ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM

1. What Is the difference between C8 And C18 HPLC column?

a. C8 more non-polar. b.C8 has 16 Carbon atoms
c. C8 is more efficient. d. C8 column is more polar than C18.
2. What is the use HPLC?
a. to identify component of mixtures b. to separate component of mixtures
c. to purify the analyte of interest d all of the above
3. What is a Base Line?
a. detectors’ response to the mobile phase b. detectors response to the stationary phase.
c. detectors response to the chromatogram d. all of the above
4. Which is not a source of Base line noise?
a. sample b. system problems c. temperature variations in lab d. volume of sample injected
5. Apparent changes in the pH solution when it is continuously used for 30 days without storage at 4
deg. C.
a. microbial growth b. unstable pH c. high in Nitrogenous substance d. all of the above
6. Both classical and instrumental methods can be used to determine the concentration of a specific
element or species in a compound. Which of the following pairs is the wrong combination of the type of
analysis with its characteristic?
a.Gravimetric analysis – mass b. Spectrophotometric analysis - density
c. Volumetric analysis – volume d. Potentiometric analysis – voltage
7. In complexometric titration, the most common used chelating agent is EDTA
(ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid). EDTA's molecules will combine with metals to form chelate. EDTA is
classified as a?
a. Bidentate ligand b. Hexadentate ligand c. Tetradentate ligand d. Monodentate ligand
8. In redox titration, what chemical substance is added to the iodometry and iodimetryanalysis
a. Starch b. Phenolphthalein c. Glucose d. Argentum
9. The extent of radiation absorbed by the absorbing species is a function of the path length and the
concentration of the absorbing species.
a. Beer-Lambert’s law b. Beer’s Law c. Lambert’s Law d. None of the above
10. Name a chloride of metal which dissolves in excess of ammonium hydroxide ?
a. Lead(II)chloride b. Copper(II)chloride c. Silver chloride d. Sodium chloride
11. Which of the following acids can be used to acidify silver nitrate solution for the test of halides?
a. Hydrochloric acid b. Dilute nitric acid c. Sulphuric acid d. Carbonic acid
12. After shaking the separating funnel, we should invert it and open the tap. Which of the following
statements is the purpose for the above procedure?
a. To extract the desired substances more efficiently. b. To mix the two solvent layers by air.
c. To get rid of the impurities. d. To release the pressure.
13. Which of the following statements about Mohr's method is INCORRECT?
a. The pH of the reaction mixture should not be too high to prevent the formation of undesirable
precipitates.
b. The pH of the reaction mixture should not be too low to prevent the conversion of chromate ions to
dichromate ions.
c. This method is used to determine the concentration of chloride ions in a water sample.
d. A bluish-green precipitate can be observed at the end point of the titration.
14. UV Spectrophotometer and Visible Spectrophotometer sample cells, respectively.
a. Quartz (crystalline silica) and Glass b. Glass and quartz (Crystalline silica)
c. test tube and cuvettes d. All
15. Which of the following is not true about galvanic method of oxygen analysis?
a) Electrodes are composed of noble and base metals b) It can measure dissolved content of oxygen
c) Its principle is based on electrolysis d) It utilizes an electronic cell
16. A portable photometer with a linear response to radiation registered 73.6 pA with the solvent in the
light path. The photometer was set to zero with no light striking the detector. Replacement of the
solvent with an absorbing solution yielded a response of 24.9 pA. Calculate the percent transmittance
of the sample solution.
a. 33.8% b. 33.7% c. 33.6% d.33.9%
17. Calculate the absorbance of the sample solution.
a. 0.267 b. 0.471 c. 1.471 d.0.265
18. Calculate the transmittance to be expected for a solution in which the concentration of the absorber
is one third that of the original sample solution.
a. 65% b. 69.6% c. 69.7% d.65.9%
19 To produce the proper monochromatic light necessary for the AAS, ____ are used.
a) hollow cathode lamps b) cuvettes c) electric rods d) probes
20. Which of the following is the full scale range of Infrared spectroscopy method used for measurement
of carbon monoxide?
a) 0-2 ppm b) 0-500 ppm c) 0-1 ppm d) 0-50 ppm
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM

21. Factors to be considered during preparation of the sample solution in Gravimetric Analysis?
a) pH b Temperature c) Volume of solution during precipitation d) All
22. In AAS, Ifsample concentration is too high to permit accurate analysis in linearity response range,
what should an analyst do?
a) sample dilution b) using an alternative wavelength having a lower absorptivity
c) reducing the path length by rotating the burner hand. d) All
23. If an analyte absorbs green, the color perceived is
a) red b) blue c) orange d) violet
24. Which of the following is not the characteristic of a reference electrode?
a) It must have a known output potential
b) It must have a constant output potential
c) Its output potential is dependent on the composition of the solution
d) It is employed in conjunction with the indicator or working electrode
25. Which of the following is the purpose of added membranes in the glass membrane of the glass
electrode?
a) They act as tightners b) They act as filters c) They act as conditioners d) They act as collectors
26. Which of the following is known as calomel?
a) Silver chloride b) Mercury chloride c) Potassium chloride d) Mercury sulphate
27. Which of the following is not a failure in pH meters?
a) Defective electrodes b) Defective input circuitry
c) Defective electronic circuitry d) Defective calibration
28. When UV light is absorbed by the fluor molecules the light emitted is in which of the following
colours?
a) Pink b) Red c) Green d) Blue
29. NMR spectroscopy is used for determining structure in which of the following materials?
a) Radioactive materials b) Insoluble chemical compounds c) Liquids d) Gases
30. NMR is the study of absorption of __________ by nuclei in a magnetic field?
a) Radioactive radiation b) IR radiation c) Radio frequency radiation d) Microwaves
31. NMR spectrometer provides ____________ and _____________ method of determining structure
in soluble chemical compounds.
a) Accurate, destructive b) Accurate, non-destructive
c) Inaccurate, destructive d) Inaccurate, non-destructive
32. Mass spectrometers are used to determine which of the following?
a) Composition in sample b) Concentration of elements in sample
c) Relative mass of atoms d) Properties of sample
33. ICP’s principle is similar to which of the following?
a) Flame emission spectroscopy b) Fourier transforms spectroscopy
c) Atomic emission spectroscopy d) Absorption spectroscopy
34. Which of the following is most often used in the chromatograph in gas chromatograph MS?
a) Curvette b) Paper support c) Capillary tube d) Flask
35. The chemical species that is being measured.
a. analyte b. matrix c. compound d. component
36. The liquid, solid or mixed material in which the analyte must be determined.
a. analyte b. matrix c. compound d. component
37. Powerful analytical instrument but suitable for volatile chemicals only.
a. HPLC b. IR c. GC d. NMR
38. Whish describes gravimetric analysis
a. Precipitate and weigh products b. very precise c. very limited d. all
39. If repeated measurements of the same thing are all very close to one another, then a measurement
is
a. Precise. b. accurate c. estimated d. all
40. Random error is a measure of:
a. precision. b. accuracy c. true value d. all
41. Difference between the mean of a population of measurements and the true value.
a. systematic errors b. random c. gross d. all
42. What optimizes the precision of a calibration curve determination?
a. Calibration and linear regression b. environment c. linear regression d. method
43. What is Absorbance in spectrophotometry.
a. nonlinear function of light power b. measured quantity
c. . how much light is absorbed by the sample d. all of the above
44. Light emission methods
a. Fluorescence (Xray –UV) b. NMR c. Chromatography d. All
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM

45. An analysis of the wavelength dependence of the absorbance or emission of light is called
a. Spectroscopy b. Potentiometry c. Gravimetry d. Electrochemical analysis
46. Adjustable wavelength selectors are called
a. monochromators b. PMT c. light sources d. Detectors
47. The near IR wavelength range
a. 190-400 nm b. 400-750 nm c. 750-2500 nm d. a and c
48. What is the path of light through a spectrophotometer?
a. meter, photodetector, filter, sample, light source
b. meter, filter sample, photodetector, light source
c. light source, filter, sample, photodetector, meter
d. light source, sample, filter, photodetector, meter
49. Most significant use of IR spectrophotometer
a. structural analysis b. molecular weight c. atomic structure d. separation of compounds
50. Basically, what is the function of an absorption spectrum?
a. converts light energy into electrical energy c. graph of a chem’l relating the abs to conc
b. graph of a chem’l relating the abs to λ d.amount of radiation retained by a sample
51. Beer's Law states that;
a. Absorbance is proportional to both the path length and concentration of the absorbing species
b. Absorbance is proportional to the log of the concentration of the absorbing species
c. Absorbance is equal to P0 / P
d. Transmittance is inversely proportional with P.
52. Organic solvents that may be used to remove grease films.
a.Formaline b. benzene c. toluene d. chloroform
53. With a “standard” sample with a known absorbance and concentration and a measured absorbance,
it is easy to determine an unknown concentration of †the same substance by.
a. Beer’s Law b. Beer-Lambert’s Law c. Nerst equation d. Boyle’s Law
54. The scale of a spectrophotometer extends from 1 to 100% T, what are the values of these two
extremes in absorbance?
a. 0, 2.0 b. 2.0, 0 c. 0, 1.99 d. 1.99, 0
55. If the %T is actually 0, what is the value of the absorbance?
a. 2.0 b. infinite c. 1.99 d. 1.0
56. At 425 nm a 1.2 x 10-3 M solution of compound Q has Absorbance = 0.879. Another solution of Q is
prepared by diluting 25.00 mL of the 1.2 x 10-3 M Q to a total volume of 100.00 mL. What is the
Absorbance of the new solution at 425 nm?
a. 0.21 b. 0.22 c. 0.33 d.0.12q
57. Calculate the velocity, frequency, and wavelength of the sodium D line (589 nm) as light form this
source passes through a species whose refractive index, nD, is 1.09.
a. 140 nm b. 540 nm c.555 nm d. 640 nm
58. A solution contains 3.0mg Fe2+/L. The Fe2+ is converted into a complex with 1,10phenanthroline
and the absorbance of the solution in a 1.0 cm cell is 0.60. The MW of the complex is 596. Calculate the
absorptivity.
a. 1.1x104 b. 1.1x105 c. 1.4x103 d. 1.4x102
59. Carbon monoxide (CO) can be determined at trace levels using IR absorption spectrophotometry.
Using a 100.0-cm pathlength gas cell, a standard containing 10.0 ppm CO gave an absorbance of 0.050 at
2170 cm-1. Calculate the concentration (ppm) of a gas sample, analyzed using the same gas cell, which
gives an absorbance of 0.005 at the same wavenumber. Assume the system obeys Beer’s Law over the
concentration range investigated.
a. 1.5 ppm b. 2.0 c. 1.8 d. 1.0
60. At 510 nm, the iron orthophenanthroline complex has a molar absorptivity of 1.2 x 104. What is the
concentration of iron (in ppm) in a solution which gives an absorbance of 0.002 in a 1.00-cm path length
cell?
a. 7.3 x 10-3 ppm b.8.3 x 10-3 ppm c. 9.3 x 10-3 ppm d.6.3 x 10-3 ppm
61. Interaction of solute molecules (or atoms or ions) with the surface of the stationary phase.in
Chromatography.
a. Adsorbtion b. absorption c. desorption d. All
62. Phase which sample is dissolved in may be gas, liquid, or supercritical fluid
a. Stationary phase b. Mobile phasec. lag phase d. none
63. Chromatography separates components in mixtures based on:
a. polarity and boiling point b. ionic strength c. size d. All
64. A graph showing the detectors response as a function of elution time.
a. standard calibration graph b. QC graph c. Chromatogram d. All
65. A known amount of a compound, different from analyte, that is added to an unknown.
a. internal standard b. primary standard c. reference standard d. none
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
66. Carried out on glass plates or strips of plastic or metal coated on one side with a thin layer of
adsorbent (use natural chemistry)
a. GC b. TLC c. HPLC d. LC-MS
67. Which describes Gravimetric Analysis?
a. To measure the purity and an accurate analytical technique
b. It is an ABSOLUTE method
c. Precise methods of macro quantitative analysis and possible sources of errors can be checked.
d. ALL
68. A solution containing 4.48 ppm KMnO, had a % transmittance of 30.9% in a 1.00 cm cell at 520 nm.
Calculate the molar absorptivity of KMnO, at 520 nm.
a. ε = 1.80x104 L mol-1 cm-1 b. ε = 1.890x104 L mol-1 cm-1
c. ε = 1.95x104 L mol-1 cm-1 c. ε = 1.98x104 L mol-1 cm-1
69. A photometer which uses a filter as a wavelength selector used in the visible range as samples must
be colored.
a. Colorimeter b. Visible spectrophotometer c. UV-Vis spectrophotometer d. IR
70. Balance that has a capacity of 1 to 3 g and a precision of 0.001mg.
a. Semi-micro analytical b. Macro-analytical c. spring-balance d. top-loading
71. Chemical drying agent (desiccants)
a. anhydrous calcium chloride or calcium sulfate b. magnesium perchlorate
c. phosphorus pentoxide. d. All
72. Which affects pipetting accuracy
a. Temperature and pressure b. Volume and pH
c. Humidity and volume of sample d. None of the above
73. Most accurate pipets with well defined tolerance limits.
a. Automatic Pipets b. Class A c. Class B d. Serological pipets
74. The rounded or approximate value of a characteristic of a measurement instrument that provides a
guide to use.
a. True value b. Nominal value c. Numerical value d. Guaranteed value
75. What acids are used to treat Ashless paper to remove metallic impurities and silica.
a. HCl and HF b. HCN and HF c. Sufuric acid and HF d. HCL and Nitric Acid
76. A heavy duty electric furnace capable of maintaining controlled temperatures of 1100oC or higher
used in gravimetric tests.
a. Muffle Furnace b. Graphite Furnace c. Oven d. All
77. Volumetric glassware is calibrated by measuring the mass of a liquid of known ______ and ______
that is contained in the volumetric ware.
a. volume and density b. density c. concentration and density d. density and temperature
78. All reagents shall be properly stored according to manufacturer’s instructions.. ______requires
temperature conditions up to 30 oC.
a. Cold storage b. Frozen storage c. Ambient Storage d. STP
79. Characterization of the entire sample.
a. bulk analysis b. surface analysis c. structural analysis d. physical analysis
80. Characterization of the entire sample.
a. bulk analysis b. surface analysis c. structural analysis d. physical analysis
81. Which is not a classical method?, distillation, boiling or melting points,
a. precipitation and extraction b. gravimetric and titrimetric measurements
c. distillation d. conductivity
82. Similar in chemical composition to the sample but without the analyte
a. matrix blank b. reagent blank c. instrument blank d. surrogate blank
83. Composed of 1-20 samples of the same quality systems matrix, meeting the above mentioned
criteria and processed within 24 hours
a. Preparation batch b. Analytical batch c. Sampling Batch d. None of the above
84. A change in the analytical signal caused by anything in the sample other than analyte.
a. Matrix effect b. sampling error c component effect d. intrument’s noise effect
85. Samples are ______, but constituents or concentrations are ______.
a. analyzed, determined b. determined, analyzed c. checked, tested d. tested, analyzed
86. Quantitative amount of a test portion of sample solution.
a. standard b. specimen c. reference d. aliquot
87. Trapping an analyte out of the gas phase
a. filtering b. scrubbing c. grab d. tapping
88. The total error of an analytical result is the sum of sampling, sample preparation and analytical
errors.
a. sampling error b. random error c. systematic error d. indefinite error
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
89.Sampling technique in which sample units are selected so that all combinations of n units under
consideration have an equal chance of being selected as the sample.
a. random sampling b. analytical sampling c. bias sampling d. bulk sampling
90. Homogenization can be achieved using:
a. mechanical devices b. enzymatic methods c. chemical methods d. All
91. Sample holding time for preserved samples for metal determination
a. 3 mos b. 1 year c. 6 mos d. 2 mos
92. Acids commonly used in sample dissolution and digestion:
a. HCl, HNO3, H2SO4 b.Acetic Acid, HF, HCN c. H3PO4, HF and HClO4 d. All
93. Heating a finely powdered solid sample with a finely powdered salt at high temperatures until
mixture melts
a. Molten salt fusion b. base fusion c. digestion d. dissolution
94. Burning an organic material in air or oxygen
a. wet ashing b. dry ashing c. ignition d. All
95. Defined as metals in an acidified sample retained by a 0.45 µm membrane filter
a. Total metals b. Suspended metals c. Dissolved Metals d. All
96. The maximum holding time for acid preserved samples that will be subjected to determination of
metals is
a. 3 months b. 1 week c. 6 months d. 48 hours
97. A fraction of the sample actually used in the final laboratory analysis.
a. composite sample b. sub-sample c. laboratory sample d. a, b and c
98. A change in the analytical signal caused by anything in the sample other than analyte.
a. matrix effect b. interference c. absorbance d. transmittance
99. Medium containing analyte.
a. reactant b. matrix c. solute d. reference material
100. Nearness of a measurement to its true value or accepted value C
a. accurate but precise precision b. accuracy c. assayed controls d. All
101. The ability of an analytical method to measure solely the analyte it intends to measure.
a. Iophilized b. Precision c. Specificity d.Standard use
102. Specimens or materials which are analysed solely for quality control purposes and are not used for
calibration purposes.
a. quality control (QC) b. storage of reagents c. control materials d. constant systematic error
103. Error is consistently low or high by the same amount caused by the presence of interfering
substances in the sample or reagents.
a. homemade controls b. constant systematic error c. control materials d. None
104. sample average significantly different from true value with a large %CV
a. diagnostic specificity b. analytical specificity c. inaccurate and imprecise d. predictive value position
105. how well tests are reproduced. one measure is percent coefficient of variation %CV. The smaller
the %CV, the more precise the test.
a. precision b. specificity c. median d. sensitivity
106. Specimens or materials which are analysed solely for quality control purposes and are not used for
calibration purposes.
a. constant systematic error b. homemade controls
c. control materials d. post-analytical factors
107. any bias that effect which introduces error into a laboratory procedure or result (i.e. environment.
Methods of observation, instruments used.
a. systematic variation affecting laboratory result
b. systematic error
c. pre-analytical factors
d. lab testing and federal regulation
108. A portion of a whole sample taken to determine the quantitative composition of the whole
a. Error b. analyte c. aliquot d. quality control (QC)
109. Process by which laboratory uses an outside unbiased source to verify the quality of patient results
a. Control b. External QC c. Interlab (Internal QC) d. Sensitivity
110.Occurs when the data set can be accurately described by the SD and the mean. Occurs when the
data elements are centered around the mean. Focuses on the distribution of errors
a. Quality improvement b. Quality Control c. Youden Graph d. Gaussian Curve
111. Is a solution that contain a known amount of an analyte and is used to calibrate an assay method
a. Quality assurance b.Qualityimprovement c. Calibrator/Standard d. Quality Assessment
112. Defined as the limits between we expect a specified portion of a population lie
A. Standard Deviation b. Range c. Confidence interval d. Proficiency Testing
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
113. Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing caustic soda?
a. Potassium Hydroxide b. Ammonia c. Hydrochloric Acid d. Buffer 10 Solution
114. This chemical is usually used to disinfect waste containing microbial organisms.
a. Chlorine b. sodium chloride c. sodium sulfate d. fluorine
115. Which of the following are possible routes of exposure of the hazardous effect of waste?
a. Inhalation B. Dermal C. Ingestion D. all of the above
116. Which of the following chemicals may be used to neutralize waste containing phosphoric acid?
A. hydrochloric acid B. sodium hydroxide C. distilled water D. acetone
117. Symbols indicated in waste labels that instantly identify the kind of hazard the chemical possesses
A. Signal Words B. Pictogram C. Precautionary Statements D. Hazard Statement
118. Which of the following waste is classified as halogenated waste?
A. Waste containing toluene B. Waste containing dichloromethane
C. Waste containing acetone D. Waste containing ammonia
119. Which of the following waste is classified as non-halogenated waste?
A. Waste containing acetonitrile B. Waste containing chloroform
C. Waste containing polychlorinated hydrocarbons D. Waste containing bromine
120. Which of the following waste is not classified as inorganic waste?
A. Waste containing mercury B. Waste containing lead
C. Waste containing arsenic D. Waste containing acetonitrile
121. What is the minimum concentration of cyanide contained in a waste to be classified it under A101(
wastes containing cyanide )?
A. 20 ppm B. 100 ppm C. 200 ppm D. 1000 ppm
122. According to Revised DAO 04-36, the appropriate waste labels shall include:
A. Volume of Waste B. Generator ID Number C. Container Material D. All of the above
123. Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, a base is
A. a proton donor B. a proton acceptor C. a hydroxide donor D. an electron pair donor
124. Under the Lewis concept of acids and bases, an acid is
A. a proton donor B. a proton acceptor C. An electron pair donor D. an electron pair acceptor
125.Under the Bronsted concept of acids and bases, an acid is
A. a proton donor B. a proton acceptor C. an electron pair donor D. an electron pair acceptor
126. Which of the following is NOT an acid-base conjugate pair?
A. HCN and CN− B. H2O and OH− C. H2S and OH− D. NH3 and NH4+
127. Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction: HCl(aq) + NaOH(aq) →
A. H3O+(aq) + OH− B. Na+(aq) + Cl−(aq)
C. NaCl(aq) + H2O(l) D. no reaction takes place
128. Predict the products of the following acid-base reaction: NH3(aq) + HNO3(aq) →
A. NH2OH(aq) + HNO2(aq) B. NH4NO3(aq)
C. NH4OH(aq) D. no reaction takes place
129. What effect will addition of excess of HCl have on the pH of a solution of NH3?
A. increase the pH B. decrease the pH
C. no effect D. cannot tell from information given
130. What effect will addition of sodium acetate have on the pH of a solution of acetic acid?
A. increase the pH B. decrease the pH
C. no effect D. cannot tell from information given
131. A solution that causes only a relatively small change in pH upon addition of small amounts of acids
and bases is
A. Saturated B. a salt C. a buffer D. unsaturated
132. Which of the following is buffer?
A. NaCl/NH4Cl B. NH3/NH4Cl
C. NH3/CH3COOH D. CH3COOH/NaOH
133. A buffer solution may be a mixture of
A. a weak acid and its salt B. a weak base and its salt
C. an excess of a weak acid with a strong base D. all of the above
134. The conjugate base of acetic acid is
A. HCOOH B. NH3 C. CH3COO− D. OH−
135. The conjugate acid of ammonia is
A. H3O+ B. NH4+ C. HCOOH D. OH−
136. The effect produced by an ion, say from a salt, which is the same ion produced by the dissociation
of a weak acid or base is called
A. colloidal effect B. precipitation effect
C. common ion effect D. ligand effect
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
137. A principle which states that if stress is applied to a system at equilibrium, the equilibrium is shifted
in the direction that tends to reduce the stress.
A. Heisenberg Uncertainty Principle B. Le Chatelier’s Principle
C. Hund’s Rule D. Debye-Huckel Principle
138. Water cannot function as which one of the following?
A. a Bronsted acid B. a Bronsted base C. a Lewis acid D. a Lewis base
139. HCOOK is a/an
A. acid B. base C. salt D. oxide
140. When a strong acid is titrated with a weak base, the pH at the equivalence point is
A. basic B. acidic C. Neutral D. None
141. When a strong acid is titrated with a strong base, the pH at the equivalence point is
A. basic B. acidic C. Neutral D. None
142. When NH4Cl hydrolyzes, the resulting solution is
A. acidic B. basic C. neutral D. None
143 . We have a 5.43 x 10−4 M solution of HNO3 at 25oC. What is the [OH−] in this solution?
A. 1.84 x 10−11 M B. 5.43 x 10−10 M C. 5.43 x 10−4 M D. 3.67 x 10−6 M
144. What is the pH of a 5.82 x 10−3 M solution of NaOH at 25oC?
A. 4.76 B. 11.76 C. 7.00 D. 2.45
‒5
145. The pH of a 0.20 M NH3 solution is Kb (NH3) = 1.8 x 10
A. 0.70 B. 2.73 C. 11.28 D. 6.99
146. The pH of a solution is 6.38. The hydrogen ion concentration is
A. 4.17 x 10−7 M B. 4.17 x 10−6 M C. 6.38 x 10−6 M D. 0.638 M
147. What is the [H3O+] of a 0.100 M solution of HCN at 25oC? Ka (HCN) = 4.0 x 10−10
A. 1.58 x 10−8 M B. 2.00 x 10−5 M C. 6.32 x 10−6 M D. 4.00 x 10−11 M
o
148. A 0.200 M solution of an acid, HA, has a pH of 2.70 at 25 C. What is Ka for this acid?
A. 2.21 x 10−4 B. 4.55 x 10−6 C. 1.99 x 10−4 D. 2.00 x 10−5
149. What is the pH of a 0.52 M solution of CH3COONa at 25 C? Ka (CH3COOH) = 1.76 x 10−5
o

A. 9.23 B. 4.77 C. 9.37 D. 10.21

150. A buffer solution is 0.50 M with respect to acetic acid, CH3COOH and 0.50 M with respect to
sodium acetate, CH3COONa. Ka (CH3COOH) = 1.76 x 10-5. Assuming no volume change, the pH of the
solution is
A. 4.74 B. 9.26 C. 4.00 D. 10.00
151. In choosing the right buffer system, the pKa of the weak acid or base should be
A. way above the desired pH B. way below the desired pH
C. closest to the desired pH D. nowhere near the desired pH
152. Which equation correctly describes the relationship between Kb&Ka for a conjugate acid/base pair
?
A. Kb = Kw x Ka B. Kb= Kw/Ka C. Kb = Ka/Kw D. Kb = Kw + Ka
153. Which acid would have the STRONGEST conjugate base?
A. HIO3 Ka = 0.16 B. HC2O4− Ka = 5.4 x 10−5 C. H3AsO4Ka = 6.0 x 10−3 D. C6H5OH Ka = 1.0 x 10−10
154. Which Kinetic Molecular Theory rationale explains why the pressure increases when the
temperature increases in a sealed container at constant volume?
a. The number of gas particles increases, thus increasing the frequency of collisions with the
wall of the container.
b. The average kinetic energy increases, so the gas particles hit the wall of the container with
greater force.
c. The surface area of the wall decreases, so the gas particles the hit the wall of the container
more often.
d. The number of gas particles increases, thus forcing the wall of the container to expand until
the pressure inside balances the pressure outside.
155. What is the volume of 0.100 mole of He in a balloon at 25°C and 755 mm Hg?
a. 0.0395 L b. 2.46 L c. 0.0273 L d. 0.207 L
156. As a bubble of air rises from a diver’s helmet to the surface of the water, it continuously
expands. This illustrates
a. Boyle’s Law c. Charles’ Law
b. Avogadro’s Law d. Graham’s Law of Diffusion
157. What happens to the volume of a fully inflated balloon when it is taken on a cold day?
a. the volume decreases c. the volume increases
b. remains the same d. the volume is zero
158. If a gas is compressed from 4 liters to 1 liter and the temperature remains constant, what
happens to the pressure?
a. pressure will increase four times c. pressure will remain the same
b. pressure will remain the same d. pressure will be 4 atm
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
159. When a fixed volume of gas at a specific temperature is heated until its temperature is twice its
original , the pressure exerted by this gas will be
a. doubled b. still the same c. reduced by half d. 760 mm Hg
160. At the same temperature and pressure, equal volumes of all gases
a. contain 6.02x 1023 molecules b. contain equal number of molecules
c. will have the same mass d. will experience ideal gas behavior
161. At constant temperature and pressure, the rate of diffusion of a gas varies
a. inversely as its density b. directly as its molecular mass
c. directly as the square root of its density d. inversely as the square root of its molecular mass
162. Which ideal gas relationship is NOT TRUE?
a. Pressure is directly proportional to moles. (P ∞ n)
b. Volume is directly proportional to moles. (V ∞ n)
c. Pressure is directly proportional to Volume. (P ∞ V)
d. Pressure is directly proportional to Temperature. (P ∞ T)
163. A drunk driver hit a tree while driving. His air bag inflated according to the equation shown:
2NaN3(s) → 2Na(l) + 3N2(g) If the air bag contained 65.0g of NaN3 (65) before the collision, what
volume in L of N2(g) is formed at 1.00 atm at 35°C?
a. 1.50 L b. 4.30 L c. 37.9 L d. 187 L
164. Many industrial gases are stored in compressed gas cylinders under high pressures. Calculate the
mass in kg of Helium, He (4.0) that could be stored in a cylinder with a volume of 60.0 L at
25°C and 180 atm.
a. 1.35 kg of He b. 1.77 kg of He c. 441.3 kg of He d. 5264.44 kg of He
165. What is the density of NO(g) (30.0) at 25°C and 783 mm Hg?
a. 1.26 g/L b. 2.68 g/L c. 3.12g/L d. 3.76g/L
166. As altitude increases, air becomes less dense and
a. pressure increases c. pressure remains the same
b. pressure decreases d. none of the above
167. The standard pressure of the atmosphere at sea level is
a. 1 atm b. 760 mm Hg c. 760 torr d. all of the above
168. Hydrogen gas escapes from a porous container twice as rapidly as helium gas escapes from the
same container. This illustrates
a. Charles’ Law b. Dalton’s Law c. Graham’s Law of Diffusion d. Boyle’s Law
169. The total volume of an average adult lungs when expanded is about 6 liters. Calculate the
pressure of oxygen inhaled if 0.05 mole of oxygen is needed to fully fill a pair of average adult
lungs at a normal body temperature of 370C.
a. 0.0253 atm b. 2.58 atm c. 0.212 atm d. 0.308 atm
170. A gas with a volume of 4.0 L at a pressure of 0.80 atm is allowed to expand until the pressure
drops to 0.20 atm. What is the new volume of the gas?
a. 1.6 L b. 0.6 L c. 1.0 L d. 16 L
171. The volume of a gas is 300 ml at 740 torr and 250C. What is its volume at STP?
a. 26.76 ml b. 267.65 ml c. 2.676 ml d. 26760 ml
20
172. A 20-vessel of Ne contains 2 x 10 molecules and a 20-liter vessel of Ar at the same
temperature and pressure contains 2 x1020 molecules. This illustrates
a. Avogadro’s law b. Dalton’s law c. Boyle’s law d. Charles’ law
0
173. For 1000 liters of chlorine gas at 15 C and 1 atm pressure, calculate the temperature at which the
volume would be equal to 200 liters. The pressure remains constant.
a. 57.6 K b. 56.7 K c. 576 K d. 5.76 K
174. A solution with a pOH of 10 is a/an
A. Acid b. Salt c. Base d. Neutral
175. The maximum amount of solute that will dissolve in a definite amount of solvent to produce a
stable system at a specified temperature is
a. dilution b. concentration c. Solubility d. none of the above
176. A solution that contains more than the maximum amount of solute that the solvent can normally
dissolve is
a. saturated b. supersaturated c. Unsaturated d. diluted
177. What is the relationship between pressure and the solubility of gases in liquids?
a. directly proportional c. no relationship
b. inversely proportional d. no relationship
178. The attachment of solvent molecules to solute molecules is called
a. digestion b. hydration c. Solvation d. dilution
179. The solubility of a gas in a liquid decreases with
a. increasing temperature c. increasing pressure
b. decreasing temperature d. increasing volume
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
180. A liquid will boil
a. if the vapor pressure of the liquid equals 100 mm Hg
b. when the vapor pressure of the liquid equals the atmospheric pressure
c. bonds are broken
d. intermolecular forces in the liquid are greater than those found in the surrounding air
181. Which of the following hastens the rate of solution?
a. pulverization b. scratching the sides of the container c. Seeding d. cooling
182. Which of the following solutes will produce the highest boiling point of solution when
dissolved in water?
a. 2 moles of NaCl c. 1 mole of MgCl2
b. 1 mole of ethanol d. 2 mole of methanol
183. What is boiling point elevation?
a. It is the difference between the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution
b. It is the sum of the boiling points of a pure solvent and a solution
c. It is the difference between the boiling points of a pure solute and a pure solvent
d. It is the boiling point of a solution
184. The excess pressure required to stop the flow and keep the solution in equilibrium with the
pure solvent is
a. osmotic pressure c. partial pressure
b. vapor pressure d. atmospheric pressure
185. The separation of a mixture of substances into pure components on the basis of their differing
solubilities is
a. fractional crystallization c. vacuum distillation
b. steam distillation d. fractional distillation
186. Molecular oxygen is highly soluble in the blood because:
a. the solubility of oxygen is increased by the higher temperature of the body
b. the hemoglobin molecule can bind up to four oxygen molecules
c. pressure is increased inside the body
D. None of the above
187. A fatal condition known as “bends” occur when a diver ascends too quickly to the surface of the
water. This is due to :
a. nitrogen in the blood boiling off too rapidly as its partial pressure decreases, forming
bubbles in the blood
b. lack of oxygen in water at depths of more than 15 meters
c. the solubility of oxygen is very much decreased at greater depths
d. the solubility of oxygen decreases in the blood as the diver ascends
188. A procedure for separating liquid components of a solution that is based on their differing boiling
points is
a. fractional crystallization c. fractional distillation
b. steam distillation d. vacuum distillation
189. The net movement of solvent molecules through a semipermeable membrane from a pure solvent
or from a dilute solution to a more concentrated solution is
a. osmosis c. reverse osmosis
b. diffusion d. effusion
190. The reactant which is present in the smallest stoichiometric amount and which limits the amount
of product that can be formed is
a. the reagent with the least number of grams
b. the limiting reagent
c. the reagent in excess
d. the reagent with the most number of grams
191. A solution is prepared by dissolving 464 g of NaOH (40) in water and then diluting to one liter. The
density of the resulting solution is 1.37 g/ml. The % mass of NaOH is
a. 33.87% b. 11.6% c. 50.33% d. 12.80%
192. The molarity of the solution is
a. 33.87 M b. 12.80 M c. 11.6 M d. 50.33 M
193 . The molality of the solution is
a. 33.87 m b. 1.280 m c. 11.6 m d. 12.80 m
194. The mole fraction of NaOH is
a. 11.6 b. 0.187 c. 0.813 d. 12.80
195. The mole fraction of H2O is
a. 0.87 b. 0.813 c. 33.87 d. 11.6
196. The normality of the solution is
a. 11.6 N b. 5.8 N c. 23.2 N d. 12.80 N
 ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY – FINAL PRE-BOARD EXAM
197.If the overall cell potential of a galvanic cell is positive, the reaction is
a. nonspontaneous b. spontaneous c. Irreversible d. reversible
198. Oxidation means
a. loss of electrons c. gain of electrons
b. loss of ions d. gain of ions
199. Oxidizing agents are the species that
a. lose electrons c. gain electrons
b. lose ions d. gain ions
200. The oxidation number of an atom in its elemental state is
a. equal to its charge c. zero
b. negative d. positive
201. All electrochemical processes involve
a. neutralization reactions c. precipitation reactions
b. redox reactions d. complexation reactions
202. Reduction reaction can occur even without oxidation reaction.
a. false b. true c. possible d. maybe
203. Reducing agents are
a. always reduced b. always oxidized c. negatively charged d. positively charged
204. The cathode is the electrode where
a. reduction takes place c. negative ions accumulate
b. oxidation takes place d. electrons are liberated
205. Consider a spontaneously operating electrochemical cell in which the net oxidation- reduction
reaction is: 3 Zr(s) + 4 Fe+3 → 3 Zr+4 + 4 Fe(s).
Choose the statement which is FALSE.

a. The anode reaction is Zr → Zr+4 + 4e−

b. The cathode reaction is Fe+3 + 3e− → Fe
c. Electrons flow from the cathode to the anode.
d. The standard potential for this cell will be > 0.
e. Fe+3 is the oxidizing agent.

206. What is the oxidation number (valence) of the Cl atom in HClO3?

a. +6 b. +3 c. −5 d. +5
207. Given a galvanic or voltaic cell as shown. The standard reduction potentials for the Cd+2 and Cu+2
ions are −0.403 V and +0.337 V, respectively.

Cd2+ + 2e-→ Cd E0 = − 0.403 V

Cu2+ + 2e- → Cu E0 = + 0.337 V
a. What is the standard potential of this cell?
a. +0.740 V b. −0.740 V c. −0.066 V d. +0.066 V
208. What is the oxidation number of Mn in KMnO4?
a) +6 c. +3
b) +7 d. +4