Mechanical Engineering

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING
1. Which manufacturing process includes the powder metallurgy?

a) casting
b) forming and shaping
c) machining
d) joining
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Forming and shaping process includes powder metallurgy. Powder metallurgy is a
process in which material or shapes are made from or by using metal powders.
2. Which of the following is not included in forming and shaping process?

a) rolling
b) forging
c) sheet forming
d) broaching
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Only rolling, forging and sheet forming are included in forming and shaping process.
Broaching is included in fabrication process.
3. Expendable mold and permanent mold are the parts of ____ manufacturing process.
a) machining
b) casting
c) none of the mentioned
d) joining
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In casting, we prepare a mould in which we pour liquid metal. Then we solidify the metal
and make the product of desired shape with the help of pattern.
4. Casting includes grinding process.

a) true
b) false
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This is false. Casting doesn’t includes grinding process. Machining process includes
grinding process.
5. Brazing is a type of metal joining process.

a) true
b) false
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: It is a metal joining process. It joints the metal by melting and flowing a filler metal into the
joint. The adjoining metal has higher melting point compare to filler metal.
6. Which of the following is included in machining process?
a) extrusion
b) soldering
c) drilling
d) coating
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Drilling is included in machining process. For drilling, the drill is rotated with a downward
pressure causing the tool to penetrate into the material.
7. Which of the following processes are included in finishing?

a) honing and welding
b) polishing and lapping
c) coating and milling
d) molding and plating
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coating and plating are included in finishing .Welding is included in joining, molding is
included in casting and milling is included in machining. Rest all( mentioned ) are included in finishing
process.
8. Machining process deals with drawing.

a) true
b) false
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: This is false. Forming and shaping type process include the process like drawing.
9. Which of the following is not the type of finishing process?

a) diffusion bonding
b) burnishing
c) both diffusion bonding and burnishing
d) none of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Only burnishing is an example of finishing process. Diffusion type bonding is included in
the of process of joining.
10. Which of the following is not the type of joining process?

a) adhesive bonding
b) brazing
c) soldering
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Adhesive bonding, brazing and soldering all are thetypes of joining process. In adhesive
bonding, adhesive are used to manufacture an assembly. Brazing and soldering are also the type of
manufacturing process.
11. Which of the following is the type of permanent joining process?
a) welding
b) soldering
c) both welding and soldering
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In welding and soldering, once the join has made, we have to break the joint to get
different part. So, both welding and soldering are known as permanent joining process.
12. Which of the following is the type of temporary joining process?

a) brazing
b) mechanical joining
c) both brazing and mechanical joining
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Brazing is the one type of permanent joining process and mechanical joining is the one
type of temporary joining process because we can remove the joint with the help of equipments like
some type of bolts and so on. Breaking of joint is not necessary in this case.
13. In ____type of manufacturing process, material is wasted. It is in the form of chips.

a) machining process
b) casting process
c) joining process
d) forming and shaping process
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In machining process, some raw material is wasted in or in order to perform different
operations like drilling, turning etc.
14 Which of the following fabrication process is mainly responsible for the fabrication of very high
pressure boilers and nuclear reactors?
a) welding
b) sintering
c) brazing
d) pressing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Invention of welding has made a revolution in the fabrication process. Complex
fabrication processes are also possible because of welding.
15. Which of the following is not the type of conventional welding process?
a) gas welding
b) friction welding
c) resistance welding
d) air welding
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Only gas welding and resistance welding are the types of conventional welding. friction
welding is the type of recent welding process.
16 Which of the following is the type of gas welding?
a) atomic hydrogen arc welding
b) shielded metal arc welding
c) inert gas arc welding
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: None of them is type of gas welding. All are included in welding process of type air
welding.
17 Which of the following is the type of the recent welding process?

a) laser beam
b) friction
c) ultrasonic
d) all of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
18 Oxy acetylene welding and oxy-hydrogen welding are the examples of ____ welding.
a) gas
b) air
c) resistance
d) friction
View Answer
Answer: a
19 In which type of operation, motion of cutting tool is translating?
a) drilling and milling
b) milling and turning
c) boring and drilling
d) turning and planning
View Answer
Answer: c
20 In which type of operation, motion of cutting tool is rotary as well as translating?

a) planning
b) milling
c) drilling
d) turning
View Answer
Answer: c
21 Which type of cutting tools have wide application on lathes?

a) single point
b) multi point
c) both single point and multi point
View Answer
Answer: a
22 Which of the following is the example of multi point cutting tool?
a) milling cutter
b) broaching tool
c) both milling utter and broaching tool
View Answer
Answer: c
23 Which of the following is an example of non cutting shaping process?

a) turning
b) forging
c) drilling
d) milling
View Answer
Answer: b
24 Which of the following is the example of cutting shaping process?

a) knurling
b) forging
c) pressing
d) drawing
View Answer
Answer: a
25 In how many groups, various metal working processes can be classified?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
View Answer
Answer: a
26 Which of the following process is not grouped under metal removal process?
a) boring
b) milling
c) tumbling
d) rolling
View Answer
Answer: c
27 In how many groups, metal removal process can be classified?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
28 Which of the following is not the type of non-traditional machining?
a) electrochemical process
b) chemical machining
c) mechanical energy process
View Answer
Answer: d
29 Which type of machine tool is used for mass production of essentially small parts?
a) general purpose
b) special purpose
c) automatic screw cutting
View Answer
Answer: c
30 Which of the following does all the work of lathe machine?

a) turning centre of CNC type
b) machining centre of CNC type
c) turning centre of CNC type and machining centre of CNC type both
View Answer
Answer: a
31 Which of the following is the type of lathe machine?

a) capstan
b) turret
c) both capstan and turret
View Answer
Answer: c
32 DNC stands for_____

a) digital numerical control
b) direct numerical control
c) double numerical control
View Answer
Answer: b
33 Machine tools can be classified as _____

a) geometric shape of the work piece
b) number of the work piece
c) function of the machine
View Answer
Answer: d
34 Which machine tool is known as the mother machine tool?
a) drill
b) milling
c) lathe
d) none of mentioned
View Answer
Answer: c
35 Which type of surface is produced by turning operation in lathe machine?

a) flat
b) cylindrical
c) taper
View Answer
Answer: b
36 What is the necessary condition for turning?

a) material of work piece should be harder than the cutting tool
b) cutting tool should be harder than the material of work piece
c) hardness of the cutting tool and material of of piece should be same
View Answer
Answer: b
37 Traversing of tool parallel to the axis of job is termed as_____

a) cross feed
b) longitudinal feed
c) both cross feed and traversing feed
View Answer
Answer: b
38 In taper operation, which type of surface is produced?

a) flat
b) curve
c) circular
View Answer
Answer: d
39 Which type of feed is needed in turning operation?

a) longitudinal
b) cross
c) both cross and longitudinal
View Answer
Answer: a
40 Which type of surface can be produced by lathe?
a) flat
b) cylindrical
c) curvilinear
View Answer
Answer: d
41 Which type of lathe is also known as centre lathe?
a) engine lathe
b) bench lathe
c) room lathe
d) capstan lathe
View Answer
Answer: a
42. Wheel lathe is the type of ____

a) engine lathe
b) centre lathe
c) speed lathe
d) special purpose lathe
View Answer
Answer: d
43. Wood working lathe is the type of ____

a) engine lathe
b) centre lathe
c) speed lathe
View Answer
Answer: c
44. Geared lathe is the type of____

a) engine lathe
b) centre lathe
c) speed lathe
View Answer
Answer: a
45. Belt driven lathe is the type of____

a) engine lathe
b) centre lathe
c) speed lathe
View Answer
Answer: b
46. Duplicating lathe is the type of____
a) engine lathe
b) centre lathe
c) speed lathe
View Answer
Answer: d
47. Spinning lathe is the type of____

a) engine lathe
b) centre lathe
c) speed lathe
View Answer
Answer: c
48. Which of the following is the type of engine lathe?

a) centering lathe
b) individual motor driven lathe
c) duplicating lathe
View Answer
Answer: b
49. Which of the following is special purpose lathe?

a) polishing lathe
b) centering lathe
c) spinning lathe
View Answer
Answer: d
50. Which of the following is the example of speed lathe?

a) wheel lathe
b) polishing lathe
c) gap bed lathe
View Answer
Answer: b
51. Which of the following is the type of lathe?

a) bench lathe
b) tool room lathe
c) capstan and turret lathe
View Answer
Answer: d
52. Lathe can be classified on the basis of_____
a) designs and construction
b) fundamental principle
c) function performance
View Answer
Answer: a
53 Which of the following provides foundation for the whole machine?

a) tailstock
b) bed
c) headstock
d) carriage
View Answer
Answer: b
54 Which type of bed design offers more rigidity and thermal stability?
a) true slant bed
b) flatbed
c) conventional bed
View Answer
Answer: a
55 In which slant angles, the slant bed design is offered?

a) 30 and 60
b) 60 & 45
c) 30, 60 and 45
d) 30 and 45
View Answer
Answer: c
56 In which type of bed, length of guide rail is bounded to the
deepness of the casting?
a) true slant bed
b) flat bed
c) conventional bed
View Answer
Answer: b
57 In which type of bed, a heavy machine along with a smaller

footprint achieved?
a) true slant bed
b) flat bed
c) conventional bed
View Answer
Answer: a
58 Which of the following are the advantages of cone pulley drive?
a) easy to maintain
b) can take up heavy load
c) positive drive when the back gear is in engagement.
View Answer
Answer: d
59 Cone pulley drive without back gear arrangement means_____

a) back gear in
b) back gear out
c) back gear neutral
View Answer
Answer: b
60. Cone pulley drive with back gear arrangement means_____

a) back gear in
b) back gear out
c) back gear neutral
View Answer
Answer: a
61. Which of the following mounted on the bush bearing?

a) speed motor
b) spindle
c) both spindle and speed motor
View Answer
Answer: b
62 . The back gear unit has a shaft, which carries _____

a) a gear
b) a pinion
c) a gear and a pinion both
View Answer
Answer: c
63. The axis of the back gear is_____ to the axis of the main spindle.
a) parallel
b) perpendicular
c) at any angle other than 0 and 90
View Answer
Answer: a
64 Which of the following is not the part of spindle?
a) dead center
b) hand wheel
c) setover screw
View Answer
Answer: d
65. Offset of tailstock is done for_____

a) taper turning
b) straight turning
c) both turning of taper type and straight type
View Answer
Answer: a
66. Realign of tailstock center is done for_____

a) taper turning
b) straight turning
c) taper turning and straight turning
View Answer
Answer: b
67. Which type of rotation of the hand wheel causes the spindle
to be drawn inward?
a) clockwise
b) anticlockwise
c) either anticlockwise or clockwise
View Answer
Answer: b
68 Which of the following method is used to vary the speed of a lathe spindle?
a) gear out
b) gear in
c) both gear out and gear in
View Answer
Answer: c
69. Which of the following method is used to vary the speed of a lathe spindle?
a) gear out
b) gear in
c) both gear out and gear in
View Answer
Answer: c
70. Which type of end does tapered bar has?
a) pointed
b) projected
c) pointed or projected
View Answer
Answer: c
71. Which of the following lathe part serves as a housing for the
back gear, driving pulley etc?
a) tailstock
b) headstock
c) bed
View Answer
Answer: b
72. Spindle is fitted with_____

a) chucks
b) faceplates
c) chucks or faceplates
View Answer
Answer: c
73 The spindle was directly driven by_____ in later machine.

a) flat belt pulley
b) gear box
c) flat belt pulley and gear box both
View Answer
Answer: b
74. The spindle was directly driven by_____ in older machine.

a) flat belt pulley
b) gear box
c) flat belt pulley and gear box both
View Answer
Answer: a
75 In how many parts, compound rest can be classified?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: a
76. The swivel base is assembled to the_____ of cross slide.
a) top
b) middle
c) bottom
View Answer
Answer: a
77 How many types of movements are possible in carriage?

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
78. Which type of operation is possible for the top slide?

a) manual
b) by power feed
c) manual and by power feed both
View Answer
Answer: a
79. Which type of feed is always done perpendicular to the axis of work?
a) longitudinal feed
b) angular feed
c) cross feed
View Answer
Answer: c
80. Which of the following is not true for compound rest?

a) the swivel base is provided with a dovetail on its bottom surface
b) the top slide has dovetail groove
c) the assembly of the top slide to the swivel base is done by a tapered jib
View Answer
Answer: a
81. In compound rest, the screw-rod is fitted with_____

a) a hand wheel
b) a graduated collar
c) a hand wheel and a graduated collar both
View Answer
Answer: c
81. Which type of feed is necessary for the function of the cross slide?
a) hand feed
b) automatic feed
c) either by hand feed or by automatic feed
View Answer
Answer: c
82 Angle between the rake face and plane perpendicular to rake face is known as:
a) Side rake angle
b) Side relief angle
c) End relief angle
d) Back rake angle
View Answer
Answer: a
83. Angle between the rake face flank of tool and perpendicular line drawn from cutting point to base of
tool is known as:
a) Side rake angle
c) End relief angle
d) Back rake angle
View Answer
Answer: b
84. Angle between side cutting edge and axis of tool is known as:
a) Side rake angle
c) Side cutting edge angle
d) Back rake angle
View Answer
Answer: c
85. Angle between end cutting edge and axis of tool is known as:
a) Side rake angle
c) End cutting edge angle
d) Back rake angle
View Answer
Answer: c
86.Angle between side cutting edge and end cutting edge in the top surface plane of tool.
a) Side rake angle
c) Side cutting edge angle
d) Nose angle
View Answer
Answer: d
87. With an increase in lip angle keeping side rake angle constant, strength of tool.
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
d) None of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: a
88. For large positive back rake angle, tool will be

a) Weaker
b) Stronger
c) Smoother
d) Harder
View Answer
Answer: a
89. For large negative back rake angle, tool will be

a) Weaker
b) Stronger
c) Smoother
d) Harder
View Answer
Answer: b
90. Which of the following will give better chip flow?

a) Positive back rake angle tool
b) Negative back rake angle tool
c) Zero back rake angle tool
View Answer
Answer: a
91. Which of the following will give large friction during chip flow?
a) Positive back rake angle tool
b) Negative back rake angle tool
c) Zero back rake angle tool
d) Small lip angle tool
View Answer
Answer: b
92 Positive rake angle is given for machining of:
a) Brittle material
b) Ductile material
c) Both hard and soft material
View Answer
Answer: b
93. Negative back rake angle is given for machining of:
a) Brittle and hard material
b) Soft material
c) Ductile material
d) Soft and ductile material
View Answer
Answer: a
94. Which of the following will give maximum chip flow during machining?
a) Hard material
b) Ductile material
c) Brittle material
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Answer: b
95. With an increase in rake angle of tool, tool life will

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains constant
d) First increase then decrease
View Answer
Answer: d
96. What is the optimum value of positive rake angle in degrees for maximum tool life?
a) 10
b) 12
c) 15
d) 20
View Answer
Answer: c
97. For machining of carbide material which of the following tool will be preferred?
a) Large positive rake angle tools
b) Large negative rake angle tools
c) Zero rake angle tools
d) Small point angle tools
View Answer
Answer: b
98. Which of the following tool will give the best result for machining of brass?
a) Large positive rake angle tools
b) Large negative rake angle tools
c) Zero rake angle tools
d) Small point angle tools
View Answer
Answer: c
99.With an increase in side cutting edge angle keeping width of cut constant, depth of cut will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) First increase then decrease
d) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: b
100. With an increase in rake angle of tool, tool life will

a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: d
101. What is the optimum value of side cutting edge in degrees for maximum tool life?
a) 20
b) 22
c) 25
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: d
102 Thermal cracking of tools occurs at
a) Low temperature
b) High temperature
c) Low cutting speed
View Answer
Answer: b
103. Mechanical chipping may occur in which of the following tool?

a) Diamond tool
b) Mild Steel tool
c) HSS tool
View Answer
Answer: a
104. With the passage of time, there is loss in weight of tool, this phenomenon is known as:
a) Thermal cracking
b) Mechanical chipping
c) Softening
d) Gradual Wear
View Answer
Answer: d
105. Crater wear occurs at
a) Tool flank
b) Tool shank
c) Tool face
View Answer
Answer: c
106. Which of the following is correct about crater wear?

a) Occurs more in soft tool
b) Occurs more hard tool
c) Occurs more in brittle tool
View Answer
Answer: a
107. Flank wear occurs at

a) Tool flank below cutting edge
b) Tool shank
c) Tool face
View Answer
Answer: a
108. What is the maximum allowed value of VB in mm for HSS tool used with cast iron work piece for
rough machining?
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 1.5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
109. What is the maximum allowed value of VB in mm for HSS tool used with cast steel work piece for
rough machining?
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 1.5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: b
110. What is the maximum allowed value of VB in mm for carbide tool used with cast iron work piece
for a cutting condition of feed>0.3mm/rev?
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 1.5
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: d
111. What is the maximum allowed value of VB in mm for carbide tool used with steel work piece for a
cutting condition of feed>0.3mm/rev?
a) 0.5
b) 1
c) 1.7
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: c
112 If a percentage of cobalt in Tungsten carbide tool increases, then toughness of tool will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains Constant
View Answer
Answer: a
113. Which of the following tools is most suitable for very hard and brittle material?
a) HSS
b) Cast-cobalt alloy
c) Carbides
View Answer
Answer: c
114. High speed steels are most suitable for

a) High Positive rake angle tools
b) High Negative rake angle tools
c) Zero Rake angle tools
View Answer
Answer: a
115. Which of the following tool material will offer lower friction and higher resistance to cracks and
wear?
a) HSS
b) TiC
c) WC
d) TiCN
View Answer
Answer: d
116. Which of the following tool material will offer lower friction and higher resistance to cracks and
wear?
a) HSS
b) TiC
c) Cast cobalt alloys
d) Coated tools
View Answer
Answer: d
117. Which of the following material can be used for coating on tools?
a) HSS
b) TiCN
c) WC
d) cBN
View Answer
Answer: b
118. Thermal conductivity of cutting tool must be

a) High
b) Low
c) Very low
View Answer
Answer: a
119. Hot hardness of cutting of cutting tool should be

a) Large
b) Small
c) Very small
View Answer
Answer: a
120. Wearing resistance of cutting tool must be

a) High
b) Low
c) Very low
View Answer
Answer: a
121What is the percentage of carbon tungsten in T-series of high speed steel?
a) 20
b) 18
c) 16
d) 14
View Answer
Answer: b
122. What is the percentage of carbon chromium in T-series of high speed steel?
a) 0
b) 8
c) 6
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
123. What is the percentage of vanadium in T-series of high speed steel?

a) 2
b) 1
c) 6
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
124. What is the percentage of Molybdenum in M-series of high speed steel?

a) 12
b) 21
c) 16
d) 24
View Answer
Answer: b
125. Presence of Chromium in T-series steel imparts

a) Hardness
b) Corrosion resistance
c) Abrasion resistance
d) Toughness
View Answer
Answer: b
126. Which of the following element is responsible for providing red hot hardness property to T-series
high speed steel?
a) W
b) Cr
c) V
d) Mo
View Answer
Answer: a
127 If percentage of cobalt in Tungsten carbide tool increases, then the strength of the tool will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
128. If percentage of cobalt in Tungsten carbide tool increases, then hardness of tool will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
129.If percentages of cobalt in Tungsten carbide tool increases, then wear resistance of tool will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains Constant
View Answer
Answer: b
130 Primary deformation zone in metal cutting operation is located at:
a) Around shear plane
b) Tool chip interface
c) Tool work piece interface
d) Tool face
View Answer
Answer: a
131. Secondary deformation zone in metal cutting operation is located at:

a) Shear plane
b) Tool chip interface
c) Tool work piece interface
d) Tool face
View Answer
Answer: b
132. Temperature rise in primary deformation zone is generally due to:

a) Plastic deformation of metal in shear zone
b) Friction between tool and chip
c) Rubbing action of tool piece with work piece
View Answer
Answer: a
133. Temperature rise in secondary deformation zone is generally due to:

a) Plastic deformation of metal in shear zone
b) Friction between tool and chip
c) Rubbing action of tool piece with work piece
View Answer
Answer: b
134. If heat transferred to the atmosphere is neglected, then the average amount of heat in % carried
away by chips is nearly equal to:
a) 70
b) 15
c) 20
d) 96
View Answer
Answer: a
135. If heat transferred to atmosphere is neglected, then the average amount of heat in % transferred
to tool is nearly equal to:
a) 70
b) 15
c) 20
d) 96
View Answer
Answer: b
136. If heat transferred to atmosphere is neglected, then the average amount of heat in % transferred
to work piece is nearly equal to:
a) 70
b) 15
c) 20
d) 96
View Answer
Answer: b
137. By increasing cutting speed, amount of heat generated

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: a
138. By increasing feed rate, amount of heat generated

a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains constant
View Answer
Answer: b
139. Amount of heat generated in shear plane is:

a) Directly proportional to shear angle
b) Inversely proportional to shear angle
c) Does not depend on shear angle
View Answer
Answer: b
140Which of the following is correct about chip thickness ratio ‘r’?

a) r<1
b) r=1
c) r>1
View Answer
Answer: a
141. If t1 denotes the uncut chip thickness and t2 denotes cut chip thickness ratio then, which of the
following equation is correct about chip thickness ratio ‘r’?
a) r=t1/t2
b) r=t1/t2
c) r=t1*t2
View Answer
Answer: a
142. Which of the following is the correct relation for chip thickness ratio ‘r’?
Given that: φ=shear angle
α=rake angle
a) tan φ= cosα/(1-r*sinφ)
b) tan φ= rcosα/(1-r*sinφ)
c) tan φ= rcosα/(1-sinφ)
d) tan φ= cosα/(r-r*sinφ)
View Answer
Answer: b
143. Horizontal force exerted by tool on work piece is known as

a) Cutting force
b) Frictional resistance
c) Backing up force
d) Shear force
View Answer
Answer: a
144. Metal resistance to shear during chip formation is known as

a) Cutting force
c) Backing up force
d) Shear force
View Answer
Answer: d
145. Force exerted by work piece on chip in normal direction of shear plane is known as
a) Cutting force
c) Backing up force
d) Shear force
View Answer
Answer: c
146. Force exerted by tool on chip normal to tool face is known as

a) Cutting force
c) Backing up force
d) Shear force
View Answer
Answer: b
147. Which of the following assumption is not valid for merchant circle diagram?
a) Continuous Chips
b) Discontinuous chips
c) Cutting edge remains sharp
d) No built up edge
View Answer
Answer: b
148. Which of the following assumption is not valid for the merchant circle diagram?
a) Continuous Chips
b) Sharpness of cutting edge reduces gradually
c) Cutting edge remains sharp
d) No built up edge
View Answer
Answer: b
149. Which of the following is correct equation for shear force F S=? φ is the shear angle?
a) FS=FCcosφ-FTsinφ
b) FS=FCcosφ/FTsinφ
c) FS=FCcosφ*FTsinφ
d) FS=FCcos&o#966;+FTsinφ
View Answer
Answer: a
150In the orthogonal cutting of metals _________
a) the cutting edge of the tool is perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
b) the cutting forces occur in one direction only
c) the cutting edge is wider than the depth of cut
View Answer
Answer: a
151. In oblique cutting of the metals, the cutting edge of the tool is
a) perpendicular to the workpiece
b) perpendicular to the direction of tool travel
c) parallel to the direction of tool travel
d) inclined at an angle less than 900 to the direction of tool travel
View Answer
Answer: d
152. Discontinuous chips are formed during machining of

a) brittle metals
b) ductile metals
c) hard metals
d) soft metals
View Answer
Answer: a
153. The ductile materials, during machining, produces
a) continuous chips
b) discontinuous chips
c) continuous chips with built up edge
View Answer
Answer: a
154. Continuous chips with built up edge are formed during machining of
a) brittle metals
b) ductile metals
c) hard metals
d) soft metals
View Answer
Answer: b
155. The factor responsible for the formation of discontinuous chips is

a) low cutting speed and large rake angle
b) low cutting speed and small rake angle
c) high cutting speed and large rake angle
d) high cutting speed and small rake angle
View Answer
Answer: b.
156. The high cutting speed and large rake angle of the tool will result in the formation of
a) continuous chips
b) discontinuous chips
c) continuous chips with built up edge
View Answer
Answer: a
157. A built-up-edge is formed while machining __________

a) ductile materials at high speed
b) ductile materials at low speed
c) brittle materials at high speed
d) brittle materials at low speed
View Answer
Answer: b
158. In oblique cutting system, the maximum chip thickness

a) occurs at the middle
b) may not occur at the middle
c) depends upon the material of the tool
View Answer
Answer: b
159 A single-point cutting tool with 120C rake angle is used to machine a steel work-piece. The depth
of cut, i.e., uncut thickness is 0.81 mm. The chip thickness under orthogonal machining condition is 1.8
mm. The shear angle is approximately
a) 220C
b) 260C
c) 560C
d) 760C
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Given : α= 12c, t= 0.81mm, tc= 1.8 mm, Shear angle, tanφ = [rcosα/1 – rsinα] ……….(i) ,
Chip thickness ratio, r = t/tc = 0.81/1.8 = 0.45
From equation (i), tanφ = [0.45cos120/1 – 0.45sin120]
φ = tan-1(0.486) = 25.910 – 260.
160. In a single point turning tool, the side rake angle and orthogonal rake angle are equal. ϕ is the
principal cutting edge angle and its range is 00<ϕ<900. The chip flows in the orthogonal plane. The
value of ϕ is closest to
a) 00
b) 450
c) 600
d) 900
View Answer
Answer: d
161The values of shear angle and shear strain, respectively, are

a) 30.30 and 1.98
b) 30.30 and 4.23
c) 40.20 and 2.97
d) 40.20 and 1.65
View Answer
Answer: d
162. Which of the following parameters govern the value of the shear angle in continuous chip
formation?
a) true feed
b) chip thickness
c) rake angle of the cutting tool
View Answer
Answer: d
163. In determining the various forces on the chip, Merchant assumed that the
a) cutting edge of the tool is sharp and it does not make any flank contact with the workpiece
b) only continuous chip without built up edge is produced
c) cutting velocity remains constant
View Answer
Answer: d
164. Cutting forces can be measured using a

a) transducer
b) dynamometer
c) load cell
View Answer
Answer: d
165. Transducers have a much __________ natural frequency and stiffness than dynamometers.
a) higher
b) lower
c) equal
View Answer
Answer: a
166. In metal machining, the zone where the heat is generated due to friction between the moving chip
and the tool face is called
a) friction zone
b) work tool contact zone
c) shear zone
View Answer
Answer: a
167. In metal machining, the zone where the maximum heat is generated due to the plastic
deformation of metal is called:
a) friction zone
b) work tool contact zone
c) shear zone
View Answer
Answer: c
168Crater wear occurs mainly on the
a) nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
b) face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only
c) cutting edge only
d) front face only
View Answer
Answer: b
169. Flank wear depends upon the

a) hardness of the work and tool material at the operating temperature
b) amount and distribution of hard constituents in the work material
c) degree of strain hardening in the chip
View Answer
Answer: b
170. Crater wear is predominant in

a) carbon steels
b) tungsten carbide tools
c) high speed steel tools
d) ceramic tools
View Answer
Answer: b
171. Crater wear is mainly due to the phenomenon is known as

a) adhesion of metals
b) oxidation of metals
c) diffusion of metals
View Answer
Answer: c
172. Crater wear leads to

a) increase in cutting temperature
b) weakening of tool
c) friction and cutting forces
View Answer
Answer: d
173. The tool may fail due to

a) cracking at the cutting edge due to thermal stresses
b) chipping of the cutting edge
c) plastic deformation of the cutting edge
View Answer
Answer: d
174. Flank wear occurs mainly on the

a) nose part, front relief face and side relief face of the cutting tool
b) face of the cutting tool at a short distance from the cutting edge only
c) cutting edge only
d) front face only
View Answer
Answer: a
175. Tool life is measured by the

a) number of pieces machined between tool sharpenings
b) time the tool is in contact with the job
c) volume of material removed between tool sharpenings
View Answer
Answer: d
176. The tool life is said to be over if

a) poor surface finish is obtained
b) there is sudden increase in cutting forces and power consumption
c) overheating and fuming due to heat of friction starts
View Answer
Answer: d
177. Tool life is generally better when

a) grain size of the metal is large
b) grain size of the metal is small
c) hard constituents are present in the micro structure of the tool material
View Answer
Answer: a
178. The relation between the tool life(T) in minutes and cutting speed (V) in m/min is
a) VnT = C
b) VTn = C
c) Vn/T = C
d) V/Tn = C
View Answer
Answer: b
179. Using the Taylor Equation for tool life and letting n = 0.5 and C = 120, calculate the percentage
increase in tool life when the cutting speed is reduced by 50%.
a) 100%
b) 200%
c) 300%
d) 400%
View Answer
Answer: c
180 The specific cutting energy used for establishing the machinability of the metal depends upon its
a) coefficient of friction
b) micro-structure
c) work hardening characteristics
View Answer
Answer: d
181. For machining a mild steel workpiece using carbide tool, the maximum material will be removed
at a temperature of
a) 500
b) 1000
c) 1750
d) 2750
View Answer
Answer: b
182.For machining a mild steel workpiece by a high speed steel tool, the average cutting speed is
a) 5 m/min
b) 10 m/ min
c) 15 m/min
d) 30 m/min
View Answer
Answer: d
183.For machining a cast iron workpiece by a high speed steel tool, the average cutting speed is
a) 10 m/min
b) 15 m/min
c) 22 m/min
d) 30 m/min
View Answer
Answer: c
185. The machining of titanium is difficult due to

a) high thermal conductivity of titanium
b) chemical reaction between tool and work
c) low tool-chip contact area
View Answer
Answer: c
186. The factor considered for evaluation of maintainability is

a) cutting forces and power consumption
b) tool life
c) type of chips and shear angle
View Answer
Answer: d
187. In machining metals, chips break due to _____________ of work material.

a) toughness
b) ductility
c) elasticity
d) work hardening
View Answer
Answer: d
188. In machining metals, surface roughness is due to

a) feed marks or ridges left by the cutting tool
b) fragment of built up edge on the machined surface
c) cutting tool vibrations
View Answer
Answer: d
190. The tool material, for faster machining, should have
a) wear resistance
b) red hardness
c) toughness
View Answer
Answer: d
191The cutting fluid mostly used for machining alloy steels is :
a) water
b) soluble oil
c) dry
d) sulphurised mineral oil
View Answer
Answer: d
192. Cutting fluids are used to:

a) cool the tool
b) improve surface finish
c) cool the workpiece
View Answer
Answer: d
193. The cutting fluid mostly used for machining steel is:
a) water
b) soluble oil
c) dry
d) heavy oils
View Answer
Answer: b
194. Functions of cutting fluids are

a) to cool the cutting tool and the workpiece
b) to lubricate the chip, tool and workpiece
c) to help carry away the chips
View Answer
Answer: d
195. ______________ form mixtures ranging from emulsions to solutions.

a) Water miscible fluids
b) Neat oils
c) Synthetics
View Answer
Answer: a
196. Advantages of chemical fluids are

a) a very light residual film that is easy to remove
b) heat dissipation is rapid
c) good detergent properties
View Answer
Answer: d
197. The methods of application of cutting fluids are

a) flooding
b) jet application
c) mist application
View Answer
Answer: d
198. In _____________ a high volume flow of the cutting fluid is generally applied on the back of the
chip.
a) flooding
b) jet application
c) mist application
View Answer
Answer: a
199. In _________ the cutting fluid, which may be either a liquid or a gas is applied in the form of a fine
jet under pressure.
a) flooding
b) jet application
c) mist application
View Answer
Answer: b
200. ______________ controls both direction of chip flow and the strength of the tool tip.
a) Side rake angle
b) Relief angle
c) Rake angle
View Answer
Answer: c
201. _______________ acts downward on the tool tip.

a) Cutting force
b) Radial force
c) Thrust force
View Answer
Answer: a
202. _________ acts in the longitudinal direction.

a) Cutting force
b) Radial force
c) Thrust force
View Answer
Answer: c
203. ____________ acts in the radial direction.

a) Cutting force
b) Radial force
c) Thrust force
View Answer
Answer: b
204. For turning a small taper on a long workpiece, the suitable method is
a) by a form tool
b) by setting over the tail stock
c) by a taper turning attachment
View Answer
Answer: b
205 Which of the following is also known as Puppet head?
a) Headstock
b) Tailstock
c) Tool Post
View Answer
Answer: b
206 Which of the following part of lathe move in a direction normal to the axis of spindle?
a) Cross slide
b) Saddle
c) Compound rest
View Answer
Answer: a
207 Which of the following is used to give power feed during cutting of threads?
a) Rack and pinion
b) Planer mechanism
c) Quick return mechanism
d) Using spilt nut
View Answer
Answer: d
208 Which of the following serves as a housing for driving pulley, and back gears?
a) Headstock
b) Tailstock
c) Tool Post
View Answer
Answer: b\
209 The tail stock set over required to turn a taper on the entire length of a workpiece having
diameters D and d is
a) D – d/2L
b) D – d/L
c) D – d/2
d) D – d
View Answer
Answer: b
210. For turning internal tapers, the suitable method is

a) by a form tool
b) by setting over the tail stock
c) by a taper turning attachment
View Answer
Answer: c
211. The tail stock set over method of taper turning is preferred for
a) internal tapers
b) small tapers
c) long slender tapers
d) steep tapers
View Answer
Answer: c
212 Which of the following is correct about series of range of speed in simple lathe?
a) Geometric progression
b) Arithmetic progression
c) Logarithmic progression
d) Harmonic progression
View Answer
Answer: a
213. Which of the following is the correct basis in designing feed gear box for screw cutting?
a) Geometric progression
b) Arithmetic progression
c) Logarithmic progression
d) Harmonic progression
View Answer
Answer: a
214. If cutting tool travel 1000mm in the direction of feed motion with work piece rotational speed of
500 rpm and feed rate of 0.2mm/rev, machining time in minutes will be
a) 2
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Use t=L/ FN) where ‘t’ is time, ”L’ is effective length, ‘F’ is feed and ‘N’ is number of
revolution per second.
215. Facing of work piece of diameter 72mm is need to be done at spindle speed of 80 rev per min at
cross feed of 0.3mm/rev. The time required in minute for facing operation will be
a) 2
b) 1.5
c) 2.5
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Time required for machining is given by, t=L/ FN) where ‘t’ is time, ”L’ is effective length,
‘F’ is feed and ‘N’ is number of revolution per second.
216. Compound rest swiveling method in taper turning operation is most suitable for
a) Long jobs with small taper angles
b) Short jobs with small taper angles
c) Short jobs with steep taper angles
d) Long jobs with steep taper angles
View Answer
Answer: c
217. In which of the following, tail stock method of taper turning operation will be preferred more?
a) Internal tapers
b) Steep tapers
c) Small tapers
d) Long slender tapers
View Answer
Answer: d
218. Which of the followings is the correct type of threads used in lead screw having half nut in the
lathe which is free to rotate in both directions?
a) ACME threads
b) Buttress threads
c) Whitworth threads
d) V‐threads
View Answer
Answer: a
219. Which of the following is used to produce quality screw threads?

a) Thread casting
b) Thread cutting with single point tool
c) Thread milling ad cutting with single point tool
d) Thread chasing
View Answer
Answer: d
220. Which of the following can produce both external as well as internal threads?
a) Die threading with self‐opening die heads
b) Thread tapping with taps
c) Thread milling and multiple‐thread cutters
d) Thread chasing with multiple‐rib chasers
View Answer
Answer: c
221. In surface finishing operation one should use a sharp tool with a ______ feed and _______
Speed of rotation of the job.
a) Minimum, minimum
b) Minimum, maximum
c) Maximum, maximum
d) Maximum, minimum
View Answer
Answer: b
222 Which of the following is the correct reason for keeping transverse force minimum in turning of
slender rod?
a) To enhances surface finish
b) To increase productivity
c) To increase efficiency of cutting
d) To reduce undesired vibration during turning
View Answer
Answer: d
223. Self centered chuck has ___ number of jaws.

a) 10
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: d
224. During groove cutting in a lathe, by using a parting tool, which of the following forces are
encountered?
a) Tangential
b) Radial
c) Tangential, Radial and Axial
d) Tangential and Radial
View Answer
Answer: c
225. Which of the following will give the best result for taper turning on the internal surface?
a) Using tailstock offset method
b) Using taper attachment method
c) Using form tool
d) Using compound rest method
View Answer
Answer: d
226. Lead screw of lathe have double start thread with a pitch of 4mm. What should be the ratio of
speed between lead screw and spindle for producing a single start thread of 2 mm pitch?
a) 1:2
b) 1:3
c) 1:4
d) 1:5
View Answer
Answer: c
227 Which of the following can be effectively used for holding eccentric job, irregular job, and called
universal jaw
a) Four jaw chuck
b) Three jaw chuck
c) Both three jaw chuck and four jaw chuck
d) Two jaw chuck
View Answer
Answer: a
228 Which of the following is mostly used for holding bored part of the job?
a) Mandrels
b) Dogs
c) Collet
d) Angle plate
View Answer
Answer: a
229 What will be the value of half taper angle in degrees if diameter of big end is 100mm and diameter
of small end is 60mm for a 1m long job?
a) 3.19
b) 5.29
c) 1.14
d) 2.29
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Half angle can be calculated by using- tan (half taper angle) = (D-d)/ (2*L).
230. What will be the value of diameter of big end in mm for tapered job if diameter of small end and
length of job is 60mm and 1m respectively? Given half taper angle is equal to 12.4 degrees.
a) 600
b) 500
c) 400
d) 300
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Big end diameter can be calculated using- tan (half taper angle) = (D-d)/ (2*L).
231 What will be the length of job in m if diameter of big end is 100mm and diameter of small end is
60mm for a taper angle of 1.14 degree?
a) 5
b) 2
c) 7
d) 1
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Length be calculated by using- tan (half taper angle) = (D-d)/ (2*L) where ‘D’ is the
external diamter, ‘d’ is the internal diameter, ‘L’ is the length of the job.
232. The job of total length 300mm is tapered turned on lathe using tailstock set over method. The two
diameters obtained are 80mm and 500mm and length of taper was 200mm only. Tail stock set over is
equal to
a) 10
b) 15
c) 20
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tail stock set over= L*(D-d)/ (2*l), where ‘D’ is the external diameter, ‘d’ is the internal
diameter, ‘L’ is the length of job.
233 Distance measured normal to the axis of part, between crest and root of thread is known as
a) Pitch
b) Depth of threads
c) Thread angle
d) Major diameter
View Answer
Answer: b
234. Distance from one point of thread to the next corresponding point is known as
a) Pitch
b) Depth of threads
c) Thread angle
d) Major diameter
View Answer
Answer: b
235. If the nut rotated in clockwise direction and advances axially, then threads present in nut are
a) Right Handed threaded
b) left handed thread
c) Right handed and left handed both
View Answer
Answer: a
236. Lead of nut is 2mm and has double start threads. What is the pitch of nut?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pitch=lead/number of starts.
237A thread has number of starts equal to one. Which of the following is most correct about thread?
a) Pitch > lead
b) Pitch<<lead
c) Pitch < lead
d) Pitch=lead
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pitch=lead/number of starts.
238. Let screw of 10mm pitch is needed to be cut on lathe machine. Lead screw of lathe has pitch of
6mm. Which of the following statement is correct?
a) Speed of lead screw is greater than speed of spindle
b) Speed of lead screw is less that speed of spindle
c) Speed of lead screw is equal to speed of spindle
View Answer
Answer: a
239 Which of the following lathe requires very high skills for operation, lowest degree of automation,
high labour cost, minimum overhead charge , low maintenance and most versatile
a) Centre lathe
b) Capstan lathe
c) Turret lathe
View Answer
Answer: a
240 .Turret head in turret lathe is generally mounted on

a) Slide
b) Saddle
c) Ram
View Answer
Answer: b
241. Which of the following is not much effective for mass production i.e. production of same types of
job?
a) Turret lathe
b) Capstan lathe
c) Centre lathe
View Answer
Answer: c
242 Cutting of material during shaping operation takes place in

a) Forward stroke
b) Backward stroke
c) Both forward and backward stroke
View Answer
Answer: a
243 Which of the following part of shaper supports all of the other parts of machines?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Cross rail
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: a
244 Cutting of material during slotting operation takes place in

a) Forward stroke
b) Backward stroke
View Answer
Answer: a
245. Which of the following act as housing for an operating mechanism in shaper?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Cross rail
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: b
246. Which of the following part of shaper machine carries table elevating mechanism?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Cross rail
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: c
247 Which of the following part of shaper machine carries vertical guide ways mechanism?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Cross rail
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: c
248. Which of the following part of shaper machine hold and supports the work piece?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Cross rail
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: d
249. Which of the following part of shaper machine carries tool head?
a) Cross rail
b) Column
c) Ram
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: c
250 Which of the following part of shaper provides straight line motion of tool?
a) Cross rail
b) Column
c) Ram
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: c
251. Which of the following part of shape is used to hold the tool?
a) Cross rail
b) Tool head
c) Ram
d) Vice
View Answer
Answer: b
252 Which of the following shaper machine cuts in return stroke?

a) Vertical shaper
b) Horizontal shaper
c) Draw cut shaper
d) Universal shaper
View Answer
Answer: c
253. Slotted link of crank and slotted lever mechanism is also known as
a) Lever
b) Rocker
c) Crank
View Answer
Answer: b
254. Slotted link of crank and slotted link mechanism is pivoted to

a) Fulcrum
b) Lever
c) Tool
View Answer
Answer: a
255. Time of return stroke is ________ the time of forward stroke in crank and slotted link mechanism.
a) Less than
b) More than
c) Equal to
View Answer
Answer: a
256. In crank and slotted link mechanism, cutting angle is 220 degrees. What should be the return
stroke angle?
a) 12
b) 90
c) 140
d) 360
View Answer
Answer: c
257. In a crank and slotted lever mechanism, length of fixed link and crank is 250 mm and 100 mm
respectively. Inclination of slotted lever with vertical at extreme position in degrees is equal to
a) 25
b) 23.6
c) 28.3
d) 20
View Answer
Answer: b
respectively. Ratio of cutting stroke time to return stroke time will be
a) 5
b) 2.6
c) 1.7
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ratio of cutting stroke time to return stroke time = (cutting angle/return angle).
respectively. Cutting angle in degrees is equal to
a) 47.2
b) 12.3
c) 56
d) 69.3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Use simple geometry in a triangle to find cutting angle.Return stroke angle = 360 – cutting
angle.
respectively. Return angle in degrees is equal to
a) 147.2
b) 112.3
c) 156
d) 132.8
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Use simple geometry in a triangle to find cutting angle. Return stroke angle = 360 –
cutting angle.
respectively. Length of stroke in mm will be
a) 447.2
b) 312.3
c) 56
d) 360.3
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Use simple geometry in a triangle to find cutting angle. Return stroke angle = 360 –
cutting angle. Cutting angle = 47.2 degree.
262 Cutting of material during slotting operation takes place in

a) Forward stroke
b) Backward stroke
View Answer
Answer: a
263. Which of the following part of slotting machine supports all of the other parts of machines?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Ram
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: a
264. Cutting of material during shaping operation takes place in

a) Forward stroke
b) Backward stroke
View Answer
Answer: a
265. Which of the following act as housing for an operating mechanism in slotting machine?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Cross rail
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: b
266. Which of the following part of slotting machine carries table elevating mechanism?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Ram
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: b
267. Which of the following part of slotting machine carries vertical guide ways mechanism?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Cross rail
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: b
268. Which of the following part of slotting machine hold and supports the work piece?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Cross rail
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: d
269. Which of the following part of slotting machine carries tool head?
a) Cross rail
b) Column
c) Ram
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: c
270. Which of the following part of slotting machine provides straight line motion of tool?
a) Cross rail
b) Column
c) Ram
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: c
271. Which of the following part of slotting machine is used to hold the tool?
a) Cross rail
b) Tool head
c) Ram
d) Vice
View Answer
Answer: b
272. Which of the following can be used as job holding device in slotting machine?
a) Cross rail
b) Column
c) Ram
d) Vice
View Answer
Answer: d
273 Which of the following act as load bearing part of milling machine?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Knee
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: a
274 Knee of milling machine is attached and slides up and down on

a) Base
b) Column
c) Knee
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: a
275. Motor drive in milling machine is generally attached to

a) Base
b) Column
c) Knee
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: b
276. Which of the following part of milling machine can be used for reservoir for coolant?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Knee
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: a
277. Which of the following is capable of sliding up and down in milling machines?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Knee
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: c
278. Which of the following part movement of milling machines helps in adjustment of table height?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Knee
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: c
279. Which of the following part of the milling machine is used to support work piece?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Knee
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: d
280. Table of milling machine is generally made up of

a) Cast iron
b) Steel
c) Aluminum
View Answer
Answer: a
281. Which of the following carries clamping bolt T-slots for fixing work piece?
a) Base
b) Column
c) Knee
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: a
282. Which of the following is the heavy support provided at the top of both plain and universal milling
machine?
a) Base
b) Over arm
c) Knee
d) Table
View Answer
Answer: b
283 Which of the following milling cutters have teeth only on their periphery?
a) Plain milling cutters
b) Side milling cutters
c) End milling cutters
d) Face milling cutters
View Answer
Answer: a
284. Which of the following milling cutters have teeth on their periphery as well as on their one side or
both the side?
View Answer
Answer: b
285. Which of the following milling cutters have teeth on their periphery as well as on their end?
View Answer
Answer: c
286. Which of the following milling cutters have teeth on their periphery as well as on their end face?
View Answer
Answer: d
287 Which of the following milling cutters can be used for cutting thin slots or for parting off
operations?
d) Metal slitting cutters
View Answer
Answer: d
288. Which of the following milling cutters can be used for formation of V-grooves?
a) Angle milling cutters
b) Form milling cutters
c) Gear cutters
d) Woodruff-key cutter
View Answer
Answer: a
289 Woodruff Key milling cutter is a type of

View Answer
Answer: c
290 Which of the following milling cutter is capable of removable of large material with very small
power consumption?
View Answer
Answer: a
291 Arbors in milling machines are generally used to

a) Hold cutters
b) Hold the work piece on table
c) Act as auxiliary spindle
View Answer
Answer: a
292. Collets in milling machines are generally used to

a) Hold cutters
View Answer
Answer: a
293. Adaptors in milling machines are generally used to

a) Hold cutters
View Answer
Answer: a
294 Vice circular table in milling machines are generally used to

a) Hold cutters
View Answer
Answer: b
295. Indexing head in milling machines are generally used to

a) Hold cutters
View Answer
Answer: b
296. Tailstock in milling machines are generally used to

a) Hold cutters
View Answer
Answer: b.
297. Spiral milling attachment in milling machines are generally used to
a) Hold cutters
View Answer
Answer: c
298. Vertical milling attachment in milling machines are generally used to

a) Hold cutters
View Answer
Answer: c
299. Slotting milling attachment in milling machines are generally used to

a) Hold cutters
View Answer
Answer: c
300. Which of the following is not a standard milling attachment?

a) Arbors
b) Collets
c) Jigs and fixture
d) Adaptors
View Answer
Answer: c
301Which of the following milling operation can be used for machining a flat surface, parallel to the
axis of cutter?
a) Slab milling
b) Face milling
c) Angular milling
d) Form milling
View Answer
Answer: a
302. Which of the following milling operation can be used for machining of flat surface which is the
right angle to the axis of cutter?
a) Slab milling
b) Face milling
c) Angular milling
d) Form milling
View Answer
Answer: b
303. Which of the following milling operation can be used for machining of flat surface which is at some
angle to the axis of cutter?
a) Slab milling
b) Face milling
c) Angular milling
d) Form milling
View Answer
Answer: c
304. Which of the following milling process is used for machining of irregular shapes?
a) Slab milling
b) Face milling
c) Angular milling
d) Form milling
View Answer
Answer: d
305. Which of the following milling process is used for machining of two parallel vertical surface of a
job simultaneously?
a) Key way milling
b) Groove milling
c) Gang milling
d) Straddle milling
View Answer
Answer: d
306. Which of the following milling process is used for machining of a number of flat horizontal and
vertical surfaces simultaneously using more than two cutters at the same time mounted on common
arbor?
a) Key way milling
b) Groove milling
c) Gang milling
d) Straddle milling
View Answer
Answer: c
307. Which of the following milling operation can be used for producing grooves in work piece?
a) Key way milling
b) Groove milling
c) Gang milling
d) Straddle milling
View Answer
Answer: b
308. Which of the following operation can be used for parting of work piece in two pieces?
a) Key way milling
b) Groove milling
c) Saw milling
d) Straddle milling
View Answer
Answer: c
309. In which of the following milling cutters, power requirement will increase slightly?
a) Negative rake angle tool
b) Positive rake angle tool
c) Both positive and negative rake angle tool
View Answer
Answer: b
310. Which of the following cutter can be used for finishing off previously milled slot?
a) Key way milling cutter
b) Dovetail milling cutter
c) Saw milling cutter
d) Slitting milling cutter
View Answer
Answer: b
311Diameter of milling cutter is 100 mm, running at 210 rpm. Cutting speed in m/min is equal to
a) 26
b) 23
c) 66
d) 78
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: V= (3.14*D*N)/1000. V is the cutting speed, D is diameter and N is the revolution per
minute.
312. Distance moved by table in mm in one minute in any direction is known as
a) Feed per minute
b) Feed per tooth
c) Feed per revolution
View Answer
Answer: a
313. Distance moved by a table in mm during time when cutter revolve through angle corresponding to
distance between two cutting edges of two adjacent teeth is known as
a) Feed per minute
b) Feed per tooth
c) Feed per revolution
View Answer
Answer: b
314. In a milling operation, feed per tooth is 0.020 mm and the total number of teeth on milling cutter is
50. Feed per revolution in mm is equal to
a) 0.2
b) 1.4
c) 1.0
d) 0.7
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Feed per revolution= feed per tooth * number of teeth.
315. In a milling operation, feed per revolution is 5 mm and the total number of teeth on milling cutter is
50. Feed per tooth in mm is equal to
a) 0.1
b) 0.2
c) 0.5
d) 0.05
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Feed per revolution= feed per tooth * number of teeth.
316. In a milling operation, feed per revolution is 0.05 mm and speed of 400 rpm. Feed per min in
mm/min is equal to
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 0.05
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Feed per minute= feed per revolution* speed.
317. In a milling operation, feed per min is 10 mm and speed of 500 rpm. Feed per min in mm/min is
equal to
a) 1
b) 2
c) 0.5
d) 0.04
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Feed per minute= feed per revolution* speed.
318. In a milling operation feed per tooth is .002 mm and number of teeth is 50 rotating with 60 rpm.
Feed per min in mm/min is equal to
a) 3
b) 4
c) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Feed per minute= feed per tooth* speed*number of teeth.
319. In a milling operation feed per tooth is .002 mm and number of teeth is 30 rotating with 40 rpm.
Feed per min in mm/min is equal to
a) 3
b) 4.3
c) 2.4
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Feed per minute= feed per tooth* speed*number of teeth.
320. In a milling operation feed per revolution is 10 mm/rev and number of teeth is 50 rotating with 10
rpm. Feed per tooth in mm is equal to
a) .02
b) .04
c) .06
View Answer
Answer: a
321In which of the following milling method cutters rotate in direction opposite to that in which work is
fed?
a) Up milling
b) Climb milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: a
322. In which of the following milling method chip thickness increase gradually?
a) Up milling
b) Climb milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: a
323. In which of the following milling method chip thickness decrease gradually?
a) Up milling
b) Conventional milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: c
324. In which of the following milling method chip thickness is nearly zero at the start of cut?
a) Up milling
b) Climb milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: a
325. In which of the following milling method chip thickness is maximum at the end of cut?
a) Up milling
b) Climb milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: a
326. In which of the following milling method chip thickness is nearly zero at the end of cut?
a) Up milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: b
327. Which of the following will result in best surface finish of job?
a) Up milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: c
328. In which of the following methods work piece will have a tendency to be pulled up?
a) Up milling
b) Climb milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: a
329. In which of the following methods of milling there would be less radial pressure on the arbor?
a) Up milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: c
330. Which of the following milling operation will require lower force of cut?
a) Up milling
b) Climb milling
c) Down milling
View Answer
Answer: c
331Which of the following is precision dividing head used in milling?
a) Plain dividing head
b) Universal dividing head
c) Optical dividing head
View Answer
Answer: c
332. Circumference of a work piece is to be divided in 8 equal division using index plate of 24 slots.
Indexing ratio is equal to
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indexing ratio = (number of slots on index plate)/ (number of division required). Hence
indexing ratio is equal to 3.
333. Circumference of a work piece is to be divided in 10 equal division using an index plate of 550
slots. Indexing ratio is equal to
a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indexing ratio = (number of slots on index plate)/ (number of division required). Hence
indexing ratio is equal to 3.
334. Circumference of a work piece is to be divided into 60 equal divisions using simple indexing
method having 40 worm wheel teeth. Indexing movement will be
a) 12 holes on 18 hole circle
b) 16 holes on 18 hole circle
c) 12 holes on 21 hole circle
d) 16 holes on 21 hole circle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Indexing movement = (40)/ (number of division required).Hence indexing movement is
equal to 12 holes on 18 hole circle.
335. Circumference of a work piece is to be divided into 35 equal divisions using simple indexing
method having 40 worm wheel teeth. Indexing movement will be
a) 3 holes on 18 hole circle
b) 16 holes on 18 hole circle
c) 3 holes on 21 hole circle
d) 16 holes on 21 hole circle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Indexing movement = (40)/ (number of division required). Hence indexing movement is
equal to 3 holes on 21 hole circle.
336. Circumference of a work piece is to be divided into 6 equal divisions using direct indexing
method. Indexing movement will be
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: d
equal to 4.
337. Circumference of a work piece is to be divided into 12 equal divisions using direct indexing
method. Indexing movement will be
a) 5
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
View Answer
Answer: b
equal to 2.
338. What will be the index movement to mill a hexagon head screw by using direct indexing?
a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For direct indexing, indexing movement = (24)/ (number of division required). Hence
indexing movement is equal to 4.
339. Which one of the following is correct about compound indexing of 93 divisions?
a) 28 holes in 21 circle forward and 28 holes in 31 circle backwards
b) 26 holes in 21 circle forward and 28 holes in 30 circle backwards
c) 28 holes in 21 circle forward and 28 holes in 30 circle backwards
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For compound Indexing use (40/N) = ((n1/N1) + – (n2/N2)), where N denotes the number
of division.Hence indexing movement is equal to 28 holes in 21 circle forward and 28 holes in 31 circle
backwards.
340 Part of twist drill which carries flutes and extends from dead centre up to the start of the neck is
known as
a) Body
b) Point
c) Lip
d) Chisel edge
View Answer
Answer: a
341. Part of drill between neck and tang is known as

a) Body
b) Point
c) Shank
d) Chisel edge
View Answer
Answer: c
342. Edge formed at extreme tip due to the intersection of flanks, is known as
a) Body
b) Point
c) Lip
d) Chisel edge
View Answer
Answer: d
343. Cone shaped surface formed at the end of the flutes which contains dead centre, lips and flanks
etc. is known as
a) Body
b) Point
c) Lip
d) Chisel edge
View Answer
Answer: b
344. Main cutting part of drill is
a) Body
b) Point
c) Lip
d) Chisel edge
View Answer
Answer: c
345. Intersection of each faces and flank form

a) Body
b) Point
c) Lip
d) Chisel edge
View Answer
Answer: a
346. Small clearance provided in diameter of twist drills adjacent to land is known as
a) Body clearance
b) Point clearance
c) Lip clearance
d) Chisel edge clearance
View Answer
Answer: a
347. Which of the following help in reducing friction between drill and the walls of the hole in twist
drills?
a) Body clearance
b) Point clearance
c) Lip clearance
d) Chisel edge clearance
View Answer
Answer: a
348. Narrow flat surface running along flutes of twist drill on its leading edge is known as
a) Body
b) Point
c) Lip
d) Land
View Answer
Answer: d
349. Narrow flat surface running along flutes of twist drill on its leading edge is known as
a) Body
b) Point
c) Lip
d) Margin
View Answer
Answer: d
350 Small part of conical surface of a point which is grounded to provide relief near the cutting edge in
twist drills is known as
a) Lip clearance
b) Face
c) Flute
d) Flank
View Answer
Answer: a
351. In twist drills, curved surface of flute near the lip is known as
a) Lip clearance
b) Face
c) Flute
d) Flank
View Answer
Answer: b
352. In twist drills helical grooves in the body of drill are called
a) Lip clearance
b) Face
c) Flute
d) Flank
View Answer
Answer: c
353. Which of the following part of twist drill is responsible for making chips curl and provide passage
for chip flow?
a) Lip clearance
b) Face
c) Flute
d) Flank
View Answer
Answer: c
354. In twist drills, curved surface on either side of dead centre, confined between lip on its on its one
side and face of the flute on its other side is called
a) Lip clearance
b) Face
c) Flute
d) Flank
View Answer
Answer: d
355. Which of the following separate flute from each other in twist drills?
a) Web
b) Chisel edge corner
c) Outer corner
d) Neck
View Answer
Answer: a
356. In twist drills, chisel edge and lip intersect at
a) Web
c) Outer corner
d) Neck
View Answer
Answer: b
357. In twist drills, face and flank intersect at a corner at the extreme of dead centre, that corner is
known as
a) Web
c) Outer corner
d) Neck
View Answer
Answer: c
358. Which of the following part of twist drill separates body from shank?
a) Web
c) Outer corner
d) Neck
View Answer
Answer: d
359. In twist drills, end of tapered shank is attached to

a) Web
c) Outer corner
d) Tang
View Answer
Answer: d
360 Length measured along the axis between the dead centre and start of neck of a twist drill is known
as
a) Body length
b) Flute length
c) Lip length
d) Overall length
View Answer
Answer: a
361. Length measured parallel to the axis between the dead centre and the point of termination of flute
near the neck is known as
a) Body length
b) Flute length
c) Lip length
d) Overall length
View Answer
Answer: b
362. In twist drill, distance measured between the chisel edge corner and the outer corner is known as
a) Body length
b) Flute length
c) Lip length
d) Overall length
View Answer
Answer: c
363. In twist drills, length measured along the axis between the dead centre and the extreme end of
the tang is known as
a) Body length
b) Flute length
c) Lip length
d) Overall length
View Answer
Answer: d
364. Reduction in body diameter measured along the radius of twist drill is known as
a) Body length
b) Lead of helix
c) Depth of body clearance
d) Core taper
View Answer
Answer: c
365. Web taper is also known as

a) Body length
b) Lead of helix
d) Core taper
View Answer
Answer: d
366. Measure of increase in web thickness or core thickness, starting from the minimum at the point
end to the maximum at the shank end of twist drill
a) Body length
b) Lead of helix
d) Core taper
View Answer
Answer: d
367. Axial distance measured between two corresponding points on a flute in its one complete turn in
twist drill is known as
a) Body length
b) Lead of helix
d) Core taper
View Answer
Answer: b
368. Rake angle of drill is also as
a) Taper angle
b) Friction angle
c) Helix angle
View Answer
Answer: c
369. Which of the following is correct about helix angle for right hand flute drill?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
View Answer
Answer: a
370 Which of the following is correct about helix angle for left hand flute drill?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
View Answer
Answer: b
371. Which of the following is correct about helix angle for parallel flute drill?
a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Zero
View Answer
Answer: c
372. Which of the following drill is most suitable for softer material?
a) 48 degree helix angle drill
b) 68 degree helix angle drill
c) 58 degree helix angle drill
d) 18 degree helix angle drill
View Answer
Answer: d
373.When the value of helix angle increases in drills, the value of required torque for rotation of drill will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) First increase then decrease
d) First decrease then increase
View Answer
Answer: b
374. Point angle of drill is also known as

a) Taper angle
b) Friction angle
c) Helix angle
d) Cutting angle
View Answer
Answer: c
375. Which of the following drill will be most suitable for drilling of brittle material?
a) Small point angle drill
b) Large point angle drill
c) Zero point angles drill
View Answer
Answer: a
376. Which of the following drill will be most suitable for drilling of ductile and soft material?
a) Small point angle drill
b) Large point angle drill
c) Zero point angles drill
View Answer
Answer: b
377. Clearance in drill is

a) Directly proportional to chisel edge angle
b) Inversely proportional to chisel edge angle
c) Does not depend on chisel edge angle
View Answer
Answer: a
378. For drilling of brass work piece, most suitable rake angle in degrees for drill will be
a) 12
b) 15
c) 0
d) -9
View Answer
Answer: c
379. Which of the following is most suitable range of lip clearance angel in degrees for drilling of
aluminum work piece?
a) 8-12
b) 3-2
c) 50-60
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: 8 degree to 12 degree is the best range of lip clearance angle for most of the operations.
380 Producing circular hole in a solid metal by means of revolving tool is known as
a) Drilling
b) Reaming
c) Boring
d) Counter boring
View Answer
Answer: a
381. Operation of finishing previously drilled hole in order to bring it to accurate size and have good
surface finish is known as
a) Drilling
b) Reaming
c) Boring
d) Counter boring
View Answer
Answer: b
382. Process of enlarging the hole size and enhancing its surface finish is known as
a) Drilling
b) Reaming
c) Boring
d) Counter boring
View Answer
Answer: c
384. Process of enlarging only a small part of hole is also known as

a) Drilling
b) Reaming
c) Boring
d) Counter boring
View Answer
Answer: d
385. Operation of enlarging the end of the hole to give conical shape at end is known as
a) Drilling
b) Reaming
c) Boring
d) Counter sinking
View Answer
Answer: d
386. Operation used to form internal threads is known as

a) Drilling
b) Reaming
c) Boring
d) Tapping
View Answer
Answer: d
387. If ‘D’ is hole diameter, then general value for a compulsory approach for through hole can be
taken as
a) 0.3*D
b) 0.1*D
c) 0.5*D
d) 0.8*D
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For through hole, X = 0.5*D.
388. If ‘D’ is hole diameter, then general value for a compulsory approach for blind hole can be taken
as
a) 0.3*D
b) 0.1*D
c) 0.5*D
d) 0.8*D
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: For through hole, X = 0.3*D.
389. If 20mm hole is needed to be drilled using a drill having semi point angle of 15 degrees. Value of
compulsory approach in mm is
a) 37.2
b) 45.3
c) 87.1
d) 13.3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: X = (D/2)/ (tan (semi point angle)).
390. If 20mm hole is needed to be drilled using a drill having point angle of 15 degrees. Value of
compulsory approach in mm is
a) 37.2
b) 45.3
c) 75.95
d) 13.3
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: X = (D/2)/ (tan (semi point angle)). Semi point angle = point angle/2.
391Helical groves on a body of reamers are known as

a) Flutes
b) Face
c) Heel
d) Recess
View Answer
Answer: a
392. In reamers, flute surface adjacent to cutting is known as

a) Flutes
b) Face
c) Heel
d) Recess
View Answer
Answer: b
393. Small flat surface in between cutting edge and the heel of a reamer is known as
a) Flutes
b) Face
c) Heel
d) Land
View Answer
Answer: d
394. In reamers, edge formed by an intersection of secondary clearance and flute is known as
a) Flutes
b) Face
c) Heel
d) Recess
View Answer
Answer: c
395. Reduction in body diameter toward shank of reamer is known as

a) Flutes
b) Face
c) Heel
d) Recess
View Answer
Answer: d
396. Maximum diameter of reamer at entering is also known as

a) Flutes
b) Face
c) Actual size
d) Recess
View Answer
Answer: c
397. Portion of reamer which carries flute is known as

a) Flutes
b) Face
c) Body
d) Recess
View Answer
Answer: c
398. Tapered of reamer by which it can be gripped is known as

a) Flutes
b) Face
c) Heel
d) Shank
View Answer
Answer: d
399. Longitudinal center line which is concentric with diameter of reamer is known as
a) Flutes
b) Axis
c) Heel
d) Recess
View Answer
Answer: b
400. If reamer is found to be cutting while rotating in clockwise direction when viewed against the
entering end at a right angle to it is known as
a) Left handed reamer
b) Central reamer
c) Right handed reamer
View Answer
Answer: a
401. If reamer is found to be cutting while rotating in anti-clockwise direction when viewed against the
entering end at a right angle to it is known as
a) Left handed reamer
b) Central reamer
c) Right handed reamer
View Answer
Answer: c
402 Grain number of grinding wheel is ___ to grain size.

a) Directly proportional
b) Inversely proportional
c) Does not depend
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Grain number = 1/(grain size). Grain number is similar to density of grains on grinding
wheels.
403. Which of the following is a correct range for grain number of the grinding wheel for coarse grains?
a) 220-600
b) 80-180
c) 30-60
d) 10-24
View Answer
Answer: d
404. Which of the following is the correct range for grain number of the grinding wheel for medium
grains?
a) 220-600
b) 80-180
c) 30-60
d) 10-24
View Answer
Answer: c
405. Which of the following is a correct range for grain number of the grinding wheel for fine grains?
a) 220-600
b) 80-180
c) 30-60
d) 10-24
View Answer
Answer: b
406. Which of the following is the correct range for grain number of the grinding wheel for very fine
grains?
a) 220-600
b) 80-180
c) 30-60
d) 10-24
View Answer
Answer: a
407. Which of the following grinding machine will give a better result for rough machining?
a) Fine grain
b) Very fine grain
c) Coarse grain
View Answer
Answer: c
408. Which of the following grinding machine will give a better result for finish machining operation?
a) Fine grain
b) Medium grain
c) Coarse grain
View Answer
Answer: c
409. Which of the following symbol’s range of alphabet represent soft grain in grinding wheel?
a) A – H
b) I – P
c) Q – T
d) T – Z
View Answer
Answer: a
410. Which of the following symbol’s range of alphabet represent medium hardness grain in grinding
wheel?
a) A – H
b) I – P
c) Q – T
d) T – Z
View Answer
Answer: b
411. Which of the following symbol’s range of alphabet represent hard grain in grinding wheel?
a) D – H
b) I – P
c) A – D
d) Q – Z
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A-H represents soft grains in grinding wheel.
412 Which of the following range of numbers represents dense structure of abrasives?
a) 0-7
b) 8-10
c) 10-12
d) 12-16
View Answer
Answer: a
413. Which of the following range of numbers represents open structure of abrasives?
a) 0-3
b) 4-6
c) 8-16
View Answer
Answer: c
414. Which of the following represents the correct symbol of vertified bond in a specification of grinding
wheel?
a) V
b) R
c) B
d) S
View Answer
Answer: a
415. Which of the following represents the correct symbol of rubber bond in a specification of grinding
wheel?
a) V
b) R
c) B
d) S
View Answer
Answer: b
416. Which of the following represents the correct symbol of Resin bond in a specification of grinding
wheel?
a) V
b) R
c) B
d) S
View Answer
Answer: b
417. Resin bond is also known

a) Vertified bond
b) Rubber bond
c) Silicate bond
d) Bakelite bond
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Resin bond is also known as Bakelite bond and is represented by symbol ‘B’. Fifth place
of ISO designation of grinding wheel represents type of bond.
418 Which of the following represents the correct symbol of Silicate bond in a specification of grinding
wheel?
a) V
b) R
c) B
d) S
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘S’ represents for Silicate bond. Fifth place of ISO designation of grinding wheel
represents type of bond.
419. Which of the following represents the correct symbol of Shellac bond in a specification of grinding
wheel?
a) V
b) P
c) B
d) S
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ‘P’ represents for shellac bond. Fifth place of ISO designation of grinding wheel
represents type of bond.
420. Which of the following represents the correct symbol of epoxy bond in a specification of grinding
wheel?
a) V
b) R
c) P
d) S
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ‘P’ represents for epoxy bond. Fifth place of ISO designation of grinding wheel represents
type of bond.
421. Which of the following will be better to use for machining of hard work piece?
a) V-bond
b) R-bond
c) Both V and R bond
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Vertified bond grinding wheel is generally used for machining of hard work piece. Fifth
place of ISO designation of grinding wheel represents type of bond.
422 Which of the following will be better to use for machining of soft work piece?
a) V-bond
b) R-bond
c) Both V and R bond
View Answer
Answer: b
423. Which of the following grinding wheel would be more economical for grinding of hard work piece?
a) Soft grinding wheel
b) Hard grinding wheel
c) Both hard and soft grinding wheel
View Answer
Answer: a
424. Which of the following grinding wheel would be more economical for grinding of soft work piece?
a) Soft grinding wheel
b) Hard grinding wheel
c) Both hard and soft grinding wheel
View Answer
Answer: b
425. Which of the following grinding wheel would be more economical for grinding of hard work piece?
a) Open structure grinding wheel
b) Dense structure wheel
c) Both dense and open structure grinding wheel
View Answer
Answer: b
426.Which of the following grinding wheel would be more economical for grinding of soft work piece?
a) Open structure grinding wheel
b) Dense structure wheel
c) Both dense and open structure grinding wheel
View Answer
Answer: a
427. Material removal rate of grinding process in comparison to material removal rate in facing on a
lathe is
a) Small
b) Large
c) Same
d) Can’t say about material removal rate
View Answer Answer: a
428. Material removal rate in grinding operation is small due to

a) Negative rake angle
b) Positive rake angle
c) Zero rake angle
d) Material removal rate does not depend on the rake angle
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Only small portion of abrasives are involved in cutting
c) Zero rake angle
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Large portion of abrasives are involved in cutting
c) Due to temperature rise during grinding
View Answer, Answer: c
431. Grinding ratio generally lies between

a) 0.5-10
b) 100-200
c) 1000-200
d) 30-40
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Grinding ratio = (volume of material removed/volume of wheel wear). G.R is generally
between 0.5-10.
432 Grinding wheel is specified as “A 46 K 5 B 17”. Grain size of a wheel will be

a) Coarse
b) Medium
c) Fine
d) Very Fine
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: ’46’ represents grain size, which is medium grain size. Second value in the specification
represents grain size.
433. Grinding wheel is specified as “C 8 K 5 B 17”. Grain size of a wheel will be
a) Coarse
b) Medium
c) Fine
d) Very Fine
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ‘8’ represents grain size, which is coarse. Second value in the specification represents
grain size.
434. Grinding wheel is specified as “A 600 K 5 B 17”. Grain size of a wheel will be
a) Coarse
b) Medium
c) Fine
d) Very Fine
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘600’ represents grain size, which comes under very fine grain size. Second value in the
specification represents grain size.
435. Which of the following grinding wheel will have fine grain size?
a) A 46 K 5 B 17
b) C 600 K 5 B 17
c) C 8 K 5 B 17
d) A 80 K 5 B 17
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Second place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents grain size and “80”
comes under fine rain size.
436. Which of the following grinding wheel will have fine grain size?
a) A 46 K 5 B 17
b) C 600 K 5 B 17
c) C 8 K 5 B 17
d) A 80 K 5 B 17
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Second place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents grain size and “600”
comes under very fine rain size.
437. Which of the following specified grinding wheel will have Aluminum oxide abrasive?
a) Z 46 K 5 B 17
b) C 600 K 5 B 17
c) C 8 K 5 B 17
d) A 80 K 5 B 17
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: First place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents grain type and “A”
represents aluminum oxide.
438. Which of the following specified grinding wheel will have Zirconia abrasive?
a) Z 46 K 5 B 17
b) C 600 K 5 B 17
c) C 8 K 5 B 17
d) A 80 K 5 B 17
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: First place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents grain type and “Z”
represents Zirconia.
439. Which of the following specified grinding wheel will have Silicon carbide abrasive?
a) Z 46 K 5 B 17
b) C 600 K 5 B 17
c) A 8 K 5 B 17
d) A 80 K 5 B 17
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: First place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents grain type and “C”
represents silicon carbide.
440. Operation done to make periphery of grinding wheel concentric with its axis to recover its lost
shape is known as
a) Loading
b) Glazing
c) Dressing
d) Trueing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Trueing is done to make periphery of grinding wheel concentric with its axis and to
recover its lost shape.
441. Removing dull grains in order to make grinding wheel sharp is known as
a) Loading
b) Glazing
c) Dressing
d) Trueing
View Answer
Answer: c
442 Which of the following grinding wheel specified in ISO designation will represent Vitrified bond?
a) Z 46 K 5 E 17
b) C 600 K 5 B 17
c) C 8 K 5 R 17
d) A 80 K 5 V 17
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fifth place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents a type of bond and “V”
represents Vitrified bond type.
443. Grinding wheel specified as “C 8 K 5 R 17” in ISO designation. What is the type of bond present
in grinding wheel?
a) Vitrified
b) Rubber
c) Shellac
d) Epoxy
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fifth place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents a type of bond and “R”
represents rubber.
444. Which of the following grinding wheel specified in ISO designation will represent Resin bond?
a) Z 46 K 5 E 17
b) C 600 K 5 B 17
c) C 8 K 5 R 17
d) A 80 K 5 V 17
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fifth place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents the type of bond and “B”
represents resin bond.
445. Which of the following grinding wheel specified in ISO designation will represent Shellac bond?
a) Z 46 K 5 E 17
b) C 600 K 5 B 17
c) C 8 K 5 R 17
d) A 80 K 5 V 17
View Answer,Answer: a
Explanation: Fifth place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents a type of bond and “E”
represents shellac.
446 Grinding wheel specified as “A 8 K 5 P 17” in ISO designation. What is the type of bond present in
grinding wheel?
a) Vitrified
b) Rubber
c) Shellac
d) Epoxy
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Fifth place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents a type of bond and “P”
represents rubber.
447. Which of the following will not have open structure?
a) A 46 K 5 B 17
b) C 600 K 8 B 17
c) C 8 K 5 9 17
d) A 80 K 10 B 17
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Fourth place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents Structure and “5” comes
under dense structure.
448. Which of the following has open structure?
a) A 46 K 5 B 17
b) C 600 K 8 B 17
c) C 8 K 5 3 17
d) A 80 K 4 B 17
View Answer
Answer: b
under open structure.
449. A grinding wheel is specified as “C 10 K 8 R 17”. Which of the following is correct about this
grinding wheel?
a) Very fine grains
b) Open structure
c) Aluminum oxide abrasive
d) Coarse grain
View Answer
Answer: b
under open structure.
450. A grinding wheel is specified as “A 5 K 5 R 17”. Which of the following is correct about this
grinding wheel?
a) Very fine grains
b) Open structure
c) Aluminum oxide abrasive
d) Coarse grain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: First place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents grain type and “A”
represents aluminum oxide.
451. A grinding wheel is specified as “C 5 K 5 R 17”. Which of the following is correct about this
grinding wheel?
a) Very fine grains
b) Open structure
c) Rubber bond
d) Coarse grain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Fifth place of ISO designation of the grinding wheel represents a type of bond and “R”
represents rubber.
452. A grinding wheel is specified as “A 8 K 5 P 17”. Which of the following is correct about this
grinding wheel?
a) Very fine grains
b) Open structure
c) Rubber bond
d) Coarse grain
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: ‘8’ represents grain size, which is coarse.
453. Friability of grinding wheel is associated to
a) Hardness
b) Fracture
c) Size
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Friability is the ability to fracture under pressure so that when cutting edge become dull,
the grain breaks off and exposes new grains which are sharp.
454. With time, grinding wheel starts rubbing work piece instead of cutting, due to a decrease in
sharpness. This phenomenon is known as
a) Loading
b) Glazing
c) Dressing
d) Trueing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Glazing occurs when grinding wheel starts rubbing work piece instead of cutting.
455. Loss in the sharpness of grinding wheel due to the presence of chips in gaps of grains is termed
as
a) Loading
b) Glazing
c) Dressing
d) Trueing
View Answer
Answer: a
456 Which of the following is a surface finishing operation?

a) Drilling
b) Honing
c) Milling
d) Turning
View Answer,Answer: b
457. Which of the following is a surface finishing operation?

a) Drilling
b) Lapping
c) Milling
d) Turning
View Answer
Answer: b
458. Which of the following process has the lowest cutting speed?
a) Drilling
b) Honing
c) Milling
d) Turning
View Answer
Answer: b
459 Which of the following process has the lowest cutting speed?
a) Slotting
b) Lapping
c) Milling
d) Reaming
View Answer
Answer: b
460 Which of the following process have the lowest metal removal rate?
a) Drilling
b) Reaming
c) Milling
d) Lapping
View Answer
Answer: b
461. Which of the following process have the lowest metal removal rate?
a) Drilling
b) Reaming
c) Milling
d) Honing
View Answer
Answer: d
462. Which of the following is the correct grain size range of abrasive grains for honing stones?
a) 800 grit to 1000 grit
b) 5 grit to 10 grit
c) 50 grit to 60 grit
d) 80 grit to 600 grit
View Answer
Answer: d
463 For practical honing conditions, cross hatch angle in degrees is generally taken in the range of
a) 20 to 40
b) 40 to 50
c) 50 to 60
d) 10 to 15
View Answer
Answer: a
464 During a honing process, reciprocating speed of honing tool was 9m/min with a rotary speed of
25m/min. Cross hatch angle in degrees is equal to
a) 40
b) 35
c) 30
d) 25
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: tan(X) = (Reciprocating speed in m/min)/ (Rotary speed in m/min). Cross hatch angle =
2*X, where ‘X’ is the cross hatch angle.
465. During a honing process, reciprocating speed of honing tool was 9m/min with a cross hatch angle
of 30 degree. Rotary speed in m/min is equal to
a) 33.58
b) 35
c) 30
d) 25.23
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: tan(X) = (Reciprocating speed in m/min)/ (Rotary speed in m/min). Cross hatch angle =
2*X, where ‘X is the cross hatch angle.
466 Which of the following machine uses non conventional machining technique for metal removal?
a) Grinding machine
b) Milling machine
c) Electric discharge machine
View Answer
Answer: c
467. Which of the following material cannot be machined using electronic discharge machine?
a) Iron
b) Aluminum
c) Copper
d) Wood
View Answer,Answer: d
468 Which of the following material can be machined using electronic discharge machine?
a) Iron
b) Rubber
c) Plastic
d) Wood
View Answer
Answer: a
469. Which of the following EDM machine is used for cutting shapes cut out of a flat sheet or plate of
metal?
a) Wire EDM
b) Sinker EDM
c) Wire and Sinker EDM both
View Answer
Answer: a
470 Which of the following EDM machine is used for die cast tooling?
a) Wire EDM
b) Sinker EDM
c) Wire and Sinker EDM both
View Answer
Answer: b
471. Dielectric medium in EDM is used for

a) Flushing away the debris
b) To make the medium conducting
c) To decrease the material removal rate
View Answer
Answer: a
472. Material removal rate in EDM increases with

a) Increase in melting point of work piece
b) Increase in Current
c) Decrease in current
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: MRR is directly proportional to the current.
473. Material removal rate in EDM increases with
a) Increase in melting point of work piece
b) Decrease in Current
c) Decrease in melting point of work piece
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: MRR is inversely proportional to a melting point of work piece.
474 For maximum power delivery using resistance capacitance relaxation circuit in EDM, discharge
voltage should ___ % of the supply voltage?
a) 80
b) 23
c) 65
d) 72
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Find optimum value using L-C circuits.
475. In an EDM machine, metal removal rate is 1.937 cubic mm / min. If total amount of material to
removed is 600 cubic mm. Time required in min will be
a) 100
b) 200
c) 309
d) 402
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Time required= (Total material to be removed/material removal rate).
476 Which of the following is un-conventional machining process?
a) Grinding
b) Milling
c) Turning
d) Electro chemical machining
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electro chemical machining is an un-conventional machining process used for large
material removal from the surface using electricity generated due to chemical reactions.
477 Which of the following is conventional machining process?
a) Electro chemical machining
b) Milling
c) Electron discharge machining
View Answer
Answer: b
478. In ECM, heavy electrical sparks are created.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Sparks are generated in EDM, by using high voltage current, for proper erosion of
material.
479. In ECM, tool does not touch the work piece.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Tool is very near to work piece but does not touch it in ECM.
480. Which of the following is correct about ECM?

a) Erosion of metal takes place as a reverse process of electroplating
b) Thermal stresses are induced
c) Mechanical stresses are induced
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In ECM, erosion of metal takes place as reverse process of electroplating.
481. Which of the following material cannot be machined using electro chemical machining?
a) Iron
b) Aluminium
c) Copper
d) Wood
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wood is a bad conductor of electricity and hence cannot be machined using electro
chemical machining.
482. Which of the following material can be machined using electro chemical machining?
a) Iron
b) Rubber
c) Plastic
d) Wood
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Iron is a good conductor of electricity and hence can be machined using electro chemical
machining.
483. Electrode gap in electro chemical machining is generally ranged from
a) 0.5 mm to 0.9 mm
b) 1.1 mm to 1.2 mm
c) 0.1 mm to 0.2 mm
d) 3.1 mm to 4.2 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electrode gap in electro chemical machining is generally ranged from 0.1 mm to 0.2 mm.
484. Electrolytes used in ECM must posses
a) Low electrical conductivity
b) Low chemical stability
c) High electrical conductivity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Electrolytes used in ECM must have high electrical conductivity.
485. Which of the following is not a function of electrolyte in ECM?
a) It completes the circuit
b) It helps in electrochemical reaction
c) It carries away heat and waste product
d) It provide non reactive environment
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Electrolyte provides reactive environment for chemical reactions to takes place.
486 LASER stands for
a) Light amplification by stimulated emission of radiation
b) Light amplification by stimulated erosion of reaction
c) Light amplification by stimulated erosion of radiation
d) Light amplification by stimulated emission of reaction
View Answer
Answer: a
487 Ruby laser is most efficient when

a) Kept cold
b) Kept hot
c) Kept at normal temperature
View Answer
Answer: a
488 Time of machining in the laser beam machining process increases with
a) Decrease in power supply
b) Decrease in laser beam spot diameter
c) Increase in cutting speed
View Answer
Answer: b
489 Laser beam machining process can be used for

a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Metals
View Answer
Answer: d
490 In laser beam machining process, as compared to other unconventional machining processes,
heat affected zone is
a) Larger
b) Smaller
c) Not present
View Answer
Answer: b
491. Which of the following is an unconventional process of machining?

a) Turning
b) Milling
c) Drilling
d) Laser beam machining process
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Laser beam machining is an unconventional process of machining. It does not require
vacuum environment.
492. Which of the following is a conventional process of machining?
b) Electron beam machining
c) Drilling
d) Laser beam machining process
View Answer
Answer: d
493. For machining of plastic material which of the unconventional process can be used effectively?
c) Laser beam machining process
View Answer
Answer: c
494. Time of cutting in laser beam machining process increases

a) With decrease in cutting speed
b) With Increase in Cutting speed
c) With increase in power
View Answer
Answer: a
495. In laser beam machining process lens is used to

a) Deflect laser beams
b) Diverge laser beams
c) Converge laser beams
View Answer
Answer: c
496 Which of the following is an unconventional process of machining?
a) Milling
b) USM
c) Drilling
View Answer
Answer: b
497 Ultrasonic machining process can be used for

a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Metals
View Answer
Answer: d

c) Ultrasonic machining
View Answer
Answer: d
c) Ultrasonic machining
View Answer
Answer: c
500. Material removal rate in USM increases with

a) Decrease in volume of work material per impact
b) Increase in volume of work material per impact
c) Decrease in frequency
d) Decrease in number of particle making impact per cycle
View Answer
Answer: b

b) Decrease in volume of work material per impact
d) Increase in number of particle making impact per cycle
View Answer
Answer: d

b) Decrease in volume of work material per impact
c) Increases in frequency
d) Decreases in the number of particle making impact per cycle
View Answer
Answer: c
503 Element of machine which is used to convert high frequency electrical impulse into mechanical
vibration in USM is known as
a) Tool
b) Feeding unit
c) Transducer
View Answer
Answer: c
504. Which of the following elements of USM is used to apply working force during machining
operation?
a) Tool
b) Feeding unit
c) Transducer
View Answer
Answer: b
505 Material removal rate in USM increases with

a) Decrease in amplitude
b) Decrease in grain size of abrasives
d) Increase in amplitude
View Answer
Answer: d

a) Milling
b) AJM
c) Drilling
View Answer
Answer: b.
507 Abrasive jet machining process can be used for
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Metals
View Answer
Answer: d
508 Which of the following is a conventional process of machining?

c) Drilling
d) Abrasive jet machining
View Answer
Answer: c
c) Abrasive jet machining
View Answer
Answer: c
510. Metal removal rate in abrasive jet machining increases with

a) Increase in abrasive flow rate
b) Decrease in abrasive flow rate
c) Decrease in grain size of abrasives
d) Increase in grain size of abrasives
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Increase in abrasive flow rate but decreases beyond a certain limit
c) Increase in grain size of abrasives
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Increase in standoff distance but decreases beyond a certain limit
c) Decrease in grain size in grain size of abrasives
View Answer
Answer: a

a) Increase in gas pressure
c) Decrease in gas pressure
View Answer
Answer: a
514. Mixing ratio in abrasive jet machining is defined as a ratio of

a) Mass flow rate of abrasive to mass flow rate of gas
b) Mass flow rate of gas to mass flow rate of abrasive
c) Velocity of gas to velocity of abrasive
View Answer
Answer: a
515. High abrasive flow rate decreases the life of nozzle in the abrasive machining process.
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Due to high vel

a) Milling
b) WJM
c) Drilling
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: WJM stands for water jet machining and it is an unconventional process of machining.
Water jet machining process is more versatile and can be used for the metal as well as non metal.
517 Water jet machining process can be used for
a) Conductors
b) Insulators
c) Metals
View Answer
Answer: d

c) Water jet machining process
View Answer
Answer: d
519 For machining of plastic material which of the unconventional process can be used effectively?
c) Water jet machining process
View Answer
Answer: c
520. Material removal rate decreases with

a) Increase in amplitude
b) Decrease in grain size of abrasives
c) Increase in frequency
d) Increase in amplitude
View Answer
Answer: d.
521. Which of the following is correct about USM?
a) Surface finish is bad
b) High cost
c) Not efficient for brittle material
View Answer
Answer: d.
522. Which of the following is correct about USM?

a) Surface finish is bad
b) High cost
c) Not efficient for brittle material
d) No residual stress on work piece
View Answer
Answer: d
523. Which of the following is not correct about USM?

a) Low cost
b) Process is very loud noise making
c) Good surface finish
View Answer
Answer: b
524 Maximum deviation in size of shaft or hole is known as
a) Tolerance
b) Fundamental deviation
c) Clearance
d) Interference
View Answer
Answer: a
525. Nearest deviation between hole and shaft from the basic value is known as
a) Tolerance
b) Fundamental deviation
c) Clearance
d) Interference
View Answer
Answer: b
526. When size of the smallest hole is more than size of biggest shaft then it is
a) Clearance fit
b) Interference fit
c) Transition fit
View Answer
Answer: a
527. Value of minimum clearance is given by

a) Size of smallest hole – size of biggest shaft
b) Size of smallest hole + size of biggest hole
c) Size of smallest shaft – size of biggest shaft
View Answer
Answer: a
528. Value of maximum clearance is given by

a) Size of smallest hole – size of biggest hole
b) Size of smallest shaft + size of biggest hole
View Answer
Answer: b
529. When size of smallest shaft is more than size of biggest hole then it is
a) Clearance fit
b) Interference fit
c) Transition fit
View Answer
Answer: b
530. Value of maximum Interference is given by

a) Size of smallest hole – size of biggest shaft
b) Largest of shaft size hole – smallest hole size
View Answer
Answer: b
531. Value of minimum interference is given by

a) Size of smallest hole – size of biggest hole
b) Size of smallest shaft + size of biggest hole
c) Size of smallest shaft – size of biggest hole
View Answer
Answer: c
532. For manufacturing of a certain amount of hole, maximum hole size was found to be 50.14 mm
and minimum hole size was found to be 49.98. Tolerance in mm will be
a) 0.12
b) 0.13
c) 0.16
d) 0.20
View Answer
Answer: c
533. In manufacturing of hole and shaft, maximum shaft diameter was 49.88 mm and minimum hole
diameter was found to be 49.94 mm. It is a
a) Clearance fit
b) Interference fit
c) Transition fit
View Answer
Answer: a
534 In an assembly of hole and shaft, minimum shaft diameter is 49.36 mm and maximum shaft
diameter is 48.20 mm. It is an example of
a) Clearance fit
b) Interference fit
c) Transition fit
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: When size of smallest shaft is more than size of biggest hole then it is
Interference fit. Maximum Interference is the difference between size of largest haft size and smallest
hole size.
535. In an assembly of hole and shaft, smallest shaft was having diameter of 50.16 mm and largest
hole was having diameter of 50.14 mm. Minimum interference in mm will be
a) 0.2
b) 0.3
c) 0.3
d) 0.1
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Minimum interference is the difference between size of smallest shaft and size of biggest
hole. Maximum Interference is the difference between size of largest haft size and smallest hole size.
536. Maximum material limit of shaft is
a) Maximum diameter of hole
b) Maximum diameter of shaft
c) Smallest diameter of hole
d) Minimum diameter of shaft
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Maximum material limit of shaft is maximum diameter of shaft. Minimum material limit of
shaft is minimum diameter of shaft.
537. Maximum material limit of hole is
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Maximum material limit of hole is smallest diameter of hole. Minimum material limit of hole
is largest diameter of hole.
538. Minimum material limit of shaft is
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Minimum material limit of shaft is minimum diameter of shaft. Maximum material limit of
shaft is maximum diameter of shaft.
539. Minimum material limit of hole is

View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Minimum material limit of hole is largest diameter of hole. Maximum material limit of hole
is smallest diameter of hole.
540. Allowance of hole and shaft assembly is equal to
a) Sum of maximum metal limit
b) Product of Maximum limit
c) Difference of maximum metal limit
View Answer
Answer: c
541 In which of the following mechanism the relative motions of the rigid bodies are in one plane or in
parallel planes?
a) spatial mechanism
b) spherical mechanism
c) flexure mechanism
d) planar mechanism
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In a planar mechanism, all particles describe plane curves in space and all the curves lie
in a single or parallel planes. The relative motions are constrained to a single plane. Hence, the planar
mechanism is a 2 – D mechanism.
542 If there are redundant constraints in the chain and it forms a statically indeterminate structure,
what is the degree of freedom or the mobility of this structure?
a) More than 0
b) Less than 0
c) 1
d) 2
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: If n ≤-1, then there are redundant constraints in the chain and a statically indeterminate
structure is formed. The structure is called a preloaded structure as some stress is created within the
link so that it has negative mobility.
543 If the shortest link is fixed, what type of mechanism is obtained?
a) Crank rocker mechanism
b) Linkage is not planar
c) Double crank mechanism
d) Double rocker mechanism
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: When the shortest link is fixed, the links adjacent to it rotate continuously and can be
described as proper cranks. Thus, this mechanism is called a double crank mechanism.
544 Which of the following mechanism is an approximately straight-line motion mechanism?

a) Hart’s mechanism
b) Watt’s mechanism
c) Scott Russell’s mechanism
d) Peaucellier mechanism
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Watt’s consists of three links. Two of them are of equal length whereas one is shorter.
Due to the rotation motion of the longer links, the center of the shorter link traces an approximate
straight line. Out of the following mechanism, Watt’s mechanism is an approximately straight line
mechanism whereas the rest are exact straight line mechanisms.
545 . __________ mechanism is a crossed four bar chain mechanism in early steam engines to guide
the piston rod in a cylinder to have an approximate straight line motion.
a) Chebychev’s
b) Watt’s
c) Peaucellier’s
d) Grasshopper
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Watt’s mechanism is a four bar chain mechanism and was used by Watt in steam
engines so as to guide the piston rod into a cylinder to have a straight line motion. Due to the rotation
motion of the longer links, the centre of the shorter link traces an approximate straight line.
advertisement
546 For a Whitworth quick return motion mechanism β = 110°. Find the ratio of time of cutting stroke to
time of return stroke.
a) 0.42
b) 0.44
c) 2.27
d) 2.37
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Ratio of time of cutting stroke to time of return stroke for a Whitworth quick return motion
mechanism = (360-β)/ β = (360-110)/110 = 2.27.
547. Which of these is not a type of clutch?
a) Cylindrical
b) Centrifugal
c) Single disc
d) Conical
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Single disc, conical and centrifugal are types of clutches. Clutches are used for the
transmission of power in shafts and machines which are started and stopped frequently. It is also used
to deliver power to the machine which are partially or fully loaded.
548. In a multi plate clutch, the formula for T is given by ______
a) n.µ.W.r1
b) n.µ.W.(r1+r2)
c) n.µ.W.R
d) n.µ.W.r2
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a multi plate clutch, the formula for T is given by n.µ.W.R
The formula is the same for torque in a single plate clutch. But for large amount of torque to be
transmitted, multi plate clutch is used. Multi plate clutches are used in motor vehicles and machine
tools.
549. In a conical clutch, the mean radius of the bearing surface is 300 mm whereas the breadth is 20
mm. Find the inner and outer radii. The semi cone angle is 30°.
a) 140 mm, 160 mm
b) 160 mm, 140 mm
c) 155 mm, 145 mm
d) 145 mm, 155 mm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a conical clutch b sinα = r1 – r2
r1 – r2 = 10 and r1 + r2 = 300
r1 = 155 mm and r2 = 145 mm.
550. If the outer and inner radius of the contact surfaces are 100 mm and 75 mm respectively and the
semi cone angle is 22.5°, find the value of the face width required.
a) 65.33 mm
b) 89.43 mm
c) 23.87 mm
d) 78.94 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a conical clutch b sinα = r1 – r2
b x sin 22.5° = 100 – 75
b = 65.33 mm.
551. The smaller and generally the driving gear of a pair of mated gears is called _________
a) rack
b) pinion
c) module
d) pitch
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pinion is the smaller and the driving gear of a pair of mated gears. It is used in gear train
drives and is usually the smaller gear. The pinion engages the larger gear or rack that helps in the
turning of the wheels of the vehicle.
552. The distance measured along the circumference of the pitch circle from a point on one tooth to
the same point on the adjacent tooth is called ________________
a) circular pitch
b) line of centers
c) pitch diameter
d) pitch point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Circular pitch is the distance measured along the circumference of the pitch circle from a
point on one tooth to the same point on the adjacent tooth. So basically, it is the distance between
corresponding points of consecutive gear teeth.
p = d π/ N; where, p is the circular pitch, d is the standard pitch diameter and N is the number of teeth.
553. The locus of a point on the pitch circle from the beginning to end of engagement of two mating
gears is called as ___________
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Arc of approach
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arc of contact is defined as the locus of a point on the pitch circle from beginning to end
of engagement of two mating gears. It is subdivided into two sections namely arc of approach and arc
of recess. Arc of approach + arc of recess = arc of contact.
554. The ratio of angle of action to the pitch angle is called ___________
a) angle of recess
b) contact ratio
c) space width
d) angle of approach
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Contact ratio is the ratio of angle of action to the pitch angle. It is also defined as the
number of pairs of teeth in contact. Contact ratio = arc of contact / circular pitch.
555. The angle turned by the gear from the beginning to the end of engagement of a pair of teeth is
called ______________
a) angle of action
b) angle of contact
c) angle of recess
d) angle of approach
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Angle of action is the angle turned by the gear from the beginning to the end of
engagement of a pair of teeth. Angle of action = Arc of contact / r; where r is the radius of the pinion.
556. The condition which must be fulfilled by two gear tooth profiles to maintain a constant angular
velocity ratio between them is called __________________
a) path of contact
b) interference
c) arc of contact
d) law of gearing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Law of gearing is the condition which must be fulfilled by two gear tooth profiles to
maintain a constant angular velocity ratio between them. In order to maintain this constant angular
velocity, the common normal of the tooth profiles should always pass through a fixed point on the line
of centres, called fixed point.
557. Velocity of sliding at the pitch point = (ω p + ωg) x _____________
a) arc of approach
b) path of contact
c) path of recess
d) 0
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: At the pitch point, there is no relative motion between the gears. Thus, the velocity of
sliding is 0. Velocity of sliding at the pitch point = (ω p + ωg) x 0 = 0.
558. The distance travelled by a point on either pitch circle of the two wheels during the period of
contact of a pair of teeth is called ____________________
a) angle of action
b) path of contact
c) arc of contact
d) contact ratio
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The arc of contact is defined as the distance travelled by a point on either pitch circle of
the two wheels during the period of contact of a pair of teeth. Simply, it is traced out along the pitch
circle while one pair of the teeth is in contact.
559. The contact ratio is the ratio of arc of contact to the ____________
a) module
b) circular pitch
c) dedendum
d) circular pitch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Contact ratio is the of the arc od contact to the circular pitch. The number of teeth in
contact = arc of contact / circular pitch = path of contact / (circular pitch x cos φ).
560. When large gear reductions are needed _________ gears are used.
a) bevel
b) worm
c) helical
d) spur
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Worm gears are used where large speed reductions are needed. The horizontal portion of
the gear is called as a worm and the assembly of it with the gear is known as a worm gear. Worm can
easily turn a gear but a gear cannot turn a worm because of the shallow angle on the worm.
561. Which of the following is an advantage of worm gear?
a) Has high power losses and low transmission efficiency
b) Produce a lot of heat
c) Used for reducing speed and increasing torque
d) It is expensive
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Reduction of speed and increasing the torque is an advantage of worm gear. The rest are
the disadvantages of the worm gear. Worm gears are used in gate control mechanisms, hoisting
machines, automobile steering mechanisms, lifts, conveyors and presses.
562. The distance by which a helix advances along the axis of the gear for one turn around is called
_____________
a) lead
b) axial pitch
c) joint line
d) normal link
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Lead is the distance by which a helix advances along the axis of the gear for one turn
around. The axial pitch is equal to the lead in a single helix and the axial pitch is one half of the lead in
a double helix and so on.
563. Bevel gears are equivalent to rolling ________

a) spheres
b) cubes
c) cuboids
d) cones
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: By geometry of bevel gears, it is evident that they are equivalent to rolling cones. Their
pitch surface is a cone. Bevel gears exist as pairs which can be either straight or inclined at different
angles.
564. Which of the gears has the highest contact ratio?
a) Worm
b) Bevel
c) Helical
d) Spur
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Bevel gears increase the contact ratio. It avoids interference and results in stronger pinion
teeth. The gear ratio can be determined from the number of teeth, pitch diameters or pitch cone
angles.
565. What is the working depth of the gear and the pinion of the bevel gears?
a) 0.7 m, 2 m
b) 3 m, 0.4 m
c) 0.4 m, 3 m
d) 2 m, 0.7 m
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The working depth of the teeth is usually 2 m which is the same as for standard spur and
helical gears, but the bevel pinion is designed with the larger addendum and has 0.7 m working depth.
The gear addendum varies according to the gear ratio and is 1 m for a gear ratio of 1.
566. In a centrifugal clutch, what is ω?
a) Angular acceleration of the pulley
b) Angular running speed of the pulley
c) Angular acceleration at which the engagement begins to take place
d) Angular running speed at which the engagement takes place
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a centrifugal clutch, ω is the angular running speed of the body. ω1 is the angular
speed at which the engagement begins to take place.
567. Which of the following clutches include shoes and spider inside the rim of the pulley?
a) Cone clutch
b) Multi plate clutch
c) Single plate clutch
d) Centrifugal clutch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Centrifugal clutches are incorporated into motor pulleys which consist of a number of
shoes on inside of the rim of the pulley. These clutches are generally incorporated into the motor
pulleys. The outer surfaces of the shoe are covered with a layer of a friction material.
568. In a centrifugal clutch, what is ω?

a) Angular acceleration at which the engagement begins to take place
b) Angular running speed at which the engagement takes place
c) Angular running speed of the pulley
d) Angular acceleration of the pulley
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In a centrifugal clutch, ω is the angular running speed of the body. ω1 is the angular
speed at which the engagement begins to take place.
569. In a multi plate clutch, number of discs on the driving shaft is given by n 1. True or false?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In a multi plate clutch, number of discs on the driving shaft is given by n 1, whereas
number of discs on the driven shaft is given by n 2. With the help of these two variables we can find out
the number of pairs of contact surfaces.
570. In a multi plate clutch, T = 150 N-m, n = 4, µ = 0.3 and R = 0.1 m. Find the axial thrust.
a) 1800
b) 1250
c) 200
d) 18
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: T = nµWR
150 = 4 x 0.3 x W x 0.1
W = 1250 N
Thus, the axial thrust = 1250 N.
571 The smaller and generally the driving gear of a pair of mated gears is called _________
a) pitch
b) module
c) rack
d) pinion
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pinion is the smaller and the driving gear of a pair of mated gears. It is used in gear train
drives and is usually the smaller gear. The pinion engages the larger gear or rack that helps in the
turning of the wheels of the vehicle.
572 The distance measured along the circumference of the pitch circle from a point on one tooth to the
same point on the adjacent tooth is called ________________
a) pitch diameter
b) circular pitch
c) pitch point
d) line of centres
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Circular pitch is the distance measured along the circumference of the pitch circle from a
point on one tooth to the same point on the adjacent tooth. So basically, it is the distance between
corresponding points of consecutive gear teeth.
p = d π/ N; where, p is the circular pitch, d is the standard pitch diameter and N is the number of teeth.
573. The number of teeth per unit length of the pitch circle diameter is called ________________
a) diametral pitch
b) module
c) clearance
d) gear ratio
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Diametral pitch is the number of teeth per unit length of the pitch circle diameter.
It is used to classify different types and sizes of gears. It is a function of the pitch circle.
P = T/d.
574. The ratio of the number of teeth on the gear to the number of teeth on the pinion is called ______
a) velocity ratio
b) module
c) gear ratio
d) pitch point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Gear ratio is given by T/t and is defined as the ratio of the number of teeth on the gear to
the number of teeth on the pinion. Velocity ratio is the inverse of gear ratio.
Gear ratio is inversely proportional to the radius of the pitch circle and also the number of teeth on the
driving gear.
575. The ratio of pitch diameter to the number of teeth is called _________
a) module
b) addendum
c) dedendum
d) backlash
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Module is the ratio of pitch diameter to the number of teeth.
Module indicates the size of the gear and classifies whether the gear is big or small as module is a unit
of size.
m = d/T or m = p/π.
576. The circle passing through the upper tips of the teeth is called _________________
a) pitch circle
b) circular pitch
c) dedendum circle
d) addendum circle
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Addendum circle is the circle passing through the upper tips of the teeth. The addendum
circle lies on the outside cylinder for external gears whereas the addendum circle lies on the internal
cylinder for internal gears. The diameter for the addendum circle of an internal gear is called as inside
diameter.
577. The radial height of a tooth above the pitch circle is called ____________
a) addendum
b) dedendum
c) rack
d) line of centres
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Addendum is the radial height of a tooth above the pitch circle. Basically, it is the radial
distance between pitch diameter and diameter of the outside circle. Addendum angle is the angle
between the face cone and the pitch cone.
578. The circle passing through the roots of the teeth is called ________________
a) addendum
b) addendum circle
c) dedendum circle
d) rack
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Dedendum circle is the circle passing through the roots of the teeth. It touches the bottom
of the spaces between the teeth of a gear.
579. The radial depth of a tooth below the pitch circle is called _______________
a) dedendum
b) addendum
c) rack
d) line of centres
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Dedendum is the radial depth of a tooth below the pitch circle. It is the radial distance
between the pitch circle and the root circle. Dedendum angle is the angle between the root cone and
the pitch cone.
580 The radial difference between the addendum and the dedendum of the tooth is called _________
a) clearance
b) rack
c) line of action
d) line of centres
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Clearance is the radial difference between addendum and dedendum of the tooth.
Clearance circle is a tangent to the addendum circle on the gear. It has a clearance which equal to the
distance between the dedendum of the gear and the addendum of the mating gear.
590. The locus of the point of contact on two mating teeth from beginning of engagement to end of
engagement is known as the _______________
a) angle of action
b) arc of contact
c) path of contact
d) line of action
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Path of contact is the locus of the point of contact on two mating teeth from beginning of
engagement to end of engagement. It is also called as contact length. It is the tangent to both the base
circles and passes through the pitch point.
591. The portion of path of contact from the beginning of contact to the pitch point is called _______
a) arc of recess
b) arc of approach
c) path of recess
d) path of approach
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Path of approach is the portion of path of contact from the beginning of contact to the
pitch point. It is given by the formula (Ra2 – R2cos2 φ)0.5 – Rsinφ; where Ra is the radius of
addendum of the larger gear, R is the radius of the larger gear and φ is the pressure angle between
the two gears.
592. The portion of the path of contact from the pitch point to the end of contact is called _________
a) arc of recess
b) arc of approach
c) path of recess
d) path of approach
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Path of recess is the portion of the path of contact from the pitch point to the end of
contact. It is given by the formula (ra2 – r2cos2 φ)0.5 – rsinφ; where ra is the radius of addendum of the
smaller gear, r is the radius of the smaller gear and φ is the pressure angle between the two gears.
Path of approach + Path of recess = Path of contact.
593. Arc of contact = ___________________ Complete the equation.
a) Path of contact / cos θ
b) Path of contact / sin θ
c) Path of contact x cos θ
d) Path of contact x sin θ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arc of contact = Path of contact / cos θ; θ = the pressure angle between the two gears.
594. The locus of a point on the pitch circle from the beginning to end of engagement of two mating
gears is called as ___________
a) Arc of contact
b) Path of contact
c) Path of approach
d) Arc of approach
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arc of contact is defined as the locus of a point on the pitch circle from beginning to end
of engagement of two mating gears. It is subdivided into two sections namely arc of approach and arc
of recess. Arc of approach + arc of recess = arc of contact.
595. The ratio of angle of action to the pitch angle is called ___________
a) space width
b) angle of recess
c) angle of approach
d) contact ratio
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Contact ratio is the ratio of angle of action to the pitch angle. It is also defined as the
number of pairs of teeth in contact. Contact ratio = arc of contact / circular pitch.
596. The angle turned by the gear from the beginning to the end of engagement of a pair of teeth is
called ______________
a) angle of approach
b) angle of recess
c) angle of action
d) angle of contact
Explanation: Angle of action is the angle turned by the gear from the beginning to the end of
engagement of a pair of teeth. Angle of action = Arc of contact / r; where r is the radius of the pinion.
597 The condition which must be fulfilled by two gear tooth profiles to maintain a constant angular
velocity ratio between them is called __________________
a) arc of contact
b) path of contact
c) law of gearing
d) interference
View Answer
Answer: c
598 What is the formula for the path of approach?
a) (Ra2 – R2cos2 φ)0.5 – Rsinφ
b) (Ra2 + R2cos2 φ)0.5 + Rcosφ
c) (Ra2 + R2cos2 φ)0.5 + Rsinφ
d) (Ra2 + R2cos2 φ)0.5 – Rcosφ
View Answer
Answer: a
599 The distance travelled by a point on either pitch circle of the two wheels during the period of
contact of a pair of teeth is called ____________________
a) path of contact
b) arc of contact
c) contact ratio
d) angle of action
View Answer
Answer: b
600. The contact ratio is the ratio of arc of contact to the ____________
a) circular pitch
b) dedendum
c) circular pitch
d) module
View Answer
Answer: c
601 If the contact ratio is 2.7, two pairs of teeth are always in contact and three pairs of teeth are in
contact for _________ % of the time.
a) 100
b) 50
c) 45
d) 70
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: If the contact ratio is 2.7, two pairs of teeth are always in contact and three pairs of teeth
are in contact for 70 % of the time.
602. For continuous transmission of motion, the contact ratio i.e. n must always be _______
a) equal to 1
b) equal to 0
c) more than unity
d) less than unity
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For a continuous transmission of motion, at least one tooth of the wheel must be in
contact with another tooth of the second wheel. Hence, n must be greater than unity. If the contact
ratio is less than unity, then it implies that the even a single tooth of the two gears are not in contact
with each other.
603. Two involute gears have path of contact 40 mm and the pressure angle is 50°. Find the arc of
contact.
a) 62.23 mm
b) 25.71 mm
c) 30.64 mm
d) 52.21 mm
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Arc of contact = Path of contact/cos φ = 40/cos 50° = 62.23 mm.
604. Two gears in a mesh have the arc of contact = 27 mm. The pressure angle is 15°. Find the path
of contact.
a) 104.32 mm
b) 6.98 mm
c) 27.95 mm
d) 26.08 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Path of contact = Arc of contact x cos φ = 27 x cos 15° = 26.08 mm.
605. Two involute gears in a mesh have a circular pitch of 25 mm. The arc of contact is 55 mm. Find
the number of pairs of teeth in contact.
a) 2.2
b) 0.45
c) 13.75
d) 1.3
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Contact ratio = Arc of contact/ Circular pitch = 55/25 = 2.2.
606. Two involute gear have a module of 5 mm, the arc of contact is 25 mm. Find the contact ratio of
these two gears.
a) 5
b) 1.59
c) 0.2
d) 3
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Contact ratio = Arc of contact/ Circular pitch = Arc of contact / πm = 25/(5xπ) = 1.59.
607 Identify the given gear.
a) Spur gear
b) Helical gear
c) Worm and worm gear
d) Bevel gear
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The given diagram is of a helical gear. In helical gears, the teeth are inclined to the axis of
the gear. The gears can be either left handed or can be right handed depending on the direction in
which the helix slopes when viewed. Here, 1 is left handed gear and 2 is a right handed gear.
608. The angle at which the teeth of the gear are inclined to the axis of a gear is called as __________
a) pitch angle
b) normal angle
c) helix angle
d) gear angle
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Helix angle is the angle at which the teeth are inclined to the axis of a gear.
In the diagram above, Ψ is called as helix angle. Depending upon the direction of this angle, the gear
can be either left handed or right handed.
609 The distance between the corresponding points on adjacent teeth measured on the pitch circle is
called ______________
a) helical pitch
b) normal pitch
c) gear pitch
d) circular pitch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Circular pitch is the distance between the corresponding points on adjacent teeth
measured on the pitch circle.
Here, the distance p is called as circular pitch.

p = πm, where m is the module.
610 The shortest distance measured along the normal to the helix between corresponding points on
the adjacent teeth is called ____________
a) gear pitch
b) helical pitch
c) circular pitch
d) normal circular pitch
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Normal circular pitch or normal pitch is the shortest distance measured along the normal
to the helix between corresponding points on the adjacent teeth.
In the given figure, pn is the normal circular pitch.

pn = p cos Ψ
Therefore, mn = m cos Ψ.
611. Find the spiral angles of the two helical gears for maximum efficiency if the shaft angle is 100°
and the friction angle is 10°.
a) 55°,55°
b) 50°,50°
c) 55°,45°
d) 65°,45°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For maximum efficiency of the helical gears, Ψ 1 = (θ + φ)/2 = (100° + 10°)/2 = 55°
Ψ2 = 100° – 55° = 45°.
612. For two gears having shaft angle 90° and friction angle 6°, find the maximum efficiency of the
helical gears.
a) 89.23%
b) 85.64%
c) 79.02%
d) 81.07%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: θ = 90°, φ = 6°
ηmax = (cos(θ+φ)+1)/ (cos(θ-φ)+1) = 0.8107 = 81.07%.
613 When large gear reductions are needed _________ gears are used.
a) helical
b) spur
c) worm
d) bevel
View Answer,Answer: c
Explanation: Worm gears are used where large speed reductions are needed. The horizontal portion of
the gear is called as a worm and the assembly of it with the gear is known as a worm gear. Worm can
easily turn a gear but a gear cannot turn a worm because of the shallow angle on the worm.
614. The driven gear in the worm gear is a helical gear. True or false?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
615. Which is of these is an advantage of worm gear?

a) It is expensive
b) Has high power losses and low transmission efficiency
c) Produce a lot of heat
d) Used for reducing speed and increasing torque
View Answer
Answer: d
616 The distance between corresponding points on adjacent teeth measured along the direction of the
axis is called ____________
a) joint line
b) normal link
c) axial pitch
d) lead
View Answer
Answer: c
617 The distance by which a helix advances along the axis of the gear for one turn around is called
_____________
a) joint line
b) normal link
c) axial pitch
d) lead
View Answer
Answer: d
618 The angle at which the teeth are inclined to the normal of the axis of rotation is called
_______________
a) pitch angle
b) lead angle
c) normal angle
d) joint angle
View Answer
Answer: b.
619 What is the velocity ratio of worm gears?
a) (lπ)/d2
b) (πd2)/l
c) l/(πd2)
d) d2/(lπ)
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Velocity ratio in worm gears is given as the ratio of the angle turned by the gear to the
angle turned by the worm.
Thus, velocity ratio = (2l/d2)/(2π) = l/(πd2).
820 What is the centre distance for the worm gear?
a) (mn/2)(T1 cotλ1 – T2)
b) (mn/2)(T2 cotλ1 + T1)
c) (mn/2)(T2 cotλ1 – T1)
d) (mn/2)(T1 cotλ1 + T2)
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: C = (mn/2)(T1 cotλ1 + T2)
This equation can be derived by using the formula for centre distance of a helical gear which is given
as C = (mn/2) ((T1/cos Ψ1) + (T2/cos Ψ2)
As, Ψ2 = λ1, Ψ1 = 90° – λ1.
621 What is the formula to calculate maximum efficiency of a worm gear?
a) (1+sinø)/(1-sinø)
b) (1-sinø)/(1+sinø)
c) (tan(λ1-ø))/tan λ1
d) (tan(λ1+ø))/tan λ1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The maximum efficiency of the worm gear is given to be (1-sinø)/(1+sinø), whereas the
efficiency of the worm gear is given as (tan(λ 1-ø))/tan λ1
622. Find the helix angle of the worm if the pitch of the worm gear is 12 mm and the pitch diameter is
50 mm.
a) 8.687°
b) 11.231°
c) 9.212°
d) 10.319°
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: tan λ1 = Lead / Pitch circumference = 2p/πd1 = 24/50π = 0.1528
λ1 = 8.687°.
623 Find the speed of the gear if the worm is a three start worm rotating at 500 rpm. The gear has 20
teeth.
a) 125 rpm
b) 100 rpm
c) 75 rpm
d) 50 rpm
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: N1/N2 = T2/T1
500/N2 = 20/3
N2 = 75 rpm
Thus, the gear rotates at a speed of 75 rpm.
624 For a two start worm gear having a pitch of 20 mm and a lead angle 12°, find the centre distance if
the larger gear has 25 teeth.
a) 148.22 mm
b) 124.93 mm
c) 121.19 mm
d) 109.53 mm
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: C = (mn/2)(T1 cotλ1 + T2)
Therefore, C = (pn/2π)(T1 cotλ1 + T2) = 109.53 mm.
625 Calculate the lead angle of the worm gear for maximum efficiency if θ = 90° and the coefficient of
friction is 0.05.
a) 48.21°
b) 42.23°
c) 43.57°
d) 46.43°
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: µ = 0.05°; ø = tan-1(0.05) = 2.862°; θ = 90°
For maximum efficiency, Ψ1 = (θ+ ø)/2 = 92.862/2 = 46.43°
Ψ1 = 90° – λ1 = 46.43°
λ1 = 90° – 46.43° = 43.57°.
626 Find the maximum efficiency if the lead angle is given to be 10° and the coefficient of friction is
0.07.
a) 79.82%
b) 72.23%
c) 76.29%
d) 70.72%
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: λ1 = 10°, ø = tan-1(0.07) = 4°
Efficiency = tan(λ1)/ tan(λ1+ ø) = 0.7072 = 70.72%.
627 Calculate the maximum efficiency of the worm gears which have a friction angle of 0.06.
a) 88.71%
b) 83.23%
c) 89.91%
d) 86.49%
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: ø = tan-1(0.06) = 3.43°
Maximum efficiency = (1-sin ø)/(1+sin ø) = 0.8871 = 88.71%.
628 Bevel gears are used to have a gear drive between two intersecting shafts. True or false?
a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
629 Bevel gears are equivalent to rolling ________

a) cubes
b) cones
c) spheres
d) cuboids
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: By geometry of bevel gears, it is evident that they are equivalent to rolling cones. Their
pitch surface is a cone. Bevel gears exist as pairs which can be either straight or inclined at different
angles.
630. Identify the given gear.
a) Spur
b) Helical
c) Worm
d) Bevel
Explanation: The given gear is bevel gear. Here, ƴ g, ƴp = pitch angles of gear and pinion respectively.
rg, rp = pitch radii of gear and pinion respectively.
631. What is the formula to calculate the pitch angle of gear of a bevel gear using the radius?
a) yg = tan-1 ((cos θ)/((rg/rp)+sin θ))
b) yg = tan-1 ((cos θ)/((rp/rg)+sin θ))
c) yg = tan-1 ((sin θ)/((rp/rg)+cos θ))
d) yg = tan-1 ((sin θ)/((rg/rp)+cos θ))
View Answer
Answer: c
632 What is the formula to calculate the pitch angle of pinion of a bevel gear using the angular
velocity?
a) yp = tan-1 ((cos θ)/((wg/wp)+sin θ))
b) yp = tan-1 ((cos θ)/((wp/wg)+sin θ))
c) yp = tan-1 ((sin θ)/((wg/wp)+cos θ))
d) yp = tan-1 ((sin θ)/((wp/wg)+cos θ))
View Answer
Answer: d
633 Which of the gears has the highest contact ratio?

a) Helical
b) Spur
c) Bevel
d) Worm
View Answer
Answer: c
634 What is the working depth of the gear and the pinion of the bevel gears?
a) 2 m, 0.7 m
b) 0.7 m, 2 m
c) 3 m, 0.4 m
d) 0.4 m, 3 m
View Answer
Answer: a
635 The gears used for parallel shaft arrangement are

a) mitre gear
b) face gear
c) spur gears on helical gears
View Answer
Answer: c
636 _____________ are the gears used for intersecting shaft arrangement.
a) bevel gears
b) beveloid gears
c) mitre gears
View Answer
Answer: a
637. ________________ are gears used for skew arrangement.

a) spur gears on helical gears
b) helical, worm, or hypoid gears
c) mitre gears
View Answer
Answer: b
638. Bevel gears used for connecting intersecting shafts at 90 0 and having speed ratio 1 : 1 is known
as
a) bevel gears
b) beveloid gears
c) mitre gears
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bevel gears used for connecting intersecting shafts at 90 0 and having speed ratio 1 : 1 is
known as mitre gears.
Bevel gears with basic pressure angle of 200 with long and short addendums for ratios other than 1:1 to
avoid undercut pinions and to increase strength are gleason bevel gears.
639. Tapered involute gears which can couple intersecting shafts, skew shafts, and parallel shafts are
known as
a) bevel gears
b) beveloid gears
c) mitre gears
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Tapered involute gears which can couple intersecting shafts, skew shafts, and parallel
shafts are known as beveloid gears.
The gears used for parallel shaft arrangement are spur gears on helical gears.
640. Gears having teeth cut on the rotating face plane of the gear and mate with standard involute
spur gears are known as
a) mitre gear
b) face gear
c) spur gears on helical gears
View Answer
Answer: b
641. ____________ gears are used for obtaining large speed reduction between non-intersecting
shafts making an angle of 900 with each other.
a) worm gears
b) beveloid gears
c) mitre gears
View Answer
Answer: a
642. Bevels connecting shafts other than 900 are

a) worm gears
b) angular bevel gears
c) mitre gears
View Answer
Answer: b
643. Bevels connecting non-intersecting shafts are

a) skew bevel gears
c) mitre gears
View Answer
Answer: a
644. Bevel gears with basic pressure angle of 20 0 with long and short addendums for ratios other than
1:1 to avoid undercut pinions and to increase strength are
a) skew bevel gears
c) Gleason bevel gears
View Answer
Answer: c
645 To split the engine torque in two ways, which of the following device is used?
a) Clutch
b) Brake
c) Final drive
d) Differential
View Answer
Answer: d
646. Which of the following device allows the wheels of a car to rotate at two different speeds?
a) Clutch
b) Brake
c) Final drive
d) Differential
View Answer
Answer: d
647. Which of the following is true regarding a differential?

a) The outer wheel rotates at a higher speed than the inner wheel
b) The outer wheel rotates at a lower speed than the inner wheel
c) Both the wheels rotate at the same speed
d) Front wheels rotate at a lower speed than rear wheel
View Answer
Answer: a
648. The ratio of speeds between gears is dependent upon the _________
a) Ratio of teeth between the two adjoining gears
b) Ratio of teeth between the two alternate gears
c) Ratio of acceleration
d) Ratio of velocity
View Answer
Answer: a
649. On a straight road motion, what is the purpose served by differential?

a) Equal torque to all the wheels
b) More torque to front wheels
c) More torque to rear wheels
d) More torque to opposite wheels
View Answer
Answer: a
650 Input torque acts on which of the following member?
a) Driven member
b) Driving member
c) Fixed member
d) Reciprocating member
View Answer
Answer: b
651. Resisting torque acts on which of the following member?

a) Driven member
b) Driving member
c) Fixed member
View Answer
Answer: a
651. Braking torque acts on which of the following member?

a) Driven member
b) Driving member
c) Fixed member
View Answer
Answer: c
652 If the input power is increased to two times, what will be the effect of it on the fixed member
power?
a) Has a 0 value
b) Increases by two times
c) Increases by 4 times
d) Decreases by two times
View Answer
Answer: a
653. ______________ machine is used to ram sand in the mould box.

a) Jolt Machine
b) Sand Slinger
c) Core making machine
d) Squeezing machine
View Answer
Answer: b
654. In the sand slinger machine, the density of sand is a result of its ___________
a) Inertia
b) Acceleration
c) Velocity
d) Mass
View Answer
Answer: a
655 _________ machines are used for shallow patterns.
a) Core making machine
b) Sand Slinger machine
c) Squeeze machine
d) Jolt machine
View Answer
Answer: c
656 Which of the following mediums is not used for the power operated molding machines?
a) Electromagnets
b) Hydraulic power
c) Compressed air
d) Sand Inertia
View Answer
Answer: d
657 ___________ is used to obtain a uniform mold density in squeezer machine.

a) Sand paper
b) Flat plate
c) Rubber
d) Carbon
View Answer
Answer: c
658 Which of the following is not a power operated machine?

a) Jolt machine
b) Sand Slinger
c) Pin lift machine
d) Jolt squeeze machine
View Answer
Answer: c
659. ____________ establishes the most suitable gating system, riser etc are mounted on the match
plate pattern itself.
a) Machine molding
b) Hand molding
c) Sand molding
d) Core molding
View Answer
Answer: a
660 In green sand molding, the sand id claimed to be green because it has _______
a) Additives
b) Moisture
c) Binders
d) Colours
View Answer
Answer: b
661. The sand has to undergo ____________ process before it is called green and is ready for
molding.
a) Mulling
b) Cooling
c) Heating
d) Drying
View Answer
Answer: a
662 Which of the following is not used in the green sand?

a) Clay
b) Water
c) Oil
d) Chemicals
View Answer
Answer: c
663. Green sand molding cannot be used for _________ moulds.

a) Simple
b) Small
c) Medium
d) Complex
View Answer
Answer: d
664 Green sand molding methods can be used for ________ molding machines.
a) Manual
b) Semi-automatic
c) Fully automatic
View Answer
Answer: d
665. Which of the following characteristic is not expected in the green sand in the green sand molding
process?
a) Flowable nature
b) Plastic Nature
c) Reactivity
d) Permeability
View Answer
Answer: c
666 _________________ binders are used for large dry sand cores.
a) Sulfate Binders
b) Pitch
c) Dextrin
d) Gelatinalized Starch
View Answer
Answer: a
667. __________ is a binder that resists molten metal.

a) Coal tar
b) Core oil
c) Pitch
d) Chamotte
View Answer
Answer: c
668 ______________ contributes towards the baked strength of molding sand.

a) Natural Resin
b) Carbon
c) Olivine
d) Core Oil
View Answer
Answer: d
669. __________ is an excellent water soluble binder.

a) Cereal Binder
b) Zircon
c) Dextrin
d) Silica Sand
View Answer
Answer: c
670 _________________ is used as the core coating medium.

a) Fire Clay
b) Plumbago
c) Bentonite
d) Cement
View Answer
Answer: b
671 _________________ sands are best molding sands.

a) Refractory Sand
b) Loam Sand
c) Natural Sand
d) Synthetic Sand
View Answer
Answer: a
672. __________ is refractory sand that can be molded to intricate shape.

a) Quartz
b) Olivine
c) Bentonite
d) Clays
View Answer
Answer: b
673. Which of the following cannot be used repeatedly for making moulds?
a) Sillimanite
b) Dolomite
c) Natural Sand
d) Silica Sand
View Answer
Answer: c
674 With the use of Jigs and fixture total cost of production
a) Increases
b) Decreases
c) Remains same
d) Jigs are not used in any production process
View Answer
Answer: b
675. With the use of Jigs and fixture rate of production will
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) Remains same
d) Jigs are not used in any production process
View Answer
Answer: a
676 Jigs and fixture increases the accuracy of the parts.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
677. Jigs And fixture are used to provide interchangeability.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
678. With the use of Jigs and fixture quality control expenses will
a) Reduce
b) Increases
c) Jigs and fixture are not used in any production process
View Answer
Answer: a
679 With the use of Jigs and fixture

a) Labour cost decreases
b) Labour cost increases
c) Labour cost decreases
View Answer
Answer: a
680 Which of the following is not correct about fixture?

a) It is used to hold the work
b) It is used to position the work the work
c) It assures high accuracy of parts
d) It is used to guide the cutting tool
View Answer
Answer: d
681. Which of the following is not correct about jig?

a) It is used to hold the work
b) It is used to position the work the work
c) It is used to guide the cutting tool
682 In which of the following operation jigs are preferred over fixture?
a) Drilling
b) Turning
c) Milling
d) Grinding
View Answer
Answer: a
683. Number of degree of freedom of a workpiece in space is equal to

a) 10
b) 12
c) 14
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: b
684 Jigs and Fixtures are used for
(A) Mass production
(B) Identical parts production
(C) Both ‘A’ and ‘B’
(D) None of the above
(Ans: C)
685 The use of jigs and fixtures

(A) Facilitates deployment of less skilled labour for production
(B) Eliminates pre-machining operations like marking, measuring, laying out etc.
(C) reduced manual handling operations

(D) All of the above
(Ans: D)
686 The following is(are) the function(s) of a jig

(A) Holding
(B) Locating
(C) Guiding
(Ans: D)
687 A fixture does not

(A) Holds the workpiece
(B) Locate the workpiece
(C) Guide the tool
(Ans: C)
688 Jigs are not used in

(A) Drilling
(B) Reaming
(C) Tapping
(D) Milling
(Ans: D)
689 Fixtures are used in
(A) Milling
(B) Shaping
(C) Turning
(Ans: D)

690 Principle of ______ states that “In order to achieve the maximum accuracy in location the locating
points should, therefore, be placed as far apart from one another as it is possible”.
(A) Six point location
(B) Least points
(C) Extreme positions
(D) Mutually perpendicular planes
(Ans: C)
691 -The following holds the workpiece securely in a jig or fixture against the cutting forces
(A) Locating device
(B) Clamping device
(C) Guiding device
(D) Indexing device, (Ans: B)
692 -The following is a quick acting clamp

(A) Hinged clamp
(B) Cam operated clamp
(C) Bridge clamp
(D) Edge clamp
(Ans: B)
693 The following material is commonly used for making locating and clamping devices
(A) High carbon steel
(B) Low carbon steel
(C) High speed steel
(D) Die steel
(Ans: A)
694 The following type of jig is used for machining in more than one plane
(A) Template jig
(B) Plate type jig
(C) Open type jig
(D) Box type jig

(Ans: D)
695 -The following type of jig suits best for drilling of holes in hollow cylindrical components, with
relatively smaller outside and inside diameters, such as bushes
(A) Solid type jig
(B) Pot type jig
(C) Box type jig
(D) Open type jig
(Ans: B)
696-The following type of jig is used to drill a series of equidistant hole along a circle
(A) Index jig
(B) Plate type jig
(C) Open type jig
(D) Pot type jig
(Ans: A)
697-This type of jig is employed on multi-spindle machines

(A) Index jig
(B) Universal jig
(C) Open type jig
(D) Multi-station jig
(Ans: D)
698-The following jig can be used for several different work pieces and operations
(A) Template jig
(B) Multi-station jig
(C) Index jig
(D) Universal jig

(Ans: D)
699-The following is(are) the advantage(s) of cast jigs or fixtures

(A) No heat treatments are required for the cast jigs and fixtures
(B) It prevents the occurrence of tool chatter in milling
(C) if cast jigs or fixture drops down, they don’t get misaligned or de-shaped, although it may break
(Ans: D)
700 The jigs and fixtures can be constructed through

(A) Casting
(B) Fabrication
(C) Welding
(D) All of the above, (Ans: D)
701 Which fixtures are used for machining parts which must have machined details evenly spaced?
a. Profile fixtures
b. Duplex fixtures
c. Indexing fixtures
d. None of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Indexing fixtures
702 V-blocks (Vee locators) are used for clamping as well as locating when faces are inclined upto
a. 30o
b. 12o
c. 9o
d. 3o
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: 3o
703) Which type of Support pin or rest button is shown in below diagram?
a. Fixed type support pin

b. Adjustable type support pin
c. Support pad
d. Wedge type support pin
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Fixed type support pin
704) Jigs and fixtures are
a. machining tools
b. precision tools
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: precision tools
705) A device, in which a component is held and located for a specific operation and bushes are integrated
that guide the tool, is called as
a. jig
b. fixture
c. both a. and b.
d. none of the above
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: jig
706) Fixtures are used in connection with
a. drilling operation
b. reaming operation
c. tapping operation
d. milling operation
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: milling operation
707) How jigs are in terms of weight compared to fixtures?
a. Jigs are lighter than fixtures

b. Jigs are heavier than fixtures
c. Jigs are equal in weight to fixtures for same operation
d. cannot say
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: Jigs are lighter than fixtures
708) Which of the following sentences are true for jigs and fixtures?
1. Using jigs and fixture produce work rapidly
2. High speed, feed and depth of cut can be used in machining with the help of jigs and fixtures
3. Jigs and fixture cannot be used in machining of complex and heavy components
a. (1) and (2)

b. (2) and (3)
c. (1) and (3)
d. All of the (1), (2) and (3)
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: (1) and (2)
709) The device which place the workpiece in the same position, in jig and fixture, cycle after cycle is called
as
a. placing device
b. fixing device
c. locating device
d. positioning device
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: locating device
710) The device which is used to remove workpiece from close-fitting locators, after the workpiece has been
removed is called as
a. remover
b. ejector
c. escaper
d. blocker
Answer Explanation
ANSWER: ejector
711 Depending upon the temperature the forming process can be classified as?
a) Hot working
b) Cold working
c) Warm working
View Answer
Answer: d
712. If Tm is the melting temperature, then in hot working the value for that material is?
a) 0.5 Tm
b) 0.6 Tm
c) 0.4 Tm
d) 0.7 Tm
View Answer
Answer: b
713. In which of the following process no strain hardening is produced?

a) Hot working
b) Cold working
c) Warm working
d) Cannot say
View Answer
Answer: a
714. During hot working, the grain growth can take place in which part of the material?
a) Exterior
b) Interior
c) Along the edges
d) Side faces
View Answer
Answer: b
715. Which of the following defect is eliminated by hot working process?

a) Cold shut
b) Misrun
c) Blow holes
d) Fusion
View Answer
Answer: c
716. The working temperature of cold working is below a certain temperature. That temperature is known as?
a) Critical temperature
b) Recrystallization temperature
c) Transition temperature
d) Curie temperature
View Answer
Answer: b
717. In which of the following process the ductility of material decreases?

a) Hot working
b) Cold working
c) Warm working
d) Cannot say
View Answer
Answer: b
718. Which of the following statement is true about cold working?

a) Strain hardening is relieved
b) No oxidation occurs
c) Only limited amount of reduction can be done
d) Cost of machining is high
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A comparison of hot and cold working are tabulated below:
S.No. Hot Working Cold Working
Working below recrystallization

1. Working above recrystallization temperature
temperature
2. Formation of new crystals (grains) No crystal formation
3. Surface finish is not good Surface finish is good
4. No stress formation Internal stress developed
Improved mechanical property due to grain

5. Leads to distortion of metal grains
formation
Closed dimensional tolerances cannot be Superior dimensions can be

6.
maintained obtained
Improves some mechanical properties like, During process, strength and

7.
impact strength and elongation elongation decreases
719. In which of the following process plastic deformation takes place?

a) Cold working
b) Hot working
c) Both cold working and hot working
d) Cannot say
View Answer
Answer: c
720. In metal forming process the hardness of the material?

a) Decreases
b) Remains same
c) Initially increases and then decreases
d) Increases
View Answer
Answer: d.
721. The work involved with the internal shearing process due to non-uniform deformation is?
a) Ideal work
b) Frictional work
c) Redundant work
d) Slip work
View Answer
Answer: c
722. Which of the following method is used for analyzing metal forming processes?
a) Slab method
b) Upper bound method
c) Slip line method
View Answer
Answer: d
723. Which of the following method is commonly used for analyzing metal forming processes?
a) Slab method
b) Upper bound method
c) Slip line method
d) Empirical method
724. Warm working is done at a temperature?

a) Above re crystallization temperature
b) Below re crystallization temperature
c) Equal to re crystallization temperature
d) Below re crystallization temperature and above room temperature
View Answer
Answer: d
725. Which process got a better dimensional accuracy?

a) Hot working
b) Cold working
c) Warm working
d) Both Hot working and Cold working
View Answer
Answer: a
726 Shaping of metal by squeezing them in between two or more dies in order to obtain desire shape is
done by?
a) Forming
b) Forging
c) Welding
d) Grinding
View Answer
Answer: b
727. Forging is carried out at which temperature?

a) Below recrystallization temperature
b) Above recrystallization temperature
c) Below or above recrystallization temperature
d) Above melting point
View Answer
Answer: c
728. Which of the following is a type of forging?

a) Open die
b) Closed die
c) Impression dies
d) Hold dies
View Answer
Answer: d
729. In which of the following forging metal is kept in the lower die?
a) Open die
b) Closed die
c) Impression dies
d) Hold dies
View Answer
Answer: a
730 In which of the forging process metal is kept in between a pair of dies and a gutter is provided in the
lower die?
a) Open die
b) Closed die
c) Impression dies
d) Hold dies
View Answer
Answer: b
731. In which of the forging process metal is kept in between a pair of dies and no gutter is provided in the
lower die?
a) Open die
b) Closed die
c) Impression dies
d) Hold dies
View Answer
Answer: c
732. The extra metal which settles down in the gutter is known as?
a) Flash
b) Slag
c) Flux
d) Barrelling
733 In which of the following forging process no flash is formed?

a) Open die
b) Closed die
c) Impression dies
d) Hold dies
View Answer
Answer: b
734 In which of the following forging process poor material utilization occurs?
a) Open die
b) Closed die
c) Impression dies
d) Hold dies
View Answer
Answer: a
735. Cogging, which is also called as drawing out, is basically?

a) Open die forging operation
b) Closed die forging operation
c) Impression dies forging operation
d) Hold die forging operation
View Answer
Answer: a
736. In rolling operation, the roll rotates with surface velocity?

a) exceeding the speed of incoming metal
b) lower than the speed of incoming metal
c) equal to speed of the incoming metal
d) Very higher than the speed of incoming metal
View Answer
Answer: c
737. A round billet made of 70-30 brass is extruded at a temperature of 675°C. The billet diameter is 125
mm, and the diameter of the extrusion is 50 mm. Calculate the extrusion force required.
a) 4 MN
b) 5 MN
c) 5.6 MN
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The extrusion force is calculated using
Eq. F = A0k ln(A0/Af)
in which the extrusion constant, k, is obtained.
For 70-30 brass, k = 250 MPa at the given extrusion temperature. Thus,
F = (3.14(125)2)/4 x (250) ln [(3.14(125)2)/(3.14(50)2)] = 4
= 5.6 MN.
738. In which type of extrusion, a billet is placed in a chamber?

a) forward
b) indirect
c) hydrostatic
d) impact
View Answer
Answer: a
739. In which type of extrusion, the die moves toward the unextruded billet?
a) forward
b) indirect
c) hydrostatic
d) impact
View Answer
Answer: b
740. In which type of extrusion, the billet is smaller in diameter than the chamber?
a) forward
b) indirect
c) hydrostatic
d) impact
View Answer
Answer: c
741 In which of the following forging operation no special die is used?
a) Drop forging
b) Smith forging
c) Coining
d) Press forging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Smith forging is also called flat die and open die forging. It includes the broad field of forging
work produced between flat faced dies and possibly supplemented by stock tooling.
742 In which of the following forging operation repeated hammering and closed die is used?
a) Drop forging
b) Smith forging
c) Coining
d) Press forging
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hammer forging is also called as drop forging where a hammer hits the work piece
repeatedly to deform it. There are different types of hammers like gravity drop, counter blow and powder
hammers.
743 In which of the following forging operation instead of repeated hammering gradual force is applied?
a) Drop forging
b) Smith forging
c) Coining
d) Press forging
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Press forging is variation of drop-hammer forging. Unlike drop-hammer forging, press forges
work slowly by applying continuous pressure or force. The amount of time the dies are in contact with the
workpiece is measured in seconds (As compared to milliseconds of drop-hammer forges). The press
forging operation can be done either cold or hot. The main advantage of press forging, as compared to
drop-hammer forging, is its ability to deform the complete workpiece.
744. Coining and forming are two special kinds of which forging operation?
a) Upset
b) Press
c) Hubbing
d) Swaging
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Coining is a severe metal squeezing operation in which the flow of metal occurs at the top
layers of the material and not throughout the values The operation is carried out in closed dies .
745. Which of the following forging operation is used for parts having uniform cross section?
a) Upset
b) Press
c) Hubbing
d) Swaging
View Answer
Answer: a
746. In which of the following technique shaping of a cross section of tubes or rods is done by means of
repeated impacts or blows?
a) Upset
b) Press
c) Hubbing
d) Swaging
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Swaging is a mechanical deformation technique of reducing or shaping the cross section of
rods or tubes by means of repeated impacts or blows.
747. Heading is a kind of which forging operation?
a) Piercing
b) Embossing
c) Upsetting
d) Coining
View Answer
Answer: c
748. In heading to avoid buckling the length to diameter ratio should be?
a) 1:3
b) 2:3
c) 3:1
d) 2:1
View Answer
Answer: c
749. Which operation is used in making raised figures on sheets with its corresponding relief on the other
side?
a) Roll forging
b) Embossing
c) Coining
d) Heading
View Answer
Answer: b
750. Which of the following operation is used to make ball bearing?

a) Skew rolling
b) Roll forging
c) Press forging
d) Upsetting
View Answer
Answer: a
751 In which forging process cross section of a bar is reduced or shaped by passing it through a pair of
rolls with shaped grooves?
a) Skew rolling
b) Roll forging
c) Press forging
d) Upsetting
View Answer
Answer: b
752. In which of the following process a hardened punch is pressed into the surface of a block metal?
a) Upset
b) Press
c) Hubbing
d) Swaging
View Answer
Answer: c
753. Which of the following statement is not correct about coining process?
a) It is a closed die forging process
b) It is used in minting of coin, jewellery etc
c) Lubrication is not used
View Answer
Answer: d
754. In which of the following process radial movement of shaped died occur?
a) Upset
b) Press
c) Hubbing
d) Swaging
View Answer
Answer: d
755. In which process surface is intended with a punch in order to produce a cavity or an impression?
a) Heading
b) Hubbing
c) Piercing
d) Swaging
View Answer
Answer: c
756. Which defect occurs in drop forging due to incorrectly aligned dies?
a) Miss match
b) Misrun
c) Swell
d) Cold shut
View Answer
Answer: a
757. If scales are not removed from dies, then which of the following defects occur?
a) Miss match
b) Scale pits
c) Swell
d) Cold shut
View Answer
Answer: b.
558. Which of the following defects results due to improper forging?
a) Seams
b) Cracks
c) Laps
d) All of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Seams, cracks and laps are the defect, which arises due to improper forging method.
759. To remove the scales after forging operation which of the following cleaning operation is done?
a) Pickling in acid
b) Shot peening
c) Pickling in acid & Shot peening
d) Smith forging
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Scales generated after forging operations are removed by using pickling in acid method and
shot peeing method.
760. Edging and fullering operations are not used in which of the following operation?
a) Drop forging
b) Smith forging
c) Coining
d) Press forging
View Answer
Answer: d
761 Punching a number of holes in a sheet is known as?

a) Perforating
b) Parting
c) Notching
d) Lancing
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Punching a number of holes in a sheet is known as perforating. Removing the pieces from
the edge in shearing operation is known as notching.
762. Shearing the sheet into two or more pieces is known as?
a) Perforating
b) Parting
c) Notching
d) Lancing
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Parting involves cutting a sheet metal strip by a punch with two cutting edges that match the
opposite sides of the blank.
763. Removing the pieces from the edge in shearing operation is known as?
a) Perforating
b) Parting
c) Notching
d) Lancing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Notching is a shearing process during which a metal scrap piece is removed from the outside
edge of a metal workpiece. Notching is typically a manually operated, low-production process.
764. Leaving a tab without removing any material is known as?
a) Perforating
b) Parting
c) Notching
d) Lancing
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The process of creating a partial cut in the sheet, so that no material is removed. The
material is left attached to be sent and form a shape, such as a tab, vent, or louver is termed as lancing.
765. Moving a small straight punch up and down rapidly into a die is done by a process known as?
a) Perforating
b) Parting
c) Nibbling
d) Lancing
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Moving a small straight punch up and down rapidly into a die is done by a process known as
nibbling. Leaving a tab without removing any material is known as lancing.
766. As the thickness of sheet is increased the clearance needed will also?
a) Increase
b) Decrease
c) No effect
d) First decreases and then increase
View Answer, Answer: a
767. Bevelling is particularly suitable for shearing of?

a) Thin blanks
b) Thick blanks
c) Very thin blanks
d) Medium thin blanks
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Beveling is particularly suitable for shearing of thick blanks.
768. Which of the following is a type of die?
a) Simple dies
b) Progressive dies
c) Compound die
d) All of the Mentioned
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: All the above options are correct. In investment casting process molten wax is used for
pattern making. It is a costly process but have a very good dimensional accuracy.
769. Which of the following die can perform multiple operations such as blanking, punching, notching etc.?
a) Simple dies
b) Progressive dies
c) Compound die
d) Impact dies
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Progressive die can perform multiple operations such as blanking, punching, notching etc. In
investment casting process molten wax is used for pattern making. It is a costly process but have a very
good dimensional accuracy.
770. As the clearance increases, the punch force required?
a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Remains same
d) First increases and then decreases
View Answer
Answer: a
771 In which process the cross section of the metal is reduced by forcing it to flow through a die under
high pressure?
a) Forging
b) Forming
c) Extrusion
d) Welding
View Answer
Answer: c
772 Which of the following is a type of extrusion process?

a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Impact
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Classification of extrusion processes are shown below.
773. Which of the following is true about the extrusion process?

a) Structure is homogeneous
b) No time is lost in changing the shape
c) Service life of extrusion tool is too high
d) Its leading end is in good shape as compared to rolling
View Answer
Answer: b
774. In which extrusion process the direction of flow of metal is in same direction as that of ram?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Impact
d) Hydrostatic
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Direction extrusion is a process in which the metal billet, placed in a container is forced by a
ram to pass through a die. In this type, the direction of flow of metals is, in same as that of movement of
ram. The punch closely fits the die cavity to prevent the backward flow of the material.
775. In direct extrusion process at higher temperature which of the following is used to avoid friction?
a) Oil
b) Lubricants
c) Molten glasses
d) Wax
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For steels, stainless steel, and high temperature materials, glass is a good excellent
lubrication. The reasons for this are as follows. i. Glass contains its viscosity at elevated temperatures, ii.
Has good wetting characteristics, and 3. Glass acts as a thermal barrier between the billet, the container
and the die, thus minimizing cooling.
776. Which of the following is not used because of the problem of handling extruded metal coming out
through moving ram?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Impact
d) Hydrostatic
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Indirect extrusion method is not used because of the problem of handling extruded metal
coming out through moving ram.
777. Which of the following is not a cold extrusion process?

a) Cold extrusion forging
b) Impact extrusion
c) Hydrostatic extrusion
d) Cold rolling
View Answer
Answer: c.
778. In which of the following process frictional loss is eliminated at the billet container interface?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Impact
d) Hydrostatic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In hydrostatic extrusion process frictional loss is eliminated at the billet container interface.
This elimination increases the quality of the product.
779. In which of the following process fluid medium is used to apply the load on the billet?
a) Direct
b) Indirect
c) Impact
d) Hydrostatic
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In hydrostatic extrusion process fluid medium is used to apply the load on the billet. As hydro
stands for fluid and static for rest.
780. Extrusion is similar to?

a) Rolling
b) Forming
c) Welding
d) Casting
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Extrusion is similar rolling in producing constant cross-sectional shape.
781. Which defect arises due to high friction or high speed?

a) Tearing
b) Surface cracking
c) Tearing & Surface cracking
d) Flaking
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The defects such as, surface cracking and tearing, occurs with high friction or speed. These
can also occur with stickling of billet material on die land. Material sticks, pressure increases, product
stops and starts to move again. This produces circumferential cracks on surface like a bamboo stem.
782. Which of the following defect is also known as bamboo defect?

a) Blow hole
b) Cold shut
c) Surface cracking
d) Pipe defect
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Bamboo defects are periodic surface cracks that develop due to the extruded product sticking
to the die land.
783. Which of the following defect tends to draw surface oxides and impurities towards the centre of billet?
a) Blow hole
b) Cold shut
c) Surface cracking
d) Pipe defect
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Pipe defect is the formation of sin hole at the end of the billet. It is associated with direct
extrusion. The use of dummy blocks whose diameter is slightly less than that of the billet helps to avoid
piping.
784. Which of the following defect is also known as fish tailing?

a) Surface cracking
b) Pipe defect
c) Tearing
d) Internal cracking
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In extrusion, the pipe defect is also termed as “tail pipe”, and “fish tailing”. It occurs during hot
extrusion due to the presence of impurities and oxides.
785. The centre of the extruded product can develop cracks called as?
a) Centre cracking
b) Centre burst
c) Arrow headed fracture
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cracks that are developed in the centre of extruded material is known as internal cracking.
These are termed as “centre cracking”, “centre burst”, “chevron cracking”, and as “arrow head cracking”.
786 In which of the following process the work piece is pulled through a die resulting in reduction of area?
a) Forging
b) Drawing
c) Forming
d) Extrusion
View Answer
Answer: b
787. In drawing which angle allows the introduction of lubricant into the working zone?
a) Entrance angle
b) Die angle
c) Semi-die angle
d) Relief angle
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The entrance angle provides the entry zone to allow the introduction of lubricant into the
working zone and to protect the work material against scoring by die edges. The angle is usually about
40°.
788. Degree of drawing is measured in terms of?

a) Reduction in stress
b) Reduction in force
c) Reduction in area
d) Reduction in strain
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The degree of drawing is measured in terms of “reduction of area” which is defined as the
ratio of the difference cross-sectional area before and after drawing to the initial cross-sectional area.
789. The maximum reduction in cross sectional area per pass is?
a) 45%
b) 63%
c) 55%
d) 67%
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: For perfectly plastic material, the ideal maximum reduction per pass is 63%. For a strain
hardening material, the ideal maximum reduction per pass depends on the strain hardening coefficient.
For example, for n = 0.19, then the maximum reduction per pass is 69.5%.
790. Which of the following die is used in drawing flat strips?

a) Square shaped
b) Rectangular shaped
c) Circular shaped
d) Wedge shaped
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Wedge shaped die is used in drawing flat strips.
791. As the reduction increases, drawing force must be?

a) Decreases
b) Increases
c) Does not change
d) First increases and then decreases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: With the increase in reduction the drawing force increases.
792. Which of the following angle influence the drawing force and the quality of drawn products?
a) Entrance angle
b) Die angle
c) Relief angle
d) Flake angle
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Die angle influence the drawing force and the quality of drawn products. Die angle should be
kept appropriate for better surface finish.
793. Degree of drawing is given by the expression?
a) (di-df)
b) (Ai-Af)
c) (Ai-Af)/Ai
d) 1-((df-di))
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Degree of drawing is given by the expression(A i-Af)/Ai. Where d is the diameter of tube.
794. If the initial diameter is 50mm2 and the final diameter after drawing is 40mm 2, then the degree of
drawing is?
a) .64
b) .20
c) .80
d) .36
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Degree of drawing is given by [1- (d f/di)2]. Where d is the diameter of tube.
795. If the degree of drawing is 0.5 and the initial area is 100mm 2 then the final area in mm2 is equal to?
a) 50
b) 60
c) 40
d) 30
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Degree of drawing= (Ai-Af)/Ai. Where d is the diameter of tube, A is area.
796. Resistance of a material against any external force is termed as _______________

a) Stiffness
b) Malleability
c) Strength
d) Hardness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Strength is that mechanical property of a material by virtue of which it resists change in its
dimension shape and any failure by application of any external force.
797. The property of a material to resist any elastic deformation is termed as ____________
a) Stiffness
b) Hardness
c) Malleability
d) Strength
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The ability of a material or shape to resist elastic deflection is termed as stiffness of that
material.
798. Resistance developed by surface of any material is known as ____________

a) Strength
b) Hardness
c) Stiffness
d) Creep
View Answer, Answer: b,Explanation: Hardness is a surface property. Resistance developed by surface of
any material is known as hardness.
799. Permanent deformation of material with respect to time due to constant load and variable
temperature is termed as ____________
a) Elasticity
b) Isotropy
c) Hardness
d) Creep
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Creep is time and temperature dependent phenomenon. With the passage of time and other
environmental condition, material may lead to fracture point.
800 Material having same identical values a property in all directions can be termed as ____________
a) Creep
b) Anisotropy
c) Isotropy
d) Orthotropic
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Isotropic materials have the same property in all directions. Crystalline substance is isotropic
in nature.
801. Property by virtue of which material can absorb strain energy without plastic deformation is called
____________
a) Creep
b) Anisotropy
c) Resilience
d) Fatigue
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Resilience is the strain energy absorbed of a material without undergoing a plastic
deformation.
802 Which of the following hardness test uses steel ball as indenter?
a) Brinell hardness test
b) Rockwell C hardness test
c) Vickers hardness test
d) Rockwell B hardness test
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Steel ball is used as indentor in Brinell hardness test.
803. In which of the following test specimen is in the form of the simply supported beam?
a) Izod test
b) Rockwell hardness test
c) Charpy test
d) Brinell test
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In the Charpy test a supported beam specimen is used.
804. In which of the following test specimen is in the form of cantilever beam?
a) Izod test
b) Rockwell hardness test
c) Charpy test
d) Brinell test
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Izod test is like Charpy test, but the Izod geometry consists of a cantilever beam with the
notch located on the same side as the impact point.
805. The total number of scales used in Rockwell hardness test is?
a) 12
b) 14
c) 15
d) 16
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: There are 15 scales used in Rockwell hardness test, which are being differentiated based on
indenter used and the material sampled.
806 Hounsfield tensometer can be used to perform __________

a) Tensile test
b) Compressive test
c) Hardness test
d) Toughness test
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Hounsfield tensometer, Universal testing machine, Instron and MTS (materials testing
system) are the common machine that are used to for tensile test. Hounsfield tensometer is a small
machine and widely used for tensile test in research laboratories.
807. ASTM stands for __________

a) American Society for Tensile Measurement
b) American Society for Testing and Materials
c) American Society for Tool Measurement
d) American Society for Tensile Material
View Answer,Answer: b
Explanation: ASTM stands for American Society for Testing and Materials. ASTM develops technical
standards for a wide range of materials products. American Society for Tensile Measurement are used to
decide various standard in tensile measurement.
809 According to ASTM standard, which of the following relation is correct about gauge length of cross
section area ‘A’?
a) L = 2.51A−−√
b) L = 4.51A−−√
c) L = 2A−−√
d) L = 3.51A−−√
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to ASTM standard, gauge length = 4.51 A−−√.
810. According to BS standard, which of the following relation is correct about gauge length of cross
a) L = 2.51A−−√
b) L = 4.51A−−√
c) L = 4A−−√
d) L = 3.51A−−√
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: According to BS standard, gauge length = 4 A−−√, where A denotes the cross section area
of specimen used under testing.
811. According to DIN standard, which of the following relation is correct about gauge length of cross
a) L = 12.51A−−√
b) L = 14.51A−−√
c) L = 4A−−√
d) L = 11.2A−−√
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to DIN standard, gauge length=11.2 A−−√, where A denotes the cross section
area of specimen used under testing.
812. Mohs hardness test has a scale range of _________

a) 1 to 10
b) 100 to 200
c) 1 to 1000
d) 1 to 3000
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mohs hardness scale was developed by “Frederich Mohs” in 1822, which is a chart that
denotes relative hardness of the various materials (1-softest to 10-hardenst). According to Mohs scale,
diamond is the hardest material and talc is the softest material.
813. Brinell hardness test has a scale range of _________

a) 0 to 10
b) 100 to 200
c) 0 to 1000
d) 0 to 3000
Explanation: Brinell hardness test has a scale range of 0 to 3000. Brinell hardness number of soft irons is
ranges from 67 to 500.
814 Rockwell hardness test has a scale range of _________

a) 0 to 10
b) 100 to 200
c) 0 to 1000
d) 0 to 3000
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Rockwell hardness test has a scale range of 0 to 1000. It is used to measure the hardness of
a specimen.
915 Vickers hardness test has a scale range of _____________

a) 0 to 10
b) 100 to 200
c) 0 to 1000
d) 0 to 3000
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Vickers hardness test has a scale range of 0 to 3000. It is used to measure the hardness of a
specimen.
816. Brinell Hardness Number (BHN) for soft iron is between _____________
a) 1000-2000
b) 227-857
c) 67-500
d) 0-10
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Brinell hardness number (BHN) of soft iron ranges from 67 to 500.
817 Which of the following compound is used for fine polishing?

a) Aluminum oxide
b) Nitric oxide
c) Silicon carbide
d) Iron oxide
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Powder form of aluminum oxide is used for fine polishing process. It is surface treatment
process.
818 Etching of specimen is done to achieve ___________

a) Visible grain boundary
b) Invisible grain boundary
c) Toughness
d) Hardness
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Etching is done to obtain visible grain boundary. It is a surface treatment process.
819 What is first step involved in the process of preparing test sample for microstructural examination?
a) Rough polishing
b) Fine grinding
c) Fine polishing
d) Etching
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fine grinding involves the use of abrasive silicon carbide, to get a flat surface, that is nearly
free of the disturbed or deformed scratches which were introduced in the previous sample preparation
step. For reference, the sample preparation steps are depicted in the below schematic:
820. What is the average grain diameter (in mm) for the grain size ASTM grain size 12?
a) .0066
b) .0078
c) .0021
d) .0056
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: According to ASTM standard E1112, ”standard test methods for determining average grain
size”:
n = 2G-1, where ‘G’ is the grain size number and ‘n’ represents the average number of grains per square
inch at a magnification of 100X. Upon calculations one can deduce that:
Average Grain diameter (d, in mm) = 1n×104645√
Given ASTM grain size 12, thus, n = 212-1 = 211 = 2048
Therefore, average grain diameter = 12048×104645√ = 0.0056 mm.
821 Equipment used for inspection of inside portion of hollow chamber or narrow tube is known as
___________
a) Endoscope
b) Telescope
c) Borescope
d) Flexiscope
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Borescope is used for visual of inside portion of the hollow chamber.
822. What is the value of average number of grains in per square inch for ASTM 11?
a) 2048
b) 1024
c) 6
d) 5
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: According to ASTM standard E1112, ”standard test methods for determining average grain
size”:
n = 2G-1, where ‘G’ is the grain size number and ‘n’ represents the average number of grains per square
inch at a magnification of 100X.
Given ASTM grain size 12, thus, n = 211-1 = 210 = 1024.
823 Which of the following property will be more in fine grained structure?
a) Ductility
c) Creep resistance
d) Hardness
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Finer the grain size (lower the grain size), more is the number of grain boundaries, thus more
is the yield strength, thus more is the ductility. This is the reason why we can easily draw a fine-grained
structure into wires.
824 Which of the following property will be more in coarse grain structure?
a) Ductility
c) Hardness
d) Toughness
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Grain boundaries are susceptible to corrosion. Coarse grain structure has less grain
boundaries, thus has greater corrosion resistance.
825. Which of the following penetrating liquid is used in a liquid penetration test?
a) Water
b) Chlorine based solvent
c) Petroleum based carrier fluid
d) Fluorine based solvent
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: In liquid penetration test, either petroleum-or-water based carrier fluids are used as solvents
or cleaners according to the type of penetrant used. Petroleum based carrier fluid is used as penetrating
liquid in liquid penetration test along with fluorescent red colour dye for visible light.
826. Which of the following non destructive testing is used to detect change in composition of any
material?
a) Liquid penetration test
b) Ultrasonic test
c) Eddy current test
d) Radiography
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Radiography enables us to detect the change in composition. X-rays or γ-rays are used in
radiography technique.
827 The melting point of iron (in oC) is?

a) 768
b) 1535
c) 1410
d) 910
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Melting point of iron in degree centigrade is 1535 oC.
828. Iron-Carbon phase diagram is a ___________

a) Unary phase diagram
b) Binary phase diagram
c) Tertiary phase diagram
d) Ternary phase diagram
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Binary phase diagrams are based on two component systems. Here, the two components
may be mixed in an infinite number of different proportions, which indicates that composition also
becomes a variable, along with pressure and temperature. Iron-carbon phase diagram, Pb-Sn diagram are
the best examples of this category.
829. The temperature (in oC) of peritectic reaction in iron-carbon phase diagram is?
a) 1539
b) 1493
c) 910
d) 1175
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The invariant peritectic reaction (while cooling) in Fe-C phase diagram is given by:
L (0.53%C) + δ-ferrite (BCC, 0.09%C) 1493oC−→−−−− γ (FCC, 0.17%C)
830. The temperature (in oC) of eutectic reaction in iron-carbon phase diagram is?
a) 1539
b) 1493
c) 910
d) 1150
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The invariant eutectic reaction (while cooling) in Fe-C phase diagram is given by:
L (4.3%C) 1150oC−→−−−− γ (FCC, 2.11%C) + Cementite (Orthorhombic, 6.67%C)
831. The temperature (in oC) of eutectoid reaction in iron-carbon phase diagram is?
a) 1120
b) 725
c) 910
d) 820
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The invariant peritectoid reaction (while cooling) in Fe-C phase diagram is given by
γ (FCC, 0.77%C) 725oC−→−−−Ferrite (BCC, 0.02%C)+ Cementite (Orthorhombic, 6.67%C).
832. The percentage of carbon at eutectic point in Fe-C phase diagram is?
a) 2.1
b) 4.3
c) 0.83
d) 0.02
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The lowest melting alloy, the Fe-4.3% C alloy is called eutectic cast iron. This is a single-
phase liquid (100%) of 4.3% carbon at the eutectic temeprature 1150 oC.
833. The percentage of carbon at eutectoid point in Fe-C phase diagram is?
a) 2.1
b) 4.3
c) 0.83
d) 0.02
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: During cooling, austenite of 0.77% C, at a temeprature 725 oC undergoes eutectoid
transformation and forms a eutectoid a mixture of ferrite and cementite, known as pearlite.
834. The percentage of carbon at peritectic point in Fe-C phase diagram is?
a) 2.1
b) 4.3
c) 0.83
d) 0.18
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Percentage of carbon at peritectic point = 0.18%. Peritectic reaction in iron-carbon phase
diagram takes place at constant temperature of 1493 oC.
835. Which of the following reaction does not exhibit mushy zone in Fe-C phase diagram?
a) Eutectic reaction
b) Peritectic reaction
c) Eutectoid reaction
d) Peritectoid reaction
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A mushy zone is nothing but a solid-liquid mix in a two-phase region. The alloys or reactions,
which exhibits lower melting points than the two pure metals are known as eutectic alloy systems taking
eutectic reaction does not exhibit mushy zone.
836. γ form of iron is?

a) Magnetic
b) Non magnetic
c) Occurs below 768oC
d) Occurs above 1410oC
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: γ form of iron is known as austenite (named after ‘Sir Austin), which is an interstitial solid
solution of carbon in FCC iron. Austenite is soft, ductile, tough, malleable and non-magnetic.
837 Which of the following material has the carbon varying from 2.1 to 4.3%?
a) Dead steel
b) Mild steel
c) Medium carbon steel
d) Cast iron
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Cast irons are the alloy of iron and carbon that contains 2.1 to 4.3% C, along with other
varying amounts of silicon and manganese. This varying carbon range makes them easily castable, asking
them to call cast irons.
838. Which of the following material has the carbon varying from 4.3 to 6.67%?
a) Pig iron
b) Mild steel
c) Medium carbon steel
d) Cast iron
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Pig iron contains a very high carbon content, usually varies from 4.3 to 6.67%. The pig iron is
called so, as it resembles the shape of a reclining pig.
839. The eutectoid mixture of α+Fe3C is known as ______________

a) Ferrite
b) Pearlite
c) Cementite
d) Austenite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The eutectoid mixture of ferrite (α) and cementite (Fe 3C) as alternate lamellae is known as
pearlite. Pearlite is called so, as it lustres like pearl.
840. The BCC structure of Fe-C solid solution is known as ______________

a) Ferrite
b) Cementite
c) Pearlite
d) Austenite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Ferrite is an interstitial solid solution of carbon in alpha iron (BCC structure). It derives its
name from Latin word “ferrum” meaning iron.
841. The FCC structure of Fe-C solid solution is known as __________

a) Ferrite
b) Cementite
c) Pearlite
d) Austenite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Austenite is an interstitial solid solution of carbon in γ and has FCC structure.
842. Which of the following is soft in nature?

a) Coarse pearliite
b) Fine pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coarse pearlite forms upon annealing which makes them to posses greater interlamellar
spaced ferrite and cementite, when compared with, fine pearlite which forms upon normalizing a eutectoid
steel. The more interlamellar spacing makes coarse pearlite to have soft nature.
843. Which of the following is hardest in nature?
a) Coarse pearliite
b) Fine pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Martensite is the hardest phase that can be produced by quenching a steel. Its BHN is about
700. The high rate of strain hardening and dispersion strengthening mechanisms makes the martensite
hardest among steel phases. Its hardness can be varied directly with varying percentage of carbon in
steel.
844. Which of the following iron carbon mixture, is the product of furnace cooling?
a) Coarse pearliite
b) Fine pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Coarse pearlite is obtained when steel is slowly cooled in a furnace atmosphere, and this
complete process is termed as annealing.
845 Which of the following iron carbon mixture, is the product of water cooling?
a) Coarse pearliite
b) Fine pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The body centered tetragonal (BCT) martensite is formed upon quenching a steel. Usually
the quenching mediums are water, oil and brine, etc.
846. Which of the following iron carbon mixture, is the product of air cooling?
a) Coarse pearliite
b) Fine pearlite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Fine pearlite is obtained when steel is slowly cooled in air, and this complete process is
termed as normalizing.
847 Which of the following equation represents the Gibbs phase rule?
a) F = C + P + 2
b) F = C – P + 2
c) F = C + P + 1
d) F = C + P – 1
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The Gibbs phase rule is represented as: F = C – P + 2, where F = number of intensive
degrees of freedom, P = number of phases and C = minimum number of independent constituents.
848 Number of degrees of freedom at a triple point in unary phase diagram is?
a) 1
b) 10
c) 0
d) -1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A unary phase diagram has a single component thus, at triple point, the number of degrees
of freedom, according to Gibbs phase rule F = 1 – 3 + 2 = 0.
849 The invariant reaction involving, a liquid phase decomposing into two different solids on cooling is
known as _________
a) Eutectoid point
b) Eutectic point
c) Peritectic point
d) Peritectoid point
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: The eutectic invariant reaction in general can be represented as:
L Cooling−→−−−− S1 + S2
where, L represent the liquid of eutectic composition and S 1 and S2 are two different solids of fixed
composition each.
850. The invariant reaction involving a solid phase decomposing into two different solids on cooling is
known as ____________
a) Eutectoid point
b) Eutectic point
c) Peritectic point
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The eutectoid invariant reaction is a solid-state version of the eutectic reaction and in
general, can be represented by an equation:
S1 Cooling−→−−−− S2 + S3
where, S1, S2 and S3 are three different solids each of fixed composition.
851. The invariant reaction involving a liquid phase and a solid phase changing into a single solid phase
on cooling is known as ____________
a) Eutectoid point
b) Eutectic point
c) Peritectic point
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A peritectic reaction in general can be represented by an equation:
L + S1 Cooling−→−−−− S2
where, L represents a liquid of fixed composition, S1 and S2 are two different solids of fixed composition
each.
852. The invariant reaction involving two solid phases changing into a single solid phase on cooling is
known as ___________
a) Eutectoid point
b) Eutectic point
c) Peritectic point
View Answer,Answer: d,
Explanation: The peritectoid invariant reaction is a solid-state version of the peritectic reaction and in
general, can be represented by an equation:
S1 + S2 Cooling−→−−−− S3
where, S1, S2 and S3 are three different solids each of fixed composition.
853 . For binary phase diagram Gibbs phase rule may be given as ____________
a) F = C + P + 2
b) F = C – P + 2
c) F = C – P + 1
d) F = C + P – 1
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Binary phase diagrams has two components. Apart from temperature and pressure, we will
be having one composition variable for each of the phases in equilibrium. In order to simplify the Gibbs
phase rule on paper (in 2D), binary phase diagrams are usually drawn at atmospheric pressure, showing
variations in temperature and composition only. Pressure changes often produce no significant effect on
the equilibrium and, therefore, it is customary to ignore the pressure variable and the vapour phase. The
modified condensed rule is represented as:
F=C–P+1
854. The Line joining a liquid phase with liquid and solid phase mixture is known as ____________
a) Liquidus
b) Solidus
c) Tie line
d) Solvus
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Liquidus is the line joining liquid phase with liquid and solid phase mixture.
855. The line joining a solid phase with liquid and solid phase mixture is known as _____________
a) Liquidus
b) Solidus
c) Tie line
d) Solvus
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Solidus is the line joining liquid phase with liquid and solid phase mixture.
856. Melting point of copper (in oC) is?

a) 985
b) 1085
c) 1453
d) 1200
View Answer, Answer: b
Explanation: The copper has a melting point of 1085 oC.
856 Pig iron is a product of ____________

a) Cupola
b) Bessemer converter
c) Open hearth furnace
d) Blast furnace
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Blast furnace when smelted iron ore in it, produces pig iron. Pig iron has a carbon content,
typically 3.5-4.5%, which makes it brittle, thus of less industrial use.
857. Cast iron is a product of ___________
a) Cupola
c) Open hearth furnace
d) Blast furnace
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The cupola furnace (a modified blast furnace) can be used to melt cast irons, bronzes, etc.
Cast irons have a carbon content of 2-4%, and have low melting temperatures, which makes them easily
castable.
858. Wrought iron is a product of ___________

a) Cupola
c) Puddling furnace
d) Blast furnace
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The puddling furnace creates wrought iron (nearly pure iron) from the pig iron. The wrought
iron is tougher and malleable.
859. Steel is a product of ___________

a) Cupola
b) Blast furnace
c) Puddling furnace
d) Bessemer converter
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: The Bessemer converter was the first inexpensive furnace to make steel in olden days. The
fundamental idea is, removal of impurities from iron and making steel by oxidizing. Open hearth furnace
has taken over Bessemer process due to its nitrogen control in steel.
860. Red hardness of an alloy steel can be improved by adding ____________

a) Tungsten
b) Vanadium
c) Manganese
d) Titanium
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Red hardness means capability of material to retain hardness at high temperature. It can be
achieved for steel when alloyed high high melting metals like, tungsten, molybdenum, vanadium and
chromium, etc.
861. Abrasion resistance of an alloy steel can be improved by adding ___________

a) Tungsten
b) Vanadium
c) Manganese
d) Chromium
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Chromium is generally added to steel to increase corrosion resistance and oxidation, to
increase hardenability, to improve high-temperature strength, and to improve abrasion resistance in high-
carbon compositions. The formation of hexagonal Cr 7C3 is responsible for this abrasion resistance to steel.
862 Wear resistance of an alloy steel can be improved by adding ___________
a) Tungsten
b) Vanadium
c) Manganese
d) Titanium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Manganese is normally present in all commercial steels. High levels of manganese presence
produces an austenitic steel with improved wear and abrasion resistance.
863 Corrosion resistance of an alloy steel can be improved by adding ___________

a) Tungsten
b) Vanadium
c) Chromium
d) Titanium
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chromium when added in the range 10.5%-18% in weight to steel, forms a passive oxide
layer (Cr2O3), thus transforming steel to a corrosion resistant steel (stainless steel).
864. Tensile strength of an alloy steel can be improved by adding ____________

a) Nickel
b) Vanadium
c) Manganese
d) Titanium
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Nickel can improve tensile strength as well as toughness of alloy steel. Small additions of
niobium (Nb) also increases the tensile strength of carbon steel.
865. Which of the following induces fine grain distribution in alloy steel?
a) Nickel
b) Vanadium
c) Manganese
d) Titanium
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: After Al, vanadium if by far the mostly used grain refiner in steel. It forms a microscopic
precipitate particle in steel, which acts as pinning agents, thus obstruct the grain growth at higher
temperatures, encouraging new grains to nucleate.
866 Which of the following is the hardest constituent of steel?

a) Ledeburite
b) Austenite
c) Bainite
d) Martensite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Martensite is the hardest constituent of steel. The primary reasons accounting for this could
be, the internal strains within BCC iron due to the excess carbon presence and due to the plastic
deformation of parent FCC iron (austenite) surrounding the martensitic plate. Rate of cooling and the
amount of carbon percentage in steel are directly proportional to the amount of hardness achieved in
martensitic transformation.
867 Iron possesses BCC crystal structure up to (in degree centigrade)?
a) 1539
b) 768
c) 910
d) 1410
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Pure iron possess either BCC or FCC crystal structure as its temperature is increased from
room temperature to its melting point. At room temperature to 910 oC, it is having BCC, between 910oC and
1410oC it is having face centered cubic, and from 1410 oC to its melting point (1539oC) it returns to its BCC
crystal structure.
868 Iron possesses BCC crystal structure above (in degree centigrade)?
a) 1539
b) 768
c) 910
d) 1410
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: From 1410oC to its melting point (1539oC) iron is having BCC crystal structure.
869 .Iron possesses FCC crystal structure above (in degree centigrade)?
a) 1539
b) 768
c) 910
d) 1410
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Between 910oC and 1410oC iron is having face centered cubic crystal structure.
870. Which of the following form of iron is magnetic in nature?

a) α
b) δ
c) γ
d) λ
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The alpha form of iron is magnetic and stable at all temperatures below 910 oC.
871. For steel, which one of the following properties can be enhanced upon annealing?
a) Hardness
b) Toughness
c) Ductility
d) Resilience
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: A furnace cooling technique, annealing will enhance the ductility of steel, due to the formation
of coarse pearlite.
872 In Annealing, cooling is done in which of the following medium?
a) Air
b) Water
c) Oil
d) Furnace
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: In annealing, after solutionising, material is used to furnace cool, means furnace is switched
off and the steel sample inside is let cool down.
873 In normalizing, cooling is done in which of the following medium?

a) Air
b) Water
c) Oil
d) Furnace
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: In normalizing, steel is heat treated above its critical temperature, solutionised, and then
allowed to cool for a long time by keeping it in air. In steel, it forms fine pearlite, which imparts strength to
steel.
874 Mild steel can be converted into high carbons steel by which of the following heat treatment process?
a) Annealing
b) Normalizing
c) Case hardening
d) Nitriding
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Case hardening, also referred as carburizing increases carbon content of steel, thus,
imparting hardness to steel.
875 Upon annealing, eutectoid steel converts to which of the following?

a) Perlite
b) Cementite
c) Austenite
d) Martensite
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Eutectoid steels upon annealing produces pearlite (coarse pearlite). Pearlite is an alternate
lamellae of ferrite and cementite.
876 Alloy of copper and zinc is known as __________

a) Brass
b) Bronze
c) Duralumin
d) Nichrome
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Brass is a substitutional alloy of copper and zinc. It has many useful properties, such as low
melting point, workability, electrical conductivity and thermal conductivity, corrosion resistance, etc.
877. Alloy of Ni and Fe is termed as ___________
a) Brass
b) Bronze
c) Duralumin
d) Invar
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Invar is an alloy of nickel and iron generically known as FeNi36. It has low thermal expansion
coefficient.
878. Major constituent of the gun metal is ____________

a) Copper
b) Nickel
c) Iron
d) Zinc
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Gun metal (also known as red brass) contains 83% Cu and 2% Zn and 10% Sn.
879. Major constituent of Muntz metal is _____________

a) Copper
b) Nickel
c) Iron
d) Zinc
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Mutz metal contains 60% Cu and 40% Zn. It is commonly used in architectural applications.
880. Major constituent of the Nichrome is _____________

a) Copper
b) Nickel
c) Iron
d) Zinc
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Nichrome contains 80% Ni and 20% Cr. Nichrome mostly used as a resistant wire and in
dental fillings.
881. Major constituent of Constantan alloy is ____________

a) Copper
b) Nickel
c) Iron
d) Zinc
Explanation: Constantan (also known as Eureka/Ferry) contains 60% Cu and 40% Ni. It finds its mainly in
thermocouples and has strong negative seebeck coefficient above 0 oC.
882 Major constituent of Elektron alloy is ____________

a) Copper
b) Nickel
c) Magnesium
d) Zinc
View Answer, Answer: c
Explanation: Elektron contains 3-12% aluminum and 2% zinc, 0.03% manganese and rest is magnesium.
It is very light alloy and used where weight is the major consideration in design.
883. Which of the following alloy is widely used in thermo couples?
a) Brass
b) Bronze
c) Duralumin
d) Nichrome
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Nichrome contains 80% Ni and 20% Cr. It is used mostly in thermocouples and in strain
gauges.
884. Major constituent of Duralumin alloy is ____________

a) Copper
b) Nickel
c) Iron
d) Aluminum
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Duralumin is the age hardenable alloy of aluminium alloyed mainly with copper and with
manganese and magnesium. Being a lightweight alloy, duralumin finds its use widely in aerospace
industry.
885. What is the approximate percentage of Lead in soft solder?

a) 60
b) 50
c) 90
d) 99.02
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Soft solder is the eutectic alloy of 50% Pb and 50% Sn, having a melting point of 450 oC.

886 The polymerization of two or more chemically similar monomers forming a long molecular chain is
termed as ____________
a) addition polymerization
b) copolymerization
c) condensation polymerization
d) step-growth polymerization
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Addition polymerization (also called as chain-growth polymerization) involves addition of two
or more ‘similar’ monomers to form a long chain molecule. In, addition polymerization, empirical formula is
the same as that of monomer. Polyolefins are formed through addition polymerization.
887. The polymerization of two or more chemically different monomers forming a long molecular chain is
termed as ____________
b) copolymerization
d) chain growth polymerization
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Copolymerization involves polymerization of two or more different monomers to form a long
chain molecule. A well-known ‘Nylon 66’ is a copolymer of hexamethylenediamine and adipic acid.
888 The polymerization of two or more chemically different monomers forming a cross link polymer along
with a by-product (can be either water or ammonia) is termed as ____________
b) copolymerization
d) chain-growth polymerization
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Condensation polymerization (also called as step-growth polymerization) involves
condensation (losing small molecules as by-products, usually such as water, methanol and ammonia) of
different monomers to form a cross linked polymer. In, condensation polymerization, empirical formula is
different as that of monomer. Polymers like polyamides, polyacetals and proteins are formed through
condensation polymerization.
889 . Which of the following additive is used as an initiator in polymerization reaction?

a) Benzoyl peroxide
b) Mica
c) Glass powder
d) Hydrogen peroxide
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Addition polymerization involves three steps for form an addition polymer, known as initiation,
propagation and termination. In the initiation step, an initiator like hydrogen peroxide, easily split to form
two species with a free electron attached to each.
890. Thermosetting plastics have ____________

a) 1-Degree bond
b) 2-Degree bond
c) 3-Degree bond
d) 0-Degree bond
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: A thermosetting plastic is a polymer which gets irreversibly hardened when heated. They
have a three-dimensional network of ‘1-degree’ primary bond. A well-known example of this kind are
bakelite, polyester and epoxy resin, etc.
891 . Which of the following is a primary bond network of thermosetting plastics?

a) 1-Dimensional
b) 3-Dimensional
c) 2-Dimensional
d) 0-Dimensional
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermosetting plastics have a three-dimensional network of ‘1-degree’ primary bond.
892. Thermoplastics have _____________

a) 1-Degree bond
b) 2-Degree bond
c) 3-Degree bond
d) 0-Degree bond
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A thermoplastic is a polymer which gets softened when heated. They have a one-
dimensional network of ‘2-degree’ secondary bond. A well-known example of this kind are PET
(polyethylene terephthalate), PVC (polyvinyl chloride), and PP (polypropylene) etc.
893. Which of the following is a secondary bond network of thermoplastics?
a) 1-Dimensional
b) 3-Dimensional
c) 2-Dimensional
d) 0-Dimensional
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermoplastics have a one-dimensional network of ‘2-degree’ secondary bond.
894. Thermoplastics become softer upon heating.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Thermoplastics have 1-dimensional secondary bond structure, due to this, when heated, their
individual polymer chains can slide one over other, thus making them softer.
895 Thermosetting plastics become softer upon heating.

a) True
b) False
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Thermosetting plastics have 2-dimensioanl primary bond structure (strong covalent cross
links), thus making them stronger upon heating.
896 Which of the following is a correct refractory type of quartz?

a) Acidic
b) Basic
c) Neutral
d) Amphoteric
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Quartz is an acidic refractory and are mostly used in open-hearth furnaces, gas retorts and in
glass furnaces.
897 Which one of the following is not an acidic refractory?

a) Quartz
b) Sand
c) Silica brick
d) Dolomite
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Dolomite is a basic refractory.
898 Which one of the following is not a basic refractory?

a) Magnesite
b) Sand
c) Dolomite
d) Alumina
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Most of the silica-based refractories, like fire clay, bricks and sand are of acidic refractories.
899. Which one of the following is a neutral refractory?

a) Quartz
b) Sand
c) Silica brick
d) Silicon carbide
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Silicon carbide is a neutral refractory, whereas sand, quartz and silica brick are acidic
refractories.
900For a M10 grade RCC (Reinforced Cement Concrete), the ratio of cement to aggregate to the sand is?
a) 1:2:3
b) 1:3:4
c) 1:3:6
d) 1:2:6
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: M10 grade of RCC have cement to aggregate to sand ratio equal to 1:3:6.
901 Production of thin sheets of a flexible tape by casting in the particulate forming process may be
termed as _________________
a) slip casting
b) hydroplastic forming
c) powder casting
d) tape casting
View Answer
Answer: d
Explanation: Tape casting is a very old process and is used in the formation of flexible tapes.
902. Which one of the following can act as a modifier in glass forming process?
a) Silicon dioxide
b) Sodium oxide
c) Magnesium oxide
d) Phosphorous oxide
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Magnesium oxide is used as a viscosity modifier, thus making glass melt viscosity to be in
the desired range for proper formation of the filaments.
903 The word ceramic stands for which of the following meaning?
a) Soft
b) Burnt
c) Hard
d) Tough
View Answer, Answer: b
Explanation: Ceramics convey the meaning of burnt materials. This is so because in olden days, making
pottery and bricks involves burning wood, coal and gas.
904 . Which one of the following ceramics can be used as a pigment in paints?
a) Silicon carbide
b) Silicon oxide
c) Aluminum oxide
d) Titanium oxide
View Answer,Answer: d ,Explanation: Titanium white (titanium oxide) used as a pigment in pains. It is
used so, because of its SFC (self-cleaning capacity) nature.
905 Vacancies are _____________
a) planer defects
b) line defects
c) point defects
d) volume defects
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Vacancy defect is the simplest point defect. In this system, an atom is missing from its
regular atomic site, vacancies are formed during solidification due to vibration of atoms.
906. Scanning tunneling microscope is a tool usually used to analyze an image at ____________
a) sub-atomic level
b) atomic level
c) micro level
d) macro level
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Scanning tunneling microscope (STM) is a technique that has been used for the surface
study of nanostructures using the chemical composition of atoms and molecules in NPs to image surfaces
at the atomic level. High-resolution material contrast has been successfully demonstrated in STM photon
emission maps that correlate closely with the topographi image.
907. What are the examples of line defect?

a) vacancies
b) dislocations
c) twins
d) stacking faults
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Line imperfections, or dislocations, in crystalline solids are defects that cause lattice distortion
centered around a line.
908. A mixture of a metal(s) and a non-metal(s) is called?

a) composite
b) alloy
c) dislocation
d) cermet
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: A mixture of metal and non-metal is termed as an alloy, whereas a combination of two
different materials (may not have metal in it) is called as composite.
909. Risers are also called __________

a) spure
b) runners
c) feeders
d) risers
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Risers also called feeders serve as reservoirs of molten metal to supply any molten metal
necessary to prevent porosity due to shrinkage during solidification.
910. In a free-falling liquid, the cross-sectional area of the stream?

a) increases
b) decreases
c) remains constant
d) first increases and then decreases
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: In a free falling liquid, the cross sectional area of the stream decreases as the liquid gains
velocity downward.
911 If the pouring basin has a much larger cross-sectional area than the sprue bottom, then the velocity of
the molten metal is?
a) low
b) high
c) normal
d) either high or low
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: The molten metal flows through a sprue to a runner and a gate and fills the mold cavity. If the
pouring basin has a much larger cross sectional area than the sprue bottom, then the velocity of the
molten metal at the top of the pouring basin is very low and can be taken to be zero.
912 V’ or ‘f’ marked surfaces on a casting indicates?

a) Camber allowance
b) Machining allowance
c) Draft allowance
d) Shrinkage allowance
View Answer
Answer: b
913 Which of the following is used for making the hollow cavities in the casting?
a) chaplet
b) vent rod
c) core
d) chill
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: For producing a casting with internal cavities or passages, cores which are made of sand are
utilized. Cores are placed in the mold cavity to form the interior surface of the casting and are removed
from the finished part during fettling process.
914. What is the limitation of oil as a binder?

a) at lower temperature, bond between sand mix and oil becomes strong
b) at higher temperature, bond between sand mix and oil becomes strong
c) should be added in high volumes
d) quickly hardens
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: At higher temperatures the bond between sand mix and oil becomes hard and brittle there by
weakening the sand mix. So, care should be taken about the rate and temperature of baking of oil sands.
915 Cereals are added to the molding sand to improve which of the following?
a) hot strength
b) porosity
c) green strength
d) edge hardness
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: The role of cereals on imparting an amount of green strength in oil sands has been
mentioned. Cereals are used because they are less harmful than clays form the point of view of baked
strength in oil sand cores. Starch is capable of imparting a higher green strength than dextrin for the same
amount of moisture.
916 To improve the surface finish of castings, which of the following additive is used in the molding sand?
a) resins
b) sea coal
c) oils
d) wood flour
View Answer
Answer: b
Explanation: Resins produces good bonding strength between the sand grains, oils are used as binders,
wood flour is cellulose material used to overcome sand expansion defects and seal coal is finely ground
soft coal used for surface finish of castings.
917. To permit the escape of gases generated in the mold, which of the following are provided?
a) vent holes
b) chills
c) chaplets
d) core print
View Answer
Answer: a
Explanation: Chaplets are used to support the cores inside the mold cavity to take care of its own weight
and overcome the metallostatic force, core print is used to create openings and various shaped cavities in
the castings, and vent hole, a small opening in the mold to facilitate the escape of air and gases.
918. Which of the following is used for making the hollow cavities in the casting?
a) chaplet
b) vent rod
c) core
d) chill
View Answer
Answer: c
Explanation: Chaplets are used to support the cores inside the mold cavity to take care of its own weight
and overcome the metallostatic force, core is a separate part of the mold, made of sand and generally
baked, which is used to create openings and various shaped cavities in the castings.
1.The brass and bronze are welded by _________ flame.

A. Neutral
B. Oxidizing
C. Carburising
D. All of these
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A slightly oxidizing flame is used in torch brazing of steel and cast iron. A stronger oxidizing flame is used in the welding
of brass or bronze.
2. A gimlet is a ________ tool.
A. Boring
B. Marking
C. Cutting
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Gimlet is a small tool for boring holes, consisting of a shaft with a pointed screw at one end and a handle perpendicular
to the shaft at the other
3. In TIG arc welding, the welding zone is shielded by an atmosphere of
A. Helium gas
B. Argon gas
C. Either (A) or (B)
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
In TIG arc welding, The weld area and electrode is protected from oxidation or other atmospheric contamination by an
inert shielding gas argon or helium
4.In sheet metal blanking, shear is provided on punches and dies so that
A. Press load is reduced
B. Good cut edge is obtained
C. Warping of sheet is minimized
D. Cut blanks is straight
Answer: Option A
Solution:
In sheet metal blanking, shear is provided on punches and dies so that Press load is reduced
5.For obtaining a cup of diameter 25 mm and height 15 mm by drawing, the
size of the round blank should be approximately
A. 42 mm
B. 44 mm
C. 46 mm
D. 48 mm
Answer: Option C
Solution:
For obtaining a cup of diameter 25 mm and height 15 mm by drawing, the size of the round blank should be
approximately 46 mm
.
The cross-section of a chisel is usually
A. Rectangular
B. Square
C. Hexagonal
D. Octagonal
Answer: Option D
Solution:
A chisel is a tool that has a long metal blade with a sharp edge at the end.
It is used for cutting and shaping wood and stone.
The cross-section of a chisel is usually Octagonal
67.Cores are used to
A. Form internal cavities in the casting
B. Improve mould surface
C. Form a part of a green sand mould
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Cores are used to Form internal cavities in the casting and Improve mould surfaceand used to Form a part of a green
sand mould
core is a device used in casting and moulding processes to produce internal cavities and reentrant angles .
The core is normally a disposable item that is destroyed to get it out of the piece
68.The welding process used to join the ends of two pipes of uniform cross-
section, is
A. Spot welding
B. Seam welding
C. Projection welding
D. Upset butt welding
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Upset butt welding is a welding technique that produces coalescence simultaneously over the entire area of abutting
surfaces or progressively along a joint, by the heat obtained from resistance to electric current through the area where
those surfaces are in contact
69.The consumable electrode is used in
A. Carbon arc welding
B. Submerged arc welding
C. TIG arc welding
D. MIG arc welding
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The consumable electrode is used in MIG arc welding
70.During drawing operation, the states of stress in cup would include
A. Compressive stress in the flange
B. Tensile stress in the wall
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The stress in the flange region during the deep drawing process is a combination of radial tensile drawing stress and a
tangential compressive stress.
The blank-holder at the top of the workpiece exerts a compressive force at the upper surface of the blank during the
drawing process.
The operation of cutting a cylindrical hole in a sheet of metal by the punch and
die is called
A. Shearing
B. Piercing
C. Punching
D. Blanking
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The operation of cutting a cylindrical hole in a sheet of metal by the punch and die is called Piercing
47.A moving mandrel is used in
A. Wire drawing
B. Tube drawing
C. Metal cutting
D. Forging
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A moving mandrel is used in Tube drawing
48 The electrode tip diameter (d) in spot welding should be equal to (where t =
Thickness of plate to be welded)
A. t√t
B. 1.5 t
C. 3t
D. 6t
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The electrode tip diameter (d) in spot welding should be equal to
t√t
.49.Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. The hot chamber die casting machine is used for casting zinc, tin, lead and other low melting alloys.
B. The cold chamber die casting machine is used for casting aluminium, magnesium, copper base alloys and other
high melting alloys.
C. The castings produced by centrifugal casting method have open and coarse grained structure.
D. All of the above
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Casting is a manufacturing process in which a liquid material is usually poured into a mold, which contains a hollow
cavity of the desired shape, and then allowed to solidify. The solidified part is also known as a casting, which is ejected or
broken out of the mold to complete the process.
50. Which of the following statement is wrong?
A. The angular clearance on dies varies from 0.5° to 1°
B. In drawing operation, the metal flows due to plasticity
C. In press operation, the size of the pierced hole is independent of the size of punch
D. None of the above
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The angular clearance on dies varies from 0.5° to 1°
In drawing operation, the metal flows due to plasticity
In press operation, the size of the pierced hole is independent of the size of punch
51 The electron beam welding can be carried out in

A. Open air
B. A shielded gas environment
C. Vacuum
D. A pressurized inert gas chamber
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Electron beam welding (EBW) is a fusion welding process in which a beam of high-velocity electrons is applied to two
materials to be joined.
EBW is often performed under vacuum conditions to prevent dissipation of the electron beam.
58.Structural sections such as rails, angles, I-beams are made by
A. Hot rolling
B. Hot drawing
C. Hot piercing
D. Hot extrusion
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Structural shapes that can be made with this metal forming process include I-beams, H-beams, T-beams, U-beams, angle
iron, channels, bar stock, and railroad rails.
The most commonly rolled material is structural steel.
It is made by Hot rolling.
52.The parts of circular cross-section which are symmetrical about the axis of
rotation are made by
A. Hot forging
B. Hot spinning
C. Hot extrusion
D. Hot drawing
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The parts of circular cross-section which are symmetrical about the axis of rotation are made by Hot spinning
53.The recrystallisation temperature of steel is
A. 400°C
B. 600°C
C. 800°C
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The recrystallisation temperature of steel is 800°C
54.The teeth of hacksaw blade are bent
A. Towards right
B. Towards left
C. Alternately towards right and left and every third or fourth left straight
D. May be bent in any direction
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The teeth of hacksaw blade are bent Alternately towards right and left and every third or fourth left straight
55.The operation of bending a sheet of metal along a curved axis, is known as
A. Plunging
B. Notching
C. Slitting
D. Forming
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The operation of bending a sheet of metal along a curved axis is known as Forming
62.The edge of a steel plate cut by oxygen cutting will get hardened when the
carbon content is
A. Less than 0.1 percent
B. Less than 0.3 percent
C. More than 0.3 percent
D. Anywhere between 0.1 to 1 percent
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The edge of a steel plate cut by oxygen cutting will get hardened when the carbon content is More than 0.3 percent
63.In average work, the tolerance produced by investment casting method is
A. ±0.05 mm
B. +0.2 mm
C. +05 mm
D. +1 mm
Answer: Option A
Solution:
In average work, the tolerance produced by investment casting method is ±0.05 mm
64.In blanking operation, the clearance is provided on
A. Punch
B. Die
C. Half on the punch and half on the die
D. Either on punch or die depending upon designer's choice
Answer: Option A
Solution:
In blanking the punched out piece is used and called a blank; in piercing the punched out piece is scrap.
In blanking operation, the clearance is provided on punch.
65.In piercing operation, the clearance is provided on
A. Punch
B. Die
C. Half on the punch and half on the die
D. Either on punch or die depending upon designer's choice
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Piercing is process in which punch operation cuts a hole/material by tearing operation from a final piece of sheet metal.
Piercing is a blanking operation.
In piercing operation, the clearance is provided on die.
11.Lap joints are employed on plates having thickness

A. Less than 3 mm
B. 5 to 10 mm
C. 12.5 mm
D. Above 25 mm
Answer: Option A
Solution:
A lap joint or overlap joint is a joint in which the members overlap. Lap joints can be used to join wood, plastic, or metal.
Lap joints are employed on plates having thickness Less than 3 mm
12.Thermit welding is often used in
A. Replacing broken gear teeth
B. Repairing broken shears
C. Joining rails, truck frames and locomotive frames etc.
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Thermit welding is a welding process that employs molten metal to permanently join the conductors.
The process employs an exothermic reaction of a thermite composition to heat the metal, and requires no external
source of heat or current.
Thermit welding is often used in replacing broken gear teeth, repairing broken shears and joining rails, truck frames and
locomotive frames etc.
13.Thread rolling is restricted to
A. Ferrous materials
B. Ductile materials
C. Hard materials
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Materials are limited to ductile materials because the threads are cold formed. .
Also, materials with good deformation characteristics are necessary for rolling; these materials include softer (more
ductile) metals and exclude brittle materials, such as cast iron.
14.When a pattern is made in three parts, the ________ is known as a drag.
A. Bottom part
B. Middle part
C. Top part
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Cope and Drag refer to the two halves (top and bottom, respectively) of a Pattern or Mold that is used in the Green Sand
Casting Method.
15.Which of the following material can be used for making patterns?
A. Aluminium
B. Wax
C. Lead
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Materials used. Typically, materials used for pattern making are wood, metal or plastics. Wax and Plaster of Paris are also
used,
Sugar pine is the most commonly used material for patterns, primarily because it is soft, light, and easy to work
16.The purpose of a riser is to
A. Deliver molten metal into the mould cavity
B. Act as a reservoir for the molten metal
C. Feed the molten metal to the casting in order to compensate for the shrinkage
D. Deliver the molten metal from pouring basin to gate
Answer: Option C
Solution:
A riser, also known as a feeder, is a reservoir built into a metal casting mold to prevent cavities due to shrinkage.
Most metals are less dense as a liquid than as a solid so castings shrink upon cooling, which can leave a void at the last
point to solidify.
17.Which of the following welding method uses a pool of molten metal?
A. Carbon arc welding
B. Submerged arc welding
C. TIG arc welding
D. MIG arc welding
Answer: Option B
Solution:
This is a well established and extremely versatile method of welding. Submerged-arc welding (SAW) involves the
formation of an arc between a continuously fed electrode and the work piece.
A blanket of powdered flux, which generates a protective gas shield and a slag (and may also be used to add alloying
elements to the weld pool), protects the weld zone. A shielding gas is not required.
18.A casting defect which occurs due to improper venting of sand is known as
A. Cold shuts
B. Blow holes
C. Shift
D. Swell
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A casting defect which occurs due to improper venting of sand is known as Blow holes
19.Which one of the following material will require the largest size of riser for
the same size of casting?
A. Aluminium
B. Cast iron
C. Steel
D. Copper
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Steel will require the largest size of riser for the same size of casting
20.A hacksaw blade is specified by its
A. Length
B. Material
C. Width
D. Number of teeth
Answer: Option A
Solution:
A hacksaw blade is specified by its Length
31.Thermit, used in Thermit welding, is a mixture of
A. Charcoal and iron oxide
B. Charcoal and aluminium
C. Iron oxide and aluminium
D. Charcoal, iron oxide and aluminium
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Thermit which is used in Thermit welding is a mixture of Iron oxide and aluminium
37.In welding magnesium with TIG arc welding, direct current with ________ is
used.
A. Straight polarity
B. Reversed polarity
C. Both (A) and (B)
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Solution:
In welding magnesium with TIG arc welding, direct current with Reversed polarity is used
The preferred polarity of the GTAW system depends largely on the type of metal being welded.
38.For welding plates of thickness more than 12.5 mm, its edges
A. Do not require bevelling
B. Should be bevelled to a single-V or U-groove
C. Should have a double-V or U-groove on one side
D. Should have a double-V or U-groove on both sides
Answer: Option D
Solution:
For welding plates of thickness more than 12.5 mm, its edges Should have a double-V or U-groove on both sides
39.A rip saw

A. Is a two man saw
B. Is used for cutting along the grains of wood
C. Has a narrow blade with two wooden handles
D. All of the above
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A rip saw is a wood saw that is specially designed for making a rip cut, a cut made parallel to the direction of the wood
grain.
40.A jolt machine is used to
A. Ram the sand harder at the pattern face with decreasing hardness towards the back of the mould
B. Ram the sand harder at the back of the mould and softer on the pattern face
C. Produce uniform sand hardness throughout the mould
D. Produce uniform packing of sand in the mould
Answer: Option A Solution:A jolt machine is used to Ram the sand harder at the pattern face with decreasing hardness
towards the back of the mould
1.Acetylene gas is stored in cylinders in
A. Solid form
B. Gaseous form
C. Liquid form
D. Any one of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Acetylene gas is stored in cylinders in Liquid form
2.Loam sand is a mixture of
A. 30% sand and 70% clay
B. 50% sand and 50% clay
C. 70% sand and 30% clay
D. 90% sand and 10% clay
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Loam sand is a mixture of 50% sand and 50% clay
3.Green sand is a mixture of
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Green sand is a mixture of 70% sand and 30% clay
4.The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be

A. Equal to minor diameter of the thread
B. Equal to pitch diameter of the thread
C. A little larger than the minor diameter of the thread
D. A little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be A little larger than the minor diameter of the thread
5.The operation of cutting of a flat sheet to the desired shape is called
A. Shearing
B. Piercing
C. Punching
D. Blanking
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The operation of cutting of a flat sheet to the desired shape is called Blanking
6.During cold working process
A. Grain structure is distorted
B. Strength and hardness of metal increases
C. Close dimensional tolerance can be maintained
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Cold working is the plastic deformation of metals below the recrystallization temperature. In most cases, such cold
forming is done at room temperature. The major cold-working operations can be classified basically as squeezing,
bending, shearing and drawing.
7.Most of the oxyacetylene welding is done with
A. Neutral flame
B. Oxidizing flame
C. Carburising flame
D. All of these
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The neutral flame is the flame in which the amount of oxygen is precisely enough for burning, and neither oxidation nor
reduction occurs. A flame with a good balance of oxygen is clear blue. The reducing and neutral flames are useful in
soldering and annealing.
Neutral Welding Flame. The neutral flame has a one-to-one ratio of acetylene and oxygen. It obtains additional oxygen
from the air and provides complete combustion. It is generally preferred for welding.
8.The width of slot cut by a hacksaw blade is _______ the width of the blade.
A. Equal to
B. Less than
C. Greater than
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The width of slot cut by a hacksaw blade is Greater than the width of the blade.
9.The instrument which has all the features of try-square, bevel protractor, rule
and scriber, is
A. Outside micrometer
B. Inside micrometer
C. Depth gauge micrometer
D. Combination set
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The instrument which has all the features of try-square, bevel protractor, rule and scriber, is combination set.
The combination square set is a measuring tool which is designed primarily for measuring angles and lengths.
It is used by people working in a number of different trades, including woodworkers and engineers.
10.In a hot chamber die casting machine
A. Ferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted
B. Ferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted
C. Nonferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted
D. Nonferrous alloys with high melting temperature are casted
Answer: Option C
Solution:
In a hot chamber die casting machine Nonferrous alloys with low melting temperature are casted
In Hot Chamber Die Casting. Hot chamber machinery contains the alloy melting pot as part of the machine itself and uses
a gooseneck to inject material from the pot into the die.
materials used in hot chamber die casting are zinc, lead and magnesium alloys.
1.A taper provided on the pattern for its easy and clean withdrawal from the
mould is known as
A. Machining allowance
B. Draft allowance
C. Shrinkage allowance
D. Distortion allowance
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Draft Allowance. By draft is meant the taper provided by the pattern maker on all vertical surfaces of the pattern so that
it can be removed from the sand without tearing away the sides of the sand mold and without excessive rapping by the
molder.
2.Blanking and piercing operations can be performed simultaneously in a
A. Simple die
B. Progressive die
C. Compound die
D. Combination die
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Blanking and piercing operations can be performed simultaneously in a Compound die
3.A file with 20 teeth in 25 mm is called
A. Rough file
B. Bastard file
C. Second cut file
D. Smooth file
Answer: Option A
Solution:
rough file is a file of the grade having the coarsest cutting ridges.
Rough file has 20 teeth in 25 mm
4.For welding plates of thickness less than 5 mm, its edges
A. Do not require bevelling
B. Should be bevelled to a single-V or U-groove
C. Should have a double-V or U-groove on one side
D. Should have a double-V or U-groove on both sides
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The purpose of providing a bevel or any other joint preparation is to make provision for good metal penetration into the
joint.
A square butt weld will be done up to 5 mm thickness and over 5 mm upto 16 mm single-v joint will done with a root gap
of 3 mm and root face height of 3 - 4 mm. Over 20 mm double-v or single-U is selected.
5.The accuracy of micrometers, calipers, dial indicators can be checked by a
A. Feeler gauge
B. Slip gauge
C. Ring gauge
D. Plug gauge
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Slip gauges are a system for producing precision lengths.
The individual gauge block is a metal or ceramic block that has been precision ground and lapped to a specific thickness.
6.The current in electric resistance welding can be regulated by
A. Varying the input supply
B. Changing the primary turns of the transformer
C. Changing the secondary turns of the transformer
D. Any one of the above
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The current in electric resistance welding can be regulated by Changing the primary turns of the transformer
7.In a bilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on
A. One side of the actual size
B. One side of the nominal size
C. Both sides of the actual size
D. Both sides of the nominal size
Answer: Option D
Solution:
In a bilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on both sides of the nominal size.
Bilateral Tolerance is concerned with equal variations in both the directions either plus or minus.
8.In a unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on
A. One side of the actual size
B. One side of the nominal size
C. Both sides of the actual size
D. Both sides of the nominal size
Answer: Option B
Solution:
In a unilateral system of tolerance, the tolerance is allowed on One side of the nominal size
Unilateral Tolerance is concerned with variations in single direction whether plus or minus
9.Tandem drawing of wires and tubes is necessary because
A. It is not possible to reduce at one stage
B. Annealing is needed between stages
C. Accuracy in dimensions is not possible otherwise
D. Surface finish improves after every drawing stage
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Tandem drawing is the drawing force of the process through two dies in tandem was evaluated by being compared with
the drawing force of a conventional drawing process.
Tandem drawing of wires and tubes is necessary because annealing is needed between stages.
10.Seam welding is best adopted for metal thickness ranging from
A. 0.025 to 3 mm
B. 3 to 5 mm
C. 5 to 8 mm
D. 8 to 10 mm
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Seam welding is a variation of resistance spot welding. In resistance seam welding, however, the welding electrodes are
motor driven wheels as opposed to stationary rods.
Seam welding is best adopted for metal thickness ranging from 0.025 to 3 mm
11.The operation of cutting a sheet of metal in a straight line along the length,
is known as
A. Plunging
B. Notching
C. Slitting
D. Forming
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The operation of cutting a sheet of metal in a straight line along the length, is known as Slitting
12.The metal is subjected to mechanical working for
A. Refining grain size
B. Reducing original block into desired shape
C. Controlling the direction of flow lines
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The metal is subjected to mechanical working for Refining grain size and Reducing original block into desired shape
andControlling the direction of flow lines
13.In die casting, machining allowance is
A. Small
B. Large
C. Very large
D. Not provided
Answer: Option D
Solution:
In die casting, machining allowance is Not provided
Die casting is a moulding process in which the molten metal is injected under high pressure and velocity into a split
mould die.
Aluminum dissolves ferrous parts in the die chamber and hence preferred to be used in cold chamber die casting.
14.In a four high rolling mill, the diameter of backing up rolls is ________ the
diameter of working rolls.
A. Equal to
B. Smaller than
C. Larger than
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
In a four high rolling mill, the diameter of backing up rolls is Larger than the diameter of working rolls.
15.The property of sand due to which the sand grains stick together is called
A. Collapsibility
B. Permeability
C. Cohesiveness
D. Adhesiveness
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The property of sand due to which the sand grains stick together is called Cohesiveness
16.In a four high rolling mill, there are four rolls out of which
A. One is working roll and three are backing up rolls
B. Two are working rolls and two are backing up rolls
C. Three are working rolls and one is backing up roll
D. All of the four are working rolls
Answer: Option B
Solution:
In a four high rolling mill, there are four rolls out of which Two are working rolls and two are backing up rolls
17.A two high rolling mill consists of two rolls which rotate
A. At the same speed and in the same direction
B. At the same speed but in opposite direction
C. At different speeds and in the same direction
D. At different speeds and in the opposite direction
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A two high rolling mill consists of two rolls which rotate At the same speed but in opposite direction
18.In ________ welding, the weld may be made either from left to right or from
right to left.
A. Forehand
B. Backhand
C. Vertical
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
In vertical welding, the weld may be made either from left to right or from right to left.
19.The surface to be left unmachined is marked on the pattern by
A. Red colour
B. Yellow colour
C. Black colour
D. Blue colour
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The surface to be left unmachined is marked on the pattern by Black colour
20.The surface to be machined is marked on the pattern by
A. Red colour
B. Yellow colour
C. Black colour
D. Blue colour
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The surface to be machined is marked on the pattern by red colour
21.The type of file used for a wood work is
A. Single cut file
B. Double cut file
C. Rasp cut file
D. Any one of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
A rasp is coarse form of file used for coarsely shaping wood or other material. Typically a hand tool, it consists of a
generally tapered rectangular, round, or half-round sectioned bar of case hardened steel with distinct, individually cut
teeth.
22.The increase in hardness due to cold working, is called
A. Age hardening
B. Work hardening
C. Induction hardening
D. Flame hardening
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Work hardening also called cold working is one of the process of increasing the strength of the material.
Work hardening is a very useful strengthening mechanism that occurs particularly in metallic materials through plastic
deformation.
23.A mortise gauge is a
A. Striking tool
B. Planing tool
C. Boring tool
D. Marking tool
Answer: Option D
Solution:
A mortise gauge is a Marking tool
A mortise gauge is a woodworking tool used by a carpenter or joiner to scribe mortise and tenon joints on wood prior to
cutting. Mortise gauges are commonly made of hardwood with brass fittings.
24.If an aluminium pattern made from a wooden master pattern is to be used
for grey iron castings, then the shrinkage allowance allowed on the wooden
pattern should be
A. 10 mm/m
B. 16 mm/m
C. 20 mm/m
D. 26 mm/m
Answer: Option D
Solution:
If an aluminium pattern made from a wooden master pattern is to be used for grey iron castings, then the shrinkage
allowance allowed on the wooden pattern should be 26 mm/m
25.In electric resistance welding, pressure applied varies from
A. 1 to 5 MPa
B. 5 to 10 MPa
C. 10 to 25 MPa
D. 25 to 55 MPa
Answer: Option D
Solution:
In electric resistance welding, pressure applied varies from 25 to 55 MPa
66.The temperature of oxy-hydrogen flame is ________ oxyacetylene flame.
A. Same as
B. Less than
C. More than
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The maximum temperature of Oxy-hydrogen flame is about 2,800°C.
The temperature of the oxyacetylene flame 3,480°C.
61.In a _______, the molten metal is poured and allowed to solidify while the
mould is revolving.
A. Die casting method
B. Slush casting method
C. Permanent mould casting method
D. Centrifugal casting method
Answer: Option D
Solution:
In the centrifugal casting process, molten metal is poured into a preheated, spinning die.
The die may be oriented either on a vertical or horizontal axis depending on the configuration of the desired par
62.A sand employed on the faces of the pattern before moulding, is called
A. Green sand
B. Dry sand
C. Loam sand
D. Parting sand
Answer: Option D
Solution:
A pure silica sand employed on the faces of the pattern before moulding is known as parting sand.
When the pattern is withdrawn from the mould, the moulding sand sticks to it.
To avoid sticking, parting sand is sprinkled on the pattern before it is embedded in the moulding sand
63.The mode of deformation of the metal during spinning is
A. Bending
B. Stretching
C. Rolling and stretching
D. Bending and stretching
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The mode of deformation of the metal during spinning is Bending and stretching
64.The material which can be best cut with oxygen cutting process is
A. Mild steel
B. Brass
C. Copper
D. Aluminium
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The material which can be best cut with oxygen cutting process is Mild steel
65.During hot working of metals
A. Porosity of the metal is largely eliminated
B. Grain structure of the metal is refined
C. Mechanical properties are improved due to refinement of grains
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Solution:
During hot working of metals the Porosity of the metal is largely eliminated and Grain structure of the metal is refined
and Mechanical properties are improved due to refinement of grains
56.In a ________, two or more operations are performed simultaneously at the

single stroke of the ram.
A. Simple die
B. Progressive die
C. Combination die
D. Compound die
Answer: Option B
Solution:
In a Progressive die two or more operations are performed simultaneously at the single stroke of the ram.
57.In a ________, both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at
one station of the press in every stroke of the ram.
A. Simple die
B. Progressive die
C. Combination die
D. Compound die
Answer: Option C
Solution:
in a Combination die both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in every stroke of
the ram.
58.The chisel used for cutting key ways is
A. Flat chisel
B. Cape chisel
C. Round nose chisel
D. Diamond pointed chisel
Answer: Option B
Solution:
cape chisel is a cold chisel that has a long taper on the top and bottom of the cutting end and a narrow edge and is used
for cutting keyways and similar flat grooves.
59 The most preferred process for casting gas turbine blades is
A. Die casting
B. Shell moulding
C. Investment moulding
D. Sand casting
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Shell moulding is an expendable mold casting process that uses a resin covered sand to form the mold.
The most preferred process for casting gas turbine blades is shell moulding.
60.When filing soft metals, the file teeth are clogged with minute particles of
metal. The file should be cleaned by
A. Washing it with water
B. Rubbing on wood
C. Washing it with dilute acid
D. Using file card
Answer: Option D
Solution:
When filing soft metals, the file teeth are clogged with minute particles of metal. The file should be cleaned by Using file
card
51.The dowels are
A. Wooden nails
B. Box nails
C. Wire nails
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The wooden dowel rod used in woodworking applications is commonly cut into dowel pins, which are used to reinforce
joints and support shelves and other components in cabinet making.
52.Sand wash is a casting defect which
A. Results in a mismatching of the top and bottom parts of a casting
B. Results in general enlargement of the casting
C. Occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of a casting
D. Occurs as sand patches on the upper surface of a casting
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Sand wash is a casting defect which Occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of a casting
53.Shift is a casting defect which

A. Results in a mismatching of the top and bottom parts of a casting
B. Results in general enlargement of a casting
C. Occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of a casting
D. Occurs as sand patches on the upper surface of a casting
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Shift refers to a defect caused by a sidewise displacement of the mold cope relative to the drag, the result of which is a
step in the cast product at the parting line.
Shift is a casting defect which results in a mismatching of the top and bottom parts of a casting.
54.The draft or taper allowance on casting is generally
A. 1 to 2 mm/m
B. 2 to 5 mm/m
C. 5 to 10 mm/m
D. 10 to 15 mm/m
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The draft or taper allowance on casting is generally 1 to 2 mm/m
55.Projection welding is a
A. Continuous spot welding process
B. Multi-spot welding process
C. Arc welding process
D. Process used for joining round bars
Answer: Option B Projection welding is a modification of spot welding.
In this process, the weld is localized by means of raised sections, or projections, on one or both of the workpieces to be
joined.
26.A zinc diffusion process is called
A. Galvanizing
B. Anodizing
C. Parkerising
D. Sherardizing
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Sherardizing is the formation of a corrosion-resistant, zinc-iron alloy coating, on the surface of steel or iron.
The method involves the heating of the object in an airtight container that has zinc powder.
A thermal diffusion process occurs and the zinc diffuses into the object’s metal surface, forming the zinc-iron alloy.
27.The property of sand due to which it evolves a great amount of steam and
other gases is called
A. Collapsibility
B. Permeability
C. Cohesiveness
D. Adhesiveness
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The property of sand due to which it evolves a great amount of steam and other gases is called Permeability
28.The sand used for making cores is
A. Green sand
B. Dry sand
C. Loam sand
D. Oil sand
Answer: Option D, It is used for making cores and sometimes called oil sand.
This is silica sand mixed with core oil composed of linseed oil, resin, light mineral oil and other binding materials.
29.Piercing is an operation of cutting
A. A cylindrical hole in a sheet of metal by the punch and the die
B. A hole (other than cylindrical) in a sheet of metal by the punch and the die
C. A flat sheet to the desired shape
D. A number of holes evenly spaced in a regular pattern on a sheet of metal
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Piercing is an operation of cutting A hole (other than cylindrical) in a sheet of metal by the punch and the die
30. For gas welding, the pressure desired at the welding torch for oxygen is
A. 7 to 103 kN/m2
B. 70 to 280 kN/m2
C. 280 to 560 kN/m2
D. 560 to 840 kN/m2
Answer: Option B
Solution:
For gas welding, the pressure desired at the welding torch for oxygen is 70 to 280 kN/m2.
31.Aluminium is the best material for making patterns because it is
A. Light in weight
B. Easy to work
C. Corrosion resistant
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Aluminum Patterns are the good choice for high quality, long lasting Production. Compared to other pattern materials,
Aluminium is highly resistant to the abrasive sand.
32.In submerged arc welding, an arc is produced between a

A. Carbon electrode and the work
B. Metal electrode and the work
C. Bare metal electrode and the work
D. Two tungsten electrodes and the work
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Submerged arc welding is an arc welding process in which heat is generated by an arc which is produced between bare
consumable electrode wire and the workpiece.
33.Rotary swaging
A. Is extensively used for making bolts and rivets
B. Is used for reducing the diameters of round bars and a tube by rotating dies which open and close rapidly on the
work
C. Is used to improve fatigue resistance of the metal by setting up compressive stresses in its surface
D. Consists of pressing the metal inside a chamber to force it out by high pressure through an orifice which is shaped
to provide the desired form of the finished part
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Rotary swaging Is used for reducing the diameters of round bars and a tube by rotating dies which open and close rapidly
on the work
34.When a pattern is made in three parts, the top part, is known as a
A. Drag
B. Cheek
C. Cope
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
When a pattern is made in three parts, the top part, is known as a Cope
35. An oxidising process used for aluminium and magnesium articles is called
A. Galvanizing
B. Anodizing
C. Parkerising
D. Sherardizing
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Anodizing is an electrochemical process that converts the metal surface into a decorative, durable, corrosion-resistant,
anodic oxide finish.
Aluminum is ideally suited to anodizing, although other nonferrous metals, such as magnesium and titanium, also can be
anodized.
36.Cast iron and steel pipes are produced by
A. Slush casting
B. Investment casting
C. True centrifugal casting
D. Die casting
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Cast iron and steel pipes are produced by True centrifugal casting
True Centrifugal Casting is t he manufacturing process of centrifugal casting is a metal casting technique, that uses the
forces generated by centripetal acceleration to distribute the molten material in the mold.
37.Which of the following methods can be used for manufacturing 2 meter long
seamless metallic tubes?
A. Drawing
B. Extrusion
C. Rolling
D. Extrusion and rolling
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Extrusion is a process used to create objects of a fixed cross-sectional profile. A material is pushed through a die of the
desired cross-section.
rolling is a metal forming process in which metal stock is passed through one or more pairs of rolls to reduce the
thickness and to make the thickness uniform.
38.In arc welding, the temperature of heat produced by the electric arc is of the
order of
A. 3000°C to 4000°C
B. 4000°C to 5000°C
C. 5000°C to 6000°C
D. 6000°C to 7000°C
Answer: Option D
Solution:
In arc welding, the temperature of heat produced by the electric arc is of the order of 6000°C to 7000°C
39.The adhesiveness is the property of sand due to which
A. It evolves a great amount of steam and other gases
B. The sand grains stick together
C. It clings to the sides of a moulding box
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Adhesiveness is that properties of sand due to it adheres or cling to the sides of the moulding box.
It is the property of sand due to which the sand grains stick together during ramming.
It is defined as the strength of the moulding sand.
40.Seam welding is a
A. Continuous spot welding process
B. Multi-spot welding process
C. Arc welding process
D. Process used for joining round bars
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Seam welding is a Continuous spot welding process
seam welding is a variant of the basic resistance spot welding process.
In seam welding a series of overlapping nuggets is produced, usually by replacing the conventional spot welding
electrodes by wheels that turn as the parts to be welded are fed between them
41.The metal extrusion process is generally used for producing
A. Uniform solid sections
B. Uniform hollow sections
C. Uniform solid and hollow sections
D. Varying solid and hollow sections
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The metal extrusion process is generally used for producing uniform solid and hollow sections.
Extrusion is a process used to create objects of a fixed cross-sectional profile.
A material is pushed through a die of the desired cross-section.
The extrusion process can be done with the material hot or cold.
42.The flux commonly used in brazing is
A. Zinc chloride
B. Ammonium chloride
C. Resin plus alcohol
D. Borax
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The flux commonly used in brazing is Borax
A flux is required for all brazing and soldering applications.
The purpose of the flux is to remove oxides from the base material and to prevent oxidation during the heating process,
thus promoting the free flow of the brazing filler metal
43 The centrifugal casting method, is used for casting articles of
A. Symmetrical shape about vertical axis
B. Symmetrical shape about horizontal axis
C. Irregular shape
D. Nonferrous metal only
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The centrifugal casting method, is used for casting articles of Symmetrical shape about horizontal axis
44.A casting defect which results in general enlargement of a casting is known
as
A. Shift
B. Sand wash
C. Swell
D. Scab
Answer: Option C
Solution:
A swell occurs when the mold wall gives way across a whole face, and is caused by an improperly rammed mold.
Burn-on occurs when metallic oxides interact with impurities in silica sands.
The result is sand particles embedded in the surface of the finished casting.
45.A casting defect which occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the
surface of a casting is known as
A. Shift
B. Sand wash
C. Swell
D. Scab
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A casting defect which occurs near the ingates as rough lumps on the surface of a casting is known as Sand wash
46.When the molten metal is fed in the cavity of a metallic mould by gravity,
the method of casting is known as
A. Die casting method
B. Slush casting method
C. Permanent mould casting method
D. Centrifugal casting method
Answer: Option C
Solution:
When the molten metal is fed in the cavity of a metallic mould by gravity, the method of casting is known as Permanent
mould casting method
47.Swab is used for

A. Smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould
B. Cleaning the moulding sand
C. Moistening the sand around the edge before removing pattern
D. Reinforcement of sand in the top part of the moulding box
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Swab is a hemp fiber brush used for moistening the edges of sand mould, which are in contact with the pattern surface,
before withdrawing the pattern.
It is also used for coating the liquid blacking on the mould faces in dry sand moulds.
48.The shrinkage allowance for cast iron pattern is
A. 10 mm/m
B. 16 mm/m
C. 20 mm/m
D. 26 mm/m
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The shrinkage allowance for cast iron pattern is 10 mm/m
49.The advantage of thermit welding is that
A. All parts of the weld section are molten at the same time
B. Weld cools almost uniformly
C. Results in a minimum problem with internal residual stresses
D. All of the above
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Advantages of thermit welding is listed below:
• The weld formed has high mechanical strength
• Excellent corrosion resistance as compared with other forms of weld
• It is highly stable to repeated short circuit pulses
• The electrical resistance remains unchanged over lifetime of the installation
• All parts of the weld section are molten at the same time
• Weld cools almost uniformly
• Results in a minimum problem with internal residual stresses
50.When the dimension is expressed as 20 -0.025 ⁺⁰∙⁰³⁵, then the basic size is
A. 20 mm
B. 20.035 mm
C. 20.025 mm
D. 19.975 mm
Answer: Option A
Solution:
When the dimension is expressed as 20 -0.025 ⁺⁰∙⁰³⁵, then the basic size is 20 mm
1.Acetylene gas is stored in cylinders in
A. Solid form
B. Gaseous form
C. Liquid form
D. Any one of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Acetylene gas is stored in cylinders in Liquid form
2.Loam sand is a mixture of
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Loam sand is a mixture of 50% sand and 50% clay
3.Green sand is a mixture of
Answer: Option C, Green sand is a mixture of 70% sand and 30% clay
4.The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be
A. Equal to minor diameter of the thread
B. Equal to pitch diameter of the thread
C. A little larger than the minor diameter of the thread
D. A little larger than the pitch diameter of the thread
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The blank diameter used in thread rolling will be A little larger than the minor diameter of the thread
5.The operation of cutting of a flat sheet to the desired shape is called
A. Shearing
B. Piercing
C. Punching
D. Blanking
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The operation of cutting of a flat sheet to the desired shape is called Blanking
61.When more volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen is supplied,
then a ________ flame is obtained.
A. Neutral
B. Oxidizing
C. Carburizing
D. None of these
Answer: Option C
Solution:
When more volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen is supplied, then a Carburizing flame is obtained.
Carburizing flame is one with little oxygen, which produces a sooty, lower-temperature flame. It is often used to anneal
metal, making it more malleable and flexible during the welding process.
62. In permanent mould casting method
A. Molten metal is poured in a metallic mould, retained in the mould long enough for the outer skin to solidify and
finally mould is turned over to remove molten metal still in molten condition
B. Molten metal is poured and allowed to solidify while the mould is revolving
C. Molten metal is forced into mould under high pressure
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Permanent mold casting is a metal casting process that employs reusable molds , usually made from metal.
The most common process uses gravity to fill the mold, however gas pressure or a vacuum are also used.
63 Cutting and forming operations can be performed in a single operation in a
A. Simple die
B. Progressive die
C. Compound die
D. Combination die
Answer: Option D
Solution:
It is difficult from compound die in that in this die, a cutting operation is combined with a bending or drawing operation,
due to that it is called combination die
64.The process of decreasing the cross-section of a bar and increasing its
length, is called
A. Drawing down
B. Upsetting
C. Spinning
D. Peening
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The process of decreasing the cross-section of a bar and increasing its length, is called Drawing down
65.The process of increasing the cross-section of a bar at the expense of its
length, is called
A. Drawing down
B. Upsetting
C. Spinning
D. Peening
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The process of increasing the cross-section of a bar at the expense of its length is known as upsetting.
Upsetting involves squeezing the billet between two flat- surfaces, thus reducing its height due to the increase in the
cross-sectional area.
56.The electrodes used in spot welding have a tip of
A. Stainless steel
B. Aluminium
C. Copper
D. Brass
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The electrodes are one of the most important factors in the resistance welding process but often the most abused. It is
important to consider the electrode material, shape, size, tip profile and cooling.
The electrodes used in spot welding have a tip of Copper.
57.The cold chisels are made by
A. Drawing
B. Rolling
C. Piercing
D. Forging
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Cold chisels are forged to shape and hardened and tempered at the cutting edge.
Although the vast majority of cold chisels are made of steel, a few are manufactured from beryllium copper, for use in
special situations where non-sparking tools are required.
58.The minimum size of a bloom is
A. 5 cm × 5 cm
B. 10 cm × 10 cm
C. 15 cm × 15 cm
D. 20 cm × 20 cm
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The minimum size of a bloom is 15 cm × 15 cm
59.When the file is moved to and fro over the work, it is known as
A. Cross filing
B. Draw filing
C. Pull and push filing
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Draw filing is a technique used for producing smooth, square edges, particularly on pieces of metal.
The process works by moving any type of single cut file forwards and backwards along the length of the material's edge
60.The binder commonly used in making oil sand, is
A. Clay type binder
B. Organic type binder
C. Inorganic type binder
D. Any one of these
Answer: Option B
Solution:
An organic binder is an organic ingredient used to bind together two or more other materials in mixtures.
Its two principal properties are adhesion and cohesion. Organic Binder Materials,
Physical State Binder Types: water, oil, and sodium silicate.
52 In a compound die
A. Only one operation is performed at each stroke of the ram
B. Two or more operations are performed simultaneously at the single stroke of the ram
C. Two or more cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in every stroke of the ram
D. Both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in every stroke of the ram
Answer: Option C
Solution:
In a compound die Two or more cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in every stroke of the ram
53.In a simple die
A. Two or more operations are performed simultaneously at the single stroke of the ram
B. Two or more cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in every stroke of the ram
C. Both cutting and non-cutting operations are performed at one station of the press in every stroke of the ram
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Simple dies or single action dies perform single operation for each stroke of the press slide.
The operation may be one of the operation listed under cutting or forming dies
54.Linde welding uses

A. Neutral flame and rightward technique
B. Oxidizing flame and leftward technique
C. Neutral flame and leftward technique
D. Carburising flame and rightward technique
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Linde welding uses Carburising flame and rightward technique
55.A neutral flame is obtained by supplying
A. Equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene
B. More volume of oxygen and less volume of acetylene
C. More volume of acetylene and less volume of oxygen
Answer: Option A
Solution:
A neutral flame is obtained by supplying an Equal volumes of oxygen and acetylene
46.A basic hole is one whose
A. Lower deviation is zero
B. Upper deviation is zero
C. Lower and upper deviations are zero
D. None of these
Answer: Option A
Solution:
A basic hole is one whose Lower deviation is zero
Upper Deviation: It is the algebraic difference between the maximum size and the basic size. The upper deviation of a
hole is represented by a symbol ES and of a shaft, it is represented by es.
Lower Deviation: It is the algebraic difference between the minimum size and the basic size.
47.In spot welding, the distance between the nearest edge of the plate and
centre of weld should be equal to
A. d
B. 1.5 d
C. 3d
D. 6d
Answer: Option B
Solution:
In spot welding, the distance between the nearest edge of the plate and centre of weld should be equal to 1.5 d
48.The welding set up is said to have straight polarity, when
A. Work is connected to the positive terminal and the electrode holder to the negative terminal
B. Work is connected to the negative terminal and the electrode holder to the positive terminal
C. Work is connected to the positive terminal and the electrode holder is earthed
D. Work is connected to the negative terminal and the electrode holder is earthed
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The welding set up is said to have straight polarity, when Work is connected to the positive terminal and the electrode
holder to the negative terminal
49.The algebraic difference between the minimum limit and the basic size is
called
A. Actual deviation
B. Upper deviation
C. Lower deviation
D. Fundamental deviation
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The algebraic difference between the minimum limit and the basic size is called Lower deviation
50.Riddle is used for
A. Smoothing and cleaning out depressions in the mould
B. Cleaning the moulding sand
C. Moistening the sand around the edge before removing pattern
D. Reinforcement of sand in the top part of moulding box
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A riddle is typically used to improve soil quality by allowing the gardener to sieve through soil and remove stones, twigs,
large lumps of clay etc. and hence provide a finer tilth.
Riddles may also be used to help remove soil from harvested vegetables.
41.The upsetting is a process of
A. Increasing the cross-section of a bar
B. Reducing the cross-section of a bar
C. Joining the two surfaces of metal under pressure after heating
D. Bending of a bar
Answer: Option A
Solution:
Upsetting of metals is a deformation process in which a billet is compressed between two dies in a press or a hammer.
This operation reduces the height of a part while increasing its diameter. The process is mostly used as an intermediate
step in multiple step forging operations
42.A pattern maker's shrinkage rule considers
A. All pattern allowances
B. Only shrinkage allowance
C. All materials to be cast
D. All materials of the pattern
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A pattern maker's shrinkage rule considers Only shrinkage allowance
43.In welding copper alloys with TIG arc welding
A. Direct current with straight polarity is used
B. Direct current with reversed polarity is used
C. Alternating current is used
D. Any one of these
Answer: Option A
Solution:
In welding copper alloys with TIG arc welding Direct current with straight polarity is used
Copper and copper-base alloys have specific properties which make them widely used. Their high electrical conductivity
enable their use in the electrical industries, and the corrosion resistance of certain alloys makes them very useful in the
process industries.
44.According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that.
A. Basic size is 100 mm
B. Actual size is 100 mm
C. Difference between the actual size and basic size is 100 mm
Answer: Option A
Solution:
According to Indian standard specifications, 100 H6/g5 means that the Basic size is 100 mm
45.A basic shaft is one whose
A. Lower deviation is zero
B. Upper deviation is zero
C. Lower and upper deviations are zero
D. None of these
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A basic shaft is one whose Upper deviation is zero
Upper Deviation: It is the algebraic difference between the maximum size and the basic size. The upper deviation of a
hole is represented by a symbol ES and of a shaft, it is represented by es.
Lower Deviation: It is the algebraic difference between the minimum size and the basic size.
31.The casting method adopted for ornaments and toys of nonferrous alloys, is
A. Permanent mould casting
B. Slush casting
C. Die casting
D. Centrifugal casting
Answer: Option B
Solution:
Slush Casting is a traditional method of permanent mold casting process, where the molten metal is not allowed to
completely solidify in the mold. When the desired thickness in obtained, the remaining molten metal in poured out.
32.The tolerance produced by shell moulding process of casting is
A. +0.05 mm
B. ±0.2 mm
C. +0.5 mm
D. ±1 mm
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The tolerance produced by shell moulding process of casting is ±0.2 mm
33.In order to get uniform thickness of the plate by rolling process, one
provides
A. Camber on the rolls
B. Offset on the rolls
C. Hardening of the rolls
D. Antifriction bearings
Answer: Option A
No explanation is given for this question Let's Discuss on Board
34.The operation of straightening a curved sheet metal, is known as
A. Drawing
B. Squeezing
C. Coining
D. Planishing
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The operation of straightening a curved sheet metal, is known as Planishing
35.The operation of producing cup shaped parts from flat sheet metal blanks
by bending and plastic flow of metal, is known as
A. Drawing
B. Squeezing
C. Coining
D. Planishing
Answer: Option A
Solution:
The operation of producing cup shaped parts from flat sheet metal blanks by bending and plastic flow of metal, is known
as Drawing
26.The instrument used to measure external and internal diameter of shafts,

thickness of parts and depth of holes, is
A. Outside micrometer
B. Inside micrometer
C. Depth gauge micrometer
D. Vernier caliper
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The instrument used to measure external and internal diameter of shafts, thickness of parts and depth of holes, is
Vernier caliper
27.According to Indian standards, the total numbers of tolerance grades are
A. 8
B. 12
C. 18
D. 20
Answer: Option C
Solution:
According to Indian standards, the total numbers of tolerance grades are 18
28.Metal patterns are used for
A. Small castings
B. Large castings
C. Complicated castings
D. Large scale production of castings
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Patterns come in many materials, including wood, metal, plastics, and wax. The pattern material is chosen based on the
casting volume and process used. Wood and metal patterns are usually used with sand casting, while wax is rarely used
for anything but investment casting.
29.The machining allowance provided on patterns depends upon
A. Type of casting metal
B. Size and shape of casting
C. Method of casting used
D. All of these
Answer: Option D
Solution:
The machining allowance provided on patterns depends upon the Type of casting metal and the Size and shape of
casting and Method of casting used
30.The metal patterns as compared to wooden patterns require less
A. Shrinkage allowance
B. Machining allowance
C. Draft allowance
D. Distortion allowance
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Draft Allowance: by draft is meant the taper provided by the pattern maker on all vertical surfaces of the pattern so that
it can be removed from the sand without tearing away the sides of the sand mold and without excessive rapping by the
molder.
The metal patterns as compared to wooden patterns require less draft allowance.
21.In shielded arc welding
A. Large electrode is used
B. Welding rod coated with slag is used
C. Welding rod coated with fluxing material is used
Answer: Option C
Solution:
Shielded metal arc welding (SMAW), also known as manual metal arc welding (MMA or MMAW), flux shielded arc
welding or informally as stick welding, is a manual arc welding process that uses a consumable electrode covered with a
flux to lay the weld.
22.The cold chisels are made from
A. Cast iron
B. Mild steel
C. High speed steel
D. Cast tool steel
Answer: Option D
Solution:
Cold chisels are made from carbon tool-steel, which is usually octagonal in cross-section.
Tool-steel is used as it can be hardened to form a hard and tough cutting edge.
To make a cold chisel heat the end of the bar of tool steel until it is bright red and hammer to the desired shape.
23.A three high rolling mill consists of three rolls placed one above the other.
Which of the following statement is correct?
A. The upper and middle rolls rotate in the same direction whereas the bottom roll rotates in opposite direction
B. The upper and bottom rolls rotate in the same direction whereas the middle roll rotates in opposite direction
C. The bottom and middle roll rotate in the same direction
D. Any one of the above
Answer: Option B
Solution:
A three high rolling mill consists of three rolls placed one above the other and the upper and bottom rolls rotate in the
same direction whereas the middle roll rotates in opposite direction
24.The maximum flame temperature occurs

A. At the outer cone
B. At the inner cone
C. Between the outer and inner cone
D. At the torch tip
Answer: Option B
Solution:
The maximum flame temperature occurs At the inner cone
25.The temperature produced by oxy-hydrogen flame is about
A. 1800°C
B. 2100°C
C. 2400°C
D. 3200°C
Answer: Option C
Solution:
The temperature produced by oxy-hydrogen flame is about 2400°C
This gaseous mixture is used for torches to process refractory materials and was the first gaseous mixture used for
welding.

Mechanical Engineering

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mechanical Engineering

Uploaded by

Document Information

Original Title

Copyright

Available Formats

Share this document

Share or Embed Document

Sharing Options

Did you find this document useful?

Is this content inappropriate?

Copyright:

Available Formats

Mechanical Engineering

Uploaded by

Copyright:

Available Formats

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING

1. Which manufacturing process includes the powder metallurgy?

2. Which of the following is not included in forming and shaping process?

4. Casting includes grinding process.

5. Brazing is a type of metal joining process.

7. Which of the following processes are included in finishing?

8. Machining process deals with drawing.

9. Which of the following is not the type of finishing process?

10. Which of the following is not the type of joining process?

12. Which of the following is the type of temporary joining process?

13. In ____type of manufacturing process, material is wasted. It is in the form of chips.

17 Which of the following is the type of the recent welding process?

20 In which type of operation, motion of cutting tool is rotary as well as translating?

21 Which type of cutting tools have wide application on lathes?

23 Which of the following is an example of non cutting shaping process?

24 Which of the following is the example of cutting shaping process?

25 In how many groups, various metal working processes can be classified?

30 Which of the following does all the work of lathe machine?

31 Which of the following is the type of lathe machine?

32 DNC stands for_____

33 Machine tools can be classified as _____

35 Which type of surface is produced by turning operation in lathe machine?

36 What is the necessary condition for turning?

37 Traversing of tool parallel to the axis of job is termed as_____

38 In taper operation, which type of surface is produced?

39 Which type of feed is needed in turning operation?

42. Wheel lathe is the type of ____

43. Wood working lathe is the type of ____

44. Geared lathe is the type of____

45. Belt driven lathe is the type of____

47. Spinning lathe is the type of____

48. Which of the following is the type of engine lathe?

49. Which of the following is special purpose lathe?

50. Which of the following is the example of speed lathe?

51. Which of the following is the type of lathe?

53 Which of the following provides foundation for the whole machine?

55 In which slant angles, the slant bed design is offered?

57 In which type of bed, a heavy machine along with a smaller

59 Cone pulley drive without back gear arrangement means_____

60. Cone pulley drive with back gear arrangement means_____

61. Which of the following mounted on the bush bearing?

62 . The back gear unit has a shaft, which carries _____

65. Offset of tailstock is done for_____

66. Realign of tailstock center is done for_____

72. Spindle is fitted with_____

73 The spindle was directly driven by_____ in later machine.

74. The spindle was directly driven by_____ in older machine.

75 In how many parts, compound rest can be classified?

77 How many types of movements are possible in carriage?

78. Which type of operation is possible for the top slide?

80. Which of the following is not true for compound rest?

81. In compound rest, the screw-rod is fitted with_____

88. For large positive back rake angle, tool will be

89. For large negative back rake angle, tool will be

90. Which of the following will give better chip flow?

95. With an increase in rake angle of tool, tool life will

100. With an increase in rake angle of tool, tool life will

103. Mechanical chipping may occur in which of the following tool?

106. Which of the following is correct about crater wear?