Plan and Ensure Safe Loading, Stowage, Securing, Care During Voyage and Loading of

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BIDANG KEAHLIAN NAUTIKA

(ANT-II) TINGKAT
MANAJEMEN
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11. Merencanakan dan menjamin pemuatan, penyusunan dan pengikatan muatan

secara aman selama pelayaran dan pembongkaran (Plan and ensure safe loading,
stowage, securing, care during voyage and unloading of cargoes)
1. A greater number of lashings may generally be required to secure cargo forward
on deck compared with amidships under deck
of a General Cargo Vessel, because:
a. The dynamic stresses on the lashing
are much greater in the forward areas
of the vessel.
b. The forward of the vessel is subjected
to more rolling conditions.
c. Heavier cargo is generally stowed forward.
d. The roll period is greater forward
2. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a
General Cargo Vessel may be obtained from:
a. Ships Capacity plan.
b. General Arrangement plan.
c. Docking plan.
d. Planned maintenance schedules.
3. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in:
a. Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
b. The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation.
c. Sudden loss of stability of the vessel.
d. Damage to the cargo by ship structures
4. A ship floating in salt water has a displacement of 47,250 mts. Its light ship is
8,050 mts and the total deductibles including constants weighs 2,570 mts how
much cargo is she carrying.
a. 44,680 mts
b. 52,730 mts
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c. 39,200 mts
d. 36,630 mts
5. The lifting plant on a General Cargo vessel be proof load tested:

a. When equipment is new, every five years and after repairs or major
modifications.
b. Only after initial installation of equipment.
c. Only when major repairs have been carried out to the equipment.
d. Every four years and after major repairs and modifications
6. A container full of scrap metal is being loaded, and you sight water dripping
from it. You should:
a. Reject the container.
b. Ensure that the container is stowed below
deck.
c. Ensure that the container is stowed on
deck.
d. Load the container and note protest.
7. For a ships loading computer to be safely used for loading planning and stress
calculations, it must be approved by:
a. A Classification Society.
b. IT Department of Ship owner.
c. Hull and Machinery Insurers of the vessel.
d. The Port State where vessel is currently loading.
8. The most appropriate way of dealing with twist-locks suffering from excessive
wear and tear is to:
a. Isolate them from use and dispose them appropriately.
b. Repair them in the ships workshop, and then re-use.
c. Land them ashore for repair.
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d. Get them surveyed by Class prior re-use.
9. The most dangerous consequence of the corrosion and wear down of container
stools on weather deck/hatch tops of a container vessel would be:
a. Collapse of the deck stool, leading to lashings becoming slack.
b. Uneven loading of the container on the deck.
c. Twist locks not being able to be fully closed.
d. Twist locks not being able to be removed after discharge.
10. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the containers stowed at the outboard part
of the deck stow are additionally subjected to:
a. The effect of wind on the containers.
b. Transverse accelerating load condition,
leading to loss of GM.
c. The effect of green seas breaking over the
containers.
d. Lack of support from adjacent columns of containers.
11. During a loaded winter passage across the North Atlantic, the master of a
container vessel would be most concerned with:
a. The added weight of icing on container
stacks, leading to loss of GM.
b. The presence of icebergs leading to hazard of
navigation.
c. Temperature differential between air and
seawater, leading to shell plating damage.
d. High wind and waves leading to speed reduction and high fuel
consumption.
12. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of

containers is:
a. Determined by the clauses of the charter-party.
b. Provided as per advice from the Supercargo.
c. Always upon the attending cargo surveyor.
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d. Always upon the charterer of the vessel.
13. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing was prepared to give
guidance for:
a. Preparation and content of the Cargo Securing Manual.
b. Securing of deck cargoes.
c. Securing of cargoes in hazardous ocean areas.
d. Port State Control Officers when carrying out ship inspections
14. Which operation may cause the pressure in an inert tank to fall below the
prescribed limits?
a. Loading
b. Discharging
c. Crude oil washing
d. Steaming tanks
15. The most appropriate method for adjusting the trim on a container vessel would
be:
a. By internal shift of ballast.
b. By internal shift of cargo containers.
c. By internal shift of fuel oil.
d. By jettisoning of containers.
16. What is the master's position if he is asked to load a container that is incorrectly
manifested, but which is believed to contain dangerous goods, about which
insufficient information is supplied?
a. He has the authority to refuse it.
b. He must load it, but immediately advise his
operations department and request full
information.
c. If it it approved by the operations
department, he can assume all safety checks
have been carried out and should load it.
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d. He must load it, but ensure it is placed in a safe loaction, to which there
is immediate access in the event of an emergency
17. A bulk cargo is loaded and the shore cargo figure is 10 000 tonnes; the chief
officer calculates 9 500 tonnes have been loaded; what should the Master do?
a. Ask for a draft survey to be carried in the presence of P& I Club
representative
b. No action to be taken
c. Bills of Lading to be signed "Clean" by Master.
d. Inform Designated Person Ashore( DPA)
18. Your drafts are: FWD 6'-01", AFT 6'-05". From past experience, you know that
the vessel will increase her draft by 1 inch for every 7 tons loaded. There is rig
water on board and 20 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can
be loaded while maintaining the same trim?
a. none
b. 10.5 tons
c. 14.0 tons
d. 17.5 tons
19. A bulk cargo of steel coils is loaded and a number of the coils are noted by the
Chief Officer to be rusted; what must the Master ensure?
a. Clause the Bill of Lading with the reference
numbers of the rusty coils and so make the
Bill of Lading a "dirty" Bill.
b. No action needs to be taken.
c. Steel coils to be discharged
d. Cargo temperatures measured on voyage
20. A bulk coal cargo is to be loaded and the moisture content is declared as 19 ; the
transportable moisture limit of the cargo is declared as 15, what should the Master
do?
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a. Refuse to load the cargo unless the vessel is specially designed for the
carriage of cargo which may liquefy
b. Load the cargo as the moisture limits are
within acceptable limits
c. Load cargo and ventilate on passage to
remove water
d. Load part cargo only
21. A heavy metal concentrate bulk cargo has a moisture content of 16 and a
transportable moisture limit of 18, what should the Master do?
a. Load the cargo as the moisture
content is within acceptable limits
b. Refuse to load the cargo as the
moisture content is outside
acceptable limits
c. Seek advice from charterers and
owners
d. Request additional moisture tests to be done
22. When loading a bulk cargo of cement the specific gravity and flow
characteristics are dependant on what criteria?
a. The volume of air in the cargo
b. The volume of water in the cargo
c. They are fixed and the cargo has a
stowage factor of 0.5 cubic metres/tone
d. The bulk density is standard at 900
kg/cubic metre
23. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length
must carry oil spill clean-up gear to be able to handle oil spillages of:
a. 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).
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b. 15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres).

c. 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre).
d. 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).
24. Ship’s cargo pump room alarm must be automatically activated when levels of
hydrocarbon gas concentration are:
a. No higher than 10% of LEL.
b. No higher than 15% of LEL.
c. No higher than 20% of LEL.
d. No higher than 5% of LEL
25. The grain capacity of a hold is 1404 m3 and the bale capacity of the hold is
1365m3. If cotton waste of SF 3.90 m3/t is to be loaded in this hold, how many
tonnes of cotton waste can be loaded?
a. 360 tonnes
b. 350 tonnes
c. 355 tonnes
d. 365 tonnes
26. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
a. Fresh water.
b. The product being carried on that voyage.
c. Approved bio-degradable light oil
d. Sea water.
27. The maximum permitted oxygen content in the inert gas main when inerting a
cargo oil tank prior to gas freeing is:
a. 5% by volume.
b. 8% by volume.
c. 12% by volume.
d. 2% by volume.
28. Depending on density or API, an error measurement of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in

a tank containing 50,000 cubic metres (314,491 barrels) of oil will result in
which of the following volumes?
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a. 25 cubic metres (157 barrels).

b. 35 cubic metres (220 barrels).
c. 7 cubic metres (44 barrels).
d. 16.5 cubic metres (104 barrels).
29. According to regulations, cargo pump rooms, on the tank vessels handling
grades A, B, or C liquid cargo, shall be equipped with power ventilation of the
exhaust type having capacity sufficient to effect a complete change of air in not
more than __________.
a. 1 minute
b. 2 minutes
c. 3 minutes
d. 5 minutes
30. Your drafts are: FWD 5'-08", AFT 6'-02". From past experience, you know that
the vessel will increase her draft 1 inch for every 8 tons loaded. There is rig
water on board and 11 tons of deck cargo. How many more tons of cargo can
be loaded and still maintain the same trim?
a. None
b. 10 tons
c. 18 tons
d. 24 tons
31. A bulk cargo is loaded and the cargo stow has been left with an excessive peak
height; what could be the result of this situation?
a. Excessive stresses on tank top
b. Damage to hatch covers
c. Excessive stresses on transverse
bulkheads
d. Excessive cargo sweat
32. A bulk cargo vessel is found to be 4.0 centimetres over her maximum loadline
draft after loading; what should be the actions of the master?
a. Order the pumping out of fresh water or ballast until
the maximum allowed loadline is achieved.
b. Record a lower draught and sail
c. Inform the port authorities and sail
d. There is not a problem as over loading is permitted
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33. A bulk carrier is to carry a full deck cargo of packaged timber; to what
regulations must the vessel comply?
a. IMO Code of Practice for the carriage of
Timber Deck cargoes
b. International Code for the carriage of
Dangerous Goods
c. Grain Regulations
d. Marine Pollution Regulations
34. During a pre-loading survey prior to loading grain on a Bulk Carrier, very small
amount of the previous grain cargo is found in a cargo hold; what is the
significance of this situation?
a. The vessel may fail the pre-load survey
and be declared off-hire
b. The affected cargo hold should be left
empty
c. The cargo hold can be cleaned while
other holds are loaded
d. The remaining cargo from the previous
voyage can be ignored
35. How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a bulk carrier?

a. Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the
longitudinal axes athwartships
b. Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with
the longitudinal axes athwartships
c. Interlocked across the entire cargo hold with the
longitudinal axes fore and aft
d. Interlocked up to the hopper tank plating with the longitudinal axes fore
and aft
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36. What are the advantages of ballasting double bottom ballast tanks by gravity
filling on a Bulk Carrier?
a. There is minimum pressure
head on the tank top and pumps
are not required
b. Ballasting is done more quickly
c. Free surface effect is eliminated
d. Ballasting can be done without
any supervision
37. What could happen if a bulk vessel failed to display placards notifying the crew
of the disposal of garbage within and outside Special Areas?
a. The vessel could be detained by
port state control authorities
b. The vessel could be detained by
its flag Administration
c. The classification society
concerned could suspend the
vessel's International Oil
Pollution Prevention (IOPP)
Certificate
d. The ship owner could be penalized by the P. & I. Club concerned
38. What governs the disposal of dry bulk cargo residues at sea?
a. MARPOL regulations
b. SOLAS 74/88 regulations
c. Convention on the Prevention of
Marine Pollution by Dumping of
Wastes and Other Matter
d. The Code of Safe Practice for
Solid Bulk Cargoes
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39. What is essential to ensure that efficient stripping of ballast tanks on a Bulk
Carrier can be achieved?
a. A good stern trim is maintained
during de- ballasting operations
b. A trim by the bow is required
c. The vessel must be maintained
at an even keel
d. The trim of the vessel is not
important
40. What is the possible concern if fuel tanks on a Bulk Carrier, which are close to
cargo spaces containing grain, are excessively heated?
a. The grain cargo may be heated
and damaged
b. The cargo may liquefy
c. The grain cargo may produce
methane gas
d. No damage should occur
41. What is the purpose of a draught survey before and after loading on a Bulk
Carrier?
a. To ascertain the actual weight of cargo loaded
b. The calculate the stability of the vessel
c. To calculate the deadweight of the vessel
d. To calculate light displacement of the vessel
42. What measures should be taken in order to avoid flammable gases forming on
top of coal cargoes on a Bulk Carrier?
a. Ventilation to be carried out as indicated in the IMO solid Bulk Cargo
Code
b. Ventilation to be continuous?
c. Cargo not to be ventilated?
d. Cargo to be ventilated by opening hatch covers at sea?
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43. What must be ensured, prior to receiving a bulk cargo of iron ore on a Bulk
Carrier?
a. Cargo hold bilge suctions must be satisfactorily tested
b. Cargo hold paintwork must be intact
c. Cargo hold ventilation systems must be satisfactorily tested
d. Cargo hold tank tops must be pressure-tested
44. What publication must be carried on a vessel carrying dry bulk cargoes?
a. IMO Solid Bulk cargo Code or IMO Solid Bulk?
b. International Tankers and Terminal Code?
c. Classification Society Grain Rules?
d. Charters' Solid Bulk Cargoes Code?
45. When considering how to deal with cargo residues during hatch cleaning at sea
on a Bulk Carrier, what is the most careful consideration?
a. Consult MARPOL handbook and the vessels Safety Management
System (SMS) for guidance
b. There are no restrictions on discharge of cargo residues to sea
c. Follow actions of previous crews
d. Check procedures and Arrangements manual
46. Which of these covers the rules and regulations for General Average on a Bulk
Carrier?
a. The York Antwerp rules
b. The Hague rules
c. The Hague Visby rules
d. The Hamburg rules
47. Which special regulations cover transportation of grain on a Bulk Carrier?
a. IMO Grain Rules?
b. Classification Society Rules?
c. Statutory Regulations?
d. Port State Regulations?
48. Which special regulations cover transportation of solid Bulk cargoes?
a. IMO Bulk Cargoes Code (BC) and the IMO International Maritime
Solid Bulk Cargo Code( IMSBC)
b. The cargo securing manual
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c. The timber deck cargo code published by IMO

d. Classification Society Rules
49. Why do structural steel products often shift or collapse in a bulk carrier's cargo
holds?
a. Because the irregular shape of the cargo holds results in void spaces
b. Because of inadequate dunnage placed over the tank top
c. Because of using inadequately sized lasing wires
d. Because of dunnage, provided at every tier of the cargo, not having been
aligned
50. Why is air draught an important consideration when loading bulk cargoes on
Bulk Carriers?
a. Because of movement of the bulk cargo loader or unloaders
b. Because of variations in under keel clearances whilst alongside the berth
c. Because of the vessel's movement whilst berthing or unberthing
d. Because the vessel may pass under a bridge(s) whilst approaching or
leaving the berth
51. A container vessel has lost several dangerous goods containers overboard. The
master must report this loss of container incident to:
a. The nearest Coastal state.
b. The Flag state.
c. The ship owner.
d. Vessels in the immediate vicinity.
52. A heavy piece of machinery is loaded on deck of a container vessel, stowed
across several flat rack containers. The most appropriate method for lashing such
cargo would be by:
a. Taking all lashings to the flat-rack lashing points.
b. Taking all lashings to the hatch top.
c. Taking all lashings to the hatch coamings, pillars and
lashing bridges.
d. Taking some of the lashings to flat-racks and rest to
hatch tops.
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53. Besides normal loads, the lashings of the containers stowed at the outboard part
of the deck stow are additionally subjected to:
e. The effect of wind on the
containers.
f. Transverse accelerating load
condition, leading to loss of
GM.
g. The effect of green seas
breaking over the containers.
h. Lack of support from adjacent
columns of containers.
54. Best location to stow containers loaded with Calcium Hypochlorite would be:
a. On deck, away from sources of heat.
b. Away from reefer units, below deck.
c. Under deck, away from sources of heat.
d. Abaft the accommodation.
55. Bulk liquid cargoes carried in flexi-tank containers are considered dangerous:
a. When the associated material safety data sheet shows a constituent(s)
listed in the IMDG Code.
b. When declared as a non-hazardous chemical.
c. When declared as bulk liquid foodstuff.
d. When the shipper instructs that the container be carried on-deck only.
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e. The added weight of icing on

container stacks, leading to loss
of GM.
f. The presence of icebergs
leading to hazard of navigation.
g. Temperature differential
between air and seawater,
leading to shell plating damage.
h. High wind and waves leading to speed reduction and high fuel
consumption.
a. Metacentric height of the vessel.
b. Current wave conditions.
c. Transverse distribution of container stack weights.
d. Hull form of the vessel.
58. For guidance on lashing arrangement of containers on-board the vessel, the most
important document to refer is:
a. The Cargo Securing Manual.
b. The Code for the Safe Practice for
Cargo Stowage and Securing.
c. The company's ISM handbook.
d. The Stability Manual.
59. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of
containers is:
e. Determined by the clauses of the charter-party.
f. Provided as per advice from the Supercargo.
g. Always upon the attending cargo surveyor.
h. Always upon the charterer of the vessel.
60. The Code of Safe Practice for Cargo Stowage and Securing was prepared to give
guidance for:
e. Preparation and content of the Cargo Securing Manual.
f. Securing of deck cargoes.
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g. Securing of cargoes in hazardous ocean areas.

h. Port State Control Officers when carrying out ship inspections.
61. The dangers associated with carriage of empty tank containers is that:
a. They may contain flammable
cargo residue.
b. They may not be declared as
being empty.
c. They could explode if their
vents are closed.
d. They are prone to collapse.
62. The direction of wave encounter that is most likely to cause a parametric roll
condition on large container ships is:
a. Head seas.
b. Beam seas.
c. Just forward of the beam seas.
d. Following or quartering seas.
63. The most appropriate measure to reduce the build-up of ice on containers during
a sea passage is to:
a. Reduce speed, whilst maintaining course.
b. Increase speed, whilst maintaining course.
c. Have the crew remove the ice.
d. Heave to and wait for ambient temperature to rise to safe levels.
64. The most appropriate method for adjusting the trim on a container vessel would
be:
e. By internal shift of ballast.
f. By internal shift of cargo containers.
g. By internal shift of fuel oil.
h. By jettisoning of containers.
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65. What is the master's position if he is asked to load a container that is incorrectly
manifested, but which is believed to contain dangerous goods, about which
insufficient information is supplied?
e. He has the authority to refuse it.
f. He must load it, but immediately
advise his operations department and
request full information.
g. If it it approved by the operations
department, he can assume all safety
checks have been carried out and
should load it.
h. He must load it, but ensure it is placed in a safe loaction, to which there
is immediate access in the event of an emergency.
66. When taking action to deal with under-deck cargo spillage on container ships,
reference must be made to:
a. The EmS Guide.
b. The ISPS Code.
c. SOLAS Chapter V – Safety of navigtaion.
d. The ship's Contingency plan.
67. With regards to carriage of Calcium Hypochlorite in containers, as per IMDG
Code it is not allowed to:
a. Pack and ship the cargo in bags.
b. Ship in open top half containers on deck.
c. Ship in Intermediate Bulk Containers (IBCs).
d. Carry the cargo transport units under deck.
68. A chemical tanker may be granted, by the Government of the receiving Party, an
exemption from carrying out a mandatory prewash provided that the:
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a. Unloaded tank is to be reloaded

with the same substance or
another substance compatible
with the previous one and that
the tank will not be washed or
ballasted prior to loading.
b. Unloaded tank will be washed
outside a special area.
c. Vessel temporarily has defective tank cleaning equipment and the
prewash will be carried out at the first available opportunity after repairs
have been completed and the tank will not be loaded or ballasted before
that time.
d. Vessel's stripping system can reduce the residues to less than 10 litres in
the relevant tank and its associated piping.
69. A tank which contained a category "X" product must undergo a prewash before
leaving port in compliance with MARPOL. The resulting residues shall be
discharged to a reception facility until the concentration of the substance in the
effluent, as indicated by analysis of samples of the effluent taken by the
authorized surveyor has reached a level of:
a. 0.1% by weight.
b. 0.1% by volume.
c. 0.2% by weight.
d. 0.3% by volume.
70. As per MARPOL, for control of discharge of Noxious Liquid Substances, the
area(s) designated as “Special Areas” are:
a. The Antarctic.
b. The Mediterranean Sea, Baltic Sea, Black Sea, Red Sea, "Gulfs" Area,
Gulf of Aden, Oman Area of the Arabian Sea, Southern South African
Waters, Antarctic and North-West European Waters.
c. The Baltic Sea, the Black Sea and Antarctic.
d. The Wider Caribbean Region including the Gulf of Mexico and the
Caribbean Sea, Southern South African Waters and North-West
European Waters.
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71. Ballast introduced into a cargo tank on a chemical tanker which has been washed
to such an extent that the ballast contains less than 1 ppm of the substance
previously carried may be discharged into the sea without regard to the discharge
rate, ship's speed and discharge outlet location, but under certain conditions,
which require:
a. That the vessel is not less than 12 miles from the nearest land and is in
water that is not less than 25 metres deep.
b. That the vessel is not less than 50 miles from the nearest land and is
proceeding on route.
c. That the discharge is passed through the Oil Discharge Monitoring
Equipment and a visual watch is maintained on the vessel's wake.
d. Provided the ship is underway and a sample of the ballast water has been
drawn from the tank and is stored on board, there are no additional
conditions to be imposed on such a discharge.
72. Cargo residues of certain chemical substances are permitted to be removed by
ventilation. This may be carried out provided that:
a. The cargo discharged has a vapour pressure greater than 5 KPa at 20
degrees Celsius.
b. The cargo discharged has a vapour expansion coefficient of at least
1.025.
c. The vessel's ventilation system is capable of delivering a minimum of 20
changes of atmosphere per hour within the compartment.
d. The volume of the tank does not exceed 1750 cubic metres, the maximum
remaining residues are less than 75 litres and ventilation is additionally
possible directly down the pumpstack.
73. Definitive information on whether a particular cargo is classified as a “Noxious
Liquid Substance” (other than products provisionally assessed) can be obtained
from:
a. The pollution category column of chapters 17 or 18 of the International
Bulk Chemical Code (IBC Code).
b. The pollution category of chapter 17 (only) of the International Bulk
Chemical Code (IBC Code).
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c. The product groups within the list of cargoes contained in the Chemical
Data Guide for Bulk Shipment by Water.
d. The Procedures and Arrangements Manual.
74. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to be cleaned by recirculation with a low

flash or static accumulator product:
a. The tank must be inerted to less than 8% oxygen content.
b. The product must be allowed settling time within the tank before
recirculation is commenced.
c. All lids and other penetrations must be securely closed before
recirculation is commenced.
d. The tank must already have been cleaned to Water White Standard to
ensure no hazardous reaction with cargo residues.
75. In respect of a chemical tanker, carrying category “X”, “Y” & “Z” Noxious
Liquid Substances, the term “Clean Ballast” as defined in the IBC Code means:
a. Ballast water carried in a tank which, since it was last used to carry a
cargo containing a substance in category "X","Y" or "Z", has been
thoroughly cleaned and the residues resulting there from have been
discharged and the tank emptied in accordance with the appropriate
requirements of Annex II.
b. Ballast water introduced into a tank permanently allocated to the carriage
of ballast or cargoes other than oil or Noxious Liquid Substances as
variously defined in the Annexes of the MARPOL Convention and which
is completely separate from the cargo and oil fuel systems.
c. Ballast water carried in a tank which has been previously washed in
accordance with the requirements of the Procedures and Arrangements
Manual.
d. Ballast water that is free of all cargo residues and slops.
76. In the event of an accidental or other exceptional discharge into the sea of a
Noxious Liquid Substance or mixture containing such a substance, an entry shall
be made in the Cargo record Book, which shall include:
a. Time of occurrence
Approximate quantity, substance(s) and Category(ies)
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Circumstances of discharge or escape and general remarks.

b. Date of occurrence
Position (latitude and longitude)
Estimated quantity and category(ies)
Extract from Master's Log Book detailing the incident.
c. Position at start and stop of accidental discharge

Time at start and stop of accidental discharge
Reason for accidental discharge
d. Name of Person in Charge of operation at time of accidental discharge.
Date and Time of occurrence
Name of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel
Statement of Responsible Person, and Master of the vessel
Approximate quantity and category of product discharged
Identity of nearest sovereign State and Authority of that State contacted
with applicable report reference.
77. The ‘dew point’ of a liquid chemical can be defined as:
a. The temperature at which a gas is saturated with respect to a condensable
component, as in operational terms is seen at the point when air is
saturated with moisture.
b. The temperature at which a condensable component is saturated with
respect to a gas, as in operational terms is seen at the point when moisture
no longer detectable in air.
c. The temperature at which dry-ice melts in Acetone.
d. The temperature at which a saturated gas exhibits condensation.
78. The carriage of a new Noxious Liquid Substance not yet listed in the IBC Code
may be considered possible, provided it is achieved through a ‘tri-partite”
agreement between:
a. The Port State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Carrier / the Port
State of the Receiver.
b. The Shipper / the Receiver / the Operator or Charterer.
c. The IMO / the Port State of the Shipper / the Port State of the Receiver.
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d. The Flag State of the Shipper / the Flag State of the Charterer / the Flag
State of the Receiver.
79. The chemical term for a substance used as an additive to start a chemical reaction
and speed up the cleaning of a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is:
a. Catalyst.
b. Reactant.
c. Accelerant.
d. Reagent.
80. The document which confirms whether a chemical tanker is authorised to carry
a particular Noxious Liquid Substance, is called:
a. The (International) Certificate of Fitness.
b. The IBC Code.
c. MARPOL.
d. The International Pollution Prevention Certificate for the Carriage of
Noxious Liquid Substances in Bulk.
81. The tank cleaning requirements for a Category “X” substance on a chemical
tanker constructed after 01 January 2007, require the vessel to carry out:
a. Prewash / strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water /
minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
b. Prewash / strip to 100 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water /
minimum 7 knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
c. Prewash for solidifying or high viscosity substances / strip to 75 litres /
12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7 knots, proceeding
en route / discharge below waterline.
d. Strip to 75 litres / 12 miles from land / 25 metres of water / minimum 7
knots, proceeding en route / discharge below waterline.
82. Vegetable Oils as per MARPOL are classified under:
a. Category "Y".
b. Category "Z".
c. Category "OS" - other substances.
d. Category "A".
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83. What is the name given to the risk assessment programme developed by OCIMF,
under which tankers are inspected and the results made available to potential
charterers through a database of
records?
a. The Ship Inspection Report
Programme (SIRE).
b. The Chemical Distribution
Institute (CDI) Inpsection
programme.
c. The Enhanced Survey
Programme.
d. The Tanker Inspection and Reporting System (TIRS).
84. When cleaning a cargo tank after carriage and discharge of Sulphuric Acid, it is
important to ensure that:
a. Once cleaning commences,
large quantities of washing
water can be delivered as
quickly as possible, so that the
acid is quickly diluted.
b. Once cleaning commences,
washing water must be
introduced in a controlled
manner, allowing time for the acid and water to mix slowly and
thoroughly before the rest of the tank surfaces are flushed.
c. A mixture of hot fresh water and Sodium Hydroxide solution (50/50) is
prepared beforehand and then circulated around the tank, rapidly
neutralising any remaining acid.
d. Any acid remaining in the sump should first be ejected and the tank
ventilated for a minimum of 30 minutes before the introduction of any
water, ensuring that there are insufficient acid residues to create any
dangerous reaction.
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85. When small amounts of cleaning additives (detergent products) are added to
water in order to facilitate the washing of tanks which previously contained
liquid chemicals, must be ensured that:
a. No additives containing Pollution Category "X" components shall be
used, except those components that are readily biodegradable and present
in a total concentration of less than 10% of the cleaning additive. No
restrictions additional to those applicable to the tank due to the previous
cargo shall apply.
b. The discharge shall be governed by the provisions of Annex I or II, which
would apply to the additive had it been carried as cargo. Tank washing
procedures involving the use of such additives shall be set out in the
Procedures and Arrangements Manual and approved by the vessel's Flag
State Administration.
c. No conditions apply provided not more than 200 litres per 1000 cubic
metres of tank volume is used in any one washing operation.
d. If the additive contains Pollution category "X" products and more than
200 litres is used in the washing operation for a single cargo tank, then a
prewash to shore must be carried out
86. You are to load a number of chemical cargoes in Rotterdam in December, for
eventual discharge in Australia, after the ship has called at Singapore and
Malaysia. None of the cargoes on board at any stage of the voyage require
heating. None of the tanks to be discharged in Singapore and Malysia will
require hot washing after discharge. When determining the filling limits of the
tanks containing the Australian cargoes, you will need to consider that:
a. The maximum anticipated temperature that the cargoes will reach
bearing in mind ambient air and sea temperatures to be encountered on
passage, so that any expansion does not result in overflow.
b. The accuracy of the tank level monitoring systems in potentially sub-zero
conditions.
c. The anticipated cargo loss due to the projected evaporation rates as the
vessel passes through the tropics.
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d. The potential damage to tank coating in the upper areas of any tanks
which are not fully loaded due to the duration of exposure to cargo
vapour.
87. A greater number of lashings may generally be required to secure cargo forward
on deck compared with amidships under deck of a General Cargo Vessel,
because:
e. The dynamic stresses on the
lashing are much greater in the
forward areas of the vessel.
f. The forward of the vessel is
subjected to more rolling
conditions.
g. Heavier cargo is generally
stowed forward.
h. The roll period is greater
forward.
88. A loaded General Cargo ship is bound from Brazil to Rotterdam during winter
time. During the voyage, ventilation in cargo spaces should:
a. Be carried out during voyage, as
the vessel is moving from warm
to colder areas.
b. Should not be carried out as the
vessel is moving from a cold
area to a warmer area.
c. Should occasionally be carried
out as the vessel is moving from
a cold area to a warmer area.
d. Would only be carried out once, just before discharging the cargo.
89. Additional lashings on general cargoes must be considered when:
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a. Heavy weather is anticipated for the

planned voyage.
b. Passing through the Summer Zone in
winter months.
c. Passing through the Tropical Zone in
winter months.
d. After the vessel has started to
encounter heavy weather conditions.
90. For a General Cargo ship not specifically designed for carriage of containers, the
maximum stowage height for containers on deck is limited to:
a. One container high.
b. Two container high.
c. The height of the wheelhouse.
d. Three container high.
91. For a General Cargo ship to load Dangerous Goods in packaged form, it must
have on board a:
a. Document of Compliance for
carriage of dangerous goods.
b. SOLAS Safety Equipment
Certificate.
c. Document of Authorization for
the carriage of bulk IMDG
Cargoes.
d. Safety Construction Certificate
for carriage of IMDG cargoes in packaged form.
92. For special category spaces on board general cargo ship, the minimum required
air changes per hour should be:
a. 6
b. 10
c. 15
d. 20
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93. Information on the forces that may cause cargo shifting on a general cargo vessel
may be available by referring to:
a. The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS)
Code.
b. The ship's stability manual.
c. The Code of Safe Practice for Solid Bulk
Cargoes (BC Code).
d. The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
94. On a voyage from cold to hot climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of
a General cargo ship should:
a. Not be carried out at all.
b. Be carried out continuously
during the voyage.
c. Be carried out during the day
time only.
d. Be carried out during the night
time only.
95. On a voyage from hot to cold climate countries, the ventilation of cargo holds of
a General cargo ship should:
a. Be carried out continuously during the voyage.
b. Not be carried out at all.
c. Be carried out during the day time only.
d. Be carried out during the night time only.
96. The IMO Cargo Stowage and Securing Code (CSS) indicates in the 'Rule of
Thumb', the total strength of the lashings on each side of a heavy lift; what is
the stated value ?
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a. The Maximum Securing load of

the lashings must equal the
weight of the cargo unit.
b. The Maximum Securing load of
the lashings must equal the 50%
c. The Maximum Securing load of
the lashings must equal twice
the weight of the cargo unit.
d. The Maximum Securing load of the lashings must equal five times the
97. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous

goods declaration on a General Cargo Vessel should be:
a. IMO Class, UN Number, Gross
weight, number of units of
cargo, Proper Shipping Name.
b. IMO Class, weight, cargo brand
name, stowage requirement.
c. Gross and net weight, volume of
cargo, proper shipping name.
d. UN Number, Volume of units,
stowage requirements, weight, centre of gravity.
98. The most important consideration when planning the lashing system for a
particular sea route on a General Cargo Vessel
is:
a. Transverse accelerations.
b. The breaking strength of lashing
materials.
c. Encountering heavy weather.
d. The size and weight of general cargo items to be loaded.
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99. The segregation requirements for Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General

Cargo ship may be obtained by referring to:
a. The IMO International Maritime
Dangerous Goods Code.
b. The IMO Bulk cargo Code.
c. The Cargo Securing manual.
d. IMO SOLAS Handbook.
100. The two main considerations when choosing an appropriate paint for a cargo
space of a General Cargo vessel would
be:
a. Light reflective and compatible
with edible cargoes.
b. Corrosion resistant and heat
resistant.
c. Low odour and heat resistant.
d. Easy to clean and dark in colour.
101. Which of these can be loaded in the same hold of a General Cargo Vessel, as
steel coils?
a. Steel rebars
b. Hygroscopic cargoes
c. Chemicals
d. Fertilizers
102. How can you best demonstrate in an audit that you follow company cargo
handling procedures?
a. By being able to provide
comprehensive and verifiable
documentary records of cargo
operations.
b. By requesting that an audit takes
place during cargo operations.
c. By providing a summary of out-
turn figures for the auditor.
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d. By providing a summary of incident and lost time figures for the auditor
that reflects a successful and trouble-free system on board.
103. If all indications are that a cargo has been received without damages,
irregularities or short shipment and the phrase "apparent good order and
condition" is entered on the Bill of Lading, what type of Bill is this said to be?
a. A clean Bill of Lading.
b. An endorsed Bill of Lading.
c. A Bill of Lading completed for shipment.
d. A Due Title Bill of Lading.
104. What may be issued by the shipper to indicate that a vessel or her operators will
not be held responsible for any damage that may arise from the carrier issuing a
clean Bill of Lading, even though the Mate's receipt is marked as "unclean", such
as may apply to atmospheric corrosion on steel plates that have been waiting in
a port facility for some time awaiting
shipment?
a. A Letter of Indemnity.
b. A Letter of Credit.
c. An absolution clause in the shipping
documents.
d. An addendum to the Bill of Lading.
105. What term is applied to the compensation payment by the charterer that is due
when a vessel is unable to load / discharge her cargo within the allowed and
contracted time?
a. Demurrage.
b. Deferment.
c. Discretion.
d. Contractual penalty discount.
106. What type of Bill of Lading covers "door to door" shipment?
a. A Through Bill of Lading.
b. An Ocean Bill of Lading.
c. A Destination Bill of Lading.
d. A Multi-Phase Bill of Lading.
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107. When conducting a risk assessment for a shipboard work activity, what are the
two elements to be considered?
a. The potential severity of harm
and the likelihood that harm will
occur.
b. The chance of an incident re-
occuring and the potential
effects of an loss.
c. The time available to complete
the task and the resources to
hand.
d. The available manpower and their experience in this type of work.
108. According to SIGTTO publications, what is a typical accuracy for LNG pressure
measurement equipment?
a. +/- 0,0015 bar (which will apply
within the MARVS of the tank)
b. +/- 1,00 bar (which will apply
c. +/- 0,50 bar (which will apply
d. +/- 0,0005 bar (which will apply
109. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the minimum number of "Firemen’s
outfits" required to be carried on an LNG carrier with a cargo capacity above
5,000 m3?
a. 5 sets
b. 4 sets
c. 2 sets
d. 3 sets
110. Carbon dioxide, CO2, can solidify and form dry ice at low temperatures. What
is the solidifying temperature of CO2?
a. approximately minus 78.5 C
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b. approximately minus 87.5 C

c. approximately minus 30.5 C
d. approximately minus 60.5 C
111. Does MARPOL apply to LNG carriers?
a. Yes, MARPOL applies to all ship types..
b. No, MARPOL only applies to oil tankers.
c. Yes, but only annex IV.
d. Yes, but only annex V.
112. Does the Oil Pollution Act, 1990 (OPA90) apply to vessels engaged in carrying
liquefied natural gas (LNG)?
a. Yes, OPA90 applies to all ships.
b. No, OPA90 applies only to oil tankers.
c. Only if the vessel is carrying HC-products.
d. OPA90 only applies to non-American flag vessels.
113. Due to the very low carriage temperatures for LNG the thermal conductivity, k
value, is an important property of the insulation material used in cargo
containment systems. For a given rate of heat leakage across the insulation,
which of the following statements is true?
a. The higher the k value the
thicker the insulation needs to
be.
b. The higher the k value the
thinner the insulation needs to
be.
c. The rate of heat leakage is
unaffected by the thickness of
the insulation.
d. The k value depends on the thickness of the insulation material.
114. During cargo tank gassing up and cooling down operations on an LNG carrier
which of the given options, regarding temperature, needs to be observed?
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a. Never allow temperature of the

insulation to fall below the safe
minimum temperature.
b. Always control the outlet
temperature of methane from
the vaporiser.
c. Always control the vaporisers
so that the temperature of
methane vapour is lower than
existing tank atmosphere temperature.
d. Always control the temperature in the shore supply line.
115. Having water vapour in an LNG carriers cargo tanks prior to loading cargo is
unacceptable due to ice formation at low carriage temperatures. How can water
vapour in the tank atmosphere be removed prior to the cooling down and loading
operation?
a. By displacing the tank
atmosphere with pre-dried inert
gas.
b. By displacing the tank
atmosphere with fresh air.
c. By displacing the tank
atmosphere with warm inert gas
direct from a combustion type
inert gas generator.
d. By displacing the tank atmosphere with heated air.
116. What is the approximate normal daily cargo "boil off" rate for an LNG carrier of
125000 cubic metre cargo capacity?
a. From 0,15 % to 0,20 % per day of total cargo.
b. From 0,30 % to 0,35 % per day of total cargo.
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c. From 0,01 % to 0,05 % per day of total cargo.

d. From 0,75 % to 0,80 % per day of total cargo.
117. What is the normal procedure for cooling down the a cargo tank prior to loading
LNG?
a. Introducing liquid LNG into the
tank slowly through the spray
lines.
b. Introducing liquid LNG into the
bottom of the tank.
c. Introducing liquid LNG into the
tank quickly through the liquid
header.
d. Introducing liquid LNG into the tank through a heater.
118. What is the typical accuracy for onboard LNG temperature measurement
systems?
a. +/- 0.2 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
b. +/- 0.5 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
c. +/- 1.0 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
d. +/- 0.7 C in the range of - 150 C / - 170 C
119. Which of the gas groups, identified by SIGTTO, in 'Liquid Gas Handling
Principles on Ships and in Terminals', does LNG belong to?
a. Saturated Hydrocarbons
b. Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
c. Chemical Gases
d. Mixed Saturated and Unsaturated Hydrocarbons.
120. Which term is usually used to describe the compressor that collects the boil-off
from the header connected to each cargo tank of an LNG carrier?
a. The low-duty compressor.
b. The fuel-feed compressor.
c. The high-duty compressor.
d. The medium-duty compressor.
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121. Why is nitrogen used for the inerting of hold spaces and interbarrier spaces on
LNG carriers?
a. Because the carbon dioxide in
combustion generated inert gas
would freeze when in close
proximity to the cargo.
b. Because of the high oxygen content of combustion generated inert gas.
c. Because of the high temperature of combustion generated inert gas.
d. Because of the high humidity in combustion generated inert gas.
122. With reference to preparations of LNG carrier cargo tanks for cargo loading
operations, how can it be determined that the cool down operation is complete?
a. When temperature monitor, or
liquid level gauge, shows that
liquid is forming in the bottom
of the cargo tank.
b. When the outlet temperature
from the spray header reaches
minus 10 C.
c. When the temperature at the
compressor vapour manifold reaches minus 25 C.
d. When vapour temperature from the HD compressor reaches minus 40 C.
123. Before loading a refrigerated cargo of LPG the cargo tanks must be cooled down
slowly in order to minimise thermal stresses for the vessel and the cargo
containment system. What is the generally accepted cooling down rate?
a. 10 degrees C per hour.
b. 5 degrees C per hour.
c. 15 degrees C per hour.
d. 20 degrees C per hour.
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124. Cargo tanks on an LPG carrier can be inerted using either inert gas from a
combustion type inert gas generator or by using nitrogen. Is gassing up of an
inerted cargo tank with LPG allowed when the tank contains combustion
generated inert gas?
a. Yes, but only if the atmosphere
has an oxygen content of less
than 5% by volume and the
charter allows it.
b. Yes, it is always allowed if the
atmosphere of the inerted tank
has an oxygen content of less
than 5% by volume.
c. Yes, but only if the atmosphere has an oxygen content of less than 1%
by volume and the charter allows it.
d. No, it is never allowed; the inert gas must first be replaced by oxygen
free nitrogen.
125. During pre-entry checks of an enclosed space onboard a liquefied gas carrier it
is necessary to check the condition of the atmosphere. If the gas detection
equipment to be used for the checks included a catalytic type combustible gas
indicator, an absorption type toxic gas detector and a paramagnetic type oxygen
analyser, which would be the preferred
order for the checks?
a. Oxygen content followed by
hydrocarbon gas content and
then toxic gas content.
b. Hydrocarbon gas content followed by oxygen content and then toxic gas
content.
c. Hydrocarbon gas content followed by toxic gas content and then oxygen
content.
d. Toxic gas content followed by hydrocarbon gas content and then oxygen
content
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126. IMO publishes a number of Codes relating to the carriage of bulk cargoes
including the IGC Code for liquefied gas carriers. What is the main purpose of
the IGC Code?
a. To provide an international standard for the
construction of, and equipment for, gas
carriers to ensure the safe carriage of
liquefied gases in bulk.
b. To provide national standards for the
construction of, and the equipment for, gas
carriers to ensure the safe carriage of
liquefied gases in bulk
c. To provide international standards regarding the maximum vessel size
and the minimum manning levels for gas carriers to ensure safe carriage
of liquefied gases in bulk.
d. To provide guidance to the oil and gas companies as to which gases can
be carried in liquefied state.
127. Inhibitors are often added to liquefied gas cargoes prior to loading to prevent or
slow down polymerisation. An inhibitor information form or certificate must be
provided by the cargo shipper to the vessel. What sort of information must this
certificate contain about the inhibitor in addition to the technical name and
quantity added?
a. Expected lifetime of the
inhibitor, temperature
limitations affecting the
lifetime of the inhibitor and the
date the inhibitor was added.
b. Expected lifetime of the
inhibitor, name of person who
added the inhibitor and the
temperature limitations affecting the lifetime of the inhibitor
c. Date the inhibitor was added, the name of the person that added it and
expiry date of the inhibitor
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d. Expected lifetime of the inhibitor and the date the cargo tanks were
inhibited
128. Is it permitted to load fully refrigerated propane directly onto a fully pressurised
LPG carrier without additional conditioning of the cargo or cargo spaces?
a. Only if the cargo containment
system is designed for
temperatures of minus 48
degrees C or less.
b. Only if the vessel is equipped with cargo cooling plant
c. Only if the loading rate is kept below 100m3/h.
d. Fully refrigerated propane can be loaded directly onto this type of vessel
under any circumstances
129. It is necessary for personnel to enter a liquefied gas carrier cargo tank to clean
up some dust and other loose debris. What are the permit requirements before
entry into the tank is allowed?
a. Both Enclosed Space Entry and
Cold Work Permits are
required.
b. Both Enclosed Space Entry and
Hot Work Permits are required.
c. Both Enclosed Space Entry
Permit and a Gas Free
Certificate are required.
d. Only an Enclosed Space Entry Permit is required.
130. Liquefied gas cargoes will expand as the temperature increases and therefore
tanks are not allowed to be filled to 100%. What is the maximum allowable
filling limit for the cargo tanks on liquefied gas carriers?
a. Maximum allowable filling
limit on cargo tanks is 98% on
gas carriers.
b. Maximum allowable filling
limit on cargo tanks is 95% on gas carriers.
c. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 92% on gas carriers.
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d. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 90% on gas carriers.

131. What is the full title of the IMO code which applies to all gas carriers built after
1986?
a. The International Code for the Construction and
Equipment of Ships Carrying Liquefied Gases in
Bulk (the IGC Code)
b. The International Code for Ships Carrying
Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the IGC code)
c. The Code for Existing Ships Carrying Liquefied
Gases in Bulk (the Existing Ship Code)
d. The Code for the Construction and Equipment of Ships Carrying
Liquefied Gases in Bulk (the GC Code)
132. What is the main reason for adding inhibitors to some liquefied gas cargoes such
as ethylene oxide and vinyl chloride?
a. To prevent polymerisation
of the cargo.
b. To reduce the boil-off rate
of the cargo.
c. To reduce the toxicity of the cargo.
d. To control the temperature of the cargo.
133. What is the requirement for the atmosphere in the hold spaces surrounding cargo
tanks that require a secondary barrier when carrying LPG cargoes?
a. The hold spaces must be kept in
an inert condition whenever
there is cargo in the cargo tanks.
b. The hold spaces must be filled
with clean dry air at all times.
c. The hold spaces must be filled
with cargo vapour whenever
there is cargo in the cargo tanks.
d. The hold spaces must be kept in an inert condition at all times even when
the cargo tanks are empty.
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134. What method should be used to discharge a semi-pressurised gas carrier if there
is a break down on the cargo discharge pump?
a. By pressurising the vapour
space of the cargo tank using a
vaporiser and cargo compressor
to force liquid cargo ashore.
b. By using a portable submersible
pump to empty the affected tank
c. By using the cargo compressor
to pump the cargo vapour
ashore as it boils off.
d. By using the inert gas system to pressurise the cargo tank and force the
liquid cargo ashore.
135. When a ship is switching from ammonia to LPG virtually all traces of vapours
must be removed. What is the allowable concentration of ammonia vapour in the
tank prior to loading the next cargo?
a. Less than 20 parts per million.
b. Less than 50 parts per million.
c. Less than 100 parts per million.
d. Less than 5 parts per million.
136. Which certificate is issued to LPG and other liquefied gas carriers in accordance
with the IGC code?
a. The Certificate of Fitness is
issued in accordance with the
IGC code
b. The Cargo Ship Safety
Equipment Certificate is issued
in accordance with the IGC
code.
c. The Cargo Ship Safety
Construction Certificate is issued in accordance with the IGC code
d. The International Load Line Certificate is issued in accordance with the
IGC code
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137. With some liquefied gas cargoes special conditions must be met before they can
be loaded into a cargo tank. Is it permitted load ammonia into an inerted cargo
tank?
a. Only if the tank is inerted with
nitrogen.
b. Only if the tank is inerted with
combustion generated inert gas.
c. Ammonia cannot be loaded into any tank with an inert atmosphere.
d. Ammonia can be loaded into any inerted tank containing either inert gas
or nitrogen.
138. A VLCC is to anchor in a depth of 80 meters in open water with moderate swell
running. How many shackles of anchor chain should be used to aid a safe
anchorage?
a. 11 shackles
b. 6 shackles
c. 8 shackles
d. 3 shackles
139. After the last entry being made, the retention period of an oil record book on
board must be:
a. Not less than 3 years after the
date of the last entry.
b. Not less than 5 years after the
date of the last entry.
c. Exactly 3 years from the date of
the first entry.
d. Until the next port where it may
be handed over to the Port State
Authority.
140. Any person who can assume overall charge of the ships crude oil washing
operation must have:
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a. At least 12 months appropriate

experience on oil tankers, have
participated in at least two COW
programmes and be fully
knowledgeable of the contents
of the Operations and
Equipment Manual.
b. At least three months
experience on tankers, have
participated in at least six washing operations and be aware of the
procedures associated with the completion of the Oil Record Book.
c. At least six months experience on tankers, be knowledgeable of the
cleaning procedures and equipment applicable on board the vessel and
be able to fully demonstrate understanding of the operation of the ODME
equipment.
d. At least 12 months equivalent experience on a tanker of any type,
provided at least three washing operations have been witnessed in a
supernumerary capacity and be able to demonstrate full knowledge of
Annex I of MARPOL.
141. As per MARPOL, Oil Record Book Part II, Cargo/Ballast Operations, must be
carried and completed on oil tankers of:
a. 150 gross tonnes and above.
b. 400 gross tonnes and above.
c. Any size, as long as they are classified as
tankers.
d. 50 gross tonnes and above.
142. As per MARPOL, the contents of lines and pumps on an oil tanker at completion
of discharge must be:
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a. Drained and then pumped either

ashore, or to a cargo tank or slop
tank on board.
b. Cleared to shore by the use of
compressed air.
c. Drained directly (and only) to
shore.
d. Discharged ashore or retained
on board as per the pre-discharge agreement made between the ship and
shore.
143. As per requirements of the International Convention for the Control and
Management of Ship's Ballast Water and Sediments, oil tankers must have a plan
on board to achieve:
a. 95% volumetric exchange of the
ballast taken on-board at the
previous port.
b. 100% volumetric exchange of
the ballast taken on-board at the
previous port.
c. 25% volumetric exchange of the
ballast taken on-board at the previous port.
d. 80% volumetric exchange of the ballast taken on-board at the previous
port.
144. As per the OCIMF Ship to Ship Transfer Guide (Petroleum) guidelines, both
vessels engaged in the cargo transfer operation shall:
a. Have their main engines ready
and available for immediate use
b. Have their duty engineers on
stand-by so as to prepare the
engines if required for use at any
time
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c. Their officer of the watch manning the bridge at all times, with engines
on 30-minutes notice of readiness.
d. Their main engines on 1 hour readiness of readiness
145. As per the US Code of Federal Regulations, the current Oil Transfer Procedures
for a vessel carrying out discharge in US ports must be:
a. Available on board, legibly
printed in a language or
languages easily understood by
personnel engaged in the
transfer operation and
permanently posted or available
at a place where crew members
can see and use them.
b. Available on board, legibly printed in the English and Spanish languages
and permanently posted in the wheelhouse of the vessel.
c. Available on board, in hard-copy or electronic format, to the OOW in a
language with which he is familiar.
d. Available to the crew members, upon request from the terminal
representatives .
146. Crude Oils required by MARPOL to be specifically listed in a tanker's Crude Oil
Washing manual as unsuitable for COW are:
a. Those with high pour point or viscosity.
b. Those with high basic sediment and water content.
c. Those with highbenzene content.
d. Those on the IMO Oil Tanker Technical Committee COW banned list.
147. Depending on density or API, an error measurement of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in
a tank containing 50,000 cubic metres (314,491 barrels) of oil will result in
which of the following volumes?
e. 25 cubic metres (157 barrels).
f. 35 cubic metres (220 barrels).
g. 7 cubic metres (44 barrels).
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h. 16.5 cubic metres (104 barrels).

148. For a vessel proceeding enroute, located more than 50 nm from nearest land
outside a special area and having in operation its ODME, the maximum
instantaneous rate of oil discharge (from washings of cargo tanks) in to the sea
is:
a. 30 litres per nautical mile.
b. 300 litres per nautical mile.
c. 60 litres per nautical mile.
d. 0.03 litres per nautical mile.
149. On board an oil tanker, slop tanks may be used for the carriage of oil:
a. When not being used for the
carriage of slops and are included
in the total cargo capacity of the
vessel.
b. Only under exceptional
circumstances and are not
included in the total cargo
capacity of the vessel.
c. Only on clean ballast tankers and are only included in the total cargo
capacity of this type of vessel.
d. Only by agreement between the shipper, receiver and charterer. They are
not normally included in the total cargo capacity of the vessel.
150. Prior to discharging cargo from an oil tanker, ‘line displacement’ or ‘line
pressing’ must be conducted to ensure:
a. The verification of the shore line
for calculation purposes.
b. The calibration of the ship's
flow meter.
c. Balancing of a rigid cargo arm.
d. Testing of the automatic shut-
down arrangements in the shore line system.
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151. The details of an internal transfer of oil must be entered in the Oil Record Book:
a. At all times whenever such an
operation is carried out
b. Only is more than 25% of the
total cargo volume is transferred
c. Only if required by the specific
instructions of the owners or
Flag State of the vessel
d. Only is such transfer has taken
place within a port
152. The ideal maximum viscosity at which aromatic crude oil cargoes are best
discharged at, is:
a. 250 cSt (250 mm2/s)
b. 450 cSt (450 mm2/s)
c. 45 cSt (45 mm2/s)
d. 1,250 cSt (1,250 mm2/s)
153. The maximum permitted oxygen content in the inert gas main when inerting a
cargo oil tank prior to gas freeing is:
e. 5% by volume.
f. 8% by volume.
g. 12% by volume.
h. 2% by volume.
154. The ODME printouts for tank cleaning operations must be retained on board for
a minimum period:
a. Of 3 years.
b. Of 5 years.
c. Till the end of the voyage in which the
ODME operation took place
d. Of 12 months.
155. The recommended guideline for avoiding the risk of electrostatic potential in a
mist produced by using oil and water during Crude Oil Washing operations is
that:
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a. Before washing begins, any

tank that is to be used as a
source of oil for Crude Oil
Washing should be partly
discharged to remove any water
that has settled out during the
voyage. The discharge of a
layer of at least 1 metreis
necessary for this purpose.
b. As washing begins, any water observed in the stream should be diverted
to a slop tank, before Crude Oil Washing af any cargo compartment is
commenced.
c. If a slop tank is to be used to supply oil to drive a Crude Oil Washing
operation in a cargo tank, then that slop tank must not have contained
slops with a water content of more than 2%.
d. Crude Oil Washing, where the oil source is stored in a slop tank or other
tank that has previously contained slops, should be avoided.
156. To correctly report an oil spill in US waters:

a. The person in charge must
report the spill to the National
Response Center or, if not
practicable, to the
Environmental Protection
Agency regional office or local
U.S. Coast Guard Marine Safety
Office. This must be done
immediately that person has knowledge of the spill.
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b. The person responsible for the spill must report preliminary details to the
appropriate State Police within 30 minutes of the accidental discharge
taking place.
c. The person or persons in charge must submit a full report of the incident
through the vessel's agent to the appropriate authorities within 24 hours
of the incident.
d. The master of the vessel responsible for the spill must advise the
Environmental Protection Agency National Incident Reporting Center
(or the appropriate regional office) within 2 hours of the incident being
reported to that person.
157. What do we mean with a IOPP certificate?
a. With IOPP certificate we mean
International Oil Pollution
Prevention certificate and the
ship is classed to prevent oil
pollution
b. With IOPP certificate we mean
International Oil Pollution
Prevention certificate and the
certificate prevent oil pollution from the ship
c. With IOPP certificate we mean International Oil Pollution Prevention
certificate and it is to prevent oil pollution
d. There isn’t any IOPP certificate on gas carriers
158. When discharging dirty ballast from an oil tanker at a high flow rate with main
cargo pumps, the instantaneous rate of discharge of oil is calculated by formula:
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a. Instantaneous rate of discharge

(l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x
flow rate (m3/h) / speed (knots)
x 1,000
b. Instantaneous rate of discharge
(l/nm) = oil content (ppm) x
1,000 / flow rate (l/h) x speed
(knots)
c. Instantaneous rate of discharge
(l/h) = oil content (ppm) x flow rate (l/h) / speed (knots) x 10,000
d. Instantaneous rate of discharge (ml/nm) = oil content (ml/nm) x flow rate
(l/m) / speed (knots) x 100
159. When internally transferring any oil cargo within the vessel, the correct
procedure would be to:
a. Obtain permission from the
charterers and document all
operations fully in the Oil
Record Book.
b. Obtain permission from the
receivers and retain all e-mail
correspondence for the attention
of the cargo surveyors.
c. Transfer no more than 5% of the total cargo volume at any one time.
d. Transfer the cargo, and then make an appropriate entry in the deck log
book.
160. Within the Oil Discharge Monitoring and Control System, an ‘overboard
discharge control’ is defined as:
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a. A device which automatically

initiates the sequence to stop the
overboard discharge of the
effluent in alarm conditions and
prevents the discharge
throughout the period the alarm
prevails.
b. A system which monitors the
discharge into the sea of oily ballast or other oil-contaminated water from
the cargo tank areas.
c. A facility which prevents the initiation of the opening of the discharge
valve or the operation of other equivalent arrangements before the
monitoring system is fully operational.
d. A system which receives automatic signals of oil content, flow rate,
ship's speed, ship's position, date and time.
161. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential
for harm or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements.
Which two elements?
a. The likelihood that a hazard
may occur and the
consequences of the hazardous
event
b. The likelihood that a hazard
may occur and the financial
consequences for the Company
c. The likelihood that a hazard
may occur and the available personal protective equipment we have
onboard
d. The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal
protective equipment we have onboard
162. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested?
a. Every week
b. Every day
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c. Every year
d. Every second year
163. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place on board passenger
ships?
a. Weekly
b. Bi-weekly
c. Monthly
d. At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every
month
164. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves
and closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in
passenger ships?
a. Weekly
b. Daily
c. Every two weeks
d. Every month
165. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?
a. In a separate locker. The locker shall be
clearly marked, locked and ventilated.
b. In a locker preferably on boat deck. The
locker shall be clearly marked.
c. n the central store or in the engine room
d. In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge
166. Personnel on board passenger vessels must undergo training courses before they
can be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on board. What
is minimum training requirement for all personnel?
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DPKP
a. Basic Safety Training Course

and Crowd & Crisis
Management Training Course
b. Basic Safety Training Course
and Company Specific
Familiarisation Course
c. Basic Safety Training Course
d. No Training Course is required
as long as the personnel have relevant experience
167. SOLAS regulations require surveys of ships to be carried out at certain times and
at certain intervals. Which of the following surveys apply to passenger ships
only?
a. Periodical survey every 12 months
b. Periodical survey every 24 months
c. Periodical survey every 6 months
d. A survey before the commence of each voyage
168. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) covers detailed regulations to prevent various sources of ship
generated pollution. Annex I - VI deals with regulations for the prevention/
control of pollution from:
a. Harmful Substances in
Packaged Form, Sewage, Air
Pollution, Garbage, Oil and
Noxious Liquid Substances in
Bulk
b. Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances
in Bulk, Harmful Substances in
Packaged Form, Sewage, Garbage and Ballast Water
c. Proper Pollution Prevention Training
d. All Harmful Substances we have onboard
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169. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?

a. All persons on board shall be
counted and details of persons
who have declared a need for
special care or assistance in
emergency situations shall be
recorded and communicated to
the Master
b. Details and number of persons
special care or assistance in emergency situations shall be recorded and
communicated to the Master
c. It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure
d. The safety officer shall count the number of passengers
170. What is important to prepare prior to a

helicopter operation?
a. Make sure all loose deck
equipment at helicopter deck is
stowed away and secured.
b. To light up the area for pick-up
c. To increase the speed of the
vessel
d. To stop the vessel completely
171. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?
a. To provide all personnel
including emergency personnel
with procedures for handling or
working with that substance in
a safe manner
b. To provide personnel in deck-
and engine department with
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procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner

c. To provide the safety officer with procedures for handling or working
with that substance in a safe manner
d. To determine if the substance is flammable or not
172. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an
enclosed space?
a. Make sure that the tank/
enclosed space is gas free,
ventilated and the oxygen
content is measured. O2 content
shall be 21% before entering the
tank/ enclosed space
b. Use a breathing apparatus if the
oxygen level is below 21%
c. Remember to have a colleague standing by to assist you if any problems
d. Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes
173. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment
onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
a. SOLAS
b. MARPOL
c. STCW
d. ISM
174. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with
suitable Personal Protective Equipment where it is
needed?
a. The Company/ employer
b. The Master
c. The safety officer
d. The Head Department
175. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes
from the vessel's incinerator?
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a. Discharge the ashes to a shore facility

b. Discharge the ashes at sea
providing you are more than 25
nautical miles offshore
c. Discharge at sea providing you
are not in any river or estuary
d. Nothing, ashes from any
substance which is incinerated
can be discharged over board
176. A cellular container vessel is to load frozen ice cream in containers. Space is
available either in the hold or as a deck stow. Select, from the options given, the
most suitable stowage position, with the reason, for this cargo.
a. The deck stow as it is less
sensitive to temperature in the
event of a mechanical problem.
b. The deck stow as it is more
accessible for checking the
status lights on the reefer panel.
c. The hold as it is more sheltered
from the effects of bad weather.
d. The hold as it is more accessible
for maintenance and repair in
the event of a mechanical problem.
177. A conventional reefer vessel operating a Controlled Atmosphere (CA) is
approaching the port of discharge in Northern Europe. Which is the most suitable
action to take from the options given?
a. Turn off the CA plant and thoroughly ventilate the cargo spaces under
CA with fresh air just prior to arrival.
b. Continue to apply CA until the hatches are opened to maintain the
condition of the cargo.
c. Continue to apply CA throughout the discharge to maintain the condition
of the cargo.
d. Turn off the CA plant just prior to the start of discharge operations.
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178. A reefer vessel is loading a cargo of fruit alongside in a South African port.
During loading another vessel arrives at an adjacent berth to have its cargo
discharged after having been towed in following a fire onboard which had
resulted in abandonment. What should concern the Master of the reefer vessel
most about the situation?
a. That the cargo may be contaminated by the smell of smoke and the
products of combustion from the damaged vessel.
b. The damaged vessel is unmanned and may not be cared for properly.
c. The cargo being discharged from the damaged vessel may be in poor
condition and may contaminate the loading vessel's cargo.
d. The speed of cargo operations may be hindered due to the discharge of
cargo from the damaged vessel.
179. A reefer vessel is to load a cargo of plantains and bananas. Due to space
restrictions both have to be loaded into a common space. The usual delivery
temperature for bananas is about 13 degrees Celsius and for plantains it is 7
degree Celsius. What would be the best delivery temperature for the mixture of
these two fruits?
a. 13 C as plantains are less sensitive to the consequences of a higher
delivery temperature.
b. 7 C as plantains are more sensitive to the higher delivery temperature of
the bananas.
c. 10 C as this is the mean temperature of the two cargoes and they would
both carry satisfactorily at this temperature.
d. Adjust the set point of the delivery temperature to 7 C for 12 hour periods
and 13 C for the intervening 12 hour periods.
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180. A reefer vessel is to load a part cargo of frozen beef hocks (large joints of beef,
usually quarters, not packed in cartons). In deciding which would be the most
appropriate space on a conventional reefer vessel, which of the given options
would be the preferred choice?
a. 1C deck as this is the narrowest space on the vessel and will best
constrain the cargo from any possible movement during the voyage.
b. 4A deck as this is the largest square space on the vessel and will allow
good access and air flow for the cargo.
c. Any space will be acceptable as this is a hard frozen cargo and relatively
easy to handle and carry.
d. A cargo space low in the vessel as this cargo has a relatively high stowage
factor.
181. A reefer vessel, which is about to carry a palletised cargo, has to have available
sufficient cargo equipment including air bags (dunnage bags), air lines and
valves, cargo slings, wooden dunnage, nails, etc. These items are required to
ensure a quick loading operation and a successful passage. Complete the
following statement from the options given. "Air bags are particularly important
in that ….
a. … they reduce the movement of the pallets and prevent short circuiting
of the air flow."
b. … they are quick and easy to deploy."
c. … they protect the pillars and the vent trunking against damage during
heavy weather."
d. … they secure the pallets against movement during the passage."
a. A situation arises where there is insufficient fruit cargo available to fill a cargo
space. There is a cooler arrangement (cooler/evaporator/brine nest/fans)
positioned at one end of the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the best
method for stowage of the fruit.
a. Start at the end with the cooler arrangement and work away from the
cooler.
b. Start at the opposite end to the cooler arrangement and work towards the
cooler.
c. Start from one side of the space.
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d. Start from the centre of the space and work towards both ends.
182. A situation exists where a cargo of palletised fruit is being loaded to capacity on
a conventional reefer vessel. In order to load all of the available cargo it is
proposed to break down some of the pallets and place the loose cartons on top
of the pallets; there is just enough space to accommodate this below the
deckhead. From the options given which is the most suitable action to take?
a. Reject the plan as the reduced gap at the top of the stow will restrict the
return air flow.
b. Accept the plan in order to carry all of the cargo.
c. Reject the plan as the extra handling will incur greater stevedoring costs.
d. Reject the plan as the charter is to carry only palletised cargo.
183. A standard convention for a 4 deck reefer vessel is to designate the decks A to
D from upper to lower deck. Decks A and B common as are C and D with a gas
tight seal between B and C. Apples are to be carried in decks C and D with
bananas in A and B. Which of the options is the best to avoid the risk of crossover
of temperature and respiration between the two cargoes?
a. Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks C and D.
b. Create a pressure differential with a higher pressure in decks A and B.
c. Run the cargo fans intermittently in one of the spaces.
d. Operate the two spaces at equal pressures as the cargoes are compatible.
a. After discharge of any refrigerated cargo a thorough inspection of the vessel
should be carried out before presenting the vessel for loading the next cargo.
Amongst the reasons for this is to ensure that any traces of or residues from the
previous cargo are removed. This is particularly so if a fruit or meat cargo is to
be loaded after a fish cargo has been carried. Select, from the options given, the
main reason for this requirement.
a. Fish is strong smelling and the odour may contaminate the next cargo.
b. Fish is usually carried frozen and there may be some damage to the
insulation.
c. Fish can be oily and may leave an oily residue in the cargo space.
d. Ventilating with fresh air may only remove the odour temporarily and it
will build up again if residues are present.
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184. Apart from temperature there are few differences between carrying cargoes of
chilled meat, minus 1 degree Celsius, and frozen meat, minus 18 degrees Celsius.
A key difference is that for frozen meat the cooling fans are operated at half
speed or some are switched off whereas for chilled meat the fans are run
constantly at full speed. Select, from the options given, the main reason for this
difference in fan operation.
a. The chilled meat is more sensitive to damage and therefore tighter
temperature control is necessary.
b. The fans may be damaged if they were run at full speed delivering very
cold air to the frozen cargo.
c. Running the fans at full speed would generate too much heat which may
affect the frozen meat.
d. It is an energy saving measure since chilled meat cargoes do not require
as much cold air.
185. In preparing a reefer vessel for loading the next cargo a careful inspection of the
cargo spaces should be carried out. All required maintenance and the repair of
any damage identified during the inspection should be completed prior to
loading. Select, from the options given, the most appropriate action to be taken
when the maintenance and any repairs are completed.
a. Make a detailed record of all maintenance and repairs carried out for
presentation to the supervisor at the loading port as proof that the vessel
is in an acceptable condition for loading the cargo.
b. Keep a record of all the repairs in the planned maintenance schedule.
c. Don't bother recording anything as this type of work is considered
routine.
d. Keep a record of the hours worked as a basis for a claim against the
previous charterers.
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186. On some trades fruit cargoes may be subjected to 'in-transit cold treatment' also
known as cold treatment. From the options given which is the main purpose of
this cold treatment?
a. To maintain a specified minimum temperature for a prescribed time
period to kill off any fruit fly which may be present when loading the
cargo.
b. To ensure that the fruit is carried as cold as possible without damaging
the fruit.
c. To achieve uniform quality of the fruit at discharge.
d. To maintain the temperature of the fruit within very tight tolerances.
187. Reefer vessels form part of the 'cold chain' in the transport of perishable goods
from the producer to the consumer. There are times when hatches have to remain
open in less than perfect conditions, for example strong winds. There are steps
that can be taken however to mitigate the effects of this on cargo that has already
been loaded. Which of the options given could be considered to be the most
important measure to counter the effect of such conditions?
a. Cover the stow with a Tenasco (heavy plastic) sheet where possible to
protect it from the wind.
b. Run the cargo fans continuously during cargo operations.
c. Reduce the air delivery temperature.
d. Refrain from ventilating the cargo with fresh air.
188. With the exception of some citrus fruits and bananas, fruit is usually pre-cooled
to the required carriage temperature prior to loading on a reefer vessel. In order
to protect the cold chain, and to maintain the temperature of the fruit, a minimum
exposure time to ambient conditions during loading is necessary. What action
should the deck officers take during loading to achieve this minimum exposure
time?
a. Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during
any break in cargo operations that exceed 30 minutes.
b. Close the hatches and apply cooling to the cargo already loaded during
any overnight break in cargo operations.
c. Close the hatches for any break in cargo operations that exceed 60
minutes.
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d. Request that the stevedores work faster to minimise loading time.

189. A Standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 18mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft direction
and lashed by belts of SWL 2mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts
should be used to secure the unit?
a. 9 on each side
b. 11 on each side
c. 11 on each side
d. one fore every securing point on the unit
190. A standard Ro-Ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded fore and aft and lashed by
belts of SWL 0.6mt. Using the general rule How many lashing belts should be
used to secure the unit?
a. 4 on each side
b. 4 in total
c. 4 in total
d. 10 in total
191. On a RoRo vessel, a ro-ro unit weighing 2mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft
direction and lashed by belts of SWL 0.6mt. How many lashing belts should be
used to secure the unit?
a. 4 on each side
b. 4 in total
c. 4 in total
d. 10 in total
192. On a RoRo vessel, a vehicle weighing 50mt is to be loaded in the fore and aft
direction and lashed by chains/turnbuckles of SWL 5mt. By the general Rule
How many sets of chains/turnbuckles should be used to secure the unit?
a. At least 10 per side
b. At least 10 in total
c. At least 10 in total
d. at least 15 per side
193. On a RoRo vessel, how often should a dangerous goods stowage plan be
produced
a. Every time you load a dangerous cargo
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b. every time you load any cargo

c. every time you load any cargo
d. you only ever produce one
194. On a RoRo vessel, if the vessel is loaded by stevedores, who is responsible for
the lashing of the cargo
a. The vessel is responsible for cargo as soon as
it crosses the ramp including its securing
b. the Stevedores who loaded the ship
c. the Stevedores who loaded the ship
d. the cargo owners
195. On a RoRo vessel, what dangers are associated with using a steep loading ramp?
a. The ends of ro-ro units can be damaged
b. The ramp's hoisting wires can be damaged
c. It will not be possible to drive vehicles off
the ramp
d. The ramp may slide off the pier
196. On a RoRo vessel, what instruction should be given to the crew about unlashing
of cargo prior to arrival at the berth
a. This can only be done when the bridge gives
permission and no unit stowed on a ramp or
incline can be unlashed. Provided the
company allow it.
b. The crew can start unlashing without the
permission from the bridge
c. The crew can start unlashing without the
permission from the bridge
d. You can remove half the lashings on any unit when the bridge give
permission
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197. On a RoRo vessel, what must be considered when planning the loading of ro-ro
cargoes on ramps?
a. SWL and loading limit of the ramp and
Minimum clearances for the operation of
ramp doors
b. The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope
c. The extent of lashings due to the ramp slope
d. Cargo volumes
198. On a RoRo vessel, what must be ensured onboard the vessel prior to
commencing cargo?
a. Cargo hold ventilation systems are operational
b. That all cargo is ready for loading
c. That all cargo is ready for loading
d. That the vessel has been cleared by immigration
199. On a RoRo vessel, what standing instruction should be given to prevent a
blackout on board?
a. Check with the duty engineer before
switching on motors, fans or other machinery
b. Check with the duty engineer before
correcting the vessel's list
c. Switch off lights in idle cargo holds
d. Use the minimum number of deck lights at
night
200. On a RoRo vessel, what standing instruction should be given to protect the
Ramps when loading ro-ro units?
a. Units whose weights exceed the ramp load
density/SWL must not be loaded
b. Damaged units should be rejected for
loading
c. Damaged units should be rejected for
loading
d. All ro-ro units must be thoroughly checked for damage prior to the
loading ramp
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201. On a RoRo vessel, what stowage factors should be taken into account when
planning the loading of cars?
a. The longitudinal and athwartship distances
between the cars
b. Cargo dimensions
c. Cargo volumes
d. Cargo characteristics
202. On a RoRo vessel, which of the following is not required in the pre-stowage
plan?
a. Checking communications equipment
b. The operation of gas-tight and watertight doors
c. Assigning crew duties
d. Stowage and securing of specialised cargoes
203. On a RoRo vessel, which of the ships trading certificates details the type and
location that dangerous goods are allowed to be stowed onboard
a. Certificate of compliance for the carriage of Dangerous goods
b. Safety Equipment certificate
c. Safety Equipment certificate
d. The Cargo Ship Safety construction certificate
204. On a RoRo vessel, which of these situations will result in an emergency
shutdown of cargo operations?
a. Any of the listed situations
b. Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system
c. Failure of the cargo hold ventilation system
d. The vessel developing a sudden and
unexpected list
205. On a RoRo vessel, which regulations require supervising the embarkation of
persons on board ship?
a. The International Ship and Port Facility Security (ISPS) Code
b. The Safety Of Life At Sea (SOLAS) Convention
c. Standards of Training Certification and Watch-keeping (STCW) Code
d. International Labour Organization (ILO) standards
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206. Under SOLAS, what are the minimum required air changes per hour for 'Special
Category Spaces' on a RoRo vessel,?
a. 10
b. 20
c. 15
d. 8
207. What must not be obstructed when planning the loading of ro-ro cargoes?
a. Access to fire-fighting equipment
b. Fixed cargo lashing points
c. Ships' bracket connections to the deck
d. In-built non-skid bars
208. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential

for harm or damage. Risk is determined based on evaluation of two elements.
Which two elements?
a. The likelihood that a hazard
may occur and the
consequences of the hazardous
event
b. The likelihood that a hazard
may occur and the financial
consequences for the Company
c. The likelihood that a hazard
may occur and the available personal protective equipment we have
onboard
d. The consequences of the hazardous event and the available personal
protective equipment we have onboard
209. How can the Master ensure that all cargo loading doors, bow visors, weathertight
ramps etc. are locked and secured before the ship proceeds on any voyage?
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a. By having an effective system

of supervision and reporting of
the closing and opening of
doors. Time of closing and
opening of doors shall be
entered in the log-book.
b. By having experinced officers
and crew to supervise the
closing and opening of doors. Time of closing and opening of doors shall
be entered in the log-book.
c. Automatic systems will alarm you if the doors are not properly secured.
d. The bosun is always responsible to check the watertight integrity before
the ship proceeds on any voyage.
210. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested?

a. Every week
b. Every day
c. Every year
d. Every second year
211. How often shall abandon ship- and fire drills take place onboard ro-ro passenger
vessels?
a. Weekly
b. Bi-weekly
c. Monthly
d. At least two abandon ship drills and one fire drill every
month
212. How often shall drills for the operation of watertight doors, side scuttles, valves
and closing mechanism of scuppers, ash-chutes and rubbish chutes take place in
passenger ships?
a. Weekly
b. Daily
c. Every two weeks
d. Every month
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213. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?

a. In a separate locker. The locker
shall be clearly marked, locked
and ventilated.
b. In a locker preferably on boat
deck. The locker shall be clearly
marked.
c. In the central store or in the engine room
d. In a gas-tight locker close to the bridge
214. On most ro-ro passenger ships there is no requirement to carry out drills with the
passengers. What is the most effective ways of informing embarking passengers
about the emergency procedures?
a. Information on boarding cards,
public announcement on
departure, posters in public
areas and cabins, safety video
running continuously
b. Posters in public areas and
cabins, safety video running
continuously
c. Safety video and folders in tax
free shops
d. Information from the crew
215. Personnel on board ro-ro passenger vessels must undergo training courses
before they can be part of the safe manning and assigned to emergency duties on
board. What is minimum training requirement for all personnel?
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a. Basic Safety Training Course

and Crowd & Crisis
Management Training Course
b. Basic Safety Training Course
and Company Specific
Familiarisation Course
c. Basic Safety Training Corse
d. No Training Course is required
as long as the personnel have relevant experience
216. The International Convention for the Prevention of Pollution from Ships
(MARPOL) covers detailed regulations to prevent various sources of ship
generated pollution. Annex I - VI deals with regulations for the prevention/
control of pollution from:
a. Harmful Substances in
Packaged Form, Sewage, Air
Pollution, Garbage, Oil and
Noxious Liquid Substances in
Bulk
b. Oil, Noxious Liquid Substances
in Bulk, Harmful Substances in
Packaged Form, Sewage,
Garbage and Ballast Water
c. Proper Pollution Prevention Training
d. All Harmful Substances we have onboard
217. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?
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DPKP
a. All persons on board shall be

counted and details of persons
special care or assistance in
emergency situations shall be
recorded and communicated to
the Master
b. Details and number of persons
special care or assistance in emergency situations shall be recorded and
communicated to the Master
c. It is sufficient to count the number of passengers prior to departure
d. The safety officer shall count the number of passengers
218. What is important to prepare prior to a helicopter operation?
a. Make sure all loose deck equipment at
helicopter deck is stowed away and
secured.
b. To light up the area for pick-up
c. To increase the speed of the vessel
d. To stop the vessel completely
219. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?

a. To provide all personnel
including emergency personnel
with procedures for handling or
working with that substance in a
safe manner
b. To provide personnel in deck-
and engine department with
procedures for handling or
working with that substance in a
safe manner
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DPKP
c. To provide the safety officer with procedures for handling or working

with that substance in a safe manner
d. To determine if the substance is flammable or not
220. What necessary precautions should be taken before entering a tank or an
enclosed space?
a. Make sure that the tank/
enclosed space is gas free,
ventilated and the oxygen
content is measured. O2 content
shall be 21% before entering the
tank/ enclosed space
b. Use a breathing apparatus if the
oxygen level is below 21%
c. Remember to have a colleague
standing by to assist you if any problems
d. Bring a flashlight and put on safety shoes
221. Which international convention deals with maritime safety and safety equipment
onboard ro-ro passenger vessels?
a. SOLAS
b. MARPOL
c. STCW
d. ISM
222. Who is responsible to ensure that all personnel on board are provided with
suitable Personal Protective Equipment where it is
needed?
a. The Company/ employer
b. The Master
c. The safety officer
d. The Head Department
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DPKP
223. You are burning garbage containing plastics. What shall you do with the ashes
from the vessel's incinerator?
a. Discharge the ashes to a shore
facility
b. Discharge the ashes at sea
providing you are more than 25
nautical miles offshore
c. Discharge at sea providing you
are not in any river or estuary
d. Nothing, ashes from any substance which is incinerated can be
discharged over board
224. A bulk vessel loads a full cargo to summer marks of a high density bulk cargo
such as iron ore concentrate; what would be the possible stability conditions
produced?
a. The vessel will normally have a
large intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a fast roll period
b. The vessel will normally have a
small intact metacentric height
(GM) and have a slow roll
period
c. The vessel will be tender and
have a poor curve of righting levers.
d. The vessel may have a list
225. A cargo hatch cover seal on a Bulk Carrier is known to be damaged and not
weather tight prior to sailing; what is the legal significance of this situation?
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DPKP
a. The vessel may well be judged

to be un-seaworthy; this could
invalidate some certification
and hull and machinery
insurance
b. There are no legal concerns over
this
c. The vessel is still seaworthy but
repairs must be carried out at next port
d. The vessel may have its classification affected
226. Before a solid bulk cargo is loaded, the Master and shore representative must
agree a loading plan which covers which of the following aspects?
a. All of the items specified in the possible answers
b. Maximum permissible forces and moments on the ship
c. Quantity and rate of loading the cargo
d. Sequence of loading
227. How are cargoes on self-unloading bulk carriers fed to the vessel's conveyor
belts during discharge?
a. Via hydraulically-operated
hopper gates at the bottom of
each hold
b. Via mechanically-operated
each hold
c. By gravity through mechanical
each hold
d. Via remote-controlled hopper gates at the bottom of each hold
228. The high level water ingress alarm in number 1 hold of a Bulk Carrier activates
in bad weather at sea; what would be the actions of a prudent Master?
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DPKP
a. Sound general alarm, muster

ships crew and transmit a
Mayday call and message.
b. Investigate when the weather
improves
c. The alarms could be faulty and
should be ignored
d. Assess all spaces for signs of
damage if weather conditions permit
229. Under international regulations for a Bulk Carrier, who needs to be trained in the
use of oxygen analysis and gas detection equipment?
a. The ship's crew
b. The master
c. The master and chief engineer
d. All cargo watch-keeping officers
230. What does the IMSBC Code emphasise with reference to the exposure of
personal to the dust created when carrying some bulk cargoes?
a. A high standard of personal hygiene
b. The restricted loading of certain cargoes which may be
excessively dusty
c. The code does not make any reference to this hazard
d. The responsibility of the Master to ensure that staff are wearing the
correct clothing
231. What extent of hatch cover spares should be available on board a Bulk Carrier
at all times?
a. Specimen fittings shown in the
hatch cover manufacturer's
manual
b. Rubber packing and hatch cleat
washers for one panel section
c. Rubber packing and hatch cleat
washers for two panel sections
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DPKP
d. Rubber packing hatch cleat washers and glue for two panel sections
232. What height of water above the inner bottom will activate the cargo hold high
level alarm on a Bulk Carrier
a. Any height above 2.0m
b. Any more than 2.2m
c. Any more than 2.5m
d. Any more than 2.8m
233. What is the maximum period between the sampling/testing of the moisture
content of a solid bulk cargo and the loading of that cargo into a bulk carrier?
a. A maximum for seven (7) days,
when there has been no change
in the moisture content due to
rain or snow
b. It must always be conducted
immediately before loading
c. A test is not required each time
of loading
d. Testing must be carried out on a random sampling basis.
234. What must be specified when ordering gas detection equipment when used in
association with bulk carriers?
a. That the instrument is suited for its purpose of application
b. That the instrument complies with international regulations
c. That the instrument can measure flammable atmospheres
d. That the instrument can measure methane and hydrogen when used in
low-oxygen atmospheres
235. What specific data must be displayed on the loading instruments carried on bulk
carriers of 150m or more in length?
a. The shear forces exerted on the hull structure
associated with the entered loaded weight distribution
b. The segregation requirements of the cargoes carried.
c. The ultimate strength of main deck plating
d. The permeability of the cargo carried in the cargo holds
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DPKP
236. Where are cargo hold water level detectors required to be fitted on bulk carriers?
a. At the after end of each cargo hold
b. At the forward end of each cargo hold
c. In cargo hold bilges
d. At the port and starboard midship sections of each cargo hold
237. Which of the following is a warning sign of a faulty hydraulic hatch cover system
on a Bulk Carrier?
a. A fall in the hydraulic header
tank level
b. The presence of dust and cargo
particles around the piston gland
c. Noisy hatch cover operations
d. Dry greasing points
238. Who needs to be trained in the use of oxygen analysis and gas detection
equipment?
a. The entire ship's crew
b. The Master
c. The Master and Chief Engineer
d. Cargo watch-keeping officers
239. Why do bulk cargo carriers need to carry oxygen analysis and gas detection
equipment?
a. Because of enclosed or confined space entry
requirements
b. Because it is good practice to have this equipment on
board
c. Because the equipment is required under the
International Maritime Solid Bulk Cargoes (IMSBC)
Code
d. Because the equipment is required under MARPOL
240. Why do the cargo holds of a self-unloading bulk carrier have a "W" shaped cross
section?
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DPKP
a. So that during discharge the

cargo will automatically fall
onto the underlying conveyor
belts
b. So that cargoes are self-
trimming during loading
c. To make it easier for cargo to be
discharged by grabs
d. To reduce the extent of tank top damages when discharging cargo
241. A vessel has lost several containers overboard during a voyage. Upon arrival
into port, she is being inspected by the attending surveyors. The most important
item to be checked during this inspection would be:
a. Certificates of approval related
to lashing equipment used to
secure those containers.
b. The vessel's Safety
Construction certificate.
c. The vessel's Class certificate.
d. The on-board cargo lashing inventory.
242. An inspection in the amidships area of the weather deck of a Panamax
container vessel has revealed cracks in the hatch coamings. It is extremely
important to urgently inspect the:
a. Longitudinals in the double bottom tanks in the amidships half length
of the vessel.
b. Stiffening in the forepeak tank at approximately water line level.
c. Transverse bulkhead beneath the bridge front.
d. Transverse bulkhead immediately aft of the engine room.
243. For a ships loading computer to be safely used for loading planning and stress
calculations, it must be approved by:
e. A Classif ication Society.
f. IT Department of Ship owner.
g. Hull and Machinery Insurers of the vessel.
h. The Port State where vessel is currently loading.
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DPKP
244. On a container vessel, flexitanks are used for:

a. The carriage of non-hazardous
liquids, in bulk.
b. The carriage of hazardous
liquids, in bulk.
c. The carriage of liquid cargoes
that do not have a Proper
Shipping Name.
d. The carriage of liquid cargoes of a particular specific gravity.
245. Racking forces imposed on a container would likely cause the greatest
deflection to:
a. The door end of the container.
b. The closed end of the container.
c. The base of the container.
d. The corner posts of the container.
246. Shock loads in a container lashing system are generally caused by:
a. Loose cargo lashings.
b. Resonant rolling.
c. Ship vibrations.
d. Ship torsion.
247. The correct weight of a wrongly declared container may be best indicated by:
a. Strain gauges fitted to the shore
gantry cranes.
b. The container CSC plate.
c. The tare weight stamped on the
container.
d. The ship's loading computer.
248. The most appropriate way of dealing with twist-locks suffering from excessive
wear and tear is to:
e. Isolate them from use and dispose them appropriately.
f. Repair them in the ships workshop, and then re-use.
g. Land them ashore for repair.
h. Get them surveyed by Class prior re-use.
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DPKP
249. The most dangerous consequence of the corrosion and wear down of container
stools on weather deck/hatch tops of a container vessel would be:
a. Collapse of the deck stool, leading to lashings becoming slack.
b. Uneven loading of the container on the deck.
c. Twist locks not being able to be fully closed.
d. Twist locks not being able to be removed after discharge.
250. The most effective method of dealing with an under-deck cargo space fire on
board a container ship, is to:
a. Deploy the fixed firefighting system.
b. Tackle the fire locally with fire hoses.
c. Turn the vessel off the wind to reduce the relative wind strength.
d. Boundary cool the cargo hold from the deck.
251. The most important function of a buttress fitting on a container vessel is:
a. To transfer forces from the
container stow to the ships
structure.
b. To maintain a uniform level
stow across the tier of
containers.
c. To avoid excess load placed on
the tank top.
d. To ensure an even distribution of weight throughout the stack.
252. What contributes to wear-down of twistlocks on a container vessel?
a. The continuous action of longitudinal
forces.
b. Careless handling by stevedores.
c. Improper greasing procedures.
d. Continuous use with containers
exceeding 40' in length.
253. What items of container securing equipment must be used in conjunction with
buttresses?
a. Double stacking cones or link plates.
b. Twistlocks.
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DPKP
c. Single stacking cones.

d. Single stacking cones and bridge fittings.
254. When planning the loading of containers, the planning officer must refer to:
a. The Cargo Securing Manual (CSM).
b. The Safety of Life at Sea Convention (SOLAS).
c. The Cargo Stowage and Security (CSS) Code.
d. MARPOL 73/78 Annex IV.
255. "Passivation" is a restorative process periodically applied to stainless steel tanks

on a chemical tanker. What effect does this process have on the steel surface?
a. It restores and reforms the
passive Chromium Hydroxide
surface layer.
b. It restricts active corrosion on
the surface steel.
c. It restores the surface steel to an
even and smooth finish, thereby
encouraging drainage during
discharge.
d. It causes a chemical reaction, which produces a new inert Chromium
Oxide layer on the surface of the steel.
256. A cargo pumproom or other enclosed space which contains cargo handling
equipment on a chemical tanker shall be fitted with a mechanical ventilation
system, capable of being controlled from outside the space. What is the
minimum number of atmosphere changes per hour, based on the total volume of
the space, that such a system must deliver?
a. Not less than 30 changes per hour.
b. Not less than 10 changes per hour.
c. If the ventilation is permanent, it shall deliver at least 20 changes per
hour; if it involves part recirculation, then it shall deliver at least 30
changes per hour.
d. There is no specified minimum number of changes, provided it is running
continuously throughout any cargo operation.
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DPKP
257. Basic manual dew point measurement devices are commonly used by surveyors
when monitoring the dryness of a cargo tank prior to loading a liquid chemical
product. Which of the descriptions below is a summary of how the measurement
is carried out?
a. A small quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is
progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample
of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device,
passing over the polished or mirrored surface of the container. When the
first drop of mositure (dew) is observed to form on the polished surface,
the temperature of the Acetone bath is noted. Reference may be required
to tables to correct the reading for desired parameters.
b. A quantity of Acetone is placed into the device and dry-ice is
progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample
of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously pumped through the liquid.
Bubbles will be seen to reach the surface of the bath until the dew point
is reached. When the flow of bubbles ceases, the temperature of the
Acetone is noted. Reference may be required to tables to correct the
reading for desired parameters.
c. A small quantity of dry-ice is placed into the device, submerged in
deionized water. A sample of the atmosphere in the tank is continuously
drawn through the device, passing across a reagent filter. When the dew
point is reached, this reagent filter will change colour from white to
green, indicating saturation. The temperature of the deionized water is
noted at this time and corresponds to the dew point. Reference to
correction tables is required to correct the reading for barometric
pressure.
d. A small quantity of Methanol is placed into the device and dry-ice is
progressively added to it to steadily reduce the temperature. A sample of
the atmosphere in the tank is continuously drawn through the device,
passing over the surface of the Methanol. When the first signs of
evaporation are observed (smoke rising from the surface), the
temperature of the Methanol is noted. Reference may be required to
tables to correct the reading for calculation purposes.
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DPKP
258. Chemical tankers of 20,000 tonnes DWT or above, with a keel laid on or after
1st July 1986, when carrying flammable products with a flashpoint not
exceeding 60 degrees Celsius, such as those listed in chapters 17 and 18 of the
International Bulk Chemical Code, are exempt from the requirement to be fitted
with and use an inert gas plant provided certain conditions are met. Which of
the following is a summary of those conditions?
a. The cargo tank does not exceed 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle does not exceed 17.5 cubic metres per hour
delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing
machines does not exceed 110 cubic metres per hour.
b. The cargo tank is greater than 3000 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle is capable of delivering a minimum of 17.5
cubic metres per hour / the total wash water input to the tank from all
tank washing machines must be at least 110 cubic metres per hour.
c. The cargo tank does not exceed 1250 cubic metres capacity / each tank
washing machine nozzle does not exceed 12.5 cubic metres per hour
delivery rate / the total wash water input to the tank from all tank washing
machines does not exceed 90 cubic metres per hour.
d. The cargo tank is greater than 1250 cubic metres capacity / the number
of tank washing machines in use at any one time must be such that no
more than 17.5 cubic metres per hour is delivered / the minimum quantity
of wash water delivered in the washing operation must be greater than
110 cubic metres.
259. High level and high-high level alarms must be tested at the tank for proper
operation within 24 hours of the start of cargo transfer on a chemical tanker.
What acceptable alternative is there to this requirement?
a. That a function test is carried out by means of an automatic self-test and
circuit monitoring facility within the alarm system.
b. There is no alternative to this requirement. The test must be conducted
at the tank location and the audible and visual alrams sighted. The results
must be logged accordingly.
c. That a function test is carried out on completion of cleaning operations
following discharge.
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d. That a programme of maintenance, including selective function tests,

exists within the vessel's Planned maintenance System, provided all such
level alarms are tested at least once within a period of three months.
260. How would you determine whether a particular cargo transfer hose was
compatible with the chemical product to be transferred?
a. Refer to the product entry in the hose manufacturer's chemical resistance
chart.
b. Check the product classification mark stamped on the flange collar of the
hose.
c. Check the colour of the hose against the general classification code in the
IBC Code.
d. There will be no need to check. If the hose has been supplied to a
chemical tanker, it will have been certified for the transfer of all chemical
products.
261. If your chemical tanker is equipped with high velocity venting valves, at what
minimum height above the weather deck or catwalk should they be installed?
a. 3 metres
b. 2.5 metres
c. 4.5 metres
d. 6 metres
262. In a typical shipboard de-humidifier plant as may be found on a modern chemical
tanker, operating on a "rotating bed" principle, what names are given to the two
parts of the rotating bed?
a. The "process sector" and the "reactivation sector".
b. The "inbound sector" and "outbound sector".
c. The "active sector" and the "dormant sector".
d. The "live sector" and the "reserve sector".
263. The IBC Code prescribes certain design conditions for a cargo heating or cooling
system fitted to a chemical tanker. What does it require in respect of pressure
within such a system, for any condition other than when it is empty?
a. That a higher pressure can be maintained within the system than the
maximum pressure head that could be exerted by the contents of the
cargo tank on that system.
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b. That a lower pressure will be maintained within the system than the
actual pressure head that is being exerted by the contents of the cargo
tank on that system.
c. That the system must be fitted with automatic control valves that will
maintain the inlet pressure at not less than 0.2 bar above the return
pressure.
d. That an automatic alarm is fitted to alert the operator when the pressure
within the system drops to within 0.2 bar of the pressure measured at the
lowest located cargo pressure sensor within the tank.
264. The specified maximum working pressure of a cargo hose in service on a
chemical tanker should be at least which of the following?
a. 10 bar gauge.
b. 12 bar gauge.
c. 5 bar gauge.
d. 1/3 design burst pressure.
265. To what pressure will a new length of cargo hose be tested by a manufacturer
prior to its supply to a vessel for service onboard a chemical tanker?
a. Not less than one and a half times its specified maximum working
pressure, but not more than two-fifths of its bursting pressure.
b. Not more than one and a half times its specified maximum working
pressure, but not less than two-fifths of its bursting pressure.
c. Not less than one and a half times its nominal bursting pressure, but not
more than four-fifths of its specified maximum working pressure.
d. 2 times its designed working pressure, but not more than three-fifths of
its nominal bursting pressure.
266. What temperature defines "hot" water in the context of tank washing on a
chemical tanker?
a. At least 60 degrees Celsius.
b. At least 70 degrees Celsius.
c. At least 40 degrees Celsius.
d. A minimum of 10 degrees Celsius above the discharge temperature of
the cargo.
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DPKP
267. When a submerged centrifugal cargo pump is being run at too high a speed
during discharge of a viscous chemical cargo, the pump may start racing, causing
a heat build-up around the suction, possible localised solidification of the cargo
and consequent damage to the pump. What term is applied to this problem?
a. Cavitation.
b. Gravitation.
c. Aggregation.
d. Synthesis.
268. Which of the following is a summary of the features of a "controlled tank venting
system" as may be found on a chemical tanker?
a. PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum in the tank; no shut-
off valves may be fitted either above or below the PV valves; provision
may be made to by-pass the PV valves under certain operating
conditions; such a system shall consist of a primary and secondary
means of allowing full flow of vapour, except that the secondary system
may be replaced by pressure sensors fitted within the tank.
b. PV valves are fitted to limit the pressure or vacuum within the tank; the
PV valves shall be capable of being isolated or by-passed; the system
shall be supplemented by pressure sensors within the cargo tank.
c. The system permits vapour recovery via a collection manifold which may
be connected to a shore reception facility.
d. The system is fitted to a tank used for cargoes having a flash point not
exceeding 60 degrees Celsius and is fitted with a device to prevent the
passage of flame into the cargo tank.
269. You are carrying a bulk cargo of Phosphoric Acid. Which components of the
cargo pumps may be damaged as a result of discharging this particular cargo and
why?
a. The cargo seals may be damaged from the abbrasive effect of any
sediment.
b. The outer casing may be corroded by the unstable impurities within the
acid.
c. The impeller veins may be damaged as a result of the relatively high
density of the cargo if the pumps are run at too high a speed.
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DPKP
The valves in the associated piping may be distorted by pressure surges created by
cavitation as the acid is discharged
270. A five yearly thorough survey of cargo gear on a General Cargo vessel should
be carried out by:
a. A classification society surveyor.
b. The master.
c. A deck officer designated by the master.
d. A marine surveyor appointed by the company.
271. A General Cargo vessel has a 50 tonne SWL heavy lift derrick and a load of 48
tonnes is to be loaded. The lifting gear of slings and spreader bar weighs 4
tonnes. In this case, it would be correct to state that:
a. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and
the lifting gear will exceed the SWL by two tonnes.
b. The load can be loaded because the load itself is less than the SWL of the
derrick.
c. The load can be loaded because the SWL can sometimes be exceeded
by small amounts in cargo operations, since the Breaking Load of the
slings is much higher.
d. The load cannot be loaded because the combined weight of the load and
the lifting gear must be at least 10% less than the SWL of the derrick.
272. During a pre-loading survey on board a General Cargo ship, the most efficient
method of testing the weather tightness of the hatch covers is considered to be:
a. Ultra sonic test.
b. Chalk test.
c. Visual inspection.
d. Hose test.
273. During cargo watch on a General Cargo ship, if the OOW informs you that the
condition of the discharge equipment such as slings and shackles being used by
the stevedores is unsuitable for use, you should:
a. Inform stevedores of concern and protest by letter.
b. Continue discharge as planned and inform Designated Person
Ashore(DPA).
c. Refuse to discharge and inform the local agents.
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d. Provide ships equipment to discharge.
274. Information about the maximum point loading in cargo holds and on decks of a
General Cargo Vessel may be obtained from:
a. Ships Capacity plan.
b. General Arrangement plan.
c. Docking plan.
d. Planned maintenance schedules.
275. On a general cargo ship, operating the heavy lift derricks with the boom close to
horizontal could result in:
e. Excessive stresses acting on parts of the derrick system.
f. The operator having a restricted view of the lifting operation.
g. Sudden loss of stability of the vessel.
h. Damage to the cargo by ship structures.
276. On a General Cargo ship, the most likely cause of a hatch cover hydraulic system
to deteriorate would be:
a. Due to dust and cargo particles lodged around the piston seals.
b. Due to repeated hatch cover operations.
c. Due to hatch cover operations in high summer temperatures.
d. Due to ice accretion on piston jackets.
277. On a General Cargo vessel, a 16T derrick should be tested to a proof load of:
a. 20T
b. 18T
c. 22T
d. 24T
278. Prior to loading cotton on a General Cargo vessel, it is important to ensure that:
a. The cargo hold fire-fighting system is thoroughly examined.
b. The holds are inspected for signs of previous cargo residues.
c. Tank tops should be sheathed.
d. The cargo hold ventilation system is thoroughly examined.
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DPKP
279. Prior to loading general cargo on a General Cargo vessel, with regard to lashing
wires, terminations, shackles, turnbuckles, pad eyes and D rings etc., you must
make sure that:
a. They must all be certified and be
visually inspected for any apparent
damage.
b. They must all be visually inspected.
c. They must all be certified.
d. Lashing wires must be new whereas
other accessories may be certified.
280. Proper guidance on the stowage and securing of general cargo may be obtained
by referring to:
a. IMO Code of practice for
stowage and securing of
cargoes.
b. IMO Code of Practice for Bulk
and General Cargoes.
c. International Load Line
Regulations.
d. IMO Code of Practice for maintaining stowage safety on cargo ships.
281. The lifting plant on a General Cargo vessel be proof load tested:
e. When equipment is new, every five years and after repairs or major
modifications.
f. Only after initial installation of equipment.
g. Only when major repairs have been carried out to the equipment.
h. Every four years and after major repairs and modifications.
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DPKP
282. The main purpose of a hatch cover ventilator grill on a General Cargo vessel is:
a. To prevent sparks entering the
cargo hold.
b. To prevent the ventilator fans
from damage.
c. To prevent moisture from
entering the hold.
d. To act as a strength member
inside the ventilation shaft.
283. The ship’s lifting plant must be proof load tested and all parts thoroughly
examined at intervals not exceeding:
a. 5 years
b. 3 years
c. 1 year
d. 6 months
284. When general cargo is damaged during heavy weather on a General Cargo
vessel, it must be ensured that the damage is inspected by the:
a. Surveyor representing the vessel's P. & I.
Club.
b. Class surveyor.
c. Surveyor representing the vessel's hull &
machinery underwriters.
d. Surveyor representing the consignee.
285. According to "Summary of minimum requirements" in the IGC Code, what is

the requirement for vapour detection for methane (LNG) cargoes?
a. Flammable vapour detection.
b. Toxic vapour detection.
c. Flammable and toxic detection.
d. Oxygen analyser.
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DPKP
286. According to the IMO Gas Code, what is the requirement for the number of sets
of portable gas detection equipment that must be carried onboard an LNG
carrier?
a. There must be at least two sets.
b. There must be at least one set.
c. Sets of portable gas detection
equipment are only required to
be carried when there is no fixed
installation.
d. It is only necessary to carry a
portable oxygen analyser.
287. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what are the maximum time intervals for
sampling and analysing samples from the permanent installed gas detection
system on a LNG carrier?
a. 30 minutes.
b. 20 minutes.
c. 45 minutes.
d. 10 minutes.
288. According to the IMO Gas Codes, what is the required number of temperature
indicating devices in the cargo tanks of an LNG carrier?
a. At least two devices in each tank.
b. At least three devices in each tank.
One placed at the bottom of the
tank, one in the middle of the tank
and one near the top of the tank.
c. One device in each tank.
d. There is no requirement for the
number of devices.
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289. Gas carrier type A and B cargo tanks have a MARVS of less than 0.7 barg? What
is the liquid and vapour connection shut off valve requirement for this type of
tank according to the IMO gas codes?
a. Single shut-off valves with manual
closing facility.
b. Double remote operated shut off
valves.
c. One manually operated globe valve
and one remotely operated valve.
d. Double butterfly valves fitted in series.
290. LNG tankers are often fitted with fixed water spray system for fire protection
purposes for deck areas, deck tanks, deck manifolds and pipelines. What is the
minimum required flow rate of water per minute for horizontal and vertical
surfaces to ensure adequate, uniform coverage of these areas?
a. 10 litre/m2 per minute for
horizontal surfaces and 4
litre/m2 per minute for vertical
surfaces.
b. 20 litre/m2 per minute for
horizontal surfaces and 10
litre/m2 per minute for vertical
surfaces.
c. 100 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 50 litre/m2 per
minute for vertical surfaces.
d. 50 litre/m2 per minute for horizontal surfaces and 25 litre/m2 per minute
for vertical surfaces.
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291. Select, from the options given, the one that best describes a requirement of the
remotely controlled valves fitted in the ESD (Emergency Shut-Down) systems
on an LNG carrier?
a. They must be fail-safe.
b. They must be pneumatically operated.
c. They must be hydraulically operated.
d. They must be electrically operated.
292. Some LNG carriers are fitted with a water glycol system for heating the
cofferdam spaces next to cargo tanks when the vessel is loaded. What is the
purpose of this heating system?
a. To maintain the temperature
inside the space above 5 degrees
C to protect the steel.
b. To maintain the temperature
inside the space at
approximately 25 degrees C to
prevent the fuel tanks from
cooling down too much.
c. To maintain the temperature inside the space at approximately 15 degrees
C to protect the insulation.
d. To maintain the temperature inside the space at below minus 5 degrees
C to reduce cargo vaporisation.
293. What is the minimum requirement with respect to pressure relief valves on the
cargo tanks of an LNG carrier where the individual tanks are over 20 cubic
metres capacity?
a. Two valves.
b. One valve.
c. Three valves.
d. There is no such requirement.
294. What is the preferred method of accommodating expansion in cargo pipeline
systems on LNG carriers?
a. Use expansion loops.
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b. Use sliding couplings.

c. Use expansion bellows.
d. Use Viking Johnson expansion couplings.
295. What is the purpose of the "forcing vaporizer" found in some LNG carrier cargo
plants?
a. To provide gas for burning in the boiler.
b. To displace inert gas from cargo tanks.
c. For initial heating in the insulating spaces.
d. To discharge cargo without a vapour return from shore.
296. When LNG is used as fuel a double wall piping system must be used in the
engine room. What condition should the annular space between the concentric
pipes be maintained in when the fuel system is in service?
a. Filled with nitrogen at a pressure
greater than the LNG fuel pressure.
b. Filled with nitrogen at a pressure less
than the LNG fuel pressure.
c. Filled with nitrogen at a partial
vacuum.
d. Maintained at a full vacuum.
297. Which kind of cargo pumps are the most commonly used in cargo systems for
LNG carriers?
a. Submerged electric motor pumps.
b. Hydraulic driven submerged pumps.
c. Electric driven screw pumps.
d. Hydraulic driven screw pumps.
298. Which line can be utilized to prevent line surge when starting the main pumps
of a LNG carrier's cargo system?
a. The condensate spray line.
b. The inert gas line.
c. The vent line.
d. The aeration pipes.
299. Which of the following insulation materials that are used in the cargo
containment systems for LNG carriers has the highest diffusion resistance?
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a. Polyurethane foam.
b. Balsa wood.
c. Perlite.
d. Mineral wool.
300. A chlorine carrier must be equipped with a chlorine absorption plant connected
to the cargo tanks and cargo lines. This requirement includes the provision of
gas detectors for the spaces and areas around the cargo containment system and
the absorption plant outlet. What is the recommended setting for the visual and
audible alarms of the gas detectors?
a. 5 ppm.
b. 10 ppm.
c. 15 ppm.
d. 20 ppm.
301. Cargo heaters are frequently used when discharging refrigerated LPG cargoes
into pressurised shore tanks. What would be a typical "heating range" required
from a heater for discharge of fully refrigerated propane?
a. From - 45 C to - 5 C.
b. From - 55 C to - 15 C.
c. From - 35 C to + 5 C.
d. From -25 C to +15 C.
302. Cargo hoses intended for liquefied gas carriers have to be prototyped tested
before being approved. When new hoses of an already approved type are
received onboard they also need to be pressure tested before being put into
service. What are the IMO Gas Code requirements for such hoses before they
are put into service?
a. Not less than 1.5 times the
specified maximum working
pressure or more than two fifths
of bursting pressure at ambient
temperature.
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b. Not less than 1.5 times the specified maximum working pressure or more
than two fifths of bursting pressure at the expected cargo carriage
temperature.
c. 5 times the specified maximum working pressure at ambient temperature.
d. 5 times the specified maximum working pressure at expected cargo
carriage temperature.
303. LPG carriers rely heavily on the compressors fitted as part of the reliquefaction
plant. Screw and reciprocating types are widely used. Which type of
reciprocating compressor is most common as a cargo compressor?
a. Double acting, single stage, oil
free compressor.
b. Double acting, single stage, oil
lubricated piston compressor.
c. Single acting, single stage, oil
free piston compressor.
d. Double acting, two stage, oil free compressor.
304. Most reliquefaction plants on LPG carriers use a direct cooling system. Which
of the statements given in the options best describes a direct cooling cycle?
a. Cargo vapours are drawn off by a compressor, compressed, condensed
than passed through an expansion valve back to the tank.
b. Cargo liquid is pumped to a condenser where it is cooled by seawater and
then passed through an expansion valve back to the cargo tank.
c. Refrigerant gas is passed through a cooling coil in the cargo tank vapour
space which cools the cargo vapour below the dew point turning it back
into liquid cargo.
d. All direct cooling systems require a refrigerant gas cooled vapour
condenser so that the lowest possible temperature is achieved to change
the vapour back to the liquid state.
305. Some liquefied gas carriers are fitted with nitrogen generating equipment, often
of the membrane module design. What would be the expected purity of the
nitrogen produced by such equipment?
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a. 95 to 97% pure nitrogen.

b. 100% pure nitrogen.
c. 90 to 92% pure nitrogen.
d. 87 to 89% pure nitrogen.
306. The IMO Gas Codes require that all liquefied gas carrier cargo tanks are fitted
with pressure relief valves. Pilot operated relief valves are frequently used,
particularly with refrigerated cargoes. What is the main advantage of using pilot
operated relief valves rather than simple spring loaded types for refrigerated
liquefied gas cargoes tanks?
a. They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage pressures.
b. They ensure accurate operation at the very low cargo carriage
temperatures.
c. The set pressure can be adjusted to above MARVS if problems occur
with the reliquefaction plant.
d. When pilot operated valves are used only one valve per cargo tank is
required irrespective of tank size.
307. The reliquefaction plant for cargo cooling of liquefied gas cargoes can operate
on either a direct or indirect cycle. On which liquefied gas cargoes must indirect
cycle cargo cooling plant be used according to the IMO Gas Codes?
a. Cargoes such as chlorine,
ethylene oxide and propylene
oxide for which the vapours
cannot be compressed due to
temperature restrictions.
b. LPG cargoes being carried in north European waters during winter time
c. All liquefied cargoes in north European waters during winter time
d. Cargoes such as butadiene and vinyl chloride which need two stage cycle
with intercooling.
308. There are a number of standard reliquefaction plants commonly fitted onboard
LPG and other liquefied gas carriers. What type of reliquefaction plant is
required for a cargo of Ethylene Oxide?
a. Indirect cycle.
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b. Cascade direct cycle.

c. Two-stage direct cycle.
d. Single-stage direct cycle.
309. There are strict rules governing the placement and category of electrical
equipment allowed in certain areas of liquefied gas carriers. One such category
is that of flameproof enclosures. What is a flameproof enclosure?
a. One which can withstand the pressure build-up during an internal
ignition of a flammable mixture and is designed to cool any flames
occurring within the enclosure to below the ignition temperature.
b. One which is maintained under positive pressure so preventing the
formation of a flammable mixture.
c. One in which the equipment has such low electrical power that there is
insufficient energy to ignite a flammable mixture and cause a flame.
d. One which is filled with inert gas to prevent formation and possible
ignition of a flammable mixture.
310. What is the main disadvantage of using oil free, screw type compressors for the
reliquefaction plant of an LPG carrier?
a. The compressor has to run at very high speeds to compensate for internal
leakage.
b. The compressor rotor elements wear quickly as they have no lubrication.
c. The compressors quickly overheat.
d. The compressor bearings wear out very quickly.
311. What is the purpose of an automatic shut-down system fitted onboard most
liquefied gas carriers and how is it initiated?
a. To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a high level
sensor in the cargo tank.
b. To prevent overfilling of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a back-pressure
switch in the cargo loading line.
c. To prevent cargo tanks from being overcooled. It is initiated by a
temperature switch on the cargo cooling plant.
d. To prevent overpressure of the cargo tanks. It is initiated by a pressure
switch in the cargo tank.
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312. What is the purpose of the purge gas condenser fitted to some liquefied gas
carrier reliquefaction plants?
a. It is used to condense out any cargo vapours which have passed through
the main condenser with incondensable gases.
b. It is used to condense out any nitrogen or inert gas that has collected in
the main condenser.
c. It is used to condense all of the cargo vapours that have been used in
purging a cargo tank.
d. It is used to generate the cargo vapours required for purging the cargo
tanks.
313. When measuring the liquid level in the cargo tank of a liquefied gas carrier a
number of different corrections may be necessary to get a true reading. Why do
readings obtained from a float type ullage tape sometimes require a 'tape
correction'?
a. The length of tape in contact with very cold cargo vapours may contract.
b. The float may become heavier and partly sink due to liquid cargo
absorption.
c. The vessel may not be on an even keel when the readings are taken.
d. The vessel may have a list when the readings are taken.
314. Which type of reliquefaction plant can have the cooling coil placed directly in
the vapour space of the cargo tank?
a. One type of the indirect cycle reliquefaction plants.
b. The cascade direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
c. The single-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
d. The two-stage direct cycle reliquefaction plant.
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315. A “Pellistor” is:

a. It is an electrical sensor unit
fitted in a flammable gas
detector for measuring
hydrocarbon vapours and air
mixtures to determine whether
the mixture is within the
flammable range
b. It is the common term applied to
the metal, ceramic or other heat-resisting material which can cool even
an intense flame below the temperature required for ignition, as utilised
in a flame arrester
c. It is the electrical sensor which detects low pressure in an Inert Gas
generating control system
d. It is the reactive element in an oil / water interface detector
316. According to 33 CFR 156, for oil tankers trading in US waters, the minimum
requirement for testing of cargo transfer hoses and associated piping system are:
a. That no leakage occurs under
static liquid pressure of at least
1.5 times the maximum
allowable working pressure.
b. That no leakage occurs under
static liquid pressure of at least
1.25 times the maximum
allowable working pressure.
c. That no leakage occurs under dynamic fluid pressure of less than 1.5
times the maximum allowable working pressure.
d. That no leakage occurs at the nominal anticipated working pressure.
317. After passing through the scrubbing tower of an inert gas system, the
approximate level of carbon dioxide in the inert flue gas should be:
a. 13%
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b. 1%
c. 3%
d. 21%
318. An oil tanker with a defective Oil Discharge Monitoring Equipment may be
allowed by a Port State Authority to trade for:
a. One ballast voyage before
proceeding to a repair port.
b. One ballast and one loaded
voyage, provided no cleaning
operations are carried out.
c. An indefinite period as long as
the owners can demonstrate
they have ordered the spare
parts for repairs.
d. One year, provided that the vessel is scheduled for a dry-dock during the
next 12 months.
319. An oil tanker's tank-cleaning machine with a rotational speed of 1 rpm and a
selected pitch angle of 1.5 degrees is used to perform a bottom wash with a
vertical angle from 40 degrees to 0 degrees for 1.5 cycles (3 passes). If the
throughput of the machine at design pressure is 90 m3/hr, what will be the
washing time and quantity of crude oil required?
a. 40 minutes and 60 cubic metres of oil.
b. 30 minutes and 45 cubic metres of oil.
c. 48 minutes and 70 cubic metres of oil.
d. 36 minutes and 48 cubic metres of oil.
320. As per IMO requirements, the mechanical ventilation system of the cargo pump
room shall be capable of making:
a. At least 20 air changes per hour
b. At least 30 air changes per hour
c. At least 40 air changes per hour
d. At least 50 air changes per hour
321. As per OPA 90 requirements, a vessel over 400 feet (121.9 metres) in length
must carry oil spill clean-up gear to be able to handle oil spillages of:
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e. 12 barrels (1.91 cubic metres).

f. 15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres).
g. 5 barrels (0.79 cubic metre).
h. 1 barrel (0.16 cubic metre).
322. Fluid driven eductors operate on Bernoulli’s principle, which states that:
a. The speed of a moving fluid
increases as the pressure in the
fluid decreases.
b. The volume of a fluid increases
as the pressure in it decreases.
The increase in pressure at the
eductor inlet is inversely
proportional to the decrease in
pressure as measured at the discharge orifice.
c. The discharge rate is inversely proportional to the pressure applied in the
drive inlet.
323. Ship’s cargo pump room alarm must be automatically activated when levels of
hydrocarbon gas concentration are:
e. No higher than 10% of LEL.
f. No higher than 15% of LEL.
g. No higher than 20% of LEL.
h. No higher than 5% of LEL.
324. The automatic stripping systems fitted on some of the centrifugal cargo pumps
operate on the principle that:
a. If cargo vapour can be stopped
from entering the cargo pump
suction inlet, the flow will
continue without cavitation.
b. If the suction is fitted low
enough in the cargo oil tank and
a specified minimum trim is
maintained, suction will be available until the tank is completely
discharged.
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c. By automatically reducing the rate at which oil cargo enters the cargo
pump, such that no vapour is lifted along with the liquid, there will be no
loss of suction.
d. By the optimum size and positioning of the suction inlet that feeds the
automatic stripping system, the cargo oil tank is discharged to the
maximum possible extent.
325. The calibration of the ODME is carried with the use of:
e. Fresh water.
f. The product being carried on that voyage.
g. Approved bio-degradable light oil
h. Sea water.
326. The difference between the absolute pressure of a liquid at the inlet to a cargo
pump and the vapour pressure of the liquid is
called the:
a. Net Positive Suction Head Available.
b. Net Positive Suction Head
Requirement.
c. Residual Suction Head Pressure.
d. Effective Suction Head Pressure.
327. The inert gas system shall be capable of delivering inert gas to the cargo tanks
at the rate of:
a. At least 125% of the maximum
discharge capacity.
b. At least 150% of the maximum
discharge capacity.
c. At least 200% of the maximum
discharge capacity.
d. Equal to the cargo discharge
capacity.
328. The typical amounts of sulphur dioxide gas in flue gas produced when burning
high sulphur content fuels would be:
a. 2,000 ppm
b. 200 ppm
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c. 4,000 ppm
d. 850 ppm
329. The usual pressure and vacuum levels at which the P/V valves on board an oil
tanker are required to activate are:
a. Pressure: 1 psi (0.069 bar) Vacuum: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar)
b. Pressure: 3.2 psi (0.22 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
c. Pressure 7 psi (0.048 bar) Vacuum: 1 psi (0.069 bar)
d. Pressure: 0.5 psi (0.034 bar) Vacuum: 0.2 psi (0.014 bar)
330. When in-service testing a hose used for cargo transfer on an oil tanker (and for
which the elongation of the hose assembly when new was greater than 2.5%),
the maximum permitted elongation before the hose must be withdrawn from
service should be:
a. Not more than 1.5 times the
temporary elongation measured
when the hose assembly was
new, as documented in the
manufacturer's certificate.
b. Not less than 1.5 times the
temporary elongation measured
when the hose assembly was
new, as documented in the manufacturer's certificate.
c. Not more than 1.5 times the temporary elongation measured at the
previous in-service test, as documented in the ship's annual test record.
d. Not more than 1.25 times the temporary elongation measured when the
hose assembly was last tested, as documented in the appropriate
certificate.
331. When tank cleaning hoses are tested for electrical continuity, they must display
a reading of:
a. Not greater than 6 ohms per metre length.
b. Not more than 10 ohms per metre length.
c. At least 8 ohms per metre length.
d. It depends on the manufacturer's recommendations.
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332. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
a. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution,
Unlawful acts threatening the
safety of the ship and the
security of its passenger and
crew, Pesonnel accidents,
Cargo-related accidents,
Emergency assistance to other
ships
b. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security
c. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
d. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire
333. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger
cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency
instructions?
a. The method of donning life-jackets, escape
routes and alarm signals
b. Escape routes and alarm signals
c. Name of cabin attendant
d. Where to find thermal protective aids
334. here do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for
life-saving appliances?
a. Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
b. SOLAS
c. ISM Code
d. Safety Management System
335. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin?
a. Same number as beds in the cabin
b. At least 2
c. Twice the number of beds in the cabin
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d. Non, they will be handed out at the muster station

336. How many rescue boats should be provided on passenger ships of 500 gross tons
and above?
a. Two, one on each side of the
ship
b. Two, and at least one of the
rescue boats shall be a Fast Rescue Boat
c. One Fast Rescue Boat
d. None
337. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board
a passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and upwards?
a. 3
b. 2
c. One for each survival craft
d. It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF fitted
in a survival craft
338. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up
power sypply?
a. Yes, the public address system
shall be connected to the
emergency source of power
b. Yes, only if the voyage is more
than 12 hours
c. No, the crew will inform the
passengers in case of any black
out or power failure
d. No
339. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board passenger

ships?
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a. Yes, all passenger public spaces

and alleyways shall be provided
with supplementary electric
lighting
b. No, portable battery operated
lamps shall be provided in
alleyways and public spaces
c. No, passengers should bring
their own flashlights
d. No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes
340. One water fog applicator is required for each pair of breathing apparatus on
board which type of ship?
a. Passenger ships carrying more than 36 passengers
b. Chemical tankers
c. Tankers
d. Passenger ships fitted with car decks
341. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for
children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in
conspicuous places on deck or at the muster stations?
a. 5% extra
b. 10% extra
c. 25% extra
d. 50% extra
342. Passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or
canopied reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically
self-righting?
a. The liferaft will automatically
turn back into an upright
position when it is empty of
people
b. The liferaft will automatically turn back into an upright position when it
is fully loaded with people
c. One person can manage to turn the liferaft back into an upright position
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d. It means the same as self-righting lifeboats

343. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be
provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross tonnage and upwards?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
344. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-
igniting lights an self-activating smoke signals?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 50% of the total number of lifebuoys
d. At least 1
345. What is the name of this unit?
a. A hydrostatic release unit
b. A liferaft release unit
c. An antistatic release unit
d. A slip hook
346. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis?
a. To identify and eliminate, as far
as practicable, congestion which
may develop during an
abandonment
b. To ensure the ship can be
evacuated in less than 30
minutes
c. To provide port state control
inspectors with reports
d. To provide the passengers with written results of the analysis
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347. What is the time limit for abandonment of passenger ships?

a. 30 minutes from the time the
abandon ship signal is given
b. 15 minutes from the time the
c. 2 hours from the time the
d. There is no time limit
348. Where do you find detailed information and specific technical requirements for
fire safety systems?
a. Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
b. SOLAS
c. ISM Code
349. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board
passenger ships?
a. From the navigation bridge and in at least
one other location
b. Navigation bridge
c. Captain's- and Chief Officer's office
d. Captain's office
350. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal life-
saving appliances do not correspond to present
regulations?
a. All lifejackets shall be fitted with a whistle, a light
and a smoke signal
b. Ro-ro passenger ships shall carry at least 2
lifebuoys provided with self-igniting lights an
self-activating smoke signals
c. All lifejackets shall be fitted with reflex, a whistle
and a light
d. The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in
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351. As part of the decommissioning process for old reefer vessels they are sent to a
recycling yard where any refrigerant remaining in the refrigeration system is
dealt with. Which one of the actions given in the options needs to be carried out
in preparation for delivery of a vessel to a recycling yard?
a. Make a careful note of the
quantities of gas onboard and
note this in the Ozone
DepletionRecord Book prior to
discharging the gas into
recovery bottles.
b. Make a careful note of the
quantities of gas onboard prior
to arrival at the yard and note
this in the Ozone Depleting Record Book.
c. Make a careful note of the quantities of gas onboard and note this in the
Ozone Depleting Record Book before discharging the gas to atmosphere.
d. Discharge the gas to atmosphere prior to arrival to minimise handling
costs at the recycling yard.
352. As well as having temperature sensors located in the cargo holds some reefer
vessels are also fitted with ethylene sensors. Why is it useful to have information
regarding the ethylene content in a reefer vessel cargo hold when carrying fruit
cargoes?
a. Some fruit cargoes are sensitive to ethylene and the quality of the cargo
can deteriorate as they may over-ripen.
b. The ethylene content can be used as a guide as to when air change fans
need to run.
c. The ethylene content is beneficial to perishable cargoes in transit so the
content needs to be monitored in case the level falls.
d. The ethylene content must be maintained to help ripen the fruit during
the sea voyage.
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353. Data loggers are a vital part of the temperature control and monitoring system
on a reefer vessel. In a situation where the data logger fails several days before
the end of the voyage it is still necessary to maintain control of and monitor cargo
temperatures. How could an accurate, portable thermometer be used to the best
effect, to achieve this, in such a situation?
a. Use the thermometer to check and control the delivery air temperature
by inserting it in the delivery air ducting close to the evaporators.
b. Use the thermometer to check and control the return air temperature by
holding it in the return air space on top of the cargo.
c. Use the thermometer to check the pulp temperature by entering the cargo
space and placing it in the centre of the stow.
d. Use the thermometer to maintain the delivery air settings as they were
prior to the data logger breaking down.
354. Despite setting what appears to be the correct delivery air temperatures in
accordance with shipper's instructions, large cargo loss claims can still occur
when operating reefer vessels. Which of the options given is likely to help avoid
the majority of these large claims?
a. By confirming the temperature scale that the shipper is using in his
carriage instructions, Fahrenheit or Celsius.
b. By confirming that the shipper is supplying to a market that works in
Fahrenheit or Celsius.
c. By confirming that the vessel plant is calibrated in the same temperature
scale that the shipper is quoting.
d. By confirming the whether the shipper is referring to the delivery air or
pulp temperature of the cargo.
355. Many fruit cargoes are carried refrigerated and also under controlled atmosphere
(CA) conditions. A situation develops where there is a problem with the main
reefer plant that will take several hours to repair but the CA system is still
operation. Which of the statements given in the options is the most accurate in
these circumstances?
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a. The CA plant is only an adjunct for the refrigeration plant and therefore
there should be concern about the condition of the cargo.
b. The CA plant will take care of the cargo without the refrigeration plant
and therefore there is no further action required and no need for concern.
c. The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of carbon dioxide in
the cargo space which will be sufficient to preserve the fruit.
d. The CA plant could be used to increase the levels of nitrogen in the cargo
spaces which will be sufficient to preserve the fruit.
356. Many reefer vessels are fitted with controlled atmosphere systems (CA). There
are a number of different systems available but generally they all work by
introducing nitrogen into the cargo space. Select, from the options given, the
main reason why nitrogen is generally the gas chosen for controlling the
atmosphere in the cargo spaces of a reefer vessel.
a. Nitrogen displaces the oxygen in the cargo space and allows the
respiration of the fruit to be controlled.
b. Nitrogen is the most plentiful gas available.
c. Nitrogen remains as a gas at all temperatures used in refrigerated
transport.
d. Nitrogen is inert and there is no risk of creating a flammable mixture in
the cargo space.
357. Most fruit cargoes carried under refrigeration require introduction of fresh air
into the cargo space to remove any excess carbon dioxide and ethylene produced
by respiration of the cargo and sensors are fitted to detect these gases. Shipper's
instructions will often indicate 'constant air change' as a requirement for a cargo.
Why, even though this is a crude method for controlling the cargo space
atmosphere, is this type of instruction given?
a. Some cargoes are very sensitive to ethylene levels and it may be difficult
to accurately measure the low levels that would affect a cargo.
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b. It is the standard method and it is always done that way for simplicity.
c. As much fresh air as possible should always be introduced into the cargo
space throughout the voyage to maintain cargo quality.
d. Fresh air helps to acclimatise the cargo to the prevailing ambient
conditions.
358. On a conventional reefer vessel is possible to ventilate the cargo spaces with
fresh air using fans and trunkings. One of the reasons for using fresh air
ventilation is to control the relative humidity within the cargo space. Select the
option which best completes the following statement. "It is beneficial to be able
to control the relative humidity within the cargo space because fruit cargoes
should be kept…
a. …relatively moist to avoid the cargo dehydrating during the passage."
b. … relatively dry to avoid the formation of fungus in the vent trunkings
during the passage."
c. …relatively dry to avoid deterioration of the packaging during the
passage."
d. ... as dry as possible to avoid build up of mould during the passage."
359. On a reefer vessel air is passed over the cooling coils before entering the cargo
hatch via trunking to cool the cargo. It is important to ensure that the cooling
coils are clear of any material such as plastic sheeting or bags. Why is this so
important?
a. The plastic may interfere with the air flow over the cooling coils and
subsequently the cooling of the cargo.
b. The plastic sheeting may be picked up by and foul the cooling fans.
c. The plastic material may block scuppers and bilges.
d. The plastic material may affect condensation forming on the cooling
coils.
360. Prior to loading a reefer cargo it is good practise to carry out an 'ice test' of the
temperature sensors within the cargo space. Part of the test is to immerse the
sensors in a test bucket of known temperature, usually zero degrees Celsius as
this is the melting point of ice. Which of the options is correct in relation to
preparing the test bucket?
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DPKP
a. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2

centimetres square and a small quantity of distilled water to produce an
ice-water mixture. The ice cubes should be produced from clean distilled
water.
b. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice cubes approximately 2
centimetres square which have been made from clean distilled water.
c. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with ice produced in the vessel's
low temperature chamber. A hole the exact size of the sensor should be
drilled into the ice and the sensor inserted into the hole to give a rapid
test process.
d. Insulated ice buckets should be filled with crushed ice purchased in bulk
from a shore supplier.
361. Refrigerated cargo spaces are fitted with temperature sensors and in some cases
carbon dioxide sensors. From the options given select the one which best
completes the following statement. "Monitoring the carbon dioxide content in a
cargo space loaded with fruit can be useful because…
a. … increasing levels indicate that the fruit may be starting to ripen."
b. … its presence indicates that the fruit is ripe."
c. … low levels indicate that there are insufficient numbers of air changes."
d. … its presence indicates that the fruit is still not ripe."
362. Select the option which correctly completes the following statement. "A
conventional reefer vessel operating with a controlled atmosphere plant must
have cargo spaces which…
a. … have a gas tight seal."
b. … have a minimum number of deckhead and bulkhead penetrations."
c. … have the normal bulkhead and deckhead penetrations required for a
reefer compartment."
d. … are fitted with variable speed fans."
363. The data logger on a reefer vessel normally records temperatures for air delivery,
air return and cargo pulp. How would the air delivery and return temperatures
be expected to vary during the first few days of carrying a cargo of citrus fruit
which had not been pre-cooled before loading?
a. The difference between the two temperatures would steadily reduce.
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DPKP
b. The difference between the two temperatures would steadily increase.

c. The difference between the two temperatures would remain constant.
d. The two temperatures would remain constant
364. To correctly interpret the readings on the printout from a reefer vessel’s cargo
data logger it is essential to have some knowledge of the location of the
temperature sensors. Where would the temperature sensor for the delivery air to
a cargo hold be expected to be located?
a. In the air flow path from the cooling coils, about 3 metres from the coils.
b. In the air flow path from the cooling coils, but at the opposite end of the
cargo space to the coils.
c. Just above the cooling coils where the air returns from the cargo space.
d. Near the centre of the cargo space.
365. What should be done with the data logger printouts after completing the
discharge of a refrigerated cargo?
a. They should be retained onboard for a minimum of 2 years.
b. They should be retained onboard indefinitely.
c. They can be discarded once the discharge is completed.
d. They should be handed over to the cargo receiver.
366. During sea passage on a RoRo vessel, how would you know if gasoline vapours
were escaping from vehicles?
a. By using flammable gas
detectors in the vehicle decks
b. By sense of smell
c. By using oxygen meters in the
vehicle decks
d. By using carbon monoxide
meters in the vehicle decks
367. On a RoRo vessel, to what should you pay very close attention, when inspecting
the structure and condition of movable car decks?
a. Cracks in way of deck supports
b. General condition of the portable deck
c. Safety markings on the portable deck
d. Abrasions over the deck surface
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DPKP
a. On a RoRo vessel, what additional securing arrangements should be used when

loading a vehicle on an incline or fixed Ramp
a. The Vehicle should also be chocked under its wheels
b. Double the normal lashings should be used
c. Lashings should be checked to make sure they are really tight
d. None
368. On a RoRo vessel, what is Maximum Securing Load?
a. The load capacity of a device used to secure cargo on board
b. The combined capacity of several devices used to secure an item of cargo
on board
c. The safe working load of a device used to secure cargo on board
d. The combined safe working loads of various devices used to secure an
items of cargo on board
369. On a RoRo vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of 'D' rings?
a. 50% of the breaking strength
b. 25% of the breaking strength
c. 35% of the breaking strength
d. 40% of the breaking strength
370. On a RoRo vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of fibre ropes?
371. On a RoRo vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of mild steel shackles?
372. On a RoRo vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of reusable use wire
ropes?
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DPKP

373. On a RoRo vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of single use wire ropes?
374. On a RoRo vessel, what is the Maximum Securing Load of web lashings?
375. On a RoRo vessel, when should a trailer horse be taken out of service
a. if there is any damage to the wheel or spring, the frame is rusted or
distorted or the pads are worn out
b. every 6 months for routine maintenance
c. once per year
d. Never you use them until they collapse
376. On a RoRo vessel, where can you find the validity of web lashings
a. On the certificate supplied with the equipment
b. on the bridge
c. in the cargo office
d. it does not have one they last forever
12. On a RoRo vessel, where will escaping gasoline vapours settle in a cargo hold?
If the forced ventilation system is shut down
a. At the lowest levels
b. At deckhead level
c. In ventilator shafts
d. At all levels
377. What must you ensure when using portable slopes to discharge ro-ro units?
a. They must be exactly aligned with the units' tyres
b. They must be new
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DPKP
c. They must be free of dirt

d. The surfaces must be of the fish-bone type
378. When lowering a RoRo Cargo Side or Stern Ramp what must be ensured ?
a. The vessel is securely moored
and there is nothing beneath the
ramp
b. The ramp must be lowered by
the duty officer only
c. The ramp must be lowered at the
minimum speed
d. The ramp surface must be clean
379. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
a. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution,
Unlawful acts threatening the
safety of the ship and the
security of its passenger and
crew, Pesonnel accidents,
Cargo-related accidents,
Emergency assistance to other
ships
b. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution,
Personnel accidents and Ship Security
c. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
d. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire
380. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger
cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency
instructions?
a. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
b. Escape routes and alarm signals
c. Name of cabin attendant
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DPKP
d. Where to find thermal protective aids

381. How many lifejackets are required in a passenger cabin?
a. Same number as beds in the cabin
b. At least 2
c. Twice the number of beds in the cabin
d. None, they will be handed out at the muster station
382. How many rescue boats should be provided on ro-ro passenger ships of 500 gross
tons and above?
a. Two, and at least one of the
rescue boats shall be a Fast
Rescue Boat
b. Two Fast Rescue Boats, one on each side of the ship
c. One Fast Rescue Boat
d. None providing the ship has lifeboats
383. How many two-way VHF radiotelephone apparatus shall be provided on board
a ro-ro passenger ship of 500 gross tonnage and
upwards?
a. 3
b. 2
c. One for each survival craft
d. It is required to have a fixed two-way VHF
fitted in a survival craft
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DPKP
384. Is it required that the PA-system (Public Address) is connected to a back-up

power sypply?
a. Yes, the public address system
shall be connected to the
emergency source of power
b. Yes, only if the voyage is more
than 12 hours
c. No, the crew will inform the
passengers in case of any black
out or power failure
d. No
385. Is it required to have supplementary emergency lighting on board ro-ro ships?

a. Yes, all passenger public spaces
and alleyways shall be provided
with supplementary electric
lighting
b. No, portable battery operated
lamps shall be provided in
alleyways and public spaces
c. No, passengers should bring
their own flashlights
d. No, reflective marking indicates the escape routes
386. Passenger ships have a normal requirement of 1 lifejacket per person + 10% for
children. In addition to this, how many lifejackets have to be stowed in
a. 5% extra
b. 10% extra
c. 25% extra
d. 50% extra
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DPKP
387. Ro-ro passenger ships shall either carry automatically self-righting liferafts or
canopied reversible liferafts. What does it mean that a liferaft is automatically
self-righting?
a. The liferaft will automatically
position when it is empty of
people
b. The liferaft will automatically
position when it is fully loaded
with people
c. One person can manage to turn the liferaft back into an upright position
d. It means the same as self-righting lifeboats
388. What is the minimum number of independently driven fire pumps that must be
provided on passenger ships of 4000 tons gross tonnage and upwards?
a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 5
389. What is the minimum number of lifebuoys that shall be provided with self-
igniting lights an self-activating smoke signals?
a. 2
b. 4
c. 50% of the total number of lifebuoys
d. At least 1
390. What is the purpose of an evacuation analysis?
a. To identify and eliminate, as far as
practicable, congestion which may develop
during an abandonment
b. To ensure the ship can be evacuated in less
than 30 minutes
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DPKP
c. provide port state control inspectors with reports

d. To provide the passengers with written results of the analysis
391. What is the time limit for abandonment of ro-ro passenger ships?
a. 30 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
b. 15 minutes from the time the abandon ship signal is given
c. 2 hours from the time the abandon ship signal is given
d. There is no time limit
392. What is this?
a. A hydrostatic release unit
b. A liferaft release unit
c. An antistatic release unit
d. A slip hook
fire safety systems?
a. Fire Safety Systems Code (FSS Code)
b. SOLAS
c. ISM Code
life-saving appliances?
a. Life-Saving Apliance Code (LSA Code)
b. SOLAS
c. ISM Code
395. Where shall you be able to activate the ship security alert system on board ro-ro
passenger ships?
a. From the navigation bridge and in at least
one other location
b. Navigation bridge
c. Captain's- and Chief Officer's office
d. Captain's office
396. Which one of the listed requirements for passenger ships regarding personal life-
saving appliances do not correspond to present regulations?
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DPKP
a. All lifejackets shall be fitted

with a whistle, a light and a
smoke signal
b. Ro-ro passenger ships shall
carry at least 2 lifebuoys
provided with self-igniting
lights an self-activating smoke
signals
c. All lifejackets shall be fitted with reflex, a whistle and a light
d. The 5% extra lifejackets carried on board have to be stowed in
122

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DPKP

BIDANG KEAHLIAN NAUTIKA

11. Merencanakan dan menjamin pemuatan, penyusunan dan pengikatan muatan

5. The lifting plant on a General Cargo vessel be proof load tested:

d. Get them surveyed by Class prior re-use.

12. On multi-purpose vessels, responsibility for the stowage and securing of

d. Always upon the charterer of the vessel.

b. 15 barrels (2.38 cubic metres).

28. Depending on density or API, an error measurement of 0.1 degree Fahrenheit in

a. 25 cubic metres (157 barrels).

35. How should mild steel slabs be loaded in a bulk carrier?

c. The timber deck cargo code published by IMO

e. The added weight of icing on

g. Securing of cargoes in hazardous ocean areas.

a. Unloaded tank is to be reloaded

74. If a cargo tank on a chemical tanker is to be cleaned by recirculation with a low

Circumstances of discharge or escape and general remarks.

c. Position at start and stop of accidental discharge

a. Heavy weather is anticipated for the

a. The Maximum Securing load of

97. The minimum information to that must be provided be given on a dangerous

99. The segregation requirements for Dangerous Goods to be loaded on a General

b. approximately minus 87.5 C

a. Never allow temperature of the

c. From 0,01 % to 0,05 % per day of total cargo.

d. Maximum allowable filling limit on cargo tanks is 90% on gas carriers.

a. At least 12 months appropriate

a. Drained and then pumped either

h. 16.5 cubic metres (104 barrels).

a. Before washing begins, any

156. To correctly report an oil spill in US waters:

a. Instantaneous rate of discharge

a. A device which automatically

a. Basic Safety Training Course

169. What information is required on passengers prior to departure?

170. What is important to prepare prior to a

procedures for handling or working with that substance in a safe manner

a. Discharge the ashes to a shore facility

d. Request that the stevedores work faster to minimise loading time.

b. every time you load any cargo

208. A hazard is is a source of potential harm or damage or a situation with potential

a. By having an effective system

210. How frequently should the PA-system (Public Address) be tested?

213. How should chemicals and harmful substances be stored on board?

a. Basic Safety Training Course

a. All persons on board shall be

219. What is the purpose of Material Safety Data Sheets?

c. To provide the safety officer with procedures for handling or working

a. The vessel may well be judged

a. Sound general alarm, muster

a. So that during discharge the

244. On a container vessel, flexitanks are used for:

c. Single stacking cones.

255. "Passivation" is a restorative process periodically applied to stainless steel tanks

d. That a programme of maintenance, including selective function tests,

d. Provide ships equipment to discharge.

285. According to "Summary of minimum requirements" in the IGC Code, what is

b. Use sliding couplings.

a. 95 to 97% pure nitrogen.