Crop Protection 2015 Reviewer

AGRICULTURISTS
LICENSURE
EXAMINATION
REVIEWER
CROP PROTECTION
COLLEGE OF AGRICULTURE
University of Southern Mindanao
Kabacan, Cotabato
2015
FOREWORD
The College of Agriculture of the University of Southern

Mindanao, as a National University for Agriculture, assumes a
prime role in pursuing a culture of excellence in agricultural
instruction, research, extension and production. In such pursuit,
the College came up with this publication to prepare and harness
the competencies of its graduates to give them the best chances in
passing the Agriculturist Licensure Examination (ALE). Coming up
with this publication is the ultimate expression of the College to
continuously play a vital role in professionalizing agriculture in the
Philippines for global competitiveness, more specifically on the
context of ASEAN integration.
This reviewer focuses on the six subject areas of the ALE such
as Agricultural Extension and Communication, Animal Science,
Agricultural Economics, Crop Protection, Crop Science and Soil
Science, incorporating the relevant basic subject matters and recent
advances in each area which will give better chances for the users to
successfully hurdle the ALE.
Being CHED’s Center of Development in Agriculture, the

College will continue to propel the development of skills and
competencies of its graduates in response to national agriculture
agenda and global competitiveness.
PURIFICACION O. CAHATIAN
College Dean
AGRICULTURISTS
LICENSURE EXAMINATION
(ALE)
REVIEW QUESTIONS
CROP
PROTECTION
Contributors
Purificacion O. Cahatian PhD.

Entomology/Vertebrate and other Pests
Conrado C. Evangelista PhD.

Entomology/ Weed Science
Joeseph S. Quisado MSc.

Entomology
Raquel B. Evangelista PhD.

Plant Pathology
Jaime C. Silvestre PhD.

Plant Pathology
Gloria L. Descalsota MSc.

Weed Science
April 2015
CROP PROTECTION
(Entomology)
1. The earliest known hexapod probably a Collembolan during the middle

Devonian of Scotland is
a. Rhyneilla praecursor b. Danaus plexippus
c. Limenitis archippus d. Spodoptera litura
2. The earliest known insect from the upper Devonian of Russia

a. Eopterum devonicum b. Rhyneilla praecursor
c. Danaus plexippus d. Limenitis archippus
3. In the classification ladder, genus are grouped into:

a. species b. class
c. family d. order
4. A tool that unlocks the door to identification of an unknown organism

a. key b. nomenclature
b. systematics d. taxonomy
5. A branch of science which deals with how organisms are related to each
other and which attempts to describe the underlying reasons for that
relationship
a. Nomenclature b. Morphology
c. Systematics d. Taxonomy
6. The other term for Class Insecta, which means “six-legged” is

a. Class Myriapoda b. Class Hexapoda
c. Class Diplopoda d. Class Hexagona
7. The primitively wingless insects are under Subclass

a. Apterygota b. Pterygota
c. Ametabola d. Holometabola
8. Wingless insects appeared during the Silurian Period. In what geological

period did winged insect species appear?
a. Lower Carboniferous b. Devonian
c .Cambrian d. Jurassic
9. He developed the binomial system of nomenclature

a. Fabricius b. Aristotle
c. Linnaeus d. Mueller
10. The acarologist who spearheaded research on mites in the Philippine

a. F.F. Sanchez b. L.C. Rimando
c. L.C. Raros d. C R. Baltazar
11. They are major insect pest of beans except

a. black bean aphid b. podborer
c. stink bug d. diamond back moth
12. They are all important pests of citrus except

a. rind borer b. locust twig borer
c. scale insect d. mealybug
13. The most important insect pest of eggplant

a. fruit and shoot borer b. mealybug
c. flea beetle d. aphid
14. The most damaging insect pest of cabbage and other crucifers is the
diamond back moth, scientifically known as
a. Myzus persicae b. Pieres rapae
c. Plutella xylostella d. Spodoptera litura
15. The most important quarantine insect pest of mango

a. fruit fly b. mango planthopper
c. mealybug d. twig borer
16. The vector of virus diseases in banana

a. Pentalonia nigronervosa b. Erionota trax
c. Cosmopolites sordidus d. Bactrocera dorsalis
17. The following are advantages of biological control except

a. safe b. self perpetuating
c. environment – friendly d. slow acting
18. The major organ for circulating the hemolymph of insects

a. dorsal vessel b. heart
c. ostia d. aorta
19. Ant lions, lace wings and aphid lions which are all predators belong to
Order
a. Coleoptera b. Neuroptera
c. Siphonaptera d. Strpesiptera
20. Tabanus sp. the vector or Surra disease of carabao is under Order
a. Hymenoptera b. Diptera
c. Coleoptera d. Lepidoptera
21. The following insect orders have species which are beneficial except one:
a. Neuroptera b. Strepsiptera
c. Dermaptera d. Anoplura
22. A part of the insect brain which controls the transmission of impulses to
and from the antennae
a deutocerebrum b. tritocerebrum
c. protocerebrum d. supraesophageal ganglion
23. Leafhoppers and aphids have this type of mouthpart

a. Chewing b. Chewing lapping
c. Piercing d. Piercing-sucking
24. Houseflies have this type of mouthparts

a. Piercing-sucking b. Chewing-lapping
c. Sponging d. Siphoning
25. This structure protects the insects from outside forces including
insecticides
a. exoskeleton b. antennae
b. basement membrane d. cuticle
26. These structures are the smallest branches of the tracheal system
a. trachea b. taenidia c. tracheoles d. air sacs
27. The body cavity of insects is

a. haemolymph b. haemocoel
c. hemoglobin d. plasma
28. Insect feces are in form of dry pellets because of a certain limiting factor.
This factor is:
a. moisture b. blood
c. air d. sugar
29. Unlike the minor pests, key pest oftentimes pest population tends to go
beyond threshold level which significantly affects yield. All are
considered major pests except.
a. Stemborer in rice b. Asian corn borer in corn
c. Diamond-back moth in cabbage d. Black Bug in rice
30. Helicoverpa armigera armigera a polyphagous lepidopteran pest is

commonly known as?
a. Tobacco budworm b. Cotton Bollworm
c. Corn Earworm d. all of the above
31. A kind of damage caused by the feeding of an insect through the

removal of plant sap or plant parts in contrast with the damage caused
by disease-transmitting insects.
a. indirect damage b. direct damage
c. damage indicator d. action threshold
32. The pest density at which artificial control measures should be applied
to prevent pest population increase or pest outbreak
a. economic injury level b. equilibrium level
c. economic threshold level d. satiation level
33. An insect which carries and transmits a disease causing organism to a

plant
a. predator b. parasite
c. vector d. symbionts
34. A biological control agent that consumes many preys in its lifetime
a. parasite b. vector
c. predator d. symbiont
35. A pest that occurs at infrequent intervals and causes economic damage
only at a certain time and place.
a. occasional pest b. key pest
c. chronic pest d. potential pest
36. A kind of pest that has no significant damage under prevailing

agroecosystem but might bring about damage with a change in crop
and cultural practices
c. potential pest d. chronic pest
37. The relative amount of heritable qualities in plants that influence the
ultimate degree of damage by the pest
a. host plant resistance b. insecticide resistance
c. tolerance d. antibiosis
38. A cultural practice against pest utilized to enhance the activities and
survival of natural enemies
a. trap crops b. biological control
c. habitat diversification d. cultivation
39. The use of a piece of GI sheet installed around a coconut tree is a _____
method used against rodents.
a. cultural control b. chemical control
c. physical control d. mechanical control
40. Early harvest using machine is a _______ type of control against pests
41. Water management can be categorized under all methods of control except:
a. cultural b. chemical control
42. This group of insecticides, in a way, could be considered a biological

control method
a. organophosphates b. botanicals
c. IGRs d. microbial insecticides
43. A modern approach to minimize damage by pests with the ultimate goal of
population management rather than eradication
a. Integrated Pesticide Management
b. Integrated Pest Management
c. Insect Pests Management
d. Pesticide Management
44. A serious pest species that occurs perennially and regularly limits crop
productivity
c. potential pest d. destructive pest
45. The use of Tetrastichus brontispae on brontispa-infested coconut trees is

what type of control strategy?
a. mechanical control b. cultural control
c. biological control d. autocidal control
46. The term given for crop destruction, injury or loss of value caused by the
feeding activity of different pests
a. characteristic damage b. pest infestation
c. threshold d. damage indicator
47. Insect pests of rice which are vectors of virus diseases except
a. brown plant hopper b. green leafhopper
c. rice stemborer d. zigzag leafhopper
48. All are major insect pests of rice except

a. black bugs b. leafhoppers
c. pod borer d. stemborers
49. They are important insect pests of corn except

a. armyworm b. cutworm
c. corn seedling maggot d. black bug
50. Popular hymenopterous parasitoid as biocon agent of corn borer eggs

a. Apanteles sp. b. Ichneumonid wasp
c. Scelio sp. d. Trichogramma evanescens
A farmer obtained the following data during the calibration of his 16 liters
knapsack sprayer:
Spray swath - 2 meters

Distance travelled - 50 meters
Volume - 2 liters per minute
51. The application rate per hectare is:
a. 100 liters/hectare b. 150 liters/hectare
c. 200 liters/hectare d. 250 liters/hectare
52. The number of sprayer loads per hectare is:
a. 12.5 b. 13.5
c. 14.5 d. 15.5
53. The number of hours to spray one hectare

a. 1.25 hours b. 1.66 hours
c. 2.08 hours d. 3.0 hours
54. The area in hectare covered by the farmer during his calibration is
a. 0.10 ha. b. 0.01 ha.
c. 0.02 ha. d. 0.20 ha.
During calibration, a farmer walked a distance of 42 meters in one

minute using a sprayer with spray swath of 2.5 meters.
55. What is the area in hectare covered by the farmer in one hour?
a. 0.63 hectare b. 0.73 hectare
c. 0.83 hectare d. 0.93 hectare
56. How long will it take for the farmer to spray two hectares?
a. 1.23 hours b. 1.58 hours
c. 3.17 hours d. 5.47 hours
Mr. dela Cruz calibrated his 16 liters knapsack sprayer and sprayed the 100 m 2
area in one minute with 1.5 liter volume of water.
57. What is the volume of spray solution per hectare?

a. 100 liters/hectare b. 150 liters/hectare
c. 200 liters/hectare d. 250 liters/hectare
58. What is the number of tank loads per hectare?

a. 9.3 b. 12.5
c. 15.6 d. 16.3
59. What is the time to spray one hectare

a. 100 minutes b. 150 minutes
c. 200 minutes d. 250 minutes
60. How long will it take to spray two hectares?

a. 1.33 hr. b. 1.66 hr.
c. 2.50 hr. d. 3.33 hr.
61. The scientific name of rice stem borer is

a. Scirpophaga innotata b. Helicoverpa armigera
c. Ostrinia furnacalis d. Thrips tabaci
62. A substance in a product which is responsible of killing the target

organisms
a. inert ingredient b. active ingredient
c. insecticide d. pesticide
63. A chemical substance which is produced by one organism which

influence the behavior of the other members of the same species
a. sex pheromones b. pheromones
c. hormones d. aggregate pheromones
64. The year when rice black bug outbreak was recorded in Zamboanga which
damaged 2, 070 ha or rice crop
a. 1979 b. 1982
c. 1992 d. 1996
65. An aphid species which transmits many mosaic viruses especially in
legumes
a. Aphis craccivora b. Myzus persicae
c. Aphis gossypii d. Toxoptera aurantii
66. The scientific name of citrus rind borer is

a. Idioscopus clypealis b. Monogatus puntiferalis
c. Prays endolemma d. Pentalonia nigronirvosa
67. The first pair of wings among the beetles characterized as

hard/sclerotized and used to protect the hindwings
a. Tegmina b. Elytra
c. Hemelyta d. Fringed
68. The segment of the insects’ antennae that nearly always contain a sensory
organ is known as the
a. Clavola b. Scape
c. Pedicel d. Flagellum
69. The ants, bees, wasps and sawflies belong to the order
a. Diptera b. Hymenoptera
c. Coleoptera d. Lepidoptera
70. The insect pest commonly known as corn earworm, tomato fruitworm,
tobacco budworm, cotton bollworm and sorghum headworm is
scientifically known as
a. Ostrinia furnacalis b. Leucinodes orbonalis
c. Helicoverpa armigera armigera d. Spodotera litura
71. Any insect which annoys, injures or damages man directly and indirectly is
called
a. Insect pest b. Entomophagous insect
c. Both A & B d. None of the above
72. Known as insect vectors of viruses causing tungro disease

a. Nephotettix virescens b. Nilaparvata lugens
c. Hydrellia philippina d. Leptocorisa oratorius
73.________is caused by penetration of insecticide through the skin. It is

probably the major route of occupational exposure to pesticides
a. dermal poisoning b. food poisoning
c. inhalation poisoning d. oral poisoning
74. Refers to the length of time required before entering a field after spraying
a. Entry Period b. Exit Period
c. Observation Period d. Re-entry Period
75. The length of time that must elapse before a crop can be harvested
following treatment with a pesticide
a. Post-harvest restriction b. Pre-Harvest restriction
c. Mid-harvest restriction d. Harvest restriction
76. Setaceous type of antennae is bristle-like in which the segments

becomes more slender distally. Which of the choices below possess a
setaceous type of antennae?
a. ants b. dragonfly
c. male mosquito d. click beetle
77. What type of antennae June beetle possessed?

a. Lamellate b. Aristate
c. Clavate d. Moniliform
78. A very destructive coleopteran pest of sweet potato which feeds on tubers
and vines and renders the tubers unmarketable and unfit for human and
animal consumption
a. Cylas formicarius b. Nilaparvata lugens
c. Cylas tuberosum d. Gryllotalpa Africana
79. In caterpillars, the pseudolegs are found on the

a. thorax b. abdomen
c. thorax and abdomen d. cephalothorax
80. Which of the following is used to enclose the stylets or needles in

piercing-sucking mouthparts?
a. labium b. hypopharynx c. maxilla d. labrum
81. The part of the antennae containing several segments

a. scape b. pedicel c.
flagellum d. Johnston segment
82. The compound eyes of insects are composed of smaller units called
a. ocelli b. ommatidia c.
tympanum d. eye patch
83. The type of antennae of termites and some beetles is

a. moniliform b. filiform
c. setaceous d. aristate
84. Butterflies and moths have this type of metamorphosis

a. holometabolous b. hemimetabolous
c. paurometabolous d. ametabolous
85. Bugs, cidadas, leafhoppers, aphids and scale insects have this type of
metamorphosis
a. holometabolous b. hemimetabolous
c. paurometabolous d. ametabolous
86. Insects breathe through

a. mouthparts b. antennae
c. spiracles d. air tubes
87. The following are parts of the alimentary canal except one
a. Malphigian tubules b. tympanum
c. stomodauem d. rectum
88. Insects that have one generation per year

a. polyvoltine b. bivoltine
c. univoltine d. multivoltine
89. In the chewing type of mouthparts, this structure cuts and grinds the
food
a. labrum b. labium
c. maxillae d. mandible
90. The system in insects which consists of hardened sclerotized plates joined
together by thin unsclerotized strips and provides rigidity with flexibility
a. Digestive system b. Excretory system
c. Integumentary system d. Muscular system
91. The predatory insect responsible in the suppression of the population of
the cottony cushion scale, Icerya purchasi this is the earliest recorded
biological control of an insect pest
a. Rodolia cardinalis b. Trichogramma evanescens
c. Menochilus sexmaculatus d. Trichogramma chilonis
92. Armyworms and cutworms prefer to pupate in the soil while cacao pod
borers pupate on
a. soil b. leaves c. branches d. twigs
93. Responsible for the reduced uptake of insecticide solution by the insect
integument
a. wax b. chitin c.
sclerotin d. tannin
94. Head louse have this type of modified legs

a. crawling b. clinging
c. grasping d. digging
95. Mole crickets with their legs modified for digging are
a. root feeders b. leaf feeders
c. fruit borers d. plant suckers
96. The coconut leaf beetle or Brontispa lonsgissima feeds by

a. sucking the sap b. chewing the leaf epidermis
c. boring holes d. creating galls
97. The coconut mealybug or Nipaecoccos nipae feeds by

a. sucking the sap b. chewing the leaf epidermis
c. boring holes d. creating galls
98. A mechanism of host plant resistance wherein if the insect feeds on a

resistant plant, there will be malformation of the immature stages of the
insect, and eventually may cause death
a. antibiosis b. antixenosis
c. non preference d. parthenogenesis
99. Which of the following insects is a serious pest of anthrurium?

a. stink bugs b. mole crickets
c. thrips d. grasshoppers
100. The physical pest control method required to eliminate fruit flies on
mango and papaya for export to Japan
a. Hot Water Treament b. Vapor Heat Treatment
c. Refrigeration d. UV Radiation
101. A new generation insecticide which alters the growth of insects

a. Insect Growth Regulator (IGR) b. Carbamates
c. Pyrethrin d. Green Labeled Insecticides
102. Which of these insect orders was derived from a Latin word which means
“lasting a day” or short-lived wings”?
a. Odonata b. Ephemeroptera
c. Thysanoptera d. Homoptera
103. Based on color code the category 1 of pesticides means.
a. extremely toxic b. highly toxic
c. moderately toxic d. relatively harmless
104. When pest population reach the injury level, pesticide application is
vital to have an immediate result. Pesticide comes with different
formulation. It could be in a solid formulation, liquid or gas
formulation. From the choices below which is not a non-solid
formulation?
a. Granules b. Pellets
c. Dry flowables d. all of the above
105. Parasitic wasp parasitizing the pupal stage of Brontispa longissima

an invasive pest of coconut.
a. Cotesia b. Tetrasticus
c. Evania d. Brachymerius
106. The factitious host used in rearing predatory beetles on squash

a. Aspidiotus destructor b. Lepidosaphes ulmi
c. Ceroplastes rubens d. Icerya purchase
107. Which of the following is a phytophagous species of mites which infests

many crops especially during long periods of drought?
a. Telenomus triptus b. Tetranychus kanzawai
c. Trichomma sp d. Phytoseilus similis
108. Which of the following is a predatory mite species?

a. Telenomus triptus b. Tetranychus kanzawai
c. Trichomma sp d. Phytoseilus similis
109. The pollinator weevil of oil palm is:

a. Elaeidobius kamerunicus b. Elaeis gueneinsis
c. Elaeidobius gueneinsis d. Rhynchophorus ferrugenius
110. A commonly used insect specimen in genetic studies, Drosophila

melanogaster is under order
a. Coleooptera b. Diptera
c. Isoptera d. Hymenoptera
111. A repository of systematic collections and information is a:

a. gene bank b. germplasm collection
c. research center d. museum
112. Insects are believed to have arisen from an ancestor that had paired
leglike appendages on each body segment. Which of these is the possible
ancestor of insects?
a. Myriapod Ancestor b. Pauropod Ancestor
c. Diplopod Ancestor d. Arthropod Ancestor
113. The ladybug, a general predator of soft-bodied insects is not actually a

bug but a beetle and belongs to order
a. Hemiptera b. Isoptera
c. Homoptera d. Coleoptera
114. The basic unit of classification

a. sibling species b. subspecies
c. species d. biotype
115. Of the insect leg structures, which is the most relevant in

identification?
a. length of femur b. size of tibia
c. number of tarsal segments d. number of tarsal claws
116. A cavity in the mesenteron in which enzyme production, absorption
takes place
a. ventriculus b. proventriculus
c. pyloric valve d. haemocoel
117. An insect pest was found in banana shipped to China. This insect
according to literature does not infest banana but infests coconut.
This is a scale insect under Order Homoptera: Family Diaspididae.
This has a piercing- sucking mouthpart and undergoes incomplete
metamorphosis. It has a common name of “compere scale” and belongs
to a group of scale insects generally termed as “armored scale insects”.
This insect is scientifically known as
a. Aspidiotus destructor b. Ferrisia virgata
c. Aonidiella compere d. Cerataphis palmae
118. A compound which has insecticidal effect derived from chrysanthemum is

a. rotenone b. nicotine
c. pyrethrum d. azadirachtin
119. A compound which has insecticidal effect derived from neem tree is
120. A compound which has insecticidal effect derived from from Derris elliptica
121. A biological control organism that usually lives inside the body of its
hosts and consumes only one host to complete its life cycle
a. parasite b. predator
c. prey d. pathogen
122. The symptom of stemborer damage during the reproductive stage of

the rice plant characterized by the pale appearance of the unfilled
grains
a. deadheart b. whitehead
c. wilting d. mosaic
123. The symptom of yellowing and wilting of the youngest leaf as a result
of feeding by the stemborer larvae during the vegetative stage of the rice
plant
a. deadheart b. whitehead
c. wilting d. rotting
124. The growth stages of the rice plant that are most preferred by the rice
bug
a. vegetative stage b. soft dough stage
c. milk stage d. both b and c
125. A serious pest of corn that attacks all parts of the plant except the roots
a. cutworm b. cornstalk borer
c. corn semi looper d. corn borer
126. A Homopteran insect pest that transmits the tungro virus disease
a. Brown planthopper b. whitebacked planthopper
c. green leafhopper d. zigzag leafhopper
127. Spodoptera litura is a pest of

a. onion b. corn
c. both a and b d. neither a nor b
128. Bractrocera dorsalis is a pest of
a. eggplant b. watermelon
c. mango d. tomato
129. IPM employs the variety of tactics, and the least type of method that
could be used is
c. HPR d. autocidal
130. The regulatory method of insect control is closely related to:

a. cultural control b. quarantine control
c. biological control d. physical control
131. Eradication, quarantine, using certified planting materials checking

suspected materials before planting and cleaning equipment, are
examples of what type of management?
a. prevention b. protection
c. eradication d. all of the above
132. Legal actions intended to exclude potential pests and prevent

spread of those already present
a. eradication b. containment
c. suppression d. quarantine
133. The discovery of DDT on this year is considered as one of the major
events in the history of crop protection
a. 1959 b. 1937 c. 1935 d. 1939
134. The insecticide is said to be extremely toxic if the color of the

container label is:
a. blue b. red c. green d. yellow
135. The type of insecticide highly compatible for IPM

a. non selective insecticide b. fumigants
c. selective insecticide d. persistent insecticide
136. Systemic insecticides are sprayed on crops and are translocated to

different plant parts. When insects feed on these plant parts they get
killed. Which of these is an example of a systemic insecticide?
a. Dipel b. Pennant 50 EC
c. Furadan 3G d. Vegetox 50 SP
137. All are damages produced by chewing insects except

a. entire leaf missing b. leaf mines
c. portion of leaf missing d. leaf curling
138. All are damages produced by sucking insects except

a. galling b. puckering
c. stippling d. skeletonized leaf
139. The point of entry of fumigant insecticide

a. integument b. mouth
c. spiracles d. tympanum
140. An example of organophosphorus insecticide

a. Defender b. Applaud
c. Malathion d. Karate
141. The following are characteristics of a parasitoid except

a. kills hosts gradually
b. lives inside or outside the host
c. bigger than its host
d. requires one host to complete development
142. The following are examples of cultural control methods except

a. crop rotation b. crop complementation
c. fumigation d. sanitation
143. A mechanism of insect resistance that is described as refractory to guests

a. antibiosis b. antixenosis c. diagnosis d. tolerance
144. The following are examples of synthetic pyrethroids insecticides except

a. Karate b. Decis c. Cypermethrin d. Actara
145. The following are disadvantages of chemical control except :

a. development of resistant pests species
b.hazards of pesticide residues
c.rapid curative action in preventing economic damage
d. resurgence or outbreak of secondary pest
146. Contact, stomach and fumigant poisons are classification of insecticides

based on
a. mode of action b. mode of entry
c. origin of the active ingredient d. selectivity
147. An example of an egg parasitoid

a. Corcyra cephalonica b. Tetrastichus brontispae
c. Menochilus sexmaculatus d. Trichogramma chilonis
148. Defined as the inherent ability of the crop to avoid or withstand pest
infestation without consequent loss in yield
a. avoidance b. inheritance
c. resistance d. tolerance
149. The insecticide that kills a wide array of insect pests species
a. broad spectrum b. narrow spectrum
c. specific d. aerobic
150. A type of resistance that is governed by environmental factors

a. ecological resistance b. genetic resistance
c. vertical resistance d. horizontal resistance
151. The usual target site of the organophosphate insecticides

a. digestive system b. nervous system
c. reproductive system d. respiratory system
152. A control method which aims at modifying the crop environment to

the effect that it becomes less favorable for the development of pest
population
a. biological control b. cultural control
c. physical control d. chemical control
153. A control method which involves the manipulation of parasites,

predators and pathogens to manage the density of insect population
a. cultural control b. biological control
c. mechanical control d. physical control
154. It is used for insect control by substituting a crop on which insect cannot
feed or develop
a. crop rotation b. crop diversification
c. crop fertilization d. trap cropping
155. This group of insecticide is highly toxic to insects at very low rate
a. carbamates b. organophosphates
c. pyrethroids d. chlorinated hydrocarbons
156. This group of insecticide has the advantage of being rapidly detoxified
and the inhibition of cholinesterase is reversible
a. carbamates b. pyrethroids
c. organophosphorus d. chlorinated hyrocarbons
157. This type of cultural control reduces the favorability of the ecosystem for
insect pest development by disrupting availability of food and habitat
a. crop rotation b. sanitation c. fallowing d. strip harvesting
158. The Sterile Insect Release Method (SIRM) used in managing mango
fruitfly is an example of
c. genetic control d. chemical control
159. The forelegs (sometimes called raptorial legs) of the preying mantis
adapted for grasping purposes is equipped with
a. enlarged femur b. opposing spurs and spines
c. hook-like structure d. flattened swimming legs
160. The stages of insects that undergo a holometabolous type of

metamorphosis include the
a. egg, larva, pupa, adult b.egg, nymph, adult
c. egg, naiad, adult d. egg, young, adult
161. Insects are important to man and agriculture because they:

a. serve as vectors of the plant pathogens causing plant diseases
b. are sources of important products such as honey
c. serve as biological control agents
d. all of the above
162. A specialized field of entomology dealing with species that are important in
beneficial or injurious manner
a. Economic Entomology b. Insect morphology
c. Insect ecology d. Insect physiology
163. Insects can be distinguished from other arthropods by their:

a. One or two pairs of wings, if any
b. Three distinct body regions
c.Three pairs of legs
d. All of the above
164. Refers to the monetary value lost to the commodity such as reduction in
yield due to an insect pest
a.Injury b Damage
c. Both A & B d. None of the above
165. The three main body regions of an insect include the

a. Head, thorax and abdomen
b. Head, thorax and epiproct
c. Head, thortax and cerci
d. Head, cephalothorax and abdomen
166. Serve as excretory organs in insects

a. Malpighian tubules b. Rectum
c. Rectal pads d. Colon
167. The thrips possess this particular type of mouthparts
a. Rasping-sucking b. Piercing-sucking
c. Chewing-lapping d. Sponging
168. All are parts of the insect leg except:

a. clavola b. femur
c. tibia d. trochanter
169. All are wing coupling devices except one:

a. arolium b. frenulum
c. hamuli d. jugum
170. Type of insect wings in which 2/3 or ¼ of the forewings is parchment-

like while the remaining distal part is membranous
a. elytron b. hemelytron
c. humeral d. tegmen
171. All are longitudinal veins of an insect wing except one:

a. Costa b. Media c. Radius d. Tarsus
172. All have complete metamorphosis except one:

a. cornborer b. diamond back moth
c. cacao podborer d. corn aphids
173. All have incomplete metamorphosis except one:

a. mealybugs b. scale insects
c. grasshoppers d. June beetle
174. These are aquatic nymphs of insects with incomplete metamorphosis

a. naiads b. grubs c. larvae d. pupae
175. Larvae of beetle particularly the species under Family Scarabaeidae are
called:
a. maggots b. grubs
c. wrigglers d. caterpillars
176. A butterfly pupa that lacks a protective cover is called:

a. cocoon b. chrysalis
c. cremaster d. puparium
177. A lobe-like eversible gland located at the dorsum of the thorax of

papilionid or swallowtail butterflie used as defense mechanism against
predators is
a. ommatidia b. osmeteria
c. puparia d. ocelli
178. Egg capsule of cockroaches are called:

a. ootheca b. eggmas
c. ova d. ovariole
179. The change in form in insects during the post-embryonic development

a. ecdysis b. metamorphosis
c. oviposition d. sclerotization
180. The following stages of insects are able to feed except one:
a. larva b. naiad
c. nymph d. pupa
181. The rules that govern the naming of animals is embodied in the:
a. International Code of Scientific Names
b. International Code of Zoology
c. International Code of Zoological Nomenclature
d. International Code of Sytematics
182. The green leafhopper, the vector of a serious virus disease of rice – the
tungro virus disease is under Order:
a. Lepidoptera b. Hemiptera
c. Homoptera d. Hymenoptera
183. Which of these morphological characters is important in

identification?
a. compound eyes b. genitalia
c. abdominal sclerites d. tarsal claw
184. Which of these insects belong to Order Diptera?

a. mosquito b. butterfly
c. damselfly d. firefly
185. Which of these insects serve as bioindicator of the soundness of a certain

ecosystem?
a. dragonfly b. firefly
c. mayflies d. sawfly
186. The character which differentiates Order Hemiptera from Homoptera

a. location of mouthparts and structure of wings
b. length of mouthparts and thickness of wings
c. orientation of mouthparts and size of wings
d. orientation of mouthparts and wing venation
187. A certain insect species may have several forms: some are winged, others
are wingless, a male species may be shiny while the female is rough.
This phenomenon in Class Insecta is:
a. metamorphosis b. parthenogenesis
c. polymorphism d. voltinism
188. The slender hairlike structure of the cuticle formed by a plasmatic

outgrowth from a single epidermal cell
a. scale b. seta
c. spur d. trichogen
189. Appendages not found in the thorax

a . Legs b. wings
c. legs and wings d. cerci
190 . All of the following are mouthparts of an insect except

a. labrum b. mandible
c. maxilla d. tibia
191. Which of these are density-independent mortality factors?

a. parasites b. predators
c. food supply d. drought
192. This insect is one of the factors for worldwide failure in cocoa
production
a. Cacao Helopeltis Bug b. Cacao Pod Borer
c. Cacao Mealybug d. Thrips
193. The endocrine gland of insects that secrete juvenile hormones and
store and release some brain hormones
a.Corpus cardiacum b. Corpus allatum
c. Deutocerebrum d. Protocerebrum
194. These are insects which are residents in the shelters or nests of other
insects
a.symbionts b. inquilines
c. synergists d. mutualists
195.The use of Bacillus thuringiensis (Bt) spores sprayed on lepidopterous

larvae is an example of
c. physical control d. genetic control
196. Chemicals applied to prevent damage by rendering the commodity

unattractive or offensive
a. attractants b. repellents
c. fumigants d. growth regulators
197. A kind of insecticide which kills the insects when ingested

a. stomach poison b. contact poision
c. fumigants d. systemic poison
198. The most common and most useful insecticide formulation is

a. wettable powder b. emulsifiable concentrate
c. granular d. dust
199. The drying of rice plants due to sap removal caused by the feeding of plant
hoppers
a. bugburn b. hopperburn
c. deadheart d. whiteheads
200. The ability of population of pests to survive doses of pesticides which

are normally lethal.
a. biotypes b. resistance to pesticides
c. host plant resistance d. resurgence
201. There is a significantly more damage or more insects in an insecticide –

treated crop after insecticide application than in an untreated crop
a. resistance to pesticide b. host plant resistance
c. resurgence d. biotypes
202. It is where all the legal information attached to the pesticide container
which should include the name of pesticide, manufacturers name, net
content, ingredient statement, and warning statement, directions for use
and antidotes for accidental poisoning
a. trade name b. brand name
c. label d. chemical name
203. It is the measure of how poisonous a pesticide is to an animal or man

after small repeated doses over a period of time
a. toxicity b. acute toxicity
c. chronic toxicity d. phytotoxicity
204. It is the measure of how poisonous a pesticide is to an animal or man

after a single exposure
a. acute toxicity b. oral toxicity
c. dermal toxicity d. chronic toxicity
205. It is the measure of how poisonous a pesticide is to living organisms

a. toxicity b. acute toxicity
c. chronic toxicity d. phytotoxicity
206. It is the form in which a pesticide is sold for use
a. liquid formulation b. solid formulation
c. emulsifiable concentrate d. formulation
207. All of the following are types of antennae except one:

a. aristate b. hamuli
c. moniliform d. plumose
208. A type of insecticide which is translocated in the plant system and insects
that feed on plant parts are poisoned
a. Systemic insecticides c. Contact insecticides
b. Fumigants d. Stomach poisons
209. Entomopathogenic fungi must enter through the ________ of insects

to be effective biological control agents:
a. mouth b. cuticle
c. anus d. spiracles
210. Entomopathogenic bacteria and viruses enters through the ________

of insects in order to be effective biological control agents:
a. mouth b. cuticle
c. anus d. spiracles
211. All are modifications of clubbed antennae except

a. clavate b. capitate
c. flabellate d. geniculate
212. All of the following are external processes of the body wall except one:
a. quinones b. scales
c. setae d. spurs
213. All are types of wings except one:

a. elytra b. tegmina
c. hemelytra d. hamuli
214. All are wing accessories except one:

a. hamuli b. halteres
c. frenulum d. furcula
215. All are found on the apex of the abdomen except one:
a. cornicles b. cerci
c. jugum d. ovipositor
216. Type of insect mouthpart wherein the cranium is turned upward on the
neck so that the mouthparts are directed forward
a. hypognathous b. prognathous
c. opisthognathous d. hypergnathous
217. Type of insect mouthparts which have mandibles and can chew food
materials
a. haustellate b. mandibulate
c. siphoning tube d. sucking type
218. All have haustellate mouthparts except one:

a. green leaf hoppers b. mealybugs
c. weevils d. aphids
219. All have chewing type of mouthparts except one:

a. beetles b. bugs
c. crickets d. weevils
220. Among all insect orders, which order has the largest population?
a. Diptera b. Hymenoptera
c. Coleoptera d. Hemiptera
221. Juan dela Cruz wishes to apply Cypermethrin 5 EC (5% active

ingredient) in his one hectare farm at the rate of 0.0125 kg a.i./ha, how
many liters of the chemical formulation are required to treat the given
area?
a. 0.25 L b. 0.50 L
c. 0.75 L d. 1.0 L
222. If Decis 2.5 EC will be applied at the rate of 0.50 L/ha (formulated
product) what will be the amount of chemical to be placed per tank
load using 16 liters knapsack sprayer at 10 tank loads per hectare?
a. 25 ml b. 50 ml
c. 31 ml d. 16 ml
223. Furadan 3G will be applied at the rate of 0.5 kg a.i./ha. How many
kg of the product is needed for 2 hectares of corn to control corn borer
infestation?
a. 16.66 kg b. 30.33 kg
c. 33.33 kg d. 66.64 kg
224. A 3.33 WP insecticide is required for the control of eggplant fruit borer
in a 2 hectare field. The recommended rate is 0.50 kg a.i./ha. What is the
active ingredient of the insecticide?
a. 20% b. 30%
c. 40% d. 50%
225. If insecticide X contains the active ingredient of Imidacloprid at 300g/li

of the formulated product, what percentage of the product is its active
ingredient?
a. 0.3 b. 3
c. 30 d. 300
226. During severe corn borer infestation, Furadan 3G should be applied

at 33.3 kg/ha. How much of the product will be applied per plant at
density of 60, 000 plants per hectare?
a. 0.56g b. 0.66g
c. 0.76g d. 0.86g
227. How much of Confidor SL 100 is needed to prepare 3, 000 liters if the
dilution rate is 50 ml/100 liters of water?
a. 150 ml b. 1,500 ml
c. 3,000 ml d. 4,000 ml
228. Sevin 50 WP will be applied at the rate of 1.0 kg a.i/ha, how many
kilograms is needed per hectare?
a. 1.0 kg b. 2.0 kg
c. 5.0 kg d. 7.0 kg
229. Insecticide Y has 2.5% active ingredient. Express the concentration

in parts per million
a. 250 b. 2500
c. 25000 d. 250000
230. Given the application rate of 200 g sevin 50 WP per 100 liter water,
what is the recommended rate of application in tablespoon per 16
liters of water? (1tbsp = 10grams)
a. 2.0 tbsp b. 3.2 tbsp
c. 6.25 tbsp d. 12.5 tbsp
ANSWER KEY
(ENTOMOLOGY)
1. A 51. C 101. A 151. B 201. C

2. A 52. A 102. B 152. B 202. C
3. C 53. B 103. A 153. B 203. C
4. A 54. B 104. D 154. A 204. A
5. C 55. A 105. B 155. D 205. A
6. B 56. C 106. A 156. A 206. D
7. A 57. B 107. B 157. C 207. B
8. B 58. A 108. D 158. C 208. A
9. C 59. A 109. A 159. B 209. B
10. B 60. D 110. B 160. A 210. A
11. D 61. A 111. D 161. D 211. D
12. B 62. B 112. A 162. A 212. A
13. A 63. B 113. D 163. D 213. D
14. C 64. C 114. C 164. B 214. D
15. A 65. A 115. C 165. A 215. C
16. A 66. C 116. A 166. A 216. B
17. D 67. B 117. C 167. A 217. B
18. A 68. C 118. C 168. A 218. C
19. B 69. B 119. D 169. A 219. B
20. B 70. C 120. A 170. B 220. C
21. D 71. A 121. A 171. D 221. A
22. A 72. A 122. B 172. D 222. B
23. D 73. A 123. A 173. D 223. C
24. C 74. D 124. C 174. A 224. B
25. A 75. B 125. A 175. B 225. C
26. C 76. B 126. C 176. B 226. A
27. B 77. A 127. C 177. B 227. B
28. A 78. A 128. C 178. A 228. B
29. D 79. B 129. B 179. B 229. C
30. D 80. A 130. B 180. D 230. B
31. B 81. C 131. D 181. C
32. C 82. B 132. B 182. C
33. C 83. A 133. D 183. B
34. C 84. A 134. B 184. A
35. A 85. C 135. C 185. B
36. C 86. C 136. C 186. A
37. A 87. B 137. D 187. C
38. C 88. C 138. D 188. B
39. D 89. D 139. C 189. D
40. A 90. C 140. C 190. D
41. B 91. A 141. C 191. D
42. D 92. B 142. C 192. B
43. B 93. A 143. B 193. B
44. B 94. B 144. D 194. B
45. C 95. A 145. C 195. B
46. A 96. B 146. A 196. B
47. C 97. A 147. D 197. A
48. C 98. A 148. D 198. B
49. D 99. C 149. A 199. B
50. D 100. B 150. A 200. B
CROP PROTECTION
(Plant Pathology)
1. Serves as the foundation of science of Plant Pathology

a. Robigalia b. Germ Theory of Disease
c. Kochs postulate d. all of the above
2. He invented the compound microscope in 1590.

a. Leeuwenhoek b. Theophrastus
c. Jansen brothers d. Hooke
3. He wrote the first textbook in plant pathology “ The Diseases of

Cultivated Plants, Their Causes and Their Prevention”
a. De Bary c. Pasteur
b. Kuhn d. Theophrastus
4. He proved that the nucleic acid of virus particle is the infective

component
a. Beijerinck b. Davide
c. Pasteur d. Gierer and Schramm
5. The discovery of bordeaux mixture by_________________ started work

on chemical control of plant disease
a. Kuhn b. Pasteur
c. Beijerinck d.Millardett
6. Father of plant virology

a. Kuhn b. Pasteur
c. Millardett d. Beijerinck
7. He demonstrated that fungi are the causes and not the results of plant
diseases
a. Kuhn b. Millardett
c. Pasteur d. De Bary
8. Nematode was first observed by ___________________ as plant pathogen

inside wheat kernels in 1743
a. Davide b. Lafont
c. Pasteur d. Needham
9. The first to see the virus particle under an electron microscope in

1939
a. Beijerinck b. Lafont
c. Kausche d. Bawden
10. He confirmed that hart rot disease of coconut is caused by flagellate

protozoa
a. Bawden b. Vermeulen
c. Davis d. Smith
11. He published the book “ The Plant Disease Epidemic”

a. Davis b. Smith
c. Teng d. Vanderplank
12. The first dean of UP College of Agriculture

a. Baker b. Robinson
c. Copeland d. Ocfemia
13. Dean of Filipino Plant Pathologists who studied abaca bunchy top
a. Robinson b. Reinking
c. Ocfemia d. Davide
14. The Philippine Phytopathological Society, an association of plant
pathologist was established in
a. 1953 b. 1973 c. 1983 d. 1963
15. Spiroplasma which caused the stunt disease of corn was observed by
Davis and co-worker in
a. 1975 b. 1976 c. 1970 d. 1972
16. According to _______________, disease is a physiological

malfunctioning caused by animate agents
a. Stakman b. Harrar c. Whetzel d. Dimond
17. Tolerance is exhibited by a plant which is severely affected by a

pathogen without expressing a severe reduction in
a. height b. growth c. yield d. all of the above
18. Disease development requires the presence of
a. susceptible plants b. virulent pathogen
c. favorable environment d. all of the above
19. Different pathogens may cause the formation of identical symptoms

a. true b. false c. maybe d. uncertain
20. Most parasites are pathogens

21. All are examples of hypoplastic symptoms except

a. mosaic b. stunting c. mottle d. gall
22. All are examples of hyperplastic symptoms except

a. scab b. greening c. galling d. rosetting
23. Symptoms are generally classified into

a. necrotic b. hyperplastic
c. hypoplastic d. all of the above
24. The flow of sap from wounds is called

a. bleeding b. gummosis c. leak d. all of the above
25. Yellowing of normally green tissues caused by inadequate light is

a. etiolation b. chlorosis c. spot d. blight
26. Drying backward from the twigs or branches is called

a. damping-off b. die-back
c. wilting d. all of the above
27. An infected fruit converted to a hard, dry, shriveled mummy is called

a. curling b. pitting
c. mummification d. all of the above
28. Most signs are best seen and distinguished under a microscope
29. All are examples of signs except

a. spores b. bacterial ooze c. mycelia d. callus
30. Correct plant disease diagnosis is necessary for recommending

appropriate control measures and in plant disease survey
31. Diagnosis based on symptom alone is not a very reliable means of

identifying a particular malady
32. Classification according to the type of pathogen that causes the

disease is preferred by many workers because of the etiological
basis
33. Which of these is an obligate parasite?

a. virus b. bacteria c. fungi d. all of the above
34. Which of these causes Injury?

a. virus b. nematode
c. lightning d. temperature
35. Which of these are diseases of field crops?

a. downy mildew of corn b. rice blast
c. sugarcane smut d. all of the above
36. The non-parasitic agents of disease cause non-infectious or physiological

disorder which are recognized by their symptoms
37. Chilling injury occurs below temperatures that are slightly above freezing
38. The black heart disease of potato occurs when oxygen is insufficient
39. Scorching and sun scalding are two diseases caused by too much light
along with high temperature
a. true b. false c. maybe d.uncertain
40. Which of these are pollutant particulates?

a. dust b. ash c. soot d. all of the above
41. A concentration of 0.035 ppm for four hours may cause ozone injury
in sensitive plants
42. Foliocellosis of citrus is a disease due to deficiency in

a. zinc b. magnesium c. phosphorus d. sulfur
43. Pineapple yellow disease occurs when the plant is deficient in

a. nitrogen b. potassium c. phosphorus d. iron
44. When cereal leaves take reddish purplish tints, the plant is deficient in
a. nitrogen b. phosphorus c. potassium d. magnesium
45. Club root of crucifer is very severe at pH 6-7 and virtually controlled at
pH 7-8
46. Potato scab is severe from pH 5.2 to 8.0 but is controlled below pH
5.2
47. Juglone is a compound which is formed by black walnut and is toxic to

plants such as
a. potato b. tomato c. apple d. all of the above
48. Pesticide injuries to plants result from

a. application of excessively high concentration of chemical
b. vapor drift to sensitive plants
c. incorrect methods of pesticide application
d. all of the above
49. Irregular water supply in tomato can cause

a. blackheart b. blossom end rot
c. soft rot d. dry rot
50. Potassium deficiency in cotton is exhibited by

a. cotton anthracnose b. cotton wilt
c. cotton rust d. cotton leaf blight
51. Nitrogen deficiency is exhibited by

a. chlorosis b. dwarfing
c. premature defoliation d. all of the above
52. Pleomorphic microorganism without cell wall

a. fungi b. mycoplasma
c. virus d. viroid
53. Mycelial-spore forming organism

a. mycoplasm b. rickettsia
c. fungi d. all of the above
54. Flagellate primitive animals causing plant diseases

a. pseudofungi b. protozoa
c. fungi d. all of the above
55. Cause of root knot

a. nematode b. bacteria
c. fungi d. viroid
56. Virus is made up of a protein coat and nucleic acid core

a. true b. false c. may be d. uncertain
57. Bacteria are unicellular and reproduce by binary fission

58. Viroids is a pathogenic naked RNA entities

59. Obtain only water and minerals from the host

a. hemiparasitic b. endoparasitic
c. parasitic d. all of the above
60. Nematodes feeding only on root hairs and root tips

a. ectoparasites b. semi-ectoparasites
c. endoparasites d. all of the above
61. Galling of tomato is caused by

a. virus b. bacteria c. nematode d. fungi
62. Plants infected with _____________ have masked symptoms

a. fungi b. virus c. viroid d. mycoplasma
63. Cause downy mildew of many crops

a. Virus b. fungi c. bacteria d. viroid
64. Canker lesion in citrus leaves and fruits is caused by
a. fungi b. bacteria c. virus d. nematodes
65. Spindle tuber in potato is caused by

a. virus b.viroid c. fungi d. bacteria
66. Serological test is used to determine whether two or more viruses are
related
67. Viruses are usually spread in the field by

a. nematode b. fungi c. insects d. birds
68. The majority of plant diseases are caused by

a. bacteria b. fungi c. virus d. nematode
69. It is generally used to isolate nematodes

a. streak plate b. tissue planting
c. baerman funnel d. all of the above
70. The smallest plant pathogen that is

a. mycoplasma b. rickettsia
c. protozoa d. viroid
71. Vascular streak die-back of _________________ is caused by

Oncobasidium theobromae
a. guava b. rubber c. cacao d. citrus
72. Tarspot caused by Phyllachora sorghi is a disease of

a. sorghum b. sugarcane c. corn d. rice
73. Fruit bronzing caused by Pantoea stewartii is a new disease of

a. citrus b. banana c. papaya d. jackfruit
74. Twig blight caused by Haematonectria haematoccoca is a new disease

of
a. rubber b. cacao c. citrus d. durian
75. “Bunga ng tubo” is a disease of sugarcane caused by

a. fungi b. bacteria
c. nematode d.parasitic flowering plants
76. The new epidemic on Panama wilt of banana and abaca caused by
Fusarium oxysporum is under tropical race
a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d.4
77. The new blight disease of rubber with fishbone symptoms is caused
by
a. Corynespora heveae b. Cercospora musae
c. Cercospora manihotis d. Corynespora cassicola
78. Orange gall caused by Synchytrium psophocarpi is a fungal disease

of
a. mungbean b. soybean c. peanut d.winged bean
79. If rice tungro is infected with RTBV and RTSV the symptom is
a. light b. moderate c. trace d. severe
80. Cherelle wilt caused by Colletotrichum gloeosporioides is a fungal disease

of
a. jackfruit b. papaya c. citrus d. cacao
81. It determines the germination and spread of the inoculum

a. wind b. moisture c. soil type & pH d. nutrition
82. Fungal sub-species that has no apparent morphological difference from

other similar sub-species but differs in host range is called
a. forma specials b. Pathovar c. biovar d. cultivar
83. Pathogenicity refers to the ability of the pathogen to cause

a. disease b. resistance c. susceptibility d. tolerance
84. Signs of plant disease refer to the structures of the pathogens that are
found associated with the
a. disease b. organism
c. saprophyte d. alternate host
85. The time over which the pathogen fruiting body or lesion continues
to produce new inoculum
a. incubation period b. infectious period
c. dormant period d. latent period
86. Plant disease is the malfunctioning of host cells and tissues that result
from continuous irritation by a pathogenic agent or environmental factor
leading to the development of
a. symptoms b. signs
c. abnormal physiology of plants d. all of the above
87. Inoculum refers to a pathogen or part of the pathogen that can initiate
a. infection b. dissemination
c. inoculation d. colonization
88. The physical factors that affect the growth, sporulation and development
of all living organisms
a. temperature and moisture b. moisture and wind
c. moisture and light d. temperature and wind
89. This is responsible for widespread distribution of inoculum:

a. wind b. moisture c. soil type d. nutrition
90. Alternate hosts are plants on which some pathogens must develop to
complete its
a. life cycle b. infection cycle c. disease cycle d. secondary cycle
91. Facultative parasite is an organism that can be parasite under

appropriate conditions but it is primarily a saprophyte
a. true b. false c. A and B d. maybe
92. Symbiosis is the living together of different

a. pathogens b. organisms c. disease d. parasites
93. Infection occurs when the pathogen becomes associated with the cells
and tissues of the
a. host b. resistant host c. immune host d. susceptible host
94. The time between initial penetration of the host and appearance of
symptoms
a. incubation period b. infectious period
c. dormant period d. latent period
95. In case a disease is not known to you previously, it is necessary to

resort to
a. Koch’s postulate b. Laboratory diagnosis
c. Field diagnosis d. All of the above
96. An obligate parasite can grow only in association with a

a. non-living host b. resistant host
c. susceptible host d. living host
97. Its quality, intensity and duration affect the growth of both host and the
pathogen
a. wind b. moisture c. light d. nutrition
98. External and internal reactions or alterations of a plant as a result

of a disease
a. symptom b. sign c. invasion d. colonization
99. Disease identification in plants is called plant disease diagnosis

100. Knowing the distribution of the disease in the field is part of the
laboratory diagnosis
101. The time between initial penetration of the host and the production of
new inocula
a. Incubation period b. Infectious period
c. Dormant period d. Latent period
102. Tolerance refers to the ability of some plants to endure severe disease
symptoms without severe losses in yield or quality.
a. False b. True c. A and B d. Maybe
103. Catechol and protocatechuic acid are an examples of

a. glycosides b. alkaloids
c. phenolic compounds d. toxin
104. Example of viroid-caused disease.

a. Potato spindle tuber b. Bunchy top of abaca
c. Rice grassy stunt d. Rice tungro
105. Known as needle nematode

a. Criconema b. Trichodorus
c. Helicotylenchus d. Longidorous
106. Burrowing nematode of banana

a. Radopholus b. Tylenchus
c. Ditylenchus d. Xiphinema
107. The science which deals with the nature, causes and control of plant
disease.
a. Entomology b. Plant Pathology
c. Agronomy d. Horticulture
108. A specific chemical intended for molds

a. Herbicide b. Fungicide
c. Insecticide d. Acaricide
109. Which is not considered among the five major genera of

phytopathogenic bacteria?
a. Bacterium b. Xanthomonas
c. Pseudomonas d. Erwinia
110. A combination of copper sulfate and lime which was the foundation of
chemical fungicides
a. Saline solution b. Bordeaux mixture
c. Benomyl d. Copper fungicide
111. Correct disease diagnosis is a prerequisite to

a. Classification of plant disease
b. Formulation of control measures
c. Disease incidence
d. Disease development
112. One of the first plant diseases studied in the Philippines

a. Coconut bud rot b. Downy mildew of corn
c. Bunchy top of banana d. Rice tungro
113. All of the following are diseases caused by a virus except
a. Tobacco mosaic b. Citrus exocortis
c. Abaca bunchy top d. Cadang-cadang of coconut
114. A nutrient needed by bacteria in small amount

a. carbon b. manganese c. nitrogen d. phosphorus
115. Downy mildew of corn was completely controlled in 1978 by

a. chemical seed treatment
b. manipulation of planting materials
c. burning
d. roguing
116. A type of symptom involving the death of protoplasts, cells or tissues

a. morphological b. necrotic c. primary d. systemic
117. The cause of potato late blight in Ireland in 1840’s

a. Plasmopara viticola b. Phytophthora infestans
c. Phytophthora palmivora d. Claviceps purpurea
118. A symptom characterized by a sharply defined variegated pattern

a. mottle b. chlorosis c. mosaic d. etiolation
119. Which of the following is not included in KOCH’s Postulate?

a. isolation b. association c.inoculation d. colonization
120. A fungal disease of rice which caused the Bengal famine in 1943
a. rice blast b. brown spot of rice
c. panicle blight of rice d. sheath blight of rice
121. The only plant pathogen belonging to the Animal Kingdom

a. nematodes b. aphids c. fungi d.earthworms
122. Color band of the least toxic pesticides

a. blue b. red c. green d. yellow
123. Sigatoka is a fungal disease of

a. mango b. banana c. citrus d. durian
124. A fungal pathogen which destroyed the coffee industry in Batangas

a. Puccinia arachidis b. Phytophthora palmivora
c. Uromyces phaseoli d. Hemeleia vastatrix
125. The fungus which produces aflatoxin as it grows in stored grains,

copra, etc.
a. Aspergillus flavus b. Fusarium moniliforme
c. Fusarium graminearum d. Aspergillus nidulans
126. Anthracnose is a major fungal disease of

a. mango b. peanut c. coconut d. durian
127. A common medium for the isolation of fungi

a. PDPA b. TZCA
c. PDA d.Wakimoto’s medium
128. A common isolation method of bacterial pathogens from plant tissues

a. tissue planting b. staining
c. streaking d. baiting
129. The causal agent of bugtok and moko wilt of banana

a. Fusarium oxysporum b. Pectobacterium carotovorum
c. Ralstonia solanacearum d. Xanthomonas campestris
130. A common symptom of disease caused by fungi

a. spot b. wilt c. replacement of host tissue d. rot
131. A group of substances secreted by pathogens that interfere with the

permeability of protoplast
a. toxins b. enzymes c. growth regulator d. suppressors
132. The basic unit of bacterial classification

a. kingdom b. genus c. family d. species
133. Natural openings in the stem and root surface

a. stomates b. lenticels
c. hydathodes d. nectarines
134. The shape of most plant pathogenic bacteria

a. spherical b. rod c. helical d. Filamentous
135. A group of pathogen species that infect a set of differential varieties

a. species b. race c. pathovar d. biovar
136. Known as the Father of Plant Pathology

a. Ocfemia b. De Bary c. Beijerinck d. Pasteur
137. The sequence of events that give rise to disease

a. Pathogenesis b. Saprogenesis
c. Pathogen cycle d. Disease cycle
138. Stage of pathogenesis that involves the transfer of inocula from source
into the infection court
a. incubation b. colonization
c. penetration d. inoculation
139. All of the following contributes to plant disease development except

a. favorable environment b. virulent pathogen
c. resistant host d. susceptible host
140. The most important group of vectors of plant viruses both in terms
of the number of viruses they transmit and the economic importance of
the disease these viruses cause
a. green leafhoppers b. aphids c. beetles d. whiteflies
141. The early works on plant disease due to viruses were based on the
simple fact that they are
a. very infectious and cause mosaic symptom
b. very infectious and very small
c. are transmitted by aphids
d. associated with leafhoppers
142. Viruses spread in the plant through slow cell to cell movement in the
a. stomata b. xylem c. phloem d. plasmodesmata
143. Which of the following viruses would most likely survive?

a. a virus that kills its host plants with a rapidly developing
systemic disease
b. a virus that causes only mild or moderate disease that allows the
plant to survive
c. a virus that will not infect and cause any disease
d. a virus that does not replicate in plants
144. Group of microorganisms that can directly penetrate the intact host
surface
a. fungi b. bacteria c. virus d. viroids
145. A stage in the bacterial growth phase characterized by the exponential

increase in cell population
a. lag phase b. stationary phase
c. logarithmic phase d. death phase
146. Which of the following is a form of susceptible response by the plant

to a virus infection?
a. production of local lesions
b. relatively fast appearance of severe symptoms
c. slow virus multiplication and spread
d. slow appearance of symptoms
147. Bacteria devoid of cell wall

a. mollicutes b. bacillus c. streptomyces d. firmicutes
148. The physical properties of the virus includes

a. thermal inactivation point b. dilution end point
c. longevity in vitro d. all of the above
149. What is heterokaryosis?

a. parasexuality
b. variation
c. conjugation
d. presence of different nuclei in the same mycelium
150. The primary reproductive structures of fungi

a. spores b. mycelium
c. sclerotial bodies d. hyphae
151. Structures formed by some pathogens in obtaining nutrients from the

host
a. infection peg b. germ tube
c. appressorium d. haustorium
152. Fungi in the Philippines reproduce mainly by forming

a. sexual spores b. asexual spores
c. endospores d. ascospores
153. The cell characteristics of fungi

a. prokaryotic b. eukaryotic
c. hermaphrodite d. heterothallic
154. The feeding organ of plant parasitic nematodes

a. mandible b. stylet c. lip d. teeth
155. The major agents of spread of inoculum in the field

a. wind b. water c. insects d. infected living plants
156. Mycelial growth occurs in the

a. hyphal tips b. hyphal base
c. hyphal division d. all of the above
157. A type of disease cycle where only one generation occurs during the
growing season
a. polycyclic b.monocyclic
c. a & b d. compound interest
158. Plant parasitic nematodes which move within the host tissues and
/or between the soil and the host
a. sedentary endoparasites b. sedentary ectoparasites
c. migratory endoparasites d. migratory ectoparasites
159. Signs that do not indicate fungal infection

a. mycelia tufts b. spores c. sclerotia d. gummosis
160. A fungus merely covering the surface of the plant without necessarily
parasitizing it
a. sooty mold b. slime mold
c. powdery mold d. grey mold
161. The naming of newly discovered fungal species is based commonly

on
a. location b. distinct structural character
c. host d. well-known mycologist
162. The fungal inocula that initiate rust disease outbreak in the tropics
are the
a. uredospores b. teliospores
c. basidiospores d. ascospores
163. For annual crops, the maximum number of nematode parasites can be
recovered during
a. fallow period b. vegetative stage
c. flowering stage d. near harvest stage
164. The typical number of juvenile stages in the life cycle of a nematode is
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
165. What is the common pattern of nematode spatial distribution in a

field?
a. random b. patchy c. uniform d. none of these
166. The permanent nurse cells induced by root knot nematodes in roots
are called
a. galls b. syncytia c. giant cells d. nodules
167. Which of the following should not be considered when identifying a plant
virus?
a. genomic organization b. type of nucleic acid
c. shape of particle d. organization of protein
168. A general necrosis caused by the rapid growth and advance of the
causal bacteria on the leaves and stems
a. wilt b. blast c. blight d. rot
169. Overgrowth of the protoplast of adjacent living parenchymatous cells,

which protrude into xylem vessels through pits
a. gums b. abscission layers
c. tyloses d. cork layers
170. Clustering of roots, flowers, fruits or twigs around a common focus

a. hypertrophy b. epinasty
c. hyperplasia d. fasciation
171. Cellular respiration in bacteria occurs in the
a. cell membrane b. chloroplast
c. mitochondria d. ribosome
172. Bacterial motility is caused by a surface appendage called
a. cilia b. fimbriae c. flagella d. pili
173. Regulates the transport of materials into and out of the cell
a. cell wall b. cytoplasm c. cell membrane d. nucleus
174. The walls of fungi generally contain

a. chitin b. glucan c. chitin and glucan d. pectin
175. The most economically important disease of oil palm is the basal stem
rot caused by
a. Ganoderma boninense b. Marasmius sp
c. Curvularia sp d. Glomerella sp
176. The art of Plant Pathology which determines the severity and prevalence
of diseases.
a. disease assessment b. disease forecasting
c. disease monitoring d. disease diagnosis
177. Which of the following will not contribute to plant disease epidemics?
a. monocropping
b. multicropping
c. planting of susceptible hosts
d. presence of active and mobile vectors
178. A virus disease of rice which affected 70,000 hectares of rice fields
in the Philippines in 1971.
a. rice blast b. rice orange dwarf

c. rice tungro d. brown spot of rice
179. A disease of coffee which wiped out coffee plantations in Batangas

in 1890.
a. coffee leaf spot b. pink disease of coffee

c. coffee rust d. dieback of coffee
180. A disease of coconut which killed more than 15 million trees in the
Philippines to date
a. bud rot of coconut b. gray leaf spot of coconut

c. cadang cadang of coconut d. leaf blight of coconut
181. The pathogen may reduce the photosynthetic capacity of the suscept
by
a. replacing the seed

b. causing death of phloem vessels
c. destroying the chloroplast
d. physically blocking the xylem vessels
182. All of the following are effects of microbial toxins in the suscept except
a. changes in cell membrane
b. stimulate enzymes
c. physically block cell/ tissue system
d. stimulate abnormal growth
183. A science which deals with disease measurement is
a. Autoecology b. Epidemiology
c. Pathometry d. Geophytopathology
184. The principle of plant disease control involved in controlling insect

vectors of pathogen is
a. protection b. immunization
c. eradication d. exclusion
185. A control method which aims of modifying the crop environment to the
effect that it becomes less favorable for the development of pest population.
a. biological control b. cultural control
186. The following are methods and equipment used as new tools in
epidemiology except
a. forecasting b. geographic information system
c. molecular tools d. remote sensing
187. Toppling disease of banana is caused by

a. fungi b. bacteria c. nematode d. virus
188. Stem bleeding of rubber is caused by the fungus

a. Corynespora cassiicola b. Botyodiplodia theobromae
c. Phytophthora palmivora d. Hemileia vastatrix
189. Most leaf diseases of oil palm could be addressed by proper plant
nutrition
a. true b. not true c. maybe d. uncertain
190. Stem and root rot of coffee seedlings is caused by the fungus
a. Pythium debaryanum b. Sclerotium rolfsii
c. Phytophthora infestans d. Fusarium oxysporum
191. Bacterial wilt of potato and tomato is caused by

a. Erwinia chrysanthemi b. Xanthomonas citri
c. Pectobacterium carotovorum d. Ralstonia solanacearum
192. The cause of tobacco mosaic

a. Fungus b. nematode
c. Virus d. bacteria
193. A model plant used in plant pathological studies

a. Arabidopsis thaliana b. Brassica pekinensis
c. Oryza sativa d. Cocos nucifera
194. Anthracnose is also a disease of other fruits like banana, avocado

etc.
a. True b. not true c. maybe d. uncertain
195. Toxic metabolites released by fungi growing on grains, legumes and

nuts.
a. Zearalenone b. fumonisin
c. Aflatoxin d. mycotoxin
196. Tomato leaf curl Gemini virus is transmitted by

a. Aphids b. whiteflies
c. Leafhopper d. planthopper
197. The following are examples of general elicitors of pathogen that induce
defense response of the host except
a. Elicitins b. flagellin
c. Chitin oligomers d. glycoproteins
198. Application of the following plant signal molecules to the plant often
results in a higher level of resistance
a. Salicylic acid b. ethylene
c. Jasmonic acid d. all answers are correct
199. Systemic acquired resistance in plants is a secondary resistance

pathogen
a. True b. not true c. maybe d. uncertain
200. A concept that explains the stepwise evolution of virulence and

resistance
a. Pathogen concept b. gene-for-gene concept
c. Pathosystem concept d. all answers are correct
201. If you want to control discuss in corn with the wettable fungicide
Benomyl (Benlate 50 WP) and the recommendation rate of application is
0.50 Kg ai/ha. The weight of Benlate (kg) needed per hectare is.
a. 0.5 kg b. 1.0 kg c. 10 kg d. 50 kg
202. A recommendation calls for 1g active ingredient of metalaxyl per kg.

of corn seeds. If Apron 50 SD (formulated product) contains 50%
metalaxyl, how much Apron 50 SD is needed to treat 100 kg sweet
corn seeds?
a. 200g b. 100g
c. 20g d. 2 g
203. If the recommended rate of fungicide is 1.0 Kg ai/ha., how much of a

30% formulation in liters is needed to cover 1000m2?
a. 0.30 liters b. 0.32 liters
c. 0.33 liters d. 0.35 liters
204. If Ridomil has an active ingredient of 40g/kg metalaxyl, the percent

active ingredient is.
a. 0.4% b. 4.0%
c. 40% d. 400%
205. If 3.0 kg WP fungicide is required for the control of rice blast in one
hectare rice field and the recommended rate is 1.50 kg ai/ha. What is
the % active ingredient of the fungicide?
a. 25% b. 50%
c. 55% d. 60%
206. Fungicide Y has 3% active ingredient. Express the concentration of

fungicide in parts per million.
a. 300 b. 3000
c. 30, 000 d. 300, 000
207. If Benlate 50 WP is recommended for sheath blight control at the rate of

100m2 per 100 liters of water, what is the concentration of the finished spray
in ppm?
a. 100 b. 1000
c. 10, 000 d. 100, 000
208. Given the application rate of 100g Benlate 50 WP per 100 liter water,
what is the recommended rate of application (tbsp) per 16 liters of water?
a. 1.6 b. 3
c. 16 d. 6
209. How much of Benlate 50 WP is needed to prepare 2000 liters of spray

solution if the dilution rate is 25g/100 liters of water?
a. 5g b. 50g
c. 500g d. 5000g
210. Fungicide 247 ZC is to be applied at the rate of 60ml per 200L drum.
What is the amount of fungicide to be mixed with water using 16 liters
knapsack sprayer?
a. 4.6 ml b. 4.8 ml
c. 5.0 ml d. 5.8 ml
ANSWER KEY
(PLANT PATHOLOGY)
1. C 54. B 107. B 160. A

2. D 55. A 108. B 161. B
3. B 56. A 109. A 162. A
4. D 57. A 110. B 163. D
5. D 58. A 111. B 164. C
6. D 59. A 112. A 165. B
7. D 60. A 113. D 166. A
8. D 61. C 114. C 167. D
9. C 62. B 115. A 168. A
10. B 63. B 116. B 169. C
11. D 64. B 117. B 170. D
12. C 65. B 118. C 171. A
13. C 66. A 119. D 172. C
14. D 67. C 120. B 173. C
15. D 68. B 121. A 174. C
16. C 69. C 122. C 175. A
17. C 70. D 123. B 176. A
18. D 71. C 124. D 177. B
19. A 72. A 125. A 178. C
20. A 73. D 126. A 179. C
21. D 74. C 127. C 180. C
22. D 75. D 128. C 181. C
23. D 76. D 129. C 182. C
24. A 77. D 130. A 183. C
25. A 78. D 131. A 184. A
26. B 79. D 132. D 185. B
27. C 80. D 133. B 186. A
28. A 81. B 134. B 187. C
29. D 82. A 135. B 188. B
30. A 83. A 136. B 189. A
31. A 84. A 137. D 190. B
32. A 85. B 138. D 191. D
33. A 86. D 139. C 192. C
34. C 87. A 140. B 193. A
35. D 88. A 141. B 194. A
36. A 89. A 142. D 195. D
37. A 90. A 143. B 196. B
38. A 91. A 144. A 197. A
39. A 92. B 145. C 198. D
40. D 93. D 146. B 199. A
41. A 94. A 147. A 200. B
42. A 95. A 148. D 201. B
43. D 96. D 149. D 202. A
44. B 97. C 150. A 203. C
45. B 98. A 151. D 204. B
46. A 99. A 152. B 205. B
47. D 100. B 153. B 206. C
48. D 101. B 154. B 207. B
49. B 102. B 155. C 208. A
50. C 103. C 156. A 209. C
51. D 104. A 157. B 210. B
52. B 105. D 158. C
53. C 106. A 159. D
CROP PROTECTION
(Weed Science)
1. The following are common bases of classifying weeds except

a. gross morphology b. habitat
c. growth habit c. anatomy
2. Itchgrass is the common name of

a. Echinochloa colona b. Eleusine indica
c. Echinochloa glabrescens d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
3. The following are vegetative structures of a weed except

a. flowers b. branches
c. tillers d. leaves
4. Crop weed interaction involves competition for these factors except

a. light b. nutrients
c. water d. vitamins
5. Weed occupies which trophic level?

a. 1st trophic level b. 2nd trophic level
c. 3 trophic level
rd
d. 4th trophic level
6. The suspended growth of the embryo is due to propagule

a. dormancy b. germination
c. respiration d. photosynthesis
7. The technical term for weed establishment

a. ecstacy b. ecasis
c. ecesis d. evasis
8. The physical form of dormancy is brought about by the presence of

a. inhibitors in the seed coat b. inhibitors in the embryo
c. immature embryo d. thick seed coat
9. The density of weed above which significant reduction in the yield occurs
a. critical period b. critical time
c. critical threshold d. critical stage
10. The following are considered growth habit of weeds except

a. tree b. vine c. shrub d. woody
11. The following are classification of weeds based on gross morphology

except
a. epiphytic b. sedge
c. grass d. broadleaf
12. The sedges possess the following traits except

a. triangular stem b. parallel leaf venation
c. single cotyledon d. hollow stem
13. These structures are found in grasses except

a. ligule b. node
c. internode d. netted venation
14. Purple nutsedge is characterized by the

a. presence of node b. presence of ligule
c. hollow stem d. presence of tuber
15. Sedges, grasses and broadleaves belong to this classification:

a. body texture b. gross morphology
c. growth habit d. habitat
16. The following are steps in the germination process except

a. inhibition b. rapid metabolism
c. root emergence d. shoot emergence
17. An example of germination promoter

a. abscisic acid b. gibberrellic acid
c. potassium nitrate d. sulfuric acid
18. The plant pathogen present in Collego

a. Cercospora b. Colletotrichum
c. Curvularia d. Helminthosporium
19. The most limiting factor for competition in tropical countries during dry
season
a. nitrogen b. soil pH
c. soil moisture d. sunlight
20. Efficient plants are characterized by the

a. absence of chloroplast in the vascular bundle
b. low light saturation point
c. high light saturation point
d. high water requirement
21. Less efficient plants are known by the

a. presence of chloroplast in the vascular bundle
b. high light saturation point
c. low light saturation point
d. low water requirement
22. The type of competition existing between Echinochloa colona and jungle
rice
a. intraspecific b. interspecific
c. ultraspecific d. extraspecific
23. Interspecific competition is exemplified by the interaction between
a. itchgrass vs. Rottboellia b. rice vs. jungle rice
c. rice vs. O. sativa d. corn vs. Zea mays
24. The discipline in crop protection dealing with the study of plants
competing with
economically important crops
a. Agronomy b. Crop Protection
c. Weed Science d. Crop Science
25. An annual weed completes its life cycle in

a. one month b. one year
c. two years d. more than one year
26. Ligule is found in

a. grass b. sedge
c. broadleaf d. tree
27. The most number of weeds belong to the plant family

a. Asteraceae b. Cyperaceae
c. Poaceae d. Convolvulaceae
28. Imbibition process involves absorption of

a. oxygen b. nitrogen c. water d. light
29. In germination, the period of rapid metabolic activity is best

characterized by
a. faster rate of reproduction
b. faster photosynthetic activity
c. faster rate of senescence
d. faster cell division and elongation
30. The author of the book entitled “Introduction to Weed Science”

published in the
Philippines
a. Marcos R. Vega b. Beatriz L. Mercado
c. Bonifacio T. Mercado d. Juliana S. Manuel
31. The history of weed science can be equated to the discovery of the
killing property
of this herbicide during the second World War
a. butachlor b. napropamide c. propanil d. 2, 4 – D
32. Exposure of weed seeds to low temperature to overcome dormancy

a. stratification b. scarification
c. mineralization d. germinalization
33. Weed control activities must be done during this stage to ensure good
yield
a. after the critical period of the crop
b. during the critical period of competition
c. throughout the cropping season
d. during harvesting time
34. Temperature has great influence on pollination process through its effect
on the opening of the flower technically known as
a. ecesis b. antheasis c. anthesis d. eceasis
35. The main goal of weed science is:

a. the formulation of the most satisfactory, most efficient with
optimum cost of controlling weeds
b. the application of control measures which may not assure
complete success but at least reduce population
c. the formulation of the most satisfactory, most efficient yet least
expensive method of controlling weeds
d. to hold pest population below their economic threshold level
36. One of the following is not a definition of a weed:

a. a plant growing out of place
b. a plant which interferes with man’s objectives
c. a desirable plant
d. a plant that has no economic values
37. Which of the following is not an adverse effect of weeds?

a. reduce yield of crops
b. clog irrigation and drainage canals
c. reduce quality of products
d. do not compete with crops for light and nutrients
38. Which of the following weeds is a grass?

a. Saccharum spontaneum b. Cyperus rotundus
c. Scirpus maritimus d. Ipomea aquatica
39. Which of the following weeds is a sedge?
a. Commelina benghalensis b. Cyperus iria
c. Eleusine indica d. Euphorbia hirta
40. Which of the following is not a broadleaf weed?

a. Ipomea triloba b. Echinochloa colona
c. Amaranthus spinosus d. Monochoria vaginalis
41. One of the following is herbaceous weed

a. Synedrella nodiflora b. Sida rhombifolia
c. Sida acuta d. Peperomia pellucida
42. Which of the following weeds germinate under water then

float as soon as its primary leaf emerge?
a. Brachiaria mutica b. Pistia stratiotes
c. Lantana camara d. Ipomea triloba
43. The following are distinguishing features of grasses except one:

a. leaves are 2 – ranked that arise alternately from nodes
b. round stems
c. leaf blades are narrow with parallel veins
d. no distinct division between leaf blade and leaf sheath
44. One of the following is not a feature of sedges:

a. stems are solid and triangular
b. flowers are enclosed by a lemma and palea
c. leaves are 3 – ranked
d. no distinct division between leaf blade and leaf sheath
45. It is a period when seedling starts to manufacture its own food, leading to
an increase in weight. The seedlinhg is on its way to ecesis.
a. Period of shoot emergence b. Period of independent growth
c. Photperiodism d. Period of elongation
46. Which of the following statements describe “noxious weeds”best:

a. highly competitive, reduce yield of crops even at low
densities and are difficult to control
b. undesirable, troublesome but easy to control
c. species that are not at all used as crops and behave as weed all
the time
d. plants that are neither all bad nor all good
47. Like any other plant, the germination of weed seeds is affected by a
group of environmental factors such as:
a. water, oxygen, temperature
b. water, oxygen, light, temperature
c. water, oxygen, carbon dioxide
d. water, light, temperature, carbon dioxide
48. It is a stage in weed seed germination where cell division and cell
elongation proceed at a fast rate supported by a rapid synthesis of
materials resulting in a perceptible growth of the embryo.
a. period of independent growth
b. root or root – like elongation
c. emergence of the shoot
d. period of rapid metabolic activity
49. Under field condition, this is considered as the first sign of weed growth.
a. imbibitions b. root or root – like elongation
c. period of independent growth d. emergence of the shoot
50. A stage in the germination process where the cotyledons and the embryo
absorb water
a. imbibition
b. period of rapid metabolic activity
c. root or root – like elongation
d. period of independent growth
51. The most important reason why light is required in the germination
of weed is:
a. needed in respiration or the breakdown of stored food to be
used by the growing embryo
b. inactivate the germination inhibitor in the seed
c. required in the hydrolysis of food reserve
d. reduce the moisture content of the seed to level below that
required for viability
52. The most practical time to control weeds especially when using
herbicide is during their seedling stage because:
a. it is the stage where damage against the crop is becoming apparent
b. it is the most competitive stage for growth resources
c. it is the stage where leaves are succulent and still lack cutin or
waxes and the roots have thin epidermal walls
d. it is the most destructive stage
53. All of the following are beneficial effects of weeds except one:
a. weeds conserve soil moisture c. weeds provide employment
b. weeds prevent soil erosion d. weeds have no medicinal value
54. All of the following weeds have woody stems except one:
a. Sida acuta b. Lantana camara
c. Acacia arabica d. Imperata cylindrica
55. A weed species that is associated with corn plants and has the ability to
produce 5, 000 seeds per life cycle is:
a. Rottboellia exaltata b. Brachiaria mutica
c. Cyperus rotundus d. Ipomea triloba
56. Weed seeds can remain viable in the soil for a long time, and the longest
ever recorded in the world was that found in dried up Manchurian Lake
whose age was about 1 040 years. That species is
a. Avena fatua b. Nelumbo nucifera
c. Elephantopus spicatus d. Portulaca oleracea
57. A type of seed dormancy that takes place when a seed or propagule is
subjected to conditions unfavorable for germination.
a. Primary dormancy b. tertiary dormancy
c. Secondary dormancy d. none of the above
58. Abrasion, pricking, nipping and dehulling of seeds are examples of what
method of breaking dormancy
a. stratification b. mechanical scarification
c. scarification d. chemical scarification
59. A method of breaking dormancy by physically puncturing the

seedcoat of hard shelled seeds:
a. stratification b. mechanical scarification
c. scarification d. chemical scarification
60. A type of weed seed germination where the cotyledons are carried or
raised above the ground where the cotyledons provide nutritive support
to the growing embryo is:
a. hypogeal germination b. sigmoidal germination
c. epigeal germination d. colloquial germination
61. The stage in weed seed germination when dependence on the food
reserve ceases and seedling starts to manufacture its own food.
a. period of rapid metabolic activity
b. root or root –like elongation
c. emergence of the shoot
d. period of independent growth
62. An environmental factor that is optional in the germination of crop

seeds but very important in the germination of most weed seeds
a. moisture b. light
c. temperature d. oxygen
63. A cultural management that effectively control the growth of weeds

because it prevents oxygen to enter the soil and also cause accumulation
of carbon dioxide and other gaseous products of anaerobic respiration
thereby killing the embryo of weed seeds.
a. mowing b. burning c. flooding d. mulching
64. A type of soil with high water holding capacity and can therefore
keep weed seeds viable for a longer period is:
a. sandy soil b. clay soil
c. loamy soil d. rocky soil
65. The predominance of weed species in the field is due to all of the
following reasons except one:
a. their ability to induce dormancy when exposed to unfavorable
conditions
thereby escaping weed control measure
b. they survive better than cultivated plants due to built – in mechanism
for
adaptation
c. they have very slow vegetative growth
d. high capacity for reproduction and efficient mechanism for
adaptation
66. The ability of weed seeds to become dormant when exposed to

unfavorable condition is mechanism for:
a. reproduction b. adaptation
c. germination d. competition
67. Some weed species preferentially absorb some nutrients and would
grow better in soils rich in these elements. Amaranthus for instance
prefer:
a. nitrogen b. potassium
c. calcium d. phosphorous
68. Cleome rutidosperma and Pistia stratiotes are weed species that
prefer to absorb or accumulate:
a. calcium b. manganese
c. Phosphorous d. potassium
69. A weed species that was introduced into the Philippines as an

ornamental plant during the Spanish regime but is now considered as the
most serious weed in the country
a. Monochoria vaginalis b. Eichhornia crassipes
c. Ludwigia octovalvis d. Digitaria ciliaris
70. The competitive power of the weed is its most important

ammunition in the battle for survival and this is attributed to its
a. rapid growth and development
b. ability to produce toxic chemicals
c. inefficient mechanism for adaptation
d. inability to induce dormancy during adverse condition
71. The birth of weed science as a discipline came about only after the
discovery of the herbicidal properties of:
a. Pendimethalin b. 2, 4 – D
c. Bentazon d. Auxin
72. The problem of hand weeding the rice field during the vegetative
stage is the difficulty of identifying the seedlings because grass weeds and
rice seedlings at this stage are very similar in their:
a. ontogeny b. biology
c. physiology d. morphology
73. A grassy weed capable of producing contractile roots and arrested

shoot growth when subjected to extremely dry condition
a. large crab grass b. itch grass
c. mud grass d. snod grass
74. Damage caused by weeds are generally not visible or noticeable

because:
a. weeds seldom causes total crop failure
b. weeds are always associated with domestic animals
c. it is not easy to see and count weeds
d. weeds are hard to control
75. Which weed do not belong to the group:

a. Eleusine indica b. Paspalum distichum
c. Monochoria vaginalis d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
76. Broadleaf weeds are those with expanded leaf blades which include
the following, except one:
a. Amaranthus spinosus b. Monochoria vaginalis
c. Synedrella nodiflora d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
77. Not all weeds are destructive, some are useful to man in terms of:
a. providing food
b. source of prohibited drugs
c. makes the soil acidic
d. source of pathogen microorganism
78. Weeds can also cause losses in terms of its effects on water
management such as:
a. serves as barrier for inland waterways and harbors
b. active evaporation
c. serves as growth medium
d. harbors fishes and crabs
79. Some weed species can cause hazard to human health as well as
livestock. This aquatic weed serves as host habitat to mosquitoes
carrying the parasite responsible for rural filariasis and
encephalomyelities
a. Pistia stratiotes (water lettuce)
b. Amaranthus spinosus (spiny amaranth)
c. Imperata cylindrica (cogon)
d. Monochoria vaginalis (pickerel weed)
80. Some weeds are toxic to human and livestock. This species cause
diarrhea resulting to death of animals:
a. Tridax procumbens b. Chromolaena odorata
c. Portulaca oleracea d. Eleusine indica
81. Annual weeds like Amaranthus and Sphenoclea reproduce mainly

by seeds and complete its life cycle in:
a. one cropping season b. one year
c. one month d. one week
82. Grassy weeds (Poaceae) look similar to sedges except that their
stem called culm is:
a. triangular b. cylindrical
c. polyhedral d. shapeless
83. The membranous outgrowth in between leaf sheath and leaf blade
in grasses is called:
a. leaf blade b. petiole
c. ligule d. angular
84. Weeds adapt to the growing condition of the area. This turf grass
was introduced to Southeast Asia as a turf but growing luxuriantly as a
weed:
a. Echinochloa colona b. Eleusine indica
c. Cynodon dactylon d. Digitaria spp.
85. The most competitive stage of the weed is:

a. mature stage b. seedling stage
c. juvenile stage d. early stage
86. Which among the following weed species is an example of a

monocotyledonous broadleaf?
a. Bidens pilosa b. Imperata cylindrica
c. Monochoria vaginalis d. Sphenoclea zeylanica
87. The measure of the adaptive potential of a weed that enables it to
survive in an environment which is continuously disturbed by a man is
referred to as:
a. adaptability b. phenology
c. persistence d. sociability
88. In weed sampling, a student determined the density and biomass of

weeds in a corn area. If he is to compute for the Summed Dominance
Ratio of all weeds found in the area, he should:
a. Get the sum of the relative values of density and biomass
b. Get the sum of the relative value of density and biomass then
divide it by 3.
c. Determine the sum of density and biomass and divide the sum
by 2.
d. Determine the sum of the relative values of density and biomass
then divide the sum by 2.
89. A weed which germinates, grow vegetatively, produces seeds and is

able to live from year to year is:
a. annual weed b. dicot weed
c. monocot weed d. perennial weed
90. Which of the following weeds could be found in lowland rice areas?
a. Bulrush b. Dayflower
c. Tropic ageratum d. Sprangle top
91. Weeds found in temperate areas differ from those in the tropics
because of:
a. difference in soil condition b. difference in crops grown
c. difference in climatic conditions d. all of the above
92. Which among the following weeds is a sedge?

a. beggarstick b. bulrush
c. little iron weed d. spreading dayflower
93. Weeds with complete plant parts should be collected for a

herbarium because:
a. it would facilitate easier identification of the weed
b. it would provide a good specimen
c. it would be a good practice to do so
d. it would be attacked by molds
94. In crop production, the primary reason why weed is considered as a

pest is:
a. it is able to harbor other organisms
b. it is able to significantly lower the quantity and quality of
products
c. it produces seeds and vegetative propagules
d. it annoys human
95. Seed dormancy is an important adaptive mechanism of weeds

because:
a. it permits weeds to germinate when environment conditions in the
farm would give a greater chance for its survival
b. it permits germination of the weeds after the crop has been
established
c. it removes the capacity of the weeds to reproduce asexually
d. it prevents the weed seeds under the soil from decaying
96. A grass is a weed which:

a. has a hollow cylindrical culm, distinct nodes and internodes,
leaves that are arranged alternately and arises from the nodes
b. has long, narrow and thin leaves
c. has triangular stem, no distinct nodes and internodes and leaves
that are arranged in a rossette manner
d. a and b
97. The period or stage in the life cycle of the crop where weed’s
presence could affect yield of the crop is referred to as:
a. critical density of weed competition
b. critical threshold density
c. critical period of weed density
d. critical period of weed competition
98. Annual weeds are known to be present in the farm every season in
spite of good control measures because:
a. they happen to thrive in there
b. they have enormous amount of seeds in the soil
c. their seeds are not dormant
d. they have vegetative propagules in the soil
99. Which among the following best describes a weed in relation to crop
production:
a. it is a product of natural selection
b. it is a pest at a particular situation
c. it is a plant without any use nor function
d. it is a plant whose virtues have not yet been discovered
100. Poisoning specimens for herbarium collection means

a. Putting it in an oven or under the sun to dry
b. Dipping it in a solution that would inhibit pest attack
c. Flattening the specimens by putting any heavy object on top
d. Cutting it into small parts to facilitate drying
101. The best time to collect weeds is during:

a. lunch time b. early morning
c. late in the afternoon c. none of the above
102. It refers to the number of weeds in a given unit area

a. biomass b. density
c. frequency d. summed dominance ratio
103. It refers to the amount of organic matter produced per unit area
104. Which among the following is a perennial weed?

a. Ageratum conyzoides b. Cyperus iria
c. Paspalum distichum d. Synedrella nodiflora
105. Identification of weeds at the seedling stage is quite difficult because

a. Weeds belonging to the same family are very similar in appearance
at this stage
b. Weeds cannot be easily seen due to their small size
c. Weeds tend to grow taller than crops
d. Weeds do not grow at this time
106. Which among the following factors is always important for weed
germination?
a. light b. amount of photosynthesis
c. temperature d. water
107.Which among the following weed species is a perennial sedge?

a. Ageratum conyzoides b. Scirpus maritimus
c. Paspalum conjugatum d. Sphenoclea zeylanica
108. Which among the following weed species is a perennial grass?

a. Commelina diffusa b. Pistia stratiotes
c. Chromolaena odorata d. Panicum maximum
109. Which sampling parameter describes how often a weed is found in

sampling areas?
110. The following are weeds found in upland areas except:

a. barnyard grass b. goose grass
c. spindle top d. spiny amaranth
111. A monocot weed is one with:

a. Fibrous root system and leaves having parallel venation
b. Taproot system and leaves having netted venation
c. Fibrous root system and leaves with netted venation
d. Taproot system and leaves having parallel venation
112. More than 95% of the weeds that infest crops come from
a. neighboring farms through irrigation water
b. neighboring farms brought by wind
c. the soil
d. all of the above
113. Seeds of Rottboellia exaltata has a dormancy period of:

a. one month b. three months
c. two months d. four months
114. Sorghum halepense is the scientific name of:

a. Cogon grass b. Guinea grass
c. Johnson grass d. Napier grass
115. For most weed species, there is a critical moisture level at which
the embryo is rendered non-viable. For instance, Cyperus rotundus
tuber has a critical moisture content ranging from:
a. 16 to 20% b. 11 to 15%
c. 13 to 16 % d. 10 to 13%
116. The growth stage of weed where it can compete strongly with crop for
growth resources such as light, water and nutrients:
a. flowering stage c. maturity stage
b. germination stage d. seedling stage
117. One of the following weed species exudes toxic substance that would
inhibit
the germination, growth and development of other species:
a. Monochoria vaginalis b. Leptochloa chinensis
c. Imperata cylindrica d. Cyperus compressus
118. Rottboellia exalta population of one plant per sq m. will produce how
many seeds in a hectare after one growing season?
a. 5 million b. 50 million
c. 500 million d. 60 million
119. Broadleaves are those with expanded leaf blades and netted leaf
venations which excludes:
a. Amaranthus spinosus b. Synedrella nodiflora
c. Sida acuta d. Eleusine indica
120. The following weeds are monocots except:

a. Eleusine indica b. Sphenoclea zeylanica
c. Leptochloa chinensis d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
121. Which among the following weed species is an example of a

monocotyledonous broadleaf?
a. Ipomea aquatica b. Imperata cylindrica
c. Monochoria vaginalis d. Sphenoclea zeylanica
122. The following weed species reproduce asexually except:

a. Cyperus rotundus b. Fimbristylis littoralis
c. Pistia stratiotes d. Cynodon dactylon
123. When the development of weed occurs within one year, the
suitable weed classification is:
c. growth habit d. life span
124. The most feared group of weeds based on life span is:
a. annuals b. biennials
c. simple perennials d. creeping perennials
125. Annual weeds reproduce mainly by seeds and complete its life cycle
in:
a. one cropping season b. one year
c. one month d. one week
126. Weeds that produce below ground reproductive structures and seeds
which are able to survive from year to year are called as:
a. annual weeds b. monocot weeds
c. dicot weeds d. perennial weeds
127. Which among the weed species reproduces by seeds alone?

a. Commelina diffusa b. Imperata cylindrica
c. Pistia stratiotes d. Synedrella nodiflora
128. Water lettuce is an aquatic perennial weed that reproduces by means

of seeds and:
a. stolon b. rhizome
c. offshoot d. tuber
129. A shallow rooted perennial weed is:

a. Sorghum halepense b. Saccharum spontaneum
c. Cyperus rotundus d. Cynodon dactylon
130. A slender above-ground stem produced by Cynodon dactylon and

Brachiaria mutica is called:
a. rhizome b. bulb
c. tuber d. stolon
131.The primary propagule of Imperata cylindrica is:

a. tuber b. stolon
c. rhizome d. seed
132. The following weed species are perennials except:

a. Cyperus rotundus b. Fimbristylis littoralis
c. Pistia stratiotes d. Cynodon dactylon
133. Using habitat as a basis of classification, rice- associated weeds are

classified as:
a. dry land b. wetland
c. emergent d. submergent
134. Sedges, grasses and broadleaves belong to this classification:

135. Weeds that have two-ranked leaves are:

a. grasses b. sedges
c. broadleaves d. aquatic weeds
136. Weeds that thrive on watery areas are called as:
a. terrestrial b. aquatic c. epiphytes d. saprophytes
137. Aquatic weeds are classified into:

a. wetland b. floating c. emergent d. submergent
138. Aquatic weeds with roots that are anchored on the soil but shoots
are above water are:
a. floating hydrophytes b. emergent hydrophytes
c. submergent hydrophytes d. parasitic hydrophytes
139. This is a small, thorny flowering weed (shrub), with square stem, a
very common weed in crop lands, is very toxic when ingested by
livestock:
a. Sida acuta b. Tagetes patola
c. Cuscuta rhombifolia d. Lantana camara
140. Which of the following weed species is found growing in lowland areas?
a. barnyard grass b. dayflower
c. tropic ageratum d. spiny amaranth
141. Which of of the following weeds could be found in lowland rice areas?
a. Sprangle top b. Dayflower
c. Tropic ageratum d. Common purslane
142. A period characterized by rapid cell division and elongation

accompanied by faster synthesis of materials.
a. Period of independent growth
b. Period of root elongation
c. Period of metabolic activity
d. none of the above
143. Which among the following weeds is classified as sedge?

a. erect spiderling b. sour paspalum
c. spreading dayflower d. kyllingia
144. Which among the following describes a weed in relation to crop

production?
a. it is a product of natural selection
b. it is a pest at a particular situation
c. it is a plant without any use or function
d. it is a plant whose virtues have not been discovered
145. Weed species that are toxic to human and livestock can cause
diarrhea resulting to death of animals.
a. Tridax procumbens b. Chromolaena odorata
c. Portulaca oleracea d. Eleusine indica
146. The desire to control weeds intensively started when the herbicidal
potential of 2, 4-D was discovered in 1944 in the U.S. of America. “D” in 2,
4-D stands for?
a. Diazinon
b. Dichlorophenoxy acetic acid
c. Dichlorophenyl isothiocyanate
d. Dichloro-diphenyl-trichloroethane
147. It influenced dry matter production of the weed. Plants exposed to this
element produce smaller leaves but higher number of tubers while
reduction of this element reduces tuber formation.
a. soil texture b. mineral sufficiency
c. water d. light intensity
148. A new leguminous cover crop being used in oil palm and rubber
plantations:
a. Calopogonium mucunoides b. Centrosema macrocarpum
c. Arachis pentoi d. Mucuna bracteata
149. Competition is said to be critical during the young stage of the crop
which is estimated to be the first 1/3 to ½ of the crop duration. This is
known as the
a. Critical threshold level c. Critical time index
b. Critical period of competition d. Crucial crop stage
150. Which of the following affected the degree of crop-weed competition?

a. Competing ability of the dominant weed species
b. Competing ability of the crop
c. Crop spacing
d. All of the above
151. What is the most widely distributed plant in the world according
to the Guinness Book of World Records?
a. Cynodon dactylon
b. Cocos nucifera
c. Codaeum variegatum
d. Cyperus rotundus
152. Which among the following weed is spread by wind?

a. Echinochloa crusgalli
b. Mimosa pudica
c. Vernonia cinerea
d. Rottboellia cochinchinensis
153. The tubers of Cyperus rotundus will remain dormant if:

a. there is continuous cultivation
b. herbicides are not applied
c. they are left intact due to no tillage
d. area where they are growing is left unweeded
154. An upland tillage that directs the soil towards the base of the plants
at 25- 30 days after sowing that can control a weed growing along the row
is:
a. off barring b. hilling up
c. plowing d. harrowing
155. An upland tillage operation that directs the soil away from the base of
the plants at 15 days after sowing that can control weeds growing in
between the rows.
a. off barring b. hilling up
c. plowing d. harrowing
156. Cultivation can accomplish weed control by:

a. burial of weeds
b. cutting of aerial & below-ground part
c. desiccation of roots
d. all of the above
157. Cyperus rotundus is able to persist because:

a. it reproduces asexually
b. the seed has pappus which enables it to be disseminated by air
c. seeds have long viability period
158. The following weeds are found growing in upland areas except:
a. barnyard grass b. carabao grass
c. spindle top d. spiny amaranth
159. Major weeds of crops deposited in the soil seed bank are estimated to
be at:
a. 1 – 5% b. 10 - 20% c. 50 – 70% d. 70 – 90%
160. Water aids in the dispersal of aquatic weeds. Bouyancy of some weed
seeds/whole weed can be attributed to the presence of pericarp that
consists of light tissues or through an inflated structure. Which is not
an example of weed described above?
a. Eichhornia crassipes
b. Pistia stratiotes
c. Sida acuta
d. Echinochloa glaberescens
161. Which of the following weeds reproduces by rhizomes, tubers and

seeds?
a. cogon grass b. bermuda grass
c. purple nut sedge d. all of the above
162. The most successful weed dispersal agent is:

a. wind b. human being
c. animals d. water
163. Which of the following growth stages of weeds is best for

identification?
a. seedling stage b. tillering stage
c. flowering stage d. all of the above
164. Which of the following growth stages of weeds is best for control?
a. seedling stage b. tillering stage
c. flowering stage d. all of the above
165. Which of the following weed species is predominant in transplanted

irrigated lowland rice?
a. pickerel weed b. barnyard grass
c. cogon grass d. goose weed
166. Once a crop is infested with weeds, a significant yield reduction:

a. will surely occur
b. may occur
c. will occur if population has reached a level that cannot be
tolerated by the crop
d. all of the above
167. Seeds of weed with very light or minute, flattened or winglike structures
are easily dispersed by wind.Members of Asteraceae family contain pappus
(consists of a circle of hairs) which aids in efficient distribution. An example
of this weed is________.
a. Mimosa pudica b. Tridax procumbens
c. Monochoria vaginales d. Pistia stratiotes
168. Parasitic plants such as “mistletoe” or “tree thieves” are under Family:
a. Convolvulaceae b. Rubiaceae
c. Sterculiaceae d. Viscaceae
169. Weed seeds are banked in the soil that is why weeds are:
a. competitive b. reproductive
c. persistent d. pernicious
170. The majority of the weed seeds entering the seed bank in agricultural
land come from:
a. annual weeds b. perennial weeds
c. biennial weeds d. both a and b
171. Most weeds belonging to family Asteraceae like Vernonia cinerea
are easily carried by wind from one place to another due to:
a. seed appendages like pappus
b. seeds are enclosed in burrs
c. seeds are covered by an oily film
d. seeds are dormant
172. The following are structures that aid in weed seed dispersal by wind
except:
a. hairy style b. wings
c. hairy calyx d. sharp spines
173. Seeds of Cenchrus echinatus are easily disseminated by man and

animals because:
a. their seeds are light and numerous
b. their seeds are enveloped by thin and oily membrane
c. their seeds are enclosed in a burr
174. A structure facilitating the dispersal of weeds:

a. hook b. water
c. man d. wind
175. Plants that are tall statured always have a competitive advantage
over short plants for:
a. water b. sunlight
c. nutrients d. oxygen
176. Most often, weeds compete with crops for:

a. space b. soil nutrients and water
c. solar radiation d. b and c
177. Weeds at their seedling stage can mimic the associated crop except
in association of:
a. itch grass-corn b. barnyard grass-rice
c. jungle rice-rice d. itch grass-peanut
178. Seed dispersal through water run off is common among weeds
because of:
a. light weight and possess oily film to enable them to float
b. impermeability to water
c. sometimes possessing swimmerets
d. active swimmers
179. The dispersal unit of Physalis angulata can be disseminated by

wind because it is aided by:
a. hairy calyx b. wings
c. hairy styles d. balloons
180. A weed with dense leaf clusters and swollen base of petioles that
possess spongy tissues which enable them to float in water is:
a. Pistia stratiotes b. Monochoria vaginalis
c. Eichhornia crassipes d. Marsilea crenata
181. A stem parasitic plant found associated with deciduous trees and is
commonly known as “mistletoe” or “tree thief” :
a. Cuscuta sp b. Ficus sp
c. Phoradendron sp d. Alnus sp
182. A woody shrub is classified as:

183. Weed seed imbibition involves the absorption of:

a. oxygen b. water
c. nitrogen d. light
184. A method where one can still harvest profitable crops in spite of
the presence of weeds is:
a. weed control b. weed competition
c. weed prevention d. weed eradication
185. The use of certified crop seeds, clean tools and machineries for tillage
are examples of what type of weed management?
a. weed prevention b. weed eradication
c. weed control d. none of the above
186. Among the weed management approaches, this appears to be the

most practical since it aims for desirable weed suppression.
a. prevention b. eradication
c. control d. none of the above
187. An approach to weed management that implies non-exchange of

weeds
from one area to another
188. For this management level or approach to be effective, quarantines

must be established and legislative control required
189. When the weed management level applies balance between

economic gains and actual cost of weed control practiced, it is said
to be:
190. One of the following weed species exudes toxic substance that would
inhibit the germination, growth and development of other species:
a. Monochoria vaginalis c. Imperata cylindrica
b. Leptochloa chinensis d. Cyperus compressus
191. Some weed species preferentially absorb some nutrients and would
grow better in soils rich in these elements. The growth of such weed
species can sometimes be used as indicator of:
a. moisture content of the soil
b. nutrient content of the soil
c. organic matter content of the soil
192. The following are weed vegetables except

a. Ipomea aquatica b. Lantana camara
c. Corchorus olitorius d. Amaranthus spinosus
193 .Flooding the field up to 5.1 cm deep reduce drastically the

germination of some weeds but stimulates the germination of one
of the following seeds:
a. Echinochloa crusgalli b. Sesbania sesban
c. Brachiaria mutica d. Pistia stratiotes
194. Seeds of Rottboellia exaltata has a dormancy period of:

a. one month b. three months
c. two months d. four months
195. The following conditions except one shortens the longevity

(viability) of weed seeds in the soil due to reduction of the moisture
content of the seed:
a. sandy soil b. high light intensity
c. high temperature d. mineral soil
196. Crop competitiveness to weeds include the following traits except

one:
a. vigorous growth b. low leaf area index
c. early emergence d. plant height
197. A twining, obligate parasitic plant commonly known as “dodder”

or “witches hair” is under Family
a. Viscaceae b. Convolvulaceae
c. Rubiaceae d. Sterculiaceae
198. A twining, obligate stem parasitic plant of crops which taps in on the
host’s nutrient supply with a modified root system or haustorium and is
commonly known as “dodder” or “witches hair” is scientifically known as
a. Cuscuta sp b. Arceothobium sp
c. Phoradendron sp d. Viscum sp
199. These are all preventive weed control in lowland rice measures except
one:
a. use of weed-free seeds
b. not allowing weeds to produce seeds or reproduce vegetatively
c. post-emergence herbicide
d. keeping tools and irrigation canals free of weeds
200. The scentless mayweed was chosen as model weed species for a
study on modeling weed population dynamics: impact of cultural control
and climate change. This weed is scientifically known as
a. Cleome rutidosperma b. Cuscuta sp
c. Phoradendron sp d. Tripleurospermum inodorum
201. What is the amount of Atrazin (80% WP) per hectare if the rate of
application is 1.0 kg ai/ha.
a. 1.25 b. 1.50 c. 8.0 d. 12.5
202. If the recommended rate of application of 2,4-D is 40% active

ingredient per liter is 1.0kg ai/ha. If the delivery of 16 liters knapsack
sprayer is 200 liter per hectare, what is the volume of the herbicide for each
tank load?
a. 100 ml b. 200 ml c. 300 ml d.400 ml
203. If the rate of a powder herbicide containing 50% active ingredient is

2.0 kg ai/ha, the weight of the formulated product needed for one hectare
is:
a. 1.0 kg b. 2.0 kg c. 3.0 kg d. 4.0 kg
204. Glyphosate has 480g/L active ingredient, what is the percentage active
ingredient?
a. 4.8% b. 48% c. 480% d. 4800%
205. Mang Juan ould like to control weeds in his broadest seeded wetland
rice with Sofit 300EC. The herbicide contains 300g a.i. / liter product.
How many liters of Sofit 300 EC is needed per hectare if applied at 1.0
kg a.i./ha?
a. 1.66 liters b. 3.33 liters
c. 3 liters d. 30 liters
206. A farmer wanted to control grassy weeds in his soybean with Onecide
15 EC at 0.0150 kg ai/ha. How many liters of Onecide 15 EC is needed to
spray 5000 m2?
a. 0.05 L b. 0.10 L
c. 1 L d. 1.5 L
207. Herbadox (20% Pendimethelin) will be used to control anguingay in

corn. If applied at the rate of 1.0 kg a.i./ha, how many liters of Herbadox is
needed per hectare?
a. 1 L b. 2 L c. 3 L d. 5 L
208. 2,4-D herbicide is to be used for the control of broadleaf weeds in rice
at the rate of 0.50 kg a.i./ha. How many milliliters of 2,4-D Amine
containing 400 g a.i./ liter is needed per hectare?
a. 125 ml b. 500 ml
c. 1,250 ml d. 2,000 ml
209. A 1.66 liters of Butachlor is required to control grasses in one hectare

ricefield. The recommended rate is 1.0 kg a.i./ha. What is the active
ingredient of the herbicide?
a. 40% b. 50%
c. 60% d. 70%
210. In Premox 80 WP, the percentage active ingredient is.

a. 0.80% b. 8%
c. 80% d. 800%
211. What is the amount of Atrazin (80% WP) needed per hectare if the rate
of application is 1.0 Kg ai/ha.?
a. 1.25 b. 1.50
c. 8.0 d. 12.5
212. If the recommended rate of application of 2,4-D is 40% active

ingredient per liter is 1.0 Kg ai/ha. If the delivery of a 16 liters
knapsack is 200L/ha, what is the volume of the herbicide for each tank
load.
a. 100 ml b. 200 ml
c. 300 ml d. 400 ml
213. If the rate of a powder herbicide containing 50% active ingredients is

2.0 Kg ai/ha, the weight of the formulated product needed for one hectare
is:
a. 1.0 Kg. b. 2.0 Kg
c. 3.0 Kg. d. 4.0 Kg
214. Glyphosate has 480g/L active ingredient, what is the percentage active
ingredient?
a. 4.8% b. 48%
c. 480% d. 4800%
215. Mang Juan would like to control weeds in his broadcast seeded
wetland rice with Sofit 300 EC. The herbicide contains 300 g ai / liter
product. How many liters of Sofit 300 EC is needed per hectare if applied at
1.0 Kg ai/ha?
a. 1.66 L b. 3.33 L
c. 3 L d. 30 L
216. A farmer wanted to control grassy weeds in his soybean with Onecide
15 EC at 0.0150 Kg ai / ha. How many liters of Onecide 15 EC is needed to
spray 5000 m2?
a. 0.05 L b. 0.10 L
c. 1 L d. 1.5 L
217. Herbadox (20% Pendimethelin) will be used to control anguingay in

corn. If applied at the rate of 1.0 Kg ai/ha., how many liters of Herbadox is
needed per hectare?
a. 1 L b. 2 L
c. 3 L d. 5 L
218. 2,4-D herbicide is to be used for the control of broadleaf weeds in rice
at the rate of 0.50 Kg ai/ha. How many milliliters of 2,4-D Amine containing
400 g ai/liter is needed.
a. 125 ml b. 500 ml
c. 1,250 ml d. 2000 ml
219. A 1.66 liters of Butachlor is required to control grasses in one hectare

ricefield. The recommended rate is 1.0 Kg ai/ha. What is the active
ingredient of the herbicide?
a. 40% b. 50%
c. 60% d. 70%
220. In Premox 80 WP, the percentage active ingredient is:

a. 0.80% b. 8%
c. 80% d. 800%
ANSWER SHEET
(WEED SCIENCE)
1. C 51. B 101. C 151. A 201. A

2. D 52. C 102. B 152. C 202. B
3. A 53. D 103. A 153. C 203. D
4. D 54. D 104. C 154. B 204. B
5. A 55. A 105. A 155. A 205. B
6. A 56. B 106. D 156. D 206. B
7. C 57. C 107. B 157. A 207. D
8. D 58. B 108. D 158. A 208. C
9. C 59. B 109. C 159. D 209. C
10. D 60. C 110. A 160. C 210. C
11. A 61. D 111. A 161. C 211. A
12. D 62. B 112. C 162. B 212. B
13. D 63. C 113. D 163. C 213. D
14. D 64. B 114. C 164. A 214. B
15. B 65. C 115. C 165. B 215. B
16. A 66. B 116. D 166. C 216. B
17. B 67. C 117. C 167. B 217. D
18. B 68. D 118. B 168. D 218. C
19. C 69. B 119. D 169. C 219. C
20. C 70. A 120. B 170. A 220. C
21. C 71. B 121. C 171. A
22. A 72. D 122. B 172. D
23. B 73. A 123. D 173. C
24. C 74. D 124. D 174. A
25. B 75. C 125. B 175. B
26. A 76. D 126. D 176. D
27. C 77. A 127. D 177. D
28. C 78. A 128. C 178. A
29. D 79. A 129. D 179. D
30. B 80. B 130. D 180. C
31. D 81. A 131. C 181. A
32. A 82. B 132. B 182. C
33. B 83. C 133. B 183. B
34. C 84. C 134. B 184. A
35. C 85. B 135. A 185. A
36. C 86. C 136. B 186. C
37. D 87. C 137. A 187. A
38. A 88. D 138. B 188. A
39. B 89. D 139. D 189. C
40. B 90. D 140. A 190. C
41. D 91. C 141. A 191. B
42. B 92. B 142. C 192. B
43. D 93. A 143. D 193. D
44. B 94. B 144. B 194. D
45. B 95. A 145. B 195. D
46. A 96. D 146. B 196. B
47. B 97. D 147. D 197. B
48. D 98. B 148. D 198. A
49. D 99. B 149. B 199. C
50. A 100. B 150. D 200. D
CROP PROTECTION
(Approaches and Practices in Pest Management)
1. A fungicide used as seed treatment against corn downy mildew

a. metalaxyl b. benomyl
c. difenoconazole d. Bordeaux mixture
2. A phenolic compound present in pigmented onion varieties that inhibit

spore germination of Colletotrichum circinans
a. fusarin b. allicin
c. catechol d. rotenone
3. All are examples of cultural control of pests except

a. thorough land preparation b. proper irrigation and drainage
c. lunar planting d. hot water treatment
4. An example of legal action employed in pest management

a. prohibition and embargo b. vapor heat treatment
c. wrapping of fruits with paper d. soil solarization
5. A chemical compound present in young corn plants which serves as

protection
against corn borer
a. DIMBOA b. azadirachtin
c. protocatechuic acid d. zearalenone
6. The following are entomopathogens except

a. Metarrhizium b. Trichogramma
c. Beauveria d. Baculovirus
7. Also known as Compost Fungus Activator

a. Trichoderma b. Rhizopus
c. Sclerotium d. Gliocladium
8. The following are beneficial arthropods except

a. dragonfly b. long-horned grasshopper
c. short-horned grasshoppers d. lady beetle
9. A fungus applied to breeding sites of Rhinoceros beetle inorder to

manage their
population
a. Rhizoctonia b. Trichoderma
c. Metarrhizium d. Phytophthora
10. Group of plants utilized in biofumigation to control bacterial wilt of

vegetables caused by Ralstonia solanacearum due to the formation of
isothiocyanates (ITCs) during decomposition
a. cucurbits b. crucifers
c. cereals d. legumes
11. The name of commercially available Mycoherbicide

a. Bioact b. Dipel
c. De Vine d. Biospark
12. The interaction between two organisms where one party is benefited
while the other is adversely affected
a. competition b. parasitism
c. symbiosis d. mutualism
13. The following are attributes of modern agriculture that aggravates

pests except
a. planting of resistant varieties
b. conservation of natural enemies
c. excessive use of pesticides
d. continuous monoculture
14. Integrated pest management encourages the following except

a. maximization of chemical control methods
b. enhancement of natural enemies
c. combination of two or more compatible control measures
d. optimization of chemical control methods
15. In the ecosystem plants are considered

a. decomposers b. consumers
c. scavengers d. producers
16. Man cannot live on earth without

a. green plants b. oxygen
c .money d. clothing
17. A diseased plant is known as

a. pathogen b. parasite
c. saprophyte d. host/suscept
18. The overall plan to eliminate or alleviate a real or perceived pest

problem
a. pest management strategy b. pest management theory
c. pest control d. integrated control
19. The book “Silent Spring” which revealed the unintentional pesticide
movement and its effect on ecological system was published in _______ by
Rachel Carson.
a. 1962 b. 1972
c. 1982 d. 1992
20. Considered as the number one insect pest of corn

a. corn aphids b. corn planthopper
c. corn earworm d. corn borer
21. Weeds affect crop plants by

a. parasitism b. infection
c. competition d. predation
22. Pathogens that cause leaf spots affect plant tissues by

a. enzymes b. toxins
c. polysaccharides d. blocking tissues
23. Insect pests with sucking mouthparts cause damage to plants by

a. cutting plant tissues b. removing plant sap
c. making tunnels in the stem d. removing epidermis only
24. A government agency that regulates movement of “would be pest”

a. Bureau of Food and Drug b. Bureau of Plant Industry
c. Fertilizer and Pesticide Authority d. Department of Agriculture
25. Refers to plants and plant products which are not allowed for transport
due to injurious pests and diseases
a. restricted b. prohibited
c. legislated d. regulated
26. Known as the Plant Quarantine Law of the Philippines dated June 10,
1978
a. PD 1433 b. PD 1143
c. RA 3767 d. RA 3027
27. In the sequential development of crop protection side effects of

pesticides like pest shifting and resurgence started to appear during
a. disaster phase b. crisis phase
c. exploitation phase d. subsistence phase
28. Shift in pest control paradigm was observed during

a. subsistence phase b. exploitation phase
c. integrated control phase d. disaster phase
29. Serious pest outbreaks was felt during

a. disaster phase b. crisis phase
c. exploitation phase d. subsistence phase
30. The first hormone-based herbicide

a. 2,4-D b. glyphosate
c. gramoxone d. machete
31. US President who issued a Presidential Decree which mandated the

use of Pest Management whenever practical
a. George Bush b. Bill Clinton
c. Jimmy Carter d. Barrack Obama
32. Pests which are always present but rarely cause damage
a. sub economic pests b. occasional pests
c. perennial pests d. severe pests
33. The most widely used bacterial genus as biological control

a. Pseudomonas b. Bacillus
c. Ralstonia d. Erwinia
34. An important insect pest of cotton

a. bollworm b. budworm
c. armyworm d. cutworm
35. Ecological soundness in IPM refers to

a. environmental quality
b. protection against hazard to living organisms
c. low pesticide residue level
d. all answers are correct
36. According to global estimate of Oerke et al, 1994, the highest

preharvest losses of crops due to pests come from
a. pathogens b. weeds
c. insects d. all answers are correct
37. The estimated crop losses (pre harvest and post harvest) in eight
major food and cash crops
a. 52% b. 42% c. 10% d. all answers are correct
38. The following are side effects of pesticides except

a. destruction of beneficial species b. pesticide residue hazards
c. pest resurgence in treated areas d. use of HYVs
39. Insects are considered as pest only when

a. it competes with man for some resources
b. present in significant numbers
c. it damage crops and decrease crop yield
40. The following are considered basic to the development of sound pest
management strategies
a. biology of pest b. ecology of pest
c. epidemiology of diseases d. all answers are correct
41. Plant pest / disease can never be eliminated but only

a. managed b. controlled
c. both a and b are correct d. neither a nor b is correct
42. Pests are serious in areas planted to only one crop

a. true b. not true
c. maybe d. all answers are correct
43. In mango, at least 80% of production cost is devoted to pest control

a. true b. not true
44. A mycoherbicide is an organism used to control weeds composed of

a. fungi b. bacteria
c. virus d. all answers are correct
45. Rice varieties planted as stop gap of rice tungro

a. Masipag b. Matatag
c. Pag- asa d. Biyaya
46. Cavendish banana is susceptible to sigatoka (leaf spot) but we plant

because of high export demand
a. true b. not really
47. Diseases may kill insects and weeds

a. true b. not true
48. IPM simply means switching from chemical to organic pesticides

a. true b. not true
49. Most plants are ________ to plant pathogens.

a. resistant b. susceptible
c. immune d. tolerant
50. The toxic substance in a pesticide formulation

a. active ingredient b. filler
c. solvent d. inactive ingredient
51. Refers to the control of pest by living organisms either by natural or
artificial
means
52. The most toxic pesticide has this color band on its label
a. blue b. red
c. yellow d. green
53. Integrated pest management employs a variety of tactics and the least
method
that could be used is
c. biological control d. physical control
54. Considered as the most effective and economical method of pest

management
c. chemical control d. use of resistant varieties
55. Which of the following is not a pesticide formulation

a. pellet b. bait
c. vapor d. dust
56. An organism with altered genetic make-up

a. transgenic b. biotechnology
c. walking genes d. jumping genes
57. The relative amount of heritable qualities in plants that influence the
ultimate degree of infection/infestation
a. host plant resistance b. host tolerance
c. host immunity d. host susceptibility
58. A modern approach to minimize damage by pests with ultimate goal of

population management rather than eradication
a. Integrated Pesticide Management
b. Integrated Pest Management
c. Insect Pest Management
59. Considered as secondary to chemicals in eradicating pathogens

from soil
a. fumigation b. heat treatment
c. biological control d. soil solarization
60. Crop rotation, using resistant varieties, fallowing, use of cover crops
are examples of
a. physical control b. mechanical control
c. cultural control d. biological control
61. The practice of leaving the farm unplanted for certain period thus
depriving the pests of their hosts which bring their population to
significantly low level
a. avoidance b. fallowing
c. crop rotation d. intercropping
62. The practice of east-west furrow orientation in cornfield will manage

the disease
a. downy mildew of corn b. banded leaf and sheath blight of corn
c. corn rust d. all answers are correct
63. Physical pest control method which eliminate fruit flies and
anthracnose of mango and papaya for export to Japan
a. hot water treatment b. vapor heat treatment
c. refrigeration d. UV irradiation
64. Refers to pest whose population equilibrium is always above the

economic threshold level
a. key pests b. occasional pests
c. potential pests d. minor pests
65. The use of __________ is the ideal way to control pests if satisfactory
levels of durable resistance can be incorporated into culturally desirable
crop plants.
a. susceptible plants b. tolerant plants
c. resistant plants d. all answers are correct
66. A type of resistance which is genetically controlled by the presence of

one, a few, or many genes for resistance in the plant
a. pathogen-derived resistance b. induced resistance
c. apparent resistance d. true resistance
67. Also known as major gene resistance

a. vertical resistance b. horizontal resistance
c. polygenic resistance d. non-specific resistance
68. Involves mass selection of seeds from most highly resistant plants
surviving in the field where natural infection occurs
a. hybridization b. pedigree selection
c. recurrent selection d. seed selection
69. The following are forms of microbial antagonism except

a. parasitism b. competition
c. antibiosis d. antixenosis
70. Systemic fungicides that move in both directions like

xylem/phloem are
a. acropetal b. basipetal
c. ambimobile d. all answers are correct
71. All of the following refer to names of pesticides except

a. trade name b. chemical name
c. common name d. family name
72. Benefits derived from biotechnology are

a. insect pest resistance b. disease resistance
c. herbicide resistance d. all answers are correct
73. Pesticide degradation in the soil is accomplished by

a. biological degradation b. chemical or photolytic action
c. adsorption on soil colloids d. all answers are correct
74. The following are quarantine diseases of banana except

a. bunchy top b. moko wilt
c. panama wilt d. socorro wilt
75. These are symbols in pesticide labels which convey message without
the use of words
a. radiogram b. pictogram
c. telegram d. all answers are correct
76. Among the common side effects of pesticides are
a. pesticide resistance
b. unintentional destruction of beneficial organisms
c. pest trading
77. The strategy used to manage resistance failure which involves mixture
of several lines with similar agronomic characteristics but each of different
gene for resistance
a. multiline b. gene deployment
c. gene pyramiding d. gene stacking
78. Rice plants with Xa 21 gene confers resistance to

a. Xanthomonas oryzae pv. oryzae b. Pyricularia oryzae
c. Helminthosporium maydis d. Rhizoctonia solani
79. A fungus that parasitizes eggs of plant parasitic nematodes

a. Trichogramma b. Trichoderma
c. Paecilomyces d. Diadegma
80. A fungus that infects Malayan rice bug

a. Metarrhizium b. Trichoderma
c. Paecilomyces d. all answers are correct
81. Tomato plants with Sw-5 genes confer resistance to

a. Tomato Spotted Wilt Virus b. Ralstonia solanacearum
c. Pectobacterium carotovora d. Tomato Yellow Leaf Curl Virus
82. A new mycoherbicide used to control Northern Jointvetch

a. Colletotrichum gloeosporioides
b. Colletotrichum gloeosporioides f.sp. aeschynomene
c. Verticillium isolate
d all answers are correct
83. Mechanism of biological control method that utilizes crucifers as

rotation crops
a. biofumigation b. suppressive soil
c. antibiosis d. fungistasis
84. This control method requires host specificity to be effective

a. physical b. biological
c. cultural d. chemical
85. In the scheme of herbicide classification, this herbicide is sprayed prior

to planting
a. toxicity b. mode of action
c. mobility in plant d. timing of application
86. Weeds of similar growth habit as crops are often more serious
competitors and thus given consideration
a. true b. not really
c. definitely not true d. not sure
87. The national IPM program dubbed as KASAKALIKASAN through

Special Order No.126 dated May 3, 1993 was issued by
a. Joseph E. Estrada b. Corazon C. Aquino
c. Fidel V. Ramos d. Gloria M. Arroyo
88. Curriculum in IPM trainings is usually

a. discovery-based b. experiential learning
c. participatory approach d. all answers are correct
89. IPM trainings is conducted in

a. Students Field School b. Farmers Field School
c. Schools without Walls d. all answers are correct
90. An insect damage of rice stemborer

a. dead heart b. whitehead
c. hopperburn d. a and b are correct
91. A pupal parasitoid of Brontispa longissima

a. Tetrastichus b. Trichogramma
c. a and b are correct d. Diadegma
92. Broken stalks and tassels borings at the base of ear shanks are
indications of attack by
a. corn borer b. corn earworm
c. corn aphids d. corn semi-looper
93. A mechanism of host plant resistance where the morphological

characteristics of the plant influence the choice of the insect pest with
regards to source of food, shelter or oviposition sites
a. antixenosis b. antibiosis
c. tolerance d. avoidance
94. The spread of viruses in crops in the field is mostly due to insect
vectors, which of the following is not a vector?
a. Pentalonia nigronervosa b. Aphis craccivora
c. Nephotettix virescens d. Leptocorisa oratorius
95. Two resistant Cavendish banana variants resistant to Fusarium

wilt/Panama wilt caused by Fusarium oxysporum f.sp cubense Tropical
race 4.
a. GCTCV 119 and GCTCV 219 b. Grand Nain and Williams
c. Latundan and Cardaba d. Gros Michel and Williams
96. The following are important benefits of biotech crops except

a. biological diversity b. unprotected spraying of pesticide
c. improved nutritional profile d. increased yield and income
97. Planting biotech crops like Bt corn reduced CO2 emissions by

elimination of pesticide sprays
a. true b. maybe
c. not true d. not sure
98. Mango pulp weevil is an insect pest specific to mangoes

a. true b. maybe
c. not true d. not sure
99. A disease of banana which affected banana plantations in Davao del

Norte
a. Panama wilt b. Moko wilt
c. Sigatoka d. Bugtok
100. Identified as the new pest of rice grain in Region 12

a. Leptocorisa oratorius b. Leptocorisa acuta
c. Nephotethix virens d. Nilaparvata lugens
101. A fungal disease of corn which devastated thousands of hectares of

corn field in Alamada, North Cotabato
a. Banded Leaf and Sheath Blight b. Downy Mildew
c. Corn Rust d. Southern Leaf Blight
102. A banana variety derived from Latundan and Saba which originated
in Thailand in 2007 with resistance to common banana diseases in
the Philippines
a. Cavendish b. Mama Sita c. Señorita d. Cardaba
103. In the plantation, Mango pulp weevil can be controlled by

a. Sanitation
b. Use of recommended insecticides
c. Open center pruning of mango trees
104. In order to ensure good yield, weed control activities should be done
a. after the critical period of the crop
b. during the critical period of competition
c. throughout the cropping season
d. after harvesting the crop
105. A weed which clogged rivers and caused flooding in Cotabato City in
2011
a. Monochoria vaginalis b. Eichhornia crassipes
c. Pistia stratiotes d. Ipomea aquatic
106. The following countries adopted IPM as policy during the 80’s except
a. Philippines b. Malaysia c. Indonesia d. Vietnam
107. Biological control of pests increase crop production within existing

resources
a. True b. Not True
c. Not Sure d. all answers are correct
108. Development of pests resistant to pesticides has now become a major

problem in crop production
a. True b. False
c. Maybe d. all answers are correct
109. Resistant population of pests can be expected wherever single-site

chemicals are used extensively for their control
a. True b. False
c. Maybe d. All answers are correct
110. Systemic pesticides which are specific in their action affect only one
or two steps in a genetically controlled event in the metabolism of the pest,
hence give rise to resistant individuals in a population by single mutation
or selection
a. True b. False
c. Maybe d. all answers are correct
111. The following are the most common mechanisms by which pests
develop resistance to various pesticides except
a. decreased conversion to the real toxic compound
b. increased affinity at the reactive site in the cell
c. detoxification of the chemical through modification of its structure
d. bypassing a blocked reaction through a shift in metabolism
112. A bionematicide which provides natural and effective control of plant
parasitic nematodes
a. Diagran b. Furadan c. Bioact d. Biocon
113. Paecilomyces lilacinus is a bionematicide that infects the eggs of root
knot nematodes and greatly destroys the embryos in five days
a. True b. False c. Maybe d. all answers are correct
114. Paecilomyces lilacinus reduces/controls also other root rotting fungi

115. Beneficial arthropods and effective microorganisms are important in

sustainable agriculture
116. The first record on the ill effects of pesticide residues was published
in the book “Silent Spring” by Rachel Carson
117. Trichoderma spp. is an example of antagonist

118. Beneficial microorganisms are the principal agents used in nature

farming
119. Weeds in the agroecosystem serve as ____________ of pests.

a. breeding sites b. refuge
c. alternate host d. all answers are correct
120. An active ingredient of rodenticide

a.Cypermethrin b. Benomyl
c. Zinc phosphide d. Carbofuran
121. A specific fungicide for Phytophthora

a. Iprodione b. Fosetyl-al c. Metalaxyl d. Benomyl
122. Examples of cultural control of pests except

a. Irradiation b. Drying durable seeds before storage
c. Crop rotation d. Lunar planting
123. One of these is a herbicide

a. Butachlor b. Monocrotophos
c.Iprodione d. Carbamate
124. Plant diseases account for the highest crop loss due to pests
a. true b. not true c. maybe d. uncertain
125. Cultivation and other farming operations alter the environment by

a. eliminating the weeds that harbor the pathogen
b. injuring plant roots creating infection caused by root pathogen
c. burying infected plant residues and decrease the amount of available
inoculum
126. Beneficial microorganisms can accomplish the following except

a. fix atmospheric nitrogen b. induce plant disease
c. decompose organic wastes d. suppress soilborne pathogens
127. Which is not a beneficial microorganism
a. Yeast b. Photosynthetic bacteria
c. Lactic-acid bacteria d. Lady Beetle
128. Used in alternative agriculture except

a. recycling of farm wastes b. integration of crops and livestock
c. conservation tillage d. unprotected spraying
129. Harmful microorganisms maybe involved in any of these except
a. stimulate soilborne pathogen b. inhibit seed germination
c. inhibit plant growth d. stimulate plant growth
130. The misuse of chemical pesticides adversely affected our environment

a. True b. Not really c. Not sure d. B and C
131. The legal basis for the regulation of genetically modified crops
a. A.O. 8 b. A.O. 20 c. A.O. 14 d. A.O. 16
132. The following are examples of quarantinable pests except

a. mango pulp weevil b. rice black bug
c. corn borer d. oriental fruit fly
133. Another benefit of Bt corn is reduced toxin contamination arising

from fungal attack on the damaged grain
a. True b. False c. Not sure d. Maybe
134. Which of the following statements is not true

a. weeds harbor insects and diseases
b. diseases may kill insects and weeds
c. insects can be used to control other insects and weeds
d. all insects are pests
135. You have a 16 liter knapsack sprayer and need to apply 15 loads of
insecticide to a 0.75 hectare field. What is your spray volume in liters per
hectare
a. 300 b. 320 c. 325 d. 350
136. Using a 16 liter knapsack sprayer, an insecticide will be sprayed at

300 liters/0.25 hectare field. Calculate the number of sprayer loads needed
a. 5 b. 10 c. 8 d. 15
137. In a bioassay test, determine the amount of fungicide needed to dilute

500ml water to attain the desired concentration of 300 ppm. The
recommended rate of fungicide Z is 2 tbsp/16 li water.
a. 0.3 g b. 0.15 g c. 0.03 g d. 30 g
138. Insecticide X (wettable powder) has a dilution rate to water of 1:200.

What is the recommended dosage for 16 li water?
a. 50 g b. 60 g c. 80 g d. 40 g
139. Fungicide Y contains 300 g/kg a.i. of the formulated product, what is
the percentage of its active ingredient?
a. 0.3 % b. 30 % c. 35 % d. 50 %
140. If the rate of application of 30 % WP herbicide is 0.7 kg ai/ha, the

weight of formulated product needed per hectare is
a. 2.33 kg b. 2.50 kg c. 3 kg d. 5 kg
141. The recommended rate of a liquid herbicide containing 30 % ai is 1 li

ai/ha, if the volume of spray required is 200 li/ha, and each tank load
contains 16 li, the amount of herbicide needed per tank load is
a. 166 ml b. 266 ml c. 366 ml d. 466 ml
142. What is the amount of 50% WP herbicide needed per ha if the rate of
application is 2 kg ai/ha?
a. 3 kg b. 4 kg c. 0.04 kg d. 40 kg
143. In a bioefficacy test, 700 ppm of Fungicide Y is needed. If the
chemical has 50% ai, how much will be diluted to 500 ml water to attain
the desired concentration?
a. 35 g b. 3.5 g c. 0.35 g d. 0.035 g
144. If 50 ml of herbicide Z (45% EC) will be diluted to 16 li of water, what

is the strength of the solution?
a. 0.5 % b. 5 % c. 3 % d. 0.14%
145. If a molluscicide contains 300 g ai/kg of formulated product, what is

the percentage of the active ingredient in the formulated product?
a. 60 % b. 30 % c. 40 % d. 50 %
146. A farmer will spray an insecticide at 200 li/ha using a 16 li knapsack

sprayer. How many sprayer loads is needed?
a. 10 b. 12 c. 9 d. 11
147. A systemic fungicide contains 200 g ai/kg of formulated product.

Calculate the concentration of the chemical in ppm
a. 500,000 ppm b. 400,000 ppm
c. 300,000 ppm d. 200,000 ppm
Consider the following data in sprayer calibration:

Distance travelled = 7m
Sprayer’s swath = 5m
Volume sprayed = 5 li
148. What is the application rate in li/ha?

a. 1228 li b. 1628 li
c. 1428 li d. 1328 li
149. Herbicide W contains 400 g ai/kg formulated product. What is the

percentage of ai in the product.
a. 40 % b. 50 %
c. 30 % d. 60 %
Consider the following information:
Insect pest to be controlled: Rice stem borer

Area to be treated : 1.50 ha
Labor cost : Php 200/man-day
Type of Granule Emulsifiabl Wettable

Formulation e Powder
Concentrate
Recommended 6.0 1.0 L/ha 1.25
Rate: kg/ha kg/ha
Insecticide Cost: Php Php 980 Php
500/kg L/ha 750/kg
Required man- 3 3 3
days for
application/ha
Frequency of Every 2 Every 2 Every 2
application weeks weeks weeks
150. Which of the formulations is cheap to use in the long run?

a. Granule b. Emulsifiable concentrate
c. Wettable powder d. b and c
151. All are examples of cultural control of pests except a.

removal of bagworms b. site selection
c. water management d. fertilizer management
152. Toxin produced by Metarhizium which kill insect pests

a. penicillin b. destruxin
c. metarhin d. destrumin
153. The active principle in moringa which contain antipesticidal

properties
a. allicin b. capsicin
c. pterygospermin d. jatropine
154. Physic nut produces latex that contains alkaloid responsible

for its nematicidal effect known as
a. allicin b. capsicin
c. pterygospermin d. jatropine
155. Examples of physical control of pests except

a. soil drenching of hot water b. soil fumigation
c. wrapping of fruits d. modified atmosphere storage
156. Considered as the number one world worst weed due to the reported
number of crops affected and difficulty in weed control
a. cogon b. aguingay
c. purple nutsedge d. lantana
157. Other plants utilized in biofumigation to control soil borne

pathogens except
a. tagetes b. kamantigue
c. kakawate d. rice
158. Practices that control golden apple snail

a. handpicking b. destroying egg mass
c. herding ducks d. all answers are correct
159. Practices that control rats

a. use of blue torch b. use of bait
c. rat campaign d. all answers are correct
160. Quarantine pests are controlled by inspection and

certification
a. true b. not true
c. uncertain d. not sure
161. Brown planthoppers could be managed by cypermethrin

insecticide
a. true b. not true
162. Practices to manage corn borer include

a. detasseling b. synchronous planting
c. use of Trichogramma d. all answers are correct
163. Practices to manage rice tungro

a. planting resistant varieties b. synchronous planting
c. fallowing d. all answers are correct
164. Specific fungicide to control sheath blight of rice

a. Benomyl b. Iprodione
c. Mancozeb d. Chlorothalonil
165. Basically, pesticides are considered important inputs in agricultural
production
a. true b. not true
166. The Philippines is known today for “ tsunami of pesticides”

a. true b. not true
167. Root knot disease of vegetables can be managed by inhibitory

plants like
a. jatropha b. panyawan
c. kamantigue d. tagetes
168. IPM allows for a paper means of controlling pest

a. true b. not true c. uncertain d. not sure
169. Phytosanitary certificate and import permit can be used

interchageably
a. true b. not true
170. Physical and mechanical control can eliminate plant pathogens

a. true b. not true
171. Golden kuhol could be utilized as

a. fertilizer b. food
c. feed d. all answers are correct
172. The wisdom of nature farming technology came from

a. Dr. Naruto b. Dr. Higa
c. Dr. Cho d. Dr. Lee
173. Japanese scientist who worked on effective microorganisms

a. Dr. Naruto b. Dr. Higa
c. Dr. Cho d. Dr. Lee
174. The method of incorporating biological control agents in potato

seed pieces
a. Seed dip b. root dip
c. Tuber dip d. all answers are correct
175. Beneficial microorganisms used in biological control are best

prepared by
a. Fermentation b. putrefaction
c. Augmentation d. isolation
176. A fungus isolated from flies
a. Trichoderma b. Metarhizium
c. Beauveria d. Cordyceps
177. An important component of mangosteen which possess

antipesticidal property
a. xanthone b. rotenone
c. alpha terthienyl d. mangostenone
178. The use of organic compost fertilizer and bio inoculants is said the
closest alternative to natural farming
a. true b. not true
179. Most plants that repel pests possess strong odor
a. true b. not true
180. The best time to apply biological control agents

a. early morning b. late afternoon without rain
c. a & b are correct d. no answer is correct
181. The following are farming systems under organic agriculture except
a. sustainable farming b. ecological farming
c. modern farming d. traditional farming
182. Weeds also host pests and diseases that are spread to
cultivated crops
a. true b. not true
183. Rodents can be controlled by

a. repellent b. bait
c. trap d. all answers are correct
184. Mealy bugs in Cavendish banana for export can be removed by

washing with detergent before packing
a. true b. not true
185. The most common method of controlling rat population

a. rat trap b. repellent
c. poisoned bait d. all answers are correct
186. Biological control eliminates pest with minimal harm to the

ecological balance of the environment in its present form
a. true b. not true
187. The oldest method of weed control

a. flooding b. mulching
c. burning d. tillage
188. Practitioners of pest control are referred to as exterminators

a. true b. not true
189. A new insect pest of Bt corn in the US

a. corn earworm b. corn rootworm
c corn aphid d. corn planthopper
190. Considered as the first poisonous plant used as pest control

a. neem tree b. devil weed
c. panyawan d. derris
191. The following are coverings used to control weeds

a. wood chips b. black plastic
c. newspaper d. all answers are correct
192. The active ingredient of molluscicide

a. Iprodione b. Methyl Bromide
c. Zinc Phosphide d. Niclosamide
193. Electromagnetic pest repelling devices can affect nervous system of

rodents
a. true b. not true
194. Insectary plants help increase the population of beneficial insects

a. true b. not true
195. The following are used for weed control

a. vinegar b. organic approaches
c. Mucuna sp. d. all answers are correct
196. The following are general classifications of herbicides except

a. systemic poison b. soil borne poison
c. contact poison d. stomach poison
197. Companion planting as pest management strategy is also known as

intercropping or mixed cropping
a. true b. not true
198. The sterile insect technique whereby overwhelming numbers of

sterile male insects are released is a form of
a. insect resistance b. physical control
c. biological control d. mechanical control
199. Wood packaging materials for export of agricultural products are

fumigated to control boring insects
a. true b. not true
200. Pest control is at least as old as agriculture because of the need to

keep crops from pests
a. true b. not true
ANSWER KEY
(Approaches and Practices in Pest Management)
1. A 51. B 101. A 151. A

2. C 52. B 102. B 152. B
3. D 53. B 103. D 153. C
4. A 54. D 104. B 154. D
5. A 55. C 105. B 155. B
6. B 56. A 106. D 156. C
7. A 57. A 107. A 157. D
8. C 58. B 108. A 158. D
9. C 59. C 109. A 159. D
10. B 60. C 110. A 160. A
11. C 61. B 111. B 161. B
12. B 62. B 112. C 162. D
13. B 63. B 113. A 163. D
14. A 64. A 114. A 164. B
15. D 65. C 115. A 165. A
16. A 66. D 116. A 166. A
17. D 67. A 117. A 167. D
18. A 68. D 118. A 168. A
19. A 69. D 119. D 169. B
20. D 70. C 120. C 170. B
21. C 71. D 121. B 171. D
22. B 72. D 122. A 172. C
23. B 73. D 123. A 173. B
24. B 74. D 124. B 174. C
25. B 75. B 125. D 175. A
26. A 76. D 126. B 176. D
27. B 77. A 127. D 177. A
28. C 78. A 128. D 178. A
29. A 79. C 129. D 179. A
30. A 80. A 130. A 180. C
31. C 81. A 131. A 181. C
32. B 82. B 132. C 182. A
33. B 83. A 133. A 183. D
34. A 84. B 134. D 184. A
35. D 85. D 135. B 185. C
36. C 86. A 136. A 186. A
37. A 87. C 137. B 187. D
38. D 88. D 138. C 188. A
39. D 89. D 139. B 189. B
40. D 90. D 140. A 190. D
41. A 91. A 141. B 191. D
42. A 92. A 142. B 192. D
43. A 93. A 143. C 193. A
44. A 94. D 144. D 194. A
45. B 95. A 145. B 195. D
46. A 96. B 146. B 196. D
47. A 97. A 147. D 197. A
48. B 98. A 148. C 198. C
49. A 99. A 149. A 199. A
50. A 100. B 150. C 200. A
CROP PROTECTION
(Vertebrate Pests)
I. RODENTS
1. This is the most common species of rats known in Philippine rice fields. It
was
formerly referred to as Rattus rattus mindanesis:
a. Rattus tanezumi (Common field rat)
b. Rattus norvegicus (Norway rat, common in Iloilo paddy fields)
c. Rattus argentiventer (Asian rat, Mindanao and Mindoro Island)
d. Rattus exulans (Polynesian rat, upland crops)
2. Gnawing mammals include members of the Order:

a. Chiroptera b. Primates c. Rodentia d. Zoraptera
3. The biggest among the species of rats destructive

to agricultural crops:
a. Asian rice field rat b. Bush rat
c. Common rice field rat d. Norway rat
4. The following are factors affecting the population dynamics of rodents except:
a. birth rate b. emigration
c. fumigation d. immigration
5. The following are examples of chronic rodenticides except:

a. Dora b. Racumin
c. Warfarin d. Zinc Phosphide
6. The following are signs of rat infestation except:

a. damaged crops b. foot prints
c. heaps of soil w/ burrows d. nests w/ eggs
The following are characteristics of rodents except:

a. diurnal b. good climber
c. nocturnal d . with poor eyesight
8. The weaning age of rats

a. 21 days b. 20 day c. 23 days d. 24 days
9. Otherwise known as urban rat

a. Rattus argentiventer b. Rattus exulans
c. Rattus norvegicus d. Rattus rattus mindanensis
10. A kind of rodenticide that kills rodents gradually

a. acute rodenticide b. zinc phosphide
c. chronic rodenticide d. ZnP1080
11. The characteristic of rats in which they develop fear of new things
a. neophobia b. hydrophobia
c. insomia d. pseudophobia
12. The scientific name of the Phillippine house mouse

a. Mus musculus castaneous b. Rattus exulans
c. Rattus argentiventer d. Rattus norvegicus
13. Young rats become reproductively mature after

a. 75 days b. 80 days
c. 86 days d. 90 days
14. Population dynamics of rodents is more stable in

a. disturbed ecosystem b. rural areas
c. urban areas d. rice fields
15. The main mechanism by which rats can quickly repopulate crop lands
following population reduction
a. emigration b. immigration
c. fertilization d. reproduction
16. Rats are omnivorous animals but they prefer to feed on

a. cereal grains b. insects
c. root crops d. weeds
17. The following are predators of rats except

a. cats b. ducks
c. owls d. snakes
18. The rice stage usually damaged by rats is

a. seedling b. ripening
c. vegetative d. all of the above
19. The total rat species in the Philippines is

a. 10 b. 30
c. 20 d.40
20. Rats grind their teeth in order to

a. clean b. shorten
c. sharpen d. make noise
21. Rats are guided by their _______ when travelling at night

a. eyes b. whiskers
c. nose d. ears
22. The average lifespan of rats in cages is

a. 3 b. 5
c. 4 d. 6
23. The short life span of rats in the field is due to

a. lack of food b. predators
c. bad weather d. all of the above
24. Pre-baiting of rats is done to

a. provide food b. attract other rats
c. prevent crop damage d. all of the above
25. Among the rats the male : female ratio per litter is
a. 1:1 b. 1:3 c. 1:2 d. 1:4
26.The average number of litters delivered by a mother rat per year is

a. 1 b. 3 c. 2 d. 4
27. In using cylindrical materials like bamboo tubes in baiting rats, it should be
a. short b. open at one end
c. short d. open at both ends
28. The best time to do rat baiting is

a. before harvesting b. before planting
c. after harvesting d. after planting
29. Pregnancy period of female rats
a. one week b. two weeks
c. three weeks d. four weeks
30.Movement of female rats from its home ranges around_________

a. 1 ha b. 2 has
c. 3 has d. ½ ha
31. Movement of male rats from its home ranges

around_________
a. 1 ha b. 2 has
c. 3 has d. ½ ha
32. Nightly movement of rats is up to

a. 100 m b. 250 m
c. 500 m d. 750 m
33. How many time will a female rat give birth in a year?
a. 2 b. 3 c. 4 d. 5
34. Average life span of a rat

a. one year or longer
b. six months to more than a year
c. less than one year
d. six months
35. One female rat can produce and wean_______

offspring in a year
a. 12 b. 18 c. 24 d. 32
36. A pair of rats with their offspring can produce ____ rats in one year if food
and other
conditions are favorable
a. less than 500 rats b. more than 500 rats
c. less than 1000 rats d. more than 1000 rats
37. Pups grow rapidly and are ready to breed at ________

weeks of age
a. six weeks b. five weeks
c. four weeks d. three weeks
38. Average rats per litter

a. 6 b. 7 c. 8 d. 9
39. Size of levees to avoid rat burrows

a. 20 cm wide x 15 cm high
b. 15 cm wide x 20 cm high
c. 15 cm wide x 25 cm high
d. 25 cm wide x 15 cm long
40. Rats breed rapidly during

a. Dry season b. full moon
c. new moon d. wet season
41. Typical rat burrows have

a. principal entrance with one or more exits
b. two entrance and one exit
c. one entrance and one exit
d. an entrance but no exit
42. Typical rat burrows are ___________ ft long

a. 1-5 b. 6-10
c. 11-15 d. 16-20
43. These are the primary food of rats except one

a. rice b. corn c. other grains d.
cassava
44. These are manifestations of presence of rats except one:

a. missing hills b. tillers cut near the base
c. missing grains or panicles d. yellowing of plants
45. A trapping device advocated by PhilRice for rat control is the

a. Mouse Trap b. Trap Barrier System
c. Electronic Trap d. Pitfall Trap
II. GOLDEN APPLE SNAIL (GAS)
1. The golden apple snail originated from

a. United States b. South America c. North America d.
Africa
2. The first to acquire GAS in the Philippines was

a. Bio Research Institute, MM from Florida*
b . Rafael Atayde Hatchery at Lemery Batangas from Taiwan
c. Asturias Farm in Cebu from Argentina
d. all of the above
3. The chemicals used to control kuhol or GAS include

a. Brestan b. Aquatin
c. Tallustan d. all of the above
4. The specific chemical intended for snail control

a. acaricide b. herbicide
c. insecticide d. molluscicide
5. The scientific name of GAS

a. Achatina fulica b. Padde oryzivora
c. Pomacea caliculata d. Pila luzonica
6. The shell of the female adult snail

a. curves inward b. curves outward
c. all of the above d. none of the above
7. Female GAS operculum is

a. concave b. convex
c. all of the above d. none of the above
8.Egg incubation period of snails

a. 7-14 days b. 15-17 days c. 1-6 days d. 18-20 days
9. Life Cycle of GAS

a. 60 days b. 50 days c. 90 days d. 80 days
10. Egg hatching to maturity

a. 15-25 days b. 10-15 day c. 21 days d. 60 days
11. Growing period of snails

a. 44-59 days b.60 days c.70 days d.80 days
12. Reproductive period of snail

a. 60 days to 3 years b. 1 to 2 years
c. 2-3 years d. 3-4 years
13. Mating period of adult snails

a. more than 3 hours b. 1 hour
c. 30 minutes d. 2 hours
14. Frequency of mating

a. 3 to 4 x a week b. once a week
c. once a day d. once/month
15 Eggs of GAS are laid in

a. mass/clusters b. singly
c. lines d. circles
III. AVIAN PESTS
1. The Philippine Maya or black-headed munia is a bird species which feeds

voraciously on rice grains, is scientifically known as
a. Padde oryzivora b. Passer montanus
c. Aves oryzivora d. Lonchuria atricapilla jagori
2. An exotic bird which is feared to be a threat to agriculture is commonly

known as the Java sparrow and scientically known as
3. The house or tree sparrow is also considered a storage pest in warehouses

and a major pest of rice. It is scientifically known as

ANSWER KEY
(Vertebrate Pest)
GAS
RODENTS Avian Pests
(Golden Apple Snail)
1. A 26. D 1. B 1. D
2. C 27. D 2. A 2. A
3. D 28. B 3. D 3. B
4. C 29. C 4. D
5. C 30. B 5. C
6. D 31. C 6. A
7. A 32. C 7. A
8. A 33. C 8. A
9. C 34. A 9. A
10. C 35. C 10. A
11. A 36. B 11. A
12. A 37. A 12. A
13. D 38. A 13. A
14. C 39. B 14. A
15. B 40. D 15. A
16. A 41. A
17. B 42. A
18. D 43. D
19. B 44. D
20. C 45. B
21. B
22. C
23. D
24. B
25. A

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AGRICULTURISTS

The College of Agriculture of the University of Southern

Being CHED’s Center of Development in Agriculture, the

Purificacion O. Cahatian PhD.

Conrado C. Evangelista PhD.

Joeseph S. Quisado MSc.

Raquel B. Evangelista PhD.

Jaime C. Silvestre PhD.

Gloria L. Descalsota MSc.

1. The earliest known hexapod probably a Collembolan during the middle

2. The earliest known insect from the upper Devonian of Russia

3. In the classification ladder, genus are grouped into:

4. A tool that unlocks the door to identification of an unknown organism

6. The other term for Class Insecta, which means “six-legged” is

7. The primitively wingless insects are under Subclass

8. Wingless insects appeared during the Silurian Period. In what geological

9. He developed the binomial system of nomenclature

10. The acarologist who spearheaded research on mites in the Philippine

11. They are major insect pest of beans except

12. They are all important pests of citrus except

13. The most important insect pest of eggplant

15. The most important quarantine insect pest of mango

16. The vector of virus diseases in banana

17. The following are advantages of biological control except

18. The major organ for circulating the hemolymph of insects

23. Leafhoppers and aphids have this type of mouthpart

24. Houseflies have this type of mouthparts

27. The body cavity of insects is

30. Helicoverpa armigera armigera a polyphagous lepidopteran pest is

31. A kind of damage caused by the feeding of an insect through the

33. An insect which carries and transmits a disease causing organism to a

36. A kind of pest that has no significant damage under prevailing

42. This group of insecticides, in a way, could be considered a biological

45. The use of Tetrastichus brontispae on brontispa-infested coconut trees is

48. All are major insect pests of rice except

49. They are important insect pests of corn except

50. Popular hymenopterous parasitoid as biocon agent of corn borer eggs

Spray swath - 2 meters

53. The number of hours to spray one hectare

During calibration, a farmer walked a distance of 42 meters in one

57. What is the volume of spray solution per hectare?

58. What is the number of tank loads per hectare?

59. What is the time to spray one hectare

60. How long will it take to spray two hectares?

61. The scientific name of rice stem borer is

62. A substance in a product which is responsible of killing the target

63. A chemical substance which is produced by one organism which

66. The scientific name of citrus rind borer is

67. The first pair of wings among the beetles characterized as

72. Known as insect vectors of viruses causing tungro disease

73.________is caused by penetration of insecticide through the skin. It is

76. Setaceous type of antennae is bristle-like in which the segments

77. What type of antennae June beetle possessed?

79. In caterpillars, the pseudolegs are found on the

80. Which of the following is used to enclose the stylets or needles in

81. The part of the antennae containing several segments

83. The type of antennae of termites and some beetles is

84. Butterflies and moths have this type of metamorphosis

86. Insects breathe through

88. Insects that have one generation per year