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FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2020

for students presently in

Class 7 (Paper 1)
(27th December 2020)
Time: 3 Hours (9:30 am – 12:30 pm) Maximum Marks: 216
Code 7000
Instructions:

Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 75 Minutes on Section-II and


45 Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:

Marking Scheme for each question


Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer
SECTION – I APTITUDE 1 to 30 +3 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 31 to 39 +2 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 40 to 48 +2 0
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 49 to 57 +2 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 58 to 66 +2 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 67 to 75 +1.5 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 76 to 84 +1.5 0
SECTION – III
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 85 to 93 +1.5 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 94 to 102 +1.5 0

3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your
rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.

4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.

5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 102 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________

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FTRE-2020-C-VII (Paper-1 & 2)-AT+S&M-2

Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I


Section – I
APTITUDE TEST
This section contains 30 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. Which word does NOT belong with the others?


(A) unique (B) beautiful
(C) rare (D) exceptional

2. Complete the following series.


3, 7, 16, 32, ?, 93
(A) 53 (B) 57
(C) 54 (D) 60

3. Which of the following number complete the given sequence?


8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54, (….)
(A) 27 (B) 108
(C) 68 (D) 72

4. In the following question, a letter series is given with one or more terms missing as shown by (?).
Choose the missing term out of the given alternatives.
A, B, N, C, D, O, E, F, P, ?, ?, ?
(A) G, H, I (B) G, H, J
(C) G, H, Q (D) J, K, L

5. Pointing to a person, a man said to a woman, “His mother is the only daughter of your father.”
How was the woman related to the person?
(A) Aunt (B) Mother
(C) Wife (D) Daughter

6. K and L are brothers. M and N are sisters. K’s son is N’s brother. How is L related to M?
(A) Father (B) Brother
(C) Grandfather (D) Uncle
Space for Rough Work

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7. In a certain code, GOAL is written as JRDO. How is PLAN written in that code?
(A) SPDQ (B) SODQ
(C) SOCP (D) SODP

8. If ‘car’ is called ‘pink’, ‘bike’ is called ‘blue’, ‘cycle’ is called ‘black’ and ‘aeroplane’ is called
‘yellow’, what would fly in sky?
(A) pink (B) black
(C) yellow (D) blue

9. In a certain code language, ‘123’ means ‘bright little boy’, ‘145’ means ‘tall big boy’ and ‘637’
means ‘beautiful little flower’. Which digit in that language means ‘bright’?
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4

10. Kunal walks 10 km towards South. From there he walks 6 km towards North. Then, he walks 3
km towards East. How far and in which direction is he with reference to his starting point?
(A) 6 km West (B) 7 km West
(C) 7 km East (D) 5 km South-East

11. Ankur walks 20 metres towards south. He then turns left and walks 40 metres. He again turns left
and walks 20 metres. How far is he from his original position ?
(A) 20 metres (B) 30 metres
(C) 50 metres (D) 40 metres

12. A man is facing North. He turns 45° in the clockwise direction and then another 180° in the same
direction and then 270° in the anticlockwise direction. Which direction is he facing now?
(A) South (B) North-west
(C) West (D) South-west

13. A series is given with one term missing. Choose the correct alternative from the given ones that
will complete the series. 2, 3, 6, 11, 18 ?
(A) 21 (B) 30
(C) 27 (D) 23

14. A ‘Square’ is related to ‘Cube’ in the same way as a ‘Circle’ is related to …?


(A) Sphere (B) Circumference
(C) Diameter (D) Area
Space for Rough Work

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15. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Scissors : Cloth : : Axe : ?
(A) Stone (B) Wood
(C) Hunt (D) Vegetables

16. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Leaves : Rustle : : ? : ?
(A) Rain : Jingle (B) Tyres : Sizzle
(C) Clouds : Thunder (D) Snow : Drizzle

17. In the following question, select the related word from the given alternatives.
Dog : Bark :: Goat : ?
(A) Bleat (B) Howl
(C) Grunt (D) Bray

18. In the following questions, some groups of letters are given, all of which, except one, share a
common similarity while one is different. Choose the odd one out.
(A) DFH (B) PRT
(C) VXZ (D) MOP

19. In the following questions, some groups of words are given, all of which, except one, share a
common similarity while one is different. Choose the odd one out.
(A) Chair (B) Table
(C) Furniture (D) Wardrobe

20. In the following questions, some groups of words are given, all of which, except one, share a
common similarity while one is different. Choose the odd one out.
(A) Cheese (B) Oil
(C) Butter (D) Cream

Directions (Q. 21 – Q.25): Read the following information to answer the given questions:
(i) A, B, C, D, E, F and G are playing cards sitting around a circular table.
(ii) D is not neighbour of C or E.
(iii) A who is second to the left of E, is neighbour of B and C.
(iv) G, who is second to the left of D, is the neighbour of E and F.

21. Which of the following is correct?


(A) B is between A and D (B) D is between F and G
(C) E is between B and D (D) F is between D and B.

22. Which of the following pair are neighbours?


(A) BF (B) GF
(C) EA (D) AF
Space for Rough Work

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23. Which of the following will be at D’s immediate right side?


(A) A (B) B
(C) C (D) D

24. What is the position of C?


(A) To the immediate left of A (B) To the immediate left of E
(C) To the immediate left of F (D) To the immediate left of B

25. In the following four, three are sitting in same manner and one is different. Which of the following
pattern is odd one out ?
(A) DAB (B) GDF
(C) BCA (D) GFD

26. If ‘<’ means ‘minus’, ‘>’ means ‘plus’, ‘=’ means ‘multiplied by’ and ‘$’ means ‘divided by’, then
what would be the value of 31 > 81 $ 9 < 7?
(A) 32 (B) 33
(C) 36 (D) None of these

27. If × means ÷, – means ×, ÷ means + and + means -, then (4 – 15 ÷ 12) × 8 + 9 = ?


(A) -1 (B) 2
(C) 0 (D) 1

28. Which one of the four interchanges in signs and numbers would make the given equation
correct?
3+5–2=4
(A) + and –, 2 and 3 (B) + and –, 2 and 5
(C) + and –, 3 and 5 (D) None of these

Directions (Q.29 – Q.30): In each of the following problems, select a figure from the given four
alternatives, which when placed in the blank space of problem figure (X) would complete the pattern.

29. Problem Figure Answer Figure

30. Problem Figure Answer Figure

Space for Rough Work

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Recommended Time: 75 Minutes for Section – II


Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 39. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

31. On which of the following factor(s) resistance of a material depends?


(A) Thickness (B) Length
(C) Nature of materials (D) All of these

32. A voltmeter should be connected in:


(A) parallel to the circuit. (B) series to the circuit
(C) both parallel and series (D) none of these

33. The conventional direction of flow of electric current in the external circuit is from:
(A) lower potential to higher potential
(B) higher potential to lower potential
(C) positive terminal to negative terminal of battery
(D) both (B) and (C)

34. Which essential part of an electric circuit is used to make or break an electric circuit?
(A) Switch (B) Bulb
(C) Plastic cover (D) All of these

35. A circuit in which current is not flowing is called _________ .


(A) a closed circuit (B) an open circuit
(C) an on circuit (D) none of these

36. Air moving gently is called:


(A) storm (B) Kal-Baisakhi
(C) breeze (D) all of these

37. Which of the following factor(s) determines the weather of a place on any particular day?
(A) Temperature (B) Humidity
(C) Air pressure (D) All of these

38. What is the rate of flow of electric charges called?


(A) Electric potential (B) Electric conductance
(C) Electric current (D) None of these

39. The name of the device which converts electrical energy into mechanical energy is:
(A) electrical generator (B) electric cell
(C) microphone (D) electric motor
Space for Rough Work

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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 40 to 48. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

40. Select the one that provides shelter for living organisms like worms, rodents, etc.
(A) A - horizon (B) B- horizon
(C) C - horizon (D) None of these

41. Muga is the strongest variety of


(A) wood (B) silk
(C) cotton (D) both (A) and (B)

42. In bases, methyl orange turns


(A) green (B) black
(C) red (D) yellow

43. Citric acid and maleic acid are


(A) mineral acids (B) organic acids
(C) inorganic acids (D) strong acids

44. Sandy soil has


(A) bigger pore size (B) high water holding capacity
(C) high humus content (D) lack of air spaces

45 Black soil does not exhibit one of the properties


(A) high water holding capacity (B) rich in iron and magnesium
(C) rich in humus (D) none of these

46. The famous Pashmina shawls are woven from the soft fur of
(A) Alpaca (B) Goat
(C) Llama (D) Sheep

47. Which of the following is an alkali?


(A) Al(OH)2 (B) NaOH
(C) CaCO3 (D) Fe2CO3

48. Soil particles arranged in order of increasing size are:


(A) Sand – Silt – Clay (B) Clay – Sand – Silt
(C) Silt – Clay – Sand (D) Clay – Silt – Sand
Space for Rough Work

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 49 to 57. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

5 a ab
49. If   then a  b 
–7 35 –77
(A) 105 (B) –105
(C) 55 (D) –55

50. In the given figure, value of x =


(A) 40o (B) 45o
(C) 30o (D) 35o

51. If 18, x and 8 are in continued proportion then x = ?


(A) 8 (B) 10
(C) 12 (D) 14

9  8  5  5 
52.    
5  5  2  4 
(A) –1 (B) –3
(C) 1 (D) 2

3 5
53.  x  , then x = ?
14 12
5 35
(A) (B)
14 18
35 14
(C) (D)
20 18
Space for Rough Work

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7 1
54. Which of the following fractions is less than and greater than ?
8 3
7 23
(A) (B)
4 24
11 17
(C) (D)
12 24

55. In a herd of 52 horses, there are 12 white and some black horses, what is the ratio of white to
black horses.
(A) 4 : 10 (B) 3 : 14
(C) 3 : 10 (D) None of these

3 7
56. By how much is more than  ?
5 10
13 4
(A) (B)
10 5
2 3
(C) (D) 1
3 10

57. 0.01 is what percent of 0.1?


1 1
(A) % (B) %
100 10
(C) 10% (D) 1%
Space for Rough Work

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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 58 to 66. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

58. The fluid part of blood is called:


(A) Platelets (B) Pulse
(C) Plasma (D) All of these

59. If we put our index or middle finger on the inner side of our left wrist. Then we feel throbbing. This
throbbing is called _____.
(A) Pulse (B) Movement
(C) Plasma (D) None of these

60. Aquatic animals like fresh water fishes, excrete cell waste as _____.
(A) Ammonia (B) Uric acid
(C) Urea (D) None of these

61. Urine is temporally stored in _____ before excretion.


(A) Ureters (B) Urethra
(C) Urinary bladder (D) Kidney

62. Small intestine receives secretions from the _____ and the _____ which helps in the digestion of
food.
(A) Liver, large intestine (B) Pancreas, large intestine
(C) Liver, pancreas (D) Pancreas, food pipe

63. _____ is a group of cells organized to perform specialized function in an organism.


(A) Cell (B) Tissue
(C) Organism (D) None of these

64. In plants, leave prepares the food & this food has to be transported to all the parts of the plants.
This is done by the vascular tissue called the _____.
(A) Transpiration (B) Xylem
(C) Phloem (D) None of these

65. Excretory system contains the urinary opening at the end of muscular tube called as _____.
(A) Urinary bladder (B) Urethra
(C) Ureter (D) All of these

66. On reaching the tissues, arteries divide further into extremely thin tubes called _______.
(A) Veins (B) Capillaries
(C) White blood cells (D) None of these
Space for Rough Work

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Recommended Time: 45 Minutes for Section – III

Section – III
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 75. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

4
67. In the figure below shows a network of resistances. The effective E D

resistance between points A and B of network is 4


4
(A) (16/3) 
8
(B) 16  F
8 C
8
(C) 8 
4
(D) 4  4
A B
8

68. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following:


I. Ampere second and coulomb both are the units of electric charge.
II. Ampere is the SI unit of electric current.
III. Voltmeter is used to measure potential difference between two given points in a circuit.
(A) only (I) and (II) are correct. (B) only (II) and (III) are correct.
(C) (I), (II) and (III) are correct (D) only (I) and (III) are correct.

69. Choose the correct statement(s) from the following:


(I) Unit of emf is volt.
(II) Emf of a cell is its potential difference when current is not drawn from it.
(A) only (I) is correct (B) only (II) is correct
(C) both (I) and (II) are correct (D) neither (I) nor (II) are correct.

70. A storm that develops over the sea is called


(A) typhoons (B) cyclones
(C) hurricanes (D) all of these
Space for Rough Work

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71. If a thermometer reads freezing point of water 10° and boiling point of water as 130°, how much
this thermometer reads when the actual temperature is 50°C?
(A) 120° (B) 50°
(C) 70° (D) 60°

72. The temperature of an object raised from 20°C to 60°C. What is the change in temperature of the
object on fahrenheit scale?
(A) 60°F (B) 40°F
(C) 72°F (D) 20°F

73. 57°C = _____ K (Fill the correct option in the blank).


(A) 273.15 (B) 330.15
(C) 216.15 (D) 293.15

74. Change 45°C into °F.


(A) 113°F (B) 318°F
(C) 45°F (D) 77°F

75. The temperature of a body is 95°F. What will be its temperature in Kelvin?
(A) 368.15 K (B) 308.15 K
(C) 95.15 K (D) 300.15 K
Space for Rough Work

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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 76 to 84. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

76. Bio clip technology is used for which type of fibre?


(A) Wool (B) Silk
(C) Cotton (D) Jute

77 Which of the following properties shown by dilute HCl?


(i) It turns blue litmus red
(ii) It turns red litmus blue
(iii) It reacts with zinc and gas is evolved
(iv) It reacts with solid sodium carbonate to give brisk effervescence
(A) (i), (ii) (B) (ii), (iii)
(C) (i), (iii), (iv) (D) (ii), (iii), (iv)

78. The loamy soil is the best soil, because


(A) it contains more air and humus (B) it has right water holding capacity
(C) both (A) and (B) (D) it has more clay particles

79. Which of the following terms is not related to underground water?


(A) Infiltration (B) Aquifer
(C) Water table (D) None of these

80. Tartaric acid is found in


(A) Tamarind (B) Vinegar
(C) Curd (D) Lemon

81. The water holding capacity is the highest in


(A) sandy soil (B) loamy soil
(C) clayey soil (D) all the three

82. Lime water can neutralise


(A) CaCl2 solution (B) HCl solution
(C) NaOH solution (D) KCl solution

83. Wool is not obtained from


(A) alpaca (B) llama
(C) yak (D) buffalo

84. The colour of methyl orange in an acidic solution is


(A) green (B) pink
(C) blue (D) orange
Space for Rough Work

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 85 to 93. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

85. 121 11 × 3 + 8 {–4 + 7(6 – 8 + 7)} =


(A) 118 (B) 218
(C) 281 (D) None of these

y – 8 7 – 4y
86. If  then y =
3 7
77 19
(A) (B)
19 77
–77 –19
(C) (D)
19 77

87. In the given figure AB, CF and DE are straight lines, value of y is
(A) 10o (B) 15o
o
(C) 25 (D) 20o

88. The marked price of a Pen is Rs. 160, If it is sold for Rs. 136 then rate of discount is
(A) 5% (B) 10%
(C) 15% (D) 20%

5 2 7 1
89. If fractions , , and are represented on number line then which fraction will be in
8 3 11 2
rightmost position?
5 2
(A) (B)
8 3
7 1
(C) (D)
11 2
Space for Rough Work

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90. If 75p +42q = 40p +56q, then p : q is:


(A) 3 : 5 (B) 2 : 5
(C) 2 : 3 (D) 5 : 4

91. In a class of 45 students, there are 21 girls. Find the ratio of numbers of boys to total number of
students.
(A) 8 : 15 (B) 3 : 4
(C) 12 : 15 (D) 14 : 15

2
92. What should be added to 9 to get 19.
3
26 28
(A) (B)
3 3
29 31
(C) (D)
3 3

93.  
Simplify 16  11  8  6  4  2 
 
(A) 11 (B) 1
(C) 10 (D) None of these
Space for Rough Work

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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 9 Multiple Choice Questions number 94 to 102. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

94. Arteries carry _____ blood (except Pulmonary artery) & they have _____ elastic walls.
(A) Oxygenated blood, thick (B) Oxygenated blood, thin
(C) Deoxygenated blood, thick (D) Deoxygenated blood, thin

95. A doctor uses the _____ as a device to amplify the sound of the heart.
(A) Barometer (B) Stethoscope
(C) Oscilloscope (D) None of these

96. The process of removal of waste produced in the cells of the living organisms is called ____.
(A) Digestion (B) Transportation
(C) Excretion (D) Respiration

97. _____ increase the surface area of the root for the absorption of water and minerals dissolved in
water.
(A) Stem (B) Leaves
(C) Root hairs (D) Buds

98. _____ receives food from the food pipe at one end and opens into the small intestine at the other
end.
(A) Buccal cavity (B) Stomach
(C) Large intestine (D) Anus

99. The cell is enclosed by a thin outer boundary, called the _____.
(A) Cell membrane (B) Nucleus
(C) Cytoplasm (D) All of these

100. Food pipe is also known as _____.


(A) Buccal cavity (B) Esophagus
(C) Stomach (D) Small intestine

101. The vascular tissue for the transport of water & nutrients in the plant is called _____.
(A) Xylem (B) Phloem
(C) Bud (D) Translocation

102. The process of filtration of blood through the artificial kidney is known as _____.
(A) Cleaning (B) Dialysis
(C) Pumping (D) All of these
Space for Rough Work

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(FTRE – 2020)

ANSWERS
CLASS – VII (Paper-1)
1. B 2. B 3. A 4. C
5. B 6. D 7. B 8. C
9. B 10. D 11. D 12. B
13. C 14. A 15. B 16. C
17. A 18. D 19. C 20. B
21. A 22. B 23. B 24. B
25. D 26. B 27. C 28. C
29. C 30. C 31. D 32. A
33. D 34. A 35. B 36. C
37. D 38. C 39. D 40. A
41. B 42. D 43. B 44. A
45. D 46. B 47. B 48. D
49. B 50. C 51. C 52. A
53. B 54. D 55. C 56. D
57. C 58. C 59. A 60. A
61. C 62. C 63. B 64. C
65. B 66. B 67. D 68. C
69. C 70. D 71. C 72. C
73. B 74. A 75. B 76. A
77. C 78. C 79. A 80. A
81. C 82. B 83. D 84. D
85. C 86. A 87. B 88. C
89. B 90. B 91. A 92. B
93. B 94. A 95. B 96. C
97. C 98. B 99. A 100. B
101. A 102. B

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FIITJEE Talent Reward Exam - 2020


for students presently in

Class 7 (Paper 2)
(27th December 2020)
Time: 3 Hours (1:45 pm – 4:45 pm) Maximum Marks: 234
Code 7007
Instructions:
Caution: Class, Paper, Code as given above MUST be correctly marked on the answer OMR sheet
before attempting the paper. Wrong Class, Paper or Code will give wrong results.

1. You are advised to devote 60 Minutes on Section-I, 60 Minutes on Section-II and


60 Minutes on Section-III.
2. This Question paper consists of 3 sections. Marking scheme is given in table below:
Marking Scheme for each question
Section Subject Question no.
Correct answer Wrong answer
PHYSICS (PART-A) 1 to 15 +1.5 0
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 16 to 30 +1.5 0
SECTION – I
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 31 to 45 +1.5 0
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 46 to 60 +1.5 0
PHYSICS (PART-A) 61 to 66 +3 –1
CHEMISTRY (PART-B) 67 to 72 +3 –1
SECTION – II
MATHEMATICS (PART-C) 73 to 78 +3 –1
BIOLOGY (PART-D) 79 to 84 +3 –1
MATHEMATICS (PART-A) 85 to 96 +3 0
SECTION – III MATHEMATICS (PART-B) 97 to 108 +3 0

3. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheet. The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your
rough work. No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
4. Blank papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
5. Before attempting paper write your OMR Answer Sheet No., Registration Number, Name and Test
Centre in the space provided at the bottom of this sheet.
6. See method of marking of bubbles at the back of cover page for question no. 97 to 108.

Note: Please check this Question Paper contains all 108 questions in serial order. If not so, exchange for the correct Question Paper.

OMR Answer Sheet No. : ____________________________________________________________

Registration Number : ____________________________________________________________

Name of the Candidate : ____________________________________________________________

Test Centre : ____________________________________________________________

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For questions 97 to 108


Numerical based questions single digit answer 0 to 9

Example 1:
If answer is 6.
Correct method:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

Example 2:
If answer is 2.
Correct method:

0 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9

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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – I

Section – I
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions number 1 to 15. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1. On increasing the magnitude of electric current in a conductor, the number of magnetic lines of
force
(A) increases (B) decreases
(C) remains same (D) depends on direction of electric current.

2. Which of the following will offer lowest resistance?


(A) A 45 cm long copper wire with diameter 3 mm.
(B) A 60 cm long copper wire with diameter 2 mm.
(C) A 33 cm long copper wire with diameter 1.5 mm.
(D) A 33 cm long copper wire with diameter 5 mm.

3. Magnetic lines of force


(A) always intersect.
(B) always form closed loops.
(C) tend to crowd far away from the poles of a magnet.
(D) move from south to north outside the magnet and from north to south inside the magnet.

4. An ammeter is used to measure:


(A) potential difference (B) resistance
(C) current in the circuit (D) none of these
Space for Rough Work

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5. What cause blow off roofs during storm?


(A) Low pressure of fast moving air below roof.
(B) High pressure of fast moving air above the roof.
(C) Upthrust due to pressure difference, as air moving above the roof is faster resulting low
pressure.
(D) None of these.

6. 15 g of iron was heated from 30°C to 70°C. How much heat energy was used to raise
temperature of iron? (specific heat capacity of iron is 0.108 cal g1°C1)
(A) 64.8 cal (B) 0.216 cal
(C) 129.6 cal (D) 60 cal

7. A common household device, that uses an electromagnet in its working, is


(A) the electric bell (B) a room heater
(C) a geyser (D) the tube light

8. Two charged objects are brought close to each other. The two objects will
(A) always repel each other (B) always attract each other
(C) either attract or repel each other (D) neither attract nor repel each other

9. How much heat is released when 500 g of an object at 86°C cools to 36°C? The specific heat of
object is 1 cal g1°C1.
(A) 25 kcal (B) 250 kcal
(C) 500 kcal (D) 25 cal

10. Change 30°C into °F


(A) 98.6°F (B) 54°F
(C) 30°F (D) 86°F
Space for Rough Work

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11. How much heat is absorbed by a 200 g granite piece as energy from the sun causes its
temperature to change from 15°C to 35°C (specific heat capacity of granite is 0.1 cal g1°C1)?
(A) 20 cal (B) 400 cal
(C) 4000 cal (D) 40 cal

12. When 900 Joule of heat is given to 100 g sample of a metal, its temperature increased by 15°C. If
specific heat of metal is p × 100 J kg1°C1 then find the value of p.
(A) 5 (B) 9
(C) 6 (D) 12

13. A celsius and a fahrenheit thermometers are dipped in a boiling liquid. The liquid temperature is
lowered until the fahrenheit thermometer reads 149°F. If the boiling point of the liquid is 100°C.
What is the fall in temperature registered by celsius thermometer?
(A) 35° (B) 63°
(C) 49° (D) 51°

14. A resistance coil is made by combining two resistances each of 2.5 Ohm in series. A 1.0 V steady
emf get applied across the two ends of the coil for 5 minutes. The heat generated is:
(A) 30 J (B) 60 J
(C) 90 J (D) 120 J

15. Calculate the amount of heat required to change 120 g of ice at 0°C to steam at 100°C. Given
that latent heat of fusion of ice is 80 cal g1; specific heat of water = 1 cal g1°C1; latent heat of
vaporisation of steam = 540 cal g1.
(A) 540 kcal (B) 43.2 kcal
(C) 86.4 kcal (D) 162.8 kcal
Space for Rough Work

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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions number 16 to 30. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

16. Red colour of the soil is due to:


(A) iron oxide (B) humus
(C) moisture (D) none of these

17. Which soil is more suitable for cotton production?


(A) Black soil (B) Aluvial soil
(C) Peaty soil (D) Laterite soil

18. Which of the following is a natural fabric?


(A) Polyester (B) Rayon
(C) Nylon (D) Silk

19. Which of the following is not a fiber?


(A) Silk (B) Polyester
(C) PVC (D) Wool

20. Soil fertility can be increased naturally by:


(A) Contour ploughing (B) Crop rotation
(C) Terracing (D) Erosion

21. Soil pollution may be caused by


(A) cow dung (B) rain
(C) grazing by cattle (D) dumping of chemical waste

22. Pick the odd one out of the following


(A) cotton (B) silk
(C) viscose (D) wool

23. pH of carbonated drinks is


(A) < 7 (B) > 7
(C) 7 (D) 0
Space for Rough Work

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24. Which of the following is not acidic in nature?


(A) Apple juice (B) Vinegar solution
(C) Slaked lime (D) None of these

25. Sharp pain caused by an ant bite is due to:


(A) malic acid (B) nitric acid
(C) formic acid (D) lactic acid

26. Silk is made of protein named as


(A) sericin (B) casein
(C) globulin (D) none of these

27. Aquifer means


(A) rain water
(B) snow fall
(C) underground water bearing layer of the earth
(D) none of these

28. Humus is a
(A) non-living organic matter (B) living organic matter
(C) non-living inorganic matter (D) living inorganic matter

29. Which one of the following is a filament fibre?


(A) Silk (B) Jute
(C) Cotton (D) Wool

30. Desert soil is


(A) fertile (B) porous
(C) rich in humus (D) rich in silt
Space for Rough Work

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions number 31 to 45. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

1 1 1
 1
31. On simplification, value of 4 4 4 is equal to
1 1 1
 2
4 4 4
36 23
(A) (B)
185 175
9 17
(C) (D)
50 139

th
32.
2
If three – fourth of   of a number is 174 then the number is
5
(A) 580 (B) 570
(C) 560 (D) 540

33. The measure of the angle which is equal to its complement is


(A) 30o (B) 60o
(C) 45o (D) 90o

34. If cost price of 15 pens is equal to selling price of 12 pens then gain percent is
(A) 10% (B) 15%
(C) 20% (D) 25%
Space for Rough Work

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7 5 2 3
35. Find the smallest rational number among , , and 
10 8 3 4
7 5
(A) (B)
10 8
2 3
(C) (D) 
3 4

7 1
36. On field, Nitin jumped 4 feet and Anil jumped 3 feet. How much farther did Nitin jump than
12 6
Anil?
5
(A) 2 feet (B) 1 feet
6
5 5
(C) 1 feet (D) feet
12 12

37. By selling 45 lemons for Rs. 40, a man loses 20%. How many should he sell for Rs. 24 to gain
20%?
(A) 16 (B) 18
(C) 20 (D) 22

7
38. After reading of a book, 40 pages are left. How many pages are there in the book?
9
(A) 200 (B) 180
(C) 162 (D) 207

39. The cost of 12 dozen of banana is Rs. 456. What will be the cost of 264 banana
(A) Rs. 826 (B) Rs. 836
(C) Rs. 856 (D) Rs. 918
Space for Rough Work

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p
40. 1.27 in the form is equal to
q
127 73
(A) (B)
100 100
14 11
(C) (D)
11 14

41. If x is less than y by 25% then y exceed x by:


1
(A) 33 % (B) 25%
3
2
(C) 75% (D) 66 %
3

1 1
42. If x  y and y  z , then x : y : z is equal to:
3 2
(A) 3 : 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 : 6
(C) 1 : 3 : 6 (D) 2 : 4 : 6

43. A tradesman allows a discount of 15% on the marked price. How much above the cost price
must he mark his goods as to gain 19%?
(A) 34% (B) 40%
(C) 25% (D) 30%

44. Niyaz has to obtain 33% of total marks to pass. He got 25% of total marks and failed by 40
marks. The number of total marks is:
(A) 800 (B) 300
(C) 500 (D) 1000

45. The difference between the selling price of an article at a profit of 15% and at a profit of 10%
is Rs. 10. The cost price of the article is
(A) Rs. 100 (B) Rs. 120
(C) Rs. 150 (D) Rs. 200
Space for Rough Work

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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 15 Multiple Choice Questions number 46 to 60. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

46. Human heart has _______ chambers.


(A) Two (B) Three
(C) Four (D) Five

47. (i) The upper chambers of heart are called as _______.


(ii) The lower chambers of heart are called as _______.
(A) (i) Atria, (ii) Aorta (B) (i) Aorta, (ii) Atria
(C) (i) Ventricles, (ii) Atria (D) (i) Atria, (ii) Ventricles

48. An adult human being normally passes about _____ of urine in 24 hours.
(A) 3 - 4 liters (B) 1 - 1.8 liters
(C) 2 - 4 liters (D) 3.5 - 4.5 liters

49. The utilization of digested food by the body to get energy is known as _____.
(A) Digestion (B) Absorption
(C) Assimilation (D) Egestion

50. _____ contains a network of thin & small blood vessel & helps in the absorption of food.
(A) Villi in small intestine (B) Esophagus
(C) Salivary glands (D) Gall bladder

51. The bacteria present in our mouth break down the sugars present from the leftover food and
release acids. The acids gradually damage the teeth. This is called _____.
(A) Toothache (B) Tooth loss
(C) Tooth decay (D) Tooth preservation

52. The desert plants have scales or spine like leaves to:
(A) Reduce the loss of water (B) Increase the loss of water
(C) Reduce the use of air (D) Increase the use of air
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53. The components of food such as carbohydrates are complex substance. These complex
substances need to break down into simpler substances. This process of breakdown of complex
into simple is known as _____.
(A) Deposition (B) Digestion
(C) Excretion (D) Transportation

54. The green color of algae is due to the presence of _____.


(A) Red pigments (B) Brown pigments
(C) Green chlorophyll (D) Violet pigments

55. The presence of starch in leaves indicates the occurrence of _____.


(A) Respiration (B) Digestion
(C) Transpiration (D) Photosynthesis

56. After injury, on a bleeding surface a clot is formed because of the presence of _______.
(A) RBC (B) WBC
(C) Platelets (D) Both (A) and (B)

57. The function of white blood cell is:


(A) To transport oxygen
(B) To fight against germs that may enter our body
(C) To clot the blood
(D) All of these

58. The color of blood is red because of the _______


(A) Haemoglobin (B) WBC
(C) Platelets (D) None of these

59. The rhythmic contraction and relaxation of heart is known as _______.


(A) Heartbeat (B) Movement
(C) Respiration (D) Both (A) and (C)

60. The major excretory product in humans is ______.


(A) Uric acid (B) Urea
(C) Ammonia (D) Oxygen
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – II

Section – II
PHYSICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 61 to 66. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

61. When 800 Joule of heat is given to 200 g sample of a metal, its temperature increased by 40°C. If
specific heat of metal is m × 50 J kg1°C1 then find the value of m.
(A) 1 (B) 3
(C) 2 (D) 4

62. If we take 150 g of water and supply 1200 calorie of heat to it then what will be the rise in its
temperature? (take specific heat of water as 1 cal g–1 °C–1). Assume no loss of heat in
surroundings and all supplied heat get absorbed by water only.
(A) 6 °C (B) 4 K
(C) 8 °C (D) none of these

3
63. A solid ball of mass 3 kg at 10°C is dropped in kg of water at 70°C. The resulting temperature
2
is 50°C. This means that specific heat of solid ball is (assume no heat loss in surroundings)
(A) one fourth of specific heat of water (B) twice of specific heat of water
(C) one half of specific heat of water (D) three times of specific heat of water

64. In the given circuit, the ammeter A, assumed to have negligible


resistance, reads 0.1 A. The value of R is
(A) 6 
(B) 8 Ω
(C) 16 
(D) 20 

65. An immersion heater rated 1.5 kW is used to heat 10 kg of water. Calculate the time taken in
raising the temperature of the water by 32°C. Specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg−1 °C−1.
(A) 16 minutes (B) 12 minutes
(C) 448 second (D) 896 second

66. A copper wire of resistance 5 Ω get stretched to three times its initial length. What will be the
resistance of the stretched wire?
(A) 5 Ω (B) 15 Ω
(C) 45 Ω (D) (5/3) Ω
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CHEMISTRY – (PART – B)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 67 to 72. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

67. Sorter’s disease is associated with-


(A) Cotton industry (B) Silk industry
(C) Wool industry (D) Both (A) and (B)

68. Which one of the following contains oxalic acid?


(A) Spinach (B) Milk
(C) Lemon (D) Grapes

69. What is the general taste of bases?


(A) Sweet (B) Sour
(C) Salty (D) Bitter

70. The product in a neutralization reaction is


(A) an acid (B) a base
(C) a salt (D) all the three

71. Various layers of soil are called:


(A) soil profile (B) soil erosion
(C) horizon (D) None of these

72. Which soil has the right water holding capacity for growth of plants?
(A) Sandy soil (B) Clayey soil
(C) Loamy soil (D) None of these
Space for Rough Work

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MATHEMATICS – (PART – C)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 73 to 78. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

73. The compound interest on Rs. 8000 at 20% per annum for 9 months compounded quarterly is
(A) Rs. 9261 (B) Rs. 1351
(C) Rs. 1121 (D) Rs. 1261

74. Rohan sells an item to Manish at a profit of 15% and Manish sells it to Kapil at a profit of 20%. If
Kapil purchased this item at Rs. 4140 then the price at which Rohan purchased the item is
(A) Rs. 2800 (B) Rs. 3500
(C) Rs. 3200 (D) Rs. 3000

75. If 5A  6B and 8B  9C , then A : C is equal to ?


(A) 3 : 5 (B) 5 : 9
(C) 9 : 4 (D) 27 : 20

76. In the given figure, AB  DE. Then find the D


E
value of x.
(A) 25o A B
o
95
(B) 35o
(C) 45o
o
130 x
(D) 55o
C

77. A shopkeeper buys 11 pens for Rs. 10 and sells 10 pens for Rs. 11. His percentage profit is equal
to
(A) 11% (B) 15%
(C) 20% (D) 21%

3 2 1
78. In a class, of the students are girls and rest are boys. If of the girls and of the boys are
5 9 4
absent. What part of the total number of students are present?
23 23
(A) (B)
30 36
18 17
(C) (D)
49 25
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BIOLOGY – (PART – D)
This part contains 6 Multiple Choice Questions number 79 to 84. Each question has 4 choices
(A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

79. Choose the correct statement/s from the following.


(A) Sponges and hydra do not possess any circulatory system.
(B) Each heartbeat generates one pulse in the arteries.
(C) The pulse rate per minute indicates the rate of heartbeat.
(D) All of the above

80. We sweat on a hot summer day & it contains salt and water. The main function of sweat is to
_____.
(A) Hot the body (B) Remove nitrogenous waste
(C) Cool the body (D) Remove carbon dioxide

81. Diarrhoea is caused by infection, food poisoning or indigestion. We should give these things to a
person suffering from diarrhoea.
(A) Boiled and cooled water (B) Oral Rehydration Solution
(C) A heavy diet (D) Both (A) and (B)

82. In organism called lichens, a chlorophyll containing partner, which is an alga, and a fungus live
together. The fungus provides _____ and in return alga provides _____.
(A) Food, shelter & water (B) Shelter & water, food
(C) Air, shelter (D) Shelter, Air

83. Choose the correct statement/s regarding transpiration.


(A) Transpiration is described as the evaporation of water through the stomata present on the
surface of leaves.
(B) Transpiration also cools the plants.
(C) Transpiration helps to transport water to great heights in the tall trees.
(D) All of these

84. Choose the correct statement/s regarding veins.


(A) Veins contain valves to prevent backflow of blood.
(B) In veins blood flow at high pressure.
(C) Veins are present near heart only.
(D) All of these
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Recommended Time: 60 Minutes for Section – III


Section – III
MATHEMATICS – (PART – A)
This part contains 12 Multiple Choice Questions number 85 to 96. Each question has 4
choices (A), (B), (C) and (D), out of which ONLY ONE is correct.

85. A sum at compound interest doubles itself in 15 years. In how many years will it become 8 times?
(A) 60 years (B) 35 years
(C) 40 years (D) 45 years

86. If the profit made in selling 25 metres of a cloth equals the selling price of 5 metres of that cloth
then the profit percent is
(A) 20% (B) 15%
(C) 25% (D) 10%

87. Find the compound interest at 5% for three years on the sum whose simple interest at 5% per
annum for three years is Rs. 1200.
(A) Rs. 845 (B) Rs. 1261
(C) Rs. 1470 (D) Rs. 1071

1 1 1
88. If Rs. 910 is to be divided among x, y and z, so that their shares are in the ratio of : : then
5 6 10
how much more x gets than z?
(A) 390 (B) 195
(C) 130 (D) None of these
Space for Rough Work

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1 1 1 2
89. 4  3   x   2  13 , find value of x
2 6 3 5
17
(A) (B) 3
5
18 14
(C) (D)
5 5

7 5 5
90. The sum of and is equal to the product of and a number. Find the number
3 6 3
35 5
(A) (B)
6 3
25 19
(C) (D)
6 10

1
91. If 2  x  then x = ?
1
1
1
3
4
3 11
(A) (B)
2 13
25 21
(C) (D)
13 17

1 1 1 1
92. If A :B  : , B :C  : , then  A  B  : B  C  is equal to
2 3 5 3
(A) 8 : 15 (B) 16 : 15
(C) 15 : 8 (D) 15 : 16
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93. A number when reduced by 10% gives 30. The number is


1 1
(A) 33 (B) 33
2 3
(C) 40 (D) 35

1 1
94. If 78 is divided into three parts which are in the ratio 1: : , the middle part is
3 6
1
(A) 9 (B) 13
3
1 1
(C) 17 (D) 18
3 3

95. The ratio of age of two students is 3 : 2. One is older to the other by 5 years. What is the age of
the younger student?
(A) 2 years (B) 10 years
1
(C) 2 years (D) 15 years
2

96. If 5.5 of a = 0.65 of b, then a : b is equal to


(A) 13 : 11 (B) 11 : 13
(C) 13 : 110 (D) 110 : 13
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MATHEMATICS – (PART – B)
This part contains 12 Numerical Based Questions number 97 to 108. Each question has
Single Digit Answer 0 to 9.

97. If x : y = 2 : 3 and 2 : x = 1 : 2, then y = ?

1 1 1 1 1
98. 1     is equal to:
2 4 7 14 28

99.
 
  8  5  1  10   2  .5   ?

1 1 1
 
1
100. Find the value of 3 3 3  .
1 1 1 9
 of
3 3 3

1 1
101.   _______.
1 3
2 1
3 4

102. In the given figure, line l is parallel to m and p is parallel to p q


q. If a  b  46m then find m.
o
65
l
a

b
m

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103. Find the positive value of m, if 2, m and 8 are in continued proportion

104. Sum of two integers is – 22. If one of the integers is –25, then the other is

xy 9 4 14 3
105. Find the value of if x   and y   .
3 12 3 6 7

x x
106. Find the value of x if  5
2 3

107. The measure of the supplement of the angle 120o is 10x o , find the value of x (in degree).

108. In the following figure EF  GH . Then, the F H


x 120o x
measure of is equal to
10 30o

E G
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(FTRE – 2020)

ANSWERS
CLASS – VII (Paper-2)
1. A 2. D 3. B 4. C
5. C 6. A 7. A 8. C
9. A 10. D 11. B 12. C
13. A 14. B 15. C 16. A
17. A 18. D 19. C 20. B
21. D 22. C 23. A 24. C
25. C 26. A 27. C 28. A
29. A 30. B 31. A 32. A
33. C 34. D 35. D 36. C
37. B 38. B 39. B 40. C
41. A 42. C 43. B 44. C
45. D 46. C 47. D 48. B
49. C 50. A 51. C 52. A
53. B 54. C 55. D 56. C
57. B 58. A 59. A 60. B
61. C 62. C 63. A 64. B
65. D 66. C 67. C 68. A
69. D 70. C 71. C 72. C
73. D 74. D 75. D 76. C
77. D 78. A 79. D 80. C
81. D 82. B 83. D 84. A
85. D 86. C 87. B 88. B
89. A 90. D 91. D 92. D
93. B 94. C 95. B 96. C
97. 6 98. 2 99. 1 100. 0
101. 1 102. 5 103. 4 104. 3
105. 0 106. 6 107. 6 108. 3

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