Test 22

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We3HM 22

1. The speed ratio of a Kaplan turbine is about


(1) 1.5 (2) 2.5
(3) 4.0 (4) 6.0
Ans: (2)
Speed ratio of a Kaplan turbine range is 1.8 to 2.5
Note: Speed ratio of a Francis turbine range is 0.6 to 0.9
Speed ratio of pelton wheel range is 0.4 - 0.5
Sr. No Type of Turbine U
Speed ratio (φ)=
√ 2 gH
1 Pelton wheel 0.4-0.5
2 Francis turbine 0.6-0.9
3 Kaplan & Propeller 1.8 to 2.5

2. Discharge through Francis turbine is given by:


(1)Q=πDB v f
(2)Q=kπDB v f
2
πd
(3)Q= × √2 gH
4
π 2 2
(4)Q= ( D0−D 0)
4
(Symbols carries usual meaning)
Ans: (2)
Theoretical discharge through Francis turbine(Q)= A f 1 . V f 1= Af 2 . V f 2
Actual discharge = K.Q
= K. A f 1 . V f 1 = K. A f 2 . V f 2 = kπDB v f
Where k = vane factor

3. Choose the correct statement from the following


(1) Degree of reaction for a Kaplan turbine is zero
(2) Degree of reaction for a Kaplan turbine is one
(3) Degree of reaction for a Pelton wheel is one
(4) Degree of reaction for a Pelton wheel is zero
Ans: (4)
Degree Of Reaction (D.O.R) of a turbine is defined as the ratio of pressure energy change to total
energy change inside the turbine runner.
H P . E change inside runner
D .O . R= p =
H r T . E change inside runner
For Pelton wheel: (U₁ = U2)
Hp=0 ∴D.O.R=0

4. The specific speed of a turbine is defined as the speed of a geometrically similar turbine
(1) of unit size with unit discharge under unit head
(2) of such a size that it develops unit power for unit discharge
(3) of such a size that it develops unit power under unit head
(4) that is none of the above
Ans: (3)
Specific speed (Ns1) of a turbine:
It is defined as the rotational speed at which a water turbine would operate at best efficiency
under unit head (1 m) and which is sized to produce unit power (1 KW).
N S is given by= √5/ 4 Where
N P
r
(H )
N→ r. p. m turbine runner wheel (rpm)
P → shaft power (kW)
H→ Head on turbine (m)

5. If P is the power developed by the turbine under a head of water H, then the unit power
developed by a turbine is:
P
(1)
√H
P
(2)
H
P
(3) 3 /2
H
P
(4) 2
H
Ans: (3)
Unit Power (Pu): It is defined as the power developed by a turbine, working under a unit head.
P P1 P2
Pu= 3 /2 ∴ 3 /2 = 3 /2
H H1 H2

6. The Thomas number is defined as equal to


Pα −PV −γz
(1)
γ H1
P −PV
(2) α
γ H1
Pα −PV −γ H 1
(3)
γH
(P¿¿ α + γz)−P v
(4) ¿
γ H1
Ans: (2)

7. For very high discharge and low pressure the pump preferred is
(1) centrifugal (2) reciprocating
(3) axial flow (4) mixed flow
Ans: (1)

8. Work done by the impeller of a centrifugal pump per second per unit weight of water is:
1
(1) v w 1 u1
g
1
(2) v w 2 u2
g
1
(3) (v w1 u1 +v w 2 u2)
g
1
(4) (v w 1 u1−v w2 u2 )
g
Ans: (2)
V .U
Sol: W.D by impeller of Centrifugal pump/Newton weight of fluid/sec w 2 2 (meters)
g
(for shock less flow at inlet)

9. The specific speed of a centrifugal pump, delivering 750 litres of water per second against a
head of 15 meters of 725 r.p.m. is: 
(1) 24.8 r.p.m (2) 48.2 r.p.m
(3) 82.4 r.p.m (4) 248 r.p.m
Ans: (3)
Q =750 lt/sec = 0.75 m³/sec
H = 15 m,N = 725 rpm
−N s = √3 /4 =
N Q 725 √ 0.75
3/4
=82.4
p
H (15)

10. If V₁ and V2 are the velocities of water at inlet and outlet of the draft tube respectively, then
the efficiency of a draft tube is :
V 1−V 2
(1)
V1
2 2
V 1−V 2
(2) 2
V1
V 21
(3)
V 21−V 22
V1
(4)
V 1−V 2
Ans. (2): The efficiency of a draft tube is defined as the ratio of Actual conversation of kinetic
head into pressure head in the draft tube to the kinetic head at the inlet of the draft tube.
( )
2 2
V1 V2
− −hf
2g 2 g
ηd =
V 21
2g
FM 22
1. The dimensions of kinematic Viscosity and Dynamic Viscosity in SI system are:
(1) LT-2 & ML-1 T-1 (2) L2T-1 & ML-1 T²
(3) L2T-1 & M1 L-1 T1  (4) ML-1 T1 & LT2
Ans. (3):
Dimensions of Kinematic viscosity = [M°L2T-1]
Dynamic Viscosity =[ML-1T-1]
Velocity Potential =[L2T-1]
dimension of Stream function = [L2T-1]
Acceleration =[LT-2]

2. Time scale ratio for a model based on Froude's law criteria in terms of length scale ratio L, is
(1) Lr (2) √ Lr
1
(3) (4) L1.5
√ Lr r

Ans. (2)
Time scale ratio for a model based on Froude's law criteria in terms of length scale ratio Lr is √ Lr

3. The Gases are considered incompressible if Mach number is


(1) = 0.50 (2) Ma > 0.30
(3) = 1 (4) Ma < 0.20
Ans : (4)
For incompressible gases, mach number is less than 0.20
Mach Number =
√Inertiaforce
Elastic force
(i) Mach number < 0.30, incompressible flow
(ii) Mach number < 1.0, compressible flow, subsonic flow
(iii) Mach number = 1, sonic flow
(iv) Mach number > 1, super sonic flow
(v) Mach number > 6, hyper sonic flow

4. The location of centre of pressure for a circular plate 2 m diameter immersed vertically in
water with its top edge 1.0 m below the water surface is
(1) 1.125 m (2) 2.000 m
(3) 1.215 m (4) 2.125 m
Ans: (4)
2G 2
Centre of pressure=h̀= + h=1+ =2 m
Ah 2
π
× 24
64
h́= +2=2.125 m
π 2
×2 ×2
4
5. A block of wood 2 m long, 2 m wide and 1 m deep is floating horizontally in water. If density
of wood is 800 kg/m³, then the volume of water displaced will be
(1) 3.2 m³ (2) 2.6 m³
(3) 2 m³ (4) 6 m³
Ans. (1):
For floating condition,
Weight of wooden block = Weight of water displaced
Volume density = Volume of water × density of water
2×2×1×800 = Vw × 1000
Vw = 3.2m

6. Which of the following relations are correct?


1. Absolute pressure = Atmospheric pressure + Gauge pressure
2. Absolute pressure = Atmospheric pressure - Vacuum pressure
3. Absolute pressure = Atmospheric pressure +Vacuum pressure
4. Absolute pressure = Atmospheric pressure - Gauge pressure
(1) 1 and 4 only (2) 1 and 2 only
(3) 2 and 3 only  (4) 3 and 4 only
Ans. (2):
The pressure values must be started with respect to a reference level. If the reference level is
vacuum (i.e. absolute zero pressure), pressure are termed as absolute pressure.
Pabsolute = Patmospheric + P gauge
Pabsolute = Patmospheric - Pvacuum

7. In a 12cm diameter pipe, the major losses are equal to 5.0v2/2g. The equivalent length of pipe
to account for the major losses for f = 0.04 is
(1) 5m (2) 15m
(3) 10m (4) 20m
Ans: (2)
0.5 v 2
Minor losses
2g
dia, D= 12 cm or 0.12 m, f= 0.04
To account minor loss
fL V 2 5.0 V 2 fL
hf = = ∴ =5.0
2 gD 2g D
5.0 ×d 5.0 ×0.12
L= = =15 m
f 0.04

8. The kinetic energy correction factor α is a measure of effect of non-uniform distribution of


velocity which is caused on account of viscous and other resistance. It is expressed by
.

( )
2
1 v
(1) ∫ dA
A A V
.

(2)∫ ( ) dA
v
A V
.

( ) dA
3
v
(3) ∫
A V
.

(4) ∫ ( ) dA
3
V
A v
Ans. (3)
Kinetic energy correction factor (α):
K . E/ secbased on actual velocity
α=
K . E /sec based on aveage velocity
.
α =∫
A V
( )
v 3
dA

Kinetic energy correction factor for laminar flow through a circular pipe is 2 and for turbulent
flow it is 1.02 to 1.15

9. Given that, S0 = slope of the channel bottom, Se. = slope of the energy, line and F = Froude no.
the equation of gradually varied flow, is expressed as
dy S 0−S f
(1) =
dx 1+ F 2
dy S 0−S f
(2) =
dx 1−F2
dy S 0−S f
(3) =
dx 1+ F2
dy S −S
(4) = 0 2f
dx 1+ F
Ans: (2)
dy S 0−S f
GVF equation , =
dx 1−F2

Bridge T22
1. In splayed wing wall, or inclination is usually the splay
(1) 30° (2) 45°
(3) 60° (4) 90
Ans: (2)

2. Maximum scour case of abutment accurs at 


(1) The upstream corner (2) The downstream corner
(3) Both A and B (4) None.
Ans: (1) 
Note:- maximum scour occurs in case of piers at downstream nose end

3. The linear waterway for minor bridge is between


(1) 1m to 6m (2) 6m to 30m
(3) 30m to 45m (4) None of the above 
Ans: (2)

4) The river training work at bridge site should be carried out from
(1) Nodal points
(2) Abutment
(3) downstream nose end
(4) All of the above
Ans. (1) nodal points is the location where the river regime does not normally shift.

5) When span exceeds 45m, the impact factor for R. C. C bridges ( class A and B loading) is
(1) 50% (2) 54.5%
(3) 8.8% (4) 15.4 %.
Ans: (3) 

6) The footways of bridge near crowded towns, the design live load is
(1) 3 KN/m² (2) 4 KN/m²
(3) 5 KN/m² (4) 6 KN/m²
Ans: (3)

7) The length of tracked vehicle in class AA loading is


(1) 7.20 m (2) 8.80 m
(3) 6.70 m (4) 5.50 m
Ans: (1)

8) For economic span of bridge, the cost of one pier is equal to


(1) The cast of two span.
(2) one-half of the cost of two span which it support
(3) The Cast of abutment.
(4) The cost of one span
Ans: (2)

9) For major bridges, the cost of bearings roughly work out to about
(1) 50 %. (2) 25 to 50%.
(3) 15 to 25 %. (4) 10 to 15 %.
Ans : (4)

10. Clearance provisions for arch bridge is


(1) 300 mm (2) 450 mm
(3) 600 mm (4) 900 mm
Ans: (1)

Estimating and casting T22


1) Revised estimate method is done when 
(1) Cost of work exceeds by 10% of its original sanctioned cost.
(2) Cost of work exceeds by 5% of administrative sanctioned cost.
(1) Only A  (2) Only B 
(3) Both A & B (4) none of the above 
Ans: (4) 

2) IS code used for degree of accuracy is 


(1) IS 1200 (2) IS 4312
(3) IS 2121 (4) none of the above
Ans: (1)

3) (1) general specification provide general discription of varies item of work.


(2) detailed specification provide detailed discription of varies item of work
(3) Concrete jali, jefferice concrete measurement is taken in m2
which of the above is/are correct?
(1) A and B correct.
(2) A, B and C
(3) B & C
(4) none of the above 
Ans: (2)

4) If =30° , then crank lenght (L) is (where, is actual length, d is size of bent)
(1) L = l+2×0.42d
(2) L = l+2×0.89d
(3) L= l+2×0.27d
(4) L= l+2×0.57d
Ans : (3)

5) Earnest money or deposit varies in the range of


(1) 1 to 2% of project cost 
1
(2) 2 of 2 % of project cost.
2
(3) 5 to 10% of project cost
(4) none of the above
Ans: (1)

6) Group I Group II
(1) Envelope 1 (i) Tender Form
(2) Envelope 2 (ii) Earnest money (E(4)
(3) Envelope 3 (iii) Contractor technical Certificate
correct answer using codes given below
A B C
1 Iii Ii I
2 ii i iii
3 i ii iii
4 ii iii i
Ans: 4)
7) Work done per day per manson for brick work in arch is
(1) 0.85 m³ (2) 0.75 m³
(3) 0.65 m³ (4) 0.55 m³
Ans: (4)

8) In centre line method at L junction deduction is


(1) half width from centre line length
(2) not required.
(3) full width of wall is subtracted from centre line
(4) none of the above
Ans: (2)

9) The original cost of an equipment is Rs. 10,000. Its salvage value at the end of its total useful
life of live years is Rs. 1,000. Its book value at the end of two years of its useful life (as per
straight line method of evaluation of depreciation) will be
(1) Rs. 8,800 (2) Rs. 7,600
(3) Rs. 6,400 (4) Rs. 5,000
Ans. (3):
P−C0
Annual depreciation=
n
10000−1000
¿ =1800
5
Book value at the end of two years 
= 10000-2 x 1800 = 6400
Tunnel 22

1. The caission method of tunnelling is economical for


(1) rectangular and circular sections (2) An elliptical section
(3) Horse shoe sections (4) segmental cross-section
Ans (1)

2. open cut provided when


(1) vertical depth is more than 20m (2) Vertical depth is between 20m to 40 m
(3) Vertical depth is less than 20m (4) none of the above
Ans (3)

3. segmental cross section of tunnel Used in


(1) Subway or navigation tunnel (2) Sewers tunnel.
(3) traffic tunnel (4) Railway tunnel
Ans (1)

4. (i) Conventional method of mining are suitable for driving horse-shoe and Flat arched sections
of tunnel.
(ii) Conventional mining method is less economical for circular sections in tunnel.
(iii) The free- face method can be used for Cross sections of any desired shape
Which of the above me/is correct?
(1) i and ii (2) ii and iii
(3) only iii (4) All the above
Ans (4)

5. (i) Blastering powder made from potash nitrate, Sulphur and charcoal
(ii) straight dynamite is high explosives
(iii) In liquid air explosive, as to Liquified. which contains about gs % O2, at temp. of 191° C
which of the above are correct
(1) only I (2) i and ii
(3) I, ii and iii (4) None of the above
Ans (2)

6. Austrain method of tunnelling used for


(1) railway or highway tunnels. (2) Long tunnels specially at great depth
(3) Short tunnels at shallow depth (4) hard Rock tunnels
Ans (2)

7. Army method of tunnelling used in


(1) Soft ground (2) hard ground
(3) Both A and B (4) None of the above
Ans (1)

8. In tunnelling light intensity required in working area is


(1) 60 lumens /m² (2) 160 Lumens/m2
(3) 180 Lumens/m² (4) 260 lumens/m²
Ans (4)

9. The Concentration of dust particles of size 0.5 to 5 μ should not exceeds


(1) 150 particles/cm³ (2) 250 particles/cm³
(3) 350 particles/cm 3
(4) 450 particles/cm3
Ans (4)

Hydrology 22

163. Match the items in List-I (Instruments) and List-II (Items to be measure(4) using the codes
below -
List-I Code: List-II
A. Tipping bucket gauge 1. Infiltration intensity
B. ISI standard Pan 2. Evapotranspiration
C. Lysimeter 3. Rainfall
D. Rainfall simulator 4. Evaporation
The correct code is :
A B C D
(1) 3 4 2 1
(2) 1 4 2 3
(3) 1 2 4 3
(4) 3 2 4 1
Ans (1)

2. The 6-hr unit hydrograph of a catchment is triangular in shape. The peak discharge is 40
cumecs and the time base is 75 hours the catchment area is
(1) 360 sq km (2) 450 sq kg
(3) 540 sq km. (4) 630 sq.km
Ans (3)

3. As per Is Code, density of raingauge in plain area is


(1) one raingauge per 260 to 390 km² (2) one raingauge per 130 km²
(3) one raingauge per 520 km² (4) All the above.
Ans (3)

4. A rainfall with intensity greater than 3 mm/h but less thick 7mm/h, referred as
(1) Excessive rain (2) moderate rain
(3) severe rain (4)Light rai
Ans (2)

5. A bridge has an expected life of 25 years, and is designed for a flood magnitude of return
period 50 years. What is the risk associated with this hydrologic design?
(1) (0.98)25 (2) (0.98)50
(3) (0.5)0.25 (4) 1 - (0.98)25
Ans (4)

6. In a water table if the porosity is 30% and the specific retention is 10%, what is the specific
yield of the aquifer
(1) 20% (2) 40%
(3)50% (4) 3%
Ans (1)
7. Match the items for an aquifer related to ground water development as in List 1 (Terminology)
with those in List 2(Definitions).
List 1 List 2
A. Specific 1. Volume of water drained by gravity per unit volume of aquifer
retention
B. Specific 2. Yield of well per unit drawdown
storage
C. Specific yield 3. Volume of water retained per unit volume of aquifer
D. Specific 4. Difference of porosity and specific storage
capacity
5. Volume of water released from unit volume of aquifer for unit
decline in piezometric head
(1) A-3, B-3, C4, D-2
(2) A-4, B-5, C-1, D-2
(3) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(4) A-4, B-5, C-3, D-2
Ans (2)

8. Rain fall intensities in mm/hr at half an hour interval during a 4-hour storm were: 5, 9, 20, 13,
6, 8, 16 and 3 mm/hr. If the corresponding observed runoff is 27.45 million m' from a basin
having an area of 1830 Km²? The 4-index for storm is:
(1) 6.25 mm/hr (3) 7.2 mm/hr
(2) 6.7 mm/hr (4) 7 mm/hr
Ans (3)

9. The instrument used for measuring evaporation is:


(1) hygrometer (3) lysimeter
(2) atmometer (4) luxmeter
Ans (2)

Irrigation 22

1.Which of the following has the maximum water application efficiency?


(1) Surface Irrigation (2) Lift Irrigation
(3) Sprinkler Irrigation (4) Sub-surface Irrigation Drip Irrigation
Ans (4)

2. An irrigation project is called as a major project if the culturable command area (hectares) is
more than:
(1) 2500 (3) 7500
(2) 5000 (4) 10000
Ans (4)

3.The depth of rice root zone is


(1) 90 cm (3) 70 cm
(2) 80 cm (4) 60 cm
Ans (1)

3. 12 m/sec of water is diverted to a 30 hectare field for 5 hours. Soil probing after irrigation
showed that 0.4 m of water had been stored in the root zone. Water application efficiency in this
case would be:
(1) 66.66% (2) 77.77%
(3) 44.44% (4) 55.55%
Ans (4)

4. According to Lacey's theory, the bed slope given by


4
f3
(1) 1
3340 Q 2
2
f3
(2) 1
3340 Q 4

5
f3
(3) 1
3340 Q 6
1
f3
( 4) 1
3340 Q 6

Where f is silt factor and Q is discharge in m³/s.


Ans (3)

5 . The ratio of rate of change of discharge of canal outlet to the rate of the change of the
discharge of the distributing channel is known as
(1) Proportionality (3) Sensitivity
(2) Flexible (4) Drowning ratio
Ans (2)

6. The centre of pressure of wave pressure due to a wave of height h, acting on a gravity dam
will be at a height above the maximum still water level of
(1) hw/2 (2) 3hw/8
(3) hw/3 (4) 2hw/3
Ans (2)

7. The downstream curve of the ogee profile for an ogee shaped spillway crest is given by:

(1) ( ) H
x 0.85
=2() y
x
0.85 1.85
( 2 ) x =2 H y
(3)x 1.85=2 H 0. 85 y
( 4 ) y 1.85=2 H 0.85 x
Ans (3)

8. The Indian Standard Guidelines for design of floods for dams is given by :
(1) IS: 456 (2) IS: 11150-1985
(3) IS: 11223-1985 (4) IS: 11223-1980
Ans (3)

Environmental 22
1. In water treatment both pre-, and post-, chlorination of water are done to control:
1. Colour 2. Odour
3. Water-borne diseases due to bacteria 4. Algae
5. Turbidity 6. TDS
Which of the above are correct?
(1) 1, 2, 3 and 4 (2) 2, 3, 4 and 5
(3) 3, 4, 5 and 6 (4) 1, 3, 5 and 6
Ans. (1):
In water treatment pre-chlorination reduce colour odour diseases causing compound and post
chlorination reduce algae, at increases coagulation.

2. The 5 day BOD at 20°C of a sewage is 160 ppm. If the deoxygenation constant is 0.2 per day,
the ultimate BOD will be
(1) 180 mg/L (2) 193 mg/L
(3) 201 mg/L (4) 234 mg/L
Ans : (4)
BOD = 160 PPM
deoxygenation constant (k) = 0.2 per day 
generally
BOD5= 0.68 BODu
BOD 5 160
BOD u= =
0.68 0.68
BOD u=235.29 PPM
Hence most close option is 234 PPM.
3. If the total hardness and alkalinity of a sample of water are 300 mg/L and 100 mg/L (as
CaCO3) respectively, then its carbonate and non-carbonate hardness will be respectively:
(1) 100 mg/L and 200 mg/L
(2) 400 mg/L and 300 mg/L
(3) 100 mg/L and 400 mg/L
(4) 400 mg/L and 0 mg/L
Ans. (1):
Carbonate Hardness = Total Hardness or Alkalinity
Which ever 300 is less = 100
Ch = Carbonate Hardness 100 = Alakalinty =
Total Hardness = Carbonate Hardness + Non carbonate Hardness
300 = 100+ NCH 
NCH = 300-100= (200 mg/L)

4. Match List-I (Parameters with List-II (Permissible concentration in drinking water) and select
the correct answer using the codes given below the lists:
List-I List-II
A. Hardness (i) 0.3 mg/L
B. Chlorides (ii) 200 mg/L
C. Iron (iii) 250 mg/L
D. Fluoride (iv) 0.1 mg/L
A B C D
(1) (ii) (iii) (i) (iv)
(2) (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
(3) (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
(4) (iil) (ii) (iv) (i)
Ans. (2):
Permissible limit cource and refection
Hardness 200 600
Chloride 250 1000
Iron 0.1 1.0
Fluoride 1 1.5
Total dissolve solid 500 2000
Alkalinity 200 600
Total suspended solid 500 2000
Turbidity 1(NTU) 10(NTU)
Taste and odious 1 3
PH 7-8.5 6.5-9.2
Free ammonia 0.15 0.15
Nitrite 45 45
Nitsite 0 0

5. The dimensions for a rectangular primary sedimentation tank is, length = 30m; breadth = 10 m
and depth = 3m. If the flow rate through the tank is 0.1 m³/s, the surface overflow rate (SOR) of
tank is _________.
(1) 14.4 m³/m²/d (2) 28.8 m³/m²/d
(3) 9.6 m³/m²/d (4) 21.6 m³/m²/d
Ans. (2):
Flow rate = 0.1 m³/s
= 0.1 x 24 x 3600 m3/day
surface area of settling basin = 30 x 10 = 300 m²
Flow rate 0.1× 24 ×3600
surface overflow rate(SOR )= =
Surface area 300
= 28.8 m³/m²/day

6. The rate of filtration of a slow sand filter ranges from


(1) 10 to 100 L/h/m² (2) 100 to 200 L/h/m²
(3) 200 to 400 L/h/m² (4) 400 to 1000 L/h/m²
Ans. (2)
Slow sand filters normally utilize effluents from the plain sedimentation tanks, and are used for
relatively clear water filtration.
 The rate of filtration for slow and filters ranges between 100 to 200 liters/hour/sq.m of
filter area.
 The rate of filtration for rapid sand filters ranges between 2000 to 6000 litres/hour/sq.m
of filter area.

7. Order 4 disinfectants in increasing order of their disinfection power?


(1) Ozone < HOCI < monochloramine < NCl3
(2) Ozone < NCI3 < monochloramine < HOCI
(3) NC13 < HOCI < monochloramine < Ozone
(4) NCl3 < monochloramine < HOCI < Ozone
Ans : (1)
Disinfection power depends upon the concentration of Cl-1 ions.
Disinfectants in increasing order of their disinfection
power is-
Ozone < HOCI < monochloramine < NCI3

8. For discharging sewage and industrial effluents into stream, 5 day BOD at 20°C should not
exceed
(1) 30 mg/L (2) 50 mg/L
(3) 100 mg/L (4) 200 mg/L
Ans: (1) Table: BIS standards for sewage disposal
Parameter Domestic Sewage Industrial Sewer
Surface water life Public Sewer
stream
BOD5 20 mg/L 20 mg/L 500 mg/L
PH -- 5.5-9.0 5.5-9
Suspend solid 30 mg/L 100 mg/L 600 mg/L
Phenolic compound - 1 mg/L 5 mg/L
Cyanides - 0.2 mg/L 2 mg/L
9. One liter of sewage, when allowed to settle for 30 minutes gives a sludge volume of 27 cm³. If
the dry weight of this sludge is 3.0 grams, then its sludge volume index will be
(1) 9 (2) 24
(3) 30 (4) 81
Ans: (1)
Sludge volume Index (SVI) represents the degree of concentration of sludge in system it is
equals to the volume occupied in ml by 1 gm of solid in the mixed liquor after settling for 30
minutes.
V ob (ml/l)
SVI= ×1000 ml /l
X ob (ml/l)
where
Xob = if one liter sample of mixed liquor is allowed to settle for 30 min. and then Vob is settled
volume.
Xob = concentration of suspended solid mixed liquor in mg/L
Here,
Vob=27 cm³ = 27 ml/l
Xob=3000 mg/L
27
SVI= × 1000 ml/ g
3000
SVI = 9 mg/L

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