0000

1. “Day” is the period between:

a. 15 minutes before sunrise to 15 minutes after sunset

2. “Night” is the period between:

a. 15 minutes after sunset to 15 minutes before sunrise

3. An aeroplane is an example of a:
a. Category rating

4. A single engine piston aeroplane is an example of a:

a. Class rating

5. An aeroplane with a maximum certified mass exceeding 5700kg is an example of

a:
a. Type rating

6. Flight time means:

a. From the moment the aircraft lifts off until it stops at the end of
its landing roll

7. The manoeuvring area of an aerodrome includes:

a. Taxiways and runways

8. Formation flights may only be conducted:

a. By arrangement with the pilot in command of each aircraft in
formation

9. In aviation, the term “infant” is used to define a passenger who:

a. Has not reached his or her second birthday

10. No aircraft shall be operated unless a child restraint device is provided for each
passenger who is:
a. Less than 2 years of age

11. No aircraft shall be operated unless a seat is provided for each person:
a. Aged two years or more

12. Smoking on a licensed aerodrome is prohibited in any place within:

a. 15 metres of an aircraft
13. In an aircraft where smoking is permitted, smoking shall nevertheless be
prohibited:
a. During take-off, and approach to land or when the aircraft is on
the ground

14. The refuelling of an aircraft with aviation gasoline:

a. May not take place with passengers on board

15. A hand operated fire extinguisher must be carried:

a. On all aircrafts

16. The carriage of a standard first aid kit is required:

a. In all aircraft

17. Simulated emergency situations which affect the flight characteristics of an

aircraft may be carried out in an aircraft:
a. When passengers are not on board the aircraft

18. No pilot shall use a public road as a place of landing or take-off except:
a. In an emergency

19. The pilot in command of a non-pressurised aircraft shall ensure that breathing
oxygen is available for passengers and crew for all flights between 10000ft and
12000ft:
a. In excess of 120 minutes

20. The operation of a non-pressurised aircraft at altitude between 10000ft and

12000 ft is:
a. Limited to 120 minutes unless the aircraft is equipped with
supplemental oxygen

21. For an aircraft to be operated by day, a serviceable rotating beacon or strobe

light:
a. Is not required

22. For an aircraft to be operated by night, a serviceable rotating beacon or strobe

light:
a. Is required
23. No aircraft shall be operated at night unless:
a. It is equipped with a serviceable rotating beacon

24. The equipment required in an aircraft to be operated by night includes:

a. An electrical torch for each crew member

25. In an aircraft in which fuses are used, the number of spare fuses which must be
carried is equal to at least:
a. 10% or three, whichever is greater

26. Original or certified copies of the documents to be carried in an aircraft on a

domestic flight include:
a. Certificate of release to service, certificate of registration and the
pilot’s licence

27. A certificate of release to service or a copy of thereof, if required to be carried:

a. On all aircrafts

28. Flight crew member licences, or certified copies of thereof must be carried in the
aircraft:
a. On all flights

29. The carriage of a flight folio is required:

a. In all aircraft

30. A record of each fuel and oil uplift must be kept:

a. In the aircraft flight folio

31. An aircraft flight folio must be retained by the owner or the operator for a period
of:
a. 5 years calculated from the date of last entry therein

32. The mass and centre of gravity of an aircraft must be established at least:
a. Every 5 years

33. A licence holder must notify the Commissioner of any change in postal address
within:
a. 14 days
34. For flights conducted in accordance with Part 91, or flying training, operations
the relevant entries in a pilot’s logbook must be made within:
a. 7 days

35. Electronic logbooks may be used to record flight time, provided that:
a. The data is printed on the paper at least every 90 days

36. The holder of a pilot licence must submit to the Commissioner a certified copy of
summary of his or her logbook at least:
a. Every 12 months.

37. All pilots must retain their logbooks, from the date they no longer hold a valid
pilot licence for a period of:
a. 60 months

38. The period of validity of a class 2 medical for a private pilot under the age of 40 is
a. 60 months

39. The period of validity of a class 2 medical for a private pilot over the age of 40 is:
a. 24 months

40. The holder of a medical certificate who is unable to comply with the appropriate
medical requirements and standards of the certificate:
a. Must furnish proof to the designated medical body or the
institution that he or she has recovered from the decrease in
medical fitness

41. If because of duty in a State or territory outside the republic, deferral of the
issuing of a South African medical certificate for a private pilot has to be made,
such deferral shall subject to an acceptable medical report being obtained
locally, not exceed:
a. Two consecutive periods, each of three months.

42. A pilot may:

a. Fly through a danger area under his own risk with ensuring that
broadcasting communication has been established

43. A pilot may fly through a restricted area provided that:

a. Permission from the appropriate authority is obtained
44. Information regarding the latest restricted areas which may affect flights may be
found:
a. In the latest AIP, AIP SUP, AIC’s and NOTAM

45. A pilot may:

a. Fly above a prohibited area provided that the aircraft remains
above the specified upper limit of the prohibited area

46. Unless two-way communication has already been established, the frequency to
be used by an intercepted aircraft and intercepting aircraft is:
a. 121.5 MHz

47. If an intercepting aircraft, rocking its wings appears in front and to the left of an
intercepted aircraft. This means:
a. Follow me away from a prohibited area

48. If an intercepting aircraft, rocking its wings, appears in front and to the right of
an intercepted aircraft, this means:
a. “follow me to a landing terrain”

49. A list of signals for use by intercepting aircraft must be carried:

a. On all flights

50. The PIC of an aircraft operated on or in the vicinity of an unmanned aerodrome

shall be responsible for:
a. Making all turns to the left unless a right-hand circuit is in force

51. When two heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the
purpose of landing the:
a. The aircraft at the lower level has right of way

52. Where a right-hand circuit is being followed at an airfield, an aircraft may:

a. Overtake a slower aircraft by passing on its left

53. When operating outside of an aerodrome circuit area, an aircraft which is

overtaking a slower aircraft at the same height and heading:
a. Shall pass the aircraft on the right
54. When two aircrafts are approaching head on, or approximately so, and there is a
danger of collision:
a. Each aircraft shall alter the heading to the right

55. A vehicle which is towing an aircraft:

a. Has right of way over an aircraft taxying across an apron

56. An aircraft which is taxying across the apron shall:

a. Always give right of way to a vehicle which is towing an aircraft

57. The pilot in command, surviving an accident involving an aircraft within the
Republic, shall report such accident as soon as possible to the:
a. Director
b. Commissioner

58. An incident involving an aircraft within the republic shall be reported as soon as
possible to the:
a. Commissioner or the air traffic service unit

59. An accident involving a South African registered aircraft outside the Republic
shall be reported as soon as possible to the:
a. Appropriate aviation authority of the country in which the
accident occurred and the Commissioner

60. An incident involving a South African registered aircraft outside the Republic
shall be reported as soon as possible to the:
a. Appropriate aviation authority of the country in which the
incident occurred and the Commissioner

61. An aircraft involved in an in an accident may be moved:

a. Only if authority to move it has been given by the investigator in
charge

62. An authorised officer, inspector or authorised person may suspend a person

from exercising all or any of the privileges of his or her pilot licence, ratings or
validation for a period not exceeding:
a. 30 days
63. A private pilot licence issued is valid for a period of:
a. 10 years

64. The requirements for the issue of a PPL include:

a. A minimum of 15hrs of solo time, of which 5hrs must be solo
cross-country time

65. Included in the requirements for the issue of a private pilot licence is that the
applicant must have completed not less than:
a. 5 hours of instrument instruction time

66. A private pilot may act as co-pilot on an aircraft:

a. On which a co-pilot is not a requirement

67. The holder of a private pilot licence when acting as a co-pilot in aircraft not
required by the manufacturer, or the South African Civil Aviation Regulations,
to be operated with a co-pilot may be credited:
a. With none of the flight time towards the total flight time required
for a higher-grade pilot licence

68. A private pilot, with an appropriate rating, when acting as a co-pilot in an aircraft
certified for operation by a single pilot but required by the South African Civil
Aviation Regulations be operated with a co-pilot may be credited:
a. With not more than 50% of the hours of such flight time towards a
higher-grade pilot licence.

69. A private pilot, with an appropriate rating, when acting as a co-pilot in an aircraft
certified to be operated with a co-pilot may be credited:
a. In full with the flight time towards the total flight time required
for a higher-grade pilot licence

70. An applicant for a private pilot licence(aeroplane) who is also the holder of a
glider pilot licence may:
a. Be credited with a maximum of 10 glider hours towards the issue
of private pilot licence

71. An applicant for a private pilot licence who is also a holder of a micro light pilot
licence may:
a. Be credited with a maximum of 10 micro light hrs towards the
issue of private pilot licence
72. The applicant for a private pilot licence must undergo the skill test within:
a. 6 months of passing the theoretical knowledge examinations

73. Prior to undergoing the revalidation skill test a private pilot must have flown a
minimum of:
a. 3 hours as pilot in command in the preceding 6 months

74. An applicant for a night rating must have completed:

a. 10hrs of instrument instruction of which not more than 5hrs may
have been acquired in an approved FSTD.

75. An applicant for an aeroplane night flight rating shall have completed not less
than:
a. 10hrs of instrument flight time, at least 5 take offs and 5 landings
by night and a dual cross country of not less than 150nm

76. An applicant for night rating must have undergone:

a. 5 hours of theoretical knowledge instruction

77. A night rating is valid for:

a. As long as the pilot licence of the holder of the rating is valid

78. A pilot without a night rating shall not act as PIC of an aircraft, carrying a
passenger by day, unless such pilot has carried out at least:
a. Three take offs and landings within the 90 days immediately
preceding the flight

79. In order to change to another type of aeroplane, not previously flown, within
one class rating:
a. The pilot must undergo differences or familiarisation training

80. An applicant for an initial single pilot multi engine type rating must have
completed, on a multi engine aeroplane, a minimum of:
a. 6 hours of dual flight training

81. The holder of a pilot licence must undergo periodic proficiency checks for the
revalidation of a rating unless he or she has successfully passed a revalidation
check or an initial skill test in the same category of aircraft within the
previous:
a. 24 months
82. With reference to the maintenance of competency requirements, if a pilot fails a
proficiency check:
a. Must undergo corrective training and provide a letter
recommendation for a re-test

83. “Date of Application” when used in connection with the issuing, renewal or
reissuing of a licence, certificate or rating means:
a. The date on which the application is received in the prescribed
form by the Commissioner

84. An Aerodrome Traffic Zone is defined as an airspace of defined dimension at an

aerodrome:
a. Which is controlled airspace and where aerodrome control is in
operation

85. The PIC of an aircraft to be operated in controlled airspace:

a. Shall ensure that two-way communication has been established
before the aircraft enters controlled airspace

86. The PIC of an aircraft may propose an amendment to an air traffic control
clearance. The amendment:
a. May not be applied by the pilot without ATC approval

87. Unless otherwise authorised by an ATSU, for a flight departing into controlled or
advisory airspace an air traffic service flight plan must be filed at least:
a. 30 minutes before departure

88. An air traffic service flight plan for a flight to be conducted in controlled or
advisory airspace, which is filed in flight must be filed with the responsible air
traffic service unit at least:
a. 10 minutes before the entry into the controlled or advisory
airspace

89. In an event of a controlled flight inadvertently deviating from its current air
traffic service flight plan, a revised ETA shall be notified to the ATC if an error
is found to be in excess of:
a. 3 minutes
90. In terms of Civil Aviation Regulations, an air traffic service flight plan must be
filed for:
a. A flight crossing an international boundary even though no
landings will be made.
b. A flight between two aerodrome traffic zones even though no
controlled or advisory airspace will be entered en route.
c. A flight from a manned aerodrome to an aerodrome traffic zone
where no other controlled or advisory airspace will be entered
during the flight.

91. A private pilot is on a VFR flight conducted mostly in uncontrolled airspace, but a
part of the route crosses through an airway at right angles. The pilot:
a. May fly through the airway without filing a flight plan provided
clearance to do so is obtained from the ATSU responsible for that
airway

92. An aircraft for which an air traffic service flight plan has been filed:
a. May be given priority over aircraft for which flight plans have not
been filed.

93. In the case of radio failure, a flight for which a flight plan was filed and activated
may continue in controlled airspace provided that:
a. The communication failure procedures are complied with

94. Cloud ceiling means:

a. The height above the surface of the base of the clouds below
20000ft, covering more than half the sky

95. The PIC of an aircraft on a domestic VFR cross country flight shall not commence
take off unless:
a. A favourable met forecast for the route to be flown has been
obtained

96. The navigation and associated equipment required for aircraft operated under
VFR includes:
a. An airspeed indicator (ASI) and a clock or watch showing the time
in hours minutes and seconds
97. Every VFR flight shall be so conducted that the aircraft is flown with visual
reference to the surface and at no time above more than:
a. 3/8 of cloud within a radius of 5nm of the aircraft

98. The take-off visibility required for an aeroplane on a VFR flight departing from an
Aerodrome Traffic Zone is:
a. 5km

99. Notwithstanding the weather minima required for VFR operation in an

aerodrome traffic zone, the pilot of an aircraft in a cross-country flight may
enter or leave the ATZ when:
a. The ground visibility is 5km or greater and the ceiling is not less
than 500ft

100. For an aeroplane flying VFR in uncontrolled airspace between 1 500 ft and 5 000
ft above the ground by day, the required weather minima are:
a. 5 km visibility, distance from cloud: 2 000 ft horizontally and 500 ft
vertically

101. For an aeroplane flying VFR in uncontrolled airspace at or below 1000ft above
the surface by day, the required weather minima are:
a. 1 ½ km visibility and clear of cloud

102. A PIC may conduct special VFR operations, subject to ATC approval, within a:
a. Control zone (CTR)

103. A pilot in command, subject to ATC approval, may conduct special VFR
operations:
a. Within a CTR, with a cloud base of at least 600ft and visibility at
least 1500m

104. Unless instructed to do otherwise by an ATSU, an aircraft flying at or below

1500ft above the surface following a line feature:
a. Shall fly to the right of the line feature

105. An aircraft which is following a railway line within one nautical mile shall,
unless instructed by ATC:
a. If flying at or below 1500ft AGL, fly to the right of the railway line
106. The minimum height at which an aircraft may fly across an aerodrome without
conforming to the traffic pattern is:
a. 2000ft

107. The PIC of an aeroplane which is approaching an unmanned aerodrome for the
purpose of landing shall:
a. Fly overhead at least at 2000ft AGL to establish the runway in use

108. Except when necessary for taking off and landing, or except with the prior
written approval of the Commissioner, no aircraft shall be flown over built up
areas at a height:
a. Less than 1000ft above the highest obstacle within a radius of
2000ft from the aircraft.

109. Except with the prior written approval from the Commissioner, no aircraft shall
circle over, or do repeated flights over an open-air assembly of persons at a
height of less than:
a. 3000ft above the surface

110. Away from built-up areas or open-air assemblies of persons, the minimum
height at which an aircraft may be flown is:
a. 500 ft above the ground or water

111. Except by an individual permission from the Commissioner, aircraft shall not be
flown acrobatically:
a. Within 5nm of an aerodrome unless at a height of 4000ft AGL

112. No person shall act as flight crew member of an aircraft:

a. Within 72 hours following blood donation

113. No person shall act as flight crew member of an aircraft:

a. Within 24 hrs following a scuba diving

114. No flight crew member shall consume alcohol within:

a. 8 hours prior to a flight
115. No person shall act as a flight crew member on an aircraft if prior to each flight,
the flight time exceeds, or is likely to exceed:
a. 400 hrs in during preceding 90 days

116. No person shall act as the flight crew member of an aircraft if, prior to each
flight, the flight time exceeds or is likely to exceed:
a. 700hrs during the preceding 6 months

117. A private pilot who is not a holder of instrument rating shall not act as a flight
crew member if, prior to each flight exceeds, or is likely to exceed:
a. 1000hrs during the preceding 12 months

118. In terms of semi-circular rule, the selection of flight levels shall be based on
a. Magnetic track

119. Unless otherwise directed by ATC, compliance with the semi-circular rule is
required for all flights operating above:
a. 1500ft AGL

120. Aircraft flown in accordance with VFR shall not be required to comply with the
semi-circular rule when operating:
a. At a height of less than 1500ft above the ground

121. An aircraft is to maintain a track of 160deg (T), drift 8deg right, variation 20deg
W, high ground of 3800ft above sea level. The most appropriate VFR flight
level to be used is:
a. FL065

122. An aircraft is to maintain344deg (T), drift 6deg right, variation 20deg W, high
ground 4300ft above mean sea level. The most appropriate VFR flight level to
be used is:
a. FL075

123. An aircraft, operating VFR is maintaining a track of 359deg (M). Another

aircraft, also VFR, is maintaining a track of 180deg (M). The two aircrafts:
a. Could be at the same flight level

124. An aircraft, operating VFR is maintaining a track of 359deg (M). Another

aircraft, also VFR, is maintaining a track of 179deg (M). The two aircrafts:
a. Could be at different flight level
125. Unless authorised required by an air traffic service unit, no person shall fly a
reciprocating engine aircraft within a control zone or an aerodrome traffic
zone at an indicated airspeed of more than:
a. 160kts

126. Unless authorised by the Commissioner, no person shall outside controlled

airspace and below FL100 fly an aircraft at an indicated airspeed of:
a. 250kts

127. To an aircraft in flight at an aerodrome, a steady green light shall mean:

a. Cleared to land

128. To an aircraft in the air at an aerodrome, a series of white flashes means:

a. Land at this aerodrome and proceed to the apron

129. To an aircraft on the ground at an aerodrome, a series of white flashes means:

a. Return to starting point of an aerodrome

130. A series of green flashes to the aircraft on ground at an aerodrome shall mean:
a. Cleared to taxi

131. To an aircraft on ground at an aerodrome, a series of red flashes mean:

a. Taxi clear of landing area in use

132. The signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an
aerodrome indicates:

a. Be used for take-off and landing which must be in a direction

parallel to the shaft to the T towards the cross arm
133. The symbol indicated in figure below, when displayed in a signal area indicates
that:

a. Aircraft are required to land, take-off and taxi on runways and

taxiways only

134. The signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an
aerodrome means that:

a. Glider flights are in operation

135. The Signal shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal area of an
aerodrome means:

a. Agricultural flights are in operation

136. The visual ground signal as shown in figure below, when displayed in the signal
area at an aerodrome indicated that:

a. Landings are prohibited

137. A white or yellow cross located at each end of a runway means that:
a. The runway is closed