Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions

criminology board exam reviewer
Criminal Jurisprudence Review Questions

1. Berto, with evident premeditation and treachery killed his father.
What was the crime committed?
A. Murder
B. Parricide
C. Homicide
D. Quali ed Homicide
Answer: B
2. PO3 Bagsik entered the dwelling of Totoy against the latter’s will
on suspicion that Bitoy keep unlicensed rearms
in his home. What was the crime committed by PO3 Bagsik?
A. Trespass to Dwelling
B. Violation of Domicile
C. Usurpation Of Authority
D. Forcible Trespassing
Answer: B
3. Charlie and Lea had been married for more than 6 months.They
live together with the children of Lea from her rst husband.
Charlie had sexual relation with Jane, the 14 year old daughter of
Lea.Jane loves Charlie very much.What was the crime committed
by Charlie?
A. Simple Seduction
B. Quali ed Seduction
C. Consented Abduction
D. Rape
Answer: B

4. Prof. Jose gave a failing grade to one of his students, Lito. When
the two met the following day, Lito slapped
Prof. Jose on the face. What was the crime committed by Lito?
A. Corruption of Public O cials
B. Direct Assault
C. Slight Physical Injuries
D. Grave Coercion
Answer: B
5. A warrant of arrest was issued against Fred for the killing of his
parents. When PO2 Tapang tried to arrest him,Fred gave him 1
million pesos to set him free. PO2 Tapang refrained in arresting
Fred. What was the crime committed by PO2 Tapang?
A. Indirect Bribery
B. Direct Bribery
C. Corruption of Public O cials
D. Quali ed Bribery
Answer: D
6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made

under the consciousness of an impending death?
A. Parol Evidence
B. Ante mortem statement
C. Suicide note
D. Dead man statute
Answer: D
7. Factum probans means __.

A. preponderance of evidence
B. ultimate fact
C. evidentiary fact
D. su ciency of evidence
Answer: C
8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

generation to another.
A. inheritance
B. heritage
C. pedigree
D. culture
Answer: C
9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the

rst instance.
A. Appellate Jurisdiction
B. General Jurisdiction
C. Original Jurisdiction
D. Exclusive Jurisdiction
Answer: C
10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

A. Counsel de o cio
B. Attorney on record
C. Attorney at law
D. Special counsel Answer: A
11. Which of the following is not covered by the Rules on Summary
Procedure?
A. Violation of rental laws
B. Violation of tra c laws
C. The penalty is more than six months of imprisonment
D. The penalty does not exceed six months imprisonment
Answer: C
12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to

be exercised.
A. jurisdiction
B. jurisprudence
C. venue
D. bench
Answer: C
13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

A. RA 6425
B. RA 8353
C. BP.22
D. RA 6975 Answer: C
14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to

gain, by means of force and intimidation.
A. quali ed theft
B. robbery
C. theft
D. malicious mischief
Answer: B
15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of

force, violence or intimidation to do something against his will,
whether right or wrong.
A. grave threat
B. grave coercion
C. direct assault
D. slander by deed
Answer: B
16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but

have the physical ability to work and neglect to apply himself or
herself to lawful calling.
A. Pimps
B. prostitutes
C. gang members
D. vagrants
Answer: D
17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant

noises designed to annoy and insult.
A. Tumultuous
B. charivari
C. sedition
D. scandal
Answer: B
18. The unauthorized act of a public o cer who compels another

person to change his residence.
A. violation of domicile
B. arbitrary detention
C. expulsion
D. direct assault
Answer: C
19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another

person without legal grounds.
A. illegal detention
C. forcible abduction
D. forcible detention
Answer: A
20. An o ense committed by a married woman through carnal

knowledge with a man not her husband who knows her to be
married, although the marriage can be later declared void.
A. concubinage
B. bigamy
C. adultery
D. immorality
Answer: C
21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

A. 15-18 years old
B. 18-70 years old
C. 9 years old and below
D. between 9 and 15 years old
Answer: C
22. Those who, not being principals cooperate in the execution of
the o ense by previous or simultaneous acts.
A. Accomplices
B. Suspects
C. principal actors
D. accessories
Answer: A
23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute

the nal sentence after the lapse of a certaintime xed by law.
A. prescription of crime
B. prescription of prosecution
C. prescription of judgement
D. prescription of penalty
Answer: D
24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty

is suspended.
A. Pardon
B. commutation
C. amnesty
D. reprieve
Answer: D
25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a

more orderly regulation of the a airs of the society.
A. mala prohibita
B. mala in se
C. private crimes
D. public crimes
Answer: A
26. Felony committed by a public o cer who agrees to commit an

act in consideration of a gift and this act is connected with the
discharge of his public duties.
A. quali ed bribery
B. direct bribery
C. estafa
D. indirect bribery
Answer: B
27. The willful and corrupt
assertion of falsehood under oath of
a rmation, administered by authority of law on a material matter.
A. libel
B. falsi cation
C. perjury
D. slander
Answer: C
28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

A. Treachery
B. evident premeditation
C. ignominy
D. cruelty
Answer: B
29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted

together in the commission of a crime.
A. gang
B. conspiracy
C. band
D. piracy
Answer: C
30. The failure to perform a positive duty which one is bound to.
A. Negligence
B. imprudence
C. omission
D. act
Answer: C
31. Ways and means are employed for the purpose of trapping and
capturing the law breaker in the execution of his criminal plan.
A. Misfeasance
B. entrapment
C. inducement
D. instigation
Answer: B
32. Those where the act committed is a crime but for reasons of
public policy and sentiment there is no penalty imposed.
A. impossible crimes
B. aggravating circumstances
C. absolutory causes
D. Complex Crimes
Answer: C

33. One of the following is an alternative circumstance.
A. Insanity
B. intoxication
C. passion or obfuscation
D. evident premeditation
Answer: B
34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

what shall be entered for him?
A. a plea of not guilty
B. a plea of guilty
C. a plea of mercy
D. a plea of surrender
Answer: A
35. At what time may the accused move to quash the complaint or
information?
A. at any time before his arrest
B. only after entering his plea
C. any time before entering his plea
D. Monday morning
Answer: C

36. The process whereby the accused and the prosecutor in a
criminal case work out a mutually satisfactory
disposition on the case subject to court approval.
A. Arraignment
B. plea bargaining
C. preliminary investigation
D. trial
Answer: B
37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,

furnished by him or a bondsman, conditioned upon his
appearance before any court as required under the conditions
speci ed by law.
A. Subpoena
B. recognizance
C. bail
D. warrant
Answer: C
38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the

laws of the land, of the acts in issue in a case, for the purpose
of determining such issue.
A. Trial
B. Arraignment
C. pre-trial
D. judgment
Answer: A
39. The adjudication by the court that the accused is guilty or is not
guilty of the o ense charged, and the imposition of the proper
penalty and
A. trial
B. Pre-trial
C. Arraignment
D. Judgment
Answer: D
40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining

whether there is su cient ground to engender a well founded
belief that an o ense has been committed and the o ender is
probably guilty thereof and should be held for trial.
A. pre-trial
B. arraignment
C. preliminary investigation
D. plea bargaining
Answer: C
41. It is evidence of the same kind and to the same state of facts.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence
Answer: C
42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

su cient to maintain the proposition a rmed.
A. secondary evidence
B. prima facie evidence
C. corroborative evidence
D. best evidence
Answer: B
43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived

from conventional symbols, such as letters, by
which ideas are represented on material substances.
A. documentary evidence
B. testimonial evidence
C. material evidence
D. real evidence
Answer: A

44. When the witness states that he did not see or know the
occurrence of a fact.
A. positive evidence
B. corroborative evidence
C. secondary evidence
D. negative evidence
Answer: D
45. Personal property that can be subjects for search and seizure.
A. used or intended to be used as means in committing an
o ense
B. stolen or embezzled and other proceeds or fruits of the
o ense
C. subject of the o ense
D. all of the above
Answer: D
46. All persons who can perceive and perceiving, can make known
their perception to others.
A. Suspects
B. witnesses
C. victims
D. informers
Answer: B
47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of

human fetus before the natural time of birth which results in
death.
A. abortion
B. infanticide
C. murder
D. parricide
Answer: A
48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the

confusion attendant to a quarrel among several persons not
organized into groups and the parties responsible cannot be
ascertained.
A. alarm and scandal
B. mysterious homicide
C. death under exceptional circumstances
D. tumultuous a ray
Answer: D

49. A question which arises in a case the resolution of which is the
logical antecedent of the issue involved in said case and the
cognizance of which pertains to another tribunal.
A. legal question
B. juridical question
C. prejudicial question
D. judicial question
Answer: C
50. The RPC was based on the

A. Spanish penal code
B. English penal code
C. American penal code
D. Japanese penal code
Answer: A
51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts

that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. impossible crime
B. mistake of facts
C. accidental crime
D. complex crime
Answer: B
52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

A. 36 hours
B. 24 hours
C. 48 hours
D. 72 hours
Answer: D

53. Ignorance of the law excuses no one from compliance therewith.
A. ignorantia legis non excusat
B. parens patriae
C. res ipsa loquitur
D. dura lex sed lex
Answer: A
54. An act which would be an o ense against persons or property if
it was not for the inherent impossibility of its accomplishment.
A. compound crime
B. impossible crime
C. complex crime
D. accidental crime
Answer: B
55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.

A. RA 5425
B. RA 8553
C. RA 7659
D. RA 8551
Answer: C
56. One who is deprived completely of reason or discernment and
freedom of the will at the time of the commission of the crime.
A. discernment
B. insanity
C. epilepsy
D. imbecility
Answer: D
57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its

owner or author
A. responsibility
B. duty
C. guilt
D. imputability
Answer: D
58. Something that happen outside the sway of our will, and
although it comes about through some acts of our will,
lies beyond the bound s of humanly foreseeable consequences.
A. fortuitous event
B. fate
C. accident
D. destiny
Answer: C
59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an

o ense,subscribed by the o ended party, any peace
o cer or other public o cer charged with the enforcement of
the law violated.
A. subpoena
B. information
C. complaint
D. writ
Answer: C
60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice

and is intended not to protect the guilty but to prevent as far as
human agencies can the conviction of an innocent person.
A. right to due process of law
B. presumption of innocence
C. right to remain silent
D. right against self-incrimination
Answer: B
61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,

practices,usages and rules of action which are not
recognized in our country.
A. penal laws
B. special laws
C. common laws
D. statutory laws
Answer: C
62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the

crime any of all the conditions that would make
an act voluntary and hence, though there is no criminal liability
there is civil liability.
A. Exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
Answer: A
63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance

with the law, and hence, he incurs no criminal and civil liability.
A. exempting
B. alternative
C. justifying
D. aggravating
Answer: C
64. When the o ender enjoys and delights in making his victim
su ers slowly and gradually, causing him unnecessary physical
pain in the consummation of the criminal act.
A. Ignominy
B. cruelty
C. treachery
D. masochism
Answer: B

65. One, who at the time of his trial for one crime shall have been
previously convicted by nal judgment of another crime embraced
in the same title of the Revised Penal Code.
A. Recidivism
B. habitual delinquency
C. reiteracion
D. quasi-recidivism
Answer: A
66. Alevosia means

A. Craft
B. treachery
C. evident premeditation
D. cruelty
Answer: B
67. The law hears before it condemns, proceeds upon inquiry and
render judgment after a fair trial.
A. ex post facto law
B. equal protection of the law
C. rule of law
D. due process of law
Answer: D
68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his

release or last conviction of the crime of serious or less serious
physical injuries, robbery, theft, estafa or falsi cation, he is
found guilty of any of the said crimes a third time or oftener.
A. Recidivist
B. quasi-recidivist
C. habitual delinquent
D. hardened criminal
Answer: C
69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive
Answer: D

70. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.
A. Primary
B. Best
C. Secondary
D. Conclusive
Answer: D
71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

examining party requires.
A. leading
B. misleading
C. stupid
D. hearsay
Answer: A
72. A method xed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of

persons alleged to have committed a crime, and
or their punishment in case of conviction
A. Criminal Law
B. Criminal Evidence
C. Criminal Procedure
D. Criminal Jurisprudence
Answer: C
73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

A. 20 years
B. 15 years
C. 10 years
D. 40 years
Answer: A
74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

A. Accomplices
B. Accessories
C. Instigators
D. Principals
Answer: D
75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act

which casts dishonor, discredit, or contempt upon another
person.
A. libel
B. slander by deed
C. incriminating innocent person
D. intriguing against honor
Answer: B
76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be

done.
A. misfeasance
B. malfeasance
C. nonfeasance
D. dereliction
Answer: B
77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an

authorized magistrate or o cer.
A. subpoena
B. writ
C. warrant
D. a davit
Answer: D
78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself

without authority of law.
A. alias
B. common name
C. ctitious name
D. screen name
Answer: C

79. A special aggravating circumstance where a person, after having
been convicted by nal judgment, shall commit a new felony
before beginning to serve such sentence, or while serving
the same.
A. quasi-recidivism
B. recidivism
C. reiteracion
D. charivari
Answer: A
80. Which of the following is not a person in authority?

A. Municipal mayor
B. Private School Teacher
C. Police O cer
D. Municipal Councilor
Answer: C
81. In its general sense, it is the raising of commotions or
disturbances in the State.
A. Sedition
B. Rebellion
C. Treason
D. Coup d’ etat
Answer: A
82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

A. 30 days
B. 15 days
C. 10 days
D. 60 days
Answer: C
83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public

o cer or employee.
A. illegal detention
C. compulsory detention
D. unauthorized detention
Answer: B
84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person

who owes allegiance to it.
A. treason
B. espionage
C. rebellion
D. coup d’ etat
Answer: A
85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

A. sanctuary
B. prison
C. jail
D. dwelling
Answer: D
86. The mental capacity to understand the di erence between right

and wrong.
A. treachery
B. premeditation
C. recidivism
D. discernment
Answer: D
87. Conspiracy to commit this felony is punishable under the law.

A. Estafa
B. Murder
C. Rebellion
D. Rape
Answer: C
88. It means that the resulting injury is greater than that which is
intended.
A. Aberratio ictus
B. Error in personae
C. Dura Lex Sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem
Answer: D
89. It means mistake in the blow.

A. Aberratio Ictus
B. Error in Personae
C. Dura lex sed lex
D. Praeter Intentionem
Answer: A
90. A stage of execution when all the elements necessary for its
execution and accomplishment are present.
A. Attempted
B. Frustrated
C. Consummated
D. Accomplished
answer: C

91. An act or omission which is the result of a misapprehension of
facts that is voluntary but not intentional.
A. Absolutory Cause
B. Mistake of facts
C. Conspiracy
D. Felony
Answer: B

92. Crimes that have three stages of execution.
A. Material
B. Formal
C. Seasonal
D. Continuing
Answer: A
93. Felonies where the acts or omissions of the o ender are

malicious.
A. Culpable
B. Intentional
C. Deliberate
D. Inculpable
Answer: B

94. It indicates de ciency of perception.
A. Negligence
B. Diligence
C. Imprudence
D. Inference
Answer: A
95. Acts and omissions punishable by special penal laws.

A. O enses
B. Misdemeanors
C. Felonies
D. Ordinances
Answer: A

96. A character of Criminal Law, making it binding upon all persons
who live or sojourn in the Philippines.
A. General
B. Territorial
C. Prospective
D. Retroactive
Answer: A
97. A legislative act which in icts punishment without judicial trial.

A. Bill of Attainder
B. Bill of Rights
C. Ex Post Facto Law
D. Penal Law
Answer: A

98. The taking of a person into custody in order that he may be
bound to answer for the commission of an o ense.
A. Search
B. Seizure
C. Arrest
D. Detention
Answer: C
99. Pedro stole the cow of Juan. What was the crime committed?
A. Robbery
B. Farm Theft
C. Quali ed Theft
D. Simple Theft
Answer: C
100.Pedro, a 19 year old man had sexual intercourse with her 11 year
old girlfriend without threat, force or intimidation. What was
the crime committed?
A. Child rape
B. Quali ed Rape
C. Statutory Rape
D. None of these
Answer: C
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6. Which of the following is the exemption to the hearsy rule made

7. Factum probans means __.

8. It refers to family history or descent transmitted from one

9. The authority of the court to take cognizance of the case in the

10.A person designated by the court to assist destitute litigants.

12. It refers to a territorial unit where the power of the court is to

13.The Anti-Bouncing Check Law.

14. The taking of another person’s personal property, with intent to

15. Felony committed when a person compels another by means of

16. These are persons having no apparent means of subsistence but

17. A medley of discordant voices, a mock serenade of discordant

18. The unauthorized act of a public o cer who compels another

19. The deprivation of a private person of the liberty of another

20. An o ense committed by a married woman through carnal

21. Age of absolute irresponsibility in the commission of a crime.

23. The loss or forfeiture of the right of the government to execute

24. A kind of executive clemency whereby the execution of penalty

25. Infractions of mere rules of convenience designed to secure a

26. Felony committed by a public o cer who agrees to commit an

28. Deliberate planning of act before execution.

29. Whenever more than 3 armed malefactors shall have acted

34. If the accused refuse to plead, or make conditional plea of guilty,

37. The security given for the release of a person in custody,

38. The examination before a competent tribunal, according to the

40. It is an inquiry or proceeding for the purpose of determining

42. It is that which, standing alone, unexplained or uncontradicted is

43. A form of evidence supplied by written instruments or derived

47. The unlawful destruction or the bringing forth prematurely, of

48. Felony committed when a person is killed or wounded during the

50. The RPC was based on the

51. An act or omission which is a result of a misapprehension of facts

52. Infanticide is committed by killing a child not more than….

55. The law which reimposed the death penalty.

57. The quality by which an act may be subscribed to a person as its

59. A sworn written statement charging a person with an

60. This right of the accused is founded on the principle of justice

61. Known in other countries as the body of principles,

62. Circumstances wherein there is an absence in the agent of the

63. Circumstances wherein the acts of the person are in accordance

66. Alevosia means

68. A person if within a period of 10 years from the date of his

69. A kind of evidence which cannot be rebutted or overcome.

71. These questions suggest to the witness the answers to which an

72. A method xed by law for the apprehension and prosecution of

73. The period of prescription of crimes punishable by death.

74. Persons who take direct part in the execution of a crime.

75. A crime against honor which is committed by performing any act

76. The improper performance of some act which might lawfully be

77. A sworn statement in writing, made upon oath before an

78. Any other name which a person publicly applies to himself

80. Which of the following is not a person in authority?

82. The length of validity of a search warrant from its date.

83. The detention of a person without legal grounds by a public

84. A breach of allegiance to a government, committed by a person

85. A building or structure, exclusively used for rest and comfort.

86. The mental capacity to understand the di erence between right