wch12 01 Rms 20220818
wch12 01 Rms 20220818
wch12 01 Rms 20220818
Summer 2022
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Summer 2022
Question Paper Log Number P70965A
Publications Code WCH12_01_2206_MS
All the material in this publication is copyright
© Pearson Education Ltd 2022
General Marking Guidance
All candidates must receive the same treatment. Examiners must mark
the first candidate in exactly the same way as they mark the last.
Mark schemes should be applied positively. Candidates must be rewarded
for what they have shown they can do rather than penalised for omissions.
Examiners should mark according to the mark scheme not according to
their perception of where the grade boundaries may lie.
There is no ceiling on achievement. All marks on the mark scheme should
be used appropriately.
All the marks on the mark scheme are designed to be awarded. Examiners
should always award full marks if deserved, i.e. if the answer matches the
mark scheme. Examiners should also be prepared to award zero marks if
the candidate’s response is not worthy of credit according to the mark
scheme.
Where some judgement is required, mark schemes will provide the
principles by which marks will be awarded and exemplification may be
limited.
When examiners are in doubt regarding the application of the mark
scheme to a candidate’s response, the team leader must be consulted.
Crossed out work should be marked UNLESS the candidate has replaced
it with an alternative response.
Using the mark scheme
Examiners should look for qualities to reward rather than faults to penalise. This does NOT mean
giving credit for incorrect or inadequate answers, but it does mean allowing candidates to be
rewarded for answers showing correct application of principles and knowledge. Examiners should
therefore read carefully and consider every response: even if it is not what is expected it may be
worthy of credit.
/ means that the responses are alternatives and either answer should receive full credit. ( ) means
that a phrase/word is not essential for the award of the mark, but helps the examiner to get the
sense of the expected answer.
Phrases/words in bold indicate that the meaning of the phrase or the actual word is essential to
the answer. ecf/TE/cq (error carried forward) means that a wrong answer given in an earlier part of
a question is used correctly in answer to a later part of the same question.
Candidates must make their meaning clear to the examiner to gain the mark. Make sure that the
answer makes sense. Do not give credit for correct words/phrases which are put together in a
meaningless manner. Answers must be in the correct context.
Question Answer Mark
number
1 (1)
The only correct answer is A (2Al(s) + 1½O2(g) → Al2O3(s))
B is incorrect because oxidising agents are reduced during a reaction so there is a decrease in oxidation number
C is incorrect because oxidising agents are reduced during a reaction so they gain electrons
D is incorrect because oxidising agents are reduced during a reaction so they gain electrons and there is a decrease
in oxidation number
A is incorrect because branching in the carbon chain reduces the boiling temperature of isomeric alcohols
C is incorrect because alkanes do not have hydrogen bonding and have lower boiling temperatures than alcohols
with a similar number of electrons
D is incorrect because alkanes do not have hydrogen bonding and have lower boiling temperatures than alcohols
with a similar number of electrons
Question Answer Mark
number
4 (1)
The only correct answer is B (potassium chlorate(III))
A is incorrect because hydrochloric acid does not react with ammonium ions
B is incorrect because hydrochloric acid does not react with ammonium ions
C is incorrect because ammonia is produced and it is alkaline so turns damp red litmus paper blue
A is incorrect because iodine is produced in the reaction and it is brown in aqueous solution but violet in a non-polar
organic solvent
B is incorrect because chlorine gas is green
C is incorrect because bromine is orange in a non-polar organic solvent
Question Answer Mark
number
9(a) (1)
The only correct answer is C (yellow to orange)
A is incorrect because the first titre should be higher than the other two titres
B is incorrect because the second and third titres should be concordant and lower than the first titre
D is incorrect because the second and third titres should be lower than the first titre
A is incorrect because the volumes have been used the wrong way round
C is incorrect because the mole ratio of 2 : 1 has not been used
D is incorrect because the mole ratio has been used as 2 H2SO4 : 1 NaOH
Question Answer Mark
number
10(a) (1)
The only correct answer is D (decreasing the activation energy of the reaction)
A is incorrect because only an increase in temperature causes the average kinetic energy of the molecules to increase
B is incorrect because only a decrease in temperature causes the average kinetic energy of the molecules to decrease
C is incorrect because if the activation energy increased, the rate of decomposition would decrease
A is incorrect because the volume of oxygen has not been converted into moles
B is incorrect because the 2 : 1 mole ratio has been used the wrong way around
C is incorrect because the 2 : 1 mole ratio has not been used
A is incorrect because Q is also primary alcohol and will be oxidised to a carboxylic acid
C is incorrect because R is a secondary alcohol and will be oxidised to a ketone
D is incorrect because R is a secondary alcohol and will be oxidised to a ketone and S is a tertiary alcohol so is not
easily oxidised
A is incorrect because [O] is needed from the oxidising agent and hydrogen gas would not be produced
B is incorrect because [O] is needed from the oxidising agent and hydrogen atoms would not be produced
D is incorrect because the oxidising agent is not oxygen gas
calculation of mol of CO2 (1) mol CO2 = 100 = 0.0041667 / 4.1667 x 10−3 (mol)
24 000
calculation of mol of HCl (1) mol HCl = 2 x 0.0041667 = 0.0083333 / 8.3333 x 10−3 (mol)
TE on M1
Allow any number between 16 and 16.7 cm3 / 0.016 and 0.0167
dm3 inclusive
TE on M2
Ignore SF except 1 SF
tangent drawn at t = 0 Tangent must touch the curve for at least 24 s (2 small squares
horizontally) and extend to at least 20 cm3
gradient Gradient = 100 = 0.27778 (expected value 0.25 to 0.33 for tangent
360 at t = 0)
TE on tangent drawn at any time value
If no tangent drawn, allow a selected point and y/x value e.g. 32/120
= 0.27
so there is less attraction (by the nucleus with a higher Allow greater shielding between the nucleus and the
charge) for the bonding electrons / shared pair of bonding electrons / shared pair of electrons
electrons (1) Note – bonding / shared pair can be mentioned anywhere
in the answer
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
16(b) An answer that makes reference to the following points: (2)
Allow oxidation numbers written near species in the
three oxidation numbers of I: equation
IO3− = (+)5
I− = −1 Ignore oxidation numbers of H and O
I2 = 0 (1) Do not award O.N. I2 is neutral / I− is −5
two different species / ions / compounds (of iodine) are Allow I2 / iodine is oxidised and reduced in the
oxidised and reduced (to form the same species) reverse reaction
or Allow (iodine in) IO3− is only being reduced
there is not one species / ion / compound that is being or (iodine in) I− is only being oxidised
oxidised and reduced
Ignore just ‘the reaction is only oxidation / reduction’
or
2 different oxidation states are not produced from one Ignore just ‘comproportionation’
oxidation state (of iodine) Ignore just ‘I / iodine is not simultaneously oxidised
or and reduced’
only one species / oxidation state of iodine is formed (1)
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
16(c) Example of table: (1)
Hydrogen halide Compound produced with
the lowest oxidation number
sulfur dioxide / sulfur (IV) oxide / SO2 produced from of sulfur
HBr (HBr) sulfur dioxide / SO2
and (HI) hydrogen sulfide / H2S
hydrogen sulfide / H2S produced from HI Ignore Br2 and I2
Note - If name and formula are given, both must be
correct
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
16(d) An explanation that makes reference to the Allow van der Waals’ forces / dispersion forces / attractions (4)
following points: between instantaneous dipoles and induced dipoles for
London forces or a description of London forces
all hydrogen halides have London forces (and Ignore London forces omitted from HF
dipole-dipole forces between molecules) (1) Do not award this mark if ions mentioned in answer
Do not award this mark if breaking H-Cl, H-Br or H-I bonds
the strength of the London forces increases Ignore the strength of the London forces increases as the size
as the number of electrons increases (so the of the molecule / Mr increases
boiling temperature increases from HCl to
HI)
or
the strength of the London forces increases as
the polarisability of the molecules increases
from HCl to HI (1)
(only) HF has hydrogen bonding (between Do not award M3 if hydrogen bonding in any other hydrogen
molecules) (1) halide
hydrogen bonding is (much) stronger than Allow more heat energy is needed to overcome hydrogen
London forces / dipole-dipole forces (so HF bonding than London forces
has the highest boiling temperature) (1) Allow hydrogen bonding is the strongest intermolecular force
/ bond
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
16(e) An answer that makes reference to the following point: Example of calculation: (3)
Method 1
calculation of mol of AgCl (1) mol AgCl = 0.226 = 0.0015760 / 1.5760 x 10−3
143.4
calculation of mass of Cl− (1) mass Cl− = 1.5760 x 10−3 x 35.5 = 0.055948 (g)
calculation of percentage of Cl− (1) % Cl− = 0.055948 x 100 = 57.09 / 57.1 / 57 (%)
0.098
OR
Method 2
calculation of % by mass of Cl in AgCl (1) % by mass of Cl in AgCl = 35.5 x 100 = 24.756 (%)
143.4
Ignore SF except 1 SF
secondary
primary
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
17(c)(i) (1)
ammonia (gas) would escape (from the condenser when Ignore just ‘ammonia will evaporate’
heated under reflux) Ignore concentrated alcoholic
or
to prevent ammonia (gas) escaping (from the condenser Ignore references to safety
when heated under reflux) Ignore just ‘gas / reactant escapes’
Do not award any other substance escaping
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
17(c)(ii) Penalise missing lone pair on N once only (4)
Penalise negative charge on NH3 once only
lone pair on N of NH3 Penalise half-arrow heads once only
and
curly arrow from lone pair on N to, or towards C (1)
dipole on C-Br
and
curly arrow from C-Br bond to, or just beyond, Br (1)
curly arrow from N-H bond to, or towards N (1) Do not award any charge / dipole on H
Ignore any changes to final products
Example of mechanism:
+ Br−
+ NH4+
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
17(d) Example of calculation: (3)
calculation of amounts of KBr and H2SO4 (1) amount KBr = 14.90 = 0.12521 (mol)
119
amount H2SO4 = 16.35 = 0.16667 (mol)
98.1
Allow use of 98 for Mr of H2SO4 giving 0.16684 (mol)
calculation of amount of C2H5OH amount C2H5OH = 4.65 = 0.10109 / 0.10 / 0.1 (mol)
and 46
statement or implication that this is the limiting and
quantity (1) any indication that the limiting reagent is C2H5OH e.g. by
use of mol of ethanol in M3
calculation of maximum mass of C2H5Br formed (1) (maximum amount C2H5Br formed = 0.10109 (mol)
maximum mass C2H5Br formed = 0.10109 x 108.9
= 11.008 / 11.01 / 11.0 / 11 (g)
Allow use of 109 for Mr of C2H5Br giving 11.018 (g)
The following table shows how the marks should be awarded for
structure and lines of reasoning.
Number of marks
awarded for
structure of answer In general it would be expected that 5 or 6
and sustained line of indicative points would get 2 reasoning marks, and
reasoning 3 or 4 indicative points would get 1 mark for
Answer shows a coherent and logical reasoning, and 0, 1 or 2 indicative points would
2
structure with linkages and fully score zero marks for reasoning.
sustained lines of reasoning
demonstrated throughout.
Answer is partially structured with 1
some linkages and lines of reasoning.
Answer has no linkages between 0 General points to note
points and is unstructured. If there is any incorrect chemistry, deduct mark(s)
from the reasoning. If no reasoning mark(s)
awarded do not deduct mark(s).
Comment:
Look for the indicative marking points first, then consider the
mark for structure of answer and sustained line of reasoning
Indicative content Penalise use of incorrect halogenoalkane once only
IP4 – Products
In aqueous solution propan-2-ol / an alcohol forms This can be scored from the equations
and
in ethanolic solution propene / an alkene forms
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
18(a)(ii) Example of equation: (2)
reactants
enthalpy Δ cH
products
progress of reaction
Allow energy / H / enthalpy level as label for y axis
y axis labelled enthalpy Do not award ΔH / enthalpy change / energy change as label for y
and axis
products line drawn at a lower level than
reactants line (1) Allow names / formulae of reactants and products but both must be
there e.g. C8H18 + O2 for reactants and CO2 + H2O for products
Ignore missing / incorrect balancing numbers if formulae given
Ignore label / missing label on x axis
Ignore activation energy hump(s)
downwards arrow labelled with ΔcH (1) M2 Conditional on reactants higher than products
Allow label as ΔH / −5461 / other label that indicates enthalpy
change of combustion / reaction
Do not award double headed arrow / or just a line with no arrow /
arrow labelled −∆H
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
18(a)(iv) Example of calculation: (3)
Method 1
calculation of energy given out by 1 g (1) enthalpy change / g = 5461 = 47.904 (kJ)
114
calculation of energy given out by 1 cm3 (1) enthalpy change / cm3 = 47.904 x 0.692 = 33.149 (kJ)
TE on M1
calculation of energy given out by 1 dm3 (1) enthalpy change / dm3 = 33.149 x 1000
= 33 149 / 33.149 x 103 (kJ)
TE on M2
Method 2
mass of 2,2,4-trimethylpentane in 1 dm3
= 0.692 x 1000 = 692 (g) (1)
mol in 1 dm3 = 692 = 6.0702 (mol) (1)
114
TE on M1
enthalpy change / dm3 = 6.0702 x 5461
= 33 149 / 33.149 x 103 (kJ) (1)
TE on M2
calculation of moles of ethanol used (1) amount of ethanol = 0.305 = 0.0066304 / 6.6304 x 10−3 (mol)
46
working for heat evolved per mole (1) heat evolved per mole = 5.5176 ( = 832.17)
6.6304 x 10−3
TE on M1 and M2
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
18(b)(iii) An answer that makes reference to any two of the following (2)
points:
incomplete combustion (of ethanol) (1) Allow insufficient oxygen for combustion
Ignore not all of the ethanol was burned
calculation does not take into account the heat capacity of the Allow some heat is used to heat up the beaker
beaker (1) Ignore thermometer
Ignore ethanol was impure
Ignore water was not stirred
Ignore no lid on beaker
Question
Answer Additional Guidance Mark
Number
18(c) Example of calculation: (3)
Method 1
calculation of bond energies of O−H bond energy O−H = 928/2 = (+)464 (kJ mol−1)
and and
C−H (1) bond energy C−H = 1740/4 = (+)435 (kJ mol−1)
calculation of bond energy of C−O (1) bond energy C−O = 2105 – (3 x 435) – 464
= (+)336 (kJ mol−1)
TE on M1
calculation of bond energy of C−C (1) bond energy C−C = 3322 – (5 x 435) – 464 −336
= (+)347 (kJ mol−1)
Method 2
3322 – 2105 = 1217 = C−C + 2 x C−H (1)
bond energy 2 x C−H = 1740/2 = (+)870 (kJ mol−1) (1)
C−C = 1217 – 870 = (+)347 (kJ mol−1) (1)
there are fewer (gas) molecules on the right hand side / more Allow moles for molecules
(gas) molecules on the left hand side (1) Allow 2 (gas) molecules on the left and 1 (gas)
molecule on the right
Allow higher pressure favours the side with fewer
(gas) molecules
so the equilibrium position will shift to the right / product side Allow forward reaction is favoured and
and the equilibrium yield of ethanol will increase
the equilibrium yield of ethanol will increase (1)
(Total for Question 18 = 20 marks)