PPSC Draftsman and Head Draftsman Question Paper All Set
PPSC Draftsman and Head Draftsman Question Paper All Set
*A* Question
Booklet Set
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
A
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 480 Marks. Each question shall carry 4 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (1 mark for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before answering
the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
D-2022 (A–1)
SECTION A 5. In case of brick manufacturing, if the
amount of silica in clay is in excess
1. For which projection method is the
quantity, then excessiveness of silica
following graphical symbol applicable ?
will
D-2022 (A–2)
8. What is the proportion of cement : fine 11. The paint having metal oxides such as
aggregate : coarse aggregate in case of Fe2O3, PbO, ZnO, etc. is called
M25 grade of concrete ?
(a) Distemper
(a) 1:3:6
(b) Enamel
(b) 1:2:4
(c) Oil
1
(c) 1:1 :3
2 (d) Emulsion
(d) 1:1:2
(b) Shotcreting
D-2022 (A–3)
14. Name the type of the following brick 16. Which one of the following is the most
masonry : economical foundation when heavy
structural loads from columns are
required to be transferred to a soil of
low bearing capacity ?
(a) Grillage
(b) Deep
(c) Raft
(d) Shallow
(b) Rat Trap Bond 17. In case of foundation, the net loading
intensity at which neither the soil fails
(c) Facing Bond
in shear nor is there excessive
(d) Backing Bond settlement detrimental to the
structure is known as
D-2022 (A–4)
19. A semi-rigid material which forms an 22. In a contour plan, if contour lines are
excellent impervious layer for damp drawn with a contour interval of 2 m
proofing course is called and if the gradient is 1 in 30, then the
horizontal distance required between
(a) Tar felt
successive points on consecutive
(b) Bituminous felt contours will be
(c) 45 m
(d) 60 m
(d) Voussoir
D-2022 (A–5)
25. A strip of land permanently left open 29. Oblique sections are useful to show the
for drainage purposes, neither used as ____________.
an access way nor like a street and
(a) Interior shapes
never included as a part of setbacks is
known as (b) Oblique lines
(c) Jhot
(d) Loft
30. Which of the following defects occur in
26. When the angle of splay becomes 900 the seasoning process of wood ?
then the wing walls are known as (a) Bow
(a) Straight Wing Walls (b) Brown rot
(b) Splayed Wing Walls (c) Sap stain
(c) Return Wing Walls
(d) Blue stain
(d) Trestle Wing Walls
28. If top view of a line is a point, its front (d) Rapid Hardening Cement
view is ___________.
(a) parallel to xy line and of true
length 32. The maximum limit of weight of
(b) parallel to xy line and of apparent fibreboards is __________.
length
(a) 960 kg/m3
(c) perpendicular to xy line and of
(b) 1960 kg/m3
true length
(c) 2460 kg/m3
(d) perpendicular to xy line and of
apparent length (d) 2960 kg/m3
D-2022 (A–6)
33. Which of the following is not a variety 37. A _________ is a projecting stone which
of industrial timber ? is usually provided to serve as support
(a) Veneers for roof truss, beam, weather shed, etc.
35. Plastics are divided into thermoplastic 39. A ___________ junction is formed when
and thermosetting on the basis of their two continuous walls cross or intersect
___________. each other.
(a) Behaviour with respect to heating (a) Squint
(b) Structure (b) Cross
(c) Physical properties (c) Obtuse squint
(d) Mechanical properties (d) Right angle
36. The height of the plinth should not be 40. The usual concrete mix for RCC lintel
less than __________. is ________ (cement : sand : aggregate).
D-2022 (A–7)
41. Which of the following is the first 45. Which key is used to obtain properties
principle of surveying ? palette in AutoCAD ?
D-2022 (A–8)
49. Due to change in price level, a revised 53. Which foundation is suitable for the
estimate is prepared if the sanctioned construction of bridge ?
estimate exceeds
(a) Pile
(a) 2·0%
(b) Shallow
(b) 2·5%
(c) Grillage
(c) 4·0%
(d) Inverted arch
(d) 5·0%
52. Slab culverts are suitable for 56. The minimum diameter of manhole
maximum span of cover should be
(a) 3m (a) 25 cm
(b) 6m (b) 50 cm
(c) 9m (c) 75 cm
(d) 12 m (d) 100 cm
D-2022 (A–9)
57. For a city or town with roads of 61. The imaginary line passing through
rectangular pattern, the type of layout points having equal magnetic
used for the distribution of pipes is declination is termed as
(a) dead end system
(a) Isogon
(b) ring system
(c) radial system (b) Agonic line
D-2022 ( A – 10 )
64. If the length of the chain is found to be 68. A canal which is aligned at right
short on testing, it can be adjusted by angles to the contour is called
D-2022 ( A – 11 )
72. The science which deals with the 76. The lime used for finishing coat in
sound insulation in a building is plastering is
known as ___________.
(a) Semi-hydraulic lime
(a) Reverberation
(b) Kankar lime
(b) Transmission
(c) Magnesium lime
(c) Acoustic
(d) Eminently hydraulic lime
(d) Airborne
D-2022 ( A – 12 )
80. The age of trees can be predicted by 85. In fireproof paints, the main
(a) length of medulary rays constituent is
D-2022 ( A – 13 )
89. The structure which allows the water 93. Which mode allows the user to draw
to pass under roads, railways is known perpendicular straight lines ?
as
(a) OSNAP
(a) Bridge
(b) Ortho
(b) Drainage
(c) Linear
(c) Tunnel
(d) Polar tracking
(d) Culvert
D-2022 ( A – 14 )
97. For DPC at plinth level, the commonly SECTION B
adopted material is
101. Shaheed Bhagat Singh is associated
(a) Bitumen sheet with
(b) Plastic sheet (a) Republican Party of India
(c) Mastic Asphalt (b) Ghadar Party
D-2022 ( A – 15 )
105. The major source of energy generation 109. Which one of the following river drains
in India is into the Arabian Sea ?
(d) CFC
112. Total time taken by a person in going
to a place by walking, and returning
on cycle is 5 hours 45 minutes. He
108. Who among the following won the would have gained 2 hours by cycling
both ways. The time taken by him to
57th Jnanpith Award ?
walk both ways is
(a) Nilmani Phookan
(a) 6 hours 45 minutes
(b) Damodar Mauzo
(b) 7 hours 45 minutes
(c) Akkitham Achuthan Namboothiri
(c) 8 hours 15 minutes
(d) Amitav Ghosh
(d) 8 hours 30 minutes
D-2022 ( A – 16 )
113. Consider the following matrix. 115. In a month of 31 days, the third
Wednesday falls on the 15th. What will
3 8 10 2 ? 1
be the last day of that month ?
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 4th Sunday
What is the missing number at “?” in
the matrix ? (b) 5th Wednesday
(a) 5
(c) 5th Thursday
(b) 0
(d) 5th Friday
(c) 7
(d) 3
D-2022 ( A – 17 )
117. A hall 200 m 50 m is to be paved 119. A scores more runs than B but less
with square tiles. If the price of one than C. D scores more than B but less
tile of 10 cm 10 cm is < 3·50, then than A. Who is the lowest scorer ?
find the cost of paving the hall.
(a) B
(a) < 35 lakh
(b) A
(b) < 30 lakh
(c) D
(c) < 45 lakh
(d) C
(d) < 25 lakh
(b) Grandmother
(b) 21
(c) Aunt
(c) 18
D-2022 ( A – 18 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
D-2022 ( A – 19 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
D-2022 ( A – 20 )
Booklet Sr. No.
*B* Question
Booklet Set
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
B
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 480 Marks. Each question shall carry 4 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (1 mark for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before answering
the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
D-2022 (B–1)
SECTION A 5. Oblique sections are useful to show the
____________.
1. A strip of land permanently left open
(a) Interior shapes
for drainage purposes, neither used as
an access way nor like a street and (b) Oblique lines
never included as a part of setbacks is
(c) Foreshortened features
known as
(d) Projected features
(a) Jhamp
(b) Ledge
(c) Jhot
6. Which of the following defects occur in
(d) Loft
the seasoning process of wood ?
3. Which grade of pencil is used for 7. Which of the following cement is used
drawing arrowheads ? in sewage and water treatment
(a) 2H plants ?
D-2022 (B–2)
9. Which of the following is not a variety 13. A _________ is a projecting stone which
of industrial timber ? is usually provided to serve as support
(a) Veneers for roof truss, beam, weather shed, etc.
11. Plastics are divided into thermoplastic 15. A ___________ junction is formed when
and thermosetting on the basis of their two continuous walls cross or intersect
___________. each other.
(a) Behaviour with respect to heating (a) Squint
(b) Structure (b) Cross
(c) Physical properties (c) Obtuse squint
(d) Mechanical properties (d) Right angle
12. The height of the plinth should not be 16. The usual concrete mix for RCC lintel
less than __________. is ________ (cement : sand : aggregate).
D-2022 (B–3)
17. Which of the following is the first 21. Which key is used to obtain properties
principle of surveying ? palette in AutoCAD ?
D-2022 (B–4)
25. Due to change in price level, a revised 29. Which foundation is suitable for the
estimate is prepared if the sanctioned construction of bridge ?
estimate exceeds
(a) Pile
(a) 2·0%
(b) Shallow
(b) 2·5%
(c) Grillage
(c) 4·0%
(d) Inverted arch
(d) 5·0%
28. Slab culverts are suitable for 32. The minimum diameter of manhole
maximum span of cover should be
(a) 3m (a) 25 cm
(b) 6m (b) 50 cm
(c) 9m (c) 75 cm
(d) 12 m (d) 100 cm
D-2022 (B–5)
33. For a city or town with roads of 37. The imaginary line passing through
rectangular pattern, the type of layout points having equal magnetic
used for the distribution of pipes is declination is termed as
(a) dead end system
(a) Isogon
(b) ring system
(c) radial system (b) Agonic line
D-2022 (B–6)
40. If the length of the chain is found to be 44. A canal which is aligned at right
short on testing, it can be adjusted by angles to the contour is called
D-2022 (B–7)
48. The science which deals with the 52. The lime used for finishing coat in
sound insulation in a building is plastering is
known as ___________.
(a) Semi-hydraulic lime
(a) Reverberation
(b) Kankar lime
(b) Transmission
(c) Magnesium lime
(c) Acoustic
(d) Eminently hydraulic lime
(d) Airborne
D-2022 (B–8)
56. The age of trees can be predicted by 61. In fireproof paints, the main
(a) length of medulary rays constituent is
D-2022 (B–9)
65. The structure which allows the water 69. Which mode allows the user to draw
to pass under roads, railways is known perpendicular straight lines ?
as
(a) OSNAP
(a) Bridge
(b) Ortho
(b) Drainage
(c) Linear
(c) Tunnel
(d) Polar tracking
(d) Culvert
D-2022 ( B – 10 )
73. For DPC at plinth level, the commonly 77. For which projection method is the
adopted material is following graphical symbol applicable ?
D-2022 ( B – 11 )
81. In case of brick manufacturing, if the 84. What is the proportion of cement : fine
amount of silica in clay is in excess aggregate : coarse aggregate in case of
quantity, then excessiveness of silica M25 grade of concrete ?
will
(a) 1:3:6
(a) Make the brick brittle and weak (b) 1:2:4
(b) Change the colour from red to 1
(c) 1:1 :3
yellow 2
(d) 1:1:2
(c) Improve permeability and
durability
(d) Make the brick crack and warp 85. The most effective process of repairing
on drying concrete work to provide impervious
layer is usually done by pouring a
mixture of cement and sand (1 : 3) in a
82. Right proportion of SiO2 in chemical cement gun and deposit it on the
inferior work by pressure of 20 N/cm2
composition of Portland cement helps
to 30 N/cm2, is called
in controlling strength but if it gets
excess then what will happen ? (a) Grouting
(c) Guniting
(b) Setting time increases
(d) Trimming
(c) Discolouration effect occurs
D-2022 ( B – 12 )
87. The paint having metal oxides such as 90. Name the type of the following brick
Fe2O3, PbO, ZnO, etc. is called masonry :
(a) Distemper
(b) Enamel
(c) Oil
(d) Emulsion
D-2022 ( B – 13 )
92. Which one of the following is the most 95. A semi-rigid material which forms an
economical foundation when heavy excellent impervious layer for damp
structural loads from columns are proofing course is called
required to be transferred to a soil of
(a) Tar felt
low bearing capacity ?
(d) Shallow
D-2022 ( B – 14 )
98. In a contour plan, if contour lines are SECTION B
drawn with a contour interval of 2 m
101. Which one of the following river drains
and if the gradient is 1 in 30, then the
into the Arabian Sea ?
horizontal distance required between
successive points on consecutive (a) Indravati
contours will be (b) Narmada
(c) Godavari
(a) 15 m
(d) Cauvery
(b) 30 m
99. When the telescope of a theodolite is (d) Ocean Tower and Landmark
Tower
rotated clockwise then it is called
D-2022 ( B – 15 )
105. Consider the following matrix. 107. In a month of 31 days, the third
Wednesday falls on the 15th. What will
3 8 10 2 ? 1
be the last day of that month ?
6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 4th Sunday
What is the missing number at “?” in
the matrix ? (b) 5th Wednesday
(a) 5
(c) 5th Thursday
(b) 0
(d) 5th Friday
(c) 7
(d) 3
D-2022 ( B – 16 )
109. A hall 200 m 50 m is to be paved 111. A scores more runs than B but less
with square tiles. If the price of one than C. D scores more than B but less
tile of 10 cm 10 cm is < 3·50, then than A. Who is the lowest scorer ?
find the cost of paving the hall.
(a) B
(a) < 35 lakh
(b) A
(b) < 30 lakh
(c) D
(c) < 45 lakh
(d) C
(d) < 25 lakh
(a) Mother
(a) 20
D-2022 ( B – 17 )
113. Shaheed Bhagat Singh is associated 117. The major source of energy generation
with in India is
(a) Republican Party of India (a) Nuclear
(b) Ghadar Party (b) Non-conventional
(c) Hindustan Socialist Republican (c) Thermal
Association
(d) Hyde
(d) Congress Socialist Party
D-2022 ( B – 18 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
D-2022 ( B – 19 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
D-2022 ( B – 20 )
Booklet Sr. No.
*C* Question
Booklet Set
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
C
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 480 Marks. Each question shall carry 4 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (1 mark for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before answering
the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
D-2022 (C–1)
SECTION A 4. If the length of the chain is found to be
short on testing, it can be adjusted by
1. The imaginary line passing through
(a) straightening the links
points having equal magnetic
(b) removing one or more small
declination is termed as
circular rings
(a) Isogon (c) closing the joints of the rings if
opened up
(b) Agonic line
(d) tapping the chain on the ground
(c) Isoclinic line
D-2022 (C–3)
16. The lime used for finishing coat in 20. The age of trees can be predicted by
plastering is (a) length of medulary rays
(a) Semi-hydraulic lime (b) counting the number of rings
(b) Kankar lime (c) measuring the diameter of pith
(c) Magnesium lime (d) the thickness of bark
(d) Eminently hydraulic lime
21. Seasoning of timber is necessary to
(a) Increase fire resistance
(b) Increase vermin resistance
17. Surkhi is added to lime mortar to
(c) Reduce microbial substances
(a) Prevent shrinkage
(d) Expel moisture present in timber
(b) Decrease setting time
(c) Increase bulk
22. Plywood is specified by
(d) Impart hydraulicity
(a) Weight
(b) Volume
(c) Thickness
18. Gypsum is added to cement for (d) Number of layers
(a) Colour
(b) Strength 23. Which of the following is caused by
fungus in timber ?
(c) Controlling setting time
(a) Upsets
(d) None of the above
(b) Foxiness
(c) Dry rot
(d) Wet rot
19. The optimum number of revolutions
over which concrete is required to be
24. The function of base in paint is to
mixed in a mixer machine is
(a) provide a film on the surface
(a) 10
(b) hide imperfections of the surface
(b) 20
(c) reduce shrinkage cracks in paint
(c) 50 film
(d) 100 (d) bring down the overall cost
D-2022 (C–4)
25. In fireproof paints, the main 29. The structure which allows the water
constituent is to pass under roads, railways is known
as
(a) Aluminium powder
(a) Bridge
(b) Red lead
(b) Drainage
(c) Copper powder
(c) Tunnel
(d) Asbestos fibers
(d) Culvert
D-2022 (C–5)
33. Which mode allows the user to draw 37. For DPC at plinth level, the commonly
perpendicular straight lines ? adopted material is
36. A covering of stone, concrete, brick on 40. The lower part of a structure which
the exposed top of an external wall of a transmits the load to the soil is known
building is called as
D-2022 (C–6)
41. For which projection method is the 45. In case of brick manufacturing, if the
following graphical symbol applicable ? amount of silica in clay is in excess
quantity, then excessiveness of silica
will
(b) 55
(c) 65
47. What type and composition of mortar
(d) 75
is required for RCC tanks and other
retaining structures ?
44. The specific gravity of sandstone is (a) 1 : 1 2 1 Cement Sand Mortar
(a) 1·65 to 1·95
(b) 1 : 1 2 1 Lime Surkhi Mortar
(b) 2·65 to 2·95
(c) 1 : 1 2 1 Lime Sand Mortar
(c) 3·65 to 3·95
(d) 4·65 to 4·95 (d) 1 : 1 2 1 Surkhi Sand Mortar
D-2022 (C–7)
48. What is the proportion of cement : fine 51. The paint having metal oxides such as
aggregate : coarse aggregate in case of Fe2O3, PbO, ZnO, etc. is called
M25 grade of concrete ?
(a) Distemper
(a) 1:3:6
(b) Enamel
(b) 1:2:4
(c) Oil
1
(c) 1:1 :3
2 (d) Emulsion
(d) 1:1:2
(b) Shotcreting
D-2022 (C–8)
54. Name the type of the following brick 56. Which one of the following is the most
masonry : economical foundation when heavy
structural loads from columns are
required to be transferred to a soil of
low bearing capacity ?
(a) Grillage
(b) Deep
(c) Raft
(d) Shallow
(b) Rat Trap Bond 57. In case of foundation, the net loading
intensity at which neither the soil fails
(c) Facing Bond
in shear nor is there excessive
(d) Backing Bond settlement detrimental to the
structure is known as
D-2022 (C–9)
59. A semi-rigid material which forms an 62. In a contour plan, if contour lines are
excellent impervious layer for damp drawn with a contour interval of 2 m
proofing course is called and if the gradient is 1 in 30, then the
horizontal distance required between
(a) Tar felt
successive points on consecutive
(b) Bituminous felt contours will be
(c) 45 m
(d) 60 m
(d) Voussoir
D-2022 ( C – 10 )
65. A strip of land permanently left open 69. Oblique sections are useful to show the
for drainage purposes, neither used as ____________.
an access way nor like a street and
(a) Interior shapes
never included as a part of setbacks is
known as (b) Oblique lines
(c) Jhot
(d) Loft
70. Which of the following defects occur in
66. When the angle of splay becomes 900 the seasoning process of wood ?
then the wing walls are known as (a) Bow
(a) Straight Wing Walls (b) Brown rot
(b) Splayed Wing Walls (c) Sap stain
(c) Return Wing Walls
(d) Blue stain
(d) Trestle Wing Walls
68. If top view of a line is a point, its front (d) Rapid Hardening Cement
view is ___________.
(a) parallel to xy line and of true
length 72. The maximum limit of weight of
(b) parallel to xy line and of apparent fibreboards is __________.
length
(a) 960 kg/m3
(c) perpendicular to xy line and of
(b) 1960 kg/m3
true length
(c) 2460 kg/m3
(d) perpendicular to xy line and of
apparent length (d) 2960 kg/m3
D-2022 ( C – 11 )
73. Which of the following is not a variety 77. A _________ is a projecting stone which
of industrial timber ? is usually provided to serve as support
(a) Veneers for roof truss, beam, weather shed, etc.
75. Plastics are divided into thermoplastic 79. A ___________ junction is formed when
and thermosetting on the basis of their two continuous walls cross or intersect
___________. each other.
(a) Behaviour with respect to heating (a) Squint
(b) Structure (b) Cross
(c) Physical properties (c) Obtuse squint
(d) Mechanical properties (d) Right angle
76. The height of the plinth should not be 80. The usual concrete mix for RCC lintel
less than __________. is ________ (cement : sand : aggregate).
D-2022 ( C – 12 )
81. Which of the following is the first 85. Which key is used to obtain properties
principle of surveying ? palette in AutoCAD ?
D-2022 ( C – 13 )
89. Due to change in price level, a revised 93. Which foundation is suitable for the
estimate is prepared if the sanctioned construction of bridge ?
estimate exceeds
(a) Pile
(a) 2·0%
(b) Shallow
(b) 2·5%
(c) Grillage
(c) 4·0%
(d) Inverted arch
(d) 5·0%
92. Slab culverts are suitable for 96. The minimum diameter of manhole
maximum span of cover should be
(a) 3m (a) 25 cm
(b) 6m (b) 50 cm
(c) 9m (c) 75 cm
(d) 12 m (d) 100 cm
D-2022 ( C – 14 )
97. For a city or town with roads of SECTION B
rectangular pattern, the type of layout
used for the distribution of pipes is 101. In a month of 31 days, the third
(a) dead end system Wednesday falls on the 15th. What will
be the last day of that month ?
(b) ring system
(c) radial system (a) 4th Sunday
(d) grid iron system
(b) 5th Wednesday
D-2022 ( C – 15 )
103. A hall 200 m 50 m is to be paved 105. A scores more runs than B but less
with square tiles. If the price of one than C. D scores more than B but less
tile of 10 cm 10 cm is < 3·50, then than A. Who is the lowest scorer ?
find the cost of paving the hall.
(a) B
(a) < 35 lakh
(b) A
(b) < 30 lakh
(c) D
(c) < 45 lakh
(d) C
(d) < 25 lakh
104. In a row of trees, a tree is 7th from left daughter of R. P is the father of R.
D-2022 ( C – 16 )
107. Shaheed Bhagat Singh is associated 111. The major source of energy generation
with in India is
(a) Republican Party of India (a) Nuclear
(b) Ghadar Party (b) Non-conventional
(c) Hindustan Socialist Republican (c) Thermal
Association
(d) Hyde
(d) Congress Socialist Party
D-2022 ( C – 17 )
115. Which one of the following river drains 119. Consider the following matrix.
into the Arabian Sea ?
3 8 10 2 ? 1
(a) Indravati
(b) Narmada 6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 5
116. Supertech’s twin towers which were
(b) 0
demolished in Noida were
(a) AXA and Capital Plaza (c) 7
D-2022 ( C – 18 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
D-2022 ( C – 19 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
D-2022 ( C – 20 )
Booklet Sr. No.
*D* Question
Booklet Set
Candidate’s Name ________________________________________________________
Father’s Name ____________________________________________________________
Date of Birth :
D D M M Y Y Y Y
D
OMR Response Sheet No. ____________________________________ Roll No. ___________________________
1. The candidate shall NOT open this booklet till the time he/she is told to do so by the Invigilation
Staff. However, in the meantime, the candidate can read these instructions carefully and
subsequently fill the appropriate columns given above in CAPITAL letters. The candidate may
also fill the relevant boxes out of 1 to 9 of the Optical Mark Reader (OMR) response sheet,
supplied separately.
2. Use only blue or black ball point pen to fill the relevant columns on this page as well as in the
OMR sheet. Use of ink pen or any other pen is not allowed.
3. The candidate shall be liable for any adverse effect if the information given above is wrong or
illegible or incomplete.
4. Each candidate is required to attempt 120 questions in 120 minutes, except for
orthopedically/visually impaired candidates, who would be given 40 extra minutes, for marking
correct responses on the OMR sheet.
5. The question paper booklet has 20 pages.
6. The candidates, when allowed to open the question paper booklet, must first check the entire
booklet to confirm that the booklet has complete number of pages, the pages printed correctly
and there are no blank pages. In case there is any such error in the question paper booklet then
the candidate should IMMEDIATELY bring this fact to the notice of the Invigilation Staff and
obtain a new booklet of the same series as given earlier.
7. The serial number of the new Question booklet if issued for some reason should be entered in
the relevant column of the OMR. The Invigilation Staff must make necessary corrections in their
record regarding the change in the serial no. of Question booklet.
8. The paper consists of total 480 Marks. Each question shall carry 4 marks. There are four
options for each question and the candidate has to mark the MOST APPROPRIATE answer on
the OMR response sheet.
9. There is negative marking (1 mark for each question) for questions wrongly answered by the
candidate.
10. Use of Electronic/Manual Calculator is prohibited.
11. The candidate MUST READ INSTRUCTIONS BEHIND THE OMR SHEET before answering
the questions and check that two carbon copies attached to the OMR sheet are intact.
D-2022 (D–1)
SECTION A 5. The structure which allows the water
to pass under roads, railways is known
1. In fireproof paints, the main as
constituent is
(a) Bridge
(a) Aluminium powder (b) Drainage
(b) Red lead (c) Tunnel
(c) Copper powder (d) Culvert
(d) Asbestos fibers
D-2022 (D–2)
9. Which mode allows the user to draw 13. For DPC at plinth level, the commonly
perpendicular straight lines ? adopted material is
12. A covering of stone, concrete, brick on 16. The lower part of a structure which
the exposed top of an external wall of a transmits the load to the soil is known
building is called as
D-2022 (D–3)
17. For which projection method is the 21. In case of brick manufacturing, if the
following graphical symbol applicable ? amount of silica in clay is in excess
quantity, then excessiveness of silica
will
(b) 55
(c) 65
23. What type and composition of mortar
(d) 75 is required for RCC tanks and other
retaining structures ?
D-2022 (D–4)
24. What is the proportion of cement : fine 27. The paint having metal oxides such as
aggregate : coarse aggregate in case of Fe2O3, PbO, ZnO, etc. is called
M25 grade of concrete ?
(a) Distemper
(a) 1:3:6
(b) Enamel
(b) 1:2:4
(c) Oil
1
(c) 1:1 :3
2 (d) Emulsion
(d) 1:1:2
(b) Shotcreting
D-2022 (D–5)
30. Name the type of the following brick 32. Which one of the following is the most
masonry : economical foundation when heavy
structural loads from columns are
required to be transferred to a soil of
low bearing capacity ?
(a) Grillage
(b) Deep
(c) Raft
(d) Shallow
(b) Rat Trap Bond 33. In case of foundation, the net loading
intensity at which neither the soil fails
(c) Facing Bond
in shear nor is there excessive
(d) Backing Bond settlement detrimental to the
structure is known as
D-2022 (D–6)
35. A semi-rigid material which forms an 38. In a contour plan, if contour lines are
excellent impervious layer for damp drawn with a contour interval of 2 m
proofing course is called and if the gradient is 1 in 30, then the
horizontal distance required between
(a) Tar felt
successive points on consecutive
(b) Bituminous felt contours will be
(c) 45 m
(d) 60 m
(d) Voussoir
D-2022 (D–7)
41. A strip of land permanently left open 45. Oblique sections are useful to show the
for drainage purposes, neither used as ____________.
an access way nor like a street and
(a) Interior shapes
never included as a part of setbacks is
known as (b) Oblique lines
(c) Jhot
(d) Loft
46. Which of the following defects occur in
42. When the angle of splay becomes 900 the seasoning process of wood ?
then the wing walls are known as (a) Bow
(a) Straight Wing Walls (b) Brown rot
(b) Splayed Wing Walls (c) Sap stain
(c) Return Wing Walls
(d) Blue stain
(d) Trestle Wing Walls
44. If top view of a line is a point, its front (d) Rapid Hardening Cement
view is ___________.
(a) parallel to xy line and of true
length 48. The maximum limit of weight of
(b) parallel to xy line and of apparent fibreboards is __________.
length
(a) 960 kg/m3
(c) perpendicular to xy line and of
(b) 1960 kg/m3
true length
(c) 2460 kg/m3
(d) perpendicular to xy line and of
apparent length (d) 2960 kg/m3
D-2022 (D–8)
49. Which of the following is not a variety 53. A _________ is a projecting stone which
of industrial timber ? is usually provided to serve as support
(a) Veneers for roof truss, beam, weather shed, etc.
51. Plastics are divided into thermoplastic 55. A ___________ junction is formed when
and thermosetting on the basis of their two continuous walls cross or intersect
___________. each other.
(a) Behaviour with respect to heating (a) Squint
(b) Structure (b) Cross
(c) Physical properties (c) Obtuse squint
(d) Mechanical properties (d) Right angle
52. The height of the plinth should not be 56. The usual concrete mix for RCC lintel
less than __________. is ________ (cement : sand : aggregate).
D-2022 (D–9)
57. Which of the following is the first 61. Which key is used to obtain properties
principle of surveying ? palette in AutoCAD ?
D-2022 ( D – 10 )
65. Due to change in price level, a revised 69. Which foundation is suitable for the
estimate is prepared if the sanctioned construction of bridge ?
estimate exceeds
(a) Pile
(a) 2·0%
(b) Shallow
(b) 2·5%
(c) Grillage
(c) 4·0%
(d) Inverted arch
(d) 5·0%
68. Slab culverts are suitable for 72. The minimum diameter of manhole
maximum span of cover should be
(a) 3m (a) 25 cm
(b) 6m (b) 50 cm
(c) 9m (c) 75 cm
(d) 12 m (d) 100 cm
D-2022 ( D – 11 )
73. For a city or town with roads of 77. The imaginary line passing through
rectangular pattern, the type of layout points having equal magnetic
used for the distribution of pipes is declination is termed as
(a) dead end system
(a) Isogon
(b) ring system
(c) radial system (b) Agonic line
D-2022 ( D – 12 )
80. If the length of the chain is found to be 84. A canal which is aligned at right
short on testing, it can be adjusted by angles to the contour is called
D-2022 ( D – 13 )
88. The science which deals with the 92. The lime used for finishing coat in
sound insulation in a building is plastering is
known as ___________.
(a) Semi-hydraulic lime
(a) Reverberation
(b) Kankar lime
(b) Transmission
(c) Magnesium lime
(c) Acoustic
(d) Eminently hydraulic lime
(d) Airborne
D-2022 ( D – 14 )
96. The age of trees can be predicted by SECTION B
(a) Weight
(b) Volume
(c) Thickness
(d) Number of layers
D-2022 ( D – 15 )
103. Shaheed Bhagat Singh is associated 107. The major source of energy generation
with in India is
(a) Republican Party of India (a) Nuclear
(b) Ghadar Party (b) Non-conventional
(c) Hindustan Socialist Republican (c) Thermal
Association
(d) Hyde
(d) Congress Socialist Party
D-2022 ( D – 16 )
111. Which one of the following river drains 115. Consider the following matrix.
into the Arabian Sea ?
3 8 10 2 ? 1
(a) Indravati
(b) Narmada 6 56 90 2 20 0
(a) 5
112. Supertech’s twin towers which were
(b) 0
demolished in Noida were
(a) AXA and Capital Plaza (c) 7
D-2022 ( D – 17 )
117. In a month of 31 days, the third 119. A hall 200 m 50 m is to be paved
Wednesday falls on the 15th. What will
with square tiles. If the price of one
be the last day of that month ?
tile of 10 cm 10 cm is < 3·50, then
D-2022 ( D – 18 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
D-2022 ( D – 19 )
SPACE FOR ROUGH WORK
D-2022 ( D – 20 )
DRAFTSMAN AND HEAD DRAFTSMAN COMPETITIVE EXAM
DATE: 25.09.2022