AGRICULTURISTS

LICENSURE EXAMINATION
(ALE)

REVIEW QUESTIONS

SOIL SCIENCE
MINDAYABAI M. MANSOL

Contributors

Dr. Nonilona P. Daquiado

Dr. Adeflor G. Garcia
Dr. Flora P. Nicor

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 May 2014
SOIL SCIENCE

Section 1. Soil Development

1. It is a natural dynamic body on the surface of the earth which supports plants and
animals
a. soil b. Land
c. Minerals d. Air

2. It is primarily derived from plants and animal residues composed of at least 12%
organic carbon if the soil has no clay or at least 18% organic carbon if the soil has
60% or more clay.
a. Organic soil b. Minerals
c. Pore spaces d. Soil water

3. It is derived from weathering of rocks and minerals and has definite composition and
properties.
a. Organic matter b. Inorganic soil
c. Pore spaces d. Air

4. It is the component of the soil which accommodates air and water

a. Organic matter b. Inorganic soil
c. Pore spaces d. Air

5. The soil air is composed primarily of

a. nitrogen, oxygen & carbon dioxide
b. nitrogen phosphorus and potassium
c. nitrogen, calcium and magnesium
d. nitrogen, oxygen and hydrogen

6. The main composition of the solid phase of inorganic matter are

a. sand, silt & clay b. sand, gravel and clay
c. sand, air and water d. rocks and minerals

7. It is the mode of origin of the soil with special reference to the processes of soil
forming factors responsible for the development of the solum or true soil from the
unconsolidated parent material.
a. Soil genesis b. Soil development
c. Soil profile d. orogenesis

8. It is the mechanical breakdown of rocks and minerals into smaller bits

a. Physical weathering b. Chemical weathering
c. Exfoliation d. Abrasion

9. It is the decomposition of rocks and minerals forming new products

a. Physical weathering b. Chemical weathering
c. Exfoliation d. Abrasion

10. It is a weathering process where water is the principal agent dissolving potash
feldspar producing aluminosilicates
a. Physical weathering b. Chemical weathering
c. hydrolysis d. hydration

11. These are rocks formed from the cooling and solidification of magma
a. Igneous b. Sedimentary
c. Metamorphic d. Salt Rock

12. This is formed from materials deposited from suspension or precipitated from
solution
a. Igneous Rock b. Sedimentary Rock
c. Metamorphic Rock d. Salt Rock

13. These have been greatly altered from their previous conditions through the
combined action of heat and pressure.

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 a. Igneous rocks b. Sedimentary rocks
c. Metamorphic rocks d. Salt rocks
14. It is a metamorphic rock produced from limestone
a. Marble b. Gneiss
c. Slate d. Gold

15. It is a metamorphic rock produced from granite

a. Marble b. Gneiss
c. Slate d. Gold

16. It is a metamorphic rock produced from shale.

a. Marble b. Gneiss
c. Slate d. Gold

17. It is the vertical section of the soil exposing a set of horizons.

a. Soil b. Solum
c. Regolith d. Soil Profile

18. It means the true soil or the A, E & B horizons of the soil profile
a. Soil b. Solum
c. Regolith d. Soil Profile

19. It represents the A,E,B and C horizons of the soil profile.

a. Soil b. Solum
c. Regolith d. Soil Profile

20. A process in soil genesis which includes mineral weathering or organic matter
breakdown by which soil constitutions are modified and destroyed and others are
synthesized
a. transformation b. translocation
c. decomposition d. disintegration

21. A process in soil genesis where inorganic and organic materials are transferred
from one horizon up or down to another due to movement of water and soil
organisms
a. transformation b. translocation
c. additions d. losses

22. An organic deposit which contains residues that are sufficiently intact to permit the
plant fibers to be identified
a. peat b. muck
c. biotic d. bionic

23. An organic deposit with most of the material decomposed sufficiently so that little
fiber remains
a. peat b. muck
c. biotic d. bionic

24. It is made up of poorly sorted rock fragments detached from the heights above and
carried downslope mostly by gravity.
a. Colluvium b. Alluvium
c. Residuum d. Lacustrine

25. The alluvial deposits that is part of a river valley that is inundated during floods is
a. floodplain b. alluvial
. deltas d. lacustrine

26. The alluvial deposits that leave a narrow valley in an upland area and suddenly
descend to a much broader valley below deposit sediment in a shape of a fan.
a. alluvial fan b. alluvium
c. deltas d. lacustine

27. Suspended sediments carried by streams that settle near the mouth of the river.
a. deltas b. floodplain
c. alluvium d. moraine

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28. It is the landform built by the deposits of alluvium in the low lying areas where
streams and river flow.
a. Alluvial soil b. Colluvial
c. Residual soil d. none of the above

29. Is the master horizon dominated by organic materials

a. O b. B
c. C d. A

30. Is the mineral horizon formed on the surface or below the O horizon
a. O b. B
c. A d. E

31. Is the master horizon of maximum eluviation.

a. O b. B
c. C d. E

32. The horizon of maximum illuviation or accumulation.

a. O b. B
c. C d. E

33. The horizon of unconsolidated material underlying the solum which often retains
some of the structural features of the parent rock or geologic deposits from which it
formed.
a. O b. B
c. C d. E

34. The consolidated rock, with little evidence of weathering.

a. O b. R
c. A d. C

35. The master horizons in the soil profile are designated using
a. capital letters b. small letters
c. vowels only d. consonants only

36. The peeling away of outer layers of some rocks due to the difference in temperature
of the outer rock surface and the inner, more protected portions
a. exfoliation b. abrasion
c. hydrolysis d. carbonation

37. The rounding or riverbed rocks and beach sand grains

a. exfoliation b. abrasion
c. hydrolysis d. carbonation

38. This influences soil formation by their different rates of weathering, the nutrients
they contain for plant use, and particle sizes they contain.
a. Parent material b. climate
c. Biota d. Topography

39. A dominant factor in soil formation because of the effects of precipitation and
temperature.
a. parent material b. climate
c. topography d. time

40. It is an unconsolidated bedrock

a. parent material b. regolith
c. solum d. monolith

41. A set of soils where parent material is the dominant influence on soil formation
a. lithosequence b. climosequence
c. biosequence d. topsequence

42. Bacteria belong to this factor of soil formation.

a. Climate b. Living organisms
c. Time d. Parent material

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43. Horizontal layers of soil differentiation.
a. Concretions b. Structure
c. Horizons d. Hardpans

44. A square meter of land dug to a depth that nearly touches the bedrock.
a. Profile b. Parent material
c. Pedon d. Aquifer

45. Mature soil have the following horizons:

a. AB b. ABC
c. BC d. AC

46. Young soils have the following horizons:

a. AB b. ABC
c. ABCD d. AC

47. The solum is composed of these horizons:

a. ABC b. BC
c. ABCR d. AB

48. The regolith is composed of these horizons:

a. AB b. BC
c. ABC d. ABCR

49. The topsoil usually refers to this horizon.

a. AB b. A
c. B d. C

50. Blocks of soil from each horizon pasted on a hard board.

a. Regolith b. Monolith
c. Lacolith d. Pedon

51. Soil water containing dissolved organic and inorganic substances

a. solute b. solvent
c. capillary water d. soil solution

52. The sand fraction is composed primarily of

a. secondary minerals b. primary minerals
c. mineral matter d. organic matter

53. The original source of most organic matter in the soil

a. plant residues
b. bodies of dead animals
c. soil inhabiting microorganisms
d. rocks

54. The most resistant rock-forming mineral

a. olivine b. pyroxene
b. feldspar d. quartz

55. The clay fraction is composed mainly of

a. secondary minerals b. primary minerals
c. mineral matter c. organic matter

56. It is an example of sedimentary rocks

a. andesite b. shale
b. slate c. pumice

57. A carbonate rock consist of calcite as its predominant mineral

a. limestone b. sandstone
c. mudstone d. siltstone

58. Metamorphism is caused by:

a. high pressure and temperature c. erosion
b. floods d. earthquake

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59. The softest mineral is
a. diamond b. talc c. quartz d. apatite

60. The light color of igneous rocks is usually caused by:

a. quartz c. calcite
b. feldspar d. ferromagnesian minerals

61. The primary mineral most likely to accumulate at the site of chemical weathering of
granite is:
a. mica b. muscovite
c. quartz d. clay

62. The rock that has been weathered but has retained the general rock structure is
called
a. concretion b. mottles c. saprolite d. C horizon

63. Organic matter decomposition is an example of

a. transformation b. translocation c. addition d. losses

64. The geologic precursor of the soil

a. pedogenic material b. organic material
c. parent material d. none of the above

65. The time at which the development of soil begins

a. time zero b. initial time
c. final time d. none of the above

66. Well-drained slopes would

a. retard soil development b. enhance soil development
c. have no effect d. none of the above

67. An iron oxide that imparts the red color of soils

a. goethite b. Lepidocrocite
c. hematite d. magnetite

68. The horizon with the maximum leaching of constituents

a. A horizon b. B horizon
c. C horizon d. E horizon

69. The horizon that has the properties of two adjacent horizons
a. master horizon b. diagnostic horizon
c. transition horizon d. genetic horizon

70. The chemical element in dolomite that is not an important constituent of calcite is:
a. Mg b. Ca
c. C d. O

71. Which among these minerals does not contribute any soil nutrient?
a. quartz b. talc
c. apatite d.calcite

72. Rocks that were formed from the lithification of weathered exposed rocks at the
surface of the earth
a. sedimentary rocks b.metamorphic rocks
c. igneous rocks d. volcanic rocks

73. Resistance of a mineral to abrasion is

a. luster b. specific gravity
c. hardness d. cleavage

74. The parent material corresponds to horizon:

a. AB b. C
c. D d. ABCD

75. A lowland paddy soil possesses

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 a. ABC horizons c. AB horizons
b. oxidized and reduced layers d. OABC
Section 2. Physical Properties of Soils

76. The relative distribution of soil separates in a soil mass is called soil texture
a. Sand, silt and clay are soil separates
b. Soil texture changes easily with poor methods of cultivation
c. Soil texture is improved by adding organic fertilizer
d. All of the above
e.
77. In a viscous medium, the rate of settling is affected by particle size and temperature
of medium.
a. At the same temperature, the rate of settling of silt particles is faster than the
sand particles
b. At the same temperature, the rate of settling of silt particles is faster than the
clay particles
c. The rate of settling of sand particles is faster at lower than at higher
temperature
d. The rate of settling of clay particles is slower at higher than at lower
temperature

78. Which of these factors does not affect the rate of fall of particles in a liquid medium
a. density of the particle b. gravity
c. size of the particle d. chemical composition

79. Soil texture refers to the coarseness or fineness of soil

a. Sand is coarse and gritty b. Silt is powdery and smooth
c. Clay is sticky and plastic d. All of the above

80. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil texture
a. Sandy soil is more porous than clay soil
b. Loamy soils are rich in silt
c. Clay soil is chemically more reactive than sandy soil
d. Clay soils are rich in silt

81. Soil texture influences property that directly affects plant growth
a. Coarse-textured soils have higher nutrient supplying capacity than fine-
textured soils
b. Fine-textured soils have lower water holding capacity than coarse-textured soils
c. Percolation rate is faster in coarse-textured than in fine-textured soils
d. Infiltration rate is slower in coarse-textured than in fine-textured soils

82. The physicist who formulated the law governing the rate of settling of particles in a
viscous medium
a. Aristotle b. Dokuchaev
c. Stoke d. Ross

83. Soil texture can be determined by:

a. Feel method b. Pipette method
c. Hydrometer method d. All of the above

84. The soil textural class wherein the coarseness of sand, the smoothness of silt and the
stickiness of clay are manifested in almost equal proportion in a soil mass
a. sand b. silt
c. clay d. loam

85. Standard reference system for soil color

a. Soil taxonomy b. Soil map
c. Soil survey report d. Munsell color chart

86. Soil color description

a. Hue, value, chroma b. Tint, lightness, mixture
c. Shade, reflection, emission d. Intensity, capacity, ability

87. Describes darkness or lightness of soil color

a. hue b. value

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 c. chroma d. intensity

88. Sign of poor drainage

a. Yellowish mottles b. Bluish gray mottles
c. Reddish concretion d. Reddish orange mottles

89. The color of a soil indicates some chemical conditions

a. Dark or black color indicates high organic matter
b. Reddish color indicates that the soil is low in oxides of iron
c. Dark or black color indicates that the portion of lowland soil is at oxidized state
d. All of the above

90. The color of a soil indicates some chemical conditions

a. Reddish color indicates that the soil is young
b. Reddish color indicates that the soil is high in organic matter
c. Reddish color indicates that the soil is high in oxides of iron
d. All of the above

91. Many soil properties and characteristics are affected by soil structure
a. Crumb is the best soil structure that most crops prefer
b. Dispersed clay soil possess good soil structure
c. Compacted soil structure allows free movement of air in the soil
d. Good water movement in platy soil structure

92. The soil structure of compacted plow soil

a. massive b. platy
c. crumb d. single-grained

93. The soil structure that is normally observed in virgin soils

a. Granular structure b. Prismatic structure
c. Platy structure d. Blocky structure

94. Formation of soil aggregates is favored in soils with

a. low organic matter content b. high sand content
c. high organic matter content d. high exchangeable sodium content

95. Soil densities and porosities are affected by soil texture and soil structure
a. Porosity increases with increasing bulk density
b. Soil compaction increases bulk density
c. Soil aggregation increases bulk density
d. Organic matter increases bulk density

96. The bulk density value of an ideal or optimal soil is

a. 1.0 g/cm3 b. 1.23 g/cm3
c. 1.33 g/cm 3
d. 1.43 g/cm3
97. Bulk density is affected by several factors
a. Bulk density decreases with increasing organic matter content
b. Bulk density decreases with soil compaction
c. Bulk density increases with increasing soil porosity
d. Bulk density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices

98. Bulk density is a good indicator of soil degradation

a. Bulk density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices
b. Increasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
c. Decreasing bulk density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
d. None of the above

99. Particle density is a stable soil property. Most agricultural soils would have particle
densities close to this value
a. 1.65 g/cm3 b. 2.65 g/cm3
c. 3.65 g/cm 3
d. 4.65 g/cm3
100. The particle density is affected by some factors.
a. Particle density does not change with poor soil cultivation practices
b. Increasing particle density indicates deteriorating soil physical condition
c. Decreasing particle density indicates high soil porosity
d. None of the above

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101. A soil with bulk density of 1.35 g/cm3 and a particle density of 2.6 g/cm3 has a
solid fraction of
a. 44% b. 48% c. 52% d. 60%

102. A soil with bulk density of 1.35 g/cm 3 and a particle density of 2.6 g/cm 3 has a
porosity
a. 44% b. 48% c. 52% d. 60%

103. Void ratio is the ratio of the volume of voids or pore spaces to the volume of solids.
a. A void ratio of <1.0 indicates that the soil is porous
b. A void ratio of >1.0 indicates that the soil is compact
c. A void ratio of >1.0 indicates that the soil is porous
d. All of the above

104. Pore-size distribution affects movement and retention of water and air in the soil
a. Micro-pores do not retain water
b. Macro-pores are important in drainage and root respiration
c. Micro-pores and macro-pores are equally important to root growth
d. Macro-pores retain water

105. Desirable pore size distribution for crop production is one where:
a. Total porosity is dominated by macro-pores
b. Total porosity is dominated by micro-pores
c. Total porosity is dominated by medium pores
d. Total porosity is comprised of more or less equal proportion of the classes of
pore spaces

106. Soil grown to corn is best cultivated when the soil consistency is:
a. hard b. friable
c. plastic d. viscous

107. Property of water which causes it to behave as if its surface were covered with a
stretched elastic membrane
a. cohesion b. polarity
c. surface tension d. adhesion

108. A method of soil water content determination that involves weighing of the soil
before and after oven drying.
a. paraffin method b. gravimetric method
c. resistance method d. suction method

109. Calculate the gravimetric moisture content of the soil sample if its fresh weight
(FW) is 25 g and its oven dried weight (ODW) is 20 g
a. 15% b. 20%
c. 25% d. 30%

110. A soil was found to contain 30% moisture (m) which corresponds to 30 g of water.
The mass of the dry soil or the oven dried weight of soil is
a. 30 g b. 60 g
c. 100 g d. 130 g

111. The soil water suction if the soil is at its field capacity is
a. 0 bar b. 1/3 bar
c. 1 bar d. 15 bars

112. Plants depend on the water stored in the soil

a. The upper limit of available water is saturated moisture content
b. The upper limit of available water is hygroscopic coefficient
c. The upper limit of available water is permanent wilting point
d. None of the above

113. Available water capacity is calculated as

a. Saturation or maximum water holding minus permanent wilting point
b. Field capacity minus permanent wilting point
c. Permanent wilting point minus hygroscopic point
d. Saturation or maximum water holding minus hygroscopic coefficient

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114. A soil moisture condition wherein all pore spaces in the soil are filled up with water
a. hygroscopic coefficient b. field capacity
c. maximum water holding capacity d. wilting coefficient

115. If the soil moisture content is 35%, field capacity is 40% and permanent wilting
point is 20%, the available water in the soil is
a. 5% b. 10%
c. 15% d. 20%

116. If the soil moisture content is 50%, field capacity is 40% and permanent wilting
point is 20%, the available water in the soil is
a. 10% b. 20%
c. 30% d. 40%

117. The relationship between soil water suction and soil water content is referred to as:
a. soil water capacity b. soil water characteristic curve
c. soil water behavior d. soil water potential

118. The physicist who formulated the law governing the movement of water in the soil
a. Stoke b. Dokuchaev
c. Darcy d. Aristotle

119. Movement of water in the soil is always from

a. Higher to lower soil water suction
b. Lower to higher total soil water potential
c. Higher to lower soil water tension
d. Lower to higher soil water suction

120. Available water is necessary for plant growth

a. Macro-pores act as the storage for available water
b. Micro-pores serve as the storage for available water
c. Medium pores act as the storage for available water
d. All of the above
121. Soil air contains three principal gases.
a. Soil air contains 78.6% O2
b. Soil air contains 20% N2
c. CO2 content of the soil air is lesser than that of the atmospheric air
d. CO2 content of the soil air is greater than that of the atmospheric air

122. The limiting aeration porosity of the soil is

a. 5% b. 10%
c. 15% d. 20%

123. Soil temperature plays an important role

a. Soil formation is faster in temperate countries than in tropical countries
b.Decomposition of organic matter is faster in temperate than in tropical countries
c. Microbial activities are lesser in temperate than in tropical countries
d. None of the above

124. The favorable soil temperature for seed germination and plant growth is
a. 0-5oC b. 6-15 oC
c. 13-38 C
o
d. 20-45 oC

125. Most biological activities would cease and basically inactive at this temperature
a. 0-5oC b. 6-15 oC
c. 13-38 Co
d. 20-45 oC

126. A soil was found to contain 30% moisture (qm) which corresponds to 30 g of water.
The mass of the dry soil or the oven dried weight of soil is
a. 30 g b. 60 g
c. 100 g d. 130 g

127. A soil was found to contain 30% moisture (qm) which corresponds to 30 g of water.
The fresh weight of the soil is
a. 30 g b. 60 g
c. 100 g d. 130 g

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128. The soil water suction if the soil is at permanent wilting point is
a. 0 bar b. 1/3 bar
c. 1 bar d. 15 bars

129. Plants depend on the water stored in the soil

a. The upper limit of available water is saturated moisture content
b. The upper limit of available water is hygroscopic coefficient
c. The upper limit of available water is field capacity
d. The upper limit of available water is permanent wilting point

130. Plants depend on the water stored in the soil

a. The lower limit of available water is saturated moisture content
b. The lower limit of available water is hygroscopic coefficient
c. The lower limit of available water is field capacity
d. The lower limit of available water is permanent wilting point
131. Gravitational water capacity is equal to
a. Saturation or maximum water holding capacity minus field capacity
b. Field capacity minus permanent wilting point
c. Permanent wilting point minus hygroscopic point
d. Saturation or maximum water holding minus hygroscopic coefficient

132. The moisture content of an air dry soil is known as

a. Saturation b. Permanent wilting point
c. Field capacity d. Hygroscopic coefficient

133. A 375 g moist soil was found to contain 25% moisture (m). What is the oven dried
weight of the soil?
a. 250 g b. 300 g
c. 350 g d. 375 g

134. A 375 g moist soil was found to contain 25% moisture (m). What is the weight of
water present in this moist soil?
a. 75 g b. 100 g
c. 125 g d. 150 g

135. Capillary water corresponds to this water under the biological classification
a. Superfluous water b. Available water
c. Free water d. Unavailable water

136. Soil air occupies the soil pore spaces

a. Movement of soil air is slower than the movement of atmospheric air
b. Movement of soil air is faster than the movement of atmospheric air
c. Movement of soil air is slower in coarse-textured soils than in fine-textured soils
d. Movement of soil air is faster in compact than in porous soils

137. Soil air contains three principal gases.

a. Soil air contains 78.6% N2
b. Soil air contains 20% O2
c. CO2 content of the soil air is lesser than that of the atmospheric air
d. CO2 content of the soil air is greater than that of the atmospheric air

138. The limiting aeration porosity of the soil is

a. 5% b 10%
c. 15% d. 20%

139. Soil temperature plays an important role

a. Soil formation is faster in temperate countries than in tropical countries
b. Decomposition of organic matter is faster in temperate than in tropical countries
c. Microbial activities are faster in temperate than in tropical countries
d. None of the above

140. Identify the soil physical property that is not readily subject to change, so it is
considered a basic soil property.
a. soil structure b. bulk density
c. soil texture d. soil color

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For items 141-150, refer to: A 100-cm3 moist soil weighed 160 g. After oven drying, its
weight was reduced to 130g. Considering that b/p = 0.47, calculate for the
following:

141. The bulk density of the soil

a. 1.30 g/cm3 b. 1.40 g/cm3
c. 1.50 g/cm3 d. 1.60 g/cm3

142. The particle density of the soil

a. 2.45 g/cm3 b. 2.54 g/cm3
c. 2.67g/cm3 d. 2.77 g/cm3

143. Solid fraction of the soil

a. 35 % b. 47 %
c. 53 % d. 63 %

144. Volume of soil solids

a. 30 cm3 b. 35 cm3
c. 47 cm3 d. 53 cm3

145. The porosity of the soil

a. 30 % b. 47 %
c. 35 % d. 53 %

146. Volume of pore spaces in the soil

a. 53 cm3 b. 47 cm3
c. 35 cm3 d. 30 cm3

147. Void ratio of the soil

a. 0.89 b. 0.94
c. 1.13 d. 1.21

148. Mass of water contained in the soil

a. 20 g b. 30 g
c. 35 g d. 40 g

149. Moisture content by mass (g H2O/g soil)

a. 0.23 b. 0.27
c. 0.30 d. 0.35

150. Moisture content by volume (cm3 H2O/cm3 soil)

a. 0.20 b. 0.25
c. 0.30 d. 0.35

Section 3. The Chemical Properties of Soils

151. Colloids range in particle size from:

a. 0.2-1 mm b. 0.2-1 micron
c. 0.2-1 cm d. 1-2 micron

152. Organic colloids are represented by:

a. Hydrous Fe and Al oxides b. Silicate clay minerals
c. Humus d. allophane

153. Reactivity of soil colloids is due to their:

a. High specific area b. Nature and composition
c. Crystallinity d. mineralogy

154. This clay mineral is a 1:1 non-expanding type:

a. Illite b. Montmorillonite
c. Kaolinite d. vermiculite

155. Kaolinite sheets are bounded by:

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 a. Weak O2 - O2 linkage b. Strong K linkage
c. Strong H bond d. electrostatic linkage
156. Isomorphous substitution of cations gives clay minerals:
a. Permanent charge b. pH-dependent charge
c. Positive charge d. zero point of charge

157. Dissociation of H+ ions from carboxyl (-COOH) and/or phenolic functional groups
give this colloid negative charges.
a. Humus b. Montmorillonite
c. Allophane d. oxides of Fe / Al

158. Assuming that ions are of similar size, which of these ions can be easily leached
a. H+ b. Al+++
c. Fe +++
d. K+
159. The optimum or ideal soil pH for growing of most crops is:
a. pH 6.0 b. pH 6.5
c. pH 7.5 d. pH 5.5

160. These elements become more soluble or available at soil pH <5.0.

a. Fe,Al,Cu,Zn b. Ca,Mg,S
c. N,P,K d. C,H.O

161. At low pH, available P may become precipitated into:

a. Ca-hydroxyapatite b. Al-hydroxyphosphate
c. Orthophosphoric acid d. humic acid

162. These cations are considered as acid.

a. H+ and K+ b. H+ and Ca++
c. H and Al
+ +++
d. NH4+ and H+
163. Nitrification causes soil acidity due to the production of:
a. Al+++ b. H+
c. NH4OH d. NO3-
164. Active acidity is due to H in:
+

a. Soil solution b. Colloid adsorption sites

c. Crystal structure d. none of the above

165. Soils with high CEC have

a. High buffering capacity b. Low buffering capacity
c. No buffering capacity d. Medium buffering capacity

166. Soils with high buffering capacity are generally those which
a. Are sandy or coarse
b. Have high organic matter and/or clay content
c. Have low organic matter content
d. Have high bulk density

167. Soils that usually need to be limed are those with:

a. pH less than 5.0 b. pH greater than 5.0
c. pH 7.0 d. pH >7.5

168. This material is not considered lime:

a. CaCO3 b. CaSO4.2H2O
c. CaO d. Ca(OH)2
169. This liming material has RNP or RNV of 100%.
a. Dolomite, CaMg (CO3)2 b. Burned lime, CaO
c. Calcium carbonate, CaCO3 d. Ca(OH)2
170. Besides neutralizing soil acidity, lime like CaCO 3 may also:
a. Improve soil structure b. Decrease CEC
c. Improve soil texture d. increase CEC

171. Sodic soils have high exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) and are
a. Well aggregated b. Highly dispersed
c. Highly fertile d. Highly eroded

172. The high ESP of soils may be reduced by adding:

a. Lime b. Gypsum

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 c. Fertilizers d. organic matter

173. Saline soils contain sufficient

a. sugar b. sodium
c. salt d. lime

174. A 100-gm soil sample contains the following exchangeable cations:

Cation me/100 gm
Ca++ 20
Mg++ 10
K+ 2
Na+ 4
H+ 3
Al+++ 1

The CEC of the soil is:

a. 36 me/100gm b. 45me/100gm
c. 40 me/100gm d. 50 me/100g

175. The % BS saturation o the soil in no. 124 is:

a. 92.5% b. 90%
c. 85% d. 94%

176. The exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) of the soil is:

a. 10% b. 15%
c. 12% d. 20%

177. It is the strength of adsorption of cations on the exchange complex of soils.

a. Relative adsorbability b. Relative replacing power
c. Relative strength d. Relative neutralizing power

178. What type of charge would arise from the protonation/deprotonation of weakly
acidic -OH groups?
a. ionic charge b. pH-dependent charge
c. electronic charge d. permanent charge
179. What is the ability of the soil to hold or exchange negatively charged ions?
a. Anion exchange b. Cation exchange
c. Anion exchange capacity d. Cation exchange capacity

180. The ability of the electrolytic solution to conduct current.

a. Electrical charge b. Electrical conductivity
c. Electrical resistance d. Electrical power

181. The ability of the soil to resist a drastic change in pH.

a. Buffering capacity b. Anion exchange capacity
c. Cation exchange capacity d. Electrical conductivity

182. How many m.e. of NH4+ will replace 0.003 g H+?

a. 1 m.e. b. 2 m.e.
c. 3 m.e. d. 4 m.e.

183. It is a term indicating that the cation exchange reactions are chemically equivalent
a. Reversibility b. Isomorphous
c. Equivalence d. Stoichiometry

184. The kind of acidity that tells us how much lime to apply into the soil.
a. Active acidity b. Reserve acidity
c. Soil acidity d. Residual acidity

185. Assuming that ions are of similar size, which of these ions have the greatest
relative replacing power
a. Al+++ b. K+
c. Ca ++
d. Na+
186. What is the degree of acidity or alkalinity of the soil called?
a. soil acidity b. soil alkalinity
c. soil reaction d. buffering capacity

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187. Which of these ions have the highest relative adsorbability
a. Na+ b. Ca++
c. H +
d. Mg ++

188. Which of these cations is highly soluble at very low pH?

a. K+ b. Ca2+
c. Mg2+ d. Al3+
189. The negative logarithm of the hydrogen ion concentration is called as:
a. pH b. pF
c. pOH d. pOF

190. Process whereby positively charged ions are exchanged between solid and liquid
phases of the soil.
a. Anion exchange b. Cation exchange
c. Anion exchange capacity d. Cation exchange capacity

191. How much is the weight of 1 m.e. of Mg2+?

a. 0.012 g b. 0.024 g
c. 0.036g d. 0.048 g]

192. The kind of acidity that tells when to lime the soil.
a. Active acidity b. Reserve acidity
c. Soil acidity d. Residual acidity
193. Which of these ions can be source of soil acidity?
a. Ca++ and Mg++ b. Li+++ and Si4+
c. K and Na
+ +
d. Fe and Al+++
+++

194. Which of these ions can be source of soil alkalinity?

a. Fe+++ b. Al+++
c. Ca 2+
d. H +

195. Elements present largely in organic matter

a. N, P and K b. P, K and Ca
c. N, P and S d. P, K and S

196. How many m.e. of Na+ can replace 1 m.e. of Si4+?

a. 1 m.e. b. 2 m.e.
c. 3 m.e. d. 4 m.e.

197. A soil has a CEC of 40 m.e./100g. If 22 m.e. of which are acidic cations, how
much bases the soil contain?
a. 12 me bases b. 14 me bases
c. 16 me bases d. 18 me bases

198. If 21 m.e./100g of the bases constitute 60% of the CEC of a soil, what is its CEC?
a. 25 m.e./100g b. 30 m.e./100g
c. 35 m.e./100g d. 40 m.e./100g

For items 199-200, refer to: A 100-g soil sample contains 0.024g Mg +, 0.003g H+,
0.08g Ca2+, 0.072g NH4+ and 0.018g Al3+
199. How many m.e. of Mg+ the soil contains?
a. 2 m.e./100g b. 4 m.e./100g
c. 6 m.e./100g d. 8 m.e./100g

200. How much Mg++ (kg/ha) is present in the soil?

a. 960 kg/ha b. 480 kg/ha
c. 240 kg/ha d. 120 kg/ha

201. Assuming that ions are of similar size, which of these ions have the lowest relative
replacing power
a. Al+++ b. K+
c. Ca++ d. Na+

202. Which of these ions have the lowest relative adsorbability

a. Na+ b. Ca++

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 c. H+ d. Mg++

203. Assuming that ions are of similar size, which of these ions is not easily leached
a. H+ b. Mn++
c. Fe +++
d. K+

204. Which of these ions can be source of soil alkalinity?

a. Ca++ and Mg++ b. Li+++ and Si4+
c. K and NH4
+ +
d. Fe+++ and Al+++

205. One of the effects of organic matter on the soil physical property
a. Improves soil fertility b. Increases water holding capacity
c. d.
Increases buffering capacity of soil Improves utilization of micronutrients
For items 206-213, refer to: A 50-g soil sample contains 0.024g Mg +, 0.003g H+,
0.08g Ca2+, 0.072g NH4+ and 0.018g Al3+
206. How many m.e. H+ are present?
a. 2 m.e./100g b. 4 m.e./100g
c. 6 m.e./100g d. 8 m.e./100g

207. How many m.e. Ca2+ the soil has?

a. 4 m.e./100g b. 8 m.e./100g
c. 12 m.e./100g d. 16 m.e./100g

208. How many m.e. NH4+ are present?

a. 8 m.e./100g b. 9 m.e./100g
c. 4 m.e./100g d. 2 m.e./100g

209. How many m.e. of Al3+are present?

a. 1 m.e./100g b. 2 m.e./100g
c. 3 m.e./100g d. 4 m.e./100g

210. What is the cation exchange capacity of the above soil?

a. 15 m.e./100g b. 30 m.e./100g
c. 40 m.e./100g d. 50 m.e./100g

211. How many m.e. of acidic cations are present in the soil?
a. 2 m.e./100g b. 5 m.e./100g
c. 10 m.e./100g d. 15 m.e./100g

212. How many m.e. of basic cations are present in the soil?
a. 15 m.e./100g b. 20 m.e./100g
c. 25 m.e./100g d. 30 m.e./100g

213. What is the % BS of the soil?

a. 16.7 % b. 33.3 %
c. 50 % d. 66.7 %

214. A soil has a CEC of 40 m.e./100g. If 22 m.e. of which are acidic cations, how much
bases the soil contain?
a. 12 me bases b. 14 me bases
c. 16 me bases d. 18 me bases

215. A 25-g soil was found to adsorb 0.09g NH4+. The adsorbed NH4+ of this 25-g soil is
equal to
a. 3 m.e. b. 20 m.e.
c. 10 m.e. d. 5 m.e.

216. Assuming that no other cations are adsorbed by the soil, the CEC of the soil in no.
215 is
a. 3 m.e./100g b. 5 m.e./100g
c. 10 m.e./100g d. 20 m.e./100g

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 For items 217-218, refer to : The hydrogen ion concentration of the solution is
0.0000000457M
217. The pH of the solution is
a. 6.34 b. 7.34
9.34
c. 8.34 d.
218. The pOH of the solution is
a. 4.66 b. 5.66
c. 6.66 d. 7.66

219. Nutrient availability is related to soil pH

a. Mn solubility increases with the increase in pH
b. Zn solubility decreases as soil pH decreases
c. K availability increases as soil pH increases
d. Mo availability increases as pH decreases.

220. Besides neutralizing soil acidity, lime like CaCO 3 may also:
a. lmprove soil structure b. Improve soil texture
c. Decrease CEC d. Increase CEC

221. Sodic soils have high exchangeable sodium percentage (ESP) and are
a. Well aggregated b. Highly fertile
c. Highly dispersed d. highly eroded

222. This clay mineral is a 2:1 non-expanding type:

a. Illite b. Montmorillonite
c. Kaolinite d) vermiculite

223. Illite sheets are bounded by:

a. Weak O2 - O2 linkage b. Strong H bond
c. Strong K linkage d) electrostatic linkage

224. This ion is dominant in calcareous soil

a. Na+ b. Mg++
c. K +
d. Ca++
225. At high pH, available P may become precipitated into:
a. Ca-hydroxyapatite c. Orthophosphoric acid
b. Al-hydroxyphosphate d. humic acid

Section 4. Soil Organisms and Organic Matter

226. Individually, which among the following soil organisms have the greatest biomass?
a. actinomycetes b. fungi
c. bacteria d. protozoa

227. Which among the following soil organisms are acid-loving?

a. fungi b. bacteria
c. protozoa d. actinomycetes

228. Ammonia volatlization from NH 4-bearing fertilizers is favored by which of the

following?
a. high pH b. high temperature
c. high CEC d. a & b

229. Degradation of organic residues by soil microorganisms is primarily aimed for:

a. phosphorus and ATP b. carbon and energy
c. nitrogen and energy d. nitrogen and phosphorus

230. The root nodule bacteria belongs to this genus

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 a. Clostridium b. Azotobacter
c. Rhizobium d. Agrobacterium

231. Algae are considered as

a. autotrophs b. heterotrophs
c. parasites d. saprophytes

232. The available form of nitrogen which predominates under upland condition is
a. ammonium b. nitrite
c. nitrate d. fixed nitrogen

233. The predominant available form of nitrogen under flooded soil condition is
a. NO3-N b organic –N,
c. NH4-N, d. N02-N.

234. The conversion of organic N to inorganic or mineral N is termed as

a. immobilization b. denitrification
c. mineralization d. nitrogen fixation

235. Microorganisms which do not require oxygen are called

a. aerobes b. anaerobes
c. obligate aerobes d. microaerophilic

236. Microorganisms which require organic compounds as sources of carbon and energy
are
a. autotrophs b. heterotrophs
c. photoautotrophs d. none of the above

237. If the crop residue contains 50% organic carbon and 5 % total nitrogen, the C/N
ratio is
a. 60:5 b. 10:1
c. 15:1 d. 25:1

238. The incorporation of inorganic nitrogen into microbial tissue is

a. mineralization, b. immobilization,
c. nitrification, d. denitrification

239. Presence of this nutrient element will enable a legume and its microsymbiont to
perform nitrogen fixation.
a. boron b. phosphorus
c. molybdenum d. magnesium

240. The group of soil microorganisms which is responsible for decomposing organic
matter is the
a. heterotrophs b. autotrophs,
c. saprophytes d. none of the above

241. The most efficient organic matter decomposer under acidic soil conditions are the
a. bacteria b. actinomycetes
c. fungi d. algae

242. Net mineralization of organic nitrogen in the soil will occur if the C/N ratio is lower
than
a. 20:1 b. 30:1
c. 40:1 d. 40:1

243. The ultimate end product of denitrification is

a. N2 b. N0
c. N20 d. NH3

244. The number and activity of bacteria in the soil is affected by

a. pH b. moisture and oxygen supply
c. salinity d. all of the above

245. CO2 evolution in soil is a function of

a. aeration b. microbial population,
c. pH d. all of the above

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246. The amount of molecular nitrogen in the soil is about
a. 88% b. 78%,
c. 68% d. 98%

247. This is a substance produced by some organisms which inhibits growth of other
organisms
a. pesticide b. antibiotic
c. antigen d. antibody

248. The stable product of organic matter decomposition is

a. humus b. lignin,
c. cellulose d. hemicellulose

249. This nitrogen transformation has an acidifying effect

a. volatilization b. nitrogen fixation
c. nitrification d. denitrification

250. The association between plant root and fungus is known as

a. symbiosis b. lichens
c. competition d. mycorrhiza

251. Once a soil has been fallowed, the organic matter content usually
a. decreases
b. increases
c. remains relatively unchanged
d. all of the above

252. Nitrogen fixing bacteria are generally called:

a. denitrifiers b. denitrificans
c. diazotrophs d. diazomorphs

253. It is a symbiotic N-fixing microsymbiont which is slow grower and do not produce
acids:
a. Rhizobium b. Bradyrhizobium
c. Azorhizobium d. all of the above

254. Free-living N2 fixing organisms which are dominant in anaerobic condition:

a. Azotobacter b. Beijerinckia
c. Clostridium d. Cyanobacteria.

255. Which one is not involved in the reduction of SO4-2 to H2S ?

a. Desulfovibrio sp. b. Cyanobacteria
c. Desulfotomaculum d. all of the above

256. Which of the following is a P- solubilizing bacteria ?

a. Bacillus megatherium b. Cyanobacteria,
c. Arthrobacter d. none of the above
257. Mycorrhiza means fungus-root/tree association; presence of hyphae between root
cortical cells is called:
a. Ectomycorrhiza b. Endomycorrhiza
c. mycorrhizae d. all of the above

258. Heterotrophs which use pesticides as substrates:

a. Arthrobacter b. Pseudomonas
c. Aspergillus d. all of the above

259. One of the following microorganisms is not involved in the production of growth-
promoting hormones ( e.g. IAA, GA, cytokinins):
a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp
c. Bacillus megatherium d. yeasts

260. A microorganism involved in the bioremediation of oil and other xenobiotics: .

a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Bacillus megatherium d. yeasts

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261. Microorganisms used as a compost-fungus activator (CFA)
a. Agrobacterium b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Trichoderma sp d. all of the above

262. Microoorganism capable of producing antibiotics

a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp
c. Streptomycetes d. Aspergillus

263. Microoorganism capable of solubilizing potassium minerals into soluble potassium

ions
a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp
c. Streptomycetes d. Bacillus mucilaginosus

264. This is a unicellular, chemoautotrophic sulfur oxidizer :

a. Thiobacillus sp b. Purple and green sulfur bacteria
c. Arthrobacter d. Beggiatoa

265. The reduction of SO4-2 to H2S is mediated mainly by this anaerobic

sulfate-reducing bacteria:
a. Desulfovibrio sp b. Desulfomonas sp
c. Desulfotomaculum d. all of the above

266. Which of the following is a non-symbiotic N2 fixer?

a. Azorhizobium b. Kleibsiella
c. Azospirillum d. Nostoc

267. Which of the following microorganisms is not involved in the production of growth-
promoting hormones :
a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Yeasts d Cyanobacteria

268. A microorganism involved in the conversion of NH4-N to NO2-N: .

a. Azospirillum brasilense b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Nitrosomonas d. yeasts

269. Which of the following microorganisms is an organic matter decomposer

a. Agrobacterium b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Trichoderma sp. d. Azotobacter

270. A substance that gives active nodules a red interior color

a. Thiobacillus sp. b. Purple and green sulfur bacteria
c. leghemoglobin d. Beggiatoa

271. Primary end product of organic matter decomposition/oxidation in aerobic soil

conditions
a. CO2 b. H2O
c. H2PO4- d. CH4

272. The most important means of removing toxic chemicals is through

a. leaching in drainage water
b. evaporation of gaseous toxic substances
c. dumping into the ocean
d. breaking down toxic compounds by biological decomposition

273. An autotrophic bacteria responsible in the biochemical oxidation of NO 2- to NO3-

a. Nitrosomonas b. Azotobacter
c. Nitrobacter d. Methanomonas
274. Methemoglobinemia, also called blue baby syndrome occurs when certain bacteria
found in the guts of ruminants convert ingested
a. nitrate (NO3-) into nitrite (NO2-)
b. ammonium (NH4+) into nitrite (NO2-)
c. Hydrogen sulfides (H2S) into sulfates (SO4-2)
d. Sulfates (SO4-2) into H2S

275. One of these processes results in the availability of nitrogen in the soil

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 a. mineralization c. denitrification
c. volatilization d. leaching

276. The enzyme responsible in nitrogen fixation is

a. nitrate reductase c. nitrogenase
c. catalase d. carboxylase

277. Decomposers which work both under aerobic and anaerobic conditions
a. actinomycetes c. fungi
c. bacteria d. algae

278. Of the following, the one that is not carbohydrate is

a. lignin c. cellulose
c. starch d. hemicelluloses

279. The source of energy for blue green –algae is

a. sunlight
b. metabolism of glucose
c. organic matter decomposition
d. oxidation of inorganic compounds

280. The fixation and regeneration of CO2 in the biosphere is referred to as

a. carbon cycle b. CO2 evolution
c. respiration d. nutrient cycle

281. The initial substrate for denitrification is

a. nitrite b. nitrate
c. ammonium d. amine

282. When NO3 is denitrified all the way to N2, there is a shift in the valence of N from
+5 to
a. +4 c. +1
c. +3 d. 0

283. Which of the following bacterial genera had been known to be capable of
denitrification?
a. Agrobacterium b. Thiobacillus
c. Azospirillum d. all of the above

284. This is an aerobic, non-symbiotic nitrogen fixer

a. Azotobacter c. Rhizobia
b. Clostridium d. Anabaena azolla

285. Denitrification is a process that results in the loss of nitrogen from the soil; it
occurs largely in
a. upland/aerobic soils c. grasslands
b. paddy/anaerobic soils d. forest vegetation

286. Immobilization of available N by microorganisms results in the temporary loss of

nitrogen from the soil because immobilized N becomes
a. permanently available to plants
b. permanently unavailable to plants
c. mineralized again when the microbes die
d. leached into irrigation system

287. Under similar condition, the most resistant component of organic residues to
decomposition is
a. lignins and waxes c. hemicellulose
b. cellulose d. starches and proteins

288. In general, the end product of the oxidation of organic compounds in the soil is
a. CO2 c. CO2 + H2O
b. CO2 + 2H2O + energy d. H2O + energy

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289. Primary end product of organic matter decomposition/oxidation in anaerobic soil
condition (swamps)
a. CO2 c. H2PO4-
b. H2O d. CH4

290. Which of the statements below does not refer to the benefits from mycorrhizal
association by plants?
a. enhance the ability of plants to take up phosphorus
b. enhance nodulation and N-fixation by legumes
c. decrease plant’s resistance to certain soil borne diseases
d. improve water uptake making plants more resistant to drought

291. This is not one of the requirements for the process of mineralization to occur
a. aerobic condition b. nitrate ions
c. organisms d. organic residues

292. This microorganism is a nitrogen fixer

a. Azotobacter b. mycorrhizae
c. Nitrobacter d. Nitrosomonas

293. This microorganism converts CO to CO2

a. Agrobacterium b. Pseudomonas sp.
c. Trichoderma sp. d. all of the above

294. The group of microorganisms which have the ability to photosynthesize

a. algae b. fungi
c nematodes d. protozoa

295. These are produced by soil organism which also allow them to use some toxins in
the soil as food
a. antibiotics b. energy
c. enzymes d. humus

296. The organic fraction of the soil that includes plant and animal residues at various
stages of decomposition
a. animal manure b. carbon
b. humus d. soil organic matter

297. One of these groups of organisms is not involved in the process of ammonification
a. actinomycetes b. algae
c. bacteria d. fungi

298. This is not one of the requirements for the process of nitrification
a. aerobic condition b. ammonium ions
c. nitrate ions d. organisms

299. This is not required for the process of denitrification to proceed

a. anaerobic condition b. nitrate ions
c. oxygen d. soil pH favorable for denitrifiers

300. It is not a function of soil organic matter in the soil

a. increases CEC
b. provides C and energy source to soil
c. provides essential nutrients microorganisms
d. provides soil air

Section 5. Soil Fertility and Management

301. The ability of the soil to replenish the amount of nutrients in the soil solution
a. Intensity factor b. Capacity factor
c. Buffering capacity d. Availability

302. This micronutrient is needed in N -fixation by leguminous plants and is usually

deficient in acid upland soil

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 a. Molybdenum b. Zinc
c. Iron d. Manganese

303. What is the inherent capacity of the soil to supply nutrients to plants in adequate
amount and suitable proportion called?
a. Soil productivity b. Nutrient availability
c. Intensity factor d. Soil fertility

304. A method of soil fertility evaluation whereby concentration of nutrients in the soil
are known before a crop is planted
a. Biological test b. Soil analysis
c. Plant analysis d. Nutrient deficiency symptoms
305. It is considered as one of the causes of soil acidity
a. Crop rotation b. Irrigation
c. Liming d. Leaching of bases

306. The concentration of nutrients in the soil solution

a. Buffering capacity b. Reserve acidity
c. Intensity factor d. Capacity factor

307. This macroelement is a component of protein and chlorophyll and is most limiting
element in crop production except for legumes
a. Nitrogen b. Phosphorus
c. Potassium d. Calcium

308. This macroelement is a metal component of chlorophyll and is deficient in acid

upland soil
a. Nitrogen b. Calcium
c. Copper d. Magnesium

309. When nutrients are immobile, deficiency shows up first in

a. Stems b. Older leaves
c. Younger leaves d. Senescent leaves

310. A process of movement of individual ion due to difference in concentration

a. Diffusion b. Absorption
c. Mass flow d. Root elongation

311. The enzyme responsible in solubilization of phosphorus

a. catalase b. Nitrogenase
c. Carboxylase d. phosphatase

312. The form of nitrogen available for plant’s use is

a. N2O b. NO c. N2 d. NO3-
313. A term that indicates excessive level of nutrient in the plant or soil
a. Sufficiency b. Toxicity
c. Deficiency d. Poverty adjustment

314. A soil chemical property which largely controls nutrient availability and microbial
activities
a. Buffering capacity b. Cation exchange capacity
c. Soil pH d. Electrical conductivity

315. The most appropriate soil management which increases availability of adsorbed P in
acidic upland soil
a. Fertilizer application b. Prolonged anaerobic conditions
c. Organic matter application d. Liming
316. Nutrient deficiency symptoms is referred to as a language of the crop. What is the
term given to describe general yellowing of leaves as a result of the deficiency of
some nutrient elements?
a. Necrosis b. Chlorosis
c. Plasmolysis d. Defective

317. A term that indicates low level of nutrient elements in the plant or soil
a. Sufficiency b. Toxicity
c. Deficiency d. Poverty adjustment

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318. The nutrient elements in organic matter and minerals are considered unavailable.
The most available form of nutrients are in
a. Fixed b. Occluded
c. Exchangeable d. Soil solution

319. The macroelement which functions as a constituent of energy transfer metabolites

a. Phosphorus b. Potassium
c. Sulfur d. Calcium

320. Which of the following element is not essential to plants?

a. Sulfur b. Vanadium
c. Boron d. Molybdenum

321. These elements are micronutrients and are required by plants in small amounts
a. N, P and K b. Cu, Mn and S
c. Cu, Mg and S d. Zn, Co and Mn

322. Essential elements derived from air and water

a. C, S and H b. N, S and C
c. C, O and H d. N, C and S

323. When nutrients dissolved in water are transported to the root surface, the
mechanism is
a. Mass flow b. Diffusion
c. Contact exchange d. Root interception
324. When nutrients are mobile, deficiency symptoms will be observed first in
a. Younger leaves b. Older leaves
c. Stems d. Senescent leaves

325. The process that renders an element available to plants

a. Volatilization b. Immobilization
c. Denitrification d. Mineralization

326. Which of these elements is available to plants in anionic form?

a. Calcium b. Magnesium
c. Phosphorus d. Iron

327. The micronutrient involved in the translocation of sugar in plant

a. Copper b. Calcium
c. Boron d. Potassium

328. The process that renders P available to plants

a. Fixation b. Nitrification
c. Solubilization d. Ammonification

329. A physical effect of lime

a. Increase water holding capacity of soil
b. Enhance decomposition of organic matter
c. Increase the CEC
d. Increase P availability

330. It is the amount of lime to be applied to the soil in order to increase its soil pH
a. Fertilizer recommendationb. Lime requirement
c. Analysis grade d. Relative neutralizing power

331. It is a mixture of animal excreta and soiled beddings that accumulates in stables or
barns
a. Farm manure b. Compost
c. Green manure d. Poultry manure

332. A method of fertilizer application whereby fertilizer materials are spread evenly on
the soil surface
a. Band method b. Broadcast
c. Ring method d. Foliar application

333. It is a measure of the effectiveness of the lime to neutralize soil acidity

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 a. Form of lime b. Relative replacing power
c. Particle size of lime d. Relative neutralizing power

334. Which of these elements is available to plants in cationic form?

a. Sulfur b. Chlorine
c. Molybdenum d. Potassium

335. The most active agent of the soil erosion process in Philippines and other areas in
the humid tropics
a. wind b. ice
c. water d. glaciers

336. The molecular weight of dolomite, CaMg(CO3)2 is

a. 56 g b. 84 g
c. 100 g d. 184 g

337. Which of these liming materials is the most soluble?

a. CaO b. CaMg(CO3)2
c. CaCO3 d. Ca(OH)2
338. The RNP of dolomite is
a. 54.35% b. 45.65%
c. 100% d. 109%

For items 339-341, refer to: Using urea (45-0-0), Solophos (0-20-0) and KCl (0-0-60) to
satisfy a fertilizer recommendation of 80-70-30 calculate the following:

339. The amount of urea (45-0-0) needed to satisfy the above recommendation is
a. 177.8 kg/ha b. 187.7 kg/ha
c. 200 kg/ha d. 400 kg/ha

340. The amount of solophos needed to satisfy the above recommendation is

a. 300 kg/ha b. 350 kg/ha
c. 400 kg/ha d. 450 kg/ha

341. The amount of KCl needed to satisfy the above recommendation

a. 50 kg/ha b. 75 kg/ha
c. 100 kg/ha d. 150 kg/ha

342. Amount of N supplied by the application of 9 bags of ammonium sulfate (20-0-0)

a. 30 kg b. 60 kg
c. 90 kg d. 120 kg

343. A condition in which plants may absorb more nutrient than they need for maximum
growth is termed as
a. critical concentration b. luxury consumption
c. nutrient uptake d. nutrient removal

344. The movement of water together with dissolved ions through the soils is
a. root interception b. diffusion
c. contact exchange d. mass flow

345. Which is not a characteristic of organic fertilizers?

a. bulky b. readily soluble
c. low nutrient content d. improves soil fertility

346. Which organic fertilizer has the highest pure nitrogen?

a. compost b. chicken dung
c. guano d. cow manure

347. Which of the following is both an organic and inorganic fertilizer?

a. sulfate of potash b. triple superphosphate
c. urea d. ammonium sulfate
348. The ability of fertilizer to take up and retain moisture is
a. hydrologic cycle b. hydration
c. hygroscopicity d. hydrolysis

349. The mineral source of phosphorus is

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 a. apatite b. gypsum
c. hematite d. orthoclase

350. Which of the following N-containing fertilizers has the highest analysis?
a. ammonium sulfate b. ammonium phosphate
c. ammonium nitrate d. urea

351. A single element or straight fertilizer

a) complete fertilizer (14-14-14) b) ammonium phosphate
c) urea d) none of the above

352. The available form of nitrogen is

a) N2 b) N20
c) NH4+ d) NH3

353. This ratio determines mineralization rate of organic matter

a) N/S b) C/N
c) P/N d) N/K

354. This metal ion is usually in toxic amount in strongly acid soils
a) aluminum b) calcium
c) potassium d) magnesium

355. Deficiency of these elements causes chlorosis (yellowing)

a) N & Ca b) P& Ca
c) N & S d) Fe & Cl

356. The suitable fertilizer for an alkaline N deficient soil is

a) urea b) ammonium phosphate
c) ammonium sulfate d) none of the above

357. The appropriate N fertilizer for a sulfur deficient soil is

a) urea b) ammonium nitrate
c) potassium nitrate d) ammonium sulfate

358. These elements are constituents of amino acids, proteins and nucleic acids :
a) Ca, Mg, S b) N, P, K
c) N, P, S d) P, K, S

359. The term below are factors affecting nutrient availability except for one. Identify
this term
a) capacity b) weathering
c) intensity d) rate of replenishment

360. This element is a constituent of the middle lamella or cell walls and a binder of
phospholipids in membranes:
a) Mg b) Ca
c) P d) K

361. The mechanism of nutrient absorption whereby dissolved nutrients go with the
convective flow of water from the soil to the plant root:
a) contact exchange b) diffusion
c) mass flow d) root interception

362. All these processes contribute in the decline in soil fertility except :
a) crop removal b) soil erosion and runoff
c) green manuring d) clay fixation

363. The Haber Bosch process for making N fertilizer:

a) N2 + N2O NH3 c) N2 + O2 NO3-
b) N2 + 3H2 2NH3 d) N2 + H2O NO3-
364. The enzyme needed to transform urea to (NH4)2CO3 in soil:
a) carboxylase b) anhydrase
c) urease d) papase

365. The percent N, P2O5 and K2O in a fertilizer is:

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 a) fertilizer ratio b) fertilizer grade
c) fertilizer recommendation d) fertilizer brand

366. This element has a role in stomatal movements:

a) Mg b) Ca
c) P d) K

367. Which of the following fertilizer materials is highly soluble in water?

a) 21-0-0 b) 0-20-0
c) 16-20-0 d) 15-15-15

368. A method of fertilizer placement whereby fertilizers are applied uniformly on the
soil surface
a) banding b) basal
c) broadcasting d) foliar

369. This macro element is not a component of protein and chlorophyll

a) nitrogen b) phosphorus
c) potassium d) sulfur

370. This macro element is not a component of any organic molecule in the plant, its
function is more catalytic in nature and usually deficient in coarse-textured soils
a) nitrogen b) potassium
c) phosphorus d) calcium

371. This macronutrient is a metal component of chlorophyll and is deficient in acid

upland soil
a) nitrogen b) calcium
c) magnesium d) copper

372. Which element is not available to plants at strongly acidic pH?

a) Ca b) F
c) Al d) Mn

373. Purpling of the leaves is a common deficiency symptom of

a) K b) Mn
c) P b) B
374. A method of evaluating soil fertility which makes use of critical concentration in
plant tissues
a) plant analysis b) soil analysis
c) fertilizer trial d) tissue test

375. A method of soil fertility evaluation whereby nutrient disorders manifested by the
growth performance of the crops are assessed:
a) biological test b) plant analysis
c) use of deficiency symptoms d) soil chemical analysis

376. Which does not belong to the group?

a) guano b) night soil
c) urea d) chicken dung

377. The advantage of organic fertilizer over inorganic fertilizer is

a) higher analysis b) immediate effect
c) more available d) long term effect

378. The available form of nitrogen in submerged soil is:

a) N2 b) N20
c) NH4+ d) NH3

379. Hydrogen is used by plants as:

a) H+ b) OH-
c) H2O2 d) H2O

380. It is a natural gas used in industrial fixation of nitrogen to produce NH 3 :

a) CO2 b) N2
c) O2 d) CH4

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381. During atmospheric electrical discharges, lightning converts N and O gas to :
a) N2 b) NH3
c) NO3- d) NH4+

382. Which among the following processes of nitrogen transformation in the soil is
purely chemical?
a) denitrification b) immobilization
c) volatilization d) immobilization

383. To control P availability, which of the following should be done?

a) liming
b) place fertilizer in bands near the seed
c) maintain organic matter levels for P release
d) all of the above

384. Which among the following marginal soils, Potassium (K+) is limiting?
a) acid soils b) soils with low CEC
c) coarse textured soils d) all of the above

385. Stunted growth and yellowish green older leaves in plants is due to the deficiency
of this element :
a) K b) S
c) N d) Mg

386. A tool used in rapid evaluation of soil nutrients adapted by the Department of
Agriculture :
a) leaf color chart (LCC)
b) minus-one element technique (MOET)
c) soil test kit (STK)
d) all of the above

387. Potassium is directly released into the solution from the weathering of:
a) orthoclase feldspar b) allophane
c) goethite d) gibbsite

388. Calcium comes from the weathering of these minerals and rocks:
a) plagioclase feldspars b) apatite
c) limestones and gypsum d) all of the above

389. The mineral source of boron:

a) feldspars b) apatite
c) tourmaline d) none of the above

390. Which of the following is not a characteristic of an organic fertilizer?

a) low nutrient analysis b) slow availability
c) contain all the essential d) none of the above
elements

391. The following synthetic fertilizer materials are inorganic except:

a) urea b) muriate of potash c) ordinary superphosphate d) ammonium sulfate

392. Which of the following fertilizer materials is inorganic?;

a) urea b) vermicast
c) guano d) none of the above
393. An enzyme that catalyzes the breakdown of urea ((NH2)2CO) to (NH4 )2CO3 :
a) amylase b) urease
c) nitrogenase d) nitrate reductase

394. This fertilizer material contains 21% nitrogen:

a) urea b) ammonium sulfate
c) muriate of potash d) anhydrous ammonia

395. This fertilizer material contains 20% P205:

a) rock phosphate, b) ordinary superphosphate,
c) treble superphosphate, d) none of the above

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396. Muriate of potash contains:
a) 60% K b) 60% K2
c) 60% KO d) 60% K2O

397. The fertilizer material is drilled along the furrows.

a) band placement b) broadcast
c) localized placement d) target fertilizer application

398. Which among the following fertilizer materials are applied in 2 or 3 splits
particularly in coarse-textured soils? :
a) N & K b) P & K
c) N & P d) N only

399. The normal level of CO2 in the atmosphere is :

a) 0.03%) b) 0.003%
c) 0.3 % d) all of the above

400. Which of the following is not a soil fertility depleting process :

a) crop removal of nutrients b) leaching
c) crop rotation d) erosion

Section 6. Soil Survey and Classification

401. Smallest volume of soil that can be considered a soil individual/body

a. pedon b. horizon
c. ped d. aggregate

402. This is a natural aggregate.

a. pedon b. polypedon
c. ped d. particle

403. It is a diagnostic horizon that occurs at the soil surface which includes the upper
part of the soil darkened by organic matter, the upper eluvial horizons, or both:
a. pedon b. polypedon
c. ped d. epipedon

404. It is the systematic examination, description, classification , and mapping of soils

in an area
a. soil survey b. soil classification
c. soil genesis d. soil taxonomy

405. Kabacan clay loam is an example of a

a. soil type b. soil series
c. soil association d. soil phase

406. It is a thick dark-colored surface diagnostic horizon with high base saturation:
a. umbric b. mollic
c. ochric d. melanic

407. It is like the mollic epipedon except that it has low base saturation
a. umbric b. ochric
c. melanic d. histic

408. The broadest category of soil taxonomy:

a. great group b. suborder
c. order d. family
409. Soils with no diagnostic horizons
a. Entisols b. Inceptisols
c. Alfisols d. Vertisols

410. Soils with mollic epipedon and base saturation percentage (BSP>50%)
a. Oxisols b. Histosol
c. Mollisol d. Spodosol

411. Soil with a warm temperature regime, an argillic horizon and percent base
saturation (PBS) <35%

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 a. Entisols b. Ultisols
c. Inceptisols d. Espasols

412. A soil temperature regime wherein the mean annual soil temperature is 22 0C or
higher and the difference between mean summer and mean winter temperature is
less than 50C
a. mesic b. thermic,
c. hyperthermic d. isohyperthermic

413. The most highly weathered soil characterized by the presence of an oxic subsurface
horizon
a. Ultisols b. Spodosols
c. Alfisols d. Oxisols

414. Soils of volcanic origin are classified under order

a. Andisol b. Gelisols
c. Histosols d. Mollisols

415. A dark red Ultisols with udic moisture regime is

a. Udalfs b. Ustults
c. Udults d. Ustalfs
416. Young soils beginning to show development of genetic horizons
a. Inceptisols b. Entisols
c. Vertisols d. Andisols

417. They are swelling and cracking soils common in lowlands

a. Entisols b. Andisols
c. Oxisols d. Vertisols

418. The soil moisture regime characterized by sufficient moisture throughout the year
a. aquic b. udic
c. ustic d. aridic

419. The soil moisture regime that is characterized by water saturation

a. udic b. aquic
c. ustic d. xeric

420. The soil with a name Typic tropudults belongs to order

a. Alfisols b. Andisols
c. Ultisols d. Mollisolls

421. A suborder Hemists means the soil falls under the order
a. Alfisols b. Oxisols
c. Ultisols d. Histosols
422. One side of a pedon
a. epipedon b. horizon
c. profile d. All of the above

423. A soil unit in a landscape usually consists of a group of very similar pedons closely
associated together in the field
a. pedon b. polypedon
c. ped d. particle

424. A system of soil classification in the Philippines based on the concept of a precisely
defined, selected horizon for classifying soil profiles
a. soil morphology b. soil taxonomy
c. 5th approximation d. soil survey

425. It is a systematic arrangement of soils into groups or categories on the basis of their
characteristics
a. soil survey b. soil classification
c. soil genesis d. soil taxonomy

426. Basis for mapping the distribution of Philippine soils

a. soil series/type b. soil order
c. soil family d. great group

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427. It is an epipedon that fails all the requirements of a mollic.
a. umbric b. ochric
c. melanic d. histic

428. A diagnostic horizon that is like argillic except for its high sodium content
a. spodic b. natric
c. cambic d. salic

429. A highly weathered subsurface horizon in intensively weathered soils of the tropics
consisting of an accumulation of Fe and oxides
a. argillic b. spodic
c. cambic d. oxic

430. Soils with argillic epipedon and base saturation percentage (BSP <35%)
a. Oxisols b. Histosol
c. Mollisol d. Ultisol

431. Soil with a warm temperature regime, an argillic horizon and percent base
saturation (PBS) >35%
a. Entisols b. Ultisols
c. Inceptisols d. Alfisols

432. The total number of soil orders classified under the soil taxonomy
a. 15 b. 10
c. 12 d. 11

433. A soil temperature regime wherein the mean annual soil temperature is 15-22 0C
and the difference between mean summer and mean winter temperature is less than
50C.
a. isomesic b. thermic
c. hyperthermic d. isohyperthermic
434. The most highly weathered soil characterized by the presence of an oxic subsurface
horizon
a. Ultisols b. Spodosols
c. Alfisols d. Oxisols

435. The 12th soil order covering all soils which are permanently frozen/covered with
snow
a. Aridisols b. Spodosols
c. Gelisols d. Vertisols

436. The soil with a name Typic tropudalfs belongs to order

a. Alfisols b. Andisols
c. Ultisols d. Mollisolls

437. A suborder Udults means the soil falls under the order
a. Alfisols b. Oxisols
c. Ultisols d. Mollisolls

438. A suborder Fibrists means the soil falls under the order
a. Alfisols b. Oxisols
c. Ultisols d. Histosols

439. A suborder Histels means the soil falls under the order
a. Gelisols b. Oxisols
c. Ultisols d. Histosols

440. A suborder Aquands means the soil falls under the order
a. Gelisols, b. Oxisols
c. Andisols d. Histosols

441. A suborder Arents means the soil falls under the order
a. Gelisols b. Entisols
c. Andisols d. Histosols

442. A suborder Udept means the soil falls under the order
a. Inceptisols b. Entisols

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 c. Andisols d. Histosols

443. These are Mollisols in aquic moisture regime:

a. Udolls b. Aquolls
c. Ustolls d. Xerolls

444. These are Ultisols in udic moisture regime:

a. Udults b. Aqults
c. Ustults d. Xerults

445. These are the soils formed from volcanic ash and young volcanic materials:
a. Udepts b. Fluvents
c. Udands d. Ustalfs

446. The order of soils with organic soil materials extending down to an impermeable
layer or with an organic layer that is more than 40 cm thick
a. Gelisols b. Histosols
c. Andisols d. Mollisols
447. A soil with a nomenclature: “fine loamy, mixed, non-acidic isophyperthermic Histic
Tropaquoll falls under the order
a. Mollisols b. Gelisols
c. Andisols d. Histosols

448. The soil in Item No. 447 has the temperature

a. fine loamy b. mixed
c. non-acidic d. isohyperthermic

449. The suborder of the same soil in item No. 447

a. Aquoll b. Tropaquoll
c. Oll d. Paquoll

450. The Great group of the same soil in Item No.447

a. Aquoll b. Tropaquoll
c. Oll d. Paquoll

ANSWER KEY
(SOIL SCIENCE)

1 a 51 d 101 c 151 b 201 d

2 a 52 b 102 b 152 c 202 a
3 b 53 a 103 c 153 a 203 a
4 c 54 d 104 b 154 c 204 a
5 a 55 a 105 d 155 c 205 b
6 a 56 b 106 b 156 a 206 c
7 a 57 a 107 c 157 a 207 b
8 a 58 a 108 b 158 d 208 a
9 b 59 b 109 c 159 b 209 d
10 c 60 a 110 c 160 a 210 b

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11 a 61 c 111 b 161 b 211 c
12 b 62 c 112 d 162 c 212 b
13 c 63 a 113 b 163 b 213 d
14 a 64 c 114 c 164 a 214 d
15 b 65 a 115 c 165 a 215 b
16 c 66 b 116 b 166 b 216 d
17 d 67 c 117 b 167 a 217 b
18 b 68 d 118 c 168 b 218 c
19 c 69 c 119 d 169 c 219 c
20 a 70 a 120 c 170 a 220 a
21 b 71 a 121 d 171 b 221 c
22 a 72 a 122 b 172 b 222 a
23 b 73 c 123 c 173 c 223 c
24 a 74 b 124 c 174 c 224 d
25 a 75 b 125 a 175 b 225 a
26 a 76 a 126 c 176 a 226 b
27 a 77 b 127 d 177 a 227 a
28 a 78 d 128 d 178 b 228 d
29 a 79 d 129 c 179 c 229 b
30 c 80 c 130 d 180 b 230 c
31 d 81 c 131 a 181 a 231 a
32 b 82 c 132 d 182 c 232 c
33 c 83 d 133 b 183 d 233 c
34 b 84 d 134 a 184 b 234 c
35 a 85 d 135 b 185 a 235 b
36 a 86 a 136 a 186 c 236 b
37 b 87 b 137 c 187 c 237 b
38 a 88 b 138 b 188 d 238 b
39 b 89 a 139 c 189 a 239 c
40 a 90 c 140 c 190 b 240 a
41 a 91 a 141 a 191 a 241 c
42 b 92 a 142 d 192 a 242 a
43 c 93 c 143 b 193 d 243 a
44 c 94 c 144 c 194 c 244 d
45 b 95 b 145 d 195 c 245 b
46 d 96 c 146 a 196 a 246 b
47 d 97 a 147 c 197 d 247 b
48 c 98 b 148 b 198 c 248 a
49 b 99 b 149 a 199 a 249 c
50 b 100 a 150 c 200 b 250 d

251 b 301 b 351 c 401 A

252 c 302 a 352 c 402 C
253 b 303 d 353 b 403 D
254 c 304 b 354 a 404 A
255 b 305 d 355 c 405 A
256 a 306 c 356 c 406 B
257 a 307 a 357 d 407 A
258 d 308 d 358 c 408 C
259 c 309 c 359 b 409 A
260 b 310 a 360 b 410 c
261 c 311 d 361 c 411 b
262 c 312 d 362 c 412 d
263 d 313 b 363 b 413 d

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264 a 314 c 364 c 414 a
265 d 315 d 365 b 415 c
266 c 316 b 366 d 416 a
267 d 317 c 367 a 417 d
268 c 318 d 368 c 418 b
269 c 319 a 369 c 419 b
270 c 320 b 370 b 420 c
271 a 321 d 371 c 421 d
272 d 322 c 372 a 422 c
273 c 323 a 373 c 423 b
274 a 324 b 374 a 424 b
275 a 325 d 375 c 425 b
276 c 326 c 376 c 426 a
277 c 327 c 377 d 427 b
278 a 328 c 378 c 428 b
279 a 329 a 379 d 429 d
280 a 330 b 380 d 430 d
281 b 331 a 381 c 431 d
282 d 332 b 382 c 432 c
283 b 333 d 383 d 433 c
284 a 334 d 384 d 434 d
285 b 335 c 385 c 435 c
286 c 336 d 386 c 436 a
287 a 337 a 387 a 437 c
288 b 338 d 388 d 438 d
289 d 339 a 389 c 439 a
290 c 340 b 390 d 440 c
291 b 341 a 391 a 441 b
292 a 342 c 392 d 442 a
293 b 343 b 393 b 443 b
294 a 344 d 294 b 444 a
295 c 345 b 395 b 445 c
296 d 346 b 396 d 446 b
297 b 347 c 397 a 447 a
298 c 348 c 398 a 448 d
299 c 349 a 399 a 449 a
300 d 350 d 400 c 450 b

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