2.2 - Swaps - Notes
2.2 - Swaps - Notes
The material in this reader is made available only for personal use
by the students of my Introduction to Options and Futures course at
Bocconi University. This reader or any portion thereof may not be
distributed, reproduced, or used in any manner whatsoever without
express written permission from the author.
6
Swaps
Note. We base part of the class discussion on this topic on the “Walt
Disney’s Yen Financing” case. For copyright reasons, I cannot write
up a detailed solution to the case here. Therefore, I will provide a
summary of the key learning points, without making direct reference
to the case itself. It goes without saying, you should also study the
case.
Preparation questions
4. How can you replicate (or hedge) an interest rate (or cur-
rency) swap?
6.1 Basics
receives LIBOR + 10.375% from the two firms, and pays 10.25% +
LIBOR – 0.125%, its net profit from the swap is 25 basis points too.
Over a $10 million principal, that amounts to $25,000 annually.
Spreads, surplus, and swap design Would we always be able to set up a swap as in this example?
That depends on the availability of a surplus that can be split among
the two swap counterparties and the swap bank. How can we as-
sess the surplus? In our example, we can see that Google can bor-
row at 1.25% less than Microsoft at fixed rate, but only 0.50% less at
floating rate. We say, therefore, that Google has a comparative ad-
vantage vis–à–vis Microsoft borrowing at fixed rate. The difference
1.25% − 0.50% = 0.75% is the surplus that the three parties in the
swap (Google, Microsoft, and the swap bank) can split.
In our example, we split it in equal parts, so that each obtained a
25 basis points gain; in general, the way it is split among the parties
will depend on a number of variables, notably bargaining power. If
the surplus equals zero, or if it is negative, we will not be able to
arrange a swap that benefits all parties — that means: we will not be
able to arrange a swap, period. As an exercise, design an alternative
version of the swap between Google, Microsoft, and the swap bank,
with a different distribution of the surplus.
The “comparative advantage” argument (and One interpretation of these facts is as follows. Due to some form of
criticism thereof)
debt market segmentation, some firms have a comparative advantage
borrowing at a fixed rate, and others at a floating rate; that creates
gains from trade, i.e. room for swaps. If this were true, however,
arbitrage activity should sooner or later eliminate the spreads, and
we shouldn’t see such a large market for interest rate swaps.
More likely, the differences in spreads spreads are due to the dif-
ferent nature of fixed and floating rates. In the floating–rate market
rates can be revised, typically every six months, to reflect e.g. in-
creased default risk. Since this is not possible for fixed rates, which
remain fixed for the life of the swap, often stretching over several
years. The risk of default over a long period of time for a lower–rated
company is higher than for a higher–rated company, whereas over a
shorter horizon their default risk might be similar; for that reason,
fixed–rate spreads are typically larger than floating–rate ones.
The next step is valuing interest rate swaps. As always, we are going
to apply no–arbitrage reasoning. As we have seen in the case of
forwards (and foreign exchange futures, and FRAs, and as we will
see for options), that reasoning can take the form of a “replicating
portfolio” approach, or a “hedging portfolio” approach. In the case
of swaps, we will use both.
Just like a forward, we know that at inception the swap must have
a value of exactly zero; otherwise, one of the parties involved would
refuse to enter the contract. The problem then is valuing the swap
some time after inception.
Approach 1: Replicating portfolio A first approach is to note that an interest rate swap is equivalent
swaps 39
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So, at the next reset date tn+1 , the floating rate receiver in the
swap receives k∗ . In addition, she also receives a claim to all fu-
ture payments on the floating leg of the swap. What is the value of
it? Observe that, since on date tn+1 the floating rate is reset based
on the rates prevailing in the market, she receives a bond paying
coupons tied to LIBOR; and that to value the bond, we should dis-
count these coupons at the LIBOR rate. That means: the bond she
receives must be trading at par. Denoting by L the swap’s notional
principal, therefore, the floating rate receives obtains L + k∗ at reset
date tn+1 . The value of this amount at some prior date t̃ is then
( L + k∗ ) exp{−rn+1 (tn+1 − t̃)}, where rn+1 is the zero rate associated
with reset date tn+1 .
Let’s make this more concrete with an example. Suppose we Example
are valuing a fixed–for–floating interest rate swap for 8% against
6–month LIBOR, with notional principal $100 million. The swap
makes semi–annual payments, and has a residual life of 1.25 years.
On the last reset date, the LIBOR rate was 10.2%. The term struc- Maturity Rate
ture of LIBOR rates is as reported in the table. As a first step, let’s 3 months 10.0%
compute the value of the fixed rate leg. Because the swap makes 9 months 10.5%
15 months 11.0%
semi–annual payments, at each reset date the fixed payments are
2 × 8% × $100 million = $4 million. The present value of the fixed
1
Note that on the final reset date the principal payment takes place
too. Next, the floating rate leg. Because LIBOR was 10.2% on the last
reset date, on the next reset date the floating rate leg pays a coupon
40 introduction to options and futures
1
2 × 10.2% × $100 million = $5.1 million. In addition, the claim on
the residual floating rate payments is a par bond, i.e. its value is
precisely $100 million. The present value of the total claims on the
floating rate leg is thus:
funding for £10 million, and BP needs $16 million. The two compa-
nies’ borrowing costs are as described in the table (this example is
fictional).
To understand whether there is a surplus that the companies can Surplus
split, suggesting benefits from a swap, in one example your textbook
simply takes the difference in spreads, similar to what we did in the
case of interest rate swaps. In most examples that we come across,
that approach will deliver the correct intuition. However, it does
seem surprising to subtract a British pound spread from a U.S. dollar
one; after all, those rates refer to different currencies.
In our class discussion, we considered an alternative way to assess
the spread. In the terms of our example, look at the total interest pay-
ments of IBM plus BP, first assuming that BP borrows in dollars, and
then assuming that BP borrows in pounds. Even though in absolute
terms BP’s dollar rate is lower than its pound rate, aggregate inter-
est payments are lower if BP borrows pounds. The swap, thus, can
benefit the two firms: the difference in total interest payments is the
surplus they can split.
£11.0% £12.0%
$8.0% £12.0%
A swap bank can arrange the swap terms as illustrated in Fig. 6.2.
IBM is to borrow from outside investors at a fixed U.S. dollar rate of
8.0%. It will then enter a swap with the bank, in which it will pay
£11.0%, receiving $8.0%. This is convenient for IBM, because as a
result of the swap its net borrowing cost becomes $8.0% + £11.0% −
$8.0% = £11.0%, i.e. £60 basis points cheaper than IBM could obtain
without the swap. Further, note that IBM has used the swap to turn
a U.S. dollar liability into a British pound one, as desired.
In a similar fashion, BP is to borrow from outside investors at
a fixed British pound rate of 12.0%. It will then enter into a swap
with the bank, in which it will pay $9.4%, receiving £12.0%. This is
42 introduction to options and futures
convenient for BP, because as a result of the swap its net borrowing
cost becomes £12.0% + $9.4% − £12.0% = $9.4%, i.e. $60 basis points
cheaper than BP could obtain without the swap. As for IBM, BP has
turned a British pound liability into a U.S. dollar one.
What’s in it for the bank? Because it receives $9.4% − $8.0% =
$1.4% on the U.S. dollar side (on $16 million), and pays £12.0% −
£11.0% = £1.0% on the British pound side (on £10 million), its net
exposure to the swap, at the current exchange rate of $1.60/£, is
$64,000. Put differently: the bank is long U.S. dollars, and short
British pounds. The bank can easily hedge this exposure, e.g. with
currency forwards.
We can value currency swaps in ways that are similar to interest rate
Approach 1: Replicating portfolio swaps. As before, we can view the swap as a portfolio of two bonds,
denominated in different currencies. Denoting by D the “domestic”
currency and F the “foreign” one (the names are just placeholders;
they can really be any two currencies), the value of the swap, from
the point of view of the domestic currency receiver, is then:
VSwap = BD − S0 ( D/F ) BF
where S0 ( D/F ) is the spot exchange rate at the time we make the
valuation. Clearly, the terms in the above expression are reversed if
we take the perspective of the “domestic” currency payer.
Example For instance, suppose that the term structure is flat in the U.S. and
in Japan, at r¥ = 4% and r$ = 9% with continuous compounding.
You would like to value a swap in which you are to receive ¥5% and
pay $8%, once a year. The notional principals are ¥1,200 million and
$10 million; the remaining life of the swap is 3 years, and the spot
exchange rate is S0 (¥/$) = ¥110/$.
The payments on the Yen bond are ¥60 each year. Combined with
the principal payment of ¥1,200 at maturity, their present value is
B¥ = ¥60 × e−5%×1 + e−5%×2 + e−5%×3 + ¥1, 200e−5%×3 = ¥1, 230.55.
Similarly, the present value of the U.S. dollar bond is B$ = $0.80 ×
(e−9%×1 + e−9%×2 + e−9%×3 ) + $10e−9%×3 = $9.64. Therefore, the
value of the swap to you is S0 (¥/$) × B¥ − B$ = ($0.0091/¥) ×
¥1, 230.55 − $9.64 = $1.54 million.
Approach 2: Hedging portfolio An alternative approach is to note that a position in the swap can
be hedged by a portfolio of currency forwards; thus the swap’s value
is equal to that of the hedging portfolio. Put differently: Assume that
forward (exchange) rates are realized in the future, and discount.
Example Going back to our example, we need to compute forward ex-
change rates using the familiar expression F = S0 e(r−r f )T . Simple
calculations yield F1 = $0.0096/¥, F2 = $0.0100/¥, F3 = $0.0106/¥.
The implied net swap cash flows (Yen inflows minus U.S. dollar out-
flows) are –$0.23, –$0.20, and $2.51 million; in present value terms,
again a $1.54 million value for the swap.
swaps 43
If you look back at the swaps described in Fig. 6.1 and 6.2, you realize
that the swap bank is hedged as long as both parties in the swap are
solvent. This is, by the way, the reason why banks can afford making
a market in plain vanilla swaps: they bear little risk, as long as fixed
and floating rate sides are approximately evenly balanced.
Suppose, however, that Microsoft defaults in the example of Fig. 6.1.
If at that time the swap has a positive value for the bank, the bank
bears a loss corresponding to the swap value. Does that mean that
if the swap has a negative value for the bank and Microsoft defaults,
the bank makes a gain? Not necessarily. More likely, Microsoft will
try to preserve the positive value of the swap in some way (e.g. sell
its contract to a third party); thus the bank simply does not make a
loss.
Case study