 b) 2 c) Zero d) 3

2. If [ Aˆ , Bˆ ] = 0 . then two operators  & B̂ are said to be

a) Anticommute b) Do not commute c) Commute d) None of these


3. +  J = 0 is called
t
a) Laplace’s equation b) Equation of continuity
c) Tensor equation d) Equation of polar coordinates
4. First law of thermodynamics is a special form of:
a) Law of conservation of energy b) Law of conservation of momentum
c) Law of inertia d) None of these
5. In spherical polar coordinates, the range of a ‘  ’ variable is from
a) 0→π/2 b) π/2→ π c) 0→π d) 0→2π
6. Moment of inertia is a tensor of rank
a) 3rd b) 2nd c) 0th d) 4th
7. The Range of projectile will be same when the angle of projection is
a) 20o & 80o b) 30o & 60o c) 25o & 50o d) 20o & 45o
8. The work done by compound pendulum in one complete oscillation is:
a) Zero b) Equal to K.E. of pendulum
c) Equal to P.E. of pendulum d) Equal to total energy of pendulum
9. A man inside an artificial satellite feels weightlessness because the force of attraction due to the earth is
a) Zero at the pole b) Equal to centripetal force
c) Balance the force of attraction due to the moon d) None of these

10. The component of a vector P along y-axis is | P | /2 , the angle made by the vector with horizontal is:

a) 60o b) 45o c) 30o d) 90o

11. ERG stands for
a) Electro Radio Graphy b) Energy Radio Graphy
c) Electric Retino Graphy d) None of these
12. It is possible to distinguish between transverse & longitudinal wave by studying the property of
a) Polarization b) c) 30o d) 90o
13. Which one of the following represents a travelling wave
a) A cos(t +  ) b) A cos(t − kx) c) A sin(t +  ) d) A sin(t − kx)

14. Which one of the following waves cannot be polarized

a) X-rays b) Sound waves c) Radio waves d) Ultraviolet rays
15. Alternative current is converted to direct current by a
a) Motor b) Dynamo c) Transformer d) Rectifier
16. At resonance the value of power factor in an L.C.R series circuit is:
a) Zero b) ½ c) Infinite d) One
17. Two parallel wires carrying current in the opposite direction:
a) Repel each other b) Attract each other
c) Do not attract each other d) Get rotated perpendicular to each other
18. If the distance between two charges is doubled the Coulomb force will become:
a) One fourth b) Double c) Half d) Same
19. An electric or magnetic field cannot accelerate:
a) Electron b) Neutron c) Proton d) α-particle
20. The penetrating power of x-rays increases with
a) Increase in its velocity b) Decrease in its velocity
c) Increase in its intensity d) Decrease in intensity
21. Which of the following is not needed in a nuclear fission reactor?
a) accelerator b) coolant c) moderator d) fuel
22. Exclusive OR (XOR) logic gates can be constructed from
a) OR gates and NOR gates b) AND gates and NOT gates
c) AND gates, OR gates and NOT gates d) combining three OR gates
23. The cause of magnetism in magnetic materials is
a) Spin motion of electrons b) Orbital motion of electrons
c) Vibration of atoms in magnetic field d) Spin and orbital motion of electrons
24. Above __________ temperature, an anti-ferromagnetic substance becomes paramagnetic
a) transition temperature b) Neel temperature
c) Curie temperature d) critical temperature
25. Number of independent formulation(s) of quantum mechanics are ________
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 4
26. The quanta of lattice vibration is known as
a) photons b) excitons c) polarons d) phonons
27. Which of the following light is suitable for maximum resolution?
a) red b) green c) blue d) yellow
28. The tangential acceleration of a point on a rotating object is the product of the distance of the point from the
axis of rotation and the,
a) angular velocity b) angular acceleration
c) angular displacement d) linear acceleration
29. Two masses, M and m, are hung vertically down to the earth over a massless, frictionless pulley. If M > m,
then the downward acceleration of mass M is

a) g b)
( M − m) g c)
Mg
d)
Mmg
M +m m M +m
30. A body of mass m is moving in a circle of radius r with a constant speed v. The work done, when body
completes one revolution is

 mv 2   mv 2   mv 2 
a)    ( 2 r ) b)    ( r ) c)    ( 2r ) d) Zero
 r   r   r 

31. Two forces of 5N and 7N can produce a resultant of

a) 0 N b) 1 N c) 10 N d) 35 N
32. The number of significant figures in 0.005005 are ______
a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 7
33. A car starts from Lahore and goes 60 km north towards Gujranwala. After travelling 60 km, the car
immediately turns around and returns Lahore. The total time for this round trip is 2 hours. The magnitude of
average velocity of the car for this round trip is
a) 60 km/h b) 120 km/h c) 30 km/h d) 0
34. The term mass refers to the same physical concept as that of
a) force b) weight c) volume d) inertia
35. The amount of work required to stop a moving object is _________
a) the mass of the object times its acceleration b) the mass of the object times its velocity
c) the kinetic energy of the object d) the velocity of the object
36. The momentum of an object at any particular instant of time is independent of its
a) acceleration b) mass c) velocity d) inertia
37. Sphere A has mass m and is moving with velocity v. It makes a head on elastic collision with a stationary
sphere B of mass 2m. After the collision their speeds (vA and vB) are
a) -v, v b) 0, v/2 c) -v/3, 2v/3 d) -2v/3, v/3

38.An ice skater with rotational inertia Io is spinning with angular speed o . She pulls her arms in, thereby
increasing her angular speed to 4o . Her rotational inertia is then

a) Io b) Io/2 c) Io/4 d) 4Io

39. If the radius of the earth is expressed by R and mass of the earth is represented by M, the ratio of gravitational
acceleration (g) to the universal gravitational constant (G). i.e., (g/G) on the surface of the earth is

a) M / R 2 b) R 2 / M c) MR 2 d) R / M
40. A spring scale is calibrated in newtons and is used to weigh sugar. If it were possible to weigh sugar at the
following locations, the buyer will get the most sugar in newtons at
a) the equator b) the north pole c) the moon d) the center of the earth
41. The hydraulic automobile jack works on the basis of
a) Pascal’s principle b) Archimedes’ principle c) Hooke’s law d) Newton’s 3rd law of motion
42. At high altitudes, some persons feel that the blood is flowing out of the nose or ear. This is because_____
a) Density of blood decrease at high altitude b) atmospheric pressure decrease there
c) blood pressure increases at high altitude d) percentage of oxygen in air decreases
43. A body of mass m moving at constant velocity v hits another body of the same mass moving with a velocity
v/2 but in opposite direction and sticks to it. The common velocity after collision is
a) v/4 b) v/2 c) v d) 2v
44. The equation of state of n moles of an ideal gas is PV = nRT . SI unit for the universal gas constant (R) is
a) Erg K-1 mole-1 b) Erg K-1 mole-2 c) J K-1 mole-1 d) J K-1 mole-2
45. The second law of thermodynamics, when stated with reference to heat engine is called _____
a) Kelvin statement b) Clacius statement c) Zeroth law d) Curie’s law
46. The zeroth law of thermodynamics helps us to define ______
a) internal energy b) temperature c) thermal equilibrium d) heat capacity
47. Metal pipes, used to carry water, sometimes burst in the winter because
a) metal contracts more than water b) metal becomes brittle when cooled
c) ice expands when it melts d) water expands when it freezes
48. The buildings are kept cooler in summer light colored shades instead of dark colored windows. This is
because light colored shades ______
a) reflects more sunlight b) absorb more sunlight
c) have a lower thermal conductivity d) transmit more sunlight
49. The difference between the molar specific heat air constant pressure and the molar specific heat at constant
volume firing ideal gas is known as
a) the boltzmann constant b) the ever gardos constraint
c) the universal gas constant d) heat capacity
50. If a heat engine is doing a positive work in each cycle while losing some energy as heat, with no heat energy
input coma is a clear violation of ___________
a) the third law of thermodynamics b) the second law of thermodynamics c) the first law of
thermodynamics d) the zero floor of thermodynamics
51. if is the wavelength of each of the components sinusoidal traveling waves their former standing wave, the
distance between adjacent nodes is the standing wave is _______
a) An elementary particle b) An atom
c) A molecule d) An element
52. if the feature open approaching siren is increasing, it is apparently due to increase in its _________
a) speed b) wavelength c) frequency d) empty tube I'm pleased you
53. the process of keeps appearing with different intensity at a point when a number of waves pass through a
point in a medium is known as ______oh babes
a) interference b) direction c) polarization d) three fraction
54. if add are the amplitudes of two waves in Young's double slit experiment, then the maximum intensity of
interference range is __________
a) Newton b) Bernoulli c) Coulomb d) Ampere
55. in Young's double slit experiment Homer if the separation between these notes is reduced to half and the
distance of the screen from the slits his doubled, then they print with his
a) quadrupled b) doubled c) how d) remains unchanged
56. to reduce circularly polarized light from a guy phase difference between 2:00 but for 20 clearly polarized
light Rays of equal magnitude should be hello
a) ¼ R b) ½ R c) 2R d) 4R
57. The separation between the plates of a parallel-plate capacitor whose original capacitance was “C”, is
doubled. The capacitance is now:
a) ¼ C b) ½ C c) 2C d) 4C
58. The time required to charge a capacitor depends upon:
a) The magnitude of the charge b) The applied potential difference
c) Its capacitance only d) The product of its capacitance & the resistance in the circuit
59. A current is flowing north along a power line. The direction of the magnetic field above it, neglecting the
earth’s field, is:
a) North b) East c) South d) West
60. When a diamagnetic substance is inserted in a current carrying coil, the magnetic field:
a) Decreased b) Unchanged
c) Increased d) First increase then decrease
61. The time required for a charged particle to make a complete revolution in a magnetic field does not depend
upon:
a) Its mass b) Its charge c) Its energy d) The magnetic flux density
62. The fact that an electric field is produced in a conductor whenever magnetic lines of force move across it to
referred to as:
a) Ampere’s Law b) Ohm’s law c) Faraday’s law d) Lenz’s law
63. Lenz’s Law is a consequence of the law of conservation of:
a) Charge b) Momentum c) Lines of force d) Energy
64. A dynamo is often set to generate electricity. It actually acts as a source of:
a) Charge b) emf c) Electrons d) Magnetism
65. The time required for a current to be established in a circuit depends upon:
a) The magnitude of the current b) The applied potential difference
c) Its inductance only d) Its inductance & its resistance
66. Which of the following is not electromagnetic in nature?
a) Infrared ray b) Ultraviolet rays c) Radio waves d) Sound waves
67. Beats are the results of:
a) Diffraction b) Constructive interference
c) Destructive interference d) Constructive & Destructive interference
68. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit:
a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Diffraction d) Polarization
69. A crucial experiment that led to the theory of relativity was performed by
a) Michelson & Morley b) Albert Einstein c) Poincaré d) Michelson
70. An observer moves past a stationary electron on the earth’s surface. Its wavelength is function of
a) Only on electric field b) Only a magnetic field
c) Both electric & magnetic field d) Multiple function with magnetic field
71. Relative to the original photon, the photon that emerges from a source with the property
a) More energy b) More momentum c) Higher frequency d) Long wavelength
72. Modern physical theories indicate that
a) All particles exhibit wave behavior b) Only moving particle exhibit wave behavior
c) Only charged particles wave behavior d) Only uncharged particles exhibit wave behavior
73. When a beam of light is used to determine the position of an object, the greatest momentum is obtained if
the light:
a) is polarized b) Has short wavelength
c) Has long wavelength d)
74. The total energy in an atomic electron is
a) Les than zero b) Zero c) More than zero d) All of these
75. A hydrogen atom is in its ground state when the orbital electron
a) Refraction b) Reflection c) Diffraction d) Polarization
76. The energy of a quantum state is physically dependent upon the quantum number
a) n b) l c) s d) m
77. The two electrons in a helium atom
a) Occupy different shell b) occupy different subshell
c) Have opposite spins d) have parallel spins
78. There are no expected lines absent from the spectra of
a) Hydrogen b) Alkali metals c) The inert gases d) The halogens
79. A molecule whose charge distribution is not perfectly symmetrical is called
a) A polar molecule b) A non-polar molecule
c) An electrolyte d) An organic molecule
80. Water is an excellent solvent because its molecules are
a) Neutral b) Polar c) Non-polar d) Covalent
81. The electric and magnetic fields without deflection have
a) Mass b) Speed c) Momentum d) Energy
82. Relative to the sum of the masses of its constituent nucleons, the mass of a nucleus is
a) Greater b) The same c) Smaller d) Sometimes greater & sometimes smallest
83. The ionization energy of an atom relative to the binding energy of its nucleus is
a) Greater b) The same c) Smaller d) Sometimes greater & sometimes smallest
84. Yukawa’s theory suggest that the nuclear forces arrives through the exchange of
a) Electrons b) Protons c) Neutrons d) Masons
85. The tunnel affect makes possible:
a) Alpha decay b) -ve beta decay c) +ve beta decay d) Gamma decay
86. A nucleus with an excess of neutrons may decay radioactively with the emission of
a) A neutron b) A proton c) An electrons d) A positron
87. Of the following elementary particles, the one that never decays in free space is the
a) u-masons b) Hyperons c) Protons d) Neutrons
88. The first phase of a nuclear reactions involves the formation of
a) An alpha particle b) A compound nucleus c) An isotope d) A mason
89. Unstable elementary particles heavier than the proton are called
a) Leptons b) K-mesons c) Strange particles d) Hyperons
90. A quantity not always conserve in the decays of an elementary particles is
a) Electric charge b) Lepton number c) Baryon number d) Strangeness number
91. The grid is moved closer to the cathode without changing anything. The amplification factor of the valve
will
a) Increase b) Decrease c) Remains unchanged d) First decreases then increases
92. On making grid potential excessively negative, plate resistance (rp):
a) Become zero b) Becomes infinite c) Remains same d) Nothing can be decided
93. In an amplifier maximum voltage gain is obtained when load resistance is equal to
a) Zero b) Infinity c) Plate resistance d) Unity
94. The temperature coefficient of resistance is a semi-conductor
a) Constant b) Positive c) Negative d) None of above
95. For rectifying action we use:
a) Choke b) Diode c) Transformer d) Condenser
96. AC plate resistance of a diode valve at saturation is
a) Zero b) Infinite
c) Depends on plate potential d) None of these
97. LDR becomes essential when op-amp is used as a
a) Comparator b) Inverter c) Non-inverter d) Night switch
98. Which is not the basic operation of Boolean variables:
a) YES operation b) NOT operation c) AND operation d) OR operation
99. A forward biased p-n junction practically offers
a) Zero resistance b) Very low resistance c) Very high resistance d) None of these
100. A solid state detector basically
a) A reverse biased p-n junction b) A forward biased junction
c) A p-n-p junction d) A n-p-n junction
 ANSWERS

Q A Q A Q A Q A

1 a 26 d 51 c 76 A

2 c 27 d 52 c 77 C

3 b 28 b 53 a 78 A

4 a 29 c 54 c 79 A

5 d 30 a 55 c 80 B

6 a 31 a 56 a 81 b

7 b 32 b 57 b 82 c

8 a 33 d 58 d 83 c

9 b 34 b 59 b 84 d

10 c 35 c 60 a 85 a

11 a 36 b 61 c 86 c

12 a 37 d 62 c 87 c

13 c 38 a 63 d 88 b

14 b 39 c 64 b 89 d

15 d 40 a 65 a 90 d

16 d 41 d 66 d 91 a

17 a 42 b 67 d 92 b

18 a 43 d 68 d 93 a

19 b 44 a 69 a 94 c

20 c 45 c 70 c 95 b

21 a 46 c 71 d 96 d

22 c 47 b 72 b 97 b

23 b 48 a 73 b 98 a

24 c 49 d 74 a 99 b

25 c 50 d 75 c 100 a