Latihan Soal &

Pembahasan

Tim Damigo Books

Latihan Soal & Pembahasan TOEFL

Penyusun : Tim Damigo Books

Perancang Isi : Tim Damigo Books

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DAMIGO BOOKS
Puri Sewon Asri Blok E No. 14
RT. 002, Prancak Glondong, Panggungharjo, Sewon, Bantul,
Yogyakarta 55188
Telp. (0274) 2871608
0877 1150 3001
Email: [email protected]
www.andalimanbooks.com

146 halaman, 19 x 26 cm
Hak cipta dilindungi oleh undang-undang.
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atau seluruh isi buku ini tanpa izin tertulis
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Undang-Undang RI Nomor 28 Tahun 2014

Tentang Hak Cipta
Pasal 133
3. Setiap orang yang dengan tanpa hak dan/atau
tanpa izin pencipta atau pemegang hak cipta
melakukan pelanggaran hak ekonomi pencipta
sebagaimana dimaksud dalam pasal 9 ayat (1)
huruf a, huruf b, huruf e, dan/atau huruf g untuk
penggunaan secara komersial dipidana dengan
pidana penjara paling lama 4 (empat) tahun
dan/atau pidana denda paling banyak
Rp1.000.000.000,00 (satu miliar rupiah).
TEST AND
ANSWER UNIT
 TEST
UNIT
1

206 Maximum Score; TOEFL Skills Booster

 SOAL UJI COBA TOEFL ITP
UJI COBA TOEFL

SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 35 Minutes Pindai QR Code di atas
untuk memperoleh
50 Questions audio listening

Part A
Directions
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two speakers. At the end of each conversa-
tion, a third voice will ask a question about what was said. The question will be spoken just one
time. After you hear a conversation and the question about it, read the four possible answers
and decide which one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your
answer sheet, find the number of the problem and mark your answer.
Listen to an example.
On the recording, you will hear:
(Man) : Do you mind if I turn the light off?
(Woman) : Well, I’m in the middle of reading this novel.
(Third Voice) : What does the woman imply?
In your test book, you will read:
A. The man should read the novel too.
B. The man should leave the light on.
C. The reading will be finished soon.
D. She’ll read the novel later.
You learn from the conversation that the woman is in the middle of reading the novel. The best
answer to the question “What does the woman imply?” is B. The man should leave the light on.”
Therefore, the correct choice is answer B..

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 207

1 A. It’s her last chance to have practice.
B. She was sick yesterday.
C. The performance is only one week away.
D. The practice is hard to follow.

2 A. She doesn’t like having a task.

B. She had to finish her work.
C. She doesn’t like party.
D. She didn’t want to meet Taylor.

3 A. He can’t afford to buy a new car.

B. He will buy a new car as soon as he gets the money.
C. He will buy a new car in the next three years.
D. He had bought a new car.

4 A. He was going to the doctor.

B. He went home earlier.
C. He didn’t know about the class.
D. He was in a medication.

5 A. 150 C. 50
B. 25 D. 25

6 A. She didn’t know that Bryan had moved to Canada.

B. She previously knew that Bryan had moved to Canada.
C. She couldn’t join Bryan to go to Canada.
D. She moved to Canada yesterday.

7 A. The finance company will give Ron a new apartment.

B. Ron will lose his apartment because he can’t afford the payments.
C. The finance company paid Ron a four-month rent.
D. Ron still possesses the apartment until the next four months.

8 A. Gave the students a test. C. Made a quiz.

B. Gave a new material. D. Reviewed previous lesson.

9 A. The man can’t join next semester competition.

B. The man is disappointed at not winning the competition.
C. The man will win the competition.
D. The man had won the competition.

A A. He is looking for it.

B. They are looking for the needs.
 C. He forwards it to his sister.
D. He is pleased.

B A. Mr. Andrew had left for New York before he got the recommendation.
B. If the man hurries, he’ll get the recommendation from Mr. Andrew.
C. The man can’t get the recommendation for his scholarship.
D. Mr. Andrew doesn’t give him a scholarship recommendation.

C A. He ate a lot of junk food there.

B. He couldn’t find modern restaurant there.
C. He didn’t find delicious food there.
D. He easily found fast food there.

D A. Reduce the consumption of sugar.

B. Cut a pack of sugar.
C. Put sugar in his cake.
D. Consume more sugar to resist cold.

E A. No one enlisted their name to book the seats.

B. There were many seats left for the next workshop.
C. A few seats were not booked yet.
D. There were no seats left by noon.

F A. Even though she was experienced, she didn’t apply the Language Teaching course.
B. She was qualified in language teaching, so she applied.
C. Knowing that she lacked experience, she still applied.
D. She had experience to teach language, so she applied for the course.

G A. Only Nick could solve it.

B. Nick was the only one who couldn’t solve it.
C. It could not be solved by anyone.
D. Everyone knew how to solve it.

H A. School. C. Shop.
B. Market. D. Gas station.

I A. She can’t go to the gathering because she has no enough time.

B. She got home earlier because she was picked up by the man.
C. She can go to the gathering.
D. She will never go to the gathering.

J A. Stuart felt sympathetic to the debt collector.

B. Stuart would pay for the debts.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 209

 C. Stuart couldn’t pay for the debts.
D. The debt collector didn’t threat Stuart.

K A. She is afraid of losing her watch.

B. The watch is lost forever.
C. Someone will show up the watch.
D. She expects to find her watch soon.

L A. She couldn’t afford the tickets for the seminar.

B. She wanted to go to the seminar, but the tickets were sold out.
C. The tickets were reasonable to buy, so she went to the seminar.
D. She attended the seminar even though the tickets were unreasonable.

M A. Hold the paper higher. C. Sit down.

B. Stop holding the paper. D. Find another seat.

N A. Andy rarely plays the game.

B. Andy often misses the game.
C. Andy doesn’t like playing volleyball.
D. Andy likes playing volleyball.

O A. James got a ticket in his car.

B. James got a ticket after winning a race.
C. James got a traffic ticket from the police.
D. James got a ticket for driving in the main road.

P A. He doesn’t know about Brian Tomlinson.

B. He really knows who Brian Tomlinson is.
C. He once heard about Tomlinson, but he forgets who the person is.
D. He doesn’t want to tell about Brian Tomlinson.

Q A. She will buy the ink stock. C. She needs to buy the ink.
B. She doesn’t see any ink left. D. She doesn’t want to buy the ink.

R A. Seth paid his father for a vacation.

B. Seth went on vacation with his father.
C. Seth couldn’t go on vacation with his father.
D. Seth went on vacation because his father paid it for him.

S A. He didn’t submit his paper because he had no laptop.

B. His laptop was broken, but he could submit his paper.
C. He couldn’t submit his paper because the data were lost.
D. He didn’t submit his paper even though he had the data.
T A. The kids took a long time to visit their cousins.
B. The kids have already wanted to visit their cousins before.
C. The kids are happy because their cousins visit them.
D. The kids have a long journey to visit their cousins.

U A. He stays at home.
B. He went to school near her office.
C. He stays at a nursery near her office.
D. He comes along with the woman to the office.

Part B
Directions
In Part B, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will be asked some
questions. The conversations and questions will be spoken one time. They will not be written
out for you, so you will have to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the
speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which
one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find
the number of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen.
Listen to an example.
(Woman) : Hey, why don’t you attend the English class?
(Man) : I don’t have any class on Wednesday.
(Woman) : Today is Thursday. I think you need to hurry, the class is started soon.
(Man) : Oh, no! Today’s the deadline of the report composition.
(Woman) : What a perfect day for you!
(Man) : I need to go now, see you.
Where is the man going?
A. School C. Shop
B. Home D. Market
You learn from the conversation that the woman asked the man whay he didn’t attend the
English class. The man forgot the day, then he finally was going to attend the class. The correct
answer for question “Where is the man going?” is (A).

V A. In the fifth lap. C. In the seventeenth lap.

B. In the fifteenth lap. D. In the eighteenth lap.

W A. He injured seriously.
B. He didn’t survive because of the crash.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 211

 C. He had survived from the crash.
D. He fell down, but he was not hospitalized.

X A. Fifteen hours C. One week

B. One day D. Two weeks

Y A. He has to be hospitalized for two weeks.

B. He couldn’t join the next two races.
C. He couldn’t join any race.
D. He was going crazy.

Z A. Teacher–student C. Doctor–patient
B. Lawyer–client D. Psychiatrist–patient

a A. High tense C. Headache

B. Cholesterol D. Hurt on the neck

b A. A recipe C. A prescription
B. A procedure D. A reception

c A. Headache the whole day. C. Couldn’t sleep the whole day.

B. Stomachache the whole day. D. Couldn’t take the medicine.

Part C
Directions
In Part C, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will be asked some questions. The talks
and questions will be spoken just one time. They will not be written out for you, so you will have
to listen carefully in order to understand and remember what the speaker says.
When you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and decide which
one would be the best answer to the question you have heard. Then, on your answer sheet, find
the number of the problem and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen.

d A. Learning how to use language in politics.

B. Talking the impact of mixing language and politics.
C. Discussing the connection between language and politics.
D. Joining politics by using appropriate language.

e A. Describing the hidden language used by politicians.

B. Arguing politicians about their language.
C. Supporting politicians with their language.
D. Understanding roles of language in human interaction.
f A. Interpretation of what other people say.
B. Cultural habits of a society.
C. Politicians’ identity.
D. Politicians’ attitude.

g A. Ministry office. C. Law court.

B. Language class. D. House of Parliament.

h A. A Tony Blair’s friend. C. A politics critic

B. A tour guide D. A college student

i A. Anthony Charles Lynton Blair. C. Anthony Charles Clinton Blair.

B. Anthonius Charles Lynton Blair. D. Anthony Charles Chilton Blair.

j A. National affair. C. Economy worldwide.

B. International affair. D. National security.

k A. His failure of leading the Labour Party.

B. Public dissatisfaction about the Labour Party.
C. His planning of resignation.
D. Public dissatisfaction with his policy in Iraq.

l A. The United States C. The European Union

B. Russia D. China

m A. Jacob C. Ruti
B. Peggy D. Avi

n A. “Getting Home” C. “Leaving Home”

B. “Staying Home” D. “Going Home”

o A. A school C. An office
B. A café D. A hospital

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 213

 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 25 Minutes
40 Questions

In this section you will have some incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you will see
four choices of words or phrases marked by (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose one of those words or
phrases that could become best completion for the questions. Then on your answer sheet, find
the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter you have chosen.
Now begin work on the questions.
1 Andre as well as his brother likes ……… in the pool if we have spare time.
A. swim C. swimming
B. swam D. to swim

2 If he finishes his task, I ……….. him to pick me up at 7 in my house.

A. would ask C. will asked
B. will ask D. will asking

3 One of the purposes from communicative approach is to increase our knowledge in ……..
to other people.
A. spoke C. spoken
B. speak D. speaking

4 ………. is her hobby. She can spend several hours in the library every day.
A. Reading C. She read
B. Read D. She is reading

5 Neither I …… my sister likes maths. It makes us confused to find the answer of the question.
A. or C. and
B. nor D. also

6 Imah doesn’t like drinking a cup oftea. Her mother doesn’t like drinking a cup of tea.
What is the elliptical construction of the sentence above?
A. Imah doesn’t like drinking a cup of tea, and neither does her mother.
B. Imah doesn’t like drinking a cup of tea, and neither did her mother.
C. Imah doesn’t like drinking a cup of tea, and her mother is not either.
D. Imah didn’t like drinking a cup of tea, and her mother was not either.
7 The singer from west java is awesome. She has ………..
A. a very nice voice. C. very nice a voice.
B. a nice very voice. D. voice a very nice.

8 A cook helper used to …….everything the cook need in the kichen.

A. prepared C. preparing
B. prepare D. is preparing

9 She wish that we were shopping in the same department store.

What is the fact of the sentence above?
A. We were not shopping in the same department store.
B. We are not shopping in the same department store.
C. We has not been shopping in the same department store.
D. We had not been shopping in the same department store.

A We ought to ……… at the next gas station, we will run out of gas.
A. stopping C. stopped
B. stop D. stops

B It is a cafe ……. I bought Italian food with my family. Now they are asking me to buy it.
A. who C. whom
B. whose D. where

C The lecturer ......................... their proposal next week.

A. has his students submit C. has his studentssubmit
B. have his students submit D. have his students submit

D If you refused this money, I ………. transfer it to you.

A. will C. have
B. has D. would

E Please, don’t disturb me. I ………. right now. Tomorrow I will have a mid term.
A. was study C. am studying
B. studying D. study

F Lara : Why do you like happy?

Lian : My daughter get me ……. her graduation. I am proud of her.
A. to attend C. attends
B. attend D. have attended

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 215

Identify one word or phrase that should be changed in order to make good sen-
tence.
G. A: What do you think about the movie?
A B
B: I think the movie is very excited.
C D

H We can improve our knowledge by read a lot of books.

A B C D

I I will have a look your watch in my house, if I find it I would tell you.
A B C D

J Everyone have each right to express their opinion in this meeting room.
A B C D

K The conclusion who is presented in front of the classroom is not clear. We’re sure that
A B C
that all of the presenters do not master the materials.
D

L A good teacher know and understands the students’ needs during teaching learning process.
A B C D

M I have some hobbies such as singing, travelling and read. I often do my hobbies with my friends.
A B C D

N Last afternoon, we meet Shinta with her family in the department store. They bought a lot of
A B C
daily needs.
D

O Either winda and her brother likes reading a novel. They always borrow it in the library.
A B C D

P Mario’s gift for organization was exemplified by his service while the Spanish-American War
A B C D
in 1898.

Q Hendra is Mr. Udin’s son. He is ten years old. He can’t lift the heavy box, but Mr. Udin can. Mr. Udin
A B
is strongest than his son.
C D
R Each participant have a special card to enter the hall for attending the seminar.
A B C D

S Don’t worry to your husband. He will be fine in the hospital.

A B
After this, you can live together with your husband and your children.
C D

T A woman who I helped in the market yesterday is Rina’s mother.

A B C D

U She wouldn’t have waited if you have been late.

A B C D

V English is a subject which is easy learned and become the favorite lesson in this class.
A B C D

W First rank in this class is Romeo. He is the smartest and the most diligent. He never come late and
A B C
can answer the questions that are given by the teacher.
D

X The Dr.Oz show as a first television show which discussed about health was see in 25 countries
A B C D
in 2010.

Y Before create the show, all of the crews discuss in the meeting room.
A B C D

Z We have a plan for our study tour next week, we was visit the the other university in East Java.
A B C D

a Smoke is an activity that you should avoid for your health.

A B C D

b The best seller novel, “Ketika Cinta Bertasbih”, wrote by Habibburahman El Shirazy in 2009.
A B C D

c The thiefs are shot by the police when they tried to escape in his house.
A B C D

d Also porpoises and dolphins, whales are mammals.

A B C D

e The security of this country are controlled by the police and army.
A B C D

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 217

 SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 55 Minutes
50 Questions

In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several questions about it. For
questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C), or (D), to each question. Then
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter you have chosen. Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or
implied in that passage.
Read the following passage:
Michael Alexander Kirkwood Halliday,  often  known as M.A.K. Halliday, is a British  lin-
guist  who developed an internationally influential grammar model, the systemic functional
grammar which also goes by the name of systemic functional linguistics. Halliday was born and
raised in England. He took a BA Honours degree in Modern Chinese Language and Literature
(Mandarin) at the University of London. He then lived for three years in China, where he studied
under Luo Changpei at Peking University and under Wang Li at Lingnan University, before re-
turning to take a PhD in Chinese Ling­uistics at Cambridge.
The impact of his work extends beyond linguistics into the study of visual and multimod-
al communication, and he is considered to have founded the field of social semiotics. He has
worked in various regions of language study, both theoretical and applied, and has been espe-
cially concerned with applying the understanding of the basic principles of language to the the-
ory and practices of education. He became one of the pioneers of eco-critical discourse analysis,
a discipline of ecolinguistics.
Example I
What is the main idea of the passage?
A. The biography of M.A.K. Halliday.
B. A linguist.
C. The works of M.A.K. Halliday.
D. The pioneers of eco-critical discourse analysis.
The main idea of the passage is about the life story of M.A.K. Halliday. It includes his birth, study,
and work achievements. Therefore, you should choose (A).
Example II
The word “extends” in line 8 is closest in meaning to ....
A. Becomes C. Affect
B. Continuous D. Influence
The sentence “the impact of his work extends beyond linguistics into the study of visual and
multimodal communication, and he is considered to have founded the field of social semiotics”
concludes that Halliday’s work is not only in pure linguistics, but then continued in other com-
bination fields of linguistics. Therefore, the answer is (B).
Now begin work on the questions.

Question 1-10
Robert Capa is a name that has for many years been synonymous with war photography. Born
in Hungary in 1913 as Friedmann Endre Ernő, Capa was forced to leave his native country after his
involvement in anti government protests. Capa had originally wanted to become a writer, but after
4 his arrival in Berlin had first found work as a photographer. He later left Germany and moved to
France due to the rise in Nazism. He tried to find work as a freelance journalist and it was here that
he changed his name to Robert Capa, mainly because he thought it would sound more American.
In 1936, after the breakout of the Spanish Civil war, Capa went to Spain and it was here over
8 the next three years that he built his reputation as a war photographer. It was here too in 1936 that
he took one of his most famous pictures, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier. One of Capa’s most famous
quotes was ‘If your pictures aren’t good enough, you’re not close enough.’ And he took his attitude
of getting close to the action to an extreme. His photograph, The Death of a Loyalist Soldier is a prime
12 example of this as Capa captures the very moment the soldier falls. However, many have questioned
the authenticity of this photograph, claiming that it was staged.
Capa died as he had lived. After promising not to photograph any more wars, he accepted
an assignment to go to Indochina to cover the first Indochina war. On May 25th 1954 Capa was
16 accompanying a French regiment when he left his jeep to take some photographs of the advance
and stepped on a land mine. He was taken to a nearby hospital, still clutching his camera, but was
pronounced dead on arrival. He left behind him a testament to the horrors of war and a standard for
photojournalism that few others have been able to reach.Capa’s legacy has lived on though and in
20 1966 his brother Cornell founded the International Fund for Concerned Photography in his honor.
There is also a Robert Capa Gold Medal, which is given to the photographer who publishes the best
photographic reporting from abroad with evidence of exceptional courage. But perhaps his greatest
legacy of all are the haunting images of the human struggles that he captured.

1 What does the text mainly discuss?

A. The life of a politician.
B. The life of a journalism photographer.
C. The life of a soldier.
D. The life of a president.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 219

2 What is true about Robert Capa based on the text?
A. He wanted to be a photgarapher since the beginning.
B. He went to Germany to be a journalist.
C. He left his native country because he was not pro-government policy.
D. He changed his name to be more French.

3 The Death of a Loyalist Soldier was ….

A. Taken in France.
B. Questioned of its authenticity.
C. Depicting the rise of soldiers.
D. Taken in the beginning of 1930s.

4 Capa’s quote in line 10 implies that ….

A. A photographer should capture photos from a distance.
B. A good photograph should be captured by a professional photographer.
C. A professional photographer should capture photos in war.
D. A good photograph should be captured closesly to the object.

5 The word ‘authenticity’ in line 13 is closest in meaning to ….

A. Genuineness C. Honesty
B. Quality D. Loyalty

6 The word ‘this’ in line 13 refers to ….

A. Spanish Civil War.
B. Reputation as a photographer.
C. manifestation of the quote.
D. Capa took The Death of a Loyalist Soldier.

7 According to the text, where did Capa die?

A. America. C. Asia.
B. France. D. Europe.

8 The following statement is in line with the text, EXCEPT ….

A. Robert Capa was an American-born war photographer.
B. Capa built his carreer as a war photographer in Spain.
C. Capa originally wanted to be a writer when he moved to France.
D. Capa’s brother founded an international fund to his honor.

9 What is the main idea of paragraph 3?

A. The movement of Robert Capa to France.
B. The carreer of Robert Capa as a war photographer.
C. The death of Robert Capa.
D. The beginning of Robert Capa’s fund.
A To whom is Robert Capa Gold Medal given?
A. Photographers who report war.
B. Photographers who report human struggles by exceptional courage.
C. Photographers around the world who struggle in life.
D. Photographers who have been died in war.

Question 11-20
The complicated nature of the individual income tax imposes costs not only on taxpayers, who
expend time and money preparing and filing their returns, but also on the Internal Revenue Service,
which has to audit those returns and deal with the inevitable mistakes taxpayers make. Various steps to
4 simplify the income tax could reduce costs significantly for both taxpayers and the IRS. There, at least,
two models of tax.
Modify or repeal the alternative minimum tax is originally designed to ensure that high-income
taxpayers pay at least some income tax, the alternative minimum tax (AMT) now affects 4 million
8 households, most of whom already pay significant amounts of income tax and are far from the top of
the income distribution. Only annual congressional patches to the AMT have kept it from affecting
millions more taxpayers. Modifying the AMT to permanently limit the reach would maintain some of
its revenue stream while protecting most taxxayers from the tax, but would not make the tax system
12 simpler for those still subject to it.
Eliminating or aligning income limits and phase-outs is a model in which many features of the tax
code are denied to some higher-income taxpayers or phase out over different ranges of income. These
features complicate tax returns and require multiple worksheets to calculate taxable income, deductions,
16 and credits. Eliminating such restrictions would simplify tax filing, but the benefits would go to higher-
income taxpayers. Retaining these income limits but setting them at the same or similar levels, at least
for related activities, would reduce complexity while keeping the benefits aimed at taxpayers with
low to moderate incomes. At the same time, however, if multiple benefits phased out over the same
20 income range, effective marginal tax rates in that range could reach unacceptable levels.

B The text above mainly discusses ....

A. The obligation of taxpayers.
B. The consequences of rejecting tax.
C. The benefits of tax.
D. Types of tax payment.

C Income tax imposes costs ....

A. Taxpayers C. Economy
B. Models D. Salary

D The role of Internal Revenue Service is to ....

A. Audit the returns and deal with the inevitable mistakes taxpayers make.
B. Simplify the income tax.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 221

 C. Reduce costs significantly.
D. Add nation’s income.

E Simplifying the income tax is beneficial to ....

A. Impose more values. C. Reduce costs significantly for both taxpayers and
the IRS.
B. Return more money. D. Create more values.

F Modifying the alternative minimum is beneficial to ....

A. Collect more income.
B. Ensure that high-income taxpayers pay at least some income tax.
C. Create more tax.
D. Distribute more income.

G The word ‘its’ in line 11 refers to ....

A. Limitation C. Modification
B. Tax D. AMT

H A model of the tax code denied to some higher-income taxpayers is also called as ....
A. Eliminating income limits C. Tax lower
B. AMT D. Tax minimum

I Eliminating or aligning income limits and phase-outs is beneficial to ....

A. Create more tax. C. Require nultiple worksheets
B. Simplify tax filing. D. Calculate the tax income.

J The word ‘retaining’ in line 17 is closest in meaning to ....

A. Simplifying C. Restraining
B. Eliminating D. Paying

K What happens when multiple benefits phased out?

A. Effective marginal tax rates could reach unacceptable levels.
B. The minimum tax can be fulfilled.
C. The taxpayers will do the obligation.
D. The tax will be done well.

Question 21-30
The general term impact crater is used here to designate a hypervelocity impact crater, the
structure formed by a cosmic projectile that is large enough and coherent enough to penetrate
Earth’s atmosphere with little or no deceleration and to strike the ground at virtually its original
4 cosmic velocity (>11 km/s). Such projectiles tend to be relatively large, perhaps >50 m in diameter
for a stony object and >20 m for a more coherent iron one.
 Smaller projectiles, typically a few meters or less in size, behave differently in passing through
the atmosphere. They lose most or all of their original velocity and kinetic energy in the atmosphere
8 through disintegration and blation, and they strike the ground at speeds of no more than a few
hundred meters per second. In such a low-velocity impact, the projectile penetrates only a short
distance into the target (depending on its velocity and the nature of the target material), and the
projectile’s momentum excavates a pit that is slightly larger than the projectile itself. The projectile
12 survives, more or less intact, and much of it is found in the bottom of the pit. Such pits, sometimes
called penetration craters or penetration funnels, are typically less than a few tens of meters in
diameter.
Example of these feature include Brenham (Kansas), the many small pits made by the Sikhote-
16 Alin (Russia) meteorite shower in 1947, and the pit dug by the largest piece of the Kirin (China)
meteorite fall in 1976. The process of excavation is strictly a mechanical one, and high-pressure
shock waves are not produced.

L The text above mainly discusses ….

A. The formation of crater. C. The use of crater.
B. The hole of crater. D. The benefits of crater.

M Impact of crater is ….
A. The designation of a hypervelocity impact crater.
B. A large and coherent enough hole.
C. The Earth’s atmosphere.
D. The explosion of a volcano.

N What is crater?
A. An impact of volcano.
B. A hole of volcano.
C. The structure formed by a cosmic projectile that is large and coherent enough.
D. A lake in a volcano.

O The large of a projectile is about ….

A. 50 meter. C. 11 km/s.
B. 20 meter. D. None of the answer is correct.

P The word ‘velocity’ in line 4 is closest in meaning to ….

A. Height. C. Length.
B. Width. D. Speed.

Q The word ‘they’ in line 7 refers to ….

A. The smaller projectiles. C. Penetration funnels.
B. Momentum excavates. D. Pits.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 223

R Where can the projectiles be found?
A. In the crater. C. In the bottom of the pit.
B. In the hole. D. In pits.

S Pits which consist of projectiles is called ….

A. Intact. C. Penetration.
B. Penetration craters. D. Crater.

T It can be concluded that the width of pits which consist of projectiles is ….

A. 10 meter.
B. 5 meters.
C. Less than 10 meters in diameter.
D. All the answers are correct.

U The word ‘excavation’ in line 16 is closest in meaning to ….

A. Dig. C. Making.
B. Creating. D. Opening.

Question 31-40
Apache chief Geronimo (1829-1909) was born in the upper Gila River country of Arizona.
Although he harbored animosity toward the Mexican soldiers who killed his wife and children, he
also grew to dislike the Anglo-Americans who took over the region following the 1848 Treaty of
4 Guadalupe Hidalgo. After his Chiricahua Apaches were forced onto Arizona’s San Carlos Reservation
in the mid-1870s, Geronimo led his followers on a series of escapes that bolstered his legend and
embarrassed the U.S. government.
Geronimo’s repeated escapes embarrassed and provoked politicians, army officers, and the
8 non-Indian populace of the Southwest. His very name brought terror to the people who continually
heard of his evading capture and occasionally killing Anglo-Americans and Mexicans. Territorial
newspaper headlines blared his name, time and again.
He surrendered to General Nelson Miles in 1886, and remained a celebrity in captivity until his
12 death at klahoma’s Fort Sill. When Geronimo died, he had been a legend for more than a generation.
But his courage and determination did more than provide a battle cry for paratroopers of another
day. It helped sustain the spirits of his people, the Chiricahua Apaches, in the last desperate days of
the Indian wars.

V What does the text mainly discuss?

A. The life of Geronimo. C. The war of Apache.
B. The power of Geronimo. D. The life of Apache tribe.

W According to the text, who killed Geronimo’s wife?

A. Mexican soldiers C. Chiricahua
B. Anglo-Americans D. Guadalupe Hidalgo
X The following is true about Geronimo, EXCEPT ….
A. Geronimo was born in the Gila River.
B. Geronimo disliked Mexican soldiers.
C. Geronimo disliked Anglo-Americans.
D. Geronimo was an Indian artist.

Y It can be inferred from paragraph 1 that ….

A. Geronimo is a chief tribe of Apache.
B. Apache has lived in America for several years.
C. Indian and apache fought each other.
D. The legend of Apache is well known in America.

Z Geronimo provoked the follwoings, EXCEPT ….

A. Army officers
B. Non-Indian populace of the Southwest
C. Politicians
D. Trader

a What is the main topic of paragraph 2?

A. Geronimo was frightening for many people.
B. Geronimo is powerful.
C. Geronimo hates Anglo-Americans and Mexicans.
D. The police catched Geronimo.

b Geronimo become a legend for ….

A. A century. C. Several years.
B. More than one generation. D. A hundred years.

c The word ‘his’ in line 13 refers to?

A. Geronimo C. Nelson Miles
B. Oklahoma D. Chiricahua

d What is the main idea of paragraph 3?

A. Geronimo died.
B. Geronimo was surrended in 1886.
C. The spirirt of Geronimo always inspires his people.
D. Indian war still happens.

e The word ‘desperate’ in line 14 is closest in meaning to ….

A. Miserable C. War
B. Hard D. Horrible

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 225

Question 41-50
Ferdinand De Lessups, the same engineer who designed the  Suez Canal, had organized a
French attempt in Panama in the 1870s. Disease and financial problems left a partially built canal
behind. While it made sense that the United States should buy the rights to complete the effort,
4 Panama posed other problems. Despite being the narrowest nation in the region, Panama was
very mountainous, and a complex series of locks was necessary to move ships across the isthmus.
Nicaragua was another possibility. The canal would be situated closer to the United States. The terrain
was flatter, and despite Nicaragua’s width, there were numerous lakes that could be connected.
8 Volcanic activity in Nicaragua prompted the United States to try to buy the territory in Panama.
But Panama was not an independent state. To obtain the rights to the territory, the United
States had to negotiate with Colombia. The 1903 HAY-HERRAN TREATY permitted the United States
to lease a six-mile wide strip of land at an annual fee. The treaty moved through the United States
12 Senate, but the Colombian Senate held out for more money. Roosevelt was furious. Determined to
build his canal, Roosevelt sent a U.S. gunboat to the shores of Colombia. At the same time, a group
of «revolutionaries» declared independence in Panama. The Colombians were powerless to stop the
uprising. The United States became the first nation in the world to recognize the new government
16 of Panama. Within weeks, the Hay–Bunau-Varilla Treaty awarded a 10-mile strip of land to the United
States, and the last hurdle was cleared.
Construction on the canal was extremely difficult. The world had never known such a feat of
engineering. Beginning in 1907, American civilians blasted through tons of mountain stone. Thanks
20 to the work of Walter Reed and William Gorgas, the threats of yellow fever and Malaria were greatly
diminished. When Theodore Roosevelt visited the blast area, he became the first sitting American
President to travel outside the country. Finally, the deed was done. In 1914, at the cost of $345
million, the Panama Canal was open for business.

f The text above mainly discusses ….

A. The relation between Panama and US.
B. The purposes of building Panama Canal.
C. The history of Panama Canal.
D. The use of Panama Canal.

g The engineer of Panama Canal ….

A. Is the same engineer as Suez Canal.
B. Solved diseases problems in US.
C. Built something in Nicaragua.
D. Hired by many countries.

h The built canal was interrupted by ….

A. US Disease and financial problems.
B. Financial problems.
C. Bankrupt.
D. Other problems.
i The following is in line with the text, EXCEPT ….
A. Panama is the narrowest nation.
B. The canal would be situated closer to the United States.
C. Panama was very mountainous.
D. All people in Panama helped the built of Panama Canal.

j What prompted the United States to buy the territory in Panama?

A. Volcanic activity in Nicaragua.
B. Diseases in Nicaragua.
C. Financial problems.
D. The neighbouring area.

k How did Panama get its independence?

A. United States had to negotiate with Colombia.
B. Fought its independence.
C. Declared its independence.
D. Bought the independence.

l The word ‘furious’ in line 12 is closest in meaning to ….

A. Luxurious C. Happy
B. Cross D. Content

m Which country did recognize the Panama’s independence?

A. The United States C. Panama
B. France D. Columbia
n The word ‘blasted’ in line 19 is closest in meaning to ….
A. Blessed C. Given
B. Detonated D. Provided
o The word ‘he’ in line 21 refers to ….
A. Theodore Roosevelt C. Columbia
B. Panama D. The area

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 227

 TEST
UNIT
2

228 Maximum Score; TOEFL Skills Booster

 SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 35 Minutes Pindai QR Code di atas
untuk memperoleh
50 Questions audio listening

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to under-
stand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special di-
rections for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the
speakers you hear. You are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Do not turn the
pages until you are told to do so.

Part A
Directions
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. At the end of each conversa-
tion, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will be
spoken just one time. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book
and choose the best answer. Then, on your Answer Sheet, find the number of the question and
mark your answer.
Listen to an example.
On the recording, you will hear:
(man) : That exam was just awful.
(woman) : Oh, it could have been worse.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you will read:
A. The exam was really awful.
B. It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
C. It couldn’t have been more difficult.
D. It wasn’t that hard.
You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very difficult and that
the woman disagreed with the man. The best answer to the question, “What does the woman
mean?” is (D), “It wasn’t that hard.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
1 A. The blue sweater suits the woman well.
B. The blue sweater fits the woman.
C. The red sweater doesn’t suit the woman.
D. The blue sweater doesn’t fit the woman.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 229

2 A. She cancels the today’s party.
B. The party is postponed for next month.
C. She asks her father to join the party.
D. She tells the today’s party to her father.

3 A. He loves black.
B. He doesn’t want his coffee added with cream.
C. He wants the cream to make his black coffee.
D. He wants his coffee turn into black.

4 A. In front of the campus hall. C. In a hospital.

B. At a school library. D. At a business event.

5 A. He got a piece of cake after he presented his project.

B. The presentation was hardly to do
C. The presentation was easy to do.
D. The presentation was about a piece of cake.

6 A. The man is always talking about the test.

B. She agrees that the test was difficult.
C. Its alright if the man keep talking about the test.
D. She wants the man to repeat what he said.

7 A. The bird took the class.

B. He lost the course because the bird took it first.
C. The woman took the course as soon as the bird did.
D. The woman should take the course immediately.

8 A. She asked the man to borrow her camera.

B. She knew the man would bring the camera.
C. She didn’t believe that the man would bring the camera.
D. She wanted the man to lend his camera.

9 A. He believes the jazz music concert will be attractive.

B. He’s doubtful about the concert.
C. He’ll go to the concert without her.
D. Jazz music concert is doubtful.

A A. Though it’s very cold, she would do her work.

B. She completed a lot of work even if it was cold.
C. It couldn’t be too cold to work.
D. She didn’t accomplish much because of the weather.
B A. He disagrees with the woman.
B. He shares the same idea with the woman’s.
C. He wants Rice Salad as their dinner again.
D. He doesn’t think the man’s idea is good.

C A. He rented the apartment.

B. He wanted to sign the lease but he didn’t rent it.
C. He didn’t like the apartment.
D. He didn’t rent the apartment.

D A. He could deliver his presentation fluently.

B. He set the fire to burn.
C. He stayed awake late at night to study.
D. He got tired because he burned the oil.

E A. He doesn’t want she asks him.

B. He is not good in arts.
C. He can’t give comments about the paintings.
D. He can give his comments about the paintings.

F A. She’s happy that she would meet her fiancé.

B. She always looked enthusiastic.
C. She didn’t join the party because of her fiancé.
D. She met her fiancé in the party.

G A. He is a vegetarian.
B. He doesn’t want to find food for lunch.
C. He likes both meat loaf and fish stick.
D. He doesn’t want something to eat.

H A. In front of the office. C. In a bookstore.

B. At a library. D. At a book bazaar.

I A. Ask Mr. Collin to add an extra seat.

B. Cancel the seminar.
C. Ask the committee for an extra seat.
D. Wait until there will be an empty seat.

J A. Aaron worked at tourist services.

B. Aaron wanted to go camping.
C. Aaron came back from camping brought the equipment.
D. The camping equipments were prepared by Aaron.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 231

K A. He brings salt and pepper.
B. He has hair smell like salt and pepper.
C. He is tall and has grey hair.
D. He loves salt and pepper for cooking.

L A. He couldn’t finish his work more properly.

B. He wanted to finish his project incorrectly.
C. He didn’t finish his project.
D. He finished his work improperly.

M A. There’s no possibility that she was the singer.

B. Esther couldn’t sing at all.
C. Esther might be the singer.
D. Esther was quite enough to sing.

N A. He is not very smart.

B. He is the most brilliant student.
C. Other students are more brilliant than he is.
D. There is someone more brilliant than he is.

O A. He agrees with the woman.

B. He likes neither Butternut soup nor Pear soup.
C. He likes both of them.
D. He thinks that Pear soup is better than Butternut soup.

P A. She has read the announcement.

B. She doesn’t want to read the announcement.
C. She doesn’t know what he’s referring to.
D. She isn’t certain about the announcement means.

Q A. Not organize the Christmas tree now.

B. Taking another time to décor the Christmas tree.
C. Decor the Christmas tree herself.
D. Never organize the Christmas tree.

R A. Hayley’s preparation for the final assignment is unbelievable.

B. What Hayley presented was unbelievable.
C. It was impossible for Hayley to prepare her paper.
D. She was surprised that Hayley wasn’t ready.

S A. He is unable to do his best for the team.

B. He wants to do the project by himself.
C. He is happy resigning from the team.
D. Maybe he’ll find another project with another team.
T A. It is impossible to come to the party.
B. She has a boyfriend, she will join the party.
C. Maybe she will come.
D. She will come to the party even if she doesn’t have a boyfriend.

U A. He needs to rearrange the flowers.

B. He should put the organ to the flowers.
C. The flowers have already been organized.
D. He wishes the flowers are closer.

Part B
Directions
In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will
hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write
in your test book.

V A. Librarian-student. C. Student-student.
B. Lecturer-student. D. Rector-student.

W A. How to transfer to a junior college.

B. What courses are needed for the first semester.
C. How to find his classes around campus.
D. Who the rector is.

X A. 7 C. 9
B. 10 D. 8

Y A. English Composition. C. Core Science.

B. Performance. D. Costume Construction.

Z A. Accidents during the Moto GP 2011.

B. Death in the Moto GP crushed.
C. Death of a racer because of drug.
D. Moto GP’s a trending topic.

a A. Trauma to the head, neck, and chest.

B. Heart attack.
C. Overdose.
D. Injuries to the stomach.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 233

b A. On the last lap. C. After the racing finished.
B. In the middle of the racing. D. On the second round.
c A. Collin Edwards. C. Shoya Tomizawa.
B. Nofuri Abe. D. Robin Fitton.

Part C
Directions
In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions. The
talks and questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the four possible answers. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you will hear:
(narrator) : Listen to an instructor talk to his class about painting.
(man) : Good morning class. Follow up our last meeting about surealism, today we’ll talk
about Realism. Realism reveals about the phenomena that occur in this world, for
example we can see from a natural fact of life experienced and objectively and real.
As a refutation of realism, static classicism and romanticism excessive mainly were
supported by the rise of the socialist era 17-18th centuries.
(narrator) : What is the topic of the talk?
In your test book, you will read:
A. Art with surealism. C. Art with static classicism.
B. Art with realism. D. Art with romanticism.
The best answer to the question, “What is the topic of the talk?” is (B), “Art with realism.”Therefore,
the correct choice is (B).

d A. How to apply students’ accommodation.

B. Kind of students’ accommodation provide by the university.
C. How to apply to a college.
D. How to get scholarship.

e A. The lease of the room.

B. The roommate.
C. The application and the deadline of it.
D. Cost, location, facilities, and also special requirements.

f A. Single bathroom and shared bathroom. C. Single bed and double bed.
B. Standard and ensuite. D. Economy and Business.
g A. After 1 August. C. Only at 1 August.
B. Before 1 August. D. 1-2 August.

h A. The effect of rap music to the world.

B. The history of the rap music.
C. Comparison between rap and hip hop.
D. The development of music rap nowadays.

i A. American C. African
B. Caribbean D. Jamaican

j A. Word poetry and comedy jazz records.

B. Concurrent changes in American music.
C. Tales of heroism.
D. The musical culture of the Caribbean.

k A. Rap and hip hop were only different depended on its era.
B. The development of hip hop music was based on the rap.
C. Rap became one of the parts of hip hop foundation in the 70s.
D. The development of rap in the 70s formed the beginning of hip hop music.

l A. A tour guide. C. A scientist.

B. A professor. D. A researcher.

m A. 4 C. 3
B. 5 D. 6

n A. The Africa Trail. C. The outer Tropic Trail.

B. The inner Tropics Trail. D. The Children’s Trail.

o A. Outbound area. C. Children’s play area.

B. Wildlife animal. D. Some of tame animals.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 235

 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 25 Minutes
40 Questions

1 … need two months to collect and analyze the data.

A. Some researcher C. Researcher
B. A researchers D. Researchers

2 Many employees have resigned because they have different perspective with the manager.
Therefore, the new employees … for work on the office.
A. are needed C. needs
B. needed D. need

3 Andreas is a photographer, but he cannot take a picture since a week ago because his
camera was broken. He told me that he ... to buy a new camera.
A. goes C. has gone
B. going D. is going

4 When the teacher got angry, the students stopped …. The class became quiet.
A. is laughing C. laugh
B. laughing D. laughed

5 Harry has … leave Indonesia after his graduation. He will look for a job in Australia.
A. decide C. decided to
B. decides D. deciding

6 Karin and Jams are going to married. ... are preparing for it since a month ago.
A. They C. Their
B. Them D. Theirs

7 My mother likes flowers so much. I will give … a bouquet of roses.

A. she C. hers
B. her D. his

8 Tomorrow will be the first experience for you to be a presenter. You … prepare well for it.
A. had C. has to
B. had to D. have to
9 Sandy does not pick up his phone. He ... busy in completing his assignments.
A. should be C. can be
B. must be D. will be

A Because Amry is getting cough, his friends … he buys a herbal medicine.

A. suggest C. suggests
B. suggested D. suggesting

B Siera could not go home earlier from campus because the rain … her stay longer over there.
A. make C. made
B. makes D. is made

C Playing guitar is Nita’s hobby, but she cannot play the piano. Amy can play the guitar and
piano. Nita likes playing guitar, and ... Amy.
A. so does C. so did
B. so do D. so doing

D Tomorrow … the last day for me to finish this assignment, so I have to complete it soon.
A. would C. will
B. would be D. will be

E I visited your home yesterday. I rang the bell, but no answered. Where …?
A. are you C. had you been
B. were you D. have you been

F I have not ready yet to tell you right now because I … have any time. I will tell you later on.
A. do C. doesn’t
B. don’t D. am not

Identify one word or phrase that should be changed in order to make good sen-
tence.
G Nayla has been forced to marry Haris by her parents, but she does not want to do it.
A B C
If I were you, I would agree to marry him.
D

H The main reason she left her friends was the different point of views between them.
A B C D

I When Peter arrived home, he surprised that he got his car steal yesterday. Nobody knew that.
A B C D

J She does not focus on her study and her mother passed away two years ago.
A B C D

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 237

K The woman in long red skirt, who I saw in the library, is one of the presenters in a seminar at
A B C
campus.
D

L Some lecturers state that they will not attended the lectures for two weeks because they will go
A B C D
to Papua.

M The thieves have had a plan to rob the bank tonight, and they have prepare for the tools that will
A B C
be used to make it easier.
D

N The bridegroom is so happy because he will get married today.

A B
The party of the wedding will be hold in a luxurious hotel in Yogyakarta.
C D

O Sinta has already accepted a letter from hers friend in Japan, but she has not enough time to
A B C D

read it.

P Today, I meet the man which had been helped me to carry some things in the market.
A B D E

Q Joseph has an interview test in a law office as the general manager, so he should prepare for it.
A B C D

R Because these orphans do not have house, they may stay in my house.
A B C D

S I get angry yesterday when Agnes surprised me while I enjoyed watching the movie.
A B C D

T Although my voice is not really good, but I enjoy sing so much.

A B C D

U I have get headache when I see my car because it is so dirty.

A B C D

V The teachers cannot imagine that the students have previous known about the issues.
A B C D
W Julia has lost her mobile phone. If I find her mobile phone, I would give her soon.
A B C D

X The police caught the robbers which had tried to rob in a house.
A B C D

Y Diana is doing preparation to take a holiday for a week before she finished her project.
A B C D

Z Nina’s sister has begin to not care and deny whatever Nina said to her.

A B C D

a Katy can not complete her homework today because the library has been close.
A B C D

b Carla often explains other students whom have not understand yet in Math.
A B C D

c Erick gives a chance to Fara to sit in a chair because she looked tired.
A B C D

d I have called my brother to accompanied me here because I’m not feeling good.
A B C D

e Two weeks are the maximum length of time did for the training.
A B C D

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 239

 SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 55 Minutes
50 Questions

Read this text to answer the question number 1-10!

In 2013, National Geographic reported on a study in the journal Current Biology showing
that African dung beetles were able to navigate using the Milky Way to orient themselves, the
only animal species known to show this ability.
4 The beetle’s star trek prompted commenter jtbean in Rhode Island to ask our Weird An-
imal Question of the Week: “How do dung beetles navigate in Alaska in summer when the
sky is never dark and the Milky Way can’t be seen?”
Eric Warrant, a biologist at the University of Lund, Sweden, and co-author of the study,
8 said via email that there are indeed dung beetles at such latitudes, but they are a different
species than the ones that roll balls of dung, which are the only ones likely to steer by the
stars. If the ball-rolling beetles did live that far north, Warrant says, they would probably be
active during the day and would use other cues, such as the pattern of celestial polarized
12 light.
Celestial polarized light produces a fixed, compass-like pattern in the sky, not visible to
us but evident to the beetles and other insects. It comes from the “scattering of light in the
atmosphere around the sun or the moon,” Warrant says. There is also a pattern around the
16 moon at night by which nocturnal beetles can navigate, though it’s a million times dimmer.
What might the polarization patterns look like if we could see what the beetles can? Di-
agrams of the phenomenon show concentric circles, broken up like dashes and ringing the
planet.
20 The patterns of polarized light might be invisible to us, but they are used by many oth-
er creatures. “Insects are particularly well-adapted to use this signal,” says Katy Prudic, an
entomologist at Oregon State University. “They use it to navigate and for sexual signaling,
to attract mates.” A 2003 study published in the journal Nature showed that polarized light
24 reflecting off the iridescent wings of Heliconius butterflies is a signal that attracts males to
females.
And dung beetles, she says, are peculiar in that they shun landmarks used by other
insects to find their way. Moths, for example, will orient themselves to the moon at night
28 but will use the physical landscape to navigate by day. Beetles, however, won’t take a left at
the red barn or the tree stump—they’re focused on the sky.
A study co-authored by Warrant in 2012 says that beetles will lose their straight-line
navigation abilities under overcast conditions or if they can’t see the sky, yet their steering
32 isn’t affected by altering landmarks.

1 What is main topic of the passage?

A. Celestial latitude C. Beetle’s navigation
B. Beetle’s life D. Milky way

2 According to the passage, which of the following sentence is true?

A. The beetle uses navigation item for rolling the dung.
B. A celestial polarized produce the light for directing the beetle.
C. That produces the light around billion dimmer.
D. Diagrams of the phenomenon show concentric circles.

3 The word 'nocturnal' is closest in meaning to ….

A. Twilight C. Afterdark
B. Noon D. Morning

4 Why does the insect use signal? Because . . .

A. They want to prey on the other enemy.
B. They make a living by a horn.
C. Insect attracts a mate and sexual appeal.
D. It’s a sign for getting a threat.

5 According to the text, which insect needs physical landscape?

A. Beetle C. Butterfly
B. Moth D. Fly

6 The definition of 'iridescent' is …

A. Showing many bright colours which change with movement.
B. A shiny surface is bright because it reflects light.
C. When waste or things you do not want are removed from a place.
D. Effective, helping you to do or achieve something.

7 When will the beetle lose their navigation?

A. When doesn’t create dung. C. Spring season.
B. In dry season. D. Cloudy sky.

8 What will happened if the beetle doesn’t see the sky?

A. They will die at the moment.
B. They cannot create landmark.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 241

 C. They will be weak and limp.
D. They cannot kill the enemy.

9 What is the main purpose of the passage?

A. To inform the zoology lesson C. To explain the beetle’s life and insects
B. To discuss the beetle’s survival D. To show the beetle’s creature

A What is the opposite word of ‘peculiar’?

A. Weird C. Proper
B. Awkward D. Queer

Read this text to answer the question number 11-20!

Joy and sadness are experienced by people in all cultures around the world, but how
can we tell when other people are happy or despondent? It turns out that the expression of
many emotions may be universal. Smiling is apparently a universal sign of friendliness and
4 approval. Baring the teeth in a hostile way, as noted by Charles Darwin in the nineteenth
century, may be a universal sign of anger. As the originator of the theory of evolution, Dar-
win believed that the universal recognition of facial expressions would have survival value.
For example, facial expressions could signal the approach of enemies (or friends) in the ab-
8 sence of language.
Most investigators concur that certain facial expressions suggest the same emotions in
all people. Moreover, people in diverse cultures recognize the emotions manifested by the
facial expressions. In classic research Paul Ekman took photographs of people exhibiting the
12 emotions of anger, disgust, fear, happiness, and sadness. He then asked people around the
world to indicate what emotions were being depicted in them. Those queried ranged from
European college students to members of the Fore, a tribe that dwells in the New Guinea
highlands. All groups, including the Fore, who had almost no contact with Western culture,
16 agreed on the portrayed emotions.
The Fore also displayed familiar facial expressions when asked how they would respond
if they were the characters in stories that called for basic emotional responses. Ekman and
his colleagues more recently obtained similar results in a study of ten cultures in which par-
20 ticipants were permitted to report that multiple emotions were shown by facial expressions.
The participants generally agreed on which two emotions were being shown and which
emotion was more intense.
Psychological researchers generally recognize that facial expressions reflect emotional
24 states. In fact, various emotional states give rise to certain patterns of electrical activity in
the facial muscles and in the brain. The facial-feedback hypothesis argues, however, that the
causal relationship between emotions and facial expressions can also work in the opposite
direction. According to this hypothesis, signals from the facial muscles (“feedback”) are sent
28 back to emotion centers of the brain, and so a person’s facial expression can influence that
 person’s emotional state. Consider Darwin’s words: “The free expression by outward signs of
an emotion intensifies it. On the other hand, the repression, as far as possible, of all outward
signs softens our emotions.” Can smiling give rise to feelings of good will, for example, and
32 frowning to anger?

Psychological research has given rise to some interesting findings concerning the fa-
cial-feedback hypothesis. Causing participants in experiments to smile, for example, leads
them to report more positive feelings and to rate cartoons (humorous drawings of people
36 or situations) as being more humorous. When they are caused to frown, they rate cartoons
as being more aggressive.
What are the possible links between facial expressions and emotion? One link is arousal,
which is the level of activity or preparedness for activity in an organism. Intense contraction
40 of facial muscles, such as those used in signifying fear, heightens arousal. Self-perception
of heightened arousal then leads to heightened emotional activity. Other links may involve
changes in brain temperature and the release of neurotransmitters (substances that trans-
mit nerve impulses.) The contraction of facial muscles both influences the internal emotion
44 al state and reflects it. Ekman has found that the so-called Duchenne smile, which is char-
acterized by “crow’s feet” wrinkles around the eyes and a subtle drop in the eye cover fold
so that the skin above the eye moves down slightly toward the eyeball, can lead to pleasant
feelings.
48 Ekman’s observation may be relevant to the British expression “keep a stiff upper lip”
as a recommendation for handling stress. It might be that a “stiff” lip suppresses emotional
response—as long as the lip is not quivering with fear or tension. But when the emotion
that leads to stiffening the lip is more intense, and involves strong muscle tension, facial
52 feedback may heighten emotional response.

B Which the following is not true on the passage?

A. Smiling is apparently a universal sign of friendliness and approval.
B. Emotional factor can stimulate about muscles and brain factors.
C. Expressing facial expressions support similar emotions in everybody.
D. Paul Ekman interviews forty students for research sampling.

C The word ‘concur’ is closest in meaning to …

A. Like C. Disturb
B. Dislike D. Impact

D What is the main purpose of the passage?

A. To find emotional expression by using smiling activity.
B. To inform what people express to others.
C. To describe facial expression and emotion relationship.
D. To tell about human social expression.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 243

E These statements are true, except …
A. Signals from the facial muscles are sent back to emotion centers of the brain.
B. The contraction of facial muscles both influences real attitude person.
C. The free expression by outward signs of an emotion intensifies it.
D. Other links may involve changes in brain temperature and the release of neurotransmitters.

F The definition of ‘nerve’ is …

A. A group of long thin fiber that carry information or instructions between the brain and
other parts of the body.
B. Any of the hard parts inside a human or animal that make up its frame.
C. A strong band of tissue in the body connecting a muscle to a bone.
D. One of many tissues in the body that can tighten and relax to produce movement.

G What is the topic of paragraph 5?

A. Facial feedback hypothesis.
B. Facial expression and emotion relationship.
C. Tribe of Fore.
D. Emotional state reflection.

H This passage infers that …

A. The facial expression could indicate people’s emotion.
B. The facial expression depends on social and culture background.
C. Nerve can supply some information on the brain.
D. Muscle reflects human body.

I What is the best title for the passage?

A. Facial expression and emotional problem.
B. Every culture has different expression.
C. A part of facial expression.
D. How to know facial expression.

J The word ‘quivering’ is closest in meaning to …

A. Pull C. Touch
B. Blow D. Tremble

K The last paragraph infers that …

A. Facial feedback may heighten brutality.
B. Emotional response can be influenced by facial feedback.
C. Smiling shows emotional expression.
D. Disgust, fear, and anger are emotional expressions.
Read this text to answer the question number 21-30!
The genome of the banana has been sequenced, an important development in scien-
tist’s efforts to produce better bananas. A look at that genome has revealed curious things,
said Pat Heslop-Harrison, a plant geneticist at the University of Leicester in England who was
4 a coauthor of the report published this week in the journal “Nature”. 
For example, there are regions of the banana genome that don’t seem to be involved
in making proteins but are shared by many different species of plants, far beyond bananas.
What, he wonders, are they doing? There are remnants of bits of banana streak virus spliced
8 into the banana genome (too broken-up to cause disease, however). There are whole sets
of DNA repeats that plants normally have but bananas do not. And, intriguingly, three times
since this genus of giant herbs took an evolutionary turn away from its relatives-the grasses-
it has duplicated its entire set of chromosomes. 
12 Two of the doublings took place at the Cretaceous-Tertiary boundary 65 million years
ago, back when the dinosaurs and lots of other species went extinct, Heslop-Harrison not-
ed. Duplications like this are known to have happened in other plant groups at this same
time but haven’t occurred since, Heslop-Harrison said. Scientists don’t know why, but they
16 believe having extra copies of genes may have imparted some stability to plants during a
time of rapid climate change after an asteroid hit Earth. 
Having more than one gene of each type means that if one gene of a set loses function,
the plant still has another one that works. And there’s more room for adaptability to new cir-
20 cumstances, because one gene could be altered and co-opted for new purposes and there
would still be the other one left to perform the original job. “Perhaps it’s the reason [bananas
have] done so well in the subsequent millions of years,” Heslop-Harrison said. “One can ask,
will changes occurring in the world’s climate now mean there’s going to be a whole set of
24 new genome duplications that will enable plants to survive? We don’t know that, but it’s
interesting to consider.” 
The banana genome sequenced by the French scientists was from the Pahang, a wild
Malaysian banana of the species Musa acuminata. It’s a key species in the complicated evo-
28 lution of the bananas and plantains people eat around the world, including the Cavendish
banana that we buy at the supermarket. The sterile Cavendish is a so-called triploid: It has
three sets of chromosomes instead of the normal two. One of those genomes came from
Pahang. The others came from other subspecies of Musa acuminata. The changes occurred
32 stepwise, and went something like this:
Thousands of years ago, two wild banana species from different parts of the islands of
Southeast Asia were brought into the same range by people. They formed hybrids. A bit like
mules, the hybrids were vigorous but fairly sterile. The hybrids were kept going without sex
36 through propagation of their shoots. At some point, the hybrids developed the ability to set
fruit without being fertilized.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 245

 Then (for most bananas, including the Cavendish) came another chance event that
caused the hybrids to end up with three sets of chromosomes. Every now and again, the few
40 viable eggs and pollen that they made would mistakenly contain two sets of chromosomes
instead of just one.
When a double-chromosome pollen combined with a single-chromosome egg (or vice
versa), the result was a hopelessly sterile plant with even more vigorous fruit. Events like this
44 happened more than once and sometimes included other types of ancestral banana species. 
Some scientists, in fact, have made a whole study of banana domestication and movement
around the world. They’ve pieced the story together using quite different strands of informa-
tion, including the genomes of wild and cultivated bananas, the microscopic relics of banana
48 leaf material found at archaeological sites, and even the word for “banana” in different lan-
guages. 
Source: www.graduateshotline.com

L What is the author’s main point?

A. The quality improvement is needed to develop Banana fruit.
B. That banana has potential marketing.
C. A banana has many different shape and taste.
D. The genome of banana is easy to plant in tropical land.

M In paragraph 2, the word 'remnant' is closest in meaning to …

A. Hind C. Garbage
B. Residue D. Roof

N According to the passage, which statement is wrong?

A. There are whole sets of DNA repeats that plants normally have but bananas do not.
B. There are remnants of bits of banana streak virus spliced into the banana genome.
C. Three times since this genus of giant herbs took an evolutionary turn away.
D. It has three sets of genetic instead of the normal two.

O What is the main idea of paragraph 4?

A. A banana can plant until million years.
B. A banana has a lot of advantages.
C. One gene of a set loses function.
D. Watering a plant too much is not proposed.

P The definition of ‘hybrid’ is …

A. A plant or animal that has been produced from two different types of plant or animal,
especially to get better.
B. A living thing which grows in earth, in water or on other plants, and usually has a stem,
leaves, roots and flowers and produces seeds.
 C. A small round or oval object produced by a plant and from which, when it is planted, a
new plant can grow.
D. A chemical substance used to kill harmful insects, small animals, wild plants and other
unwanted organisms.

Q Which of the following statement as advantage from hybrid process?

A. That hybrid can support be fertile plants.
B. The hybrids developed the ability to set fruit without being fertilized.
C. The hybrids help growing a plant.
D. A plant has growing faster.

R The word ‘pollen’ can be defined as …

A. A powder produced by the male part of a flower, which is carried by insects or the wind
and causes the female part of the same type of flower to produce seeds.
B. One of the flat, usually green parts of a plant which are joined at one end to the stem or
branch.
C. A central part of something from which other parts can develop or grow, or which forms
a support.
D. A part of something larger.

S The word ‘relics’ is closest in meaning to …

A. Old C. House
B. Unique D. Inheritance

T Who is Pat Heslop-Harrison?

A. A plant geneticist C. An Activist
B. A doctor D. A Writer

U What is the feature of Musa acuminata?

A. A delicious banana in taste.
B. It can be planted every places.
C. That’s complicated evolution of the bananas.
D. That banana easy to find in the world.

Read this text to answer the question number 31-40!

Language diversity has always been part of the national demographic landscape
of the United States. At the time of the first census in 1790, about 25% of the population
spoke languages other than English (Lepore, 2002). Thus, there was a diverse pool of native
4 speakers of other languages at the time of the founding of the republic. Today, nationwide,
school districts have reported more than 400 languages spoken by language-minority stu-
dents classified as limited English proficient (LEP) students (Kindler, 2002). Between 1991
and 2002, total K-12 student enrollment rose only 12%, whereas LEP student enrollment

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 247

8 increased 95% during this same time period (National Clearinghouse for English Language
Acquisition, 2002b). This rapid increase and changing demographics has intensified the long
debate over the best way to educate language-minority students.
Historically, many groups attempted to maintain their native languages even as they learned
12 English, and for a time, some were able to do so with relatively little resistance until a wave of
xenophobia swept the country during World War 1 (Kloss, 1977/1998). Other groups, Africans,
and Native Americans encountered repressive politics much earlier. During the 1960s, a more
tolerant policy climate emerged. However, for the past two decades there has been a steady un
16 dertow of resistance to bilingualism and bilingual education. This article provides historical back-
ground and analyzes contemporary trends in language-minority education within the context of
the recent national push for accountability, which typically takes the form of high-stakes testing.
The origins of persistent themes regarding the popular antagonisms toward bilingual
20 education and the prescribed panaceas of “English immersion” and high-stakes testing in
English need to be scrutinized. As background to the contemporary context, we briefly dis-
cuss the history of language politics in the United States and the ideological underpinnings
of the dominant monolingual English ideology. We analyze the recent attacks on bilingual
24 education for what this attack represents for educational policy within a multilingual society
such as the United States.
We emphasize multilingual because most discussions of language policy are framed as if
monolingualism were part of our heritage from which we are now drifting. Framing the lan-
28 guage policy issues in this way masks both the historical and contemporary reality and posi-
tions non-English language diversity as an abnormality that must be cured. Contrary to the
steady flow of disinformation, we begin with the premise that even as English has historically
been the dominant language in the United States since the colonial era, language diversity has
32 always been a fact of life. Thus, efforts to deny that reality represent a “malady of mind” (Blaut,
1993) that has resulted in either restrictionist or repressive language policies for minorities.
As more states ponder imposing restrictions on languages of instruction other than En-
glish-as California, Arizona, and Massachusetts have recently done-it is useful to highlight
36 several questions related to the history of language politics and language planning in the
United States. Educational language planning is frequently portrayed as an attempt to solve
the language problems of the minority. Never­theless, the historical record indicates that
schools have generally failed to meet the needs of language-minority students (Deschenes,
40 Cuban, & Tyack, 2001) and that the endeavor to plan language behavior by forcing a rapid
shift to English has often been a source of language problems that has resulted in the denial
of language rights and hindered linguistic access to educational, social, economic, and po-
litical benefits even as the promoters of English immersion claim the opposite.
44 The dominance of English was established under the British during the colonial peri-
od, not by official decree but through langu­age status achievement, that is, through “the
 legitimization of a go­ver­nment’s decisions regarding acceptable language for those who
are to carry out the political, economic, and social affairs of the political process” (Heath,
48 1976, p.51). English achieved dominance as a result of the political and socioeconomic trade
between England and colonial administrators, colonists, and traders. Other languages coex-
isted with English in the colonies with notable exceptions.
Enslaved Africans were prohibited from using their native tongues for fear that it would
52 facilitate resistance or rebellion. From the 1740s forward, southern colonies simultaneously
institutiona­lized “compulsory ignorance” laws that prohibited those enslaved from acquiring
English literacy for similar reasons. These restrictive slave codes were carried forward as the
former southern colonies became states of the newly United States and remained in force
56 until the end of the Civil War in 1865 (Weinberg, 1977/1995). Thus, the very first formal lan-
guage policies were restrictive with the explicit purpose of promoting social control.
Source: www.graduateshotline.com

V What is the author main idea of paragraph 1?

A. Language rises dramatically in United States.
B. Language is as a part landscape in United States.
C. There is a growth in two centuries.
D. Language diversity supports diversity in culture.

W How long that K-12 student enlistment grows?

A. 9 years C. 11 years
B. 10 years D. 12 years

X According to text, what is called limited English proficient (LEP)?

A. Students are able to master English competence.
B. Students have a low and no skillful in English competence.
C. Someone doesn’t understand how to use English.
D. Someone doesn’t know what people say.

Y The phrase of ‘a wave of xenophobia’ in line 12-13 means …

A. Extreme dislike or fear of foreigners, their customs, their religions.
B. A person who is too eager to avoid danger, difficulty or pain.
C. To want to have something very much, especially something which belongs to someone
else.
D. Someone who proudly talks a lot about themselves and their achievements or posses-
sions.

Z The word ‘undertow’ means …

A. A strong current flowing under water in a different direction to the way the water on the
surface is moving.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 249

 B. To do or begin to do something, especially something that will take a long time or be
difficult.
C. To end something by force.
D. An official statement that something must happen.

a What is the main purpose of this article?

A. To support research and development in language.
B. To maintain language existence and language diversity.
C. To grow culture and language in the world.
D. To elaborate contemporary trend and historical background in language.

b The word ‘underpinning’ in line 22 can be replaced by …

A. Stick C. Wall
B. Base D. Pole

c Why the author presses about multilingual in this passage? Because …

A. Language policy is framed as monolingual in our heritage.
B. Language topic is dominant for communication in United States.
C. Multilingual is one of way to create effective communication.
D. Multilingual has many advantages socially and culturally.

d According to the passage, what is the solution for language pro­blems of the minority?
A. Deciding an education language planning.
B. Support an language center.
C. Joining for education treatment.
D. Language education empowerment.

e Which the following sentences are true, except …

A. English achieved dominance as a result of the political and socioeconomic trade be-
tween England and colonial administrators, colonists, and traders.
B. Language is categorized by social and culture.
C. Enslaved Africans were prohibited from using their native tongues for fear that it would
facilitate resistance or rebellion.
D. During the 1960s, a more tolerant policy climate emerged.

Read this text to answer the question number 41-50!

When people learn to play video games, they are learning a new literacy. Of course, this
is not the way the word “literacy” is normally used. Traditionally, people think of literacy as the
ability to read and write. Why, then, should we think of literacy more broadly, in regard to video
4 games or anything else, for that matter? There are two reasons.
First, in the modern world, language is not the only important communicational sys-
tem. Today images, symbols, graphs, diagrams, artifacts, and many other visual symbols are
 particularly significant. Thus, the idea of different types of “visual literacy” would seem to be
8 an important one. For example, being able to “read” the images in advertising is one type
of visual literacy. And, of course, there are diffe­rent ways to read such images, ways that are
more or less aligned with the intentions and interests of the advertisers. Knowing how to
read interior designs in homes, modernist art in museums, and vi­deos on MTV are other
12 forms of visual literacy.
Furthermore, very often today words and images of various sorts are juxtaposed and
integrated in a variety of ways. In newspaper and magazines as well as in textbooks, images
take up more and more of the space alongside words. In fact, in many modern high school
16 and college textbooks in the sciences images not only take up more space, they now carry
meanings that are independent of the words in the text. If you can’t read these images, you
will not be able to recover their meanings from the words in the text as was more usual in
the past. In such multimodal texts (texts that mix words and images), the images often com-
20 municate different things from the words. And the combination of the two modes commu-
nicates things that neither of the modes does separately. Thus, the idea of different sorts of
multimodal literacy seems an important one. Both modes and multimodality go far beyond
images and words to include sounds, music, movement, bodily sensations, and smells.
24 None of this news today, of course. We very obviously live in a world awash with images.
It is our first answer to the question why we should think of literacy more broadly. The sec-
ond answer is this: Even though reading and writing seem so central to what literacy means
traditionally, reading and writing are not such general and obvious matters as they might
28 at first seem. After all, we never just read or write; rather, we always read or write something
in some way.
There are many different ways of reading and writing. We don’t read or write newspa-
pers, legal tracts, essays in literary criticism, poe­try, rap songs, and on through a nearly end-
32 less list in the same way. Each of these domains has its own rules and requirements. Each is a
culturally and historically separate way of reading and writing, and, in that sense, a different
literacy. Furthermore, in each case, if we want to “break the rules” and read against the grain
of the text-for the purposes of critique, for instance-we have to do so in different ways, usu-
36 ally with some relatively deep knowledge of how to read such texts “according to the rules.”
So there are different ways to read different types of texts. Lite­racy is multiple, then, in
the sense that the legal literacy needed for reading law books is not the same as the literacy
needed for reading physics texts or superhero comic books. And we should not be too quick
40 to dismiss the latter form of literacy. Many a superhero comic is replete with post-Freudian
irony of a sort that would make a mo­dern literary critic’s heart beat fast and confuse any
otherwise normal adult. Literacy, then, even as traditionally conceived to involve only print,
is not a unitary thing but a multiple matter. There are, even in regard to printed texts and
44 even leaving aside images and multimo­dal texts, different “literacies.”

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 251

 Once we see this multiplicity of literacy (literacies), we realize that when we think about
reading and writing, we have to think beyond print. Reading and writing in any domain,
whether it is law, rap songs, academic essays, superhero comics, or whatever, are not just
48 ways of decoding print, they are also caught up with and in social prac­tices... Video games
are a new form of art. They will not replace books; they will sit beside them, interact with
them, and change them and their role in society in various ways, as, indeed, they are already
doing strongly with movies. (Today many movies are based on video games and many more
52 are influenced by them.) We have no idea yet how people “read” video games, what mean-
ings they make from them. Still less do we know how they will “read” them in the future.

f What is the topic of the passage?

A. Learning a new literacy
B. Important Learning
C. Literacy in Our Life
D. How to Create Fun Learning

g According to the passage, we can learn language from diverse ways, except …
A. Images C. Artifact
B. Graphs D. Leaflet

h The word ‘modernist’ can be replaced by …

A. Innovator C. Leader
B. Stylist D. New comer

i The word ‘juxtaposed’ means …

A. To recognize or understand that something is valuable, important or as described.
B. To put things which are not similar next to each other.
C. To affect or change how someone or something develops, behaves or thinks.
D. to ask or request someone to go to an event.

j Which is the following is the advantage of images than text?

A. The images can represent text in meaning.
B. The images create new dimension.
C. The images often communicate different things from the words.
D. The images more powerful than a text.

k All are mentioned as being types of ‘ways of reading and writing’, except …
A. Read newspaper C. Poetry
B. Read script D. Rap song
l The author says that …
A. Video game has many bad effects and disadvantages.
B. Video game influences social people interaction.
C. Video game cannot shift from the books.
D. Video game provides a lot of language terms.

m It can be inferred that …

A. Video games are as new literacy this decade.
B. Reading a book is traditional literacy.
C. Reading and writing has different ways.
D. There are many advantages from reading literacy.

n What does the author think about reading video games?

A. He doesn’t really know about it.
B. He imagines that video games can replace the book.
C. He acclaim that video games has many bad influence.
D. He is well aware that literacy has changed.

o What is the meaning of literacy?

A. Easy and enjoyable to read.
B. The physical or mental power or skill needed to do something.
C. The ability to read and write.
D. The ability to do something.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 253

 TEST
UNIT
3

254
 SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 35 Minutes Pindai QR Code di atas
untuk memperoleh
50 Questions audio listening

In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demons­trate your ability to under-
stand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts to this section with special di-
rections for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is stated or implied by the
speakers you hear. You are not allowed to take notes or write in your test book. Do not turn the
pages until you are told to do so.

Part A
Directions
In Part A, you will hear short conversations between two people. At the end of each conversation,
you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and questions will be spoken just
one time. After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your Answer Sheet, find the number of the question and mark your answer.
Listen to an example.
On the recording, you will hear:
(man) : That exam was just awful.
(woman) : Oh, it could have been worse.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
In your test book, you will read:
A. The exam was really awful.
B. It was the worst exam she had ever seen.
C. It couldn’t have been more difficult.
D. It wasn’t that hard.
You learn from the conversation that the man thought the exam was very difficult and that
the woman disagreed with the man. The best answer to the question, “What does the woman
mean?” is (D), “It wasn’t that hard.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
1 A. He agrees with the woman.
B. The black jacket fits to his body.
C. The blue jacket fits to his body.
D. There’s no jacket suit to his body.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 255

2 A. She would make the assignment.
B. She would submit the assignment later.
C. She would do an extra work.
D. She would submit the later assignment on time.

3 A. He doesn’t want extra sugar in his tea.

B. He likes the sweetest tea.
C. His tea isn’t sweet enough.
D. He likes bitter tea.

4 A. In a library.
B. In a teacher room.
C. In front of the hall campus.
D. In a front office.

5 A. The movie was interesting.

B. The movie was less attractive.
C. The movie was boring.
D. The movie can take the man’s eye.

6 A. The prices are reasonable.

B. The store is too far out of town.
C. She would like the man to repeat what he said.
D. She agrees with the man.

7 A. Mrs. Peterson was the new rector.

B. Mrs. Peterson took Mr. Ernest’s position as the rector.
C. Mr. Ernest took Mrs. Peterson’s position as the rector.
D. Mr. Ernest didn’t become a new principal.

8 A. He had not gone to the store.

B. He was still at the market.
C. He was going to take care of the shopping.
D. He always went to the market.

9 A. Not wearing the dress now.

B. Wearing another dress for the welcoming party.
C. Try the dress first before wears it to the party.
D. Never wearing the dress to the party.

A A. She didn’t finish her paper because of the weather.

B. She typed a lot of pages even if it was hot.
C. It couldn’t be too hot to finish the assignment.
D. She finished her paper even if it was hot.

256
B A. He disagrees with the woman.
B. He thinks their new lecturer isn’t fussy.
C. He shares the same idea with the woman.
D. He likes their new lecturer.

C A. He didn’t finish the assignment.

B. He loved to finish the assignment.
C. Neither the man nor Ethan finished the assignment.
D. Ethan finished the assignment.

D A. He will contact her as soon as he arrives in Manhattan.

B. He will give her a line.
C. He will drop in Manhattan.
D. He goes without any single word.

E A. He didn’t like she asks him to join the contest.

B. He will join the contest even though he can’t sing.
C. He won’t join the contest.
D. He is hopeless in everything.

F A. He projected that the group wouldn’t work.

B. He’s rather work alone.
C. He’s doing on a project about group references.
D. Group preference is his preference.

G A. The teacher angered the students with the exam results.

B. The boisterous students made the teacher mad.
C. The students were angry that the teacher was around.
D. The angered students complained to the teacher.

H A. In the office lobby.

B. At the school hall.
C. In the amusement park.
D. In the library.

I A. Find a student who wants to be her roommate.

B. Cancel the application.
C. Wait until there will be an empty room.
D. Ask the man to give her a room.

J A. She hasn’t bought anything for the party.

B. She wanted to prepare the food.
C. A bag of fruits and also meat have been bought by her.
D. She only bought oranges and beef tenderloin.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 257

K A. She hasn’t to scold Janet in publicly.
B. She hasn’t to dress Janet.
C. She hasn’t to believe that Janet broke her glasses.
D. Her glasses didn’t break at all.

L A. He couldn’t finish brake the computer.

B. He hadn’t finished his online assignment, but he was brake.
C. He was working on the assignment when his computer broken.
D. His assignment was incomplete because his computer was broken.

M A. He is the most brilliant students.

B. She is not that smart.
C. She is as genius as the other students.
D. There is someone more genius than she is.

N A. There’s no possibility that he was in jail.

B. Adam was a nice guy.
C. Adam could be in jail.
D. Adam was over nice to be in jail.

O A. She gave the assignment her best effort.

B. She finished the assignment even though it was difficult.
C. She gave the man a signal.
D. She didn’t do the work.

P A. He disagrees with the woman.

B. He thinks both jazz music and blues are classy.
C. He shares the same idea with the woman.
D. Group preference is his preference.

Q A. She believes that Jenny got her promotion.

B. She has heard the news.
C. She is positive about Jenny.
D. She is unsure that Jenny got her promotion.

R A. She should find another babysitter.

B. She should take care of her niece herself.
C. She should find a babysitter in the morning.
D. She should employ a babysitter tomorrow morning.

S A. He needs to finish the housework.

B. He should be boring of the housework.
C. The housework has been done.
D. He wishes the housework are easier to do.
T A. She doesn’t believe about the news.
B. She has heard the news.
C. She is unpredictable.
D. She thinks their debate team in unpredictable.

U A. She may apply the scholarship.

B. She can speak Japanese language, she will apply it.
C. It is impossible to apply the scholarship.
D. She will apply the scholarship even though she cannot speak Japanese language.

Part B
Directions
In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each conversation, you will
hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a
question, read the four possible answers in your test book and choose the best answer. Then,
on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to
the letter of the answer you have chosen. Remember, you are not allowed to take notes or write
in your test book.
V A. Doctor.
B. Midwifery.
C. Cafeteria employee.
D. Front officer.

W A. How to register for a room.

B. How to consult with Dr. Edward.
C. How to prepare surgery.
D. How to be Dr. Edward’s assistant.

X A. Fill the registration form and complete all the requirements.

B. Take a close up picture.
C. Wait in the waiting room before being called.
D. Call the registration employee and make an appointment.

Y A. Register again in the Information and Registration.

B. Get the queue number.
C. Wait in the waiting room before being called.
D. Call the registration employee and make an appointment.

Z A. Steps in applying an online scholarship.

B. How to get student’s accommodations.
C. Steps in applying in a University.
D. How to apply scholarship by letter.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 259

a A. About scholarship abroad.
B. About student’s accommodation.
C. The course in their major.
D. Countries which offer scholarship.

b A. Six. C. Eight.
B. Nine. D. Seven.

c A. Microsoft Word.
B. JPEG and Microsoft Excel. .
C. Microsoft Word and PDF.
D. JPEG and PDF.

Part C
Directions
In this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After each talk, you will hear some questions.
The talks and questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the four possible
answers. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example.
On the recording, you will hear:
(narrator) : Listen to an instructor talk to his class about painting.
(man) : Good morning class. Follow up our last meeting about surealism, today we’ll talk
about Realism. Realism reveals about the phenomena that occur in this world, for
example we can see from a natural fact of life experienced and objectively and real.
As a refutation of realism, static classicism and romanticism excessive mainly were
supported by the rise of the socialist era 17-18th centuries.
(narrator) : What is the topic of the talk?
In your test book, you will read:
A. Art with surealism.
B. Art with realism.
C. Art with static classicism.
D. Art with romanticism.
The best answer to the question, “What is the topic of the talk?” is (B), “Art with realism.”Therefore,
the correct choice is (B).
d A. In a bus tour. C. In a bicycle tour.
B. In a mini bus tour. D. In a helicopter tour.

e A. Five C. Four
B. Six D. Nine
f A. It’s the highest building in United States.
B. It is the second busiest single office in US.
C. It is located in Wall Street.
D. It is divided into four mainly buildings.

g A. Intersection of Fifth Avenue and West 34th Street.

B. Fifth Avenue, Manhattan.
C. East River bank, Turtle Bay.
D. Wall Street, Manhattan.

h A. American teenagers.
B. Parents and the older.
C. Students of medical major.
D. Prisoners.

i A. Firearms were banned. C. Easily licensed.

B. Restricted the ownership. D. Firearms were limited.

j A. Accident caused by alcohol. C. Sexually diseases.

B. Drugs. D. Violence.

k A. Their lifestyle and insecure free sex.

B. Secure free sex.
C. Drugs and alcohol.
D. Blood transfusion.

l A. American Revolution. C. Native American.

B. Tribes in America. D. Life of the Indians.

m A. They have been able to develop highly culture and civilization.

B. They lived in suffer and starved.
C. They depended on the mountain and river.
D. They lived alongside with other tribes such as Mayan, Inca, and so on.

n A. They were killed by the government of United States.

B. They fought the government and moved to lands west of the Mississippi River.
C. They fought the government of United States for their freedom.
D. They moved and lived in South America.

o A. Becoming an American national.

B. Doing global business.
C. Hunting, fishing and farming.
D. Building new civilizations.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 261

 SECTION 2
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 25 Minutes
40 Questions

1 The strategy of recombining the words … constructing a meaningful sentence or longer

expression.
A. involve C. involving
B. involves D. has involve

2 … an article which related to our thesis is the final assignment for this semester.
A. Write C. Writing
B. Writes D. Written

3 Thestore’s owner in the corner street … some daily needs there since his mother gave a
building to him for five years.
A. has sold C. sells
B. sell D. have sold

4 My younger brother … the swimming competition last week.

A. win C. won
B. wins D. will win

5 By practicing English speech, It’s not only can practice our speaking’s ability … can increase
our vocabularies.
A. nor C. and
B. or D. but also

6 Susi showed her best performance, she gave a proof . . .

A. who she is C. who she was
B. who is she D. who was she
7 A man … I met in the airport yesterday is my biology teacher in Junior High School.
A. whom C. which
B. who D. whose

8 A letter is … by him for his parents before he moves to a new house which far from there.
A. wrote C. writes
B. write D. written
9 … as a favorite place for having breakfast in my family.
A. A square brown table C. A brown square table
B. Table a brown square D. A table aquare brown

A Mira didn’t attend the workshop because she took care her daughter last Friday and …
Luvina.
A. did either C. either did
B. didn’t neither D. neither did

B She must … her father to the hospital therefore she can’t go to school to day.
A. bring C. brought
B. to bring D. will bring

C They make their teacher … more difficult questions for the next test.
A. to give C. gave
B. gives D. given

D If I go to the highest mountain in Indonesia, I … show it to you by giving the pictures.

A. will C. have
B. would D. has

E We wish that our parents were living with us forever.

What is the fact of the sentence above?
A. Our parents were living with us forever.
B. Our parents didn’t living with us forever.
C. Our parents were not living with us forever.
D. Our parents live with us forever.

F This class … an opportunity to present all of the essay that have been made by the students.
A. has C. is
B. have D. am

Identify one word or phrase that should be changed in order to make good sen-
tence.
G A lot of students and teacher get together in the field for celebrate our independence day.
A B C D

H She has some hobbies such as writing a novel, reading a newspaper, and cook Italian food.
A B C D

I A book whom is published by Pearson became the best seller book in English department
A B C D
students.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 263

J The lecturer lets the students to choose their own learning strategy based on their characteristics.
A B C D

K If we discuss the research to our supervisors, we would get the suggestions and revisions
A B C D
from them.

L Neither Shinta or I don’t have idea to determine the topic for an article.
A B C D

M Moon mall, the biggest mall in this city that has been build since 2013 spent a lot of money.
A B C D

N My first book will be publish on April. I can’t imagine that I can write a book even it’s just an
A B C D
exercise book.

O In the trophical heat of the Philippines a experiment was undertaken to improve the language
A B
learning strategies by providing learning strategy materials.
C D

P She must went to the market this morning, it will be a small party in her house.
A B C D

Q In developing the curriculum we should not only consider the materials, if the students’ needs.
A B C D

R Buy a new dress in every week is her bad habit and it can’t be prevented.
A B C D

S I prefer to drink a cup of tea on a blue round table in the terrace.

A B C D

T A woman who her dress is red is the most gorgeous one in the park.
A B C D

U Before analyzing the data, there is a student do not make the instrument analysis to some
A B C D
respondents.

V As a modern teacher, it should be more interesting to teach the lesson by use a media.
A B C D

W It is necessary to design the method before the research are conducted.

A B C D
X Either class A nor class B are given a prize from the lecture after showing our presentations.
A B C D

Y If it was sunny day, I will go to the beach with all of my friends.

A B C D

Z Roni likes reapiring his motorcycle by himself and his brother dislikes repairing his motorcycle
A B C D
by himself.

a When he went to a book store yesterday, he wanted to buy that books which related to English.
A B C D

b The dog is bark right now. It means that some strangers come to the house.
A B C D

c Experimental research will be choose by Intan as her research next month.

A B C D

d It was very excited movie that we watched in the cinema last night.
A B C D

e Ayu is a receptionist. She used to making a phone call with customers.

A B C D

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 265

 SECTION 3
READING COMPREHENSION
Time: Approximately 55 Minutes
50 Questions

Read this text to answer the question number 1-6!

Ancient people probably assembled the massive sandstone horseshoe at Stonehenge
more than 4,600 years ago, while the smaller bluestones were imported from Wales later, a
new study suggests. The conclusion, detailed in the December issue of the journal Antiquity,
4 challenges earlier timelines that proposed the smaller stones were raised first. 
“The sequence proposed for the site is really the wrong way around,” said study co-au-
thor Timothy Darvill, an archaeologist at Bournemouth University in England. “The original
idea that it starts small and gets bigger is wrong. It starts big and stays big. The new scheme
8 puts the big stones at the center at the site as the first stage.” 
The new timeline, which relies on statistical methods to tighten the dates when the
stones were put into place, overturns the notion that ancient societies spent hundreds of
years building each area of Stonehenge. Instead, a few generations likely built each of the
12 major elements of the site, said Robert Ixer, a researcher who discovered the origin of the
bluestones, but who was not involved in the study. “It’s a very timely paper and a very im-
portant paper,” Ixer said. “A lot of us have got to go back and rethink when the stones arrived.”
The Wiltshire, England, site of Stonehenge is one of the world’s most enduring mysteries. No
16 one knows why prehistoric people built the enigmatic megaliths, although researchers over the
years have argued the site was originally a sun calendar, a symbol of unity, or a burial monument. 
Though only some of the stones remain, at the center of the site once sat an oval of blue-
stones, or igneous rocks (those formed from magma) that turn a bluish hue when wet or fresh-
20 ly cut. Surrounding the bluestones are five giant sandstone megaliths called trilithons, or two
vertical standing slabs capped by a horizontal stone, arranged in the shape of a horseshoe. 
Around the horseshoe, ancient builders erected a circular ring of bluestones. The sand-
stone boulders, or sarsens, can weigh up to 40 tons (36,287 kilograms), while the much
24 smaller bluestones weigh a mere 4 tons (3,628 kg). Past researchers believed the bluestone
oval and circle were erected earlier than the massive sandstone horseshoe. But when Darvill
and his colleagues began excavations at the site in 2008, they found the previous chronolo-
gy didn’t add up. The team estimated the age of new artifacts from the site, such as an antler
28 bone pick stuck within the stones. Combining the new information with dating from past
excavations, the team created a new timeline for Stonehenge’s construction.
Like past researchers, the team believes that ancient people first used the site 5,000 years
ago, when they dug a circular ditch and mound, or henge, about 361 feet (110 meters) in di-
32 ameter. 

But the new analysis suggests around 2600 B.C. the Neolithic people built the giant
sandstone horseshoe, drawing the stone from nearby quarries. Only then did builders ar-
range the much smaller bluestones, which were probably imported from Wales. Those blue-
36 stones were then rearranged at various positions throughout the site over the next millen-
nium, Darvill said. “They sort out the local stuff first, and then they bring in the stones from
Wales to add to the complexity of the structure,” Darvill told LiveScience.
The new dating allows the archaeologists to tie the structure to specific people who lived
40 in the area at the time, Darvill said. The builders of the larger sandstone structures were pig
farmers found only in the British Isles. In contrast, the bluestone builders would’ve been the
Beaker people, sheep and cow herders who lived throughout Europe and are known for the
distinctive, bell-shape pottery they left behind. The new timeline “connects everything togeth-
44 er, it gives us a good sequence of events outside, and it gives us a set of cultural associations
with the different stages of construction,” Darvill said.

1 Why the authors call The Wiltshire as a mysterious monument?

A. Because The Wiltshire provides many museum pieces.
B. Because The Wiltshire mystic myth.
C. Because the site is a most enduring mysteries.
D. Because there is a lot of unique and old stone.

2 What is maximum weight of the sandstone boulders?

A. 36, 286 kilograms C. 40,1 tons
B. 3,628 kg D. 4 tons

3 'Trilithon' means …
A. The megalith giants sandstone.
B. The most heavy and hardiest bluestones.
C. The horseshoe.
D. The oval shape stone.

4 Which the following sentences are true, except …

A. Around the horseshoe, ancient builders erected a circular ring of bluestones.
B. The original idea that it starts small and gets bigger is wrong.
C. Darvill and his colleagues began excavations at the site in 2008, they found the previous
chronology didn’t add up.
D. The bluestone carried much mineral and metal.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 267

5 When did ancient people survive?
A. 5000 years ago C. 2600 B.C.
B. 5000 B.C. D. 2008

6 The definition of ‘antler’ is …

A. A horn with parts like branches which grows on the head of a usually male deer
B. One of the parts of the body of a human or animal that is used for standing or walking.
C. Any of the hard parts inside a human or animal that make up its frame.
D. Either of the two organs in the chest with which people and some animals breathe.

Read this text to answer the question number 7-10!

Nelson Mandela was a great leader who spent his entire adult life working for equality and
justice in South Africa. Mandela has inspired people around the world to work non-violently for a
better life. Mandela is affectionately known by his clan name “Madiba,” or by “Tata”, which means
4 “father.”

Mandela was born on January 18, 1918, in Mvezo, Transkei, in the southeast of South
Africa. He was named Rolihlahla, which means “troublemaker” in the Xhosa language. Man-
dela’s grandfather was the ruler of the Thembu people and his father was a local chief.
8 Mandela was the first person in his family to attend school (both of his parents were illit-
erate). On the first day of school, a teacher at the Methodist mission school, Miss Mdingane,
re-named him Nelson. Nelson did well in school and went on to graduate from college and
attend law school at University of the Witwatersrand (Mandela was the only black African stu
12 dent in his class). Mandela once said, “Education is the most powerful weapon which you can
use to change the world.”
By 1942, Mandela was involved in political causes. He began attending meetings of the
African National Congress (ANC), a revolutionary group whose aim was to fight apartheid
16 (laws establishing racial separation and oppression in South Africa).
Mandela helped found the African National Congress Youth League (ANCYL) in 1944.
He organized boycotts and strikes to fight for voting rights and equality for black South Afri-
cans. In 1944, he married Evelyn Ntoko Mase (they had 4 children).
20 In 1956, Mandela and over 100 associates of his, were arrested for treason. They were all
later acquitted. Mandela divorced Evelyn in 1958, then married Nomzamo Winnie Madikize-
la (with whom he had 2 children).
The ANC was banned in South Africa in 1960. In 1964, Mandala was sentenced to life
24 in prison for fighting apartheid. After spending 27 years in prison, Mandela was released in
1990. Upon his release, Mandela worked to repeal apartheid and stop the growing violence
in South Africa. He also helped establish multiracial elections which would occur in 1994. For
his work, Mandela won the Nobel Peace Prize in 1993 (he shared the prize with with F. W. de
28 Klerk, who was then the President of South Africa).
 In 1994, South Africa held its first truly democratic, non-racial election and chose Nelson
Mandela as its president. Mandela championed reconciliation, the peaceful resolution of
grievances after decades of repressive laws against black South Africans. Without Mandela’s
32 guidance, South Africa might have lapsed into a bloody civil war.
Mandela published his autobiography, “Long Walk to Freedom,” in 1994. The Truth and
Reconciliation Commission was formed in 1995 (it was chaired by Archbishop Desmond
Tutu). The Commission was a court-like organization that was formed in order to document
36 the attrocities that the Afrikan apartheid police state had perpetrated against black people,
and thus begin to heal the rift that had formed between the races in South Africa and avoid
a civil war.
Freedom Day, celebrated on April 27 each year, commemorates the anniversary of South
40 Africa’s first real democratic elections (in which Mandela was elected president).

Mandela served as President of South Africa until 1999 (he refused a second term). On
his 80th birthday, he married Graça Machel (he had divorced Winnie in 1996). His second
book, “Conversations with Myself,” was published in 2010.
44 Nelson Mandela died on December 5, 2013, at the age of 95. He died of natural causes
after a long illness. He will be remembered as one of the greatest peace-makers and states-
men of all time.
Source: www.enchantedlearning.com

7 What is the main idea of paragraph 1?

A. Mandela is as a biggest leader in the world.
B. Mandela never gives up build a nation.
C. His names are Madiba and Tata.
D. All his life spends in prison.

8 The name that given by Miss Mdingane?

A. Nelson C. Madiba
B. Mandela D. Tata

9 What do you mean apartheid?

A. A political system in which people of different races were separated.
B. A black man group fights for human right and political will.
C. The crucial problem in South Africa.
D. The South Africa riot.

A When did he get a divorce at the second term?

A. 1944 C. 1959
B. 1958 D. 1996

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 269

Read this text to answer the question number 11-14!
Most people consider the landscape to be unchanging, but Earth is a dynamic body, and its
surface is continually altering—slowly on the human time scale, but relatively rapidly when com-
pared to the great age of Earth (about 4,500 billion years). There are two principal influences that
4 shape the terrain: constructive processes such as uplift, which create new landscape features,
and destructive forces such as erosion, which gradually wear away exposed landforms.
Hills and mountains are often regarded as the epitome of permanence, successfully re-
sisting the destructive forces of nature, but in fact they tend to be relatively short-lived in
8 geological terms. As a general rule, the higher a mountain is, the more recently it was formed;
for example, the high mountains of the Himalayas are only about 50 million years old. Low-
er mountains tend to be older, and are often the eroded relics of much higher mountain
chains. About 400 million years ago, when the present-day continents of North America and
12 Europe were joined, the Caledonian mountain chain was the same size as the modern Hima-
layas. Today, however, the relics of the Caledonian orogeny (mountain-building period) exist
as the compa­ratively low mountains of Greenland, the northern Appalachians in the United
States, the Scottish Highlands, and the Norwegian coastal plateau.
16 The Earth’s crust is thought to be divided into huge, movable segments, called plates,
which float on a soft plastic layer of rock. Some mountains were formed as a result of these
plates crashing into each other and forcing up the rock at the plate margins. In this process,
sedimentary rocks that originally formed on the seabed may be folded upwards to altitudes
20 of more than 26,000 feet. Other mountains may be raised by earthquakes, which fracture
the Earth’s crust and can displace enough rock to produce block mountains. A third type of
mountain may be formed as a result of volcanic activity which occurs in regions of active fold
mountain belts, such as in the Cascade Range of western North America. The Cascades are
24 made up of lavas and volcanic materials. Many of the peaks are extinct volcanoes.
Whatever the reason for mountain formation, as soon as land rises above sea level it
is subjected to destructive forces. The exposed rocks are attacked by the various weather
processes and gradually broken down into fragments, which are then carried away and later
28 deposited as sediments. Thus, any landscape represents only a temporary stage in the con-
tinuous battle between the forces of uplift and those of erosion.
The weather, in its many forms, is the main agent of erosion. Rain washes away loose soil
and penetrates cracks in the rocks. Carbon dioxide in the air reacts with the rainwater, forming
32 a weak acid (carbonic acid) that may chemically attack the rocks. The rain seeps underground
and the water may reappear later as springs. These springs are the sources of streams and
rivers, which cut through the rocks and carry away debris from the mountains to the lowlands.
Under very cold conditions, rocks can be shattered by ice and frost. Glaciers may form
36 in permanently cold areas, and these slowly moving masses of ice cut out valleys, carrying
with them huge quantities of eroded rock debris. In dry areas the wind is the principal agent
 of erosion. It carries fine particles of sand, which bombard exposed rock surfaces, thereby
wearing them into yet more sand. Even living things contribute to the formation of land-
40 scapes. Tree roots force their way into cracks in rocks and, in so doing, speed their splitting.
In contrast, the roots of grasses and other small plants may help to hold loose soil fragments
together, thereby helping to prevent erosion by the wind.
One of the primary ways of approaching the Greek theatre is through archeology, the sys
44 tematic study of material remains such as architecture, inscriptions, sculpture, vase painting,
and other forms of decorative art. Serious on-site excavations began in Greece around 1870,
but W. Derpfeld did not begin the first extensive study of the Theatre of Dionysus until 1886.
Since that time, more than 167 other Greek theatres have been identified and many of them
48 have been excavated. Nevertheless, they still do not permit us to describe the precise appear-
ance of the scene (illustrations printed in books are conjectural reconstructions), since many
pieces are irrevocably lost because the buildings in later periods became sources of stone for
other projects and what remains is usually broken and scattered. That most of the buildings
52 were remodeled many times has created great problems for those seeking to date the succes-
sive versions. Despite these drawbacks, archeology provides the most concrete evidence we
have about the theatre structures of ancient Greece. But, if they have told us much, archeolo-
gists have not completed their work, and many sites have scarcely been touched.

56 Perhaps the most controversial use of archeological evidence in theatre history is vase

paintings, thousands of which have survived from ancient Greece. (Most of those used by the-
atre scholars are reproduced in Margarete Biebers The History of the Greek and Roman The-
atre.) Depicting scenes from mythology and daily life, the vases are the most graphic pictorial
60 evidence we have. But they are also easy to misinterpret. Some scholars have considered any
vase that depicts a subject treated in a surviving drama or any scene showing masks, flute
players, or ceremonials to be valid evidence of theatrical practice. This is a highly questionable
assumption, since the Greeks made widespread use of masks, dances, and music outside the
64 theatre and since the myths on which dramatists drew were known to everyone, including
vase painters, who might well depict the same subjects as dramatists without being indebted
to them. Those vases showing scenes unquestionably theatrical are few in number.
The texts to classical Greek plays were written down soon after the performance and
68 possibly even before, though it is not always clear when or by whom. By 400 B.C.E., there
was a flourishing book trade in Greece, but the texts for plays were a challenge. Hellenistic
scholars dedicated years to sorting out the text and removing what they believed to be
corruptions generally added by actors, but each time a text was copied there were new
72 possibilities for errors.
The oldest surviving manuscripts of Greek plays date from around the tenth century,
C.E., some 1500 years after they were first performed. Nevertheless, the scripts offer us our
readiest access to the cultural and theatrical conditions out of which they came. But these
76 scripts, like other kinds of evidence, are subject to varying interpretations. Certainly perfor-

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 271

 mances embodied a male perspective, for example, since the plays were written, selected,
staged, and acted by men. Yet the existing plays feature numerous choruses of women and
many feature strong female characters. Because these characters often seem victims of their
80 own powerlessness and appear to be governed especially in the comedies, by sexual desire,
some critics have seen these plays as rationalizations by the male-dominated culture for
keeping women segregated and cloistered. Other critics, however, have seen in these same
plays an attempt by male authors to force their male audiences to examine and call into
84 question this segregation and cloistering of Athenian women.
By far the majority of written references to Greek theatre date from several hundred years
after the events they report. The writers seldom mention their sources of evidence, and thus
we do not know what credence to give them. In the absence of material nearer in time to the
88 events, however historians have used the accounts and have been grateful to have them. Over-
all, historical treatment of the Greek theatre is something like assembling a jigsaw puzzle from
which many pieces are missing: historians arrange what they have and imagine (with the aid of
the remaining evidence and logic) what has been lost. As a result, though the broad outlines of
92 Greek theatre history are reasonably clear, many of the details remain open to doubt.
Source: www.tryTOEFLonline.com

B Which the following fundamental influences shape the terrain?

A. Reforestation C. Create new area
B. Landforms exploration D. Dilapidate erosion

C According to the passage, what did happened in 400 million years ago?
A. Caledonian mountain was biggest than Himalaya mountain.
B. North America and Europe were joined.
C. Greenland and Appalachians were separated by ocean.
D. The Greenland was covered by hill and escarpment.

D Which of the following does not define the earth's crust?

A. Huge C. Plate
B. Movable segments D. Land

E The word 'debris' is closest in meaning to …

A. Rock C. Ruins
B. Facture D. Stone

Read this text bellow to answer the question number 15-20!

The first peoples to inhabit what today is the southeastern United States sustained themselves
as hunters and gathers. Sometimes early in the first millennium A.D., however, they began to cul-
tivate corn and other crops. Gradually, as they became more skilled at gardening, they settled into
4 permanent villages and developed a rich culture, characterized by the great earthen mounds they
erected as monuments to their gods and as tombs for their distinguished dead. Most of these early
 mound builders were part of the Adena-Hopewell culture, which had its beginnings near the Ohio
River and takes its name from sites in Ohio. The culture spread southward into the present-day
8 states of Louisiana, Alabama, Georgia, and Florida. Its peoples became great traders, bartering jew-
ellery, pottery, animal pelts, tools, and other goods along extensive trading networks that stretched
up and down eastern North America and as far west as the Rocky Mountains.
About A.D. 400, the Hopewell culture fell into decay. Over the next centuries, it was sup-
12 planted by another culture, the Mississippian, named after the river along which many of its
earliest villages were located. This complex civilization dominated the Southeast from about
A.D. 700 until shortly before the Europeans began arriving in the sixteenth century. At the
peak of its strength, about the year 1200, it was the most advanced culture in North America.
16 Like their Hopewell predecessors, the Mississippians became highly skilled at growing food,
although on a grander scale. They developed an improved strain of corn, which could survive
in wet soil and a relatively cool climate, and also learned to cultivate beans. Indeed, agriculture
became so important to the Mississippians that it became closely associated with the Sun –
20 the guarantor of good crops. Many tribes called themselves “children of the Sun” and believed
their omnipotent priest-chiefs were descendants of the great sun god.
Although most Mississippians lived in small villages, many others inhabited large towns.
Most of these towns boasted at least one major flat-topped mound on which stood a tem-
24 ple that contained a sacred flame. Only priests and those charged with guarding the flame
could enter the temples. The mounds also served as ceremonial and trading sites, and at
times they were used as burial grounds.

F What is the main idea of this passage?

A. The location of village and towns.
B. The early people and history culture of the United States.
C. The social relationship in United States.
D. The Adena Hopewell culture.

G What did people do to survive in their life at first millennium?

A. They learn about cultivation and gardening.
B. They develop potential skill.
C. They maintain natural resources.
D. They create good social relation.

H The word supplemented is closest in meaning to …

A. substituted C. complement
B. replied D. designed

I According to the passage, when did the Mississippian culture attain at the largest number?
A. About A.D. 400 C. Between A.D. 400 and A.D. 700
B. About A.D. 1200 D. In the sixteenth century

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 273

J The word decay can be replaced with …
A. decide C. jump
B. lost D. throw

K The word omnipotent is closest in meaning with …

A. The Almighty C. The Great
B. The Glory D. The Power

Read this text bellow to answer the question number 21-25!

Discovered in the early 1800s and named ‘nicotianine’, the oily essence now called nic-
otine is the main active ingredient of tobacco. Nicotine, however, is only a small component
of cigarette smoke, which contains more than 4,700 chemical compounds, including 43 can
4 cer-causing substances. In recent times, scientific research has been providing evidence that
years of cigarette smoking vastly increases the risk of developing fatal medical conditions.
In addition to being responsible for more than 85 per cent of lung cancers, smoking is as-
sociated with cancers of, amongst others, the mouth, stomach and kidneys, and is thought to
8 cause about 14 per cent of leukemia and cervical cancers. In 1990, smoking caused more than
84,000 deaths, mainly resulting from such problems as pneumonia, bronchitis and influenza.
Smoking, it is believed, is responsible for 30 per cent of all deaths from cancer and clearly rep-
resents the most important preventable cause of cancer in countries like the United States today.
12 Passive smoking, the breathing in of the side-stream smoke from the burning of tobacco
between puffs or of the smoke exhaled by a smoker, also causes a serious health risk. A report
published in 1992 by the US Environmental Protection Agency (EPA) emphasized the health
dangers, especially from side-stream smoke. This type of smoke contains more smaller particles
16 and is therefore more likely to be deposited deep in the lungs. On the basis of this report, the
EPA has classified environmental tobacco smoke in the highest risk category for causing cancer.
As an illustration of the health risks, in the case of a married couple where one partner
is a smoker and one a non-smoker, the latter is believed to have a 30 per cent higher risk of
20 death from heart disease because of passive smoking. The risk of lung cancer also increases
over the years of exposure and the figure jumps to 80 per cent if the spouse has been smok-
ing four packs a day for 20 years. It has been calculated that 17 per cent of cases of lung
cancer can be attributed to high levels of exposure to second-hand tobacco smoke during
24 childhood and adolescence.
A more recent study by researchers at the University of California at San Francisco
(UCSF) has shown that second-hand cigarette smoke does more harm to non-smokers than
to smokers. Leaving aside the philosophical question of whether anyone should have to
28 breathe someone else’s cigarette smoke, the report suggests that the smoke experienced
by many people in their daily lives is enough to produce substantial adverse effects on a
person’s heart and lungs. Academic Reading sample task–Identifying writer’s views/claims.
 The report, published in the Journal of the American Medical Association (AMA), was
32 based on the researchers’ own earlier research but also includes a review of studies over the
past few years. The American Medical Association represents about half of all US doctors
and is a strong opponent of smoking. The study suggests that people who smoke cigarettes
are continually damaging their cardiovascular system, which adapts in order to compensate
36 for the effects of smoking. It further states that people who do not smoke do not have the
benefit of their system adapting to the smoke inhalation. Consequently, the effects of pas-
sive smoking are far greater on non-smokers than on smokers.
This report emphasizes that cancer is not caused by a single element in cigarette smoke;
40 harmful effects to health are caused by many components. Carbon monoxide, for example,
competes with oxygen in red blood cells and interferes with the blood’s ability to deliver
life-giving oxygen to the heart. Nicotine and other toxins in cigarette smoke activate small
blood cells called platelets, which increases the likelihood of blood clots, thereby affecting
44 blood circulation throughout the body.
The researchers criticize the practice of some scientific consultants who work with the
tobacco industry for assuming that cigarette smoke has the same impact on smokers as it
does on non-smokers. They argue that those scientists are underestimating the damage
48 done by passive smoking and, in support of their recent findings, cite some previous re-
search which points to passive smoking as the cause for between 30,000 and 60,000 deaths
from heart attacks each year in the United States. This means that passive smoking is the
third most preventable cause of death after active smoking and alcohol-related diseases
52 The study argues that the type of action needed against passive smoking should be
similar to that being taken against illegal drugs and AIDS (SIDA). The UCSF researchers main-
tain that the simplest and most cost-effective action is to establish smoke-free work places,
schools and public places.
Source: www.ielts.org

L What is the best title of the passage?

A. Smoking Threatens to Kill Our Body
B. Nicotine is Very Harmful Chemical
C. Cervical Cancer is Caused by Smoking
D. Smoking: It’s Dangerous for Human Life

M According to the passage, smoking has bad impact for our body, because
A. Smoking never gives a guarantee of life.
B. Smoking contributes disease such a pneumonia, bronchitis and influenza.
C. It supports spreading pollution.
D. It has many weaknesses than advantages.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 275

N Who will get 30 per cent the biggest risk of death from heart disease?
A. Active smoker C. Family smoker
B. Passive smoker D. Non family smoker

O The following sentences are true, EXCEPT …

A. The study suggests that people who smoke cigarettes are continually damaging their
car­dio­vas­cular system, which adapts in order to compensate for the effects of smoking.
B. Nicotine, however, is only a small component of cigarette smoke, which contains more
than 4,700 chemical compounds, including 43 cancer-causing substances.
C. Cancer is not caused by a single element in cigarette smoke.
D. The smoking lover never consider their healthy and future.

P The word 'adverse' is closest in meaning to …

A. Go a bankrupt C. Fluctuate
B. Stable D. Profit

Read this text bellow to answer the question number 26-28!

Airbus says it has turned the corner after a crisis connected to production problems and tur-
moil in the boardroom at its A380 super-jumbo project that has gone on for the past year. Speak-
ing at the Paris air show, Louis Gallois, CEO of the European planemaker, said, “Airbus is back.”
4 Airbus, which announced a raft of orders on the first day of the show, is competing with
Boeing, its American rival, for the title of the largest planemaker in the world. Boeing is ex-
pected to reveal the numbers of orders for its 787 Dreamliner soon. Airbus orders unveiled
on Monday included Qatar Airways confirming a $16bn order for 80 A350 Airbus planes and
8 ordering three A380 super-jumbos for about $750m.
Boeing and Airbus are also competing for orders from aircraft leasing firms. Orders from these
companies-who rank highly among the biggest global buyers of aircraft-are often regarded as an
indication of how successful a model will be in the long term. Air­bus also secured orders from US
12 Airways that are worth $10bn for 22 of its A350 jets, 60 A320s and ten of its A330-200 wide-body
planes. A few months ago, Airbus unveiled a major cost-cutting pro­gramme aiming to reduce the
workforce in Europe by 10,000, as well as announcing a group restructuring. “I can tell you with full
confidence that Airbus is back and fully back, as you have started noting yesterday as demonstrat-
16 ed by our first day announcements,” said Mr Gallois on the second day of the air show. 
However, Boeing also announced a deal with General Electric (GE) on the show’s first
day. GE’s commercial aviation services placed an order for six 777 Boeing freighters valued
at around $1.4bn, to be delivered in the last quarter of 2008. A Wall Street Journal website
20 report, quoting the Delta operating chief yesterday said that Delta Air Lines were on the
verge of ordering as many as 125 Boeing 787 jetliners by the end of this year. However, a
spokesman for Delta later said that it had been having conversations “with several aircraft
makers” and that “no final decision” had been made on future fleet purchases. 
Source: www.usingenglish.com
Q What is the most appropriate title of the passage?
A. Airbus supplies new product C. Airbus crisis over
B. Boeing is as American rival D. Aircraft production

R According to the passage, Qatar Airways orders the new plane from Airbus …
A. 16 units of A380 super-jumbo C. 80 A350 Airbus planes
B. 16 units of A350 Airbus planes D. Three units of A380 super-jumbo

S The word verge is closest in meaning to …

A. corner C. straight
B. bank D. circular

Read this text bellow to answer the question number 29-33!

Reality television is a genre of television programming which, it is claimed, presents un-
scripted dramatic or humorous situations, documents actual events, and features ordinary
people rather than professional actors. It could be described as a form of artificial or “height
4 ened” documentary. Although the genre has existed in some form or another since the early
years of television, the current explosion of popularity dates from around 2000.
Reality television covers a wide range of television programming formats, from game or
quiz shows which resemble the frantic, often demeaning programmes produced in Japan
8 in the 1980s and 1990s (a modern example is Gaki no tsukai), to surveillance- or voyeurism-
focused productions such as Big Brother.
Critics say that the term “reality television” is somewhat of a misnomer and that such shows
frequently portray a modified and highly influenced form of reality, with participants put in exotic
12 locations or abnormal situations, sometimes coached to act in certain ways by off-screen handlers,
and with events on screen manipulated through editing and other post-production techniques.
Part of reality television’s appeal is due to its ability to place ordinary people in extraordi-
nary situations. For example, on the ABC show, The Bachelor, an eligible male dates a dozen
16 women simultaneously, travelling on extraordinary dates to scenic locales. Reality television
also has the potential to turn its participants into national celebrities, outwardly in talent
and performance programs such as Pop Idol, though frequently Survivor and Big Brother
participants also reach some degree of celebrity.
20 Some commentators have said that the name “reality television” is an inaccurate description
for several styles of program included in the genre. In competition-based programs such as Big
Brother and Survivor, and other special-living-environment shows like The Real World, the pro-
ducers design the format of the show and control the day-to-day activities and the e­ nvironment,
24 creating a completely fabricated world in which the competition plays out. Producers specifically
select the participants, and use carefully designed scenarios, challenges, events, and settings to
encourage particular behaviours and conflicts. Mark Burnett, creator of Survivor and other reality
shows, has agreed with this assessment, and avoids the word “reality” to describe his shows; he
28 has said, “I tell good stories. It really is not reality TV. It really is unscripted drama.”

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 277

T What is the topic of the passage?
A. Reality television C. Interesting program
B. Television program D. Dramatic story

U According to the passage, reality television serves some programs, EXCEPT …

A. Dramatic C. Document actual events
B. Humorous situation D. Cartoon

V The word 'frantic' can be replaced by …

A. pleasure C. anxiety
B. calm D. composed

W Based on the passage, what is the critic above?

A. It designed an exotic and abnormal situation.
B. It always shows about celebrity.
C. Reality television is as artificial situation.
D. Reality television is a new program.

X The word 'scenic' is closest in meaning to …

A. beautiful C. interesting
B. luxurious D. nice

Read this text bellow to answer the question number 34-37!

Joseph Pulitzer was born in 1847 in Makó, Hungary. He emigrated to the United States
when he was seventeen years old, and was naturalised on his twentieth birthday. He spent his
career in journalism working in the mid-west and New York. From 1871 he was also the owner or
4 part-owner of many newspapers. His most famous newspaper was the New York World (which
many believe was the model for the Daily Planet of the Superman stories). The World campaigned
against corruption, and exposed many scandals. It was also a strong supporter of the rights of
the working man.

8 In later life, Joseph Pulitzer collapsed from overwork, and lost his sight. He became ded-
icated to improving the quality of journalism in America, and donated $1 million to Colum-
bia University to found a school of journalism. However, his most significant contribution
was the establishment of the Pulitzer prizes in his will.

12 These prizes for excellence in journalism have been given every year since 1917 by Columbia
University. Since 1942 there have been extra categories for press photography, and later still for crit-
icism, feature writing and commentary. The prize was originally for $500, but today the w ­ inners of
the prize receive a gold medal. However, the real value of the prize is that it confirms that the jour-
16 nalist who has received the award is the best American journalist of the year - a fact that is worth
much more than $500 to the journalist and to the newspaper that employs him or her.
Source: www.english-online.org.uk
Y Pulitzer became the United State citizen?
A. 1855 C. 1865
B. 1856 D. 1867

Z What’s activity after his body fall down?

A. He donated $ 2 million to California University.
B. He initiated to evolve the quality of journalism.
C. He held Pulitzer competition.
D. He declared a new social welfare management.

a Which the following sentences are correct, EXCEPT …

A. He spent his career in journalism working in the mid-west and New York.
B. Joseph Pulitzer was born in 1947 in Makó, Hungary.
C. In later life, Joseph Pulitzer collapsed from overwork, and lost his sight.
D. These prizes for excellence in journalism have been given every year since 1917 by Co-
lumbia University.

b Which new category that given by Pulitzer prizes?

A. Feature writing C. Popular writer
B. News D. Poetry

Read this text bellow to answer the question number 38-41!

Most animals use more than one species as food. Therefore, the term food webis a bet-
ter description of food relationship than the term food chain. A food webis a complex feed-
ing systems that contains several food chains. For example, mice, rabbits and deer eat plants.
4 Owls eat meat and rabbits. Mountain lion eats rabbits and deer. These five species are parts
of food chains that together form a food web.
The first link in a food chain is always a green plant. Only organisms with chlorophyll,
such as green plants, can make food. For example, the first link in the aquatic chains is algae.
8 Most algae are microscopic green plants that produce food by photosynthesis. In photosyn-
thesis, energy from s­ unlight converts carbon dioxide and water to sugar. Tiny fish in lakes,
streams and oceans eat algae. In turn, these tiny fishes are eaten by larger fish. These larger
fish are eaten by still larger fish. The food supply for fish is made by algae. This food is then
12 passed through the food chains as one animal eats another. 
Organisms may be divided into three groups based on how they obtain food. These
groups are producer, decomposer and consumer. Organisms containing chlorophyll are pro-
ducers. Thus, green plants are producers. Animals that eat other animals and plants are con-
16 sumers. Microbes, one-celled organisms that cause the decay of the dead animals and plants
are decomposers. Since, decomposers cannot make their own food, they are also consumers. 

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 279

c What is the topic of the passage?
A. Food chain C. System of Food Process
B. Animal Food D. Kind of animal food

d According to the passage, which animal the latest predator?

A. Rabbit C. Owl
B. Mice D. Lion

e The proper definition of 'chlorophyll' is …

A. The growth of a person, animal or plant is its process of increasing in size
B. The green substance in plants that allows them to use the energy from the sun.
C. The part of a plant which grows down into the earth to get water and food and which
holds the plant firm in the ground
D. A central part of something from which other parts can develop or grow

f Which is the example of decomposer?

A. Deer C. Lion
B. Microbes D. Grass

Read this text bellow to answer the question number 42-45!

There is increasing evidence that the impacts of meteorites have had important effects
on Earth, particularly in the field of biological evolution. Such impacts continue to pose a
natural hazard to life on Earth. Twice in the twentieth century, large meteorite objects are
4 known to have collided with Earth.
If an impact is large enough, it can disturb the environment of the entire Earth and cause
an ecological catastrophe. The best-documented such impact took place 65 million years ago at
the end of the Cretaceous period of geological history. This break in Earth’s history is marked by
8 a mass extinction, when as many as half the species on the planet became extinct. While there
are a dozen or more mass extinctions in the geological record, the Cretaceous mass extinction
has always intrigued paleontologists because it marks the end of the age of the dinosaurs. For
tens of millions of years, those great creatures had flourished. Then, suddenly, they disappeared.
12 The body that impacted Earth at the end of the Cretaceous period was a meteorite with a mass
of more than a trillion tons and a diameter of at least 10 kilometers. Scientists first identified this im-
pact in 1980 from the worldwide layer of sediment deposited from the dust cloud that ­enveloped
the planet after the impact. This sediment layer is enriched in the rare metal iridium and other ele-
16 ments that are relatively abundant in a meteorite but very rare in the crust of Earth. Even diluted by
the terrestrial material excavated from the crater, this component of meteorites is easily identified.
By 1990 geologists had located the impact site itself in the Yucatán region of Mexico. The crater,
now deeply buried in sediment, was originally about 200 kilometers in diameter.
20 This impact released an enormous amount of energy, excavating a crater about twice as
large as the lunar crater Tycho. The explosion lifted about 100 trillion tons of dust into the
 atmosphere, as can be determined by measuring the thickness of the sediment layer formed
when this dust settled to the surface. Such a quantity of material would have blocked the
24 sunlight completely from reaching the surface, plunging Earth into a period of cold and dark-
ness that lasted at least several months. The explosion is also calculated to have produced
vast quantities of nitric acid and melted rock that sprayed out over much of Earth, starting
widespread fires that must have consumed most terrestrial forests and grassland. Presumably,
28 those environmental disasters could have been responsible for the mass extinction, including
the death of the dinosaurs.
Several other mass extinctions in the geological record have been tentatively identified
with large impacts, but none is so dramatic as the Cretaceous event. But even without such
32 specific documentation, it is clear that impacts of this size do occur and that their results can
be catastrophic. What is a catastrophe for one group of living things, however, may create
opportunities for another group. Following each mass extinction, there is a sudden evolu-
tionary burst as new species develop to fill the ecological niches opened by the event.
36 Impacts by meteorites represent one mechanism that could cause global catastrophes
and seriously influence the evolution of life all over the planet. According to some estimates,
the majority of all extinctions of species may be due to such impacts. Such a perspective fun-
damentally changes our view of biological evolution. The standard criterion for the survival
40 of a species is its success in competing with other species and adapting to slowly changing
environments. Yet an equally important criterion is the ability of a species to survive random
global ecological catastrophes due to impacts.
Earth is a target in a cosmic shooting gallery, subject to random violent events that were un-
44 suspected a few decades ago. In 1991 the United States Congress asked NASA to investigate the
hazard posed today by large impacts on Earth. The group conducting the study concluded from a
detailed analysis that impacts from meteorites can indeed be hazardous. Although there is always
some risk that a large impact could occur, careful study shows that this risk is quite small.

g The following stated in the passage, EXCEPT …

A. The best-documented such impact took place 65 million years ago at the end of the
Cretaceous period of geological history.
B. Yet an equally important criterion is the ability of a species to survive random global
ecological catastrophes due to impacts.
C. Impacts by meteorites represent one mechanism that could cause global catastrophes
and seriously influence the evolution of life all over the planet.
D. Earth is a target in a for sun galaxy for three million years ago.

h The word ‘crater’ is closest in meaning to …

A. cauldron C. cave
B. lake D. estuary

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 281

i When did NASA declare an investigation?
A. 1989 C. 1991
B. 1990 D. 1992

j The explosion produced …

A. nictric acid C. gass
B. dust D. oil

Read this text bellow to answer the question number 46-50!

Brain drain, which is the action of having highly skilled and educated people leaving their
country to work abroad, has become one of the developing countries concern. Brain drain is
also referred to as human capital flight. More and more third world science and technology
4 educated people are heading for more prosperous countries seeking higher wages and better
working conditions. This has of course serious consequences on the sending countries.
While many people believe that immigration is a personal choice that must be understood
and respected, others look at the phenomenon from a different perspective. What makes those
8 educated people leave their countries should be seriously considered and a distinction between
push and pull factors must be made. The push factors include low wages and lack of satisfactory
working and living conditions. Social unrest, political conflicts and wars may also be determining
causes. The pull factors, however, include intellectual freedom and substantial funds for research.
12 Brain drain has negative impact on the sending countries economic prospects and com-
petitiveness. It reduces the number of dynamic and creative people who can contribute to
the development of their country. Likewise, with more entrepreneurs taking their invest-
ments abroad, developing countries are missing an opportunity of wealth creation. This has
16 also negative consequences on tax revenue and employment.

Most of the measures taken so far have not had any success in alleviating the effects of
brain drain. A more global view must take into consideration the provision of adequate work-
ing and living conditions in the sending countries. Another option should involve encouraging
20 the expatriates to contribute their skill to the development of their countries without necessar-
ily physically relocating.
Brain drain, which is the action of having highly skilled and educated people leaving their
country to work abroad, has become one of the developing countries concern. Brain drain is
24 also referred to as human capital flight. More and more third world science and technology
educated people are heading for more prosperous countries seeking higher wages and better
working conditions. This has of course serious consequences on the sending countries.
While many people believe that immigration is a personal choice that must be under-
28 stood and respected, others look at the phenomenon from a different perspective. What
makes those educated people leave their countries should be seriously considered and a
distinction between push and pull factors must be made. The push factors include low wag-
 es and lack of satisfactory working and living conditions. Social unrest, political conflicts and
32 wars may also be determining causes. The pull factors, however, include intellectual freedom
and substantial funds for research.
Brain drain has negative impact on the sending countries economic prospects and com-
petitiveness. It reduces the number of dynamic and creative people who can contribute to
36 the development of their country. Likewise, with more entrepreneurs taking their invest-
ments abroad, developing countries are missing an opportunity of wealth creation. This has
also negative consequences on tax revenue and employment.
Most of the measures taken so far have not had any success in alleviating the effects
40 of brain drain. A more global view must take into consideration the provision of adequate
working and living conditions in the sending countries. Another option should involve en-
couraging the expatriates to contribute their skill to the development of their countries
without necessarily physically relocating.
Source: www.myenglishpages.com

k Why people do brain drain?

A. They want to study abroad.
B. They want to seek higher wages and better working conditions.
C. It develops for better life.
D. They get big salary and pay.

l What is the motivation why people go to overseas?

A. Sosial unrest C. Freedom
B. Security D. Competitiveness

m Which of the following weaknesses from brain drain?

A. Brain drain reduces investment in the country.
B. Brain drain increases new proverty.
C. It cut down the number of dynamic and creative people.
D. It debilitates economic nation.

n The word 'alleviating' can be replaced by …

A. reduce C. achieve
B. develop D. approve

o What is the main topic of this passage?

A. Brain drain. C. Be creative people.
B. Brain drain phenomena. D. A getting much salary.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 283

 ANSWER
KEY

334 Maximum Score; TOEFL Skills Booster

 ANSWER KEY
TEST UNIT 1
SKRIP DAN PEMBAHASAN UJI COBA TOEFL
LISTENING COMPREHENSION

Part A

1. Man : You’re so exhausted yesterday. I thought you’d not come to today’s practice.
Woman : This practice is very important for our performance next week. I have to
come.
Third Voice : Why does the woman have to come to practice?
Jawab : C. The performance is only one week away.
Key Word : Next week.
Pembahasan : Si pria mengatakan bahwa kemarin si wanita terlihat sangat kelelahan,
sehingga ia pikir si wanita tidak akan datang pada latihan hari itu. Si wanita
mengatakan bahwa latihan itu sangat penting karena penampilan mereka
hanya tinggal seminggu lagi, sehingga ia harus datang pada latihan hari itu.

2. Man : I didn’t see you at Taylor’s birthday last night.

Woman : I’m not going to any event if I have a task to submit the following day.
Third Voice : Why does the woman say she didn’t join Taylor’s birthday?
Jawab : B. She had to finish her work.
Key Word : I have a task.
Pembahasan : Si pria mengatakan bahwa ia tidak melihat si wanita di perayaan ulang tahun
Taylor malam sebelumnya. Si wanita menjawab bahwa ia tidak akan pergi
ke acara apa pun apabila ia mempunyai tugas yang harus dikumpulkan ke­
e­sokan harinya. Hal itu berarti bahwa si wanita tidak datang ke perayaan
ulang tahun Taylor karena ia harus menyelesaikan pekerjaannya.

3. Woman : Tom, are you still planning to buy that new car?
Man : I’m afraid that’s impossible because I can’t afford it even though I have been
saving money for 3 years.
Third Voice : What does Tom say about buying the new car?

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 335

 Jawab : A. He can’t afford to buy a new car.
Key Word : I can’t afford.
Pembahasan : Si wanita menanyakan apakah si pria masih berencana untuk membeli mo­
bil baru. Si pria mengatakan bahwa sepertinya hal itu tidak mungkin ter­
lak­sana karena ia tidak mampu membelinya meskipun telah menabung
se­lama 3 tahun. Hal itu berarti bahwa si pria tidak jadi membeli mobil baru
ka­rena ia tidak mampu.

4. Woman : Harry is supposed to be here attending the class. Where is he?

Man : He got a little accident and was suggested to take a rest by his doctor.
Third Voice : Why does the man say Harry didn’t attend the class?

Jawab : D. He was in a medication.

Key Word : Doctor.
Pembahasan : Si wanita menanyakan di mana keberadaan Harry saat itu karena seharusnya
ia meng­i­kuti perkuliahan. Si pria mengatakan bahwa Harry mengalami ke­
ce­lakaan kecil dan disarankan oleh dokter untuk beristirahat. Hal itu berarti
bahwa Harry masih dalam masa pengobatan.

5. Man : How many guests should be invited to the seminar?

Woman : We had to cross 25 names off our previous list of 150.
Third Voice : How many guests does the woman say they invited?

Jawab : B. 125.
Key Word : Cross 25 off of 150.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan tentang jumlah tamu yang diundang dalam seminar.
Si wanita me­ngatakan bahwa mereka telah mengurangi 25 nama dari 150
nama pada daftar un­dang­an sebelumnya. Hal itu berarti bahwa jumlah
tamu yang diundang sebanyak 125 orang.

6. Man : You look unhappy today.

Woman : I just heard that Bryan had moved to Canada. I have no chance to say
goodbye.
Third Voice : What does the woman mean?

Jawab : A. She didn’t know that Bryan had moved to Canada.

Key Word : No chance.
Pembahasan : Si pria mengatakan bahwa si wanita terlihat tidak senang hari itu. Si wanita
menjelaskan bahwa ia baru saja mendengar berita bahwa Bryan telah pin­dah
ke Kanada. Dia tidak sempat mengucapkan selamat tinggal. Hal ini berarti
bahwa ia sebelumnya tidak tahu bahwa Bryan akan pindah ke Ka­na­da.
7. Woman : I heard that Ron’s apartment is being repossessed by the finance company.
Man : Yes, he’s never afforded the payments in this last four months.
Third Voice : What do the speakers mean?

Jawab : B. Ron will lose his apartment because he can’t afford the payments.
Key Word : Never afforded.
Pembahasan : Si wanita mengatakan bahwa ia mendengar kabar apartemen milik Ron se­
dang diambil alih kembali oleh perusahaan perbankan. Si pria meng­i­ya­kan
hal itu karena Ron tidak pernah membayar sewa selama empat bu­lan ter­
akhir ini. Hal ini mengindikasikan bahwa Ron akan kehilangan apar­te­men­
nya karena tidak bisa membayar sewa.

8. Man : What did you do in Mathematics class yesterday?

Woman : The teacher went over last Tuesday’s materials.
Third Voice : What does the woman say the teacher did in Mathematics class?

Jawab : D. Reviewed previous lesson.

Key Word : Went over.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan tentang kegiatan di kelas matematika kemarin kepada
si wanita. Si wanita mengatakan bahwa sang guru matematika mengulang
kembali materi hari Selasa sebelumnya. hal itu dapat diartikan bahwa guru
matematika tersebut mengulas kembali pelajaran yang disampaikan sebe­
lum­nya.

9. Man : Being unable to win that big competition was a big letdown.
Woman : Never mind. You can join next year competition.
Third Voice : What are the speakers talking about?

Jawab : B. The man is disappointed at not winning the competition.

Key Word : A big letdown.
Pembahasan : Si pria mengatakan bahwa ia merasa kecewa (a big letdown) karena tidak
bisa me­me­nang­kan kompetisi itu. Si wanita kemudian memberikan sema­
ngat bahwa ia dapat meng­ikuti kompetisi tahun depan.

10. Man : How does your brother feel about having vacation to London next month?
Woman : He’s looking forward to it.
Third Voice : What does the woman say about her brother feeling about having vacation?

Jawab : D. He is pleased.
Key Word : Looking forward.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan tentang perasaan adik si wanita selama berlibur di
London. Si wanita mengatakan bahwa adiknya sudah sangat menunggu

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 337

 hal itu. Hal itu berarti bahwa adik si wanita merasa senang dengan menda­
patkan liburan itu.

11. Woman : Where are you going in such a rush?

Man : I have to meet Mr. Andrew before he has a flight to New York, or I won’t get
a rec­om­men­dation for my scholarship.
Third Voice : What does the man mean?

Jawab : B. If the man hurries, he’ll get the recommendation from Mr. Andrew.
Key Word : Meet Mr. Andrew before.
Pembahasan : Si wanita menanyakan mengapa si pria pergi terburu-buru. Si pria me­nga­
ta­kan bahwa ia harus menemui Pak Andrew sebelum beliau berang­kat ke
New York, atau ia tidak bisa mendapatkan rekomendasi untuk bea­siswanya.
Apa­bila si pria bergegas menemui Pak Andrew, ia akan men­da­pat­kan re­ko­
mendasi itu.

12. Woman : Greg, how was your visit in your grandparent’s house?
Man : I hardly found fast food there.
Third Voice : What did the man say about his grandparent’s house?

Jawab : B. He couldn’t find modern restaurant there.

Key Word : Hardly found.
Pembahasan : Si wanita menanyakan tentang kunjungan si pria di rumah kakek-neneknya.
Si pria me­nga­takan bahwa ia kesulitan untuk menemukan restoran cepat
saji di sana. Hal ini dapat diartikan bahwa ia kesulitan mendapatkan restoran
modern.

13. Woman : You need to cut down on your sugar intake.

Man : I find it very hard to resist.
Third Voice : What does the woman suggest the man do?

Jawab : A. Reduce the consumption fo sugar.

Key Word : Cut down.
Pembahasan : Si wanita menyarankan agar si pria mengurangi (cut down) konsumsi sugar.
Penggunaan phrasal verb ‘cut down’ yang berarti ‘mengurangi’.

14. Man : Did many people register to the next month workshop?
Woman : So many people enlisted their name that the seats were fully booked by
noon.
Third Voice : What does the woman mean?

Jawab : D. There were no seats left by noon.

Key Word : Fully booked.
 Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan tentang jumlah orang yang meng­ikuti workshop bulan
depan. Si wa­nita mengatakan bahwa banyak orang yang mendaftarkan diri,
se­hing­ga kursinya telah pe­nuh dipesan pada siang harinya.

15. Man : Did Mary apply for the Language Teaching course for her master degree?
Woman : Despite her Management graduate degree, she applied for the course.
Third Voice : What does the woman say about Mary?

Jawab : C. Knowing that she lacked experience, she still applied.

Key Word : Despite.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan apakah Mary mendaftar jurusan Pendidikan Bahasa untuk
gelar mas­ternya. Si wanita mengatakan bahwa meskipun Mary me­miliki gelar
Ma­najemen un­tuk sarjananya, ia tetap mendaftar kuliah Pen­di­dikan Bahasa
­un­tuk gelar masternya. Hal ini berarti Mary tidak memiliki peng­alaman dalam
Pen­di­dikan Bahasa, tetapi ia tetap men­daf­tar.

16. Man : Who solved that Physics story problem?

Woman : Nobody but Nick understood to solve it.
Third Voice : What does the woman say about the problem?

Jawab : A. Only Nick could solve it.

Key Word : Nobody but Nick.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan siapa yang berhasil menyelesaikan soal fisika itu. Si pria
mengatakan bahwa tidak ada yang bisa menyelesaikan soal itu kecuali Nick.

17. Man : Where is Adam?

Woman : He ran out of gasoline and went out to get some.
Third Voice : Where does the woman say that Adam is?

Jawab : D. Gas station.

Key Word : Ran out of gasoline.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan keberadaan Adam. Si wanita mengatakan bahwa Adam
kehabisan bahan bakar dan pergi untuk membelinya. Hal ini berarti bahwa
ia sedang berada di tem­pat pengisian bahan bakar.

18. Woman : I really want to go to the gathering tonight, but I’m afraid I can’t manage my
time. There won’t be enough time to get there.
Man : How if I pick you up after work and directly go there. It will save some plenty
time by that.
Third Voice : What will happen if the woman follows the man’s suggestion?

Jawab : C. She can go to the gathering.

Key Word : Save plenty time.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 339

 Pembahasan : Si wanita mengatakan bahwa ia benar-benar ingin per­gi ke acara perkumpulan
malam itu, tetapi ia tidak bi­sa mengatur waktunya. Ia merasa waktunya tidak
akan cukup untuk bi­sa datang ke acara tersebut. Si pria menawarkan untuk
menjemputnya sepulang kerja dan langsung pergi ke acara itu, sehingga
waktu yang dibutuhkan untuk pergi ke sana dapat dikurangi. Apabila si
wanita menyetujuinya, maka ia mungkin saja bisa hadir di acara itu.

19. Woman : I feel sympathetic about Stuart’s problem.

Man : He’s got so many threats from an unknown person because he can’t afford
to pay the debts.
Third Voice : What does the man mean?

Jawab : C. Stuart couldn’t pay for the debts.

Key Word : Can’t afford.
Pembahasan : Si wanita bersimpati terhadap masalah yang dihadapi Stuart. Si pria me­nga­
ta­kan bahwa Stuart mendapatkan banyak ancaman dari orang yang tidak
di­kenal karena ia tidak bisa membayar utang-utangnya.

20. Man : Where is your watch?

Woman : I’m afraid I can’t find it, but I’m sure it’ll show up soon.
Third Voice : What does the woman say about her watch?

Jawab : D. She expects to find her watch soon.

Key Word : Show up soon.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan keberadaan jam tangan milik si wanita. Si wanita me­
nga­ta­kan bahwa ia tidak bisa menemukannya, tetapi ia yakin jam ta­ngan­
nya nanti akan segera ditemukan. Hal ini berarti bahwa ia berha­rap akan
me­ne­mukan jam tangan itu dengan segera.

21. Man : Did you go to the seminar yesterday?

Woman : I would have gone there if the registration fee had not been too unreasonable.
Third Voice : What does the woman imply?

Jawab : A. She couldn’t afford the tickets for the seminar.

Key Word : Unreasonable.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan apakah si wanita mengikuti seminar kemarin. Si wa­ni­ta me­
nga­takan bahwa dia akan mengikuti seminar itu apabila biaya pen­daf­tar­annya
ti­dak terlalu mahal. Hal itu berarti bahwa si wanita tidak meng­i­kuti seminar itu
ka­rena biaya pendaftarannya terlalu mahal. Ia tidak bisa mem­bayarnya.

22. Woman : Excuse me to bother you, but I can’t clearly see if you hold the paper up.
Man : Sorry, I didn’t realize it.
Third voice : What will the man probably do?
 Jawab : B. Stop holding the paper.
Key Word : Sorry.
Pembahasan : Si wanita mengatakan kepada si pria bahwa ia tidak bisa melihat dengan
jelas apabila si pria terus mengangkat kertasnya ke atas. Kemudian, si pria
meminta maaf karena ia tidak menyadarinya. Hal yang mungkin dilakukan
si pria setelah itu adalah menurunkan kertas yang ia pegang supaya si
wanita dapat melihat dengan jelas.

23. Woman : Does Andy like volleyball?

Man : He rarely misses the game.
Third voice : What does the man imply?

Jawab : D. Andy likes playing volleyball.

Key Word : Rarely misses the game.
Pembahasan : Si wanita menanyakan apakah Andy suka bermain bola voli. Si pria me­nga­
ta­kan bahwa Andy jarang melewatkan pertandingan voli. Hal ini berarti
bah­wa Andy menyukai per­tan­dingan bola voli.

24. Woman : I heard James got a ticket yesterday.

Man : He did. He drove too fast in the main road.
Third Voice : What does the man say about James’ receiving a ticket?

Jawab : C. James got a traffic ticket from the police.

Key Word : Drove too fast.
Pembahasan : Si wanita mengatakan bahwa ia mendengar berita tentang James yang
kemarin men­da­patkan ‘tiket’. Si pria mengatakan bahwa James mengendarai
mobilnya terlalu cepat di jalan utama. Dari perbincangan tersebut, ‘tiket’
diartikan sebagai ‘surat tilang’ karena ber­hubungan dengan lalu lintas. Hal
ini berarti bahwa James mendapatkan surat tilang dari polisi.

25. Man : Do you know Brian Tomlinson?

Woman : The name rings the bell, but I’m afraid I can’t remember who he is.
Third Voice : What does the man mean?

Jawab : C. He once heard about Tomlinson, but he forgets who the person is.
Key Word : Rings the bell.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan apakah si wanita tahu tentang Brian Tomlinson. Si wa­
ni­ta mengatakan bahwa nama itu terdengar tidak asing, tetapi ia tidak bisa
mengingat siapa orang itu.

26. Man : Somebody needs to buy the ink stock.

Woman : Don’t look at me!
Third Voice : What does the woman imply?

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 341

 Jawab : D. She doesn’t want to buy the ink.
Key Word : Don’t.
Pembahasan : Si pria meminta seseorang untuk membeli persediaan tinta. Si wanita me­
nga­takan bah­wa ia tidak mau membelinya dengan mengatakan, “jangan
li­hat padaku”.

27. Woman : I thought Seth couldn’t afford to go on the vacation.

Man : He couldn’t have gone if his father hadn’t paid his way.
Third Voice : What does the man mean?

Jawab : D. Seth went on vacation because his father paid it for him.
Key Word : If his father hadn’t paid.
Pembahasan : Si wanita mengira bahwa Seth tidak bisa ikut berlibur karena tidak sanggup
membayarnya. Akan tetapi, si pria mengatakan bahwa Seth tidak akan ikut
kalau ayahnya tidak mem­bia­ya­inya. Hal ini berarti bahwa Seth ikut berlibur
karena dibiayai ayahnya.

28. Man : Why didn’t Thomas submit his task?

Woman : His laptop was broken last night and he lost all of his data.
Third Voice : What does the woman say happened to Thomas?

Jawab : C. He couldn’t submit his paper because the data were lost.
Key Word : Lost all of his data.
Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan mengapa Thomas tidak mengumpulkan tugasnya. Si
wanita me­nga­takan bahwa laptop Thomas mengalami kerusakan tadi ma­
lam dan dia kehilangan se­mua datanya.

29. Woman : The kids are so happy seeing their cousins.

Man : They were longing for visiting here so much.
Third Voice : What does the man mean?

Jawab : B. The kids have already wanted to visit their cousins before.
Key Word : Longing for.
Pembahasan : Si wanita mengatakan bahwa anak-anak sangat senang mengunjungi se­
pu­punya. Si pria mengatakan bahwa mereka sudah sangat menunggu-
nung­gu (longing for) untuk mengunjungi tempat itu. Hal ini berarti bahwa
anak-anak sebelumnya sudah sangat menginginkan untuk pergi ke sana.

30. Man : What are you doing with your son while you’re in work?
Woman : I’m trying to find a nursery near my office.
Third voice : What does the woman say about her son?

Jawab : C. He stays at a nursery near her office.

Key Word : Find a nursery.
 Pembahasan : Si pria menanyakan kepada si wanita tentang bagaimana anaknya ketika si
wanita sedang bekerja. Si wanita menjawabnya dengan mengatakan bahwa
ia mencoba untuk mencari penitipan anak di dekat kantornya. Hal ini berarti
bahwa anak si wanita berada di penitipan anak ketika ia sedang bekerja.

Part B
Questions 31 through 34 are based on the following conversation.
Man : Did you read that news in yesterday newspaper about a GP racer whose bike crushed
separator and fell down after he had raced for 15 laps?
Woman : No, I didn’t. Was he seriously injured?
Man : No. It’s really unbelievable how he could have survived such a fall because the race
had a red flag seeing him crushing and falling down. He even could tell why he
crushed the separator to the journalists one day after the incident. He had to stay in
the hospital for one week.
Woman : What happened to him?
Man : He said that he lost his focus in lap 14 because his wrist was injured in his previous
race. Early when he started to have his 15 laps, he felt his injured wrist worse. Couldn’t
control the bike, he then crushed and fell down.
Woman : How long was he fainted?
Man : He had about fifteen hours in the hospital while his injuries were mending. He
couldn’t join the next two races because of that.
Woman : Some people sure do crazy sports!

31. When did the racer crush the separator and fell down?
Jawab : B. In the fifteenth lap.
Key Word : Had raced for 15 laps.
Pembahasan : Si pembalap menabrak pembatas dan terjatuh setelah melalui lap ke-15.

32. How was the condition of the racer after crashed his motorbike?
Jawab : C. He had survived from the crush.
Key Word : He could survive such a fall.
Pembahasan : Meskipun si pembalap mengalami kecelakaan, ia ma­sih bisa selamat dan
segera dibawa ke rumah sakit.

33. How long was the racer fainted?

Jawab : A. Fifteen hours.
Key word : Had about fifteen hours.
Pembahasan : Si pembalap tidak sadarkan diri selama kurang lebih 15 jam di rumah sakit.

34. What was the racer’s risk after getting the incident?
Jawab : B. He couldn’t join the next two races.
Key Word : Couldn’t join two races.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 343

 Pembahasan : Si pembalap diberitakan bahwa ia tidak bisa mengikuti dua balapan se­
lanjutnya karena kecelakaan itu.
Questions 35 through 38 are based on the following conversation.
Man : What’s the problem?
Woman : I have headache the whole day. I feel so hurt in my neck. It’s like something press me
on there.
Man : Well, it might be your cholesterol. I want to do some tests with your blood.
Woman : How will I get the results?
Man : Immediately before you leave this office. I’ll prescribe some medicines for you after
then.

35. What is the probable relationship between these two speakers?

Jawab : C. Doctor-patient.
Key Word : Prescribe.
Pembahasan : Si wanita mengeluhkan sakit kepala yang berkepanjangan. Si pria akhirnya
me­me­riksanya dan menyarankan untuk tes darah. Hubungan yang paling
me­mung­kinkan adalah antara dokter dan pasien.

36. What might cause the woman’s illness?

Jawab : B. Cholesterol.
Key Word : Might be your cholesterol.
Pembahasan : Si pria memperkirakan bahwa sakit kepala yang dialami si wanita kemungkinan
disebabkan oleh kolesterol. Ia menyarankan untuk tes darah untuk menge­ta­
huinya secara lebih pasti.

37. What does the man give to help the woman?

Jawab : C. A prescription.
Key Word : Prescribe some medicine.
Pembahasan : Si pria memberikan resep obat untuk membantu si wanita mengatasi sakit
kepalanya.

38. What is the woman’s problem?

Jawab : A. Headache the whole day.
Key Word : Headache.
Pembahasan : Si wanita mengeluhkan sakit kepala berkepanjangan sepanjang hari itu.
Part C
Questions 39 through 42 are based on the following commentary ­about language and
politics.
Discussing how language connects to politics is never far from human interaction or social
existence. Recently, the study of language and politics aims at understanding the roles played
by speech and writing in human interaction. It is concerned with how people use language to
organize their social existence and also with how that activity shapes the way they conceive
of the language itself. The study discusses the evidence that languages are constructed out of
the practices of speech and writing and the beliefs of those doing the speaking and writing.
Language is political in some ways. The argument is based on the premise form some experts
that language does have such a political dimension. Language is shaped by who it is that a
speaker is speaking to and by how the speaker’s relationship with them will be affected by what
the speaker says. This is tightly connected to politics because politics of identity shapes how
people interpret what other people say to be a prime factor in their deciding on the truth value
of their utterances.
The discussion about how politics permeates language and vice versa goes deeper into the talk
about the ideology brought by the language users within their language. The concept of ideology
tends to be used in a wider context to refer to any set of beliefs which appear to be logical and natural.
The language users, in this case are the politicians, include the ability to lead others by articulating
a clear and inspiring vision of a better future. The ideology must have an impact on people’s beliefs
that they will hold it to be ‘common sense’. Thus, it will be difficult for them to question that dominant
ideology.

39. What is the purpose of this commentary?

Jawab : C. Discussing the connection between language and politics.
Key Word : How language connects to politics.
Pembahasan : Pada awal monolog, si pembicara menyebutkan bahwa mendiskusikan bagai­
ma­na hu­bung­an bahasa dan politik tidak pernah jauh dari masalah interaksi
so­sial manusia.

40. According to the speaker, what is the purpose of recent study about language?
Jawab : D. Understanding roles of language in human interaction.
Key Word : Aims at understanding the roles played by speech and writing in human
interaction.
Pembahasan : Pada monolog tersebut, si pembicara mengatakan bahwa saat ini penelitian
tentang bahasa ditujukan untuk memahami peran tuturan dan tulisan di
dalam interaksi manusia.

41. What can be shaped by politics of identity?

Jawab : A. Interpretation of what other people say.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 345

 Key Word : Because politics of identity shapes how people inter­pret what other people
say.
Pembahasan : Si pembicara mengatakan bahwa politik identias dapat membentuk cara orang
meng­in­ter­pretasi perkataan yang orang lain sampaikan. Hal itu menjadi faktor
dalam menentukan kebenaran perkataan mereka.

42. Where does this commentary probably happen?

Jawab : B. Language class.
Key Word : Language and politics.
Pembahasan : Monolog tersebut berisi pembahasan mengenai hubungan bahasa dan politik,
sehingga latar tempat yang paling tepat dari semua pilihan jawaban yang ada
adalah perkuliahan bahasa. Hal itu didasarkan pada pokok bahasan yang di­
sam­paikan, yaitu penggunaan bahasa dalam ranah politik.
Questions 43 through 47 are based on the following talk about Tony Blair.
Well, ladies and gentlemen. This is my turn to describe one of influen­tial people in Britain.
I would like to present a short biography of Tony Blair. Anthony Charles Lynton Blair is a former
British Labor Party Politician who served as the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom from 2
May 1997 to 27 June 2007 who was born on 6 May 1953. He was the Leader of the Labor Party
from 1994 to 2007. In his first term of being UK PM, Blair claimed that his policies were designed
to enable social democracy to respond to the challenges of the worldwide market economy
and to equip citizens to cope with what Anthony Giddens called “the major revolutions of our
time,” including globalization.
His second term was dominated by international affair. After the September 11 attacks on
the United States in 2001, Britain played a key role in forming an international coalition that
succeeded in driving the Taliban from power in Afghanistan. By the appearance of strong public
opposition to a war with Iraq, Blair, with Bush, led a coalition of military forces in an attack on
Iraq in March 2003. Blair’s enthusiastic support for the action damaged his reputation as a global
statesman, and he fell out with key European allie. Despite lingering public dissatisfaction with
Blair’s policy in Iraq, Blair led the Labour Party to its third successive general election victory in
May 2005, although with a sharply reduced majority.
At the time that he stepped down, Blair was widely viewed as a lucky politician with ex­
ceptional talents that enabled him to be a successful vote winner. However, he was ultimately
lacking the ability to be a noteworthy reformer at home or a stabilizing force in a world facing
the resurgence of dangerous divisions. After 10 years in office but still only in his early 50s, Blair
was not ready to retire from the world scene. On the day of his resignation, he was selected
by the “Quartet”—the United States, the European Union, Russia, and the United Nations—to
serve as special envoy to the Middle East, and he announced he would resign his seat in the
House of Commons.
43. Who is probably the speaker?
Jawab : D. A college student.
Key Word : This is my turn to describe one of influential people in Britain.
Pembahasan : Monolog tersebut disampaikan oleh seseorang untuk mendeskripsikan to­
koh yang ber­na­ma Tony Blair. Penjelasan dalam monolog tersebut merujuk
kepada karir Tony Blair. Pilihan jawaban yang paling memungkinkan adalah
seorang mahasiswa. Ia me­nyam­paikannya di depan kelas.

44. What is the full name of Tony Blair?

Jawab : A. Anthony Charles Lynton Blair.
Key Word : Stated explicitly.
Pembahasan : Nama lengkap Tony Blair disampaikan secara eksplisit dalam monolog, ya­
itu Anthony Charles Lynton Blair.

45. What was Blair’s dominant policy in his second term for being a Prime Minister?
Jawab : B. International affair.
Key Word : His second term was dominated by international affair.
Pembahasan : Si pembicara menyampaikan bahwa kebijakan Tony Blair yang dominan
pa­da periode ke-2 dalam karirnya menjadi perdana menteri Inggris adalah
ten­tang hu­bungan inter­na­sio­nal.

46. Why did in the 2005 election the majority who chose him reduce sharply?
Jawab : D. Public dissatisfaction with his policy in Iraq.
Key Word : Despite lingering public dissatisfaction with Blair’s policy in Iraq.
Pembahasan : Pada tahun 2005, saat pemilihan perdana menteri, jumlah pemilih yang
me­­milih Tony Blair berkurang drastis. Hal tersebut disebabkan oleh ke­bi­jak­
annya ter­ha­dap Irak mem­bu­at publik tidak terlalu puas. Banyak ma­sya­ra­kat
yang tidak menyetujui kebijakan yang ia ambil.

47. Which of the following is NOT included into the “Quartet” group?
Jawab : D. China.
Key Word : The United States, the European Union, Russia, and the United Nations.
Pembahasan : Pada monolog, negara Tiongkok tidak disebutkan dalam grup kuartet ter­se­
but.
Questions 48 through 50 are based on the following talk about a part of novel report.
Good morning my friends. I’d like to share you a brief summary of a novel entitled “Going
Home”. The novel tells about Jacob’s wisdom and his sensitivity. It was begun with the end of
his apprenticeship. Going home was what he wanted since he lost his family. He was living
in a flat owned by Mrs. Rothfield. From his flat, he could see his ex-house where he gathered
with his family. It’s now possessed by Lewis family. The days after he got his apprenticeship was
always spent to see the house. He remembered that he once had a happy family there and really

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 347

wanted to get the house back. However, he knew that he could not make it because he had not
enough money to buy it. He also realized that he would not have such family in the past.
To share his feeling, he often invited Ruti to have a walk near Bondi beach. They could share
their problems there. One day, he asked Ruti to invite him to her house. There, he met Ruti’s
parents. He then knew that Ruti’s stepfather, Abe Lewis, was an army. They had a talk and then
Jacob suddenly wanted to go to Palestine. He then asked for Mrs. Rothfield’s advice. Jacob then
persistently wanted to go to Palestine by ship, even though he had been warned to think it
twice. His desire became even stronger when he met Peggy, a trainee nurse, whom he hadn’t
seen since the graduation. In Palestine, they were helped by Avi, an army, and lived in his house.
They finally decided to get married.

48. Who was the main character in the novel?

Jawab : A. Jacob.
Key Word : The novel tells about Jacob’s wisdom and his sensitivity.
Pembahasan : Si pembicara menyampaikan bahwa novel yang ia ulas menceritakan ten­
tang harapan dan rasa sensitivitas Jacob. Hal ini dapat diartikan bahwa to­koh
utama yang hidupnya diceritakan dalam novel tersebut bernama Ja­cob.

49. What is the title of the novel being reported?

Jawab : D. Going Home.
Key Word : (tated explicitely.
Pembahasan : (ada monolog, si pembicara mengatakan bahwa ia akan mengulas sebuah
novel yang berjudul “Going Home”.

50. Where did this talk probably take place?

Jawab : A. A school.
Key Word : Good morning my riends.
Pembahasan : Si pembicara menyapa audiensnya dengan sapaan ‘teman’ dan topik yang ia
sampaikan adalah novel yang berjudul “Going Home”. Dari pilihan jawaban
yang ada, pilihan ja­wab­an ‘di sekolah’ merupakan jawaban yang paling me­
mung­kinkan.
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSIONS
1. C 9. A 17. C 25. D 33. D
2. B 10. B 18. C 26. C 34. A
3. D 11. D 19. A 27. B 35. C
4. A 12. A 20. B 28. A 36. A
5. B 13. D 21. B 29. B 37. B
6. A 14. C 22. C 30. C 38. D
7. A 15. A 23. A 31. B 39. A
8. B 16. D 24. A 32. A 40. C
 READING COMPREHENSION

1. Teks untuk pertanyaan 1-10 pada intinya membahas tentang kehidupan Robert Capa. Ia
adalah seorang jurnalis dan fotografer, khususnya pada saat itu, situasi perang. Jawaban
yang tepat untuk soal nomor 1 adalah (B).

2. Robert Capa pada awalnya ingin menjadi seorang penulis. Ia meninggalkan negara asalnya
dan bermigrasi ke Perancis untuk bisa menjadi penulis. Ia pun sampai mengubah namanya
supaya terlihat seperti orang Amerika. Alasan ia berpindah negara adalah karena ia anti
dengan kebijakan pemerintah yang ber­hu­bung­an dengan Nazi. Jawaban yang paling tepat
adalah (C).

3. Karya Robert Capa yang berjudul The Death of a Loyalist Soldier merupakan hasil foto yang
terkenal. Karya ini diambil di Spanyol dan mendeskripsikan bagaiman para prajurit itu tewas
dalam peperangan. Karya itu diambil pada tahun 1936, bukan awal tahun 1930an. Akan
tetapi, banyak orang yang meragukan keaslian foto itu. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (B).

4. Ucapan Robert Capa berarti bahwa sebuah hasil foto yang bagus adalah foto yang diambil
dari jarak yang dekat. Ia pun sempat mengambil jarak dekat yang ekstrem dalam peperangan.
Jawaban yang tepat adalah (D).

5. Kata ‘authenticity’ berarti keaslian. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) Genuineness.

6. Kata 'this' pada baris ke-13 merujuk pada perwujudan kutipan kata-katanya sendiri. dengan
demikian, jawaban yang tepat adalah (C).

7. Robert Capa meninggal ketika ia menemai tentara Perancis di Indochina. Jawaban yang
tepat adalah (C).

8. Dari teks, dapat disimpulkan beberapa hal, di antaranya adalah Robert Capa memulai
karirnya sebagai fotografer perang di Spanyol, meskipun awalnya ia berpindah ke Perancis
untuk menjadi seorang penulis. Capa merupakan seorang fotografer perang yang berasal
dari Hungaria. Se­telah kematian Capa, saudara laki-lakinya mendirikan sebuah yayasan
internasional untuk meng­hormati Capa. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (A).

9. Ide utama paragraf 3 adalah kematian Robert Capa. Terdapat penjelasan rinci mengenai
kematian dan yang terjadi setelah kematiannya. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C).

10. Medali Emas Robert Capa diberikan kepada fotografer yang mampu melaporkan situasi
bagaimana manusia berjuang. Keberanian untuk mengambil gambar itu juga diperhatikan.
Jawaban yang tepat adalah (B).

11. Secara garis besar teks untuk nomor 11-20 membahas tentang berbagai macam jenis pajak
dengan cara perhitungan dan manfaatnya. Hal ini dijelaskan di tiap paragraf. Dengan demikian,
jawaban yang benar adalah (D).

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 349

12. Kutipan baris 1-2 adalah ‘The complicated nature of the individual income tax imposes costs
not only on taxpayers…’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

13. Kutipan baris 2-3 adalah ‘Internal Revenue Service, which has to audit those returns and deal
with the inevitable mistakes taxpayers make’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah
(A).

14. Kutipan baris 3-4 adalah ‘Various steps to simplify the income tax could reduce costs signifi-
cantly for both taxpayers and the IRS’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (C).

15. Kutipan baris 6-7 adalah ‘Modify or repeal the alternative minimum tax is originally designed
to ensure that high-income taxpayers pay at least some income tax’. Dengan demikian,
jawaban yang benar adalah (B).

16. Kutipan baris 10-11 adalah ‘Modifying the AMT to permanently limit the reach would
maintain some of its revenue stream …’ yang diterjemahkan dalam bahasa Indonesia
menjadi ‘ modifikasi AMT yang secara permanen membatasi perolehannya akan menjaga
aliran hasil dari AMT…’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (D).

17. Kutipan baris 13-14 adalah ‘Eliminating or aligning income limits and phase-outs is a model in
which many features of the tax code are denied to some higher-income taxpayers or phase out
over different ranges of income’. Dengan demikian, jawaban pertanyaan ini adalah (A).

18. Kutipan baris 16 adalah ‘Eliminating such restrictions would simplify tax filing…’. Kalimat tersebut
menjelaskan bahwa menghapuskan pembatasan akan menyederhanakan pemenuhan pajak.
Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (B).

19. Kata ‘retaining’ di baris 17 memiliki makna ‘menahan’. Jawaban (A) memiliki makna ‘menye­
der­hana­kan’, jawaban (B) memiliki makna ‘menghilangkan’, jawaban (C) memiliki makna ‘me­
na­han’, dan jawaban (D) memiliki mak­na ‘membayar’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar
adalah (C).

20. Kutipan baris 19-20 adalah ‘At the same time, however, if multiple benefits phased out over
the same income range, effective marginal tax rates in that range could reach unacceptable
levels’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

21. Secara garis besar teks untuk nomor 21-30 membahas tentang proses pembentukan kawah.
Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

22. Kutipan baris 1 adalah ‘The general term impact crater is used here to designate a
hypervelocity impact crater…’. Kalimat tersebut menerangkan bahwa istilah impact order
yang digunakan untuk menunjuk kepada pengaruh kuat dari terbentuknya sebuah kawah.
Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).
23. Kutipan baris 1-4 adalah ‘…to designate a hypervelocity impact crater, the structure formed
by a cosmic projectile that is large enough and coherent enough to penetrate Earth’s
atmosphere with little or no de­celeration and to strike the ground at virtually its original
cosmic velocity (>11 km/s). Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (C).

24. Kutipan baris 4-5 adalah ‘Such projectiles tend to be relatively large, perhaps >50 m in
diameter’. Dari kalimat tersebut dapat ditarik ke­sim­pulan bahwa luas projectile kira-kira 50
meter (A).

25. Kata‘velocity’pada baris 4 memiliki makna‘kecepatan’. Jawaban (A) memiliki makna‘ketinggian’,

jawaban (B) memiliki makna ‘luasnya’, jawaban (C) memiliki makna ‘panjangnya’, dan jawaban
(D) memiliki makna ‘kecepatan’. Dengan demikian, jawaban pertanyaan ini adalah (D).

26. Kutipan baris 6-7 adalah ‘Smaller projectiles, typically a few meters or less in size, behave
differently in passing through the atmosphere. They lose most or all of their original velocity…’
yang dalam bahasa Indonesia memiliki makna proyektil yang lebih kecil, biasanya ukurannya
beberapa meter lebih besar atau lebih kecil, menunjukkan reaksi yang berbeda ketika melewati
atmosfer. Proyektil yang lebih kecil tersebut biasanya kehilangan kecepatan mereka…’. Dengan
demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

27. Kutipan baris 11-13 adalah ‘The projectile survives, more or less intact, and much of it is
found in the bottom of the pit’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (C).

28. Kutipan baris 11-12 adalah ‘The projectile survives, more or less intact, and much of it is
found in the bottom of the pit. Such pits, sometimes called penetration craters or penetration
funnels,…’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (B)

29. Kutipan baris 12-14 adalah ‘Such pits, sometimes called penetration craters or penetration
funnels, are typically less than a few tens of meters in diameter’. Kalimat yang dicetak tebal
menunjukkan lebar pits yakni kurang dari 10 meter (C).

30. Kata ‘excavation’ pada baris 17 memiliki makna ‘penggalian’. Jawaban (A) memiliki makna
‘penggalian’, jawaban (B) memiliki makna ‘membuat’ jawaban (C) memiliki makna ‘membuat’
dan jawaban (D) memiliki makna ‘membuka’. Dengan demikian, kata yang memiliki
kedekatan makna adalah ‘dig’ A..

31. Secara garis besar, teks untuk nomor 21-30 membahas tentang kehidupan Geronimo. Di
tiap paragraf diceritakan tentang kehidupan Geronimo mulai dari kelahirannya sampai dia
meninggal dunia. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

32. Kutipan baris 2 adalah ‘Although he harbored animosity toward the Mexican soldiers who
killed his wife and children’. Kalimat yang dicetak tebal menyatakan bahwa pembunuh istri
Geronimo adalah ‘Mexican soldiers’ seperti pada jawaban (A).

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 351

33. Jawaban (A) sesuai dengan baris 1 yang menyatakan bahwa Geronimo dilahirkan di Gila
River. Jawaban (B) sesuai dengan baris 2 yang me­nyatakan bahwa Geronimo merupakan
musuh dari tentara Mexico. Jawaban (C) juga sesuai dengan baris 2-3 yang menyatakan
bahwa Ge­ronimo juga tidak menyukai Anglo-Americans. Sementara itu, jawaban (D) tidak
disebutkan di dalam teks. Dengan demikian, pernyataan yang tidak benar adalah (D).

34. Kutipan baris 1 menunjukkan bahwa Geronimo merupakan kepala suku dari Apache.
Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

35. Kutipan baris 7-8 adalah ‘Geronimo’s repeated escapes embarrassed and provoked po­li­
ti­cians, army officers, and the non-Indian populace of the Southwest’. Dengan demikian,
jawaban yang tidak disebutkan dalam teks adalah ‘trader’ D..

36. Secara garis besar, paragraf 2 membahas tentang Geronimo yang me­nakutkan bagi banyak
orang. Tak ada seorang pun yang bisa luput dari tembakan Geronimo dan dia membunuh
banyak sekali Anglo-Americans and Mexicans. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang tepat adalah (B).

37. Kutipan baris 12 adalah ‘When Geronimo died, he had been a legend for more than a
generation’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (B).

38. Kutipan baris 12-13 adalah ‘When Geronimo died, he had been a legend for more than a
ge­ne­ration. But his courage and determination…’ yang dalam bahasa Indonesia memiliki
makna ‘ketika Geronimo meninggal, dia telah menjadi sebuah legenda selama lebih dari 1
generasi. Akan tetapi, keberanian dan kebulatan tekadnya (Geronimo)…’ Dengan demikian,
jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

39. Secara garis besar, paragraf 3 menjelaskan bahwa meskipun Geronimo telah meninggal
namun semangatnya selalu menginspirasi para pengikutnya untuk selalu berjuang. Dengan
demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (C).

40. Kata ‘desperate’ memiliki makna ‘sangat menyedihkan’. Jawaban (A) memiliki makna ‘me­
nye­dihkan’. Jawaban (B) memiliki makna ‘keras’. Jawaban (C) memiliki makna ‘perang’. Dan
jawaban (D) bermakna ‘mengerikan’. Dengan demikian, jawaban pertanyaan ini adalah (A).

41. Secara garis besar teks untuk nomor 41-50 membahas tentang sejarah pembangunan Pa­
nama Canal de­ngan berbagai masalah dan isunya. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang be­nar
adalah (C).

42. Kutipan baris 1 ‘Ferdinand De Lessups, the same engineer who designed the  Suez Canal’
menyatakan bahwa insinyur yang merancang terusan Panama sama seperti perancang te­
rusan Zues. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

43. Kutipan baris 2-3 adalah ‘Disease and financial problems left a partially built canal be­hind’
yang menjelaskan bahwa wabah penyakit dan masalah keuangan menyebabkan pem­
bangunan kanal terhenti. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).
44. Kutipan paragraf 1 adalah ‘Disease and financial problems left a partially built canal behind.
While it made sense that the United States should buy the rights to complete the effort,
Panama posed other problems. Despite being the narrowest nation in the region, Panama
was very mountainous, and a complex series of locks was necessary to move ships across the
isthmus. Nicaragua was another possibility. The canal would be situated closer to the United
States. The terrain was flatter, and despite Nicaragua’s width, there were numerous lakes
that could be connected. Volcanic activity in Nicaragua prompted the United States to try
to buy the territory in Panama.’ Dengan demikian, jawaban (A), (B), dan (C). ditemukan pada
teks. Sementara itu, jawaban (D) tidak ditemukan. Dengan demikian, jawaban pertanyaan
ini adalah (D).

45. Kutipan baris 8 adalah ‘Volcanic activity in Nicaragua prompted the United States to try
to buy the territory in Panama’. Dengan demikian jelas bahwa alasan Amerika Serikat
mempercepat untuk membeli Kanal Panama adalah karena adanya aktivitas gunung berapi
di Panama. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

46. Kutipan baris 9-10 adalah ‘To obtain the rights to the territory, the United States had to
negotiate with Colombia’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

47. Kata ‘furious’ memiliki arti ‘marah’. Jawaban (A) memiliki makna ‘mewah’, jawaban (B) me­mi­
li­ki makna ‘marah’, jawaban (C) memiliki makna ‘bahagia, dan jawaban (D) memiliki makna
‘puas’. Dengan demikian, kata yang memiliki kedekatan makna adalah (B).

48. Kutipan baris 15 adalah ‘The United States became the first nation’. Dengan demikian,
jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

49. Kata ‘blasted’ pada baris 19 memiliki makna ‘meledakkan’. Jawaban (A) memiliki makna
‘mem­­­ber­kah­i’, jawaban (B) memiliki makna ‘meledakkan’, jawaban (C) memiliki makna ‘di­be­
ri’, dan jawaban (D) memiliki makna ‘menyediakan’. Dengan demikian, jawaban yang benar
ada­lah (B).

50. Kutipan baris 21-22 adalah ‘when Theodore Roosevelt visited the blast area, he became the
first sitting American President to travel outside the country’ yang dalam bahasa Indonesia
memiliki makna ‘ketika Theodore Roosevelt mengunjungi area letusan tersebut, dia (Theo­
dore Roosevelt) menjadi presiden Amerika pertama yang bepergian ke luar negeri’. Dengan
de­mikian, jawaban yang benar adalah (A).

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 353

 ANSWER KEY
TEST UNIT 2
SECTION 1
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Part A

1. (woman) : I think this blue sweater suit me well.

(man) : Try the red one.
(narrator) : What does the man say about the sweater?

Jawaban : D. The blue sweater doesn’t fit the woman.

Kata kunci : Try the red one.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menyarankan agar pembicara pertama mencoba sweater
yang ber­war­na merah. Secara tidak langsung, pembicara kedua menyatakan
bahwa sweater biru yang dimaksud pembicara pertama kurang cocok di­ke­
na­kan oleh pembicara pertama. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) The
blue sweater doesn’t fit the woman.

2. (man) : If you had told me before, I would not tell your father about our yesterday’s
party.
(woman) : It’s okay. We can do another party even if we can’t do it today.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

Jawaban : A. She cancels the today’s party.

Kata kunci : Can’t do it today.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mengatakan bahwa mereka bisa mengadakan pesta lain
wak­tu. Ar­ti­nya, mereka tidak bisa berpesta hari ini. Bisa disimpulkan bahwa
pem­­bi­cara kedua mem­ba­talkan pesta hari ini. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat
adalah (A) She cancels the today’s party.

3. (woman) : Should I put this cream to your coffee?

(man) : I like it black.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : B. He doesn’t want his coffee added with cream.

Kata kunci : Black.
 Pembahasan : ‘I like it black’, jika ditambahkan krim, kopi akan berubah warna, tidak lagi
hi­tam. Pem­bi­ca­ra kedua menyukai kopinya tetap hitam, maka ia tidak ingin
me­nam­bah­kan krim. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (B) He doesn’t want his
coffee added with cream.

4. (man) : I want to see Dr. Richard, please?

(woman) : Wait for a while Sir. He’s still treating a patient.
(narrator) : Where does this conversation probably take place?

Jawaban : C. In a hospital.
Kata kunci : Treating a patient.
Pembahasan : Pembicara pertama mengatakan ingin bertemu dengan Mr. Richard. Pem­
bi­cara kedua mengatakan bahwa Dr. Richard sedang mengobati pasien,
se­hingga ia meminta pem­bi­cara pertama untuk menunggu. Kata kunci ter­
letak pada “treat­ing a patient”. Bisa di­sim­pulkan bahwa percakapan ter­se­but
berlangsung di ru­mah sakit. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) In a hospital.

5. (woman) : How was your project presentation?

(man) : It’s just a piece of cake.
(narrator) : What does the man say about the presentation?

Jawaban : C. The presentation was easy to do.

Kata kunci : A piece of cake.
Pembahasan : Ungkapan ‘a piece of cake’ bukan berarti potongan kue. Ungkapan tersebut
me­­ru­pakan idiom yang digunakan untuk mengekpresikan sesuatu yang
mu­­dah atau gampang di­ker­jakan. Dapat disimpulkan bahwa pembicara ke­
dua meng­ang­gap presentasinya se­ba­gai hal gampang. Jadi, jawaban yang
te­pat adalah (C) The presentation was easy to do.

6. (man) : Oh. It was the hardest test I have done before.

(woman) : You can say that again.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

Jawaban : B. She agrees that the test was difficult.

Kata kunci : Say that again.
Pembahasan : Kalimat kedua menyiratkan bahwa pembicara kedua setuju dengan apa yang
dikatakan pembicara pertama; ujian yang mereka kerjakan adalah ujian paling
sulit. Kalimat ter­se­but tergolong dalam kalimat persetujuan (agreement). Jadi,
jawaban yang tepat adalah (B) She agrees that the test was difficult.

7. (woman) : What should I do? I heard that Mr. Dean only teaches one class.
(man) : The early bird catches the worm.
(narrator) : What does the man imply?

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 355

 Jawaban : D. The woman should take the course immediately.
Kata kunci : Idiomatic expression.
Pembahasan : Ungkapan ‘the early bird catches the worm’ bukan berarti burung pertama yang
men­dapatkan cacing. Ungkapan tersebut merupakan idiom yang digunakan
untuk mem­be­ritahu seseorang; jika mereka ingin sukses, mere­ka harus me­la­
ku­kan sesuatu dengan se­gera. Artinya, pembicara kedua ber­pendapat bahwa
pembicara pertama harus meng­am­bil kelas sesegera mung­kin. Jadi, jawaban
yang tepat adalah (D) The woman should take the course immediately.

8. (man) : Here’s the camera that you asked me about.

(woman) : So you did remember that I wanted to borrow it.
(narrator) : What does the woman assumed?

Jawaban : C. She didn’t believe that the man would bring the camera.
Kata kunci : Did remember.
Pembahasan : Kata did yang diberi penekanan ketika diucapkan oleh pembicara kedua
me­nun­jukkan bahwa ia tidak percaya pembicara pertama akan mengingat
dan mem­ba­wakannya ka­me­ra, sebagaimana permintaannya. Jadi, jawaban
yang tepat adalah (C) She didn’t believe that the man would bring the camera.

9. (woman) : Will be the jazz music concert tonight interesting?

(man) : Without a doubt!
(narrator) : What does the man say about the jazz music concert?

Jawaban : A. He believes the jazz music concert will be attractive.

Kata kunci : Without a doubt.
Pembahasan : ‘Without a doubt’ diungkapkan pembicara kedua untuk meyakinkan pem­
bi­cara pertama bahwa konser musik jazz nanti malam akan sangat menarik.
Ka­limat tersebut merupakan sugesti. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (A)
He believes the jazz music concert will be attractive.

10. (man) : I hope you were able to be really productive today.

(woman) : It was so cold that I couldn’t get any work done.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

Jawaban : D. She didn’t accomplish much because of the ­weather.

Kata kunci : Cold and couldn’t get any work done.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mengatakan bahwa ia tidak bisa melakukan pekerjaan
karena udara terlalu dingin. De­ngan kata lain, ia tidak bisa mengerjakan
tugasnya ka­re­na faktor cuaca. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) She didn’t
accomplish much because of the weather.
11. (woman) : I don’t want Rice Salad as our dinner again.
(man) : Neither do I.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : B. He shares the same idea with the woman’s.

Kata kunci : Neither do I.
Pembahasan : Neither do I pada kalimat kedua mengungkapkan persetujuan; kalimat per­
se­tu­juan ne­ga­tif. Selain neither do I, ada pula kalimat persetujuan negatif I
don’t either; bermakna sa­ma. Pembicara kedua setuju terhadap apa yang
disampaikan pembicara pertama. Jadi, ja­waban yang tepat adalah (B) He
shares the same idea with the woman’s.

12. (man) : I don’t know if Jason liked the apartment or not.

(woman) : He said he liked it, but then he didn’t to sign the ­lease.
(narrator) : What can be concluded about Jason?

Jawaban : D. He didn’t rent the apartment.

Kata kunci : Lease.
Pembahasan : Lease adalah surat perjanjian sewa. Menurut pembicara kedua, Jason me­
nyu­kai apar­te­men itu tetapi ia tidak menandatangani surat perjanjian sewa.
Dapat di­sim­pulkan bahwa Jason tidak menyewa apartemen tersebut. Jadi,
jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) He didn’t rent the apartment.

13. (woman) : I don’t believe that Lee got collapse in the middle of the presentation this
morning.
(man) : He was so tired burning the midnight oil lately.
(narrator) : What does the man say about Lee?

Jawaban : C. He stayed awake late at night to work or study.

Kata kunci : Burning the midnight oil.
Pembahasan : Ungkapan ‘burning the midnight oil’ bukan berarti membakar minyak pada
te­ngah ma­lam. Ungkapan tersebut merupakan idiom yang digunakan un­
tuk me­nya­takan bahwa se­seorang terjaga hingga larut malam, entah untuk
be­kerja atau­pun untuk belajar. Pembicara kedua menginformasikan bahwa
Lee pingsan ka­rena semalaman terjaga untuk belajar. Jadi, jawaban yang
tepat adalah (C) He stayed awake late at night to study.

14. (woman) : What do you think about the paintings showed in the gallery?
(man) : Don’t ask me about it. I am not good in arts.
(narrator) : What does the man imply?

Jawaban : C. He can’t give comments about the paintings.

Kata kunci : Don’t ask me about it.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 357

 Pembahasan : Pembicara pertama menanyakan pendapat pembicara kedua mengenai
lukisan yang dipajang di galeri lukis. Namun, pembicara kedua tidak mem­
be­rikan ko­men­tarnya ka­rena dia merasa sama sekali tidak mengerti perihal
lukisan. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) He can’t give comments about
the paintings.

15. (man) : Why Marianne looked so enthusiastic during the party last night?
(woman) : She heard that her fiancé will be back home next week.
(narrator) : What does the woman say about Marianne?

Jawaban : A. She’s happy that she would meet her fiancé.

Kata kunci : Will be back home next week.
Pembahasan : Kalimat ‘will be back home next week’ menyiratkan bahwa tunangan Ma­
rianne akan kem­bali minggu depan, kabar yang membuat Marianne ter­li­
hat antusias dan ber­se­ma­ngat, bahagia karena akan bertemu tunangannya.
Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) She’s happy that she would meet her
fiancé.

16. (woman) : Let’s find a restaurant for lunch. Do you prefer meat loaf or fish stick?
(man) : I don’t eat meat. I prefer potato soup.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : A. He is a vegetarian.
Kata kunci : Don’t eat meat and Potato soup.
Pembahasan : Kalimat yang diucapkan pembicara kedua menunjukkan bahwa ia tidak
ingin makan menu yang ditawarkan pembicara pertama yaitu olahan da­
ging. Pem­bi­cara kedua me­nye­butkan bahwa ia memilih sup kentang. Da­
pat disimpulkan bahwa pembicara kedua ada­lah seorang vegetarian. Jadi,
jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) He is a vegetarian.

17. (man) : Excuse me. Where should I find some magazines published in 1985?
(woman) : You can find those in the first bookshelf near the computers.
(narrator) : Where does this conversation probably take place?

Jawaban : B. At a library.
Kata kunci : Bookshelf and computer.
Pembahasan : Pembicara pertama menanyakan letak majalah terbitan 1985. Pembicara
kedua men­ja­wab bahwa majalah yang dimaksud terletak di rak buku per­
ta­ma, dekat dengan kom­pu­ter. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (B) At a
library.
18. (woman) : I’d like to take Mr. Collin’s seminar. Is there still any seat left?
(man) : I’m so sorry, it’s full. But if you want, you can contact the committee for an
extra seat.
(narrator) : What will the woman probably do?

Jawaban : C. Ask the committee for an extra seat.

Kata kunci : Contact the committee.
Pembahasan : Karena kursi untuk mengikuti seminar Mr. Collin telah penuh, pembicara
kedua me­nya­rankan agar pembicara pertama menghubungi pihak panitia,
apakah bisa menambah kursi ataukah tidak. Maka kemungkinan yang akan
dilakukan pembicara kedua adalah ber­tanya kepada pihak panitia tentang
ketersediaan kursi tambahan peserta seminar. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat
adalah (C) Ask the committee for an extra seat.

19. (man) : Have Aaron been in Pennsylvania for camping?

(woman) : Yes he did. He had bought a travel bag and a tent.
(narrator) : What does the woman imply?

Jawaban : D. The camping equipments were prepared by Aaron.

Kata kunci : Travel bag and a tent.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menggunakan kalimat aktif, sehing­ga jawaban yang me­mung­
kin­kan meng­gu­nakan ka­limat pasif, perlengkapan kemah telah dibeli oleh Aaron.
Jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) The camping equipments were prepared by
Aaron.

20. (woman) : I have to pick Garnett up from the airport. How Garnett looks like?
(man) : He is about 178 tall and he has salt and pepper hair.
(narrator) : What does the man think about Garnett?

Jawaban : C. He is tall and has grey hair.

Kata kunci : Salt and pepper.
Pembahasan : Ungkapan ‘salt and pepper’ bukan berarti garam dan lada. Ungkapan ter­se­
but merupakan idiom yang digunakan untuk mengidentifikasi warna ram­
but seseorang; berwarna abu-abu seperti garam dan merica. Jadi, jawaban
yang tepat adalah (C) He is tall and has grey hair.

21. (man) : How could Ethan be rejected by the professor in his last project?
(woman) : He didn’t work on his project properly.
(narrator) : What does the woman say about Ethan?

Jawaban : D. He finished his work improperly.

Kata kunci : Didn’t and properly.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 359

 Pembahasan : Anda hanya perlu mencari pilihan jawaban yang mempunyai arti sama
tetapi struktur kalimatnya berbeda. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) He
finished his work improperly.

22. (woman) : I didn’t believe that the singer is Esther. She seems quite enough in the class.
(man) : Well, it wasn’t unbelievable thing to be believed. She has joined the campus
choir.
(narrator) : What does the man say about Esther?

Jawaban : C. Esther might be the singer.

Kata kunci : Say that again.
Pembahasan : Kalimat kedua merupakan kalimat negatif ganda, hal yang mustahil untuk
di­per­ca­ya. Kesimpulannya, mungkin saja memang Esther menjadi penyanyi
meskipun di kelas dia termasuk pendiam. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah
(C) Esther might be the singer.

23. (man) : How could Gavin get the excellent score in the hardest test ever?
(woman) : No one is more brilliant than he is.
(narrator) : What does the woman say about Gavin?

Jawaban : B. He is the most brilliant student.

Kata kunci : No one and more brilliant.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menanggapi pertanyaan pembicara pertama dengan
kata negatif no dan kata komparatif more brilliant. Kombinasi ini bermakna
superlatif yaitu the most brilliant. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (B) He is
the most brilliant student.

24. (woman) : I think that Butternut soup is better than Pear soup.
(man) : I do too.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : A. He agrees with the woman.

Kata kunci : I do too.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua setuju dengan apa yang dikatakan pembicara pertama
bahwa butternut soup lebih enak dari pear soup. Kalimat tersebut merupakan
kalimat persetujuan (agree­ment). Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) He
agrees with the woman.

25. (man) : Have you seen the announcement in the school board?
(woman) : What announcement is that?
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?
 Jawaban : C. She doesn’t know what he’s referring to.
Kata kunci : What announcement is that.
Pembahasan : ‘What announcement is that?’ menunjukkan bahwa pembicara kedua ragu
atau tidak ta­hu pasti isi pengumuman yang dimaksud pembicara pertama.
Kalimat tersebut me­nun­jukkan ketidakpastian atau keraguan (uncertainty).
Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) She doesn’t know what he’s referring to.

26. (woman) : I can’t find an even organizer to decor my Christmas tree by tomorrow
evening.
(man) : Why not do it yourself?
(narrator) : What does the man suggest?

Jawaban : C. Decor the Christmas tree herself.

Kata kunci : Do it yourself.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mengungkapkan gagasan terkait hal yang sebaiknya di­la­
ku­kan pem­bi­cara pertama. Pembicara pertama berkata bahwa ia kesusahan
mencari orang untuk menghias pohon natalnya. Kemudian pembicara ke­
dua me­nyarankan agar pembicara per­tama mencoba menghias pohon na­
tal­nya sen­diri. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) Decor the Christmas tree
herself.

27. (man) : You know, Hayley really didn’t do a good job on her final paper assignment.
(woman) : I couldn’t believe she was unprepared!
(narrator) : What does the woman say about Hayley?

Jawaban : D. She was surprised that Hayley wasn’t ready.

Kata kunci : Couldn’t believe.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mengungkapkan ketidakpercayaan­nya terhadap apa yang
dikatakan pembicara pertama bahwa Hayley tidak siap dengan tugas makalah
akhir. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) She was surprised that Hayley wasn’t
ready.

28. (woman) : It’s bad that you have to resign from our new project team.
(man) : Yeah, I really wish I could do my best for the team.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : A. He is unable to do his best for the team.

Kata kunci : I really wish I could.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua berharap ia bisa melakukan yang terbaik untuk timnya.
Ia memutuskan untuk keluar dari tim, sehingga tidak mampu melakukan
yang terbaik untuk timnya. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) He is unable
to do his best for the team.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 361

29. (man) : It will be a nice couple party. Do you want to join it?
(woman) : If I had a boyfriend, I would join it.
(narrator) : What does the woman say about the party?

Jawaban : A. It is impossible to come to the party.

Kata kunci : If I had a boyfriend.
Pembahasan : ‘If I had a boyfriend’ menyiratkan bahwa keadaan yang sebenarnya ialah ke­­
ba­lik­annya. Kenyataannya, pembicara kedua tidak mempunyai kekasih, se­
hing­ga ia tidak mungkin datang ke pesta itu. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah
(A) It is im­possible to come to the party.

30. (woman) : Are you going to organize the flowers this morning?
(man) : I wish I didn’t have to.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : A. He needs to rearrange the flowers.

Kata kunci : I wish.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua berharap ia tidak perlu merawat bunga-bunga. Nyatanya,
dia harus merawat bunga-bunga itu. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) He
needs to rearrange the flowers.

Part B
Questions 31 through 34 are based on the following conversation.
(narrator) : Listen to a conversation on a university campus.
(man) : You seem to know your way around campus. Have you been here long?
(woman) : I’m a senior music theatre major. I’ll be graduating on May.
(man) : Your major is music theatre? Mine is, too. But I’m just beginning my work in my major.
I’m a freshman. Perhaps you could tell me about the courses you’ve got to take in the
first semester.
(woman) : Well, for a music theatre major you need to take eight courses on your first semester.
There are English Composition, Music Theory, Music Skills, Introduction to Theatre
for Majors, Costume Construction, Voice and Movement Fundamentals, Voice and
Movement Fundamentals Lab, and Performance. And there is one course that you
have to take for eight semesters for a music theatre.
(man) : You mean, I have to take this course during my study at my major? And what is it?
(woman) : Yes, it is Performance. For each last semester, you have to perform what you have
learnt the whole semester. So you have to take Performance for eight semesters.
(man) : And… What another course that I have to take more than once?
(woman) : English Composition for two semesters and Core science in the second and third years.
(man) : Okay then. Thank you so much.
(woman) : Anytime.
31. What is the probable relationship between these two speakers?
Jawaban : C. Student-Student.
Kata kunci : A senior and a freshman.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mengatakan bahwa ia mahasiswa senior yang akan lulus
bulan Mei, se­dangkan pembicara pertama menyebut dirinya mahasiswa baru.
Artinya, keduanya berstatus sebagai mahasiswa. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat ada­
lah (C) Student-Student.

32. What does the man want to learn from the woman?
Jawaban : B. What courses are needed for the first semester.
Kata kunci : Tell me about the courses you’ve got to take in the first semester.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, pembicara pertama (the man) ingin me­
nge­tahui kelas apa saja yang harus ia ambil di semester awal. Jadi, jawaban
yang tepat adalah (B) What courses are needed for the first semester.

33. How many total courses must the man take for the first semester?
Jawaban : D. 8
Kata kunci : Take eight courses on your first semester.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, si pria mendapatkan informasi bahwa un­
tuk se­mester awal, ia harus mengambil delapan mata kuliah. Jadi, ja­wab­an
yang tepat adalah (D) 8.

34. What course that the man should take for eight semesters?
Jawaban : B. Performance.
Kata kunci : Take Performance for eight semesters.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, si pria memperoleh informasi bahwa ia
harus mengambil satu mata kuliah wajib untuk setiap semester selama de­
la­pan se­mes­ter. Adapun mata kuliah yang dimaksud adalah mata kuliah
Per­formance. Ja­di, jawaban yang tepat adalah (B) Performance.
Questions 35 through 38 are based on the following conversation.
(narrator) : Listen to a conversation between two friends.
(man) : Did you see Moto GP yesterday?
(woman) : No. I worked part-time until 8 p.m. What happened?
(man) : It’s a bad race ever. It has become a trending topic on social media and become a hot
topic in any magazines. Have you seen today’s headlines news?
(woman) : Emm... About what is that?
(man) : Marco Simoncelli. It’s at GP Sepang Malaysia.
(woman) : The Italian racer? What happened to him?
(man) : He died when the second round was underway.
(woman) : How could it be?

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 363

(man) : When chasing fourth position, he slipped and fell and unfortunately Collin Edwards
and Valentino Rossi were behind him and so inevitable crush happened. Collin Ed-
wards tried to brake, but it’s too late, and he fell down too. Meanwhile Rossi was
almost to fall but he could control his motorcycle again.
(woman) : Then what was the cause of death?
(man) : Medical director Dr. Michele Macchiagodena said, Simoncelli died from injuries to
the head, neck, and chest.
(woman) : It was the deep sadness news in the sports world. He’s talented, right?
(man) : Yes. And this is the worst accident ever during Moto GP race after the incident that
made Shoya Tomizawa died in the race.

35. What is the main topic discussed in the conversation?

Jawaban : B. Death in the Moto GP crushed.
Kata kunci : He died when the second round was underway.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, teridentifikasi bahwa topik yang dibi­ca­
rakan terkait kematian seorang pembalap saat putaran kedua sedang ber­
lang­sung. Ia jatuh dan ter­ta­brak pembalap lain. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat
adalah (B) Death in the Moto GP crushed.

36. What was the cause of the death?

Jawaban : A. Trauma to the head, neck, and chest.
Kata kunci : Simoncelli died from injuries to the head, neck, and chest.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, diketahui bahwa Simoncelli meninggal
akibat cedera di bagian kepala, leher, dan dada. Pernyataan tersebut disam­
pai­kan oleh Dr. Michele Macchiagodena, selaku direktur kesehatan. Injury,
atau cedera, mempunyai arti yang sama dengan trauma. Jadi, jawaban yang
tepat adalah (A) Trauma to the head, neck, and chest.

37. When did the incident happen according to the conversation?

Jawaban : D. On the second round.
Kata kunci : He died when the second round was underway.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, terlihat jelas bahwa kecelakaan yang di­
mak­­sud terjadi ketika putaran kedua sedang berlangsung. Jadi, jawaban
yang tepat adalah (D) On the second round.

38. Who another racer died on the track before Marco Simoncelli?
Jawaban : C. Shoya Tomizawa.
Kata kunci : Race after the incident that made Shoya Tomizawa died in the race.
Pembahasan : Disebutkan secara jelas dalam percakapan, pembalap yang tewas di sirkuit
se­belum Marco Simoncelli adalah Shoya Tomizawa. Jadi, jawaban yang te­
pat adalah (C) Shoya Tomi­zawa.
Part C
Questions 39-42
(narrator) : Listen to a talk by a university employee.
(woman) : This is a service for students who want to know more about how to apply students’
accommodation in this university. I’ll deli­ver to you some information about students’
accommodation. When you’re looking at accommodation options offered by the uni-
versity you’re hoping to go to, it can be tempting to go straight for the halls with the
biggest bedrooms, the comfortable bathrooms or the ones that you’ve heard throw
the best parties for freshmen. But also bear in mind these factors, such as cost, loca-
tion, facilities, and also special requirements. Accommodation is usually allocated on
a first-come, first-served basis. Deadline for applying is 1 August 2015, so don’t leave
it till the last minute to make your application. Applications are made online. You put
down a number of preferences-your preferred accommodation residence as well as
your preferred type of room. We only provide two types of room; single bathroom
and shared bathroom.

39. What is the primary topic of the talk?

Jawaban : A. How to apply students’ accommodation.
Kata kunci : About how to apply students’ accommodation in this university.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, diketahui bahwa topik yang dibicarakan
terkait ako­modasi untuk siswa. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) How to
apply students’ ac­com­mo­dation.

40. What factors in applying students’ accommodation should students notice?

Jawaban : D. Cost, location, facilities, and also special requirements.
Kata kunci : Bear in mind these factors, such as cost, location, facilities, and also special
requirements.
Pembahasan : Siswa yang akan mendaftar asrama perlu memperhatikan beberapa hal se­
per­ti harga, lokasi, fasilitas, dan persyaratan lain. Keterangan tersebut di­in­
for­masikan dalam monolog. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) Cost, lo­ca­
tion, facilities, and also special requirements.

41. What kind of rooms provide by the campus?

Jawaban : A. Single bathroom and shared bathroom.
Kata kunci : We only provide two types of room; single bathroom and shared bathroom.
Pembahasan : Jelas disebutkan dalam monolog bahwa kampus hanya menyediakan dua
jenis ruangan, yakni single bath­­­room dan shared bathroom. Jadi, jawaban
yang tepat adalah (A) Single bathroom and shared bathroom.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 365

42. When should the students apply for students’ accommodation in this university?
Jawaban : B. Before 1 August.
Kata kunci : Deadline for applying is 1 August 2015.
Pembahasan : Jelas disebutkan dalam monolog bahwa pengumpulan lamaran paling
lambat 1 Agustus, sehingga siswa diminta mengumpulkannya sebelum 1
Agus­tus. Jadi, jawaban yang te­pat adalah (B) Before 1 August.
Questions 43-46
(narrator) : Listen to a talk by a professor.
(man) : Today’s lecture will talk about the history of rap music. Rapping can be traced back
to its African roots. Centuries before hip hop music existed, the griots of West Africa
were delivering stories rhythmically, over drums and sparse instrumentation. Gram-
my-winning blues musician/historian Elijah Wald and others have argued that the
blues were being rapped as early as the 1920s. Art forms such as spoken word poetry
and comedy jazz records had an influence on the first rappers. During the mid-20th
century, the musical culture of the Caribbean was constantly influenced by the con-
current changes in American music. As early as 1956, the deejays were toasting an
African tradition of “rapped out” tales of heroism over dubbed Jamaican beats. It was
called “rap”, expanding the word’s meaning Earlier in the African-American commu-
nity. One of the first rappers at the beginning of the hip hop period, at the end of the
1970s, was also hip hop’s first DJ, Kool Herc. Rap was further developed in the 70s
marked the beginning of hip-hop music formed.

43. What is the main topic discussed in the talk?

Jawaban : B. The history of the rap music.
Kata kunci : History of rap music.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, diketahui bahwa bahwa topik yang dibicarakan
adalah sejarah musik rap. Topik tersebut juga disebutkan secara jelas di bagian
awal. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (B) The history of the rap music.

44. According to the speaker, where roots rapping come from?

Jawaban : C. African.
Kata kunci : Rapping can be traced back to its African roots.
Pembahasan : Jelas disebutkan dalam monolog bahwa musik rap bisa ditelusuri dari akar
budaya orang Afrika. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) African.

45. Based on the talk, what did influence the first rappers?
Jawaban : A. Word poetry and comedy jazz records.
Kata kunci : Art forms such as spoken word poetry and comedy jazz records had an influence
on the first rappers.
 Pembahasan : Disebutkan bahwa puisi dan guyonan jazz berpengaruh bagi para rapper
pertama. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) Word poetry and comedy jazz
records.

46. Why rap had influenced the hip hop music in the 70’s based on the talk?
Jawaban : D. The development of rap in the 70s formed the beginning of hip-hop
mu­­sic.
Kata kunci : Rap was further developed in the 70s marked the beginning of hip-hop music
formed.
Pembahasan : Anda diminta menarik kesimpulan dari ceramah. Berda­sarkan kata kunci, rap
ber­pe­nga­ruh terhadap musik hip hop pada 70-an karena pertumbuhan rap
pada 70-an membentuk tradisi hiphop. Maka jawaban yang tepat adalah (D)
The development of rap in the 70s formed the beginning of hip-hop music.
Questions 47- 50
(narrator) : Listen to a talk in a zoo.
(woman) : Welcome to The Phoenix zoo. Here I will accompany you during the tour in this zoo.
But first, I’ll introduce to you the history and the animals contained in this zoo. The
Phoenix Zoo opened in 1962 and it is the Reviews largest privately owned, non-prof-
it zoo in the United States. Located in Phoenix, Arizona, the zoo was founded by
Robert Maytag, a member of the Maytag family. It is divided into four themed play
areas or trails: The Arizona Trail, the Africa Trail, the Tropics Trail, and the Children’s
Trail include a petting zoo. The Arizona Trail is designed to emulate the wildlife and
plant life of the state of Arizona Including the saguaro cactus, and animals such as
the coyote, mountain lion, bobcat, and many more. The Africa Trail showcases many
of the most popular animals in the world, Including the African wild dogs, mandrills,
ostrich, African lions, and Sumatran tigers. The Tropics Trail has two parts. The inner
trail following the lake is home to the Tropical Flights aviary as well as the ring-tailed
lemurs, and Bornean Orangutans, and Monkey Village. The outer tropics trail passes
by the Land of the Dragons exhibit such as Asian elephants, jaguars, Galápagos tor-
toises, iguanas, and an assortment of tropical birds. The Children’s Trail lets children
get close to many small mammals from around the world, including emus, Siamang
gibbons, and so on.

47. Who is probably the speaker of the talk?

Jawaban : A. A tour guide.
Kata kunci : Accompany you during the tour.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, dapat disimpulkan bahwa penceramah me­
ru­pakan se­orang tour guide. Adapun seorang tour guide atau pemadu wisata
ber­tugas menemani dan memperkenalkan sebuah objek wisata kepada pe­
ngun­jung. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) A tour guide.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 367

48. How many themed play areas or trails are available in the zoo?
Jawaban : A. 4.
Kata kunci : Into four themed play areas or trails.
Pembahasan : Disebutkan bahwa kebun binatang tersebut dibagi menjadi empat area,
ber­da­sarkan te­ma. Maka jumlah themed play yang dimaksud ada empat.
Jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) 4.

49. In what themed play area or trail can we find the Asian elephants?
Jawaban : C. The outer Tropic Trail.
Kata kunci : The outer tropics trail passes by the Land of the Dragons exhibit such as Asian
elephants.
Pembahasan : Jawaban untuk pertanyaan ini disebutkan langsung oleh penceramah.
Zona tropis dibagi menjadi dua, Anda akan menemukan gajah Asia pada
zo­na paling luar dari zona tropis. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) The
out­er Tropic Trail.

50. What can be found in the Children’s Trail based on the talk?
Jawaban : D. Some of tame animals.
Kata kunci : Small mammals from around the world.
Pembahasan : Pada zona anak, terdapat hewan-hewan yang masih kecil di seluruh dunia.
Se­bagaimana kita tahu, hewan yang masih kecil relatif lebih jinak dan tidak
meng­ancam keselamatan anak-anak. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) Some
of tame animals.

SECTION II
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN EXPRESSION COMPREHENSION
1. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kata kerja untuk kalimat bersubjek singular harus ditambahkan es/s. Ter­da­
pat pilihan jawaban yang kata kerjanya tidak ditambahkan es/s, yang berarti
sub­­jek­nya plural. Ja­wab­an yang tepat adalah Researchers.

2. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Bagian yang kosong harus diisi dengan kata kerja karena terdapat subjek
pada kata sebelumnya. Adapun kata kerjanya harus passive karena tidak
terdapat objek setelah kata tersebut.

3. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Dijelaskan bahwa kamera Andreas telah rusak, sehingga dia akan membeli
ka­mera baru. Dalam kalimat tersebut, dibutuhkan modality, yakni is going.
4. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Terdapat beberapa kata kerja yang harus diikuti gerund. Salah satunya, stop.
Maka jawaban yang tepat untuk melengkapi kalimat di atas adalah laughing.

5. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan bentuk present perfect tense, maka harus diikuti
kata kerja bentuk ketiga, yakni decided.

6. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut membutuhkan kata ganti subjek aktif. Dari pilihan jawaban
yang ada, yang tepat adalah they. Pilihan jawaban lain menandakan kepe­
milikan (their dan theirs) dan kata ganti subjek pasif (them).

7. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut membutuhkan subjek yang berfungsi menandakan ke­
pe­mi­lik­an. Karena kalimat tersebut terdapat kata benda a bouquet of roses,
berarti me­mer­lukan possessive adjective. Jawaban yang tepat adalah her.

8. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Modal yang tepat digunakan untuk subjek you pada kalimat tersebut adalah
have to.

9. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Modal yang tepat digunakan adalah must karena tingkat keharusannya
men­capai 95%.

10. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan bentuk present tense, sehingga menggunakan
kata kerja bentuk pertama. Karena subjeknya jamak, kata yang tepat adalah
suggest.

11. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan bentuk past tense, sehingga memerlukan kata
kerja bentuk kedua, made.

12. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut menggunakan bentuk elliptical construction so. Karena
sub­jek setelahnya Amy, jawaban yang tepat adalah so does.

13. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut membutuhkan modal bentuk present, diikuti kata kete­
rang­­an waktu, sehingga jawaban yang tepat adalah will be.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 369

14. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan bentuk past perfect tense. Polanya, S + had +
V3. Karena yang diminta bentuk pertanyaan, polanya ialah had + S + V3.

15. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut mengandung subjek I. Auxiliary verb yang tepat untuk
subjek tersebut adalah don’t.

16. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan kalimat pengandaian tipe kedua, maka harus
diikuti past tense dan past future. Jawaban yang tepat adalah would.

17. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Subjek utama kalimat tersebut adalah the main reason, sehingga jawaban
yang tepat adalah was.

18. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kata steal dalam kalimat tersebut seharusnya berbentuk pasif yaitu stolen.

19. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut seharusnya menggunakan adverb of cause and effect; yaitu
since.

20. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kata ganti yang tepat untuk objek pada kalimat tersebut adalah whom.

21. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Setiap modal diikuti Verb 1, maka jawaban yang tepat adalah attend.

22. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut berbentuk present perfect. Polanya, S + have/has + V3.
Maka kata kerja pada kalimat tersebut seharusnya prepared.

23. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kalimat kedua merupakan bentuk pasif, seharusnya diikuti V3, yakni held.

24. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kata ganti kepemilikan orang ketiga wanita yang tepat untuk bentuk
possessive adjective ialah her dan terdapat noun setelahnya.

25. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kata ganti yang tepat untuk menunjuk orang sebagai subjek adalah who.

26. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Article yang tepat untuk kata interview adalah an.
27. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut menggunakan demonstrative pronoun yang seharusnya
those untuk bentuk plural.

28. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kata get seharusnya diganti dengan kata got. Kalimat tersebut merupakan
bentuk past, ditandai keterangan waktu yesterday.

29. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kata sing seharusnya diganti dengan kata singing. Singing merupakan ben­
tuk gerund yang mengikuti kata enjoy.

30. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan bentuk present perfect. Polanya, S + have/has +
V3. Maka jawaban yang tepat adalah have got.

31. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut mengandung kata previous di antara pola present perfect.
Karena menunjuk kata keterangan, seharusnya previously.

32. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan conditional sentence type 2. Polanya past tense,
diikuti past future sehingga jawaban yang tepat adalah found.

33. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut menjelaskan the robbers. Kata ganti yang tepat adalah
who. The robbers merupakan makhluk hidup, bukan benda mati.

34. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut mengandung preposition before (sebelum). Before dalam
kalimat tersebut tidak tepat digunakan karena tidak sesuai konteks.
Jawaban yang tepat adalah after.

35. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan bentuk present perfect. Polanya, S + have/has +
V3. Maka jawaban yang tepat adalah has begun.

36. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan bentuk pasif. Polanya, S + have/has been + V3.
Jawaban yang tepat adalah closed, bukan close.

37. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kata whom digunakan sebagai kata ganti yang menunjuk manusia sebagai
objek. Pada kalimat tersebut, yang dijelaskan adalah students, sehingga
penghubung yang tepat seharusnya who.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 371

38. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan bentuk present, kata kerja yang tepat bukan
looked, melainkan looks.

39. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kata accompanied dalam kalimat tersebut seharusnya accompany. Ingat, to
infinitive harus diikuti V1.

40. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Subjek kalimat tersebut adalah two weeks. Two weeks merupakan bentuk
jamak (plural), maka to be yang tepat adalah is.

SECTION III
READING COMPREHENSION
1. Jawaban : C. Beetle’s navigation.
Pembahasan : Teks tersebut mengulas navigasi kumbang. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah
(C) Beetle’s navigation.

2. Jawaban : A. The beetle uses navigation item for rolling the dung.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat they are a different species than the
ones that roll balls of dung dalam teks.

3. Jawaban : C. Afterdark.
Pembahasan : Nocturnal memiliki kemiripan arti dengan afterdark (malam hari). Sementara
itu, kata noon berarti siang, morning berarti pagi, dan twilight berarti senja
kala.

4. Jawaban : C. Insect attracts a mate and sexual appeal.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas. Dalam teks disebutkan they use it to navigate and for sexual sig­
naling, to attract mates.

5. Jawaban : B. Moth.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat moths, for example, will orient them­
selves to the moon at night but will use the physical landscape to navigate by
day dalam teks.

6. Jawaban : A. Showing many bright colours which change with movement.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

7. Jawaban : D. That’s cloudy sky.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat A study co-authored by Warrant
in 2012 says that beetles will lose their straight-line navigation abilities under
overcast conditions or if they can’t see the sky dalam teks.
8. Jawaban : B. They cannot create landmark.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat yet their steering isn’t affected by altering
landmarks dalam teks.

9. Jawaban : C. To explain the beetle’s life and insects.

Pembahasan : Secara keseluruhan, teks tersebut menjelaskan kehidupan kumbang dan
serangga.

10. Jawaban : C. Proper.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

11. Jawaban : D. Paul Ekman interviews forty students for research sampling.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

12. Jawaban : A. Like.

Pembahasan : Concur memiliki kesamaan arti dengan like (suka). Sementara kata dislike
berarti tidak suka, disturb berarti mengganggu, dan impact berarti pengaruh
kuat.

13. Jawaban : C. To describe facial expression and emotion relationship.

Pembahasan : Secara keseluruhan, teks tersebut menggambarkan hubungan antara eks­
presi wajah dengan emosi seseorang.

14. Jawaban : B. The contraction of facial muscles both influences real attitude
person.
Pembahasan : Pernyataan yang tidak sesuai dengan teks adalah the contraction of facial
muscles both influences real attitude person.

15. Jawaban : A. Nerve.

Pembahasan : Definisi paling tepat untuk kata nerve adalah a group of long thin fiber that
carry information or instructions between the brain and other parts of the body.

16. Jawaban : B. Facial expression and emotion relationship.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

17. Jawaban : A. The facial expression could indicate people’s emotion.

Pembahasan : Teks tersebut mengulas persoalan emosi manusia.

18. Jawaban : A. Facial expression and emotional problem.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

19. Jawaban : D. Tremble.

Pembahasan : Quivering memiliki kesamaan arti dengan tremble (getaran). Kata blow ber­
arti pukulan, touch berarti sentuhan, dan pull berarti dorongan.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 373

20. Jawaban : B. Emotional response can be influenced by facial feedback.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat but when the emotion that leads to
stiffening the lip is more intense, and involves strong muscle tension, facial
feedback may heighten emotional response dalam teks.

21. Jawaban : A. The quality improvement is needed to develop banana fruit.

Pembahasan : Terjelaskan dalam teks. Secara keseluruhan, teks tersebut mengulas usaha
pe­­ngembangan produksi pisang.

22. Jawaban : B. Residue.

Pembahasan : Kata yang memiliki kesamaan arti dengan remnant adalah residue. Kata hind
berarti belakang, garbage berarti sampah, dan roof berarti atap.

23. Jawaban : D. It has three sets of genetic instead of the normal two.
Pembahasan : Pernyataan yang tidak sesuai dengan isi teks adalah it has three sets of
genetic instead of the normal two.

24. Jawaban : C. One gene of a set loses function.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat having more than one gene of each
type means that if one gene of a set loses function, the plant still has another
one that works dalam teks.

25. Jawaban : A. A plant or animal that has been produced from two different types of
plant or animal, especially to get better.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

26. Jawaban : B. The hybrids developed the ability to set fruit without being fertilized.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat at some point, the hybrids developed
the ability to set fruit without being fertilized dalam teks.

27. Jawaban : A. A powder produced by the male part of a flower, which is carried
by insects or the wind and causes the female part of the same type of
flower to produce seeds.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

28. Jawaban : D. Inheritance.

Pembahasan : Relics memiliki kesamaan arti dengan inheritance (warisan). Sementara old
berarti tua, unique berarti unik, dan house berarti rumah.

29. Jawaban : A. A plant geneticist.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

30. Jawaban : C. That’s complicated evolution of the bananas.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat it’s a key species in the complicated
evolution of the bananas and plantains people eat around the world dalam teks.
31. Jawaban : D. Language diversity supports diversity in culture.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

32. Jawaban : C. 11 years.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat between 1991 and 2002, total K-12
student enrollment rose only 12% dalam teks.

33. Jawaban : B. Students have a low and no skillful in English competence.

Pembahasan : Jawaban tersebut memiliki kesamaan konteks dengan frasa limited English
proficient.

34. Jawaban : A. Extreme dislike or fear of foreigners, their customs, their religions.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

35. Jawaban : A. A strong current flowing under water in a different direction to the
way the water on the surface is moving.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

36. Jawaban : D. To elaborate contemporary trend and historical background in lan-

guage.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

37. Jawaban : D. Pole.

Pembahasan : Underpinning memiliki kesamaan arti dengan pole (tiang). Sementara stick
berarti tongkat, base berarti dasar, dan wall berarti dinding.

38. Jawaban : A. To elaborate contemporary trend and historical background in

language.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat we emphasize multilingual because
most dis­cus­sions of language policy are framed as if monolingualism were part
of our heritage from which we are now drifting dalam teks.

39. Jawaban : A. Deciding an education language planning.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat educational language planning is fre­
quently por­tra­yed as an attempt to solve the language problems of the minority
da­lam teks.

40. Jawaban : B. Language is categorized by social and culture.

Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut tidak terdapat dalam teks.

41. Jawaban : A. Learning a new literacy.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

42. Jawaban : D. Leaflet.

Pembahasan : Pilihan yang tidak disebutkan dalam teks adalah leaflet.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 375

43. Jawaban : A. Innovator.
Pembahasan : Modernist memiliki kesamaan arti dengan innovator (inovator). Sementara
stylist berarti pengarah gaya, leader berarti pemimpin, dan new comer ber­
arti pen­da­tang baru.

44. Jawaban : B. To put things which are not similar next to each other.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

45. Jawaban : D. The images often communicate different things from the words.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat they now carry meanings that are in­
de­pendent of the words in the text dalam teks.

46. Jawaban : B. Read script.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

47. Jawaban : B. Video game cannot shift from the books.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terletak pada kalimat they will not replace books dalam
teks.

48. Jawaban : D. There are many advantages from reading literacy.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

49. Jawaban : B. He imagines that video games can replace the book.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.

50. Jawaban : C. The ability to read and write.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas.
 ANSWER KEY
TEST UNIT 3
SECTION I
LISTENING COMPREHENSION
Part A

1. (woman) : I think the blue jacket is bigger than the black one.
(man) : But the black fits me well.
(narrator) : What does the man say about the jacket?

Jawaban : B. The black jacket fits to his body.

Kata kunci : Black fits me.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mengatakan bahwa jaket yang ber­warna hitam pas dengan
ukuran tubuhnya. Jadi, ja­waban yang tepat adalah (B) The black jacket fits to
his body.

2. (man) : If you had submitted the assignment on time, I would not do an extra work.
(woman) : I’m so sorry. I would make it later.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

Jawaban : D. She would submit the later assignment on time.

Kata kunci : Make it later.
Pembahasan : Make it bukan berarti membuat, namun berjanji. Pada percakapan di atas,
pem­bicara kedua berjanji akan mengumpulkan tugas berikutnya tepat wak­­
tu. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) She would submit the later assign­ment
on time.

3. (woman) : Should I add sugar to your tea?

(man) : It’s sweet enough.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : A. He doesn’t want extra sugar in his tea.

Kata kunci : Sweet enough.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mengatakan bahwa tehnya sudah cukup manis, maka
tidak perlu tambahan gula. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) He doesn’t want
extra sugar in his tea.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 377

4. (man) : Where should I put this assignment, Ma’am?
(woman) : Put it here on my table or in my locker.
(narrator) : Where does this conversation probably take place?

Jawaban : B. In a teacher room.

Kata kunci : My table dan my locker.
Pembahasan : Pembicara pertama ingin mengumpulkan tugasnya dan bertanya kepada do­
sen di mana seharusnya ia menaruh tugasnya. Pembicara kedua men­ja­wab,
‘taruh saja di meja atau di loker saya’. Latar tempat yang paling mung­kin adalah
di ru­ang guru atau dosen. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (B) In a teacher room.

5. (woman) : What do you think about the movie that we’ve just watched?
(man) : It’s caught the eye of me.
(narrator) : What does the man say about the movie?

Jawaban : A. The movie was interesting.

Kata kunci : Caught the eye.
Pembahasan : Ungkapan caught the eye bukan berarti menangkap atau mendapatkan ma­
ta. Ungkapan tersebut me­rupakan idiom yang digunakan untuk meng­eks­
pre­sikan sesuatu yang me­na­rik perhatian. Dapat di­simpulkan bahwa pem­
bi­cara kedua meng­anggap film yang baru saja mereka tonton itu me­narik.
Ja­­waban yang te­pat adalah (A) The movie was interesting.

6. (man) : The prices at this store are really outrageous!

(woman) : You can say that again!
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

Jawaban : D. She agrees with the man.

Kata kunci : Say that again.
Pembahasan : Kalimat yang diucapkan pembicara kedua me­nun­jukkan sikap sepakat ya­
itu har­ga-harga di toko ter­se­but sangat menakjubkan. Jawaban yang te­pat
adalah (D) She agrees with the man.

7. (woman) : Do you know who the rector of this campus is now?

(man) : I heard that Mr. Ernest replaced Mrs. Peterson.
(narrator) : What does the man say about the rector?

Jawaban : C. Mr. Ernest took Mrs. Peterson’s position as the rector.

Kata kunci : Replaced.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menyebut nama Mr. Ernest dan Mrs. Peterson. Pernyataan
Mr. Ernest replaced Mrs. Peterson berarti Mr. Ernest menggantikan posisi Mrs.
Peterson. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) Mr. Ernest took Mrs. Peterson’s position
as the rector.
8. (man) : I just got back from the market.
(woman) : So you did do the shopping!
(narrator) : What had the woman assumed about the man?

Jawaban : A. He had not gone to the store.

Kata kunci : Did do the shopping.
Pembahasan : Kata did yang diucapkan dengan penekanan menunjukkan ketidakpercayaan
bahwa pem­bicara pertama (the man) benar-benar pergi belanja. Jawaban
yang tepat adalah (A) He had not gone to the store.

9. (woman) : Will I look beautiful wearing this long dress for the welcoming party tonight?
(man) : Why don’t you try it first? Let me take a look.
(narrator) : What does the man suggest?

Jawaban : C. Try the dress first before wears it to the party.

Kata kunci : Why don’t you try it first.
Pembahasan : Why don’t you try it first? diungkapkan pembicara kedua sebagai upaya untuk
meyakinkan pembicara pertama bahwa ia harus mencoba gaunnya sebelum
dipakai ke pesta. Kalimat tersebut merupakan sugesti. Jawaban yang tepat
adalah (C) Try the dress first before wears it to the party.

10. (man) : I hope you were able to finish your paper today.
(woman) : It was so hot that I couldn’t get any single page done.
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

Jawaban : A. She didn’t finish her paper because of the ­weather.

Kata kunci : Hot and couldn’t get any single page done.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mengatakan bahwa ia tidak bisa menyelesaikan maka­
lahnya karena udara terlalu panas. Dengan kata lain, ia tidak bisa me­nger­ja­
kan tugasnya karena faktor cuaca. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) She didn’t
finish her paper because of the weather.

11. (woman) : I don’t like our new lecturer. She is too fussy.
(man) : I don’t either.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : C. He shares the same idea with the woman.

Kata kunci : I don’t either.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan kalimat persetujuan negatif yaitu I don’t either.
Pembicara kedua menyatakan setuju dengan pendapat pembicara pertama.
Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) He shares the same idea with the woman.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 379

12. (man) : Did you or Ethan finish the assignment? I know he didn’t want to do it.
(woman) : I made Ethan finish it.
(narrator) : What can be concluded about Ethan?

Jawaban : D. Ethan finished the assignment.

Kata kunci : Made dan finish.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mampu membuat Ethan mengerjakan tugasnya. Dapat
di­sim­pul­kan bah­wa pada akhirnya, Ethan mengerjakan tugasnya. Jawaban
yang tepat adalah (D) Ethan finished the assignment.

13. (woman) : I don’t believe that you are going to go this soon.
(man) : As soon as I arrive in Manhattan, I’ll drop you a line.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : A. He will contact her as soon as he arrives in Manhattan.

Kata kunci : I’ll drop you a line.
Pembahasan : Ungkapan I’ll drop you a line bukan berarti akan menjatuhkan sebuah garis.
Ungkapan tersebut merupakan idiom yang berarti memberi kabar. Maka
da­pat disimpulkan bahwa pembicara kedua akan segera memberi kabar
pada pembicara pertama, sesampainya ia di Manhattan. Jawaban yang te­
pat adalah (A) He will contact her as soon as he arrives in Manhattan.

14. (woman) : Let’s join the campus singing contest.

(man) : Don’t ask me to join. I am hopeless in singing.
(narrator) : What does the man imply?

Jawaban : C. He won’t join the contest.

Kata kunci : Don’t ask me to join.
Pembahasan : Pembicara pertama mengajak pembicara kedua untuk ikut lomba menyanyi.
Namun, pembicara kedua merasa tidak mungkin ikut karena tidak bisa
bernyanyi. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) He won’t join the contest.

15. (man) : Is Jonas going to work on the economy project with us?
(woman) : He prefers not to work on group project
(narrator) : What does the woman say about Jonas?

Jawaban : B. He’s rather work alone.

Kata kunci : Prefers not dan group.
Pembahasan : Dapat disimpulkan bahwa Jonas lebih suka mengerjakan proyeknya sen­di­
ri­an da­ripada bergabung dalam sebuah grup. Jawaban yang tepat adalah
(B) He’s rather work alone.
16. (woman) : Mr. Edison did not look too happy as she left her classroom.
(man) : He was angered by her rowdy students.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : B. The boisterous students made the teacher mad.

Kata kunci : Angered dan rowdy.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut mengandung sinonim. Angered bersinonim dengan mad,
se­dang­kan rowdy bersinonim dengan boisterous. Dengan kata lain, siswa
yang ri­but membuat gu­ru­nya marah. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (B)
The boisterous students made the teacher mad.

17. (man) : Did you buy the ticket?

(woman) : Yes, I did. Let’s go on in because the first attraction’s about to play.
(narrator) : Where does this conversation probably take place?

Jawaban : C. In the amusement park.

Kata kunci : Attractions.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menyatakan bahwa atraksinya akan segera dimulai. Maka
ter­identifikasi bahwa percakapan tersebut berlangsung di sebuah taman
hiburan. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) In the amusement park.

18. (woman) : I’d like to apply the students’ accommodation. Is there still any room left?
(man) : I’m so sorry, it’s full. But if you want, you can find a student who wants to
share her room with you.
(narrator) : What will the woman probably do?

Jawaban : A. Find a student who wants to be her roommate.

Kata kunci : Find dan share.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menyatakan bahwa kamar asrama telah penuh. Ia me­
min­ta pembicara pertama untuk mencari teman yang bisa berbagi ka­mar
dengannya. Maka kemungkinan tindakan yang dilakukan adalah men­cari
teman untuk menjadi teman sekamarnya. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (A)
Find a student who wants to be her roommate.

19. (man) : Have you prepared food for today’s barbeque party?
(woman) : Yes I did. I had bought a bag of oranges, apples, and grapes and also 3 kg
beef tenderloin.
(narrator) : What does the woman imply?

Jawaban : C. A bag of fruits and also meat have been bought by her.
Kata kunci : A bag of oranges, apples, and grapes dan beef tenderloin.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menggunakan kalimat aktif, sehingga jawaban yang me­
mung­kinkan menggunakan kalimat pasif, yaitu ‘buah dan daging dibeli

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 381

 olehnya’. Ja­waban yang tepat adalah (C) A bag of fruits and also meat have
been bought by her.

20. (woman) : I don’t believe that Janet broke my only glasses.

(man) : But don’t dress her down.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : A. She hasn’t to scold Janet in publicly.

Kata kunci : Dress her down.
Pembahasan : Dress her down berarti memarahinya di depan umum. Jawaban yang tepat
adalah (A) She hasn’t to scold Janet in publicly.

21. (man) : Did Dean get his work done?

(woman) : He couldn’t finish the assignment because his computer was broken.
(narrator) : What does the woman say about Dean?

Jawaban : D. His assignment was incomplete because his computer was broken.
Kata kunci : Couldn’t dan was broken.
Pembahasan : Anda hanya perlu mencari pilihan jawaban yang mempunyai arti sama
na­mun struktur kalimatnya berbeda. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) His
assign­ment was incomplete be­cause his computer was broken.

22. (man) : The transferred students became an assistant for Mr. Collin.
(woman) : No body is more genius than she is.
(narrator) : What does the woman say about the transferred student?

Jawaban : A. She is the most brilliant students.

Kata kunci : No body dan more genius.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menanggapi pertanyaan pembicara pertama dengan kata
ne­gatif no dan komparatif more genius. Brilliant bersinonim dengan genius.
Maka kombinasi ini bermakna superlatif, the most brilliant. Jawaban yang
tepat adalah (A) She is the most brilliant students.

23. (woman) : I didn’t believe that Adam was in jail. He looks like a nice guy.
(man) : Well, it wasn’t unbelievable thing to be true.
(narrator) : What does the man say about Adam?

Jawaban : C. Adam could be in jail.

Kata kunci : Well.
Pembahasan : Melalui pernyataan pembicara kedua, mungkin saja memang Adam berada
di penjara. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) Adam could be in jail.
24. (woman) : Did Keith finish that difficult assignment?
(man) : He gave up before she really got started.
(narrator) : What does the man say about Keith?

Jawaban : D. She didn’t do the work.

Kata kunci : I really wish I could.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menyatakan bahawa Keith menyerah sebelum dia benar-
benar me­mu­lai­nya. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) She didn’t do the
work.

25. (woman) : I think that jazz music sound classy than blues.
(man) : So do I.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : C. He shares the same idea with the woman.

Kata kunci : So do I.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua menyatakan persetujuan bahwa jazz lebih berkelas da­ri­
pada blues. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) He shares the same idea with the
woman.

26. (man) : Have you heard the news that Jenny got her promotion next week?
(woman) : Are you positive?
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

Jawaban : D. She is unsure that Jenny got her promotion.

Kata kunci : Are you positive?
Pembahasan : Are you positive? yang diungkapkan pembicara kedua menunjukkan ke­ti­dak­
per­ca­yaan atau keraguan (uncertainty). Jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) She is
unsure that Jenny got her promotion.

27. (woman) : I can’t find a babysitter to keep my niece by tomorrow morning.

(man) : Why not do it yourself?
(narrator) : What does the man suggest?

Jawaban : B. She should take care of her niece herself.

Kata kunci : Do it yourself.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua mengungkapkan gagasan terkait hal yang sebaiknya di­
la­kukan pem­bi­cara pertama. Pembicara pertama mengatakan bahwa ia ke­
su­sahan men­ca­ri orang untuk menjaga keponakannya. Pembicara kedua
menyarankan agar pembicara pertama menjaga keponakannya sendiri. Ja­
waban yang tepat adalah (B) She should take care of her niece herself.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 383

28. (woman) : Are you going to do the housework today?
(man) : I wish I didn’t have to.
(narrator) : What does the man mean?

Jawaban : A. He needs to finish the housework.

Kata kunci : I wish.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua berharap ia tidak perlu mengerjakan pekerjaan rumah.
Ke­nya­taannya, ia harus mengerjakan pekerjaan rumah. Jawaban yang tepat
adalah (A) He needs to finish the housework.

29. (man) : I heard that our debate team has been defeated in the quarterfinals.
(woman) : It’s unpredictable!
(narrator) : What does the woman mean?

Jawaban : A. She doesn’t believe about the news.

Kata kunci : Unpredictable.
Pembahasan : Pembicara kedua tidak percaya dengan apa yang dikatakan pembicara per­
tama bahwa tim mereka kalah di perempat final. Jawaban yang tepat ada­
lah (A) She doesn’t believe about the news.

30. (man) : I think you have applied a scholarship in Japan.

(woman) : If I spoke Japanese language as fluent as Alisa Mizuki, I would apply it.
(narrator) : What does the woman say about the scholarship?

Jawaban : C. It is impossible to apply the scholarship.

Kata kunci : If I.
Pembahasan : If I spoke Japanese language menunjukkan kondisi yang sebenarnya ber­ke­
balikan. Ke­nya­taannya, pembicara kedua tidak bisa berbicara bahasa Je­
pang, sehingga ia tidak mung­kin mendaftar beasiswa ke Jepang. Jawaban
yang tepat adalah (C) It is impossible to apply the scholarship.

Part B
Questions 31 through 34 are based on the following conversation.
(narrator) : Listen to a conversation on a hospital.
(man) : Excuse me. Is this information center?
(woman) : Yes sir. What can I help?
(man) : What should I do if I want to consult with Dr. Edward?
(woman) : Have you made an appointment with Dr. Edward?
(man) : No, I haven’t.
(woman) : So, if you are a new patient, you have to register first, Sir. Come to the Information
and Registration for registration. Then, you’ll get a registration form. Fill patient sta-
tus (patient medical record documents) that includes personal data, medical history
 and medical risk, then the patient will be taken a close up photograph for support-
ing patient data completeness.
(man) : And… What should I do if I want to meet Dr. Edward?
(woman) : For your first consultation, please wait in the waiting room according to a designated
service first. You’ll be called based on your queue number. If you have met Dr. Edward
then you only have to make an appointment by phone for the next consultation.
(man) : Okay then. Thank you so much.
(woman) : You’re welcome.

31. Who is probably the woman?

Jawaban : D. Front officer.
Kata kunci : Information center.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan percakapan di atas, besar kemungkinan bahwa si wanita atau
pem­bicara kedua adalah seorang petugas rumah sakit bagian depan atau
bagian informasi. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) Front officer.

32. What does the man ask to the woman?

Jawaban : B. How to consult with Dr. Edward.
Kata kunci : I want to consult with Dr. Edward.
Pembahasan : Pembicara pertama (the man) ingin tahu bagaimana prosedur konsultasi
de­ngan dokter Edward. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (B) What courses are
need­ed for the first semester.

33. What should a new patient do before get the medical services based on the conversation?
Jawaban : A. Fill the registration form and complete all the requirements.
Kata kunci : Fill registration.
Pembahasan : Pasien baru harus mengisi formulir pendaftaran dan melengkapinya ter­le­
bih du­lu. Ja­wab­an yang tepat adalah (A) Fill the registration form and com­
plete all the requirements.

34. What should the man do if he wants to get the second medical service based on the con­
versation?
Jawaban : D. Call the registration employee and make an appointment.
Kata kunci : Only have to make an appointment by phone for the next consultation.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, pasien harus menghubungi pihak rumah
sakit terlebih da­hulu untuk membuat janji. Jadi, jawaban yang tepat adalah
(D) Call the registration employee and make an appointment.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 385

Questions 35 through 38 are based on the following conversation.
(narrator) : Listen to a conversation between two friends.
(man) : Excuse me. I’m Jonathan. I heard that you got a scholarship in France.
(woman) : I’m Luciana. Yes, and next month I have to be there.
(man) : Wow that’s great. If you don’t mind, I want to ask you about scholarship like what you
have got.
(woman) : Oh. Sure. So, what can I help you?
(man) : I found some difficulties in applying the online scholarship. Then, what should I do if
I want to apply the online scholarship?
(woman) : Have you chosen in what major, university, and also the country you want to study?
It’s the first step.
(man) : Yes. I have created an account too.
(woman) : It made your steps easier. What you have to do next is check your email account and
confirm any information from the website sponsor, such as your password and your
ID. Then prepare the document required, such as your diploma, transcript of your
score, recommendation letter from your professor, and other certificates. Keep your
documents into Microsoft Word form or PDF form. Then upload your documents.
You have to check again before send it. And the last step is you have to wait.
(man) : It sounds easier than I thought before. Thank you so much Luciana.
(woman) : You’re welcome and good luck for the scholarship.

35. What is the main topic discussed in the conversation?

Jawaban : A. Steps in applying an online scholarship.
Kata kunci : I found some difficulties in applying the online scholarship.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, diketahui bahwa topik yang dibicarakan
terkait langkah-langkah mendaftar beasiswa online. Jawaban yang tepat
ada­lah (A) Steps in applying an online scholarship.

36. What does the man want to ask to the woman based on the conversation?
Jawaban : A. About scholarship abroad.
Kata kunci : A scholarship like you got.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan percakapan di atas, pria itu ingin menanyakan informasi terkait
beasiswa luar negeri. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) About scholarship abroad.

37. How many steps does the woman mention in applying the online scholarship?
Jawaban : D. Seven
Kata kunci : It’s the first step…. And the last step is …
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, terdapat tujuh langkah mendaftar bea­sis­
wa online. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (D) Seven.

38. In what form should the man save his documents?

Jawaban : C. Microsoft Word and PDF.
 Kata kunci : Keep your documents into Microsoft Word form or PDF form.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, dokumen harus disimpan dalam bentuk Mi­
crosoft Word dan PDF. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) Microsoft Word and PDF.

Part C
Questions 39-42
(narrator) : Listen to a talk by a tour guide.
(woman) : Welcome to New York. I am here as your bus tour guide. Here, I’ll tell you and show
you about the most famous destination places in New York. We have some land-
marks and buildings that become icon of New York. There, you can see the highest
building over there; it is the Empire State Building. ESB or Empire State Building is
located in Manhattan, near the intersection of Fifth Avenue and West 34th Street. It’s
built in 1931. It’s the highest building in New York. ESB becomes the second busiest
single office after the pentagon. Another office network which is well known in New
York is Chrysler building. It has a beautiful and unique top of the building. The third
famous landmark in New York is Flatiron Building. It’s a historical building which is
built in the renaissance. It’s located in the Fifth Avenue, Manhattan. Let’s continue
our tour to New York Stock Exchange. It’s the center of the stock exchange in New
York. It’s located in Wall Street, Manhattan. This building is f­ amous and become one
of famous setting of a film, such as The Wolf of Wall Street rolled by Leonardo DiCap-
rio. Our today’s tour will finish in the United Nations building. It’s located in East Riv-
er, Turtle Bay area, Manhattan, New York City. It’s divided into four mainly buildings;
Secretariat, General Assembly, Conference, and Dag Hammarskjöld Library (DHL).

39. Where does the talk probably happen?

Jawaban : A. In a bus tour.
Kata kunci : Your bus tour guide.
Pembahasan : Latar tempat telah disebutkan di bagian awal. Talk atau ceramah tersebut
ber­lang­sung di dalam bus yang menjelajahi kota New York. Jawaban yang
te­pat adalah (A) In a bus tour.

40. How many landmarks and building mentioned by the speaker?

Jawaban : A. Five
Kata kunci : Empire State Building, Chrysler Building, Flatiron Building, New York Stock
Ex­change, dan United Nation Building.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, banyaknya tempat wisata yang dikunjungi
berjumlah lima. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) Five.

41. What can you conclude about Empire State Building?

Jawaban : B. It is the second busiest single office in US.
Kata kunci : The second busiest single office after The Pentagon.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 387

 Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, dapat disimpulkan bahwa ESB merupakan
ge­dung per­kantoran terbesar setelah Pentagon. Pentagon merupakan ge­
dung per­kantoran terbesar di Amerika Serikat. Jawaban yang tepat adalah
(B) It is the second busiest single office in US.

42. Where do we have to go if we want to go to United Nation building?

Jawaban : C. East River bank, Turtle Bay.
Kata kunci : Located in East River, Turtle Bay area, Manhattan, New York City.
Pembahasan : Jelas disebutkan dalam monolog bahwa lokasi gedung PBB terletak di tepi
East River, kawasan Turtle Bay. Jika Anda ingin berkunjung ke gedung PBB,
Anda hanya perlu pergi ke kawasan tersebut. Jawaban yang tepat adalah
(C) East River bank, Turtle Bay.
Questions 43-46
(narrator) : Listen to a talk by a hospital employee.
(woman) : Good morning. Welcome to a health seminar this morning. I am here asked by your
lecturer to give a talk. The theme of today’s seminar is about the highly death rate of
American teenagers. We know that America is classified as a developed country, but
the level of violence in the US is very high, even making the death rate due to vio-
lence increases. Although classified as developed country, the mortality rate caused
of violence in this country is very high. Besides the ownership of firearms access is
so easy in America, the high level of teenage deaths due to their lifestyle. The deaths
of teenagers are due to the accident caused by alcohol, drugs, and sexual diseases
are quite high. Because most of American teenagers do free sex, the infections of
sexually diseases are quite high.

43. Who is probably listening to this talk?

Jawaban : C. Students of medical major.
Kata kunci : Health dan lecturer.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, besar kemungkinan pendengar ceramah ada­
lah siswa jurusan kesehatan. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C) Students of medical
major.

44. How does the access to firearms ownership in America based on the talk?
Jawaban : C. Easily licensed.
Kata kunci : Firearms access is so easy in America.
Pembahasan : Melalui kata kunci tersebut, dapat disimpulkan bahwa senjata api di Amerika
cukup mudah didapatkan.

45. Based on the talk, what factor can give the most effect in mortality to United States?
Jawaban : D. Violence.
Kata kunci : The level of violence in the US is very high.
 Pembahasan : Disebutkan bahwa tingkat kekerasan di Amerika sangat tinggi dan me­nye­
babkan ba­nyak kematian. Maka dapat disimpulkan bahwa penyebab ting­
gi­nya angka kematian di Ame­rika adalah kekerasan. Jawaban yang tepat
adalah (D) Violence.

46. Why the infections of sexually diseases in United States are high enough?
Jawaban : A. Their lifestyle and insecure free sex.
Kata kunci : Do free sex, the infections of sexually diseases are quite high.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, bisa ditarik kesimpulan bahwa penularan
penyakit kelamin terjadi karena gaya hidup seks bebas. Jawaban yang tepat
adalah (A) Their lifestyle and insecure free sex.
Questions 47- 50
(narrator) : Listen to a talk of a professor.
(man) : Good morning class. Let’s continue our yesterdays’ lesson about the revolution in
America. But today, we’re going to discuss about the other side of American Rev-
olution which is affected the life of the native American, like Indian. Long before
European, Columbus came to America; it was already inhabited by people who al-
legedly came from Asia to America by crossing the Bering Strait during the glacial
period. They were then called by Columbus as the Indians because Columbus con-
sidered the region was India. Before European came to America, the Indians have
been able to develop highly culture and civilization like other American tribes such
as the Mayans, Inca, Toltec, A tec, and so on. In the 19th century, the Indians fought
the government of the United States which trying to displace them. But then, the
Indians moved to lands west of the Mississippi River. Native North American consist-
ed of many tribes. They generally live from hunting, fishing and farming. There are
Cheyenne, Comanche, Sioux don which live in the Great Plains; Apache, Navajo, and
Pueblo, which live in the southwestern region; and Iroquois, Huron, and Cherokee,
which live in the eastern region.

47. What was the primary topic of the talk?

Jawaban : D. Life of the Indians.
Kata kunci : The native American, like Indian.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, dapat disimpulkan bahwa topik ceramah
terkait ke­hi­dupan suku Indian setelah kedatangan imigran dari Eropa. Ja­
waban yang tepat adalah (D) Life of the Indians.

48. How did the Indians live before the massive migration of European to America based on the
talk?
Jawaban : A. They have been able to develop highly culture and civilization.
Kata kunci : Before European came and Indians develop highly culture and civilization.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 389

 Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, dapat disimpulkan bahwa sebelum ke­da­
tang­an bangsa Eropa, suku Indian telah hidup dan mampu membangun
ke­budayaan dan peradaban yang tinggi seperti suku-suku lain di Amerika
ya­itu Inka, Maya, dan lain-lain. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (A) They have
been able to develop highly culture and civilization.

49. What did happen to the Indians in the 19th century?

Jawaban : B. They fought the government and moved to lands west of the Missis-
sippi River.
Kata kunci : In the 19th century, the Indians fought the government dan then, the Indians
moved to lands west of the Mississippi River.
Pembahasan : Jawaban untuk pertanyaan ini dijelaskan secara lisan oleh penceramah.
Pada abad 19, suku Indian mencoba melawan pemerintah yang ingin mem­
per­luas wilayah Amerika Serikat, sehingga membuat suku Indian pindah ke
barat sungai Missisippi. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (B) They fought the go­
vernment and moved to lands west of the Mississippi River.

50. According to the talk, how did the Indians live in the North America?
Jawaban : C. Hunting, fishing, and farming.
Kata kunci : They generally live from hunting, fishing, and farming.
Pembahasan : Berdasarkan kata kunci tersebut, dapat disimpulkan bahwa suku Indian hi­
dup dari berburu, memancing, dan bertani. Jawaban yang tepat adalah (C)
Hunting, fishing, and farming.

SECTION II
STRUCTURE AND WRITTEN COMPREHENSION
1. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut memuat preposition of. Kuncinya, carilah kata kerja yang
tepat dengan melihat kata yang berada di depan preposition. Dalam ka­li­
mat tersebut, kata di depan preposisi adalah strategy. Karena strategy me­ru­
pa­kan bentuk tung­gal, kata kerja yang mengikutinya harus ditambah s/es.
Maka jawaban yang tepat adalah involves.

2. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut membutuhkan gerund sebagai subjek sebuah kalimat.
Gerund terdiri atas Verb + ing, sehingga jawaban yang tepat adalah writing.

3. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kegiatan dalam kalimat tersebut dilakukan pada waktu lampau dan ma­
sih berlangsung pada waktu sekarang. Polanya, S + has/have + V3 + O.
 Karena subjek kalimat tersebut the store’s owner, berarti menggunakan has.
Jawaban yang tepat adalah has sold.

4. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kegiatan dalam kalimat tersebut dilakukan pada waktu lampau (past tense).
Polanya, S + V2 + O. Jawaban yang tepat adalah won.

5. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut membutuhkan alternative conjunction, kata sambung yang
digunakan untuk menghubungkan dua kalimat yang berarti pilihan. Not only
berpasangan dengan but also.

6. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan kalimat nomina. Polanya, subjek terlebih da­hu­
lu, kemudian diikuti to be. Jika berupa kalimat tanya, polanya ber­ke­balikan,
to be terlebih dahulu, kemudian diikuti subjek. Karena bentuk lampau, ja­
wab­an yang tepat adalah who she was.

7. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut membutuhkan relative pronoun. Kata ganti yang tepat
untuk kalimat tersebut adalah kata ganti orang sebagai objek, sehingga
jawaban yang tepat adalah whom.

8. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Dari pilihan jawaban yang tersedia, yang merupakan kata kerja bentuk ke­
tiga adalah written.

9. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Urutan dalam word order: determiner–size–color–noun. Jawaban yang tepat
ada­lah a square brown table.

10. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut menggunakan elliptical construction negatif. Jawaban
yang tepat untuk melengkapi kalimat negatif setara adalah neither did.

11. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut menggunakan modal must. Modal harus diikuti kata kerja
bentuk pertama. Maka jawaban yang tepat adalah bring.

12. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut menggunakan kata kerja causative¸ yakni make, yang me­
mak­sa seseorang untuk melakukan sesuatu. Polanya, Subject + make +
complement (orang) + Verb 1 (sesuai tense). Maka kata yang tepat adalah gives.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 391

13. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan conditional sentence tipe pertama. Polanya, If
+ Subject + V1 (Simple Present Tense)  Subject + will + V1 (Simple Present
Tense). Maka jawaban yang tepat adalah will.

14. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat menggunakan subjunctive wish. Polanya, Subject (1) + wish + Subject
(2) + Verb 2 (were). Maka jawaban yang tepat adalah our parents were not
living with us forever.

15. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut menggunakan collective noun (class), berarti subjek jamak.
M­aka ja­wab­an yang tepat adalah have.

16. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Object preposition for harus diikuti gerund.

17. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Bentuk kata kerja dalam kalimat pararel selalu sama. Misalnya, writing a
novel, read­ing a newspaper, and watching a movie. Jawaban yang seharusnya
adalah cooking Italian food.

18. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kata sambung yang tepat untuk noun adalah which.

19. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat causative let harus diikuti Verb 1 tanpa to.

20. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat pengandaian tipe 1 harus diikuti present tense dan present future,
se­hingga jawaban yang tepat adalah will.

21. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Dalam elliptical construction, neither berpasangan dengan nor.

22. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan bentuk present perfect, sehingga harus diikuti
V3 yaitu built.

23. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat pasif harus diikuti V3 yaitu published.

24. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Article yang tepat untuk kata experiment adalah an.
25. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Modal harus diikuti V1 yaitu go.

26. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Dalam kalimat berkonjungsi, not only berpasangan dengan but also.

27. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Perhatikan gerund yang berfungsi sebagai objek. Jawaban yang tepat ada­
lah buying.

28. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Urutan word order yang tepat yaitu size–color–noun (around blue table).

29. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Relative pronoun yang menandakan kepemilikan untuk menggantikan her,
ja­waban yang tepat adalah whose.

30. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Subjeknya adalah a student. Auxiliary yang tepat untuk bentuk tunggal adalah
does.

31. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Object preposition diikuti gerund, sehingga seharusnya by using.

32. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Subjeknya, research sehingga to be yang digunakan untuk bentuk tunggal
se­harusnya is.

33. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Dalam elliptical construction, either berpasangan dengan or.

34. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat pengandaian tipe 2: past tense dan past fu­tu­­re. Seharusnya meng­
gunakan would.

35. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut merupakan kalimat setara berlawanan, seharusnya meng­
gu­nakan adverb of contrast, whereas.

36. Jawaban : D.
Pembahasan : Demonstrative pronoun untuk benda jamak bukanlah that, melainkan those.

37. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut berbentuk present continuous. Maka jawaban yang tepat
adalah barking.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 393

38. Jawaban : B.
Pembahasan : Kalimat pasif diikuti V3 yaitu choosen.

39. Jawaban : A.
Pembahasan : Kata sifat untuk benda seharusnya menjadi exciting.

40. Jawaban : C.
Pembahasan : Kalimat dengan used to harus diikuti V1 yaitu make.

SECTION III
READING COMPREHENSION
1. Jawaban : C. Because the site is a most enduring mysteries.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat The Wiltshire, England, site of Stone­
henge is one of the world’s most enduring mysteries dalam teks.

2. Jawaban : A. 36, 286 kilograms.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat the sandstone boulders, or sarsens,
can weigh up to 40 tons (36,287 kilograms) dalam teks.

3. Jawaban : A. The megalith giants sandstone.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat surrounding the bluestones are five
giant sandstone megaliths called trilithons dalam teks.

4. Jawaban : D. The bluestone carried much mineral and metal.

Pembahasan : Pernyataan ini tidak terdapat dalam teks.

5. Jawaban : A. 5000 years ago.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat like past researchers, the team be­
lieves that ancient people first used the site 5,000 years ago dalam teks.

6. Jawaban : A. A horn with parts like branches which grows on the head of a usually
male deer.
Pembahasan : Antler berarti tanduk.

7. Jawaban : A. Mandela is as a biggest leader in the world.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat Nelson Mandela was a great leader
who spent his entire adult life working for equality and justice in South Africa
dalam teks.

8. Jawaban : A. Nelson.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat on the first day of school, a teacher
at the Methodist mission school, Miss Mdingane, re-named him Nelson dalam
teks.
9. Jawaban : A. A political system in which people of different races were separated.
Pembahasan : Politik apartheid merupakan sistem politik di Afrika Selatan yang mem­be­
dakan ras dan warna kulit.

10. Jawaban : D. 1996.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat on his 80th birthday, he married Graça
Machel (he had divorced Winnie in 1996) dalam teks.

11. Jawaban : D. Dilapidate erosion.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat constructive processes such as uplift,
which create new landscape features, and destructive forces such as erosion,
which gradually wear away exposed landforms dalam teks.

12. Jawaban : B. North America and Europe were joined.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat the present-day continents of North
America and Europe were joined dalam teks.

13. Jawaban : D. Land.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat The Earth’s crust is thought to be
divided into huge, movable segments, called plates, which float on a soft plastic
layer of rock dalam teks.

14. Jawaban : D. Ruins.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kata ruins; sama dengan debris.

15. Jawaban : B. The early people and history culture of the United States.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat the first peoples to inhabit what
today is the southeastern United States sustained themselves as hunters and
gathers dalam teks.

16. Jawaban : A. They learn about cultivation and gardening.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat gradually, as they became more skilled
at gardening, they settled into permanent villages and developed a rich culture
dalam teks.

17. Jawaban : C. Complement.

Pembahasan : Supplemented memiliki kesamaan arti dengan complement; melengkapi.

18. Jawaban : B. About A.D. 1200.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat at the peak of its strength, about the
year 1200, it was the most advanced culture in North America dalam teks.

19. Jawaban : B. Lost.

Pembahasan : Decay memiliki kesamaan arti dengan lost (kehilangan).

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 395

20. Jawaban : A. Al Almighty.
Pembahasan : Omnipotent memiliki kesamaan arti dengan Almighty (Mahakuasa). Semen­
tara The Glory berarti Mahamulia, The Great berarti Mahabesar, dan The All
Merciful berarti Maha Kasih Sayang.

21. Jawaban : B. Smoking threatens to kill our body.

Pembahasan : Disebutkan dalam teks bahwa merokok berpengaruh buruk bagi kesehatan.
Pilihan ju­dul yang tepat adalah smoking threatens to kill our body.

22. Jawaban : B. Smoking contributes disease such a pneumonia, bronchitis and in-
fluenza.
Pembahasan : Disebutkan dalam teks, merokok berpengaruh besar bagi munculnya ber­
bagai penyakit. Jawaban yang tepat adalah smoking contributes disease such
a pneu­monia, bronchitis, and influenza.

23. Jawaban : A. Active smoker.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kata kunci active smoker dalam teks.

24. Jawaban : D. The smoking lover never consider their healthy and future.
Pembahasan : Sangat jelas. Kalimat yang tidak terdapat dalam teks adalah the smoking
lover never consider their healthy and future.

25. Jawaban : A. Go bankrupt.

Pembahasan : Adverse memiliki kesamaan arti dengan go bankrupt (bangkrut). Sementara
stable berarti stabil, fluctuate berarti naik-turun, dan profit berarti keun­
tungan.

26. Jawaban : C. Airbus crisis over.

Pembahasan : Judul yang paling tepat adalah Airbus crisis over.

27. Jawaban : D. Three units of A380 super-jumbo.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat ordering three A380 super-jumbos
for about $750m dalam teks.

28. Jawaban : B. Bank.

Pembahasan : Verge memiliki kesamaan arti dengan bank (pinggir). Sementara corner
berarti pojok, straight berarti lurus, dan circular berarti edaran.

29. Jawaban : A. Reality television.

Pembahasan : Judul artikel yang tepat adalah “Reality Television”.

30. Jawaban : D. Cartoon.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas. Kata yang tidak terdapat pada teks adalah cartoon.
31. Jawaban : C. Anxiety.
Pembahasan : Frantic memiliki kesamaan arti dengan anxiety (kegelisahan). Sementara plea­
sure berarti senang hati, calm berarti tenang, dan composed berarti meng­
ubah.

32. Jawaban : A. It designed an exotic and abnormal situation.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat with participants put in exotic lo­
cations or abnormal situations dalam teks.

33. Jawaban : C. Beautiful.

Pembahasan : Beautiful memiliki kesamaan arti dengan scenic (indah). Sementara luxurious
berarti mewah, interesting berarti tertarik, dan nice berarti manis.

34. Jawaban : D. 1867

Pembahasan : Dijelaskan di dalam teks. Pulitzer menjadi warga Amerika pada 1867.

35. Jawaban : C. He initiated to evolve the quality of journalism.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat he became dedicated to improving
the quality of journalism in America dalam teks.

36. Jawaban : B. Joseph Pulitzer was born in 1947 in Makó, Hungary.

Pembahasan : Sudah jelas.

37. Jawaban : D. Poetry

Pembahasan : Sudah jelas.

38. Jawaban : A. Food chain.

Pembahasan : Teks tersebut mengulas persoalan rantai makan.

39. Jawaban : D. Lion.

Pembahasan : Sudah jelas.

40. Jawaban : B. The green substance in plants that allows them to use the energy
from the sun.
Pembahasan : Definisi paling tepat untuk chlorophyll adalah the green substance in plants
that allows them to use the energy from the sun.

41. Jawaban : B. Microbes.

Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat microbes, one-celled organisms that
cause the decay of the dead animals and plants are decomposers dalam teks.

42. Jawaban : D. Earth is a target in a for sun galaxy for three million years ago.
Pembahasan : Kalimat tersebut tidak terdapat dalam teks.

Test & Answer Unit TOEFL ITP 397

43. Jawaban : A. Cauldron.
Pembahasan : Crater memiliki kesamaan arti dengan cauldron (kawah). Sementara lake
ber­arti danau, cave berarti gua, dan estuary berarti muara.

44. Jawaban : C. 1991.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas. Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat in 1991 the United States
Congress asked NASA to investigate the hazard posed today by large impacts on
Earth dalam teks.

45. Jawaban : A. Nictric acid.

Pembahasan : Sangat jelas. Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat the explosion is also
cal­culated to have produced vast quantities of nitric acid and melted rock that
sprayed out over much of Earth dalam teks.

46. Jawaban : B. They want to seek higher wages and better working conditions.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat the push factors include low wages
and lack of satisfactory working and living conditions dalam teks.

47. Jawaban : A. Social unrest.

Pembahasan : Sudah jelas.

48. Jawaban : C. It cut down the number of dynamic and creative people.
Pembahasan : Rujukan jawaban terdapat pada kalimat it reduces the number of dynamic
and creative people who can contribute to the development of their country
dalam teks.

49. Jawaban : A. Reduce.

Pembahasan : Alleviate memiliki kesamaan arti dengan reduce (mengurangi). Sementara
de­velop berarti mengembangkan, achieve berarti mencapai, dan approve
berarti menyetujui.

50. Jawaban : A. Brain drain.

Pembahasan : Terjelaskan dalam teks. Teks tersebut mengulas brain drain.